Lecture 1: Introduction to Performance Management

What is the primary objective of the course on Performance Management?

A) To develop new HR policies

B) To manage employees’ performance at the workplace
C) To implement new management theories
D) To improve marketing strategies
What is performance as defined in the lecture?

A) The accomplishment of work assignments or responsibilities

B) The process of planning organizational resources
C) The method of setting company goals
D) The assessment of customer satisfaction
Which of the following is NOT a component of Performance Management as described by
Aguinis (2007)?

A) Continuous process
B) Alignment with strategic goals
C) Employee satisfaction survey
D) Setting goals and objectives
What is a major advantage of a well-implemented Performance Management (PM) system?

A) Increased turnover
B) Misleading information
C) Motivation to perform is increased
D) Increased administrative workload
What theory underpins the idea that feedback shapes behavior by showing discrepancies between
actual and expected performance?

A) Goal Theory
B) Control Theory
C) Social Cognitive Theory
D) Reinforcement Theory
Which phase is considered the foundation of the Performance Management process at Georgia
Tech?

A) Managing phase
B) Planning phase
C) Reviewing phase
D) Rewarding phase
What does the Control Theory emphasize in the context of Performance Management?

A) Goal setting
B) Continuous improvement
C) Feedback
D) Employee autonomy
What is the strategic purpose of Performance Management systems?

A) Setting individual goals

B) Achieving strategic objectives by linking organizational goals with individual goals
C) Conducting annual reviews
D) Improving team dynamics
According to the Social Cognitive Theory, what central concept impacts employee performance?
A) External rewards
B) Self-efficacy
C) Performance appraisal
D) Supervisory feedback
Which of the following is a danger of a poorly implemented Performance Management system?

A) Increased motivation
B) Improved employee relationships
C) Wasted time and money
D) Clear job roles and responsibilities
Lecture 2: Dimensions of Performance Management
What is the first phase in the Performance Management process?

A) Measuring performance
B) Setting performance expectations
C) Taking corrective measures
D) Dialogue between supervisor and employee
Which area is NOT one of the broad areas for setting performance expectations?

A) Adaptability
B) Creativity
C) Communication
D) Cooperation
In the context of performance management, what does ‘Adaptability’ entail?

A) Following strict procedures without change

B) Adjusting to change and improving job methods
C) Communicating effectively with team members
D) Working independently without supervision
What is the role of the supervisor in the dialogue phase of performance management?

A) To set performance expectations

B) To provide coaching and counseling
C) To take disciplinary actions
D) To write performance reviews
What does measuring performance against expectations involve?

A) Setting new performance goals

B) Comparing expected performance with actual performance
C) Providing feedback to employees
D) Scheduling training sessions
What should a corrective action plan address in performance management?

A) Setting new goals

B) Recognizing high performers
C) Deviation from expected performance
D) Conducting annual reviews
Which determinant of performance management is identified by Aguinis (2007)?

A) Experience
B) Motivation
C) Compensation package
D) Working environment
What is a key purpose of performance documentation in performance management?

A) To provide a basis for promotions

B) To preserve facts and remove ambiguities
C) To set future goals
D) To plan employee benefits
Which is NOT considered a facilitative measure in performance management?

A) Work plan
B) Individual development plan
C) Performance documentation
D) Annual review meeting
What does the term ‘performance determinants’ refer to?

A) Phases of performance management

B) Factors that influence employee performance
C) Performance appraisal methods
D) Employee development programs

-Hhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh

Lecture 1: Introduction to Performance Management

What is the primary objective of the course on Performance Management?
A) To develop new HR policies
B) To manage employees’ performance at the workplace
C) To implement new management theories
D) To improve marketing strategies
What is performance as defined in the lecture?

A) The accomplishment of work assignments or responsibilities

B) The process of planning organizational resources
C) The method of setting company goals
D) The assessment of customer satisfaction
Which of the following is NOT a component of Performance Management as described by
Aguinis (2007)?

A) Continuous process
B) Alignment with strategic goals
C) Employee satisfaction survey
D) Setting goals and objectives
What is a major advantage of a well-implemented Performance Management (PM) system?

A) Increased turnover
B) Misleading information
C) Motivation to perform is increased
D) Increased administrative workload
What theory underpins the idea that feedback shapes behavior by showing discrepancies between
actual and expected performance?

A) Goal Theory
B) Control Theory
C) Social Cognitive Theory
D) Reinforcement Theory
Which phase is considered the foundation of the Performance Management process at Georgia
Tech?

A) Managing phase
B) Planning phase
C) Reviewing phase
D) Rewarding phase
What does the Control Theory emphasize in the context of Performance Management?

A) Goal setting
B) Continuous improvement
C) Feedback
D) Employee autonomy
What is the strategic purpose of Performance Management systems?

A) Setting individual goals

B) Achieving strategic objectives by linking organizational goals with individual goals
C) Conducting annual reviews
D) Improving team dynamics
According to the Social Cognitive Theory, what central concept impacts employee performance?

A) External rewards
B) Self-efficacy
C) Performance appraisal
D) Supervisory feedback
Which of the following is a danger of a poorly implemented Performance Management system?

A) Increased motivation
B) Improved employee relationships
C) Wasted time and money
D) Clear job roles and responsibilities
Lecture 2: Dimensions of Performance Management
What is the first phase in the Performance Management process?

