Mətn 1:

I.Every year, the average temperature of the Earth’s surface gets a little bit
warmer.This gradual trend is called global warming. Warmer weather may sound nice,
but global warming is something to be very concerned about.
II.Rising temperatures might cause plants and animals to become extinct. They
could melt enough polar ice to cause the levels of the sea to rise. Weather patterns
could also change. There might be more droughts or serious storms with flooding. In
some areas, human diseases could spread.
III.What is causing global warming? Humansare mostly to blame. Pollution
from factories and cars add toxic gases to theair. These gases rise to the Earth’s
atmosphere. As the sun’s rays warm the Earth, the gases work much like the glass in a
greenhouse. They help trap the he in the atmosphere and make the Earth warmer. That
is why they are nicknamed “greenhouse gases.” Increases in the amount of
greenhouse gases in the atmosphere enhance greenhouse effect which is creating
global warming and consequently climate change. It is our responsibility to take care
of our planet. Global warming is a serious problem with serious consequences. If we
want future generations to enjoy their time on Earth, we must act now!

6.Decide the statements are true or false.

6.1.Increasing temperatures can cause more rainfall no more.
A) True B) False
6.2We should avoid to protect ourenvironment.
A) True B) False
6.3The heavy industry add posionous gases to the atmosphere.
A) True B) False
6.4.Global warming isn’t hazardous at all.
A) True B) False

7. Which of the given sentence can start the second paragraph?

A) The work of gases is the same like glass
B) Warmer temperatures could damage the environment in many devastating ways
C) We have to look after our planet
D) Many people work in the various industries
E) We can see a lot of wastes which are very dangerous for environment

8.Which of the following is NOT a possible effect of global warming?

A) Droughts and desserts
B) Weather patterns changing
C) Human health impacts
D) Rising sea levels and melting Arctic ice caps
E) Enlarging chilled places

9. In the passage, the underlined word extinct most nearly means…

A) reason for doing or feeling somethinc
B) a long period of time during which there is very little or no rain
C) No longer existing or active
D) The region with particular weather patterns or conditions.
E) Containing poisonous substances
10.Which questions have answers?
1.What are the reasons of global warming?
2.What kind of gases includes Greenhouse gases?
3.Who are blamed for global warming?
4.Which animals face to become extinct?
5.How do Greenhouse gases help to the Eath?

Mətn 2:

The natural world is under the violent attack from man. The seas and rivers are
being poisoned by radioactive wastes, bychemical discharges. The air we breathe is
polluted by smoke from factories and cars, even the rain is poisoned.
Forests and lakes are being destroyed and everywhere wildlife is disappearing.
Governments and industries are intensifying their efforts to plunder natural resources.
Despite the warnings of the scientific community, they don’t evenconsider changing
their policies. But we can create environmentally-cleanindustries, utilize the power of
the sun, wind and waves for our energy and manage the finite resources of the earth.
But there is still hope. The forces of destruction are being challenged acrossthe globe-
and at the head of this challenge is Greenpeace. Wherever the environment is in
danger Greenpeace has made a stand. Its scientific presentations and peaceful direct
actions at sea and on land have shocked governments and industries into an awareness
that Greenpeace will not allow the natural world to be destroyed. Those actions have
also won the admiration and support of millions.

11.Decide the statements are true or false

11.1. Industries continue the destruction despite of warnings.
A) True B) False
11.2. There is no hope to prevent the disappearing of wildlife.
A) True B) False
11.3. The peaceful actions of Greenpeaceare not supported by millions of people.
A) True B) False
11.4. Not only the seas and rivers, even the rain is poisoned.
A) True B) False

12.Choose the synonym of the word “destruction.”

A) Restoration
B) Preservation
C) Existence
D) Ruination
E) Producing

13.Greenpeace is an organization that…

A) Supports the policy of industries and government
B) Investigates the main reasons of environmental pollution
C) Is against the use of the power of the sun
D) Has won the admiration of industries
E) Makes peaceful actions to stop disappearing of natural world.
14.Choose the definition of the word “environment”
A) The surroundings or conditions in which a person, animal, or plant lives.
B) Existing in nature
C) a source of helpinformation
D) a group of people living in the same place
E) an organized group of people with a particular purpose

15.Which questions have no answers?

1.What is Greenpeace?
2.Which lakes are being destroyed?
3.What are the reasons for pollution?
4.How can we creat clean industries?
5.How many countries supported Greenpeace?

Mətn 3:
I.Many overpopulated countries could find themselves short for food in the future.
Large numbers of people are concentratedin cities and in land which are highly
productive in agriculture, where the rural population is relatively dense.
II.The uneven distribution of the world’s population is a reflection of the very
uneven distribution of the world’s natural resources which includes habitability and
productivity of the land. In this connection, the problem of distribution of food arises.
Howell can the increasing population be fed and its standards of living improved.
III......These could be exported so that food could be imported. It means that people
must maintain and preserve natural resources so that they continue to serve future
generations of people instead of thoughtlessly using them up to satisfy contemporary
demand.
IV.Secondly, farming methods in many countries are inefficient. If people used
new agricultural machinery and mechanized their farming methods, they might soon
produce enough food for their population needs.
V.Thirdly, governments could discourage people from having large families. The
policy of having just one or two children could improve standards of living in
overpopulated countries and solve the problem of feeding the enormous proportion of
the population that suffers from malnutrition.

6.Decide the statements are true or false.

6.1. In poorer countries people continue touse primitive techniques in agriculture.
A) true B) false
6.2. Rural population is dense in highly productive lands.
A) true B) false
6.3. Governments should encourage people to have large families.
A) true B) false
6.4. Natural resources are often thoughtlessly used to satisfy contemporary demand.
A) true B) false
7.Choose the antonym of the word “rural”.
A) outskirts
B) urban
C) suburb
D) country
E) enormous
8. Which of the given sentence can start the third paragraph?
A) Many countries have natural recourses such as oil,gas,wood or iron.
B) A number of farmers utilize a lot of newagricultural machinery.
C) Overpopulated countries are sufferingshortage of food.
D) Every family has to grow their familymembers.
E) We have to prevent malnutrition with some effective actions.

9. The word “malnutrition” is closest to thefollowing definition:

A) Careless, wrong or illegal behavior.
B) a poor condition of health caused by alack of food or a lack of the right type of
food.
C) Imagining or pretending things to bedifferent than they really are.
D) a connection between two or morepeople or things.
E) The risk of losing something in the hopeof being successful.

10.Which questions have no answers?

1.How can the government improve itsstandards of living?
2.How many countries make attempt toprevent malnutrition?
3. What is the reason for distribution offood?
4.How much oil and gas are exported?
5.Why do the government discourage people?

Mətn 4:

For centuries, the pyramids of Giza have been timeless symbols of Egyptian
culture. But who actually built them? For years, we did not know for sure. But
archeologists recently discovered an ancient village near the pyramids. Close by, there
was also a cemetery where pyramid builders were buried. From studying these places,
archeologists can now confirm that the pyramids were not built by slaves or
foreigners (or space aliens!). Ordinary Egyptians built them.
It took about eighty years to build the pyramids. According to archeologists,
about 20,000-30,000 people were involved in completing the task. The workers had
different roles. Some dug up the rock, some moved it, and some shaped it into blocks.
People also worked on different teams, each with its own name. On a wallin Khufu’s
Great Pyramid, for example, a group of workers wrote “Friends of Khufu.”Teams
often competed to do a job faster. Life for these workers was hard. “Wecan see that
in their skeletons,” says Azza Mohamed Sarry El-Din, a scientist study ingbodies
found in the cemetery. The bones show signs of arthritis, which developed from
carrying heavy things for a long time. Archeologists have also found many female
skeletons in the village and cemetery. The damage to their bones is similar to the
men’s. Their lives may have been even tougher: male workers lived to age 40-45, but
women to only 30-35. However, workers usually had enough food and they also had
medical care if they got sick or hurt.
The work was challenging, but laborers were proud of their work. “It’s because
theywere not just building the tomb of their king,” says Egyptian archeologist Zahi
Hawass. “They were building Egypt. It was a national project and everyone was a
participant”
11.Decide the statements are true or false
11.1. They lived fairly long lives.
A) true B) false
11.2. Both men and women built thepyramids.
A) true B) false
11.3. Most came from other countries.
A) true B) false
11.4.They rarely had enough to eat or drink.
A) true B) false

12. Which statement about building the pyramids is true?

A) It took over a century to complete.
B) Builders all did the same work.
C) More than 30,000 workers wereinvolved.
D) Builders worked in teams.
E) Men workers lived to age 30-35.

13.According to the passage, what does the word “laborers” refer to?
A) Kings
B) Archeologists
C) Workers
D) Women
E) Consumers

14. What is the closest meaning to the word “hurt”?

A) Injury
B) hardworking
C) ignorant
D) discover
E) slave

15.Which questions have answered?

1.How many years did it take to build pyramids?
2.Who were participated to build pyramids?
3.What kind of stones was used to build?
4. What was written on a wall in Khufu’s Great Pyramid?
5.Where was the capital of Egypt?

Mətn5:

I.Humans and robots fight to save the world. Animals with magical powers have
great adventures. The world of anime is an exciting and colorful place. And who takes
us there? Animators such as Japanese director Hayao Miyazaki.
II.Miyazaki started working in animation in 1963 and directed his first animated
movie in 1979. More movies followed, including Nausicaä of the Valley of the Wind,
produced in 1984. The following year Miyazaki started his own company, Studio
Ghibli. Since then, the studio's films have won various prizes, including an Academy
Award in 2001 for Spirited Away.
 III.Nausicaä began as a popular manga series set in the future. In the 1984 movie
based on the series, Princess Nausicaä travels in a flying machine to study poisonous
plants. It's just the beginning of a complex and exciting story.
IV....The director's films can be difficult to explain in just a few words. Nature
and technology often play a central part in Miyazaki's stories. Understanding the way
children see the world is also important to him. "I look at them and try to see things as
they do," he says.
V.In his free time, Miyazaki stays away from television and other media. "Young
people are surrounded by virtual things," he says. "They lack real experience of life
and lose their imaginations." Luckily for anime fans, Hayao Miyazaki hasn't lost any
of his own.

6. Decide the statements are true or false.

6.1. Miyazaki believes children cannot understand complex stories.
A) True B) False
6.2. Miyazaki’s manga have won more award than his movies.
A) True B) False
6.3. Miyazaki has directed only a few movies since he started Studio Ghibli.
A) True B) False
6.4. Miyazaki thinks children should spend less time watching TV.
A) True B) False

7. Choose the correct synonym to the underlined word in the passage.

A) unfortunately
B) unluckily
C) fortunately
D) regretfully
E) unhappily

8. Which of the given sentence can start the third paragraph?

A) Miyazaki’s studio also produces manga or comic books.
B) Miyazaki tried to escape from media.
C) Miyazaki’s films are very important for children’s world.
D) The famous anime director won a lot of prizes.
E) The films contain humanity relationship with technology and nature.

9. According to the passage, which statement about Miyazaki’s movie is not true?
A) The stories are often about nature.
B) The films are often about Miyazaki’s children.
C) The stories often include technology.
D) The films have won multiple awards.

10.Which questions have answers?

1.When did Miyazaki direct his first animated movie?
2.What kind of television and media is he interested?
3.When did he win an Academy Award?
4.What does Miyazaki’s studio produce?
5.How many mangas has the director created?
 Mətn6:
Bolivians have celebrated an ancient tradition rooted in local practices where
people honor skulls, called Natitas, which they believe bring them good fortune and
protection.
The Natitas spend most of the year indoors but are traditionally decorated and
paraded to the cemetery a week after All Saints' Day. Friends and family dress up
skulls with hats and flowers. They give them food and even cigarettes during the
festivities. Even the skulls of unidentified ones take part in the party. During the
afternoon participants danced to honour the skulls.
The Roman Catholic Church does not confirm the practice, but when the cemetery's
church refused to open its doors to the Day of the Skull believers twelve years ago,
they threw stones at the church and broke all the windows. Now the church is open to
believers for a blessing ceremony.
The Natitas tradition is traditionally practiced by the country's local groups.

11. Decide the statements are true or false.

11.1.Honoring Natitas is one of the Bolivians’ contemporary traditions.
A) True B) False
11.2.The tradition is supported even by Catholic Church.
A) True B) False
11.3.During festival people give them food and cigarettes.
A) True B) False
11.4.People believe them to bring good fortune and protection.
A) True B) False

12.Choose the closest meaning of the word “dress up”?

A) to stop something from moving or flowing
B) to undo the buttons on a piece of clothing
C) to wear clothes that are more formal than those you usually wear
D) to say that you will not do something that somebody has asked you to do
E) to remove something,especially a piece clothing from your body

13.Choose the synonym of the word “cemetery”.

A) alive
B) transformed
C) identified
D) modified
E) graveyard

14.Choose the wrong variant according to the text.

1.The skulls of unidentified ones aren’t allowed to take part in the festivals
2.The Natitas tradition os carried out by the catholic groups
3.During festivals they dance to honor the skulls
4.The Natitas tradition is practiced by local groups

A) 3,4
B) 1,2
C) 2,3
D) 2,4
E) 1,4
15.Which questions have no answers?
1.When are the Natitas decorated?
2.Who is the tradition practiced by?
3.what are the skulls dressed up with?
4.How many participants take part in the party?
5.What do they do to honor the skulls?

Mətn7:
I. The first murder ever committed in the United States occurred in September 1630,
shortly after the Pilgrims arrived in Massachusetts. John Billington was the father of
two sons, one of the first to settle in the new Plymouth Colony near what is today
Boston, and one of the people who signed the Mayflower Compact and he was also
the colony's first murderer.
II. Billington was also the first to be executed by the state in the New World.
Billington's crime was to shoot a man named John Newcomen, for reasons which are
lost to history.
III. But Billington's problems had not begun on the soil of North America. He and
his sons had nearly caused a mutiny aboard the Mayflower during the arduous trip
across the ocean. One of his sons, in fact, fired his gun aboard the Mayflower-near an
open keg of gunpowder! The flash from the gun could easily have ignited the powder,
which would probably have sunk the ship.
IV. Once in Plymouth Colony, Billington's behavior did not improve. He refused to
serve any form of military duty under the leadership of Miles Standish, a duty that
was seen by the colonists as part of every man's responsibilities in the New World. He
was later implicated in a plot to overthrow the entire leadership of PlymouthColony,
but a lack of evidence prompted the town's leaders to let him go free.
V. In the end, Billington's rebellious and angry nature caught up with him. He was
found guilty of the murder of John Newcomen and died in disgrace on the gallows.

