1. What does “pharmacokinetics” include?

c) Tolerance
a) Pharmacological effects of drugs d) Tachyphylaxis
b) Unwanted effects of drugs 16. What term is used to describe a decrease in responsiveness to
c) Chemical structure of a medicinal agent a drug which develops in a few minutes?
d) Distribution of drugs in the organism a) Refractoriness
2. What does “pharmacokinetics” include? b) Cumulative effect
a) Localization of drug action c) Tolerance
b) Mechanisms of drug action d) Tachyphylaxis
c) Excretion of substances 17. Addictive ,CNS depressant drug with profound psychological
3. Route of medicinal agent administration: dependence and mild physical dependence is:
a) Rectal a) Morphine
b) Oral b) Amphetamine
c) Sublingual c) Diazepam
d) Inhalation d) Cannabis
4. Biotransformation of the drugs is to render them: 18. Anoxiolytic , antiepileptic , addictive drug contraindicated in
a) Less ionized patients with porphyria is:
b) More pharmacologically active a) Clonazepam.
c) More lipid soluble b) Phenobarbitone
d) Less lipid soluble c) Carbamazepam.
5. Tick the drug type for which microsomal oxidation is the d) Valproic acid.
most prominent: 19. Pentazocin is used as analgesic in the treatment of:
a) Lipid soluble a) Headache
b) Water soluble b) Postoperative pain
c) Low molecular weight c) Gastritis pain
d) High molecular weight d) Pain of myocardial infarction.
6. Biotransformation of a medicinal substance results in: 20. Hepatotoxic inhalation anesthetic with inadequate skeletal
a) Faster urinary excretion muscle relaxant effect is :
b) Slower urinary excretion a) Halothane
c) Easier distribution in organism b) Enflurane
d) Higher binding to membranes c) Sevoflurane
7. Stimulation of liver microsomal enzymes can: d) Nitrous oxide
a) Require the dose increase of some drugs 21. Which one of the following has the least gastic irritant effect:
b) Require the dose decrease of some drugs a) Pyroxicam
c) Prolong the duration ofthe action of a drug b) Meloxicam
d) Intensify the unwanted reaction of a drug c) Ibuprofin
8. Pharmacodynamics involves the study of following? d) Diclofenac sodium
a) Mechanisms of drug action 22. Effective dose 50 is
b) Biotransformation of drugs in the organism a) The dose of the drug that produces the required response in half
c) Distribution of drugs in the organism of the tested individuals.
d) Excretion of drug from the organism b) The dose of the drug that produces half maximal effect.
9. Pharmacodynamics involves the following? c) The dose of the drug that produces half maximal plasma
a) Information about main mechanisms of drug absorption concentration.
b) Information about unwanted effects d) The dose of the drug that produces half minimal effect.
c) Information about biological barriers 23. Drug toxicity of most drugs is exaggerated in :
d) Information about excretion of a drug from the organism a) Renal patient
10. If an agonist can produce maximal effects and has high b) Hepatic patient
efficacy it’s called: c) Tolerance
a) Partial agonist d) Tachyphylaxis.
b) Antagonist 24. Placebo is a chemical substance which has
c) Agonist-antagonist a) Affinity and efficacy
d) Full agonist b) Affinity And no efficacy
11. If an agonist can produce submaximal effects and has c) Efficacy and no affinity
moderate efficacy it’s called: d) Neither affinity nor efficacy
a) Partial agonist 25. Partial agonist has
b) Antagonist a) Partial affinity and efficacy
c) Agonist-antagonist b) Affinity And partial efficacy.
d) Full agonist c) Efficacy and partial affinity
12. Which isn’t related to a dose or to a pharmacodynamic d) Neither affinity nor efficacy
property of a drug is called: 26. Drug disposition is :
a) Idiosyncrasy a) Absorption and distribution
b) Hypersensitivity b) Distribution and metabolism
c) Tolerance c) Metabolsim and excretion
d) Teratogenic action d) Distribution + metabolism + excretion.