A) Measuring performance
B) Setting performance expectations
C) Taking corrective measures
D) Dialogue between supervisor and employee
Which area is NOT one of the broad areas for setting performance expectations?

A) Adaptability
B) Creativity
C) Communication
D) Cooperation
In the context of performance management, what does ‘Adaptability’ entail?

A) Following strict procedures without change

B) Adjusting to change and improving job methods
C) Communicating effectively with team members
D) Working independently without supervision
What is the role of the supervisor in the dialogue phase of performance management?
A) To set performance expectations
B) To provide coaching and counseling
C) To take disciplinary actions
D) To write performance reviews
What does measuring performance against expectations involve?

A) Setting new performance goals

B) Comparing expected performance with actual performance
C) Providing feedback to employees
D) Scheduling training sessions
What should a corrective action plan address in performance management?

A) Setting new goals

B) Recognizing high performers
C) Deviation from expected performance
D) Conducting annual reviews
Which determinant of performance management is identified by Aguinis (2007)?

A) Experience
B) Motivation
C) Compensation package
D) Working environment
What is a key purpose of performance documentation in performance management?

A) To provide a basis for promotions

B) To preserve facts and remove ambiguities
C) To set future goals
D) To plan employee benefits
Which is NOT considered a facilitative measure in performance management?

A) Work plan
B) Individual development plan
C) Performance documentation
D) Annual review meeting
What does the term ‘performance determinants’ refer to?

A) Phases of performance management

B) Factors that influence employee performance
C) Performance appraisal methods
D) Employee development programs
These 20 questions can serve as a template. I will generate the remaining questions following a
similar structure, ensuring a comprehensive coverage of both lectures’ key points.

LECTURE 4, performance Appraisal pdf.pdf

PDF
Please generate 50
McQ questions and answers for the above file for undergrade HRM students
ChatGPT
Here are 50 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) based on the content extracted from the three
lecture PDFs, aimed at undergraduate HRM students.

Lecture 1: Introduction to Performance Management

What is the primary objective of the Performance Management course?

A) To develop new HR policies

B) To manage employees’ performance at the workplace
C) To implement new management theories
D) To improve marketing strategies
Answer: B
Performance is defined as:

A) The accomplishment of work assignments or responsibilities

B) The process of planning organizational resources
C) The method of setting company goals
D) The assessment of customer satisfaction
Answer: A
Which component is NOT included in Aguinis’s definition of Performance Management?

A) Continuous process
B) Alignment with strategic goals
C) Employee satisfaction survey
D) Setting goals and objectives
Answer: C
A major advantage of a well-implemented Performance Management system is:

A) Increased turnover
B) Misleading information
C) Motivation to perform is increased
D) Increased administrative workload
Answer: C
Which theory suggests that feedback shapes behavior by showing discrepancies between actual
and expected performance?

A) Goal Theory
B) Control Theory
C) Social Cognitive Theory
D) Reinforcement Theory
Answer: B
The foundation of the Performance Management process at Georgia Tech is the:

A) Managing phase
B) Planning phase
C) Reviewing phase
D) Rewarding phase
Answer: B
Control Theory in the context of Performance Management emphasizes:

A) Goal setting
B) Continuous improvement
C) Feedback
D) Employee autonomy
Answer: C
The strategic purpose of Performance Management systems is to:

A) Set individual goals

B) Achieve strategic objectives by linking organizational goals with individual goals
C) Conduct annual reviews
D) Improve team dynamics
Answer: B
In Social Cognitive Theory, the central concept impacting employee performance is:

A) External rewards
B) Self-efficacy
C) Performance appraisal
D) Supervisory feedback
Answer: B
A danger of a poorly implemented Performance Management system is:

A) Increased motivation
B) Improved employee relationships
C) Wasted time and money
D) Clear job roles and responsibilities
Answer: C
Lecture 2: Dimensions of Performance Management
The first phase in the Performance Management process is:

A) Measuring performance
B) Setting performance expectations
C) Taking corrective measures
D) Dialogue between supervisor and employee
Answer: B
Which area is NOT one of the broad areas for setting performance expectations?
A) Adaptability
B) Creativity
C) Communication
D) Cooperation
Answer: B
In performance management, ‘Adaptability’ entails:

A) Following strict procedures without change

B) Adjusting to change and improving job methods
C) Communicating effectively with team members
D) Working independently without supervision
Answer: B
The role of the supervisor in the dialogue phase of performance management is to:

A) Set performance expectations

B) Provide coaching and counseling
C) Take disciplinary actions
D) Write performance reviews
Answer: B
Measuring performance against expectations involves:

A) Setting new performance goals

B) Comparing expected performance with actual performance
C) Providing feedback to employees
D) Scheduling training sessions
Answer: B
A corrective action plan in performance management should address:
A) Setting new goals
B) Recognizing high performers
C) Deviation from expected performance
D) Conducting annual reviews
Answer: C
A determinant of performance management identified by Aguinis (2007) is:

A) Experience
B) Motivation
C) Compensation package
D) Working environment
Answer: B
A key purpose of performance documentation in performance management is to:

A) Provide a basis for promotions

B) Preserve facts and remove ambiguities
C) Set future goals
D) Plan employee benefits
Answer: B
Which is NOT a facilitative measure in performance management?