6.Decide the statements are true or false.

6.1.Billington had two sons.
A) True B) False
6.2.Billington served in the military under Miles Standish.
A) True B) False
6.3.Billington tried to lead a mutiny.
A) True B) False
6.4.Billington signed Mayflower Compact.
A) True B) False

7. The nearest meaning of the underlined word arduous, as used in the passage,
is....
A) difficult B) simple C) long D) stormy E) determined

8. Which of the given sentence can start the second paragraph?

A) Billington had many responsibilities to serve the government
B) Billington was the first person to commit any crime in the colony
C) Billington’s annoying behavior made him catch
D) Billington and his family were the first to be located in the Colony
E) Billington tried to cross the ocean with difficulty
9.Why didn't the leaders of Plymouth Colony punish Billington for rebelling
against their authority?
A) He was not guilty.
B) Billington was Miles Standish's nephew.
C) He had two sons who needed him.
D) They didn't have enough evidence.
E) They were good friends.

10.Which questions have answers?

1.When did the first crime happen in the USA?
2.What was Billington’s crime?
3.Where did Billington sign the Mayflower Compact?
4.Why did town’s leaders let him go free?
5.Why did Billington kill John Newcomen?

Mətn8:

The wildlife of Africa has been greatly reduced in the past 50 years, partly as a result
of overhunting and poaching and partly because large areas of their natural habitats
have been taken over for farming. Today many species are threatened with extinction.
To protect wildlife, several countries have set aside land used exclusively for wild
animals. These areas, called national parks, have tourist facilities that permit visitors
to watch the animals in a natural setting. Among the countries that have established
such parks are Burkina Faso, Cameroon, Kenya, Tanzania, Zimbabwe and South
Africa. Besides providing greater protection for the animals and promoting tourism,
the parks make it possible for scientists to study animal behaviour in the wild. While
scientists, tourists and animal lovers praise the national parks, the creation of these
areas has led to conflict with people who would like to use the land for other purposes.
The population of Africa is growing rapidly, and where there is a shortage of land for
herders and farmers, the parks are seen as depriving people of land. The conflict is a
difficult one, and it appears that it could continue for decades. One place where this
problem is particularly serious is Kenya. There the government deals with the conflict
by paying money earned from tourism as compensation for the loss of land to people
who live next to the parks. It also spends money on projects that will directly benefit
these people. The Kenyan government hopes that if people see and share in the
economic benefits of the parks, they will be more willing to accept their presence.

11. Decide the statements are true or false.

11.1.Wild animals in Africa are better protected than in-most other parts of the world.
A) True B) False
11.2.Wild animals in Africa have not yet been studied scientifically in their natural
habitats.
A) True B) False
11.3.Wild animals in Africa are now used exclusively for scientific purposes.
A) True B) False
11.4.Wild animals in Africa have decreased in number over the last half a century.
A) True B) False
12.It’s stated in the passage that those who object to the establishment of
national parks are…
A) government officials
B) foreign tourists
C) animal lovers
D) research scientists
E) herders and farmers

13.Which word from the passage has the following meaning?

“something,especially money, that somebody gives you because they have hurt you,or
damaged something that you own;the act of giving this to somebody”
A) conflict
B) benefit
C) herder
D) habitat
E) compensation

14.The Kenyan government makes up for any loss of land incurred by people
living next to national parks by…
A) keeping them informed of scientific discoveries on animal behavior
B) permitting them free entrance to the park
C) allowing them to hunt wild animals within the park
D) paying them some of money gained through tourism
E) allowing them to farm some of the land on the park

15.Which questions have answers?

1.How many species are threatened with extinction?
2.Which countries have established national parks?
3.When did the conflict happen in Africa?
4.How does the government try to solve the conflict?
5.Why has the wildlife of Africa been decreased recently?

Mətn 9:
I.The increasingly developing digital and decentralized economy of the 21st- century
requires new skills for success at work places. Some of these skills have always been
helpful for professional development but are now essential. Others require completely
new approaches for performing certain jobs effectively.
II. The future belongs to a person with a different type of mindset. Schools must
prepare students for a modern workplace- one that values innovation, imagination,
creativity communication and intelligence.
III. Digital-age literacy, inventive thinking, effective communication and high
productivity are identified as essential competencies for success in the 21st- century
workplaces.
IV.We need to develop all these skills to survive in the 21st century. Some, like ICT
skills and knowledge of the digital world, are taught explicitly in schools. These are
the sorts of skills that employers may ask you questions about in interviews, so it's a
good idea to think about how good you are in these areas.
V. In the age of technology that we are living in now, it is no longer enough to keep on
making the same products. Employers need people who can adopt and innovative
approaches and use promote new ideas.
VI. Employers value workers who are able to forsce problems before they happen and
come up with reasonable solutions. They want workers who are able to recognize the
difference between false information and information that can be believed.
VII. Employees have to be good communicators, too. They have to be able to
negotiate and discuss key issues and also respond in a clear and plain way without
using too many words.
6. Decide whether the statements are true or false.
6.1. Job seekers are expected to be given questions about their ICT skills in interviews.
A) True B) False
6.2. Using a lot of words will be helpful while discussing important issues for workers.
A) True B) False
6.3. Making the same products for the company is the key to success
A) True B) False
6.4. Employers may sometimes need people who support traditional approaches
A)True B) False
7. Which of the given sentences can start the fourth paragraph?
A) 21st century skills are comprised of a combination of soft and hard skills.
B) Employees have to convince their opponents in order to gain benefit for a company.
C) There are many terms used interchangeably to describe modern technology.
D) There is a misunderstanding on some issues among a whole generation of workers.
E) Recruiters find it hard to identify strengths and potential abilities of employees.

8. Complete the sentence according to the passage. Nowadays employers need

people who....
A) take responsibilities for their mistakes
B) have strong work ethic
C) maintain their work-life balance
D) never come into conflict with their co- workers
E) pursue new approaches and ideas
9. What does the phrase “come up with” mean in the passage?
A) to seek
B) to need
C) to suggest
D) to implement
E) to develop

10. Which of the following questions does the passage answer?

1. What is the main difference between false and true information?
2. What skills are clearly taught at schools?
3. How does creativity affect workers' productivity?
4. What skills are the employers mostly
5. How many approaches of a better job performance are there?

Mətn10:
The United Nations (UN) is an intergovernmental organization to promote
international cooperation. It has grown from an organization of 51 countries in 1945
to 193 nations at present. The principal organs of the UN are the General Assembly,
the Security Council, the Economic and Social Council, the Trusteeship Council, the
International Court of Justice and the Secretariat. One of the UN's main goals was to
work together for international peace and to solve international problems. The UN is
really a family' of related organizations, which are working to provide a better life for
people everywhere. One part of the UN family is UNICEF, an organization that
provides food, medical care, and many other services to poor children wherever they
live. Another part of the UN family is the World Health Organization (WHO), which
develops medical programs for people all over the world.
To support its humanitarian efforts, the people that the UN employs work as planners
to increase production in farming and industry, to improve education programs, to
spread scientific information, to maintain international peace.
Over the years, the UN has had a number of successes in its role of world
peacemaker. In 1988, the UN peacekeeping forces received the Nobel Prize. Many
people believe that the best way for the UN to work for world peace is through its
humanitarian activities.
11.Decide the statements are true or false
11.1. One of the UN's main roles is to support international peace all over the world.
A) True B) False
11.2. The number of the United Nations member countries has decreased since 1945.
A) True B) False
11.3. The UN has six principal organs.
A) True B) False
11.4. One part of UNICEF is the World Health Organization.
 A) True B) False

12.Choose the correct definition to the verb "to maintain".

A) make something continue at the same level, standard
B) to think of or produce a new idea, product, etc.
C) to get or accept something that is sent or given to you
D) to become or make something greater in amount, number, etc.
E) to give somebody a job to do for payment

13.Choose the wrong statement according to the passage.

A) The UN has hardly ever had successes in its role of world peacemaker.
B) All members of the UN try to solve international problems together.
C) The poor children are provided with food and medical care by UNICEF.
D) The UN peacekeeping forces were awarded the Nobel Prize.
E) The best way for the UN to support peace is through its humanitarian activities.
14. What is the closest meaning to the "support"?
A) exhausted
B) to give a hand
C) tradition
D) protect
E) ambition
15. Which questions have no answers in the passage?
1.How many members does the UN have?
2.What are the main organs of the UN?
3. What is UNICEF busy with?
4. What organization develops personal awards for scientists?
5. What are the functions of the General Assembly?

Mətn11:
I. Puerto Rico, a Caribbean island rich in history and remarkable natural beauty, has
a cuisine all its own. Immigration to the island has helped to shape its cuisine, with
people from all over the world making various contributions to it. However, before the
arrival of these immigrants, the island of Puerto Rico was already known as Boriken
and was inhabited by the Taino people. Taino cuisine included such foods as rodents
with sweet chili peppers, fresh shellfish, yarns, and fish fried in corn oil. Many aspects
of Taino cuisine continue today in Puerto Rican cooking, but it has been heavily
influenced by the Spanish, who invaded Puerto Rico in 1508, and Africans, who were
initially brought to Puerto Rico to work as slaves. Taino cooking styles were mixed
with ideas brought by the Spanish and Africans to create new dishes. The Spanish
extended food choices by bringing cattle, pigs, goats, and sheep to the island. Africans
also added to the island's food culture by introducing powerful, contrasting tastes in
dishes like pinon-plantains layered in ground beef. In fact, much of the food Puerto
Rico is now famous for-plantains, coffee. sugarcane, coconuts, and oranges- was
actually imported by foreigners to the island.
II.A common assumption many people make about Puerto Rican food is that it is
very spicy. It's true that chili peppers are popular, aji caballero in particular is a very
hot chili pepper that Puerto Ricans enjoy. However, milder tastes are popular too, such
as sofrito. The base of many Puerto Rican dishes, sofrito is a sauce made from
chopped onions, garlic, green bell peppers, sweet chili peppers. oregano, cilantro, and
a handful of other spices. It is fried in oil and then added to other dishes.
6. Decide the statements are true or false.
6.1.Many people think Puerto Rican food is spicy.
A) True B) False
6.2. Puerto Rican cuisine uses a lot of chili peppers.
A) True B) False
6.3. Sofrito is an extremely spicy type of food.
A) True B) False
6.4. Spanish invaded Puerto Rico in 1508.
A) True B) False
7. According to the passage, what is the main idea of the second paragraph?
A) Taino dishes are important in Puerto Rican cooking.
B) Puerto Rican cooking has had many influences.
C) Food that has been imported by foreigners isn't really Puerto Rican.
D) American foods have probably had the most influence.
E) How many people lived in Puerto Rico.

8. According to the passage who lived Puerto Rico first?

A) the Taino people
B) the Africans
C) the Spanish
D) the Americans
E) the Japanese
9. According to the passage, how is "sofrito"used?
A) it is eaten before meals.
B) It is added to other dishes.
C) It is used when foods are too spicy.
D) It is eaten as main dish.
E) It is added when foods are chilly.

10. Which questions have no answers?

1.Who invaded Puerto Rico in the sixteenth century?
2.How many types of chilly pepper are used in Puerto Rico cuisine?
3. What helped to form the cuisine of Puerto Rico?
4.Why did the Spanish invade Puerto Rico?
5. How do Africans shape Puerto Rico?

Mətn12:
The word itself is beautiful. The Story of silk starts in China over 4,000 years ago.
One legend says a silkworm's cocoon fell into a woman's teacup. It then opened into a
single unbroken thread. This was an important discovery. The Chinese learned they
could use the cocoons to make cloth that was both beautiful to look at and soft to
touch.
Making silk was a protected secret in China for many years. In other countries, silk
was very rare and valuable. Often it was worth more than gold. Legend tells us that
the secret finally got out when a princess left China to go to India. In her hair, she
secretly carried many silkworms.
By the year 1 A.D., silk was sold as far west as Rome, and all along the Silk Road,
which connected China with places in the Middle East and the Mediterranean.
Eventually, around the year 300, silk also traveled from China to Japan. Centuries
later, in 1522, the Spanish brought silkworms to Mexico.
 Nowadays people around the world still make many beautiful things from silk. But
silk isn't only beautiful. It looks delicate, but it's actually very strong. For example, it
has been used to make bicycle tires. And some doctors even use silk threads in
hospital operations. Silk is also lightweight and warm. This makes it great for clothes
like winter jackets, pants, and boots. All of this from a little insect-silkworm. That is
the miracle of silk.
11. Decide the statements are true or false
11.1. Silk is very delicate.
A)True B) False
11.2. A princess took silkworms to another country in her hair.
A) True B) False
11.3. Sometimes doctors use silk in hospitals.
A) True B) False
11.4. Silk can be uncomfortable to wear in cold weather.
A) True B) False

12. In second paragraph, it says, "In other countries, silk was very rare and
valuable. Often it was worth more than gold." What does this mean?
A) You could only buy silk with gold.
B) Silk was very expensive.
C) Many people bought silk at that time.
D) In many countries, silk wasn't very popular.
E) Silk wasn't so precious as people thought.
13. According to legend how did people first learn about silk?
A) indian princess told people about it.
B) Someone found it on the Silk Road.
C) A man from Rome brought it to China.
D) A silkworm's cocoon fell into a woman's teacup.
E) Spanish brought silk to Mexico.
14. Choose the synonym to the underlined word "miracle"
A) common
B) weird
C) eccentric
D) prodigy
E) ludicrous

15. Which questions have answers?

1.Who brought silkworms to Mexico?
2.Which legends tell us about the miracle of silk?
3.When did the Chinese begin to use silk?
4. why did the Chinese keep as a secret to make silk?
5. How do we use silk today?

