IPS Academy College of Pharmacy, Indore

BP-602T: Pharmacology III

Session 2023-24
MCQS
1. Codeine is used clinically as:
a) Analgesic
b) Anti-tussive
c) Anti-Diaherrea
d) All of the above
2. The following anti-asthmatic drug is not a bronchodilator:
a) Ipratropium Bromide
b) Theophylline
c) Formoterol
d) Sodium Cromoglycate
3. Select the fastest acting inhaled bronchodilator:
a) Ipratropium bromide
b) Formoterol
c) Salmeterol
d) Salbutamol
4. Budesonide is a:
a) NSAIDS
b) High ceiling diuretic
c) Inhaled Corticosteroid Asthma
d) Contraceptive
5. The First Choice drug for NSAIDS associated gastric ulcer is:
a) Omeprazole
b) Misoprostol
c) Ranitidine
d) Sucralfate
6. Which Histamine H2 Blocker has marked inhibitory effect on microsomal cytrochrome P-450
enzyme?
a) Cimetidine
b) Ranitidine
c) Roxatidine
d) Famotidine
7. Select the drug which is an inhibitor of gastric mucosal proton pump?
a) Carbanoxolone Sodium
b) Sucralfate
c) Famotidine
d) Lansoprazole
8. Drugs that remove sputum from the respiratory tract are known as:
a. Emetics c. Antidotes
b. Expectorants d. None of them
9. Ammonium chloride is used as?
a. As a diuretic c. As an acidifying agent
b. As an expectorant d. All of the above
10. Potassium iodide is used as?
a. As a source of iodine solution
b. As an expectorant
c. As an electrolyte replenisher
d. All of the above
11. Which of the following drugs used as a nasal decongestant?
A. Naphiazoline
B. Xylometazoline
C. Phenylephrine
D. All the above
12. Respiratory stimulants are the drug which are used to -----
A. Helps in patient's breathing
B. Counteract the reflex action
C. Retard the respiratory
D. None of these
13. Which of the following receptor is closed by drugs of peptic ulcer?
a. H1
b. H2
c. Proton pump
d. none
14. Which of the following drugs are anti histaminics?
a. Cimetidine
b. Omeprazole
c. Pirenzepine
d. Misoprostol
15. Which of the following drugs are anticholinergics?
a. Cimetidine
b. Omeprazole
c. Mg. hydroxide
d. Pirenzepine
16. Which drug posses” first pass metabolism”?
a. Pantoprazole
b. Roxatidine
c. Cimetidine
d. Tetracycline
17. What is infrequent bowel movement?
a. Diarrhea
b. Constipation
c. Vomiting
d. None
18. What are the causes of constipation?
a. Lack of exercises
b. Lack of fibers and liquids
c. Disease state
d. All of these.
19. What are the sign and symptoms of constipation?
 a. Infrequent defecation
b. Vomiting
c. Weight loss due to chronic constipation
d. All of these
20. Elimination of soft but formed stools.
a. Purgatives
b. Laxatives
c. Constipation
d. None
21. Which type of laxative is DOSS?
a. Bulk forming agents
b. Osmotic purgatives
c. Stool softener
d. Stimulant purgatives
22. What is the primary purpose of appetite stimulants?
a) Increase food intake
b) Reduce food intake
c) Enhance digestion
d) Boost metabolism
23. Which neurotransmitter is targeted by some appetite suppressant medications to reduce food
cravings?