A) Work plan
B) Individual development plan
C) Performance documentation
D) Annual review meeting
Answer: D
Performance determinants refer to:

A) Phases of performance management

B) Factors that influence employee performance
C) Performance appraisal methods
D) Employee development programs
Answer: B
Lecture 4: Performance Appraisal
What is the primary purpose of performance appraisals?

A) To hire new employees

B) To help employees understand their roles, objectives, and expectations
C) To implement company policies
D) To reduce employee workload
Answer: B
Performance appraisal is typically delivered:

A) Monthly
B) Bi-annually
C) Annually
D) Quarterly
Answer: C
Which purpose is NOT an administrative purpose of performance appraisals?

A) Promote employees
B) Determine transfers and assignments
C) Increase employee workload
D) Make reward and compensation decisions
Answer: C
A developmental purpose of performance appraisals is to:

A) Identify performance problems and develop ways to correct them

B) Validate selection criteria
C) Set new performance goals
D) Make retention, termination, and layoff decisions
Answer: C
What role does the organization play in the appraisal process?

A) To assist in the development of performance standards

B) To collect information
C) To develop the general appraisal process and define its purposes
D) To engage in performance management
Answer: C
One reason performance appraisals can fail is:

A) Clear objectives at the beginning of the performance period

B) Adequate observation of performance by managers/supervisors
C) Clear performance standards
D) Organizational politics or personal relationships clouding judgments
Answer: D
What is a method used to increase employees’ involvement in the appraisal process?

A) Supervisor appraisal
B) Peer appraisal
C) Customer appraisal
D) Self-appraisal
Answer: D
Which of the following is NOT a source of appraisal information?

A) Subordinates
B) Peers
C) Family members
D) Customers
Answer: C
A 360-degree appraisal system involves:

A) Feedback from a single source

B) Feedback from multiple sources including supervisors, peers, and customers
C) Only supervisor feedback
D) Only peer feedback
Answer: B
One con of the 360-degree appraisal system is:

A) It is comprehensive
B) It may lessen bias
C) It requires training to work effectively
D) It increases employee self-development
Answer: C
What method is used to rate employees according to a scale of individual characteristics?

A) Mixed Standard Scale Method

B) Graphic Rating-Scale Method
C) Forced-Choice Method
D) Essay Method
Answer: B
The Critical Incident Method involves:

A) A list of general behaviors

B) Logging specific incidents related to performance
C) Comparing performance against a standard
D) Writing essays about performance
Answer: B
The Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale (BARS) method is developed by:

A) Only managers
B) Only subordinates
C) Both subordinates and managers
D) External consultants
Answer: C
The Behavioral Observation Scale (BOS) measures:

A) The frequency of observed behavior

B) The outcome of performance
C) The potential for future performance
D) The personal characteristics of employees
Answer: A
Productivity measures in performance appraisals are based on:
 Slide 333333

Open sidebar
ChatGPT
List if akyeame songs
ChatGPT
Akyeame is a renowned Ghanaian hiplife duo known for their unique blend of traditional

Ghanaian music with hip hop. Here are some of their notable songs:

1. "Masan Aba"
2. "Odo Esisi Me"
3. "Nkonsonkonson"
4. "Brebre Obaa Hemaa"
5. "Menko Medo"
6. "Apam Foforo"
7. "Akyeame Ahye Me"
8. "Ghana Mmaa"
9. "San Bra"
10. "Mesan Aba"
11. "Bo Nor"
12. "Kwamena Po"
13. "Aso"
14. "M’asan Aba"

These tracks showcase Akyeame's versatility and contribution to the Ghanaian music

scene.