Mətn13:
Historically, the diets of different societies depend on such factors as climate, soil
and the ease or difficulty of transporting foods from one place to another. The simple
diet of the Bedouin Arabs consists of dates, grains and sometimes meat and
vegetables. This is because the land is very dry and, as a result, very few foods can be
grown there. On the other hand, a country such as France, with a good climate and
rich soil, has always had plentiful and a great variety of foods. When people move to
another country and culture, they usually take their eating habits with them. They feel
psychologically comfortable when they eat the foods they have known all their lives.
When discussing food and diet, it is possible to divide the world’s population into two
sections: those who have lots of food and those who suffer shortages of even the most
basic foods.
Developed countries have the financial means and the technology to provide all
kinds of foods for their people. Refrigeration, food preservation and modern transport
systems allow these people to enjoy foods from all parts of the world. For instance,
the British are not able to grow sufficient food for their needs, but they import a wide
variety of foods, from potatoes to exotic tropical fruits. Food processing has meant
that the seasons are no longer important: vegetables such as peas and beans are
canned or frozen and are available the whole year round; soft fruits such as
strawberries, which are only produced locally for a short season, can be imported
from other parts of the world.

6.Decide the statements are true or false.

6.1.France has always had a great variety of foods because of climate and rich soil.
A) True B) False
6.2.When moving to various countries people generally take their eating habits with
them.
A) True B) False
6.3.Britain export a wide variety of foods, from potatoes to exotic tropical fruits.
A) True B) false
6.4.The British people are not capable of growing enough food for their needs.
A) True B) False

7.Complete the sentence.

By means of food processing,…
A) vegetables and fruits are consumed in great quantities in the countries where they
are grown
B) peas and beans are grown locally during certain seasons only
C) soft fruits, including strawberries, have a short growing season
D) all kinds of vegetables and fruits can be consumed any time of the years
E) people suffer shortages of even the most basic foods
8.Which word in the passage means “the material on the surface of the ground in
which plants grow”?
A) grain
B) vegetable
C) food
D) soil
E) strawberry

9.Choose the correct variant.

The Bedouin Arabs have a simple diet….
A) because of historical, religious and cultural factors
B) that is similar to the diet of the French, who always have a lot to eat
C) which is the result of a good climate and rich soil
D) as their land is not suitable for growing a variety of foods
E) as they often move from one place to another

10.Which questions have answers?

1.What factors influence the diet of different societies?
2.Which countries have improved technology to supply all kind of foods for their
people?
3.How do refrigerations impress on food preservation?
4.How many exotic tropical fruits are imported to Great Britain?
5.Why do some people take their food with them when they go abroad?

Mətn14:
People have always been quite excited about details on Mars because Earth and
Mars have many characteristics in common. Just like Earth, Mars turns around itself.
It takes Mars twenty-four hours, thirty-seven minutes and twenty- seven seconds to
complete one turn, so the day on Mars is a bit longer than ours. Besides, both planets
have similar seasons. Because of these similarities, astronomers were quite sure that
there was life on Mars. In 1877, with the help of improved telescopes, astronomers
saw two tiny objects around Mars. Even serious astronomers said these two very
small objects were spacecraft. In fact, they were two moons in orbit around Mars. In
the same year, Schiaparelli, a well-known astronomer of the time, drew a map of
Mars. Although this was not the first map of Mars, it created a lot of interest among
astronomers. The map showed lakes, seas and forests. It also showed narrow lines.
Schiaparelli called these lines canali” in Italian. The correct English word for “canali”
is channels, but it came into English as canals (which means man-made waterways).
Because of this mistake people thought that there were living things on Mars and
they built these canals to carry water from one place to another. In 1965 the spacecraft
Mariner 4 flew past Mars. It did not land on Mars, but it sent Earth twenty-two
photographs. They gave a good idea of the surface of Mars – a place full of craters
and high areas of volcanic rock.
Then in 1971, Mariner 9 discovered four volcanoes on Mars. They were much
larger than the volcanoes here. The largest one, Olympus Mons, was 25 kilometres
high and 500 kilometres from side to side.
11.Decide the statements are true or false
11.1.Earth and Mars have plenty of similar features.
A) True B) False
11.2.Schiapararelli was the first person to draw the map of Mars.
A) True B) False
11.3.The day on Earth is shorter than the day on Mars.
A) True B) False
11.4.Schiapararelli’s map drew the attention of many astronomers.
A) True B) False

12.Which word in the passage has the meaning of “a vehicle used for travel in
space”?
A) astronomer
B) object
C) spacecraft
D) telescope
E) channel

13.The underlined expression “this mistake” refers to….

A) showing lakes and seas on the map
B) using the word canals for Italian word “canali”
C) building canals to carry water
D) using English word channels
E) drawing a map of Mars

14.What is the closest word to “similarity”?

A) familiar
B) variety
C) division
D) difference
E) local

15.Which question has no answer in the passage?

1.Do Mars and Earth have alike characteristics?
2.How many times is the Earth larger than Mars?
3.Which is the largest volcano on Mars?
4.Why did people think there were living things on Mars?
5.Have people been eager to know about Mars?

Mətn15:
Credit cards first became popular in the 1920s. Back then, individual businesses,
such as hotels and oil companies, gave credit cards to their best customers. Unlike
today’s credit cards, customers could use these cards only at the store or business that
gave out the card. Customers also had to pay their bill in full. They couldn’t pay for
something a little at a time. The first multipurpose credit card was the idea of a
businessman named Frank McNamara. He got the idea one evening when he took
some business clients to dinner. At the end of the meal, McNamara discovered that he
couldn’t pay the bill. He didn’t have any cash with him! Luckily, his wife had some
cash with her, and she paid the bill. After that experience, McNamara decided to find
a way to allow people without cash to pay for meals in restaurants. In 1950,
McNamara started a credit card company called Diners Club. Unlike earlier credit
cards, this card could be used by customers at a variety of restaurants. When a
customer paid for a meal by credit card, Diners Club paid the restaurant. At the end of
the month, Diners Club sent a bill to the customer and collected the money.
Customers liked the card because they didn’t have to carry around a lot of cash.
Restaurant owners quickly learned to like the card. They discovered that customers
usually spent more money when they could pay by credit card.

6.Decide the statements are true or false.

1. The first cards were multipurpose.
A) True B) False
2. Diners Club credit cards were started by McNamara.
A) True B) False
3. McNamara’s wife always paid for her husband’s meals at restaurants.
A) True B) False
4. The first cards used to be given to the best clients.
A) True B) False

7.Choose the wrong statement.

A) The idea of multiple credit card belongs to Frank McNamara.
B) Most customers were displeased with the new credit cards.
C) Diners Club credit cards could be used at different restaurants.
D) McNamara discovered the idea of multipurpose credit card after he had had dinner
with clients.
E) The use of earlier credit cards was rather limited.

8.Which word in the passage has the meaning of “knowledge or skill from doing,
seeing or feeling things”
A) cash
B) individual
C) variety
D) experience
E) credit card

9.What does “these cards” refers?

A) today’s credit cards
B) shares or businesses
C) earlier credit cards
D) customers
E) individual businesses

10.Which questions have no answer in the passage?

1. How much did customers have to pay to get the Diners Club cards?
2. What was difference of Diners Club credit cards?
3. How many customers did Diners Club have in its first year?
4. Why did customers like the new credit cards?
5. Why were credit cards profitable business for restaurant owners?
Mətn16:

I.University admissions vary from countries to countries. In Turkey, high school

students take a national achievement exam in March. If they pass that exam, they take
another exam in June. Getting into a Turkish university depends mostly on these exam
scores, but universities also consider high school grades. In Turkey, students usually
study very hard for the national exam. If they don’t pass the exam, they can’t go to
university.
II.Students in the United Kingdom take achievement exams when they are 16, 17,
and 18 years old. Universities consider a student’s scores 20 on all of these exams.
Students also provide a very short personal statement, a reference letter from one
teacher, and information about their extracurricular activities.
III......Most universities in the United States consider a student’s score on a
special aptitude test called the SAT. Unlike an achievement exam, an aptitude test
measures a student’s ability to learn. It does not measure a student’s knowledge of
school subjects. Most universities also look at a student’s high school grades, an
admissions essay, and several reference letters. Extracurricular activities, such as
sports, clubs, and volunteer work, are also very important. Students often do many
activities in-high school so they can get into a good university.

11.Decide the statements are true or false

11.1. If the students don’t pass national exam in Turkey they can’t go to university.
A) True B) False
11.2. Joining clubs in high schools can’t help you to get into the universities in the
US.
A) True B) False
11.3. SAT measures a student’s knowledge of school subject.
A) True B) False
11.4. Students in UK take more than one achievement exam.
A) True B) False

12.The underlined verb “consider” in the passage means….

A) to be decided by or to change according to the stated thing
B) to give someone something that they need
C) to give attention to a particular subject or fact when judging something else
D) to give someone or something a name
E) to offer to do something that you do not have to do

13. Which of the given sentence can start the third paragraph?
A) All universities demand achievement exams.
B) If students want to give an achievement exam,they have to be over 20 ages.
C) The university admissions system in the USA is quite different from other
countries.
D) Students have to get over 20 scores.
E) Achievement exams in March is very important for all student in Turkey.

14.Choose the correct statements.

1. Students in the US do a great variety of activities in order to be admitted by
universities
2. In the UK, universities require extra documents such as reference letter and
personal statement.
3. Entering the universities in Turkey doesn’t depend on national achievement exam.
4. Unlike the US universities, in the UK universities pay special attention on students’
extracurricular activities.

A) 2,3
B) 1,4
C)2,4
D)1,2
E)3,4

15.Which questions have no answers?

1.What happen if students don’t pass the exam in Turkey?
2.How is Austria university admission system?
3.Which extracurricular activities are demanded in USA?
4.Which universities do students prefer in UK?
5.What is SAT?

Mətn 17:
It’s estimated that there are 1.5 billion vegetarians on the planet today. Not all of
those people are vegetarian by choice. Some don’t have access to meat, and for others
it’s simply too expensive. But for a lot of people approximately 75 million worldwide
– vegetarianism is a lifestyle choice. These vegetarians often choose a veggie diet for
ethical, environmental or health reasons.
A vegetarian eats no meat at all, including white meat (like chicken, turkey, etc.) or
fish. Vegans, on the other hand, don’t eat or use any animal products at all – for
example they don’t eat eggs, cheese or honey.
Many vegetarians and vegans choose not to eat meat or animal products for ethical
and environmental reasons. Often they are unhappy about the bad treatment of
animals. Industrial farming for meat, milk and eggs often means that animals don’t
have enough space to move around, they don’t have enough contact with other
animals and they never go outdoors.
Some people choose a vegetarian lifestyle to improve their general health. According
to the Vegetarian Society, a meat-free diet could help reduce the risk of certain
cancers and the possibility of heart disease, as well as other health problems such as
obesity and high blood pressure.
Of course, being vegetarian doesn’t simply mean cutting out certain foods from your
diet. To ensure that your body gets all the protein, vitamins, etc. that it needs, it’s
important to replace animal products with a good variety of foods like nuts, seeds,
grains, cereals and vegetables.
It seems that young people are among the most likely to turn towards a vegetarian
diet, and research shows that many more people are likely to become vegetarian in the
future. A lot of teenagers decide to try out a veggie diet, and for many this becomes a
lifelong choice.

Define true or false.

6.1. Vegans don’t consume eggs, cheese, and honey as part of their diet.
A)True B)False
6.2. A meat-free diet may not reduce the risk of certain health issues like cancer and
heart disease.
A)True B)False
6.3. Vegetarians consume any form of meat, including white meat and fish.
A)True B)False
6.4. A lot of young people are choosing to be vegetarian, and research says more
people will become vegetarian in the future.
A)True B)False

7. Choose the correct definition of the underlined word.

A) a continuous area or expanse which is free, available, or unoccupied.
B) the quality or state of being different or diverse
C) put (something) back in a previous place or position.
D) used to show that something is almost, but not completely
E) a thing that may happen or be the case.

8. Answer the question according to the passage.

What foods can be included in a vegetarian diet to ensure it is nutritionally balanced?
A) Red meat and poultry
B) Seafood and eggs
C) Nuts, seeds, grains, cereals, and vegetables
D) Dairy products and honey
E) Processed foods and sugary snacks

9.Complete the sentence according to the passage.

Some people choose to be vegetarians because they think that…
A) it is trend and vital
B) eating meat doesn’t harm animals at all
C) being vegetarian doesn’t harm the environment
D) being vegetarian improve their general health
E) there is no specific reason for it

10. Which questions doesn’t the passage answer?

1.When did vegetarianism begin?
2.What is the difference between vegetarians and vegans?
3. Why do people choose to be vegetarians?
4. Which country in the world has the highest number of vegetarians?
5. Who is the name of the first vegetarian in the world?

Mətn 18:
Nowadays growing number of young adults in all societies commit crimes,
especially crimes of violence. They steal and destroy property and some of them have
even learned to make bombs which explode occupied shops or houses and injure
people. In using bombs, guns and other weapons they directly express their hostility
to society.
Many of the young people commit crimes because they suffer from the countless
problems of modern society: physical abuse, mental cruelty, rows with parents and
step-parents. The circumstances of juvenile crimes and the background and
psychology of the young criminals have been the subject of investigation by social
workers. According to some investigators, the children who are responsible for
committing crimes often suffer from neglect at home. Family pattern has changed and
consequently children have less supervision at home.
Other causes of delinquent acts include frustration or failure in school, the increased
availability of drugs and alcohol, changing in the economy that lead to fewer job
opportunities for youth and also hedonistic tendencies. Juvenile gangs are typically
classified as violent, delinquent or social. Members of violent gangs sometimes have
unstable personalities. The delinquent gang is a small cohesive group developed to
carry out criminal acts, such as thievery and mugging. Although violence may be used,
the primary goal is material gain.

11.Define true or false.

11.1. The conditions of crimes and the character of criminals have been investigated
by researchers.
A) True B) False
11.2. Thievery and mugging are usually the main works of delinquent gangs.
A) True B) False
11.3. Increased accessibility of alcohol doesn't have any affect in increasing crime
rates.
A) True B) False
11.4. Young people commit especially crimes of violence.
A) True B) False

12. What does the word "hostility" mean in the passage?

A) immorality
B) tolerance
C) unfriendliness
D) hospitality
E) sympathy

13.Complete the sentence according to the passage.

A significant number of youth engage in criminal activities due to…
A) family care, friends, and social circle
B) positive attitudes, specific goals
C) more job oppurtinities, education
D) physical abuse, mental cruelty, step-parents
E) good habits,drugs,alcohol

14.The "delinquent gang" means according to passage.

