Aircraft Instruments

Exam 2, 56 Questions, 58 marks; time allowed 90 minutes

Q1 A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static
port open causes the airspeed indicator to :

(a) read a little high.

(b) read a little low.
(c) freeze at zero.
(d) react like an altimeter. (1)

Q2 The static pressure error of the static vent on which the altimeter is
connected varies substantially with the:

(a) static temperature

(b) Mach number of the aircraft
(c) deformation of the aneroid capsule
(d) aircraft altitude (1)

Q3 On board an aircraft the altitude is measured from the:

(a) standard altitude

(b) pressure altitude
(c) density altitude
(d) temperature altitude (1)

Q4 The density altitude is :

(a) the altitude of the standard atmosphere at which the density is equal to the
actual density of the atmosphere
(b) the temperature altitude corrected for the difference between the real
temperature and the standard temperature
(c) the pressure altitude corrected for the relative density prevailing at this point
(d) the pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this point
(1)
Q5 The limits of the yellow scale of an airspeed indicator are :

(a) VLO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
(b) VLE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
(c) VFE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
(d) VNO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit (1)

Q6 The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to the indicated

airspeed (IAS) :

(a) a compressibility and density correction.

(b) an instrument and position/pressure error correction.
(c) an antenna and compressibility correction.
(d) an instrument and density correction. (1)

Bristol Groundschool Instruments Exam 2: 1

Q7 Machmeter readings are subject to:

(a) temperature error.

(b) setting error.
(c) position pressure error
(d) density error. (1)

Q8 The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard atmosphere is:

(a) 644 kt.

(b) 332 kt.
(c) 661 kt.
(d) 1059 kt. (1)

Q9 The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true airspeed of 100 kt,
in a descent with a slope of 3 degrees, indicates :

(a) - 300 ft/min

(b) - 150 ft/min
(c) - 250 ft/min
(d) - 500 ft/min. (1)

Q10 An Air Data Computer (ADC):

(a) Measures position error in the static system and transmits this information to
ATC to provide correct altitude reporting
(b) Transforms air data measurements into electric impulses driving servo
motors in instruments
(c) Is an auxiliary system that provides altitude information in the event that the
static source is blocked
(d) Converts air data measurements given by ATC from the ground in order to
provide correct altitude and speed information (1)

Q11 A rate integrating gyro is a detecting element used in

1. An inertial attitude unit

2. An automatic pilot
3. A stabilizing servo system
4. An inertial navigation system
5. A rate-of-turn indicator

The combination of correct statements is :

(a) 1, 4.
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
(c) 2, 3, 5.
(d) 2, 3, 4. (1)

Bristol Groundschool Instruments Exam 2: 2

Q12 The characteristics of the directional gyro (DG) used in a gyro stabilised
compass system are :

(a) one degree of freedom, whose vertical axis, aligned with the real vertical to
the location is maintained in this direction by an automatic erecting system.
(b) two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis corresponding to the
reference direction is maintained in the horizontal plane by an automatic
erecting system.
(c) two degrees of freedom, whose axis aligned with the vertical to the location is
maintained in this direction by an erecting system.
(d) one degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained in the horizontal
plane by an automatic erecting system.
(1)

Q13 The directional gyro axis spins about the local vertical by 15°/hour:

(a) in the latitude 30°

(b) in the latitude 45°
(c) on the equator
(d) on the North pole (1)

Q14 The indications on a directional gyroscope or gyrocompass are subject to

errors, due to:

1. rotation of Earth.
2. aeroplane motion on Earth.
3. lateral and transversal aeroplane bank angles.
4. north change.
5. mechanical defects.