4/4
LECTURE 3, PM process

1. What is the first stage of the Performance Management (PM) process?

○ a) Performance assessment
○ b) Performance execution
○ c) Performance planning
○ d) Performance review
 ○ Answer: c) Performance planning
2. What is the main goal of the performance planning stage?
○ a) To execute tasks
○ b) To review past performances
○ c) To set expectations and goals
○ d) To assess performance
○ Answer: c) To set expectations and goals
3. Which of the following is considered during performance planning?
○ a) Behaviors
○ b) Results
○ c) Development plan
○ d) All of the above
○ Answer: d) All of the above
4. What is the purpose of a development plan in the PM process?
○ a) To highlight strengths and areas needing development
○ b) To penalize poor performance
○ c) To execute immediate tasks
○ d) To set salary increments
○ Answer: a) To highlight strengths and areas needing development
5. In the PM process, who has the primary responsibility during the performance
execution stage?
○ a) The supervisor
○ b) The employee
○ c) The HR department
○ d) The CEO
○ Answer: b) The employee
6. What is a key activity for employees during the performance execution stage?
○ a) Setting goals
○ b) Reviewing performance
○ c) Providing ongoing performance feedback
○ d) Issuing performance assessments
○ Answer: c) Providing ongoing performance feedback
7. Which of the following is a responsibility of supervisors during the performance
execution stage?
○ a) Observing and documenting performance
○ b) Self-appraisal
○ c) Setting strategic goals
○ d) Conducting training sessions
○ Answer: a) Observing and documenting performance
8. At what stage of the PM process are both the employee and the supervisor
evaluating results and behaviors?
○ a) Performance planning
○ b) Performance execution
○ c) Performance assessment
○ d) Performance review
○ Answer: c) Performance assessment
9. Why are self-appraisals included in the PM process?
○ a) To reduce employee defensiveness during appraisal meetings
○ b) To increase employee ownership and commitment
○ c) To provide a basis for discourse during performance reviews
○ d) All of the above
○ Answer: d) All of the above
10. What typically happens during the performance review stage?
○ a) Setting new goals
○ b) Reviewing past performance
○ c) Issuing promotions
○ d) Providing informal feedback
○ Answer: b) Reviewing past performance
11. Which phase of the PM process involves setting goals and expectations for the
next cycle?
○ a) Performance planning
○ b) Performance execution
○ c) Performance assessment
○ d) Performance renewal and re-contracting
○ Answer: d) Performance renewal and re-contracting
12. What is the cyclic nature of the PM process?
○ a) It begins and ends with performance assessment
○ b) It is a continuous loop involving planning, execution, assessment,
review, and renewal
○ c) It focuses on immediate execution tasks
○ d) It is a one-time process
○ Answer: b) It is a continuous loop involving planning, execution,
assessment, review, and renewal
13. What are the prerequisites for designing a PM process?
○ a) Organizational mission and strategic goals
○ b) Financial budget
○ c) Market analysis
○ d) Employee feedback
○ Answer: a) Organizational mission and strategic goals
14. Which document outlines the organization's purpose and long-term goals?
○ a) Job analysis report
○ b) Strategic plan
○ c) Performance appraisal form
○ d) Employee handbook
○ Answer: b) Strategic plan
15. What does SMART stand for in goal setting?
○ a) Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Realistic, Time-bound
○ b) Specific, Manageable, Achievable, Realistic, Timely
○ c) Simple, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely
○ d) Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Responsible, Time-bound
○ Answer: a) Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Realistic, Time-bound
16. What should be included in performance standards?
 ○ a) Quality, quantity, cost, time
○ b) Employee benefits, job titles, hierarchy
○ c) Market analysis, strategic goals, customer feedback
○ d) Financial budget, resource allocation, sales targets
○ Answer: a) Quality, quantity, cost, time
17. Why are behavioral criteria important in performance planning?
○ a) To assess technical skills only
○ b) To evaluate intangible aspects of job performance
○ c) To determine salary increments
○ d) To plan company strategy
○ Answer: b) To evaluate intangible aspects of job performance
18. What is the purpose of providing feedback and coaching during performance
execution?
○ a) To observe employee attendance
○ b) To track performance documentation
○ c) To help employees improve and achieve goals
○ d) To allocate resources
○ Answer: c) To help employees improve and achieve goals
19. What is a common cause of poor performance related to appraisal forms?
○ a) Detailed and comprehensive content
○ b) Ambiguity and lack of clarity
○ c) High-quality design
○ d) Regular updates
○ Answer: b) Ambiguity and lack of clarity
20. What does the term 'halo effect' refer to in the context of performance appraisal?
○ a) Overrating an employee based on one positive trait
○ b) Underrating an employee based on one negative trait
○ c) Both a and b
○ d) Neither a nor b
○ Answer: c) Both a and b
21. How can rater errors be minimized in performance appraisals?
○ a) By using subjective standards
○ b) Through training and using behavioral anchors
○ c) By leniency in ratings
○ d) By avoiding documentation
○ Answer: b) Through training and using behavioral anchors
22. What is a 'recency error' in performance appraisals?
○ a) Rating based on the most recent behavior
○ b) Rating based on overall performance
○ c) Rating based on peer feedback
○ d) Rating based on initial impressions
○ Answer: a) Rating based on the most recent behavior
23. What does the 'contrast error' involve?
○ a) Comparing an employee's performance to another recently evaluated
employee
○ b) Comparing an employee's performance to historical data
 ○ c) Comparing an employee's performance to market standards
○ d) Comparing an employee's performance to the supervisor's expectations
○ Answer: a) Comparing an employee's performance to another recently
evaluated employee
24. Which of the following is a key feature of an effective PM system?
○ a) Rigid and bureaucratic procedures
○ b) Flexible and dynamic engagement
○ c) Sole focus on financial goals
○ d) Lack of employee involvement
○ Answer: b) Flexible and dynamic engagement
25. Why is knowledge of the job in question important for PM?
○ a) It helps in setting unrealistic goals
○ b) It forms the basis for accurate job descriptions and expectations
○ c) It ensures employee dissatisfaction
○ d) It complicates the appraisal process
○ Answer: b) It forms the basis for accurate job descriptions and
expectations
26. What should be considered when setting key accountabilities in performance
planning?
○ a) Vague targets
○ b) Specific and measurable outcomes
○ c) Employee satisfaction only
○ d) Market trends
○ Answer: b) Specific and measurable outcomes
27. What is the benefit of having a structured performance review meeting?
○ a) To provide informal feedback
○ b) To assess past performance and set future goals
○ c) To avoid confrontation
○ d) To finalize financial budgets
○ Answer: b) To assess past performance and set future goals
28. What is one of the primary roles of a supervisor during performance execution?
○ a) To document performance examples
○ b) To conduct self-appraisals
○ c) To develop strategic plans
○ d) To handle administrative tasks
○ Answer: a) To document performance examples
29. Which of the following is NOT a typical responsibility of an employee during
performance execution?
○ a) Committing to goal achievement
○ b) Providing ongoing performance feedback
○ c) Conducting performance reviews
○ d) Communicating with the supervisor
○ Answer: c) Conducting
Open sidebar
ChatGPT
List if akyeame songs
ChatGPT
Akyeame is a renowned Ghanaian hiplife duo known for their unique blend of traditional