A) A group is a small social group where the members have direct, intimate, and
long-term connections.
B) A compact, closely-bonded group is created with the primary objective of
committing criminal acts, including theft and mugging.
C) A group is a collection of individuals that share common goals in a political
structure.
D) A group is one that is deliberately created to perform a specific task.
E) A compact, closely-bonded group is created with the primary objective of creating
peace for humanity
15. Which of the questions does the passage answer?
1. How do cultural factors contribute to the increase in juvenile crime?
2. What are some factors that contribute to young people engaging in criminal
activities?
3. How many young adults involved in violent crime?
4. How friends influence young offenders?
5. What are the different types of juvenile gangs, and what are their primary goals and
activities?

Mətn19:

Bacteria-tiny living things exist everywhere in the environment. They exist deep
under the ground. They exist in oceans and lakes. They exist inside of plants and
animals. They exist on people’s hands and in their noses. People cannot see them.
Moreover, bacteria have many effects on humans. There are many kinds of bacteria.
Some are harmful and others are harmless. Many bacteria actually help us.
Sometimes the word germs is used to describe harmful bacteria. Germs can cause
terrible diseases such as cholera and tuberculosis. Cholera bacteria live in dirty water.
If a person drinks the dirty water, the bacteria will infect his digestive system. He will
suffer terrible stomach pains. Some diseases easily transfer from one person to
another. For example, someone who has tuberculosis bacteria in her lungs can transfer
the disease if she coughs or sneezes. The bacteria come out of her mouth or nose and
proceed into the surrounding air. People who breathe the air will breathe in the
harmful bacteria. Often foods have germs growing on them or inside of them. Eating
the food could make people sick. However, there are ways to prevent getting sick. For
instance, washing fruits before eating them will wash away many harmful germs.
Heat is another way to destroy harmful bacteria. Cooking meat for a long time will
make it safe to eat. Not all bacteria are harmful. Some bacteria help humans in many
ways. For example, millions of good bacteria exist in the body’s digestive system.
They help change the food we eat, so our bodies can use the vitamins in the food.
Also, good bacteria are needed to make certain foods, such as cheeses and yogurts.
Many bacteria also help the environment. For example, bacteria help break down dead
plant material, such as fallen leaves, so it can mix with the soil.

6.Decide correct true or false statement.

6.1. Coughing can transfer tuberculosis to others and infect them.
A) true B) false
6.2. Helpful bacteria can cause diseases.
A) true B) false
6.3. Bacteria have no positive on our lives or on our environment.
A) true B) false
6.4. People react to bacteria by getting sick.
A) true B) false

7.The verb “to transfer” in the passage means…

A) to say or write what someone or something is like
B) to stop something from happening or someone from doing something
C) to have an influence on someone or something, or to cause them to change
D) to move someone or something from one place, vehicle, person or group to
another
E) to have or do two or more things, such as activities or qualities, at the same time

8.What is the word “suffer” meaning?

A) endure
B) surround
C) harmless
D) decrease
E) germ

9. Choose the true statements.

1. Not all the bacteria are harmful for people.
2. Washing food before eating them will wash away many bacteria.
3. Bacteria can only exist under the ground.
4. Heating food for a long time will be helpful for harmful bacteria.
A) 1,4
B) 2,3
C) 3,4
D) 1,2
E) 2,4

10.Which question has no answer in the passage?

1.Where can bacteria exist?
2.What diseases can bacteria cause?
3.What foods require bacteria to make them?
4.How long time is needed to cook meat for making it safe to eat?
5.Why do bacteria exist in our bodies?

Mətn20:
I.There are several reasons why cities are growing. One reason is that big cities are
major business centers. Many factories, offices, and stores are located in big cities.
These businesses need workers. People are moving to cities so that they can find good
jobs. They want jobs that pay enough money to support themselves and their
families.
II.Many big cities are also major ocean ports. Port cities have grown because
international trade has been increasing. Ships bring materials into the city. Workers
are needed to unload the materials and deliver them to factories and stores. Big cities
are also major transportation centers. They have airports, train stations, and bus
terminals. Convenient transportation enables visitors to come to the cities to live or
for shopping, business, or vacations. Finally, big cities are likely to have large
universities and technical schools that attract students to study there.
III….. .For example, new buildings must be constructed for families to live in.
Growing businesses need new buildings, too. However, there is usually very little
empty space within the area of a large city. As a result, even a small plot of land is
expensive. For this reason, builders are removing small, one-story buildings that were
constructed in previous times. They are replacing them with tall, vertical buildings.
Heights of some famous skyscrapers apartment building might provide living space
for 25 people. A ten-story building occupying the same land area could provide living
space for 250 people.
11.Decide which statements are correct or false.
11.1Many people who previously lived in the cities move to farms and small towns.
A)true B)false
11.2A city offers many jobs that can help people to support themselves and their
families.
A)true B)false
11.3Problems occur when large numbers of people live in a limited area.
A)true B)false
11.4.Big cities are also transportation centres and ocean ports.
A)true B)false

12.The verb “to enable” means….

A) to make someone able to do something, or to make something possible
B) to take something or someone away from somewhere, or off something
C) to increase in size or amount, or to become more advanced or developed
D) to pull or draw someone or something towards them, by the qualities they have,
especially good ones
E) to fill, exist in, or use a place or period of time

13.Which of the given sentence can start the third paragraph?

A) As cities grow, they face several problems when large numbers of people live in a
limited area.
B)You can find convenient workplaces in big cities
C)There are a lot of cities which are main ocean ports
D)Many university students move to the big cities for studying
E)Business people who live in the cities, they can’t find suitable workplaces for their
companies.

14.What is the closest meaning for the word “convenient”?

A)uncomfortable
B)useless
C)suitable
D)expensive
E)previous

15.Which question has no answer in the passage?

1.Why do people move to big cities?
2.Why smaller buildings are replaced with higher ones?
3.Which transportation is much more convenient for visitors?
4.What problems do cities face when they expand?
5.How many people are decreasing in cities?

Mətn21:

There are more than 150 countries in the world. Some of them are very big, with
millions of people. Others are smaller than some cities, with only a few thousand
people.
 People in different countries have their own customs (i.e. social habits), traditions,
languages and beliefs. There are, of course, very obvious differences. A visitor
immediately sees what people look like, the different money they use and the different
food they eat. However, there are some differences you cannot see immediately. You
learn about these when you get to know the people of the country well.
One difference between different countries is the way people greet their friends. In
France, for example, people kiss one another on both cheeks. In Britain, people
usually only kiss close friends and relatives, and only shake hands with people they
meet for the first time.
There are also a lot of different customs linked with eating. For instance, in many
countries people say something to each other before they start eating, such as 'Guten
Appetit', but in Britain this is not the custom. In the United States people cut their
meat into small pieces before they start to eat, and then they eat only with a fork. In
Germany, it is impolite to cut potatoes with a knife, and in many countries, people
don't eat with knives or forks at all.
What people do in their spare time in the evening or at the weekend can also be
very different. Sport is an example of this. Cricket is a popular sport in Britain but not
in the rest of Europe. People race camels in Saudi Arabia and watch Sumo wrestling
which is prominent in Japan. All these differences between countries make travel
interesting.

6. Describe whether the statements are true or false according to the passage.
6.1 People in all countries around the world have similar traditions and customs.
A) True B) False
6.2 There are roughly one hundred fifteen countries in the world.
A) True B) False
6.3 In Britain, people usually only shake hands with close friends and relatives.
A) True B) FFals
6.4 Watching Sumo wrestling is popular in Japan.
A) True B) False

7. Which word in the passage means "the other things or parts that remain or
that have not been mentioned"?
A) spare
B) cricket
C) the rest
D) wrestling
E) cheek

8. It is stated in the passage that in Germany, it is not accepted...

A) to cut potatoes with a knife
B) to cut meal into small pieces
C) to kiss close friends or relatives
D) to shake hands with people you meet for the first time
E) to say "Guten Apetit" to each other before eating

9. According to the passage, people become aware of differences in other

countries when they....
A) get to know the people of the country well.
B) shake hands with them
C) are reluctant to know new people
D) avoid knowing them
E) kiss one another on both cheeks

10. Which question has no answer in the passage?

1.What does a visitor notice immediately when they are in foreign countries?
2. What languages do people speak in most European countries?
3.What do people do in Britain when they meet close friends?
4.How do people greet one another in German?
5. What is the most well-known sports activity in Japan?

Mətn22:
Bill Gates was born on October 28, 1955, in Seattle, where he grew up with his two
sisters and where he still lives with his wife and children. In 1973 he studied math at
Harvard, where he met Steve Ballmer, now president of Microsoft. He left Harvard
after a year and started Microsoft in 1975 with Paul Allen. It employs more than
32,000 people in sixty different countries. He learned a lot from his parents. While
Bill was going to school, his father went to college, got a degree, and became a
successful lawyer. From this, Bill learned that you have to work hard if you want
something. His mother was a very busy teacher, but she also enjoyed going to parties.
From this, he learned something else; If you want to work hard and play hard, you
have to make a schedule. When Bill was young, he spent a lot of time alone. While
most of his friends were playing, Bill read all of the World Book Encyclopedia and
finished it when he was 8 years old. Bill’s childhood was not all work, however. He
used to play a lot of sports – swimming, water-skiing, tennis. He was very serious
about sports. He loved winning and hated losing. When Bill got older, he spent more
and more time working and playing on a computer. Before he was 20 Bill developed
the world’s first computer language for the personal computer. Once when he was
thinking about the future, he realized something important. He thought that every
home was going to have a computer, and every computer would need software his
software. He said, “I’m going to make my first million dollars on software by the time
I’m 25”. And he did!

11.Describe whether the statements are true or false according to the passage.
11.1. Bill developed the world’s first computer language for the personal computer
after he was 20.
A)True B)False
11.2. He wasn’t making enough money when he was 25 years old.
A)True B)False
11.3. Bill wasn’t pleased to lose a game of tennis.
A)True B)false
11.4. Microsoft corporation employs more than 32,000 people
A)true B)False

12. Choose the synonym of the word “lawyer”.

A) prosecutor
B) attorney
C) physiologist
D) judge
E) impious

13. The word “software” is closest to the following definition:

A) the machinery and electronic parts of a computer system
B) changing shape easily when pressed
C) the programs used to operate a computer
D) an agreement that still exists but is ignored
E) a person who writes computer programs

14. It is stated in the passage that when Bill was thinking about the future, he
realized that…..
A) he needn’t work a lot if you want something
B) he had to make a lot of money
C) every home was going to have a computer, and every computer would need his
software.
D) it was obligatory to waste time on unnecessary things.
E) If you want to work hard and shouldn’t make a schedule.

15. Which question has no answer in the passage?

1. When did Bill abandon Harvard?
2.How much time did he spend to develop the world’s first computer language for the
personal computer?
3.What was his sister’s occupation?
4. Who was the owner of Microsoft?
5. What sports activities did Bill enjoy?

Mətn23:

I.Australia is a huge country, and the outback (the Australian word of the interior of
the country) is desert. In some years, it rains only 8 centimeters in the outback, but in
other years, rainstorms turn the desert into sandy swamps
II. In 1860, Robert O’Hara Burke, a police officer from Ireland, was chosen to lead an
expedition across the continent from south to north. He took with him William John
Wills and eleven other men, camels, horses, and enough supplies for a year and a half.
They left Melbourne for the Gulf of Carpentaria on August 20, winter in the southern
hemisphere.
III.The expedition had problems from the beginning. Burke had no experience in the
outback. The men fought and would not follow orders. Twice they left some of their
supplies, so they could move faster and later sent one of the men, William Wright,
back for them.
IV.Finally, a small group led by Burke moved on ahead of the others to a river
named Cooper’s Creek and set up their base camp. They were halfway across the
continent, but it was summer now, with very hot weather and sandstorms.
V.They waited a month for Wright, and then Burke decided that four from his small
group, with 3 months’ supplies, should travel the 1250 kilometers to the north coast as
quickly as possible. They told the others to wait for them at Cooper’s Creek.
VI.The journey across the desert was very difficult, but at the end of January, they
reached the Flinders River near the Gulf of Carpentaria.
VII.They started their return journey, but now it was the rainy season and traveling
was slow and even more difficult than on their trip north. They did not have enough
food, and the men became hungry and sick. Then one of them died. Some of the
camels died or were killed for food.
VIII.Finally, on April 21, they arrived back at Cooper’s Creek, only to find that no
one was there. The rest of the expedition left the day before because they
thought burke must be dead. . IX.The men continued south, but without enough
food, both Burke and Wills died. Aborigines helped the last man who was still alive,
and a search party found him in September 1861. He was half crazy from hungry and
loneliness.
X.….. It had an inexperienced leader, the men made bad decisions, some did not
follow orders, and they did not get along. But they were the first expedition to cross
Australia, and Burke and Wills are still known as heroes of exploration.

6. Decide whether the statements are true or false according to the passage.
6.1 Much of the interior of Australia is swampy all year long.
A) True B) False
6.2 Twelve men were crossing Australia with Burke.
A) True B) False
6.3 August is wintertime in the southern hemisphere.
A) True B) False
6.4 Aborigines were rescued by the last man alive in an expedition.
A) True B) False

7 . Which sentence can start paragraph X?

A)The first Europeans in Australia built villages in the Outback.
B) There were many reasons that the expedition did not go as it was planned.
C) Burke and Wills did not have enough food for their journey back to Cooper’s
Creek.
D) The sandstorm slowed the expedition down while heading to the north.
E) The reason why the expedition was failed due to the lack of the food supplies, not
poor weather condition.

8. Complete the given sentence according to the passage, Four men from Bruke’s
team should reach the north coast as soon as possible….
A) to inform the team members about sandstorm
B) to alert the others to go home at once
C) to notify the rest to wait for them at Cooper’s Creek
D) to tell the rest the expedition to gather in the south
E) to ask the search party to save them near Carpentaria.

9. Which word in the passage best fits to the definition “an area of low-lying,
uncultivated ground where water. Collects”
A) Supply
B) Desert
C) Outback
D) Exploration
E) Swamp

10. Which of the questions does the passage answer?

1.In which part of Australia did first Europeans settle?
2.Who appointed Robert O’Hara Burke as an expedition leader?
3.Why did the men leave some of their supplies behind them?
4. Why was it more problematic to travel south?
5. What happened to some of the camels?