Chose the combination with true statements only:

(a) 2, 3, 5.
(b) 1, 2, 3, 5.
(c) 3, 4, 5.
(d) 1, 2, 4, 5. (1)

Q15 A failed RMI rose is locked on 090° and the ADF pointer indicates 225°. The
relative bearing to the station is :

(a) 225°.
(b) 135°.
(c) Impossible to read, due to failure RMI.
(d) 315°. (1)

Q16 (Use the appendix A to answer this question)

The diagram which shows a 40° left bank and 15° nose down attitude is n°

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4 (1)

Bristol Groundschool Instruments Exam 2: 3

Q17 A gravity type erector is used in a vertical gyro device to correct errors on:

(a) an artificial horizon

(b) a directional gyro unit
(c) a turn indicator
(d) a gyromagnetic indicator (1)

Q18 When an aircraft has turned 90 degrees with a constant attitude and bank,
the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon :

(a) too much nose-up and bank correct

(b) too much nose-up and bank too high
(c) too much nose-up and bank too low
(d) attitude and bank correct (1)

Q19 The heading reference unit of a three-axis data generator is equipped with a
gyro with:

(a) 2 degrees of freedom and horizontal spin axis

(b) 2 degrees of freedom and vertical spin axis
(c) 1 degree of freedom and horizontal spin axis
(d) 1 degree of freedom and vertical spin axis (1)

Q20 A pilot wishes to turn right on to a northerly heading with 20° bank at a
latitude of 40° North. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this
he must stop the turn on to an approximate heading of :

(a) 010°
(b) 330°
(c) 350°
(d) 030° (1)

Q21 A flux valve senses the changes in orientation of the horizontal component
of the earth's magnetic field.

1. the flux valve is made of a pair of soft iron bars

2. the primary coils are fed A.C. voltage (usually 487.5 Hz)
3. the information can be used by a "flux gate" compass or a directional gyro
4. the flux gate valve casing is dependent on the aircraft three inertial axis
5. the accuracy on the value of the magnetic field indication is less than 0.5%

Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

(a) 2, 3, 5
(b) 1, 3, 4, 5
(c) 3, 5
(d) 1, 4, 5 (2)

Q22 Magnetic compass swinging is carried out to reduce as much as possible :

(a) acceleration.
(b) deviation.
(c) variation.
(d) regulation. (1)

Bristol Groundschool Instruments Exam 2: 4

Q23 Among the errors of a magnetic compass, are errors:

(a) in North seeking, due to bank angle and magnetic heading

(b) due to cross-wind gusts particularly on westerly or easterly headings
(c) due to Schüler type oscillations
(d) of parallax, due to oscillations of the compass rose (1)

Q24 The fields affecting a magnetic compass originate from:

1. magnetic masses
2. ferrous metal masses
3. non ferrous metal masses
4. electrical currents

The combination of correct statements is:

(a) 1, 2, 4
(b) 1, 2, 3
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4
(d) 1, 3, 4 (1)

Q25 The magnetic heading can be derived from the true heading by means of a :

(a) compass swinging curve

(b) map showing the isogonal lines
(c) map showing the isoclinic lines
(d) deviation correction curve (1)

Q26 The data supplied by a radio altimeter:

(a) indicates the distance between the ground and the aircraft.
(b) concerns only the decision height.
(c) is used only by the radio altimeter indicator.
(d) is used by the automatic pilot in the altitude hold mode. (1)

Q27 The operating frequency range of a low altitude radio altimeter is:

(a) 2700 MHz to 2900 MHz.

(b) 5 GHz.
(c) 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz.
(d) 5400 MHz or 9400 MHz. (1)

Bristol Groundschool Instruments Exam 2: 5

Q28 Regarding Electronic Instrument System (EFIS) :

1. the Navigation Display (ND) displays Flight Director Bars.

2. the altimeter setting is displayed on the PFD (Primary Flight Display).
3. the PFD is the main flying instrument.
4. the FMA (Flight Mode Annunciator) is part of the ND.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

(a) 1, 2.
(b) 2, 3.
(c) 3, 4.
(d) 1, 4. (1)

Q29 The essential components of a flight director are :

1. a computer
2. an automatic pilot
3. an autothrottle
4. command bars

The combination of correct statements is :

(a) 2,4
(b) 2,3
(c) 1,4
(d) 1,2 (1)

Q30 When being engaged, and without selecting a particular mode, an automatic
pilot enables :

(a) a constant speed on track, wings horizontal.