13. Idiosyncratic reaction of a drug is: 27. A decrease in renal and liver function, as seen in the elderly,
a) A type of hypersensitivity reaction would prolong drug half-life, ____ plasma protein binding,
b) A type of drug antagonism and ____ volume of distribution.
c) Unpredictable, inherent, qualitatively abnormal reaction to a a) Increase; Increase
drug b) Decrease; Decrease
d) Quantitatively exaggerated response c) Increase; Decrease
14. Tick the second messenger of G-protein-coupled d) Decrease; Increase
(metabotropic) receptor: 28. The lipid-soluble form of a base is ____ and the lipid-soluble
a) Adenylyl cyclase form of an acid is
b) Sodium ions ____.
c) Phospholipase C a) Protonated; Protonated
d) cAMP b) Protonated; Unprotonated
15. When a drug is taken continuously or repeatedly? c) Unprotonated; Unprotonated
a) Refractoriness d) Unprotonated; Protonated
b) Cumulative effect 29. Which of the following describes an agonist?
a) Any substance that brings about a change in biologic function d) Decreases late because of decreased albumin
through its 40. IPPV with Isoflurane at 1 MAC results in:
chemical action a) Depresses cardiovascular reflexes more than halothane
b) A specific regulatory molecule in the biologic system where a b) Causes decreased conduction velocity
drug interacts c) Maintains cerebral autoregulation
c) A drug that binds to a receptor and stimulates cellular activity d) Increased vasodilatation
d) A drug that binds to a receptor and inhibits or opposes cellular 41. Nitrous oxide:
activity a) Supports combustion
e) A drug directed at parasites infecting the patient b) Is flammable
30. Half life of distribution is: c) Causes muscle rigidity
a) The time required for the drug to increase its concentration to d) In tissues is slower to reabsorb than oxygen
50% of steady state concentration. 42. Nitrous oxide:
b) Time required for the drug to decrease its concentration to 50% a) Has MW of 42
of steady state concentration. b) Critical temperature 32 C
c) Time required for the drug to decrease its biological effect by c) Formed by using iron as a catalyst
50%. d) Does not support combustion
d) Time required for the drug to increase its biological effect by 43. Sevoflurane:
50%. a) Molecular weight greater then enflurane
31. Which of the following brain areas is outside blood brain b) MAC less than enflurane
barrier c) Contains Cl & F
a) Choroid plexus. d) SVP > enflurane
b) Vomiting center. 44. Desflurane:
c) Limbic system. a) Is non-irritant to the airways
c) Supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus. b) Is less potent than Sevoflurane
32. Acidic drugs, such bind primarily to which of the following c) Has a higher molecular weight than isoflurane
plasma d) Is a chlorinated methyl ethyl ether
proteins? 45. Isoflurane & enflurane are:
a) 1-fetoprotein . a) Is a halogenated methyl ethyl ether
b) gamma Globulin b) Higher boiling point than Sevoflurane
c) Albumin. c) No odour
d) 1-acid glycoprotein . d) Enantiomer of enflurane
33. Weak acids are excreted faster in ____ urine and weak bases 46. The washout of inhalational anaesthetics
are excreted faster in____ urine. a) Increases with elimination by the liver
a) Acidic; Alkaline b) Related considerably with the duration of anaesthesia
b) Alkaline; Acidic c) Increases in the neonates compared to an adult
c) Acidic; Neutral d) Decreases in the neonates compared to an adult
d) Neutral; Alkaline 47. Thiopentone causes a decrease in BP by:
e) Alkaline; Neutral a) Direct decrease in myocardial contractility
34. To maintain a drug concentration at steady state, the dosing b) Fall in systemic vascular resistance
rate should equal the c) Decrease in venous tone
elimination rate. Which of the following is true? (CL = Drug d) Increase in venous tone
Clearance) 48. Midazolam:
a) Dosing rate = CL + target concentration a) Water soluble at physiological pH
b) Dosing rate = CL - target concentration b) Undergoes oxidative metabolism