Mətn 24:
I. Computers are machines that can help us in many ways. But they cannot think or do
things on their own. Humans have to feed them with information and tell them what
to do with it. They cannot come up with any new information. But they can save
much time and work. For example, all the information and the office files can be
stored in a computer’s “memory”. If a clerk were to trace any information from a
particular file, the computer would only take seconds to find it. It would take a clerk
day or even weeks to go through every file if no computers were used.
II. The first computers were huge and costly. They filled up almost the whole floor of
large offices. Later, because of the usefulness and demand for computers in business,
scientists soon found ways to produce cheaper and smaller computers. They invented
chips which made it possible to store more information in less space.
III...... They can just be placed on top of an ordinary writing table. They can even be
carried from place to place easily. Computers are not only used in offices by
companies, but they are also used at home, by families who can afford them.
IV. Robots, on the other hand, are not mechanical people. They are only moving parts
controlled by a computer. A robot can do the same work for twenty-four hours, and
yet, it does not complain or get tired. In the United States robots are computers that
tell them where to guard and what to do. These robots are programmed to listen for
certain noises and signals for help in case of trouble or danger.
V. In Japan and in some places in America, robots are used in factories to assemble
cars. As computers become more common businesses and factories, people fear that
one day computers and computer-controlled robots will put human workers out of
work.

11.Define true or false.

11.1 Computers must be provided with information and tell them what to do as
computers cannot think or do things alone.
A) True B) False
11.2 As they were huge, the first computers fill up almost the whole floor.
A) True B) False
11.3 Robots are mechanical people
A) True B) False
11.4 Humans fear that one day computers and robots will make humans jobless.
A) True B) False

12.Choose the closest meaning to the word “come up with”

A) offer
B) result
C) complain
D) control
E) deny
13. Which sentence can start the third paragraph?
A) Computers are of great importance nowadays
B) Today, computers are not only cheaper, but also more compact.
C) Robots are aimed to listen for certain signals
D) Computers are able to store more information
E) Computer controlled robots will put human workers out of work.

14. Complete the given sentence according to the passage. As computers become
more common businesses and factories, people fear that….
A) they will be able to get new job opportunities
B) people will be delighted
C) people will have tendency to lose their jobs
D) the number of workforces will increase
E) computers will get out of order

15. Which of the following statements is/are NOT TRUE?

1. Robots are controlled by a computer.
2. Robots are machine-driven people.
3. Robots don’t get weary.
4. Robots guard factories and museums in U.S.
5. Robots are set to assist in case of emergency.

Mətn 25:
The idea to create a new capital city for Brazil to be located near the center of this
vast existed since at least the early 19th century. In 1827, the plan for a new capital
named Brasilia to be constructed was created by Jose Bonifacio, advisor to Emperor
Pedro I, which was presented to the General Assembly of Brazil, but was not put into
practice. In 1883, the Italian priest Don Bosco laid out a dream in which he described
the building of a new, futuristic city at the heart of South America. However, it was
not until 1957 that plans to do so were officially begun by the Brazilian government.
Brazilian urban planner Lucio Costa was selected to guide the construction of the new
city, designing a distinctive cross-axial shape for the city as a whole, simultaneously
resembling a cross, an airplane, or a bird in flight, which is thought to symbolize the
discovery and conquest of Brazil.
The city was designed to incorporate two major components, the so-called
"Monumental Axis" which ran from east to west and is designated for political and
administrative activities, and the "Residential Axis" which ran from north to south
and was intended for housing. schooling, and recreation.
The epic scale of this project, inspired by the modernist architectural concepts of
thinkers such as Le Corbusier who thought that good architecture and planning could
change the way that people lived their lives, created an ambitious and unique city
which was officially inaugurated on April 21st, 1960.
Since its inauguration, the population of Brasilia has grown at a rate that exceeded
initial expectations, becoming the third most populous city in Brazil.
In 1987, the city's original urban and governmental buildings were granted UNESCO
World Heritage Site status in recognition of the historical significance of their
modernist design. Since 1988, the city has held the right to elect its own Governor and
District Assembly.

6. Decide whether the statements are true or false.

6.1 Emperor Pedro I was the advisor to Jose Bonifacio.
A) True B) False
6.2 Emperor Pedro I presented the plan for a new capital to the General Assembly
of Brazil.
A) True B) False
6. 3 The plan for a new capital was put into practice as soon. as it was presented.
A) True B) False
6.4 Brazilian government began the construction before 1957.
A) True B) False

7. Choose the correct definition of the underlined word.

A) prescribed or recognized as authorized
B) relating to the management of a company, school, or other organization
C) existing or occurring at the same time
D) having or giving an uncommon and appealing quality
E) of or relating to the beginning

8. Answer the question using the passage.

What does a bird in flight stand for?
A ) How difficult the construction of the new capital was.
B) Brazil's discovery and invasion.
C) Two major components of the city.
D) To show the birds and airline importance in the city.
E) To demonstrate political and administrative activities of the city.

9. Complete the given sentence according to the passage.

What has happened since the inauguration of the capital city?
A) The number of people living in Brasilia has increased significantly.
B) The population of Brasilia has decreased a lot.
C) There was no change in the number of people living there.
D) It was recognized as a historical site.
E) It became the third less populous city in Brazil.
10. Which of the following questions does the passage answer?
1. Why was "Monumental Axis" designed?
2. By whom was the epic scale of the project inspired?
3. Whom did Lucio Costa select to guide the construction of the new city?
4. What was the number of people living in Brasilia before inauguration?
5. What right has city held since
1988?

Mətn 26:
A ritual is a ceremony, an event that takes place in a particular order on a regular basis.
For at least 6,000 years, people, especially women, in nearly all societies in the world,
have been performing daily rituals with the purpose of making themselves
beautiful. Skin and hair care products (called cosmetics) are not modern inventions,
because ancient societies used them, too. In fact, some of the present-day beauty
rituals have roots in very old practices.
Ancient Egyptians invented first skin creams and lip balms made of beeswax, olive oil
and rosewater. They also came up lotions for problems like baldness and greying hair.
It is believed that Cleopatra, a famous Egyptian Queen, regularly bathed in milk and
honey to maintain her beauty. In today’s Iran, people used a black powder called kohl
to darken their eyelids, in a ritual similar to what people do with eyeliners.
Chinese people started using nail polish around 5,000 years ago. Different colors,
made of gelatin, beeswax and egg white, were used by different social classes. For
example, lower classes were not allowed to paint their nails in bright colors. The
empress Wu Ze Tian of China regularly put pearl powder on her skin. Hundreds of
years later, Chinese medical books recorded that oyster pearls encourage skin growth
and remove any signs of ageing. The earliest records show even Cleopatra had
caravans of shea butter delivered to her to use for her skin. Shea butter is particularly
useful during the dry season in countries like Ghana to prevent skin damage. What’s
more. It can also be edible and can be used instead of cooking oil. Throughout the
Middle Ages in Europe, the ideal of beauty among higher classes was pale skin. For
this reason, royals stayed indoors most of time, and used additional white powder to
make them look paler.

11. Decide whether the statements are true or false.

11.1. The rituals are carried out annually.
A) True B) False
11.2 Skin care products are new inventions.
A) True B) False
11.3 A black powder was used in Iran to darken hair.
A) True B) False
11.4 In China It was forbidden for lower classes to paint their nails.
A) True B) False
12. Choose the correct answer according to the passage.
What is the benefit of shea butter?
A) It protects the skin from damage
B) It is used to paint the nails
C) It stops the aging process
D) It prevents the hair getting grey
E) It helps to make the skin paler

13. Choose the correct meaning of the underlined word.

A) to become worse
B) to become well again after an illness or injury
C) to keep something at the same level
D) to cure an illness or injury
E) to make somebody look and feel good

14. Complete the sentence according to the passage.

In the Middle Ages the members of royal family in Europe stayed at home most
of the time…
A) because those days it was fashionable to look pale
B) because they didn’t want to damage their skin
C) because the sun’s rays were dangerous for their skin
D) because their aging process increased when they went out
E) because they didn’t want to use white powder to make them look pale.

15. Which of the following questions does the passage answer?

1. What is purpose of rituals that woman have been carrying out for 6000 years?
2. In which country was modern day cosmetics invented?
3. Who was Cleopatra?
4. What eliminates signs of ageing?
5. Where was shea butter brought from?

Mətn 27:
I.The Azerbaijani language has rich literary traditions. The earliest literature in the
language dates back to the 16th century. Azerbaijani in its earlier form was more of a
poetic language, and was used primarily for writing epic and Ivric poetry. Later on
along with poems the language was used in a number of official documents and
scientific research.
II. Though the dictionaries of the old Azerbaijani language were compiled and
grammatical researches were conducted in the Middle ages, the scientific works,
textbooks, newspapers and magazines began to appear in the 19th century. The first
newspaper in the Azerbaijani language was published in 1875.
III. At that time foreigners displayed a great interest in this language and some of
then started learning it. Among them were Russian poets Lermontov and Bestuzhev-
Marlinski.

6. Decide whether the statements are true or false.

6.1. The first works in Azerbaijani were epic and lyric poetry.
A) True B) False
6.2. The 16 century is connected with the appearance of the first newspaper.
A) True B) False
6.3. Some foreigners did their best to learn Azerbaijani.
A) True B) False
6.4. Lermontov was a Russian poet who learned Azerbaijani.
A) True B) False

7. Complete the sentence. “To produce a book by bringing together articles”

means…
A) to conduct
B) to compile
C) to use
D) to start
E) to display

8. According to the passage all of the following statements are true, except one?
As a peculiar language, Azerbaijani…
A) attracted foreigners’ attention.
B) has no literary traditions.
C) was popular only in Azerbaijan.
D) was used only in documents.
E) was used for writing poems.

9. What does the word “to appear” mean in the passage?

A) to produce a report by collecting information
B) to come into view, to become visible
C) to choose somebody for an important role
D) to provide somebody with everything necessary
E) to have or keep an image in your memory.

10. Which of the following questions does the passage answer?

1. What is the first published newspaper?
2. Who published the first newspaper?
3. When was the first newspaper published in Azerbaijani language?
4. When did the first Azerbaijani dictionary appear?
5. Who started to learn Azerbaijani language in 1875?

Mətn 28:
I.The roadrunner lives in the desert zone of the southwestern United States and
northern Mexico. It is a bird, but it can only fly about as much as a chicken can.
People gave it its name because they usually see it running across a road, but, of
course, it spends more time among the plants of the desert than it does on roads.
II.The roadrunner is quite a large bird about 45 centimeters long and 25 high. People
laugh when it runs because it looks so funny. It holds its head straight out in front and
its tail sticks straight out in back. It takes long steps and can run 30 Kilometers an
hour.
III….. Although it eats plants occasionally, it is mostly a meat eater. Most of its diet
is insects, but it also catches birds, mice, and other small animals. It is even brave
enough to widow spiders. Catch tarantulas, snakes, and black
IV.Roadrunners can also become friendly with people. When the woman whistles, the
bird comes running. When the man walks out the driveway, the roadrunner walks
along behind, like a dog or cat.
V.In the winter, when nighttime temperatures in the desert can be 20°C colder than
during the day, the weather doesn’t become warm until the middle of the morning.
The roadrunner has an unusual way of keeping warm in this cold weather. In the early
morning, the roadrunner stands with its back to the sun. It holds out its wings and lifts
the feathers on its upper back. There is a dark spot on the skin under these feathers.
This spot collects heat from the sun and warms the bird’s body. The bird doesn’t need
to use a lot of energy to keep warm the way that most birds do.
VI. Some people in Mexican villages use roadrunner meat as medicine. They believe
that because roadrunners can eat poisonous animals and not die, their meat should be
good for human sickness.

11. Decide whether the statements are true or false according to the passage.
11.1 Roadrunners can be found only in the United States.
A) True B) False
11.2 A roadrunner is afraid of people and stays away from them.
A) True B) False
11.3 The difference between daytime and nighttime temperature is typical in the
desert.
A) True B)False
11.4 A roadrunner uses a lot of energy keeping warm in winter.
A) True B) False

12. Which information isn’t mentioned in the passage?

A) the place where the roadrunners live
B) the unusual way of the roadrunners keeping them warm
C) the appearance of the roadrunners
D) the diets of the roadrunners
E) roadrunner meat as a dangerous food

13. Which sentence can start paragraph III?

A) The roadrunner eats an amazing variety of food.
B) The diet of the roadrunners favors insects, small reptiles except tarantulas.
C) The roadrunner is fast enough to catch several birds, mice.
D) The nourishment of the roadrunners contains just snakes not spiders.
E) The most favorable food for the roadrunners is herb.

14. Choose the correct meaning of the word underlined in the passage.
A) the quality of being hot; high temperature
B) the strength and vitality required for sustained physical or mental activity
C) a small round or roundish mark, differing in color or texture from the surface
around it:
D) a short road leading from a public road to a house or garage
E) a kind of food that a person, animal, or community habitually eats

15. Which question does the passage answer?

1. What is the roadrunner like?
2.Why do Mexicans use roadrunner meat as medicine?
3.How can a roadrunner keep it warm?
4. When do the women whistle?
5. Can daytime temperatures in the desert be below zero?
Mətn 29:
I. Family life nowadays is not the same experience as in the past, because families are
smaller. In the past, there were advantages and disadvantages of having a big family.
The main benefit was that in such families children learned to live in a community
where every member was equal. Parents shared their love and attention between all
their children.
II. The main disadvantage was financial. One of the parents had to stay at home to
look after the children. The family often lived in poverty and parents had no
opportunity to pay for their chil children's education. The biggest problem was that
parents could not pay so mucli attention to their children, and children with problems
sometimes suffered.
III. However, the advantages of large families were greater than the disadvantages.
The family had less money, but family members formed a stronger relationship and
they supported and helped each other when they had troubles. Also, people were
always surrounded by their relatives, so they were never miserable.

11. Decide whether the statements are true or false.

11.1. Big families had to solve endless problems.
A) True B) False
11. 2 Both parents in big families had an oppurtunity to work to earn living.
A) True B) False
11. 3 Though families lived a hard life, their members could form a strong
relationship between one another.
A) True B) False
11. 4 The disadvantage of large families were greater than the advantages.
A) True B) False

12. The underlined word "they" refers to...

A) relatives
B) advantages
C) people
D) families
E) troubles

13. According to the passage all of the following statements are true, except one?
Family life in the past….
A) Children couldn't get education.
B) Every member had unequal rights.
C) Little attention was paid to children.
D) Hard conditions made children suffer.
E) Family members didn't feel miserable.