(b) all aeroplane piloting and guidance functions except maintaining radio-
navigation course lines.
(c) aeroplane stabilization with attitude hold or maintaining vertical speed and
possibly automatic trim.
(d) aeroplane piloting and guidance functions. (1)

Q31 An automatic landing system which can keep on operating without

deterioration of its performances following the failure of one of the autopilots
is called "FAIL...:

(a) "REDUNDANT"
(b) "OPERATIONAL"
(c) "PASSIVE"
(d) "SAFE" (1)

Bristol Groundschool Instruments Exam 2: 6

Q32 The control law of a transport airplane autopilot control channel may be
defined as the relationship between the:

(a) computer input deviation data and the signals received by the servo-
actuators.
(b) input and output signals at the amplifier level respectively control deviation
data and control deflection signals.
(c) crew inputs to the computer and the detector responses (returned to the
aeroplane).
(d) computer input deviation data and the output control deflection signals.
(1)

Q33 When an automatic landing is interrupted by a go-around:

1. the autothrottle reacts immediately upon the pilot action on the TOGA (Take-
off / Go-around) switch in order to recover the maximum thrust
2. the autopilot monitors the climb and the rotation of the airplane
3. the autopilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap deflection in order
to reduce the drag
4. the pilot performs the climb and the rotation of the airplane
5. the pilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap deflection in order to
reduce the drag

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

(a) 1, 3 and 4.
(b) 1, 2 and 3.
(c) 1, 2 and 5.
(d) 1, 4 and 5. (1)

Q34 The Altitude Select System:

(a) Disengages autopilot Auto Trim at selected altitude

(b) Is annunciated by light and/or sound when airplane is approaching selected
altitude
(c) Illuminates a light when selected altitude is attained
(d) Engages autopilot Auto Trim at selected altitude (1)

Bristol Groundschool Instruments Exam 2: 7

Q35 The correction of the control surface deflection made by the automatic pilot
calculator in order to stabilize the longitudinal attitude will be all the more
significant as the :

1. difference between the reference attitude and the instantaneous attitude is

high.
2. rate of change of the difference between the reference attitude and the
instantaneous attitude is high.
3. temperature is low.
4. pressure altitude is high.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

(a) 1, 2.
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4.
(c) 1, 2, 3.
(d) 2, 3, 4. (1)

Q36 The yaw damper, which suppresses Dutch roll:

(a) controls the ailerons, with the angular rate about the vertical axis as the input
signal.
(b) controls the rudder, with the angular rate about the vertical axis as the input
signal.
(c) controls the ailerons, with Mach Number as the input signal.
(d) controls the rudder, with Mach Number as the input signal. (1)

Q37 The automatic trim is a component of the autopilot pitch channel. Its function
is to:

(a) reset the attitude, after engaging (the autopilot).

(b) set the attitude to an instantaneous value before engaging the autopilot.
(c) automatically disengage the autopilot in the case of an excessive pitch up.
(d) transfer a stabilized aeroplane to the pilot during autopilot disengagement.
(1)

Q38 Mach Trim is a device to compensate for:

(a) weight reduction resulting from fuel consumption during the cruise
(b) backing of the aerodynamic center at high Mach numbers by moving the
elevator to nose-up
(c) the effects of fuel transfer between the main tanks and the tank located in the
horizontal tail
(d) the effects of temperature variation during a climb or descent at constant
Mach (1)

Q39 The purpose of an airplane automatic trim system is to trim out the hinge
moment of the:

(a) rudder(s)
(b) elevator(s) and rudder(s)
(c) elevator(s), rudder(s) and ailerons.
(d) elevator(s) (1)

Bristol Groundschool Instruments Exam 2: 8

Q40 The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is computed by:

(a) dividing turbine discharge pressure by compressor inlet pressure.