c) Dosing rate = CL * target concentration. c) More lipophilic than lorazepam
d) Dosing rate = CL / target concentration d) Causes hypotension
Bioavailability is the fraction or percentage of administered 49. Propofol clearance is significantly increased in:
drug that reaches the systemic circulation via a given route as a) Elderly
compared to what route? b) Metabolic acidosis
a) Oral c) Pregnancy
b) IV (intravenous) d) Peptic ulcer
c) IO (intraosseous) 50. Ketamine:
d) CSF (cerebrospinal fluid) a) Direct acting negative isotope
35. The cause of death in organophosphrus poisoning is: b) Indirectly acts on sympathetic nervous system peripherally
a) GIT bleeding c) Directly on the sympathetic ganglia
b) Hypertension d) Is a competitive antagonist at NMDA receptors
c) Respiratory failure 51. Propofol
d) Congestie heart failure a) Causes decreased hepatic blood flow to influence its own
36. Which of the following drugs is most likely to produce clearance
tachycardia b) Relatively low clearance in Children
a) Proparanolol c) Has a high rate of transfer from the peripheral to the central
b) Carbachol compartment on ceasing an infulsion
c) Neostigmine d) Has clinically significant metabolites
d) Trimetaphan. 52. Cocaine:
37. Which of the following drugs stimulates nicotinic receptors a) Blocks reuptake of dopamine and noradrenaline
a) Trimetaphane b) Central effects are due to noradrenaline
b) Carbachole. c) Crosses lipid soluble membranes because its pKa is 2.8
c) Phenoxybenzamine d) Is not metabolised by plasma pseudocholinesterase
d) Atenolol. 53. Regarding local anaesthetic plasma protein binding
38. Which drug of the following can be used as a nasal a) Is predominantly by albumin
decongestant b) Is predominantly by alpha-1 acid glycoprotein
a) Adrenaline c) Is greater for tetracaine than for bupivacaine
b) Isoprnaline d) Neonates have a greater number of binding sites
c) Dopamine 54. Hyperkalaemia with suxamethonium is associated with:
d) Tetrahydrozoline. a) Myotonic dystrophy
39. Placental transfer of drugs: b) Parkinson's disease
a) Increases in late pregnancy c) Meningomyelocoele
b) Increases late because of decreased albumin d) Cerebral palsy
c) Do not cross because > 600 daltons 55. Which drugs (competitively) inhibit acetylcholinesterase?
a) Neostigmine 69. Nonselective alfa-receptor antagonist, which is an ergot
b) Pyridostigmine derivative:
c) Physostigmine a) Ergotamine
d) Edrophonium b) Prazosin
56. Regarding vecuronium c) Phenoxybenzamine
a) It accumulates in renal failure d) Carvedilol
b) Is a benzylisoquinolinium 70. Which has great selectivity for alfa1a subtype:
c) Is a bisquaternary amine a) Prazosin
d) Is predominantly renally excreted b) Tamsulosin
57. Neostigmine's mechanism of action: c) Phenoxybenzamine
a) Binds covalently to esteric site on AChEsterase d) Phentolamine
b) Binds electrostatically to esteric site on AChEsterase 71. Metoprolol and atenolol:
c) Binds to anionic site a) Are members of the beta 1-selective group
d) Forms complex with AChEsterase with a shorter halflife than b) Are nonselective beta antagonists
acetylcholine c) Have intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
58. The mechanism of action of indirect-acting cholinomimetic d) Have an anesthetic action
agents is: 72. Indicate a beta 1-selective receptor antagonist, which has
a) Binding to and activation of muscarinic or nicotinic receptors very long duration of action:
b) Inhibition of the hydrolysis of endogenous acetylcholine a) Betaxolol
c) Stimulation of the action of acetylcholinesterase b) Sotalol
d) Releasing acetylcholine from storage sites c) Nadolol
59. Cholinomimetics is a drug of choice for reversing the effects d) Metoprolol
of nondepolarizing neuromuscular relaxants? 73. Nonselective beta-blocker without intrinsic sympathomimetic
a) Echothiophate or local anesthetic activity
b) Physostigmine and used for the treatment of life-threatening ventricular
c) Edrophonium arrhythmias?