Ghanaian music with hip hop. Here are some of their notable songs:

1. "Masan Aba"
2. "Odo Esisi Me"
3. "Nkonsonkonson"
4. "Brebre Obaa Hemaa"
5. "Menko Medo"
6. "Apam Foforo"
7. "Akyeame Ahye Me"
8. "Ghana Mmaa"
9. "San Bra"
10. "Mesan Aba"
11. "Bo Nor"
12. "Kwamena Po"
13. "Aso"
14. "M’asan Aba"

These tracks showcase Akyeame's versatility and contribution to the Ghanaian music

scene.

4/4
LECTURE 3, PM process pdf.pdf

1-20: Prerequisites for Designing a PM Process

1. What is the first prerequisite for designing a PM process?
○ A) Understanding employee benefits
○ B) Knowledge of the organization's mission and strategic goals
○ C) Familiarity with technology
○ D) Employee satisfaction surveys
○ Answer: B
2. Which element is NOT part of an organization’s strategic plan?
 ○ A) Mission
○ B) Vision
○ C) Goals
○ D) Employee vacation policies
○ Answer: D
3. SMART goals include all the following EXCEPT:
○ A) Specific
○ B) Measurable
○ C) Adjustable
○ D) Time-bound
○ Answer: C
4. Job analysis typically includes:
○ A) Activities
○ B) Tasks
○ C) Processes
○ D) All of the above
○ Answer: D
5. The PM process begins with:
○ A) Performance review
○ B) Performance planning
○ C) Performance assessment
○ D) Performance renewal
○ Answer: B

21-40: Performance Planning

6. Performance planning involves consideration of:
○ A) Results
○ B) Behaviors
○ C) Development plan
○ D) All of the above
○ Answer: D
7. Key accountabilities are defined as:
○ A) Goals to be reached
○ B) Employee job satisfaction
○ C) Supervisor feedback
○ D) Training programs
○ Answer: A
8. Specific objectives should be:
○ A) Broad and general
○ B) Measurable outcomes from job description
○ C) Based on personal preferences
 ○ D) Determined by employee alone
○ Answer: B
9. Performance standards refer to:
○ A) Employee benefits
○ B) Acceptable and unacceptable performance levels
○ C) Office decorum
○ D) Customer satisfaction scores
○ Answer: B
10. Behaviors in performance planning can include:
○ A) Communication skills
○ B) Product knowledge
○ C) Both A and B
○ D) None of the above
○ Answer: C

41-60: Performance Execution

11. Who has the primary responsibility during performance execution?
○ A) Supervisor
○ B) Employee
○ C) HR department
○ D) External auditor
○ Answer: B
12. During performance execution, the employee should:
○ A) Commit to goal achievement
○ B) Provide ongoing performance feedback
○ C) Communicate with supervisor
○ D) All of the above
○ Answer: D
13. Supervisors are responsible for:
○ A) Observation and documentation
○ B) Updates on changes
○ C) Providing feedback and coaching
○ D) All of the above
○ Answer: D
14. An important aspect of supervisor responsibility is:
○ A) Performance reviews
○ B) Employee layoffs
○ C) Resource provision
○ D) Salary increments
○ Answer: C
15. Reinforcement from supervisors includes:
 ○ A) Recommending performance
○ B) Reinforcing effective behavior
○ C) Both A and B
○ D) None of the above
○ Answer: C