(b) dividing compressor discharge pressure by turbine discharge pressure.
(c) multiplying compressor inlet pressure by turbine discharge pressure.
(d) multiplying compressor discharge pressure by turbine inlet pressure.
(1)

Q41 An "altitude warning system" must at least warn the crew:

1. when approaching the pre-selected altitude

2. when the airplane is approaching the ground too fast
3. in case of a given deviation above or below the pre-selected altitude (at least
by an aural warning)
4. in case of excessive vertical speed
5. when approaching the ground with the gear retracted

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(b) 2, 4, 5
(c) 1, 3, 4
(d) 1, 3 (1)

Q42 A transport airplane is compelled to carry on board a Ground Proximity

Warning System (GPWS). This system will warn the crew in case of:

1. keeping the altitude at a lower level than the one shown in the flight plan
entered in the FMS.
2. dangerous ground proximity.
3. loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach.
4. wrong landing configuration.
5. descent below glidepath, within limits.

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is :

(a) 2, 5
(b) 2, 3, 4, 5
(c) 2
(d) 1, 3, 4 (1)

Bristol Groundschool Instruments Exam 2: 9

Q43 The inputs to the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System), are:

1. Air Data Computer - (Mach number and Vertical Speed)

2. Radio Altimeter
3. NAV/ILS (Glide Slope)
4. NAV/VOR
5. Flap (position)
6. Angle of Attack
7. Landing Gear (position)

The combination of correct statement is:

(a) 1, 2, 5, 6, 7
(b) 1, 2, 3, 5, 7
(c) 2, 3, 4, 5, 7
(d) 1, 2, 4, 6, 7 (2)

Q44 The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) provides:

1. traffic information (TA: Traffic Advisory)

2. horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)
3. vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)
4. ground proximity warning

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 3
(d) 1, 2 (1)

Q45 The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) computer receives

information :

1. about the pressure altitude through the mode S transponder

2. from the radio-altimeter
3. specific to the airplane configuration
4. from the inertial units

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

(a) 1, 2, 4
(b) 1, 2
(c) 1, 2, 3
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 (1)

Bristol Groundschool Instruments Exam 2: 10

Q46 The stall warning system receives information about the :

1. airplane angle of attack

2. airplane speed
3. airplane bank angle
4. airplane configuration
5. load factor on the airplane

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(b) 2, 3, 4, 5
(c) 1, 3, 5
(d) 1, 4 (1)

Q47 The stick shaker calculator receives the following information:

1. mass of the airplane

2. angle of attack
3. wing flap deflection
4. position of the landing gear
5. total air temperature
6. pressure altitude

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

(a) 2, 3
(b) 2, 3, 5
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 (1)

Q48 Except for airplanes under 5.7 t airworthiness certificate of which is

subsequent to 31 march 1998, a flight data recording system must be able to
store the recorded data for a minimum of the last :

(a) 10 hours.
(b) 30 minutes.
(c) 60 minutes.
(d) 25 hours. (1)

Q49 The flight data recorder must start data recording automatically:

(a) when lining up.

(b) before the airplane is able to move under its own power.
(c) when taking-off.
(d) when the landing gear is retracted. (1)

Bristol Groundschool Instruments Exam 2: 11

Q50 Different pressure sensors are used according to the intensity of the
pressure measured (low, medium or high)

Classify the following sensors by order of increasing pressure for which

they are suitable :

1. bellows type
2. Bourdon tube type
3. aneroid capsule type

(a) 2, 1, 3
(b) 3, 1, 2
(c) 1, 2, 3
(d) 3, 2, 1 (1)

Q51 Among the following engine instruments, the one operating with an aneroid
pressure diaphragm is the :

(a) oil pressure gauge.

(b) fuel pressure gauge.
(c) oil thermometer.
(d) manifold pressure gauge. (1)

Q52 A milli-voltmeter measuring the electromotive force between the "hot junction"
and the "cold junction" of a thermocouple can be directly graduated in
temperature values provided that the temperature of the:

(a) cold junction is maintained constant.

(b) hot junction is maintained constant.
(c) cold junction is maintained at 15 °C.
(d) hot junction is maintained at 15 °C. (1)

Q53 The white sector of the arc of a temperature gauge corresponds to:

(a) an exceptional operating range.