d) Pilocarpine a) Propranolol
60. Drugs is both a muscarinic and nicotinic blocker? b) Oxprenolol
a) Atropine c) Sotalol
b) Benztropine d) Atenolol
c) Hexamethonium 74. Indicate a beta receptor antagonist with intrinsic
d) Succinylcholine sympathomimetic activity:
61. Indicate a muscarinic receptor-blocking drug: a) Propranolol
a) Scopolamine b) Oxprenolol
b) Pipecuronium c) Metoprolol
c) Trimethaphan d) Carvedilol
d) Pilocarpine 75. A beta-blocker, which is particularly efficacious in thyroid
62. Which is rapidly and fully distributed into CNS and has a storm:
greater effect than most other antimuscarinic agents? a) Pindolol
a) Atropine b) Sotalol
b) Scopolamine c) Phentolamine
c) Homatropine d) Propranolol
d) Ipratropium 76. Indicate the direct-acting sympathomimetic, which is an alfa1
63. The mechanism of atropine action is: alfa2 beta1 receptor agonist:
a) Competitive ganglion blockade a) Isoproterenol
b) Competitive muscarinic blockade b) Ephedrine
c) Competitive neuromuscular blockade c) Dobutamine
d) Noncompetitive neuromuscular blockade d) Norepinephrine
64. Indicate the irreversible alfa receptor antagonist: 77. Which of the following agents is an alfa1-selective agonist?
a) Tolazoline a) Norepinephrine
b) Labetalol b) Methoxamine
c) Prazosin c) Ritodrine
d) Phenoxybenzamine d) Ephedrine
65. Which of the following agents is a beta2–selective 78. Indicate the beta1-selective agonist:
antagonist? a) Isoproterenol
a) Tolazolin b) Dobutamine
b) Pindolol c) Metaproterenol
c) Ergotamin d) Epinephrine
d) Butoxamine 79. Norepinephrine produces:
66. Indicate the beta adrenoreceptor antagonist, which has partial a) Vasoconstriction
beta–agonist activity: b) Vasodilatation
a) Propranolol c) Bronchodilation
b) Metoprolol d) Decresed potassium concentration in the plasma
c) Pindolol 80. Isoproterenol is:
d) Betaxolol a) Both an alfa- and beta-receptor agonist
67. Nonselective alfa-receptor antagonists are most useful in the b) beta1-selective agonist
treatment of: c) beta2-selective agonist
a) Asthma d) Nonselective beta receptor agonist
b) Cardiac arrhythmias 81. Treatment of chronic orthostatic hypotension?
c) Pheochromocytoma a) Epinephrine
d) Chronic hypertension b) Norepinephrine
68. Which of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of c) Ephedrine
pheochromocytoma? d) Salmeterol
a) Phenylephrine 82. The pathophysiologic basis for antiparkinsonism therapy is:
b) Propranolol a) A selective loss of dopaminergic neurons
c) Phentolamine b) The loss of some cholinergic neurons
d) Epinephrine c) The loss of the GABAergic cells
d) Αlfa-receptor antagonists d) The loss of glutamatergic neurons
83. Drugs is used in the treatment of Parkinsonian disorders?
a) Phenytoin d) The tuberoinfundibular system
b) Selegiline 98. Extrapyramidal reactions can be treated by:
c) Haloperidol a) Levodopa
d) Fluoxetine b) Benztropine mesylate
84. The mechanism of carbidopa′s action is: c) Bromocriptine
a) Stimulating the synthesis, release d) Dopamine
b) Inhibition of dopa decarboxilase 99. Which is a phenothiazine aliphatic derivative:
c) Stimulating dopamine receptors a) Thiothixene
d) Selective inhibition of catecol-O-methyltransferase b) Risperidone
85. Levodopa should not be given to patients taking: c) Chlorpromazine
a) Bromocriptine d) Clozapine
b) Monoamine oxydase A inhibitors 100. Indicate the antipsychotic drug, which is a butyrophenone
c) Carbidopa derivative:
d) Nonselective beta-adrenergic antagonists a) Droperidol
86. Indicate a selective inhibitor of monoamine oxidase B: b) Thioridazine
a) Levodopa c) Sertindole
b) Amantadine d) Fluphenazine
c) Tolcapone 101. Indicate the antipsychotic drug, which is a thioxanthene
d) Selegiline derivative:
87. The mechanism of amantadine action is: a) Haloperidol
a) Stimulating the glutamatergic neurotransmission b) Clozapine
b) Blocking the excitatory cholinergic system c) Chlorpromazine
c) Inhibition of dopa decarboxilase d) Thiothixene
d) Selective inhibition of catechol-O-methyltransferase 102. Drug having significant peripheral alpha-adrenergic blocking
88. Select a hypnotic drug, which is a benzodiazepine derivative: activity:
a) Zolpidem a) Haloperidol
b) Flurazepam b) Chlorpromazine
c) Secobarbital c) Clozapine
d) Phenobarbitone d) Risperidone
89. Which of the following barbiturates is an ultra-short-acting 103. Indicate the antipsychotic drug having a
drug? muscarinic-cholinergic blocking activity:
a) Secobarbital a) Chlorpromazine
b) Amobarbital b) Clorprothixene
c) Thiopental c) Risperidone
d) Phenobarbital d) Haloperidol
90. Hepatic microsomal drug-metabolizing enzyme induction 104. Most antipsychotic drugs:
leads to: a) Strongly block postsynaptic d2receptor
a) Barbiturate tolerance b) Stimulate postsynaptic D2 receptor
b) Cumulative effects c) Block NMDA receptor
c) Development of physical dependence d) Stimulate 5-HT2 receptor
d) “hangover” effects 105. Which of the following dopaminergic systems is most closely