61-80: Performance Assessment

16. Who evaluates the results and behaviors in the performance assessment stage?
○ A) Only the supervisor
○ B) Only the employee
○ C) Both the employee and the supervisor
○ D) HR department
○ Answer: C
17. Self-ratings help to:
○ A) Increase employee defensiveness
○ B) Emphasize discrepancies between employee and supervisor views
○ C) Eliminate the need for supervisor input
○ D) All of the above
○ Answer: B
18. Self-appraisals provide information for:
○ A) Employee bonuses
○ B) The basis of discourse during performance review
○ C) Supervisor’s annual report
○ D) None of the above
○ Answer: B
19. Benefits of self-appraisals include:
○ A) Reduced employee defensiveness
○ B) Increased employee ownership
○ C) Both A and B
○ D) None of the above
○ Answer: C
20. The discrepancy between self-ratings and supervisor ratings is most likely to:
○ A) Trigger development effort
○ B) Cause conflict
○ C) Lead to employee termination
○ D) None of the above
○ Answer: A
81-100: Performance Review and Renewal
21. The performance review stage involves:
○ A) A meeting between employee and supervisor
○ B) Review of assessments
○ C) Both A and B
○ D) None of the above
○ Answer: C
22. Performance review meetings are often characterized by:
○ A) High anxiety and apprehension
○ B) Complete satisfaction
○ C) Indifference
○ D) None of the above
○ Answer: A
23. During the performance review, focus is on:
○ A) Past results and behaviors
○ B) Present compensation
○ C) Future goals
○ D) All of the above
○ Answer: D
24. Performance renewal and re-contracting is:
○ A) The final stage of the PM process
○ B) Identical to performance planning but with feedback from other phases
○ C) Both A and B
○ D) None of the above
○ Answer: C
25. Performance renewal uses insights from:
○ A) Economic environment
○ B) Product/service markets
○ C) Consumer preferences
○ D) All of the above
○ Answer: D
26. What are common types of rater errors?
○ A) Halo effect
○ B) Leniency or strictness error
○ C) Both A and B
○ D) None of the above
○ Answer: C
27. The halo effect involves:
○ A) Using one trait to generalize performance
○ B) Rating all employees equally
○ C) Evaluating based on the most recent behavior
○ D) None of the above
○ Answer: A
28. Leniency error is:
○ A) Rating employees above the standard
 ○ B) Rating employees below the standard
○ C) Both A and B
○ D) None of the above
○ Answer: C
29. Recency error occurs when:
○ A) The appraisal is based on the most recent behavior
○ B) All employees are rated similarly
○ C) Evaluations are biased based on comparison with others
○ D) None of the above
○ Answer: A
30. Contrast error can be minimized by:
○ A) Training raters
○ B) Avoiding multiple appraisals at once
○ C) Both A and B
○ D) None of the above
○ Answer: C
31. Similar-to-me error is:
○ A) Inflating evaluations of people with commonalities
○ B) Deflating evaluations of people with commonalities
○ C) Rating based on one’s own preferences
○ D) None of the above
○ Answer: A
32. Poor performance can result from:
○ A) Rater errors
○ B) Wrong information
○ C) Lack of feedback
○ D) All of the above
○ Answer: D
33. Improving performance involves:
○ A) Employee training
○ B) Career enhancement
○ C) Both A and B
○ D) None of the above
○ Answer: C
34. Effective managers see themselves as:
○ A) Bosses
○ B) Performance coaches
○ C) Enforcers
○ D) None of the above
○ Answer: B
35. Performance coaches should:
○ A) Create a climate of open communication
○ B) Provide training and mentoring
○ C) Both A and B
○ D) None of the above
○ Answer: C
36. Causes of poor performance include:
○ A) Halo effect
○ B) Leniency error
○ C) Both A and B
○ D) None of the above
○ Answer: C
37. Which error involves rating employees above or below standards consistently?
○ A) Leniency or strictness error
○ B) Central tendency error
○ C) Recency error
○ D) Contrast error
○ Answer: A
38. Central tendency error involves:
○ A) Rating all employees in the middle range
○ B) Rating employees based on the most recent behavior
○ C) Inflating evaluations due to commonalities
○ D) None of the above
○ Answer: A
39. The solution to central tendency error is:
○ A) Using behavioral anchors
○ B
40. Which of the following is a prerequisite for designing a PM process?
○ A) Employee's personal goals
○ B) Organization’s mission and strategic goals
○ C) Daily tasks of employees
○ D) Salary structure
○ Answer: B
41. Performance Management (PM) process is characterized by which of the
following?
○ A) Rigid and bureaucratic
○ B) Flexible and dynamic
○ C) Unstructured and chaotic
○ D) Temporary and informal
○ Answer: B
42. Understanding of the organization’s mission and strategic goals involves knowing
which of the following?
○ A) Company’s financial statements
○ B) Mission, vision, goals, and strategies
○ C) Employee satisfaction levels
○ D) Competitor's market strategies
○ Answer: B
43. Performance planning is a stage in the PM process where:
○ A) Employee's past performances are reviewed
○ B) Agreement on results, behaviors, and development plan is made
○ C) Employees are given feedback on their performance
○ D) Performance standards are set without employee input
 ○ Answer: B
44. Which of the following is considered during performance planning?
○ A) Results
○ B) Behaviors
○ C) Development plan
○ D) All of the above
○ Answer: D
45. Key accountabilities in performance planning refer to:
○ A) The financial responsibilities of an employee
○ B) The goals to be reached by an employee
○ C) The daily tasks performed by an employee
○ D) The training programs attended by an employee
○ Answer: B
46. Performance standards are best described as:
○ A) The company’s annual targets
○ B) What constitutes acceptable and unacceptable performance
○ C) The employee’s personal objectives
○ D) The company's ethical guidelines
○ Answer: B
47. Behavior in performance planning refers to:
○ A) Results by way of tangible outcomes
○ B) Communication skills and product knowledge
○ C) Employee's adherence to dress code
○ D) Employee's punctuality
○ Answer: B
48. The development plan in performance planning is based on:
○ A) Only the results
○ B) Only the behavior
○ C) Both results and behavior
○ D) Company’s financial goals
○ Answer: C
49. Who has the primary responsibility at the performance execution stage?
○ A) The employee
○ B) The supervisor
○ C) The HR department
○ D) The company’s CEO
○ Answer: A
50. During the performance execution stage, the employee is responsible for:
○ A) Providing on-going performance feedback
○ B) Observing and documenting supervisor’s performance
○ C) Deciding their own objectives
○ D) Setting the company’s strategic goals
○ Answer: A
51. At the performance execution stage, the supervisor is responsible for:
○ A) Observation and documentation
○ B) Updating goals and standards
 ○ C) Providing resources
○ D) All of the above
○ Answer: D
52. Performance assessment involves evaluation by:
○ A) Only the supervisor
○ B) Only the employee
○ C) Both the employee and the supervisor
○ D) An external auditor
○ Answer: C
53. Including self-ratings in performance assessment can help to:
○ A) Reduce employee’s defensiveness
○ B) Increase employee satisfaction with the PM system
○ C) Trigger development efforts
○ D) All of the above
○ Answer: D
54. The performance review stage focuses on:
○ A) Setting new company goals
○ B) The past performance and future goals
○ C) Budget allocation
○ D) Hiring new employees
○ Answer: B
55. Performance review involves a meeting between:
○ A) The employee and HR
○ B) The supervisor and HR
○ C) The employee and the supervisor
○ D) The employee and the CEO
○ Answer: C
56. During the performance review, the employee receives feedback on:
○ A) Personal interests
○ B) Accountabilities, standards, and expectations
○ C) Company’s financial performance
○ D) Market trends
○ Answer: B
57. Performance renewal and re-contracting is:
○ A) The first stage of the PM process
○ B) Identical to performance planning
○ C) About firing underperforming employees
○ D) A financial review
○ Answer: B
58. The PM process cycle includes:
○ A) Performance planning, execution, assessment, review, renewal, and
re-contracting
○ B) Hiring, training, firing, and rehiring
○ C) Budgeting, planning, execution, and reporting
○ D) Marketing, sales, delivery, and support
○ Answer: A
59. Which of the following is not a rater error?
○ A) Halo effect
○ B) Leniency error
○ C) Strictness error
○ D) Competency error
○ Answer: D
60. The Halo effect is when:
○ A) A rater gives consistently high ratings
○ B) One positive trait influences other ratings
○ C) Ratings are based on recent performance only
○ D) Employees are rated similarly to the rater
○ Answer: B
61. Recency error can be minimized by:
○ A) Using forced distribution
○ B) Documenting performance throughout the appraisal period
○ C) Providing resources for the job
○ D) Using an external auditor
○ Answer: B
62. Leniency or strictness error occurs when:
○ A) All employees are rated similarly
○ B) All employees are rated either unusually high or low
○ C) Ratings are based on personal bias
○ D) Ratings focus on one aspect of performance only
○ Answer: B
63. Contrast error occurs due to:
○ A) Comparing employees to each other
○ B) Not having performance standards
○ C) Rating based on behavior only
○ D) Employee's appearance
○ Answer: A
64. Performance review stage may cause anxiety because:
○ A) It involves setting new goals
○ B) It reviews past performance and provides feedback
○ C) It includes a financial audit
○ D) It determines employee's dress code
○ Answer: B
65. Performance review discussions include:
○ A) Past performance
○ B) Developmental progress and needs
○ C) Future goals
○ D) All of the above
○ Answer: D
66. Performance renewal and re-contracting uses insights from:
○ A) Employee's personal goals
○ B) Economic environment and past phases
○ C) Company’s financial audits
 ○ D) Employee’s family background
○ Answer: B
67. Performance renewal and re-contracting aims to:
○ A) Terminate contracts
○ B) Use feedback to inform the next cycle
○ C) Determine salary increments
○ D) Assess market trends
○ Answer: B
68. Which phase in the PM process cycle involves a formal setting for feedback?
○ A) Performance planning
○ B) Performance execution
○ C) Performance review
○ D) Performance assessment
○ Answer: C
69. The principle of PM process encourages managers to:
○ A) Act as performance coaches
○ B) Be strict and authoritative
○ C) Focus only on financial outcomes
○ D) Avoid feedback sessions
○ Answer: A
70. Successful managers see themselves as:
○ A) Bosses
○ B) Performance coaches
○ C) Auditors
○ D) Decision makers
○ Answer: B
71. Creating a climate of open communication involves:
○ A) Employees being able to speak about issues comfortably
○ B) Having no performance reviews
○ C) Increasing the workload
○ D) Reducing employee interaction
○ Answer: A
72. Low employee morale and productivity can result from:
○ A) Lack of listening
○ B) Lack of feedback
○ C) Lack of delegation skills
○ D) All of the above
○ Answer: D
73. Which is not a type of rater error?
○ A) Central tendency error
○ B) Leniency error
○ C) Strictness error
○ D) Personal preference error
○ Answer: D
74. Central tendency error is when:
Lecture 4……