14. What does the word "a community" mean in the passage?
A) all the people who were born at the same time
B) a place where people have come to live and make their homes
C) all the people living in a particular place
D) a person who settles in a colony
E) a large farm, owned and run by a group of people

15. Which of the following questions does the passage answer?

1. What were the advantages of large families?
2. What were the disadvantages of large families?
3. How did they solve the problem when the family had less money?
4. What was the income of the large family?
5. How many people do big families consists of?

Mətn 30:
If you love chocolate, maybe you have eaten a bar of Cadbury’s Bournville chocolate.
But Bournville isn’t just the name of an English chocolate bar. It’s the name of a
village which was built especially for workers at the Cadbury’s chocolate factory.
George and Richard Cadbury took over the cocoa and chocolate business from their
father in 1861. A few years later, they decided to move the factory out of the center of
Birmingham, to a new location where they could expand. They chose an area close to
the railways and canals so that they could receive milk deliveries easily and send the
finished products to stores across the country.
Here, the air was much cleaner than in the city center, and the Cadbury brothers
thought it would be a much healthier place for their employees to work. They named
the site Bournville after a local river called ‘The Bourn’. “Ville’, the French word for
town, was used because at the time, people thought French chocolate was the highest
quality. The new factory opened in 1879. Close to it, they built a village where the
factory workers could live. By 1900, there were 313 houses on the site, and many
more were built later.
The Cadbury family were religious and believed that it was right to help other people.
They thought their workers deserved to live and work in good conditions. In the
factory, workers were given a fair wage, a pension and access to medical treatment.
The village was also designed to provide the best possible conditions for workers too.
The Cadbury brothers were among the first business owners to ensure that their
workers had good standards of living. Soon, other British factory owners were
copying their ideas. Today, over 25,000 people live in Bournville village. Over a
hundred years since the first house in Bournville Village was built, the aims of its
founders are still carried out.

6. Decide whether the statements are true or false

6. 1.The name of the village which was constructed for workers at factory was
Bournville.
A) True B) False
6. 2. Two brothers decided to move factory to the center of Birmingham.
A) True B) False
6. 3. The was no reason for choosing area near the railways.
A) True B) False
6. 4. Cadbury chose the area as they wanted their worker to work in a healthy place.
A) True B) False

7. Choose the correct definition of the underlined word.

A) to become greater in size, number or importance
B) to make sure that something happens or is definite
C) to have earned or to be given something because of the way you have behaved or
the qualities you have
D) to feel certain that something is true or that somebody is telling you the truth
E) to give a lot of your time and effort to a particular activity or purpose because you
think it is important

8. Complete the sentence according to the passage.

The areas close to the railways and canals was a perfect place…
A) because their workers could easily travel to the center of the city
B) because it was easy to receive and send something
C) as the air here was much fresher
D) because it was near the village
E) because of his father’s wish

9. Choose the correct answer according to the passage.

Why did they create such conditions for their workers?
A) because their workers did their bests.
B) because they wanted them to work hard
C) because they were in the opinion that their workers deserved these things
D) because they hoped to earn a lot of money
E) because workers wanted to work in good conditions

10. Which of the questions does the passage answer?

1. What is the meaning of the word “The Bourn” in French?
2. Which countries chocolate had the high quality at that time?
3. How many houses built after 1900?
4. What is the name of the factory copying The Cadbury brothers’ ideas?
5. How many people live in Bournville now?

Mətn 31:
I.Right now, somewhere in the world, Tom Turcich is walking. He started his hike in
April 2015 and is still going. His intention is to walk across every continent in the
world.
II.Tom made the decision to travel the world after one of his close friends died at the
age of 17. The tragedy encouraged Tom to make the most of his own life. He spent
the next few years completing college and working to save money, and in 2015, he
finally quit his job, packed a few belongings and set off on foot from his home in New
Jersey, USA which is also his final destination.
III.He picked up a dog called Savannah from an animal shelter in Texas. At first, he
thought it would be useful to have a dog protecting him, but the two soon became
perfect travel companions.
IV.Turcich usually walks about 38 kilometres a day, burning 5000 calories daily. He
has encountered a number of difficulties on the way. He carries just a tent, a sleeping
bag and a few basic supplies, all of which he pushes a baby stroller, as he found that it
requires less effort than carrying a backpack.
V.When he first started out, his legs ached at the end of the day. But he is now used to
the exercise, although he makes sure to spend time at the end of the day stretching his
legs. He had worn out several pairs of hiking boots already, each pair lasting about
800 kilometres.
VI. Tom keeps a blog where he documents his travels and posts wonderful
photographs that he has taken along the way. He had never been interested in
photography before he started his journey but now loves the art form. He hopes that
after returning to the USA, he will be able to work as travel writer or photographer.
11. Decide whether the statements are true or false
11. 1 Turcich is walking across his own country
A) True B) False
11.2 Tom decided to begin his travel after his friend advised him to do it
A) True B) False
11.3 When he resigned he didn’t have any money
A) True B) False
11.4 He began his journey travelling in his own car
A) True B) False

12. Choose the correct definition of the underlined word.

A ) to stop trying to do something
B) to go to a station, an airport, etc. to say goodbye to somebody who is starting a
journey
C) to admit that you have been defeated by somebody/something
D) to leave your job, school, etc.
E) to cause an activity or event, often a series of events, to begin or happen

13. Choose the correct answer according to the passage.

What motivated Tom to make most of his own life?
A) his leaving his hometown
B) his friend’s death
C) the money that he saved
D) having a faithful dog
E) his hiking in April 2015

14. Which sentence can start the III paragraph?

A) Tom isn’t walking alone.
B) Tom doesn’t like to travel to warm places
C) Tom needed no protection
D) Tom thought about travelling alone.
E) Tom thought that it would be boring to travel without his friends

15. Which of the questions does the passage answer?

1. Which continent did he intend to go?
2. At what age did his friend pass away?
3. What is the colour of his tent?
4. Where does he buy a new pair of boots?
5. What does he want to do when he comes back?
Mətn 32:
Long before men learned how to fly, they sent objects soaring through the air. The
arrow dates from the Stone Age. The ancient Chinese flew kites. The early inhabitants
of Australia invented the boomerang, the blades of which they carved in the shape of
an airfoil. As early as the Middle Ages, men of the scientific mind prophesied human
flight. In 1250, Roger Bacon, an English friar, suggested the orthopter, a machine that
flaps its wings like a bird. He also conceived the balloon, proposing “a hollow globe
filled with ethereal air or liquid fire”. Some 250 years later, the great Italian artist and
scientist Leonardo da Vinci studied the flight of birds. About in1490. He drew
sketches for flying machines, also of the orthopter type. Leonardo made drawings of a
propeller and a helicopter. An Italian monk, Francesco de Lana, 1670 proposed a
vacuum balloon. Four spheres, from which air had been exhausted, were to support a
car equipped with oars and a sail. He overlooked the phenomenon of atmospheric
pressure, however, which would have crushed the spheres. Not until a hundred years
later was the first balloon flown successfully in public. In 1783, J. Etienne and Joseph
M. Montgolfier inflated a big paper balloon with hot which rose 6,000 feet.

1.Decide whether the statements are true or false.

1.1. The boomerang was first created by an American citizen.
A) True B) False
1.2. Da Vinci drew the picture of the flying bird.
A) True B) False
1.3. A vacuum balloon was suggested by an Italian monk in the early 16th century.
A) True B) False
1.4. The orthopter was offered in 1250.
A) True B) False

2.Complete the sentence according to the passage.

Over 500 years before the first balloon flight,…
A) boomerangs were the only means of air travel for men
B) men didn’t even know how to fire arrows
C) Leonardo da Vinci studied the flight of birds and drew flying machines
D) successful “orthopters” had already been transporting people by air
E) knowledgeable men believed successful flights would be achieved one day

3.What does the word “conceive” mean in the passage?

A) think up
B) forgive
C) forget
D) tear
E) preserve

4.Answer the question according to the passage.

What could J. Etienne and Joseph M. Montgolfier do?
A) They ignored the presence of atmospheric pressure.
B) They succeeded in a type of flight conceived several centuries earlier
C) They made many drawings but never built a successful machine.
D) They were the first men to imagine air balloons which could rise in the sky.
E) They did not think helicopters could ever be successful.

5.Which questions does the passage answer?

1. How was the first kite created?
2. What was Leonardo Da Vinci?
3. How many kites were flown by the Chinese?
4. When did an English friar propose the orthopter?
5. Where did Francesco de Lana test a vacuum balloon?

Mətn 33:
One of the most popular and exciting gymnasts to compete in the Olympic Games
was the Romanian Nadia Comaneci. Fourteen-year-old Nadia burst on the Olympic
scene when she competed in 1976 in Montreal against Olga Korbut, the great young
Russian gymnast. Olga had won two gold medals in the 1972 Olympics, and she was
going to try to repeat her victories in 1976. As Nadia watched, Olga approached the
uneven parallel bars, leapt up, caught hold of one bar, and began her routine. She
flipped, twisted, and turned. The crowd cheered, and the judges awarded Olga a score
of 9.90. It would take almost a perfect, score of 10.00 to beat Olga. Nadia was next.
She jumped and grabbed the lower bar. She performed an incredible series of whirls
and spins. She made a dazzling dismount and stood straight as an arrow, The crowd
applauded Nadia wildly. The judges were astonished by Nadia’s performance and
gave her a perfect score of 10.00! It was the first perfect gymnastic score in the
history of the Olympic Games. Nadia won three gold medals and one silver in
Montreal. Even with her perfect scores, however, she could not be called the greatest
of all women gymnasts. That honour belongs to Larissa Latynina of the former Soviet
Union, who, in three Olympics 1956, 1960 and 1964- won nine gold, five silver, and
three bronze medals.

1.Decide whether the statements are true or false.

1.1. Nadya was 10 years old in the year when Olga won 2 gold medals.
A) True B) False
1.2. Larisa Latynina had an career filled with success. eight-year Olympic
A) True B) False
1.3. Nadia’s previous success made her a tough competitor for Olga Korbut.
A) True B) False
1.4. Larissa Latynina’s perfect score marked a milestone in gymnastics history.
A) True B) False

2.Choose the logically correct ending according to the passage.

Until the 1976 Games in Montreal….
A) Nadia and Olga had not competed against each other
B) no gymnast had ever achieved a maximum score at the Olympics
C) gymnastics did not attract large audiences
D) Olga Korbut was the most successful woman gymnast of all time
E) the Romanian gymnasts had never won any gold medals

3.Complete the sentence according to the passage.

Nadia’s perfect score in Montreal …..
A) was a repeat of Larissa Latynina’s past performances
B) did not stop Olga Korbut from winning two gold medals
C) has never been achieved since
D) gave Romania its first-ever gold Medan
E) didn’t make her the best female gymnast of all time

4.From the statement in the passage, it’s clear that….

A) the minimum age for an Olympic competitor is fourteen.
B) gymnastic standards were higher in 1956, 1960 and 1964 than in 1976.
C) Olga Korbut was hoping to win more gold medals in 1976.
D) the Russians are rarely beaten by the Romanians at the Olympic Games.
E) Nadia was only better than Olga on the uneven parallel bars.

5.Which of the following questions doesn’t the passage answer?

1. What score did the judges award Olga Korbut for her performance in Montreal?
2. Who is the first gymnast to score full points in the Olympics?
3. What type of gymnastics equipment did Nadya and Olga perform on?
4. Why did the jury hesitate to score Nadia in Montreal?
5. What was Larissa’s best score at the Olympics during her career?
Mətn 34:
You may be surprised to learn that the humble bicycle was invented several years
later than the railway locomotive. But the two- wheeler has come a long way since the
day it was invented by a Scottish blacksmith, Kirkpatrick MacMillan, back (it is said)
in 1839.
MacMillan developed his bike from an older wheeled vehicle, called a “hobby horse”.
This was a wooden horse with two wheels. The rider sat on the horse and pushed the
vehicle along with his feet. It was not a very fast or safe vehicle, since it had no
steering and no brakes.
MacMillan, nicknamed Mad Pate, modified the hobby horse, by adding a system of
articulated bars. The rider could push the bars back and forwards with his feet, and
make the back wheel go round. He could also steer the bike, as the front wheel could
be turned. To demonstrate his invention, he cycled 60 miles to Glasgow. It must have
been a terrible journey, on the roads of the day. Pate’s bike did not have rubber tyres
or springs.
Mad Pate was not recognised in his time, but other people became interested in
bicycles. Twenty-five years later, a Frenchman called Pierre Lallemant designed and
patented the first bicycle with rotary pedals; and in 1876, J. Lawson added another
basic feature, “chain drive”.
Other features, such as rubber tyres and gears, have appeared since then; but the basic
bicycle has not changed.

1.Decide whether the statements are true or false.

1.1. The two-wheeled bicycle was made by a Swedish blacksmith.
A) True B) False
1.2. “Chain-drive” was added before “hobby horse” was designed.
A) True B) False
1.3. MacMillan rode his bicycle fewer than 70 miles to show his invention.
A) True B) False
1.4. The railway locomotive was invented before the bicycle.
A) True B) False

2. Answer the question according to the passage.

How was “hobby horse” used by a rider?
A) The rider pushed the brakes when he wanted to stop
B) The wooden horse was not only fast but also safe.
C) The rider used his feet to move the vehicle.
D) Nobody sat on the horse to push the “hobby horse”.
E) The vehicle had to be used with rubber tyres.

3. The sentence “Mad Pate was not recognised in his time, but other people
became interested in bicycles” implies that……
A) Mad Pate tried hard to inform people about his invention.
B) The people who were passionate about bicycles were reluctant to meet Mad Pate.
C) Mad Pate was known only by the people who were interested in bicycles.
D) Although some people were enthusiastic about bicycles they were unaware of
MacMilan.
E) MacMilan was hardly recognised by the people as nobody heard of bicycles.

4. Complete the sentence according to the passage.

To make the back wheel go round…
A) the rider pressed the bars back and forward with his hands.
B) the rider moved the bars back and forth with his feet.
C) the rider pushed the brakes back and forwards with his feet
D) the rider repaired the back and forward bars.
E) the rider pressed the back and forwards with his feet steering.