91. Hypnotics is preferred for elderly patients? related to behavior?
a) Phenobarbital a) The hypothalamic-pituitary system
b) Flurozepam b) The extrapyramidal system
c) Temazepam c) The mesolimbic and mesofrontal systems
d) Secobarbital d) The chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla
92. Flumazenil blocks the actions of: 106. Hyperprolactinemia is caused by blockade of dopamine in:
a) Phenobarbital a) The chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla
b) Morphine b) The pituitary
c) Zolpidem c) The extrapiramidal system
d) Ethanol d) The mesolimbic and mesofrontal systems
93. Inhaled anesthetics causes centrally mediated sympathetic 107. Narcotics analgesics should:
activation leading to a rise in blood pressure and heart rate? a) Relieve severe pain
a) Desflurane b) Induce loss of sensation
b) Sevoflurane c) Reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect
c) Nitrous oxide d) Induce a stupor or somnolent state
d) Isofurane 108. Second-order pain is:
94. Which of the following agents is used to accelerate recovery a) Sharp, well-localized pain
from the sedative actions of intravenous benzodiazepines? b) Dull, burning pain
a) Naloxone c) Associated with fine myelinated A-delta fibers
b) Flumazenil d) Effectively reduced by non-narcotic analgesics
c) Ketamine 109. Tick narcotic analgesic, which is a phenylpiperidine
d) Fomepizole derivative:
d) Parkinsonian disorders a) Codeine
95. Most antipsychotic drugs: b) Dezocine
a) Strongly block postsynaptic d2receptor c) Fentanyl
b) Stimulate postsynaptic D2 receptor d) Buprenorphine
c) Block NMDA receptor 110. Mixed agonists-antagonists opioids are
d) Stimulate 5-HT2 receptor a) naloxone
96. Hyperprolactinemia is caused by blockade of dopamine in: b) pentazocine
a) The chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla c) fentanyl
b) The pituitary d) morphine
c) The extrapiramidal system 111. Antagonists opioids are
d) The mesolimbic and mesofrontal systems a) pentazocine
97. Parkinsonian symptoms and tarditive dyskinesia are caused b) nalmefene
by blockade dopamine in: c) morphine
a) The nigrostriatal system d) fentanyl
b) The mesolimbic and mesofrontal systems 112. ………….induces less euphoria
c) The chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla a) morphine
b) meperidene d) Is a spinal analeptic
c) methadone 126. Which of the following statements concerning nootropics is
d) epinephrine not correct?