a) Serotonin
b) Dopamine
c) Acetylcholine
d) GABA
24. Ghrelin is produced mainly in which organ of the body?
a) Liver
b) Stomach
c) Pancreas
d) Small intestine
25. What is the main action of carminatives in the digestive system?
a) Increase stomach acid
b) Reduce gas and bloating
c) Enhance nutrient absorption
d) Inhibit enzyme activity
26. What is the primary function of digestants?
a) Increase appetite
b) Aid in digestion
c) Reduce stomach acidity
d) Promote weight loss
27. Which enzyme is commonly found in digestive supplements to help break down carbohydrates?
a) Amylase
b) Lipase
c) Protease
d) Nuclease
28. Emetic (vomiting centre) situated in which portion of brain?
a. Medulla oblongata
b. cerebrum
c. Cerebellum
d. None
29. Where is CTZ located?
a. Lungs
b. Kidney
c. Brain
d. None
30. What are the sign and symptoms of emesis?
a. Abdominal pain
b. Diarrhea
c. Fever
d. All of above
31. Which drug act on CTZ?
a. Codeine
b. Morphine
c. Salbutamol
d. Apomorphine
32. Which of the following is an example of an antimetabolite used in cancer chemotherapy?
a) Doxorubicin
b) Paclitaxel
c) Methotrexate
d) Vincristine
33. Which class of chemotherapy drugs works by interfering with DNA replication and cell
division?
a) Alkylating agents
b) Antimetabolites
c) Topoisomerase inhibitors
d) Mitotic inhibitors
34. Which of the following is a common mechanism of action for many chemotherapy drugs?
a) Stimulation of cell division
b) Inhibition of cell division
c) Activation of immune response
d) Promotion of angiogenesis
35. Targeted therapies in cancer chemotherapy aim to:
a) Kill rapidly dividing cells
b) Block specific molecules involved in cancer growth
c) Enhance overall immune function
d) Induce apoptosis in healthy cells
36. Sulfonamides are synthetic drugs that act as:
a) Antifungal agents
b) Antibiotics
c) Antiviral agents
d) Antipyretics
37. What is the primary mechanism of action of sulfonamides?
a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
b) Inhibition of protein synthesis
c) Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
d) Inhibition of folate synthesis
38. Cotrimoxazole is a combination of sulfamethoxazole and:
a) Ampicillin
b) Clindamycin
c) Trimethoprim
d) Ciprofloxacin
39. Cotrimoxazole is commonly used to treat infections caused by:
a) Viruses
b) Fungi
c) Gram-positive bacteria
d) Gram-negative bacteria
40. The combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim in cotrimoxazole results in synergistic
antimicrobial activity by targeting two different steps in:
a) Cell wall synthesis
b) Protein synthesis
c) DNA replication
d) Folate synthesis
41. Which of the following conditions is often treated with sulfonamides?
a) Yeast infection
b) Tuberculosis
c) Urinary tract infection
d) Malaria
42. What is the primary mechanism of action of quinolones and fluoroquinolones?
a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
b) Inhibition of protein synthesis
c) Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
d) Disruption of cell membrane integrity
43. Fluoroquinolones, in comparison to first-generation quinolones, have:
a) Broader spectrum of activity
b) Narrower spectrum of activity
c) No impact on bacteria
d) Lower potency
44. Tetracyclines exert their antimicrobial effects by:
a) Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
b) Inhibiting protein synthesis
c) Inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis
d) Disrupting cell membrane integrity
45. Aminoglycosides primarily act by:
a) Inhibiting cell wall synthesis
b) Inhibiting protein synthesis
c) Inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis
d) Disrupting cell membrane integrity
46. Aminoglycosides are commonly used to treat infections caused by:
a) Gram-positive bacteria
b) Fungi
c) Gram-negative bacteria
d) Viruses
47. What is the first-line drug commonly used for the treatment of tuberculosis (TB)?
a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Isoniazid
c) Fluconazole
d) Amphotericin B
48. What is the primary mode of action of isoniazid in treating TB?
a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
b) Inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis
c) Inhibition of protein synthesis
d) Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
49. The mainstay of treatment for leprosy includes the use of:
a) Azithromycin
b) Dapsone
c) Griseofulvin
d) Terbinafine
50. Fluconazole is commonly used to treat fungal infections. What is its primary mechanism of
action?
a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
b) Inhibition of protein synthesis
c) Inhibition of fungal cytochrome P450
d) Disruption of fungal cell membrane