5. Which of the following questions does the passage answer?

1. How many wheels did “hobby horses” have?
2. Why and when did J. Lawson add “chain- drive”?
3. Who designed the first bicycle with rotary pedals?
4. When did MacMilan modify his bicycle?
5. Where did MacMillan go with his invention?

Mətn 35:
In 1850, during the Gold Rush, a twenty-year- old immigrant from Bavaria named
Levi Strauss stepped off the boat in San Francisco. He had with him a special cloth
called Serge de Nimes, which would later be called denim in America. Levi Strauss
hoped to sell the denim as material to make tents and covers for wagons, to the men
who were going to the goldfields to look for gold. “You should have brought pants to
sell, in the goldfields, we need strong pants that don’t wear out,” one young miner
advised Strauss. So Levi Strauss took some of his denim to the nearest tailor and had
him make the miner a pair of pants. The miner was so pleased with his pants that he
told other miners about the wonderful new Levi’s pants or Levis, and soon Levi
Strauss had to open a shop to manufacture enough trousers for the miners. The miners
wanted trousers that were comfortable to ride in. That was low-cut so they could bend
over easily to pick up the gold from under their feet, and which had big useful pockets.
One miner complained that the gold in his pockets kept tearing them. So Levi put
metal corners in the pockets to make them stronger. Very soon. Miners and cowboys
from all over came to get fitted up with Levi’s pants. Today, more than a hundred
years later, Levi’s pants walk the world as Levi’s blue jeans.
1.Decide whether the statements are true or false.
1.1. Over a century later, Levi’s blue jeans continue to be popular worldwide.
A) True B) False
1.2. The first pair of Levi’s jeans were made without any specific request.
A) True B) False
1.3. The pants’ durability and practicality were key factors in their success.
A) True B) False
1.4. Levi’s trousers became famous worldwide during the Gold Rush era.
A) True B) False

2.Complete the sentence according to the passage.

It’s clear that Levi Strauss’s original purpose for taking denim to America
was….
A) to provide jeans for the miners
B) forgotten when he got off the boat
C) to make himself equipment for going to the goldfields
D) to sell to the tailors
E) not for making trousers

3.Choose the logically correct ending according to the passage. The first pair of
Levi Strauss “jeans”…
A) were admired by many other people
B) fit the needs of the miners.
C) failed to be successful.
D) were no different from today’s models.
E) were made in Bavaria.

4.Find the correct answer due to the text.

Levi Strauss’s trousers first became well-known…
A) because they were so fashionable.
B) due to the customers talking about them.
C) as a result of their being affordable.
D) after they had been sold for a century.
E) when they had gold put into the corners.

5. Which of the following questions does the passage answer?

1. Who were the initial consumers of Levi’s pants in the text?
2. What characteristics did the miners want in their trousers?
3. Were Levi Strauss’s trousers the first denim pants ever made?
4. How did Levi Strauss initially advertise trousers among the miners?
5. Where were Levi’s pants exported during the gold rush era?
Mətn 36:
I.Perhaps more swimmers have been drowned by cramp than by anything else, and
only those who have suffered from it can conceive its fatal power. Even good
swimmers, when seized with cramp, have been known to sink instantly. Overcome
with the sudden pain, and nothing can save the victim but the greatest presence of
mind.
II.….. ;and it sometimes comes with such violence that the muscles are gathered up
into knots. There is only one method of proceeding under such circumstances: to turn
on one’s back at once, kick the leg out in the air, disregarding the pain, and rub the
spot smartly with one hand, while the other is employed in paddling towards shore.
III.These directions are easy enough to give, but quite difficult to obey; cramp seems
to deprive the sufferer of all reason for the time, and it seems to overpower him with
mingled pain and terror. Therefore, the method of saving a person from drowning
because of cramps demands great practice. The chief difficulty lies in the fact that a
person who cannot swim feels, in deep water, much as if he was falling through air,
and consequently clutches instinctively at the nearest object. If he succeeds in
grasping the person who is trying to save him, both will probably sink together. Every
precaution should be taken to prevent such a misfortune and the drowning man should
always be seized from behind and pushed forwards.
1.Decide whether the statements are true or false.
1.1. It is impossible to prevent cramps while swimming.
A) True B) False
1.2. The cramp has caused the swimmers to drown.
A) True B) False
1.3. Cramps sometimes help the swimmer to feel better.
A) True B) False
1.4. Swimmers feel pain because of the cramp.
A) True B) False

2.Complete the sentence according to the passage.

According to the passage, the force of cramp is so great that…
A) it is hopeless to try and save a victim
B) only previous victims can imagine it
C) rubbing the spot affected is useless
D) most people affected never go swimming again
E) it is impossible to move once affected

3. What does the word “deprive” mean in the passage?

A) provide
B) offer
C) broaden
D) indulge
E) divest

4. Which sentence can start the second paragraph?

A) The usual spot where the cramp is felt is the calf of the leg.
B) Swimmers rarely feel pain in their brains.
C) Doctors already know how to solve the problem.
D) We are informed about the issue on TV.
E) The cramp won’t exist in the future due to the doctor’s contribution.

5.Which questions does the passage answer?

1. What emotions does a non-swimmer experience when sinking?
2. How many people have died while swimming?
3. Who is responsible for saving a drowning man?
4. What should a man do to prevent a misfortune?
5. What kind of object does a man grasp while swimming?

Mətn 37:
For seventy years, animals have been brought or launched into space from time to
time. The first animals to technically reach space were fruit flies, which were
launched in a rocket in 1947. The fruit flies all made it back alive, having travelled
nearly 70 miles up in the air. Albert II was the first mammal sent into space. He was a
Rhesus monkey sent on a V-2 rocket launched by the United States in 1949.
Unfortunately, as a result of a logistical failure, Albert II did not survive. The Soviet
Union sent the first dog to outer space in 1951, but the first dog launched into orbit
didn’t come until 1957. Laika was a husky that was launched aboard Sputnik 2. A
rescue dog that had been found on the streets of Moscow, died when she ran out of
oxygen. Three years later, the Soviet Union tried again. They sent two dogs, Belka
and Strelka, into orbit, along with mice, rats, and a rabbit. This time, all of the animals
returned alive and safe.
The first chimpanzee launched into space was named Ham. Trained by NASA, Ham
could pull a lever to release bananas to eat and was sent into space in 1961. As of
2015, 32 monkeys have been sent into space. Other animals that have been to space
over the years include spiders, cats, frogs, cockroaches, and guinea pigs. The
excitement about animals making it to outer space died down once the first man
stepped foot on the moon, but animals continue to be sent into space for the sake of
research.

1.Decide whether the statement is true or false.

1.1. The name of the dog sent into orbit by the USA was Laika.
A) True B) False
1.2. NASA sent Ham into space in 1961.
A) True B) False
1.3. Today animals are sent into space due to research.
A) True B) False
1.4. Animals such as cats or mice are terrified of space.
A) True B) False

2.Choose the correct variant according to the passage.

A) The USA did research on aika.
B) About In the middle of the 20th century the first dog was sent to space.
C) Animals have been sent to space for more than a hundred years.
D) The name of the second monkey sent into orbit was Ham.
E) The USA produced many V-2 rockets since 1949.

3.Complete the sentence according to the passage.

Mice, rats and a rabbit……
A) were launched into orbit with one dog.
B) were left helpless during the flight.
C) were trained by NASA.
D) became friends with Belka and Strelka.
E) came back to Earth safely.

4.What is the antonym of the word “include” in the passage?

A) conclude
B) exclude
C) take part in
D) put out
E) enter

5.Which questions doesn’t the passage answer?

1. How many animals have been sent into space by NASA since 1961?
2. What were the first living things that were sent into space?
3. How long will it continue to send animals into orbit in the future?
4. Which animal was sent by the US after the first creatures to reach space?
5. What do animals generally die from?
 Mətn 38:
Civilization depends on agriculture. Farmers must supply food for the people living
in the cities. If they do not, civilization will die. Remember ancient Mesopotamia. The
cities were surrounded by large gardens and fields. The land was very fertile. Some
cities built special canals in order to bring water from the rivers to the fields. These
cities became rich but other cities needed water, too. So the cities often fought. As a
result, the canals were destroyed. According to some archaeologists, the cities died
because they could not live in peace. However, they forgot one question: a strong city
could destroy a weak city why was the city weak? Why did cities rise, fall, and die?
We asked some agricultural experts.
According to them, rivers brought salt from the mountains. When the farmers did not
clean the canals, a lot of salt got into the fields and stayed on the top of the soil. The
crops were affected by this. Consequently, the farmers could not grow enough food
for the cities. Maybe the cities were weak because their agriculture was dying.
1.Decide whether the statements are true or false.
1.1. According to archaeologists, the cities died because they fought most of the
time.
A) True B) False
1.2. Their efficient management of salt accumulation resulted in abundant agricultural
productivity.
A) True B) False
1.3. According to agricultural experts, the cities died because they didn’t have enough
water.
A) True B) False
1.4. Ancient Mesopotamia cities fought for water resources, leading to the destruction
of the canals.
A) True B) False

2. In this passage, the ancient cities of Mesopotamia were given as an example

because the writer wants to show:
A) the importance of salt in civilization
B) the results of the fights between cities
C) the difference between strong and weak cities
D) the importance of canals in farming
E) the importance of agriculture in civilization

3. Which variant implies the same meaning as “consequently”?

A) Unexpectedly
B) Alternatively
C) In spite of
D) Furthermore
E) As a result
4.Which of the following sentences best describes the first paragraph?
A) The survival of civilization relies on farmers supplying food to urban populations.
B) Ancient Mesopotamian cities prospered due to their fertile lands and irrigation
systems.
C) The competition for water resources among cities in Mesopotamia led to conflicts.
D) The destruction of canals caused the decline of cities in ancient Mesopotamia.
E) The cities in Mesopotamia failed to maintain peaceful relationships, leading to
their demise.

5. Which of the following questions does the passage answer?

1. What caused the salt from the mountains?
2. How did the ancient Mesopotamian cities resolve conflicts related to the sharing of
water resources?
3. How did the cities in ancient Mesopotamia address the issue of salt accumulation?
4. How was water transported to grow crops in ancient Mesopotamia cities?
5. Which alternative methods were used by the farmers to prevent salt
contamination?

Mətn 39:
For many years, men have been taught that hard work is noble. They have been
encouraged to work diligently for long hours. “Idleness is the devil’s plaything,” they
have been told. They have also said that if a man does not do any work the devil puts
him to work. As a result, men have been busy for centuries. They have been
overworking and have felt ennobled by their strenuous lives. However, this way of
life is not practical today.
Modern technology has eliminated the necessity for a life of constant hard work
because machine has replaced human energy. The workweek has become shorter, and
jobs have become more accessible. Farmers have machines to cultivate and harvest
their fields. Businessmen have telephones, teletype and other office machines to make
their work more accessible and more efficient. Housewives have washing machines,
dryers, automatic stoves, and dishwashers to do much of their work for them. For
some purposes, machines have even replaced the classroom teacher and the physician.
People have more leisure time than they have ever had. And, indeed, constructive
leisure is now considered noble.
1. Decide whether the statements are true or false.
1.1. Men have been taught that – “Idleness is the devil’s plaything”.
A) True B) False
1.2. People always believed that the devil seldom puts him to work.
A) True B) False
1.3. Modern technology has barely replaced a man’s labour.
A) True B) False
1.4. Men were busy for centuries due to superstition about devils.
A) True B) False
2. Choose the correct variant according to the passage.
According to the old saying in the passage,….
A) the devil plays a lot of games.
B) people play with the devil.
C) a man with nothing to do is liable to do bad things.
D) the devil likes those who work hard.
E) those who work hard help the devil.

3.Answer the question according to the passage.

How has technology changed today’s world?
A) It makes people follow the devil’s path
B) Farmers are reluctant to harvest crops
C) It motivates people to work long hours
D) The workweek isn’t long enough.
E) People don’t have sufficient free time.

4. The sentence – Businessmen have telephone teletype and other office machines
to make then work more accessible and more efficient implies that..
A) In order to decrease the productivity of their job, businesspeople have telephones,
teletypes and other office equipment.
B) Businesspeople hardly utilize telephones, teletypes, and other office supplies to
enhance and expedite their efficiency at work.
C) To make their work more accessible and effective, businessmen have teletypes,
telephones, and other office equipment.
D) Businesspeople use telephones, teletypes, and other office supplies to make their
jobs much more difficult.
E) Teletypes and phones are the only means that are available to businesspeople to
facilitate their work and boost efficiency.
5. Which questions does the passage answer?
1. How many years have the men been taught to work hard?
2. What kind of tools did farmers use?
3. What has replaced people’s labour?
4. Why was much leisure considered noble in the past?
5. What kind of tools do housewives utilize?
 Mətn 40:
Our eyes and ears might be called transformers since they sense the light and sound
around us and turn them into electrical impulses that the brain can interpret. These
electrical impulses that have been transformed by the eye and ear reach the brain and
are turned into messages that we can interpret.
For the eye, the process begins as the eye admits light waves, bends them at the
cornea and lens, and then focuses them on the retina. At the back of each eye, nerve
fibres bundle together to form optic nerves, which join and then split into two optic
tracts. Some of the fibers cross, so that part of the input from the right visual field
goes into the left side of the brain, and vice versa.
The process in the ear is carried out through sensory cells that are carried in fluid-
filled canals and that are extremely sensitive to vibration. The sound that is
transformed into electricity travels along nerve fibres in the auditory nerve. These
fibres form a synopsis with neurons that carry the messages to the auditory cortex on
each side of the brain.
1. Decide whether the statements are true or false.
1.1. Electrical impulses can be turned into messages in our brains.
A) True B) False
1.2. The sound electricity is unable to move along nerve fibres in the auditory nerve.
A) True B) False
1.3. Nerve fibres are able to shape optic nerves.
A) True B) False
1.4. All the fibres can cross where input goes into the left side of the brain.
A) True B) False
2. Answer the question according to the passage.
What happens when input from the right visual field goes into the left side of the
brain?
A) The nerve fibres bundle together.
B) The optic nerve split.
C) The retina receives light waves.
D) Input from the left field goes to the right side.
E) Nerve system loses its function.

3.Complete the sentence according to the passage.