113. Naloxene has a half-life of a) They improve the highest integrative brain functions (memory,
a) 15-30mins learning, understanding, thinking and the capacity for
b) 30-50mins concentration)
c) 30-81.mins b) They stimulate the bulbar respiratory center
d) 30-95mins c) They stimulate existing neuronal synapses to optimum
114. Naloxene has higher affinity for ….. than kappa receptor performance (adaptive capacity)
a) delta d) They stimulate existing neuronal synapses to damaging
b) mu influences, such as disturbances of the energy and
c) gamma neurotransmitter metabolism or ischemia (protective capacity)
d) kappa 127. Piracetam is widely used for the treatment of:
115. …. Is contraindicated in the management of acute and a) Senile dementia
postoperative pain b) Gastritis
a) morphine c) pulmonary diseases
b) meperidine d) heart attack
c) fentanyl patch 128. Indicate the CNS stimulant, which is used in pediatric
d) naloxone medicine, as it improves the communication with the child,
116. Antagonists of morphine is increases the ability to study and communication with peers,
a) meperidine improves school-performance?
b) heroin a) Meridil
c) naloxone b) Piracetam
d) fentayl c) Bemegride
117. Indicate CNC stimulating drugs, which are the agents of d) Amphetamine
general action: 129. Psychologic dependence is:
a) Nootropic agents a) Decreased responsiveness to a drug following repeated exposure
b) Analeptics b) A combination of certain drug-specific symptoms that occur on
c) Psychostimulants sudden discontinuation of a drug
d) Antidepressants c) Compulsive drug-seeking behavior
118. Actoprotectors are: d) Increased responsiveness to a drug following repeated exposure
a) Stimulators, improving physical efficiency 130. Which of the following abused drugs do not belong to
b) Cognition enhancers, improving the highest integrative brain sedative agents?
function a) Barbiturates
c) Stimulants, raising non-specific resistance towards stresses b) Tranquilizers
d) Agents, stimulating the bulbar respiratory and vasomotor centers c) Cannabinoids
119. Adaptogens cause: d) Opioids
a) Improvment of efficiency using physical loads and acceleration 131. In contrast to morphine, heroin is:
of recovery after the load a) Used clinically
b) Stimulation of respiratory and vasomotor centers b) More addictive and fast-acting
c) Temporary relief of the feeling of tiredness, facilitating the c) More effective orally
professional work and fighting somnolence d) Less potent and long-acting
d) Increased resistance towards stress situations and adaptation to 132. Which one of the following tranquilizers belongs to strong
extreme conditions euphorizing agents?
120. Indicate the CNS stimulants, which mitigate conditions of a) Mebicarum
weakness or lack of tone within the entire organism or in b) Buspirone
particular organs? c) Diazepam
a) Psychostimulants d) Chlordiazepoxide
b) Analeptics 133. Tranquilizers intoxication (5-10 tablets) features include:
c) General tonics a) Euphoria, burst of energy, increase in motor activity, wave
d) Antidepressants warmth all over the body
121. Which of the following agents is a general tone-increasing b) Visual hallucinations, a distorted feelling of time and space
drug of plant origin? c) Physical bliss, body lightness, a wish to fly, motionlessness
a) Meridil d) Synaesthesia (the sounds can be tensed, the colors can be heard)
b) Eleuterococci′s extract 134. Cocaine exerts its central action by:
c) Pantocrin a) Inhibiting phosphodiesterase
d) Caffeine b) Increasing a release of catecholaminergic neurotransmitters,
122. Which of the following CNS psychostimulants is a including dopamine
sydnonymine derivative? c) Inhibiting dopamine and norepinephrine reuptake
a) Caffeine d) Altering serotonin turnover
b) Sydnocarb 135. “Crack” is a derivative of:
c) Meridil (methylphenidate hydrochloride) a) Opium
d) Amphetamine b) LSD
123. Sydnocarb causes: c) Cocaine
a) Decreased sense of fatigue, it facilitates the professional work d) Cannabis
and fights somnolence 136. LSD decreases in brain:
b) The feeling of prosperity, relaxation and euphoria a) 5-HT2 receptor densities
c) Influx of physical and mental forces, locomotive and speech b) GABAA-benzodiazepine receptor densities
excitation c) Adrenergic receptor densities
d) Peripheral sympathomimetic action d) D2 receptor densities
124. Cordiamine is useful in the treatment of: 137. Which of the following physiologic signs is a characteristic
a) Hypotension of cannabis intoxication?