(b) a forbidden operating range.
(c) a special operating range.
(d) a normal operating range. (1)

Q54 The airplane outside air temperature "probe" measures the :

(a) "static" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the
total temperature.
(b) "total" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the
static temperature.
(c) "static" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the
total temperature.
(d) "total" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the
static temperature. (1)

Bristol Groundschool Instruments Exam 2: 12

Q55 A thermocouple can be made of:

(a) a three wire coil.

(b) a single wire coil.
(c) two metal conductors of different nature fixed together at two points.
(d) two metal conductors of the same nature fixed together at two points.
(1)

Q56 The RPM indicator (or tachometer) of a piston engine can include a small red
arc within the arc normally used (green arc). In the RPM range corresponding to this
small red arc the:

(a) rating is the minimum usable in cruise

(b) propeller efficiency is minimum at this rating
(c) propeller generates vibration, continuous rating is forbidden
(d) rating is the maximum possible in continuous mode (1)

Bristol Groundschool Instruments Exam 2: 13

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Bristol Groundschool Instruments Exam 2: 14

Appendix A to Instruments Examination 2

Bristol Groundschool Instruments Exam 2: 15

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Bristol Groundschool Instruments Exam 2: 16

 Aircraft Instruments
Exam 2, 56 Questions, 58 marks, Time allowed: 90 minutes

A B C D A B C D A B C D
1 21 41
2 22 42
3 23 43
4 24 44
5 25 45
6 26 46
7 27 47
8 28 48
9 29 49
10 30 50
11 31 51
12 32 52
13 33 53
14 34 54
15 35 55
16 36 56
17 37
18 38
19 39
20 40

Name:

Bristol Groundschool Instruments Exam 2: 17

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Bristol Groundschool Instruments Exam 2: 18

Instruments Exam 2 - Answers

1. (d) 21. (a) 41. (d)

2. (b) 22. (b) 42. (b)
3. (b) 23. (a) 43. (b)
4. (a) 24. (a) 44. (c)
5. (d) 25. (b) 45. (d)
6. (b) 26. (a) 46. (d)
7. (c) 27. (c) 47. (a)
8. (c) 28. (b) 48. (d)
9. (d) 29. (c) 49. (b)
10. (b) 30. (c) 50. (b)
11. (a) 31. (b) 51. (d)
12. (b) 32. (d) 52. (a)
13. (d) 33. (c) 53. (c)
14. (b) 34. (c) 54. (b)
15. (b) 35. (a) 55. (c)
16. (a) 36. (b) 56. (c)
17. (a) 37. (d)
18. (c) 38. (b)
19. (a) 39. (d)
20. (b) 40. (a)

WORKED ANSWERS

Q1. With the pitot blocked the pressure in the capsule is fixed. As the aircraft climbs the
static pressure in the case decreases, the capsule expands and the reading on the
instrument increases. The reverse will happen in the descent. Just like an
altimeter. Answer (d)

Q2. Pressure error changes with aircraft speed. Answer (b)

Q3. The altimeter measures pressure altitude. Answer (b)

Q4. Remember this definition. Answer (a)

Q5. You do not normally operate in the yellow arc. It runs from the normal maximum
operating speed (VNO) to the 'never exceed' speed (VNE). Answer (d)

Q6. Then apply compressibility to get EAS and density error to get TAS. Answer (b)

Q7. And instrument error only. Answer (c)

Q8. 38.94 x √273 + 15 = 660.83 kts Answer (c)

Q9. Five times groundspeed or 1 in 60. Answer (d)

Q10. Takes in total air temperature, pitot and static pressures and processes them into
electrical signals. Answer (b)

Q11. Only 1 & 4 use rate integrating gyros. The others use simple rate gyros. Answer (a)

Q12. A tied gyro; two degrees of freedom, controlled in one of them. Answer (b)

Q13. Gyroscopic drift is maximum at the pole, zero at the equator. Answer (d)

Bristol Groundschool Instruments Exam 2: 19

Q14. Earth rate, transport wander, aircraft manoeuvres and imperfections of the gyro. Not
affected by movement of the magnetic pole. Answer (b)

Q15. 225º - 90º = 135º Answer (b)

Q16. Answer (a)