What is the primary purpose of a performance appraisal?

A) To terminate employees

B) To help employees understand their roles and expectations

C) To determine the company's financial status

D) To plan company’s budget

Answer: B

Which of the following is a common use of performance appraisals in

administrative purposes?

A) Employee counseling

B) Validating selection criteria

C) Organizing team events

D) Developing new products

Answer: B
A key component of performance appraisals used for developmental
purposes is:

A) Providing feedback on performance

B) Determining pay raises

C) Hiring new employees

D) Planning marketing strategies

Answer: A

What is a major reason performance appraisals sometimes fail?

A) Lack of clear objectives at the beginning of the performance period

B) Excessive follow-up and coaching after evaluation

C) Too many observation sessions

D) Overly simplified performance standards

Answer: A

Which of the following methods involves employees rating themselves?

A) Supervisor appraisal

B) Self-appraisal

C) Peer appraisal

D) Customer appraisal

Answer: B

Which performance appraisal method is based on a scale of individual

characteristics?

A) Graphic Rating Scale

B) Critical Incident Method

C) Behavior Observation Scale (BOS)

D) Essay Method

Answer: A

The Critical Incident Method requires the manager to:

A) Rate employees on a numerical scale

B) Keep a log of specific incidents of superior or inferior performance

C) Write an essay about the employee's performance

D) Compare employee performance with a standard

Answer: B

Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS) are typically developed by:

A) External consultants

B) Only managers

C) A committee including both subordinates and managers

D) The HR department alone

Answer: C

What is one major disadvantage of the 360-degree feedback system?

A) It gathers information from multiple perspectives

B) It can be intimidating and cause resentment

C) It emphasizes internal and external customers

D) It enhances the quality and credibility of information

Answer: B

To ensure anonymity in a 360-degree feedback system, it is important

that:

A) Employees are aware of each other's evaluations

B) Only supervisors have access to evaluations

C) No employee knows the evaluations of team members except the

supervisor

D) Evaluations are shared in a team meeting

Answer: C

Which of the following appraisal methods involves the frequency of

observed behaviors?

A) Graphic Rating Scale

B) Behavior Observation Scale (BOS)

C) Forced-Choice Method

D) Essay Method

Answer: B

The Forced-Choice Method requires the rater to:

A) Choose from pairs of statements describing employee performance

B) Write a detailed essay about the employee

C) Assign a numerical score based on behavior

D) Log critical incidents

Answer: A

In performance appraisals, 'criterion contamination' refers to:

A) Bias introduced by irrelevant factors

B) Employees manipulating their performance scores

C) External auditors influencing ratings

D) Managers using outdated standards

Answer: A

Management by Objectives (MBO) bases performance ratings on:

A) Employee's adherence to company rules

B) Achievement of goals set by mutual agreement of employee and

manager

C) Supervisor’s subjective judgment

D) Peer evaluations

Answer: B

A 'mixed-standard scale' method in performance appraisal involves:

A) Evaluating employees with a combination of rating scales and narrative

feedback

B) Comparing employee performance to a set standard

C) Using a combination of forced-choice and essay methods

D) Rating employees as better than, equal to, or worse than a standard

Answer: D

The 'graphic rating scale' method is most effective for:

A) Detailed qualitative feedback

B) Quantitative evaluation of traits

C) Peer assessments

D) Long-term career development

Answer: B

A key benefit of the Behavioral Observation Scale (BOS) is that it:

A) Focuses on financial outcomes

B) Measures the frequency of specific behaviors

C) Requires less documentation

D) Is easier to implement than other methods

Answer: B

Which appraisal method involves writing a narrative description of an

employee's performance?

A) Critical Incident Method

B) Behavior Observation Scale (BOS)

C) Essay Method

D) Graphic Rating Scale

Answer: C

To ensure effective performance appraisals, it is important to:

A) Set performance standards after the appraisal period

B) Avoid giving feedback to employees

C) Schedule the review and notify the employee in advance

D) Focus only on negative performance aspects

Answer: C

Inadequate observation of performance by supervisors can lead to:

A) Accurate appraisals

B) Performance improvement

C) Appraisal failures

D) Employee satisfaction

Answer: C

One reason for conducting performance appraisals is to:

A) Determine the need for layoffs

B) Implement organizational change

C) Promote uniform behavior across the organization

D) Reduce administrative costs

Answer: A
An effective performance appraisal interview should:

A) Be judgmental rather than descriptive

B) Focus on specific examples of performance

C) Avoid discussing weaknesses

D) Be conducted in a high-stress environment

Answer: B

Which source of appraisal information can increase employee involvement

in the process?

A) Supervisor appraisal

B) Customer appraisal

C) Self-appraisal

D) Peer appraisal

Answer: C

What is a potential problem with self-appraisals?

A) They are less detailed

B) Employees may rate themselves lower than the supervisor would

C) Employees may rate themselves higher than the supervisor would

D) They are time-consuming

Answer: C

A mixed-standard scale involves:

A) Directly comparing employees with each other

B) Rating employees as better than, equal to, or worse than a standard

C) A detailed essay about employee performance

D) Using multiple performance criteria

Answer: B

The behaviorally anchored rating scale (BARS) method:

A) Rates employees based on a scale of individual traits

B) Uses vertical scales for each dimension of job performance

C) Involves narrative descriptions of performance

D) Focuses on past performance incidents

Answer: B

Which method requires a rater to choose between pairs of statements that

distinguish successful from unsuccessful performance?

A) Graphic Rating Scale

B) Mixed-Standard Scale

C) Forced-Choice Method

D) Critical Incident Method

Answer: C

In a 360-degree feedback system, feedback is gathered from:

A) Supervisors only
B) Peers only

C) Multiple sources, including supervisors, peers, subordinates, and

customers

D) HR department only

Answer: C

The primary advantage of a 360-degree feedback system is:

A) It simplifies the appraisal process

B) It provides a comprehensive view of employee performance

C) It eliminates bias completely

D) It is easy to implement

Answer: B

Which appraisal method uses specific incidents of superior or inferior

performance for evaluation?

A) Behavior Observation Scale (BOS)

B) Critical Incident Method

C) Essay Method

D) Forced-Choice Method

Answer: B

A major con of the 360-degree feedback system is that it:

A) Simplifies the feedback process

B) May lead to bias and prejudice if feedback is not handled properly

C) Enhances the quality of feedback

D) Focuses only on quantitative measures

Answer: B