b) Coronary insufficiency a) Bradycardia
c) Respiratory insufficiency b) Reddening of the conjunctiva
d) All of the above c) Miosis
125. Bemegride: d) Nausea and vomiting
a) Stimulates the medullar respiratory center (central effect) 138. Anxiolytic agents should:
b) Stimulates hemoreceptors of carotid sinus zone (reflector action) a) Relieve pain
c) Is a mixed agent (both central and reflector effects) b) Reduce anxiety and exert a calming effect
c) Improve mood and behavior in patient with psychotic symptoms d) All of the above
d) Produce drowsiness, encourage the onset and maintenance of a 151. Flumazenil given intravenously:
state of sleep a) Has intermediate onset and duration of action about 2 hours
139. Indicate the agents of choice in the treatment of most anxiety b) Acts rapidly but has a short half-life
states: c) Has an effect lasting 3-5 hours
a) Barbiturates d) Has duration of action longer than 6 hours
b) Benzodiazepines 152. The principal mechanism of action of antidepressant agents
c) Lithium salts is:
d) Phenothiazines a) Stabilization of dopamine and beta-adrenergic receptors
140. Which of the following anxiolitics is a benzodiazepine b) Inhibition of the storage of serotonin and epinephrine in the
derivative: vesicles of presynaptic nerve endings
a) Buspirone c) Blocking epinephrine or serotonin reuptake pumps
b) Clordiazepoxide d) Stimulation of alfa2-norepinephrine receptors
c) Meprobamate 153. Which of the following agents is related to tricyclic
d) Chloral hydrate antidepressants?
141. Indicate the mechanism of hypnotic benzodiazepine action: a) Nefazodon
a) Increasing the duration of the GABA-gated Cl- channel b) Amitriptyline
openings c) Fluoxetine
b) Directly activating the chloride channels d) Isocarboxazid
c) Increasing the frequency of Cl- channel opening events 154. Which of the following antidepressants is a selective
d) Indirectly activating the chloride channels short-acting MAO-A inhibitor?
142. Which of the following anxiolytics is a partial agonist of a) Maprotiline
brain 5-HT1A receptors? b) Amitriptyline
a) Buspirone c) Moclobemide
b) Alprozolam d) Selegiline
c) Chlorazepat 155. Monoamine Oxydase A:
d) Lorazepam a) Is responsible for norepinephrine, serotonin, and tyramine
143. Which of the following disadvantages does not limit using metabolism
benzodiazepines as antianxiety agents? b) Is more selective for dopamine
a) Tendency to develop psychologic dependence c) Metabolizes norepinephrine and dopamine
b) A high risk of drug interactions based on liver enzyme induction d) Deaminates dopamine and serotonin
c) Synergic CNS depression with concomitant use of other drugs 156. The principal mechanism of MAO inhibitor action is:
d) The formation of active metabolites a) Blocking the amine reuptake pumps, which permits to increase
144. Which of the following anxiolytics has minimal abuse the concentration of the neurotransmitter at the
liability? receptor site
a) Oxazepam b) Blocking a major degradative pathway for the amine
b) Buspirone neurotransmitters, which permits more amines to
c) Flumazenil accumulate in presynaptic stores
d) Alprazolam c) Inhibition the storage of amine neurotransmitters in the vesicles
145. In contrast to benzodiazepines, buspirone: of presynaptic nerve endings
a) Interact directly with gabaergic system d) Antagonism of alfa2-norepinephrine receptors
b) Has more marked hypnotic, anticonvulsant, or muscle relaxant 157. The irreversible MAO inhibitors have a very high risk of
properties developing:
c) Causes less psychomotor impairment and does not affect driving a) Respiratory depression
skills b) Cardiovascular collapse and CNS depression
d) Has maximal abuse liability c) Hypertensive reactions to tyramine ingested in food
146. Which of the following sedative-hypnotic drugs does not d) Potentially fatal agranulocytosis
potentiate the CNS depressant effects of ethanol, d) Depleted stores of biogenic amines
phenothiazines, or tricyclic antidepressants? 158. Which of the following features do MAO inhibitors and
a) Buspirone tricyclic antidepressants have in common?