We can call our eyes and ears transformers because…
A) they sense light and sound.
B) the brain can interpret the input.
C) they create electrical impulses.
D) the messages travel in the brain.
E) the brain demands it.
4. Which word is the closest in meaning to the word “admit”?
A) let in
B) split
C) focus on
D) interpret
E) select

5. Which of the questions does the passage answer?

1) How many fibres shape a synopsis with neurons?
2) What do optics tracts consist of?
3) What is the noticeable property of sensory cells?
4) What is the duty of neurons in the auditory system?
5) What processes of the eye’s electrical impulse transformation are given?

Mətn 41:
The history of DDT illustrates the problem. DDT, a chemical that kills insects, at
first seemed to be a perfect answer to many problems. It would control insects that
caused dangerous diseases, as well as insects that caused billions of dollars of damage
to crops every year. Governments permitted and even encouraged the use of DDT.
Farmers in many countries began to spray it on their crops. The immediate results
were good: Damage to crops went down, and profits went up. However, the chemical
had effects that the scientists did not predict. First, it also killed insects which were
the natural enemies of the harmful insects and which were, therefore, beneficial to
farmers. Second, and perhaps more importantly, DDT did not kill every harmful
insect. A few insects had a natural resistance to the chemical. They survived and
multiplied. In a few years, there were large numbers of insects that were not affected
by DDT, and there were fewer insects that would act as natural controls on these new
“super-insects”. Finally, it became clear that DDT was not solving the insect problem.
In fact, it was making the problem worse. It then became necessary to find a second
cure for the effects of the first.

1. Decide whether the statements are true or false.

1.1. Scientists precisely knew how DDT would affect the ecology.
A) True B) False
1.2. DDT failed to kill all of those insects that harmed crops.
A) True B) False
1.3. Govements were against using DDT from the start.
A) True B) False
1.4. The results of DDT were not as expected.
A) True B) False
2. Choose the correct answer according to the passage.
If used carelessly, chemicals…
A) will cause nothing but damage to the health of animals and humans.
B) are not a danger.
C) are a perfect answer to the ecological problem.
D) can disturb the ecological balance.
E) will have no effect on nature.

3. Choose the correct variant according to the passage.

If a farmer used DDT today, in five years…
A) he would have no problems with harmful insects.
B) his situation would be much better.
C) his situation would be the same.
D) he would decide to use more DDT.
E) he would have to find a chemical to cure the effects of DDT.

4. Choose the correct statements due to the passage.

1. Chemicals will help solve the health problems of animals and humans.
2. Chemicals are especially effective in environmental protection.
3. DDT caused an immediate decrease in damage to crops.
4. DDT could kill some harmful insects.
5. The initial effects of chemicals met expectations.
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 4,5
D) 2, 4
E) 1,5

5. Choose the correct statements according to the passage.

1. Scientists failed to see the dangerous consequences of DDT use.
2. Governments immediately realized that DDT would cause damage to plants and
humans.
3. The government has placed spurious barriers to the use of DDT.
4. In the following years, DDT could not resist the rapid increase of pests.
5. Governments were always suspicious of DDT.
Mətn 42:
There are several reasons why women have a harder time losing weight than men
and some of them are purely physical. A 275-pound person walking at two miles per
hour burns 6.4 calories per minute, while a 150-pound person walking at the same
speed burns only 3.5 calories per minute. Thus, men, being generally heavier, to begin
with, can lose weight faster through exercise than women can. What’s more, even if
they were the same weight, a man would still burn more calories than a woman doing
the same amount of exercise. The reason is that a man’s body has a higher ratio of
muscle to fat than a woman’s, and it takes more energy to push muscle around than
fat. So dieting, and exercising man sees results a lot sooner than a woman, considers
his weight-reduction program more successful, and is more likely to stick with it. Men
are also more likely to add extra exercise to a weight-loss program. In fact, most
weight- conscious men can be found working off those extra pounds in gyms and
swimming pools while women are likely to head for a more passive program in a diet
clinic or at home.

1. Decide whether the statements are true or false.

1.1. Both genders burn the same calories at the same amount of exercise.
A) True B) False
1.2. Women are less likely to do training than men.
A) True B) False
1.3. A person’s gender has an essential impact on the exercise speed.
A) True B) False
1.4. Dieting alone is enough for both genders to achieve weight loss goals.
A) True B) False

2. What would be the best title for the passage?

A) Reasons for Losing Weight
B) Losing Weight
C) Men and Women
D) Health and Diet
E) Exercise for Faster Weight Loss

3. A dieting, exercising man is more likely to follow his weight loss program than
a woman is…
A) because men are more weight-conscious.
B) because men have stronger willpower.
C) because men like swimming more than women do.
D) because men usually see results faster than women do.
E) because men are physically stronger than women.
4. Even if a man and a woman doing the same exercise were the same weight, the
man would lose weight faster because…
A) a woman is not as careful as a man.
B) a man has more muscles than a woman.
C) a woman is less active than a man.
D) a woman has a bigger head.
E) a woman usually eats more than men.

5. Which of the following questions doesn’t the passage answer?

1. How does a person’s weight affect the number of calories burned while walking at
a specific speed?
2. What are the differences in exercise preferences between men and women when
pursuing weight loss?
3. What is the exact ratio of muscle to fat in a man’s body compared to a woman’s?
4. What factors contribute to a man’s tendency to add extra exercise to their weight
loss program?
5. Why is dieting alone ineffective for women in achieving weight gain goals?

Mətn 43:
I. Buffalo Bill Cody was born on a farm in Scott County, Indiana, on 26th February
1846. Before he was thirteen, he was an expert horse rider and very good with a gun.
Before the age of twenty, Bill left home and took a job with the Pony Express
company, and very soon he became reputed as one of their best riders.
II. It was the time when the West was being opened up. After the Pony Express, Bill
got a job supplying buffalo meat to the men building the Kansas Pacific railroad. In
the space of 17 months, he claims to have killed 4,280 buffaloes. This is where he got
his name, "Buffalo Bill".
III. In the 1870s, he worked as a scout for the army, during the "Indian campaigns",
and took part in General Custer's war against the Sioux. Once, he killed Chief Yellow
Hand in a duel. This was just one of the exploits that were written about in popular
storybooks. In those days, anyone who killed Indians was seen as a hero. It is very
different today.
IV. …… .Bill made his peace with the Indians, and when he established his famous
"Wild West Show", he recruited many famous Indians to work with him. They
included Red Cloud, Red Shirt, and even Sitting Bull. His grandson says, "At its
height, there were over 650 people who travelled with the show, including 250
American Indians. With these Indians, with all the cowboys, they re-enacted the
robbery of the Deadwood stagecoach and the Pony Express mail relay system".
V.When he died, aged 70, Buffalo Bill knew that the old West was almost dead too,
except in history and stories. Yet he knew, too, that one of the most famous names
associated with its legends, was his own.
1. Decide whether the statements are true or false.
1.1. Before the Pony Express company signed a contract with Bill, he was a reputed
rider.
A) True B) False
1.2. In the late 19th century Bill got a job in the army.
A) True B) False
1.3. Buffalo Bill employed many well-known Indians to work together.
A) True B) False
1.4. Bill claimed that he killed no less than 4000 buffaloes.
A) True B) False

2. Complete the sentence according to the passage When Buffalo Bill died, aged
70….
A) he knew that Indians have rights as many as white Americans do.
B) he wanted to know whether the old West was dead as it was in history and stories.
C) he was aware that the Old West was hardly alive, besides in history and stories.
D) he knew that the new West was dead but it was different in history and stories.
E) he was informed that history and stories always remain alive as the West demands
it.

3. Which sentence can start the fourth paragraph?

A) Buffalo Bill understood that Indians should leave the country.
B) Buffalo Bill was one of the people who believed that it was impossible to hire
Indians.
C) Buffalo Bill was the only man to figure out that only a few Indians might join his
company.
D) Buffalo Bill wanted to be a president to protect Indians' rights.
E) Buffalo Bill was one of the first men to realise that white Americans and Indians
could work together.

4. What does the word "exploit" mean in the passage?

A) utilize
B) neglect
C) bring about
D) look forward to
E) acquire
5. Which questions does the passage answer?
1. Why did Bill leave Pony Express company?
2. What decisions did Bill make by the age of 20?
3. How many weeks did it take Bill to kill 4280 buffaloes?
4. What kind of skills did Bill Cody have in his teens?
5. Where could be the information about Bill's duel found?

Mətn 44:
Millions of people in the world have never seen snow. Others see more of it than
want to. Hail is much more common; it occurs even in deserts. Each tiny piece of
snow is called a snowflake, and each flake has six sides or six points, Billions of
snowflakes fall every winter, and the astonishing fact is that each one is different. A
snowflake is as individual as someone’s handwriting or fingerprint.
A hail is a small round ball of alternating layers of snow and clear ice. It forms inside
thunderclouds. There are two theories about how hailstones form. Only thunderstorms
can produce hail, but very few of them do. Perhaps only one in 400 thunderstorms
create hailstones. Hail ordinarily falls in a strip from ten to twenty kilometres wide
and up to forty kilometres long. A hailstone is usually less than eight centimetres in
diameter. However, hailstones can be much bigger than that. Sometimes they are as
big as baseballs. The largest hailstone ever recorded weighed over 680 grams and had
a diameter of thirteen centimetres.
Hail can do a lot of damage to agriculture, especially since hail usually appears in
midsummer when the plants are partly grown. If the crops are destroyed, it is too late
to plant more, and the farmer has lost everything. The most damage is done by
hailstones that are only the size of peas. In one terrible hailstorm in 1923 in Rostov, at
the border of Ukraine, twenty-three people and many cattle were killed.
Snow can cause damage too. It can cave on the roof of a building. A heavy snowstorm
can delay aeroplane flights and cause automobile accidents. Farm animals sometimes
die in snowstorms, and when country roads are closed by snow, people can be trapped
in their cars and freeze to death, yet there is nothing more beautiful than the sight of
millions of snowflakes falling at night. That is when people think of the beauty, and
not the science, of snowflakes.
1. Decide whether the statements are true or false,
1.1. Hail is generated only by thunderstorms but a few of them do.
A) True B) False
1.2. A hailstone can be more than eight centimetres.
A) True B) False
1.3. The most damage is done by hailstones that are bigger than peas.
A) True B) False
1.4. Each kiwi piece of snow is named a snowflake.
A) True B) False

2. What does the word “astonishing” mean in the passage?

A) amazing
B) offended
C) amusing
D) embarrassed
E) ordinary

3. Complete the sentence according to the passage.

Farm animals and people can die in snowstorms but….
A) nothing can replace the beauty of the sight of millions of snowflakes falling at
night
B) the government doesn’t pay attention to this issue
C) plants are able to stay the same as if nothing happened
D) millions of people in the world have seen snow till now
E) thunderstorms do not lead to the loss of people

4. Answer the question according to the passage.

Why can hail especially cause much damage to agriculture?
A) That is related to coming to the life of nature.
B) Because the snow process hardly ever happens in winter.
C) As it usually takes place in the middle of summer.
D) Hailstone is usually less than eight centimetres in diameter.
E) So that hailstones do not have any influence on the environment.

5. Which of the following questions does the passage answer?

1. What was the most abnormal size of the hailstone?
2. What time does it snow in our region?
3. When does hail occur in deserts?
4. What is the weight of each hailstone?
5. What is the unusual feature of snowflakes?
Mətn 45:
Penguins breed by producing eggs. Both parents take turns in incubating the eggs,
which typically lasts for eight weeks, although larger eggs from larger birds might
take a little longer. When the chick is fully developed, it carefully chisels its way out
of the egg using a little notch at the end of its beak. Upon emerging, the chicks are
dependent on their parents to protect them from the elements, from predators and for
their daily supply of food.
As in the incubation stage, both parents take it, in turn, to care for their young by
alternating between the roles of food gatherer and guardian of the nest. The young are
always in close proximity to their parents, either sitting on their parents’ feet or under
their bellies. As days go by, a thick protective coat of downy feathers begins to grow
which keeps the chicks warm and slowly allows them to seek independence from the
nest within confined limits.
As the chicks rapidly put on weight, providing adequate quantities becomes a problem
so both parents need to hunt for food. Since the chicks cannot be left unprotected,
they are gathered together in groups, often tightly packed together for extra security
and warmth. When the chicks reach a size approximating their parents, they begin to
moult into juvenile plumage and are ready to take their first trips out to sea.The time
from birth to this stage can vary from about six weeks to double that time in most
species but some penguin groups take many months.
The first few weeks at sea are critical. Juveniles need to quickly learn where the best
places to catch their food are and how to avoid the predators that lurk in the sea. The
research that has been done so far indicates that less than one-half of the young
penguins that go out to sea each year survive into adulthood.
At the one-year stage, moulting happens again at which point the young start to look
very much like their parents. At age two, most species of penguins are biologically
programmed to turn their attention to breeding. Breeding then takes place every year.
Penguins in the wild probably live up to about 20 years of age, although research has
yet to confirm this.
1. Decide whether the statements are true or false
1.1. Both parents collect food fothe young pe because growing penguins eat more and
more
A) True B) False
1.2. Penguins leave the nest for the sea when ther second set of feathers grows.
A) True B) False
1.3. Penguins can produce young before two years of age.
A) True B) False
1.4. The majority of penguins survive in their early years because they can ambush
well.
A) True B) False

2. What title best expresses the ideas in the passage?

A) The breeding habits of penguins
B) The life cycle of penguins
C) The characteristics of penguins
D) Penguins in danger
E) Penguins’ habitats

3. What does the phrase “chisel” mean in the passage?

A) push
B) hammer
C) cut
D)pull
E) compensate

4. Which variant doesn’t imply the same meaning as the given sentence from the
text.
“Upon emerging, the chicks are dependent on their parents to protect them from the
elements, from predators and for their daily supply of food.”?
A) Baby penguins rely on their parents to keep them safe from environmental
situations.
B) Once hatched, chicks depend on their parents to protect them from starving and
being hunted.
C ) For the newly hatched chicks, their parents play a vital role in safeguarding them.
D) The survival of the young birds depends on the care and support provided by their
parents.
E) The chicks need their parents for guidance to learn about the dangers around them
and manage to find food.

5. Which of the given questions does the passage answer?

1. What is the average lifespan of a penguin?
2. What is the main predator of penguins in the sea?
3. How long does it take for a penguin chick to learn how to swim?
4. At what stage do parent penguins start helping each other?
5. In what situations are chicks needed to be protected in groups?