Q17. The artificial horizon is the only gyro instrument with a vertical gyro and a gravity
sensor. Answer (a)

Q18. 'Classic artificial horizon' means an air driven instrument. Throughout a turn the is
too much pitch up; maximum at 180º. The angle of bank over reads at 90º, is
correct at 180º And over reads at 270º. Answer (c)

Q19. A 'three axis data generator' is an inertial platform used as an attitude reference or
navigation platform. The heading information is derived from the alignment of the
platform which is determined by the azimuth gyro. Answer (a)

Q20. Remember UNOS; Under turn through North so stop the turn about 20º to 30º early
(10º is not enough). Answer (b)

Q21. The flux valve (detector unit) is made with 3 soft iron bars (not 2) so option 1 is
wrong. Options 2 & 3 are OK. The flux valve is not dependent on the inertial
system so option 4 is wrong. Option 5 is OK. Answer (a)

Q22. The aim of a compass swing is to minimize deviation. Answer (b)

Q23. Turning through North and South causes errors. Cross-winds don’t cause compass
errors. Schuler oscillations don’t affect compasses and parallax errors are not
caused by oscillations of the compass but by reading the instrument at the wrong
angle. Answer (a)

Q24. Non-ferrous metals (i.e. not iron) do not create magnetic fields but the others do.
Answer (a)

Q25. Isogonals join points of equal magnetic variation. Answer (b)

Q26. The only correct statement. Answer (a)

Q27. Fact ! Answer (c)

Q28. Statements 2 & 3 are fine. The flight director bars and the FMA appear on the PFD
so statements 1 & 4 are wrong. Answer (b)

Q29. Autopilot and autothrottles are not components of the flight director. Answer (c)

Q30. A mode selection is required to get guidance functions. With no modes engaged it
will roll the wings level and hold the pitch attitude at engagement , it can’t hold speed!
Worth appealing! Answer (c)

Q31. Terminology. Answer (b)

Q32. Careful reading of verbose answers is required. Answer (d)

Bristol Groundschool Instruments Exam 2: 20

Q33. The TOGA selection does everything for you except pull in the landing gear and
flaps. Answer (c)

Q34. This is ALTITUDE SELECT not altitude alert. A light illuminates on the FMA, typically
ALT green boxed for 10 seconds Answer (c)

Q35. The amount of control surface deflection depends on how much correction is
required. It does not depend on air temperature or pressure. Answer (a)

Q36. Rudder is used to control Dutch roll. Answer (b)

Q37. Autotrim ensures that there will not be a ‘snatch’ on disengagement. Answer (d)

Q38. Re-trims the aircraft to accommodate move of center of pressure at high Mach
numbers. Answer (b)

Q39. Works on elevators only. Answer (d)

Q40. Ratio of ‘out’ to ‘in’. Answer (a)

Q41. 1 & 3 only. Answer (d)

Q42. GPWS doesn’t read your flight plan. Answer (b)

Q43. GPWS does not take in nav. information and it is not a stall warning device; angle of
attack is not required. Answer (b)

Q44. TAs and vertical RAs. Answer (c)

Q45. Mode S replies, rad.alt. flap position and IRS for attitude. Answer (d)

Q46. Some stall warning systems only get angle of attack. As they get more sophisticated
they get more information; configuration is next. Answer (d)

Q47. See answer to Q46 above; pretty much the same question. Answer (a)

Q48. Fact ! Answer (d)

Q49. Another fact under JAROPS rules. Answer (b)

Q50. Atmospheric pressure, manifold pressure, oil pressure. Answer (b)

Q51. ‘Aneroid pressure diaphragm’ = bellows. Answer (d)

Q52. Cold junction must be at a constant temperature, not a specific temperature.

Answer (a)

Q53. Normal colour coding. Answer (c)

Q54. Always apply a negative correction (due to kinetic heating) to TAT (IOAT) to get SAT
(COAT). Answer (b)

Q55. A short description of a thermocouple. Answer (c)

Q56. Red = dangerous. Answer (c)

Bristol Groundschool Instruments Exam 2: 21

Bristol Groundschool Instruments Exam 2: 22