b) Phenobarbital a) Act postsynaptically to produce their effect
c) Diazepam b) Can precipitate hypotensive crises if certain foods are ingested
d) Chloralhydrate c) Increase levels of biogenic amines
147. Limitation of buspirone is: d) Are useful for the manic phase of bipolar disorder
a) A low therapeutic index 159. Tricyclic antidepressants are:
b) An extremely slow onset of action a) Highly selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
c) A high potential of development of physical dependence b) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
d) Impairment of mentation or motor functions during working c) Selective norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
hours d) Mixed norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake inhibitors
148. Which of the following benzodiazepines is more likely to 160. Fluoxetine has fewer adverse effects because of:
cause “hangover” effects such as drowsiness, dysphoria, and a) Mixed norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake inhibition
mental or motor depression the following day? b) Depleted stores of amine neurotransmitters
a) Oxazepam c) Minimal binding to cholinergic, histaminic, and alfa-adrenergic
b) Triazolam receptors
c) Clorazepat d) Mixed epinephrine and serotonin reuptake inhibition
d) Lorazepam 161. Indicate a tricyclic or a heterocyclic antidepressant having
149. Restlessness, anxiety, orthostatic hypotension, generalized greatest antimuscarinic effects:
seizures, severe tremor, vivid hallucination, and psychosis a) Desipramine
are possible symptoms of: b) Amitriptyline
a) Tolerance c) Trazodone
b) Withdrawal d) Mirtazapine
c) Drug interactions between barbiturate and diazepam 162. Sedation, peripheral atropine-like toxicity (e.g. Cycloplegia,
d) None of the above tachycardia, urinary retention, and constipation), orthostatic
150. Flumazenil is used to: hypotension, arrhythmias, weight gain and sexual disturbances are
a) Reverse the CNS depressant effects of hypnotic benzodiazepines possible adverse effects of:
overdose a) Sertaline
b) Hasten recovery following use of hypnotic benzodiazepines in b) Amitriptyline
anesthetic and diagnostic procedure c) Phenelsine
c) Reverse benzodiazepine-induced respiratory depression d) Bupropion
163. Which hormone is a major contributor to the symptoms of c) Creating a hostile endometrium
inflammation? d) Causing the slough off of the endometrium
a) Histamine 178. The following are examples of post-coital contraception.
b) Serotonin a) Mifepristone
c) Bradykinin b) High dose estrogen
d) Leukotrienes c) Estrogen and progesterone combinations
164. Which of the following promotes edema? d) Misoprostol
a) Histamine 179. If two doses of the progesterone-only pill are missed,
b) Serotonin the client should be advised to...
c) Bradykinin a) Use a barrier method for one week
d) Prostaglandins b) Use a barrier method for 48 hours
165. Which hormone is a major contributor for pain during c) Use a barrier method for 24 hours
inflammation reaction? d) Use a barrier method for the rest of the monthly cycle
a) Histamine 180. This type of estrogen is primarily present in menopausal
b) Serotonin women.
c) Bradykinin a) Estradiol
d) Leukotrienes b) Estrone
166. Which hormone is a major contributor to chemotaxis while c) Estriol
inflammation reaction? d) Progesterone
a) Histamine 181. Depo-Provera is not recommended for use longer than 2
b) Serotonin years. This is because...
c) Prostaglandins a) It has been shown to decrease bone mass
d) Leukotrienes b) It can cause breast cancer
167. Which hormone is a major contributor for increasing vascular c) It carries high risk of thromboembolism
permeability during inflammation? d) It can cause endometrial cancers
a) Histamine 182. Estriol is a type of estrogen that is predominately present
b) Serotonin during...
c) Bradykinin a) Fertile years
d) Leukotrienes b) Menopause
168. Which hormone is a major contributor to vasodilation during c) Pregnancy
inflammation reaction? 183. The sodium glucose co-transporter is a _________ and its
a) Histamine function is to_____________.
b) Serotonin a) Anti-hypertensive, reduce blood pressure through the
c) Bradykinin kidneys
d) Leukotrienes b) Anti-hypoglycemic, increase blood sugar through the liver
169. Why the redness can be seen during inflammation? c) Anti-hypothyrodic, increase levels of T4 from thyroid
a) Local blood vessel dilation gland
b) Influx of plasma proteins, phagocytic cells into the tissue spaces d) Anti-diabetic, decrease amount of glucose reabsorbed by
c) Release of enzymes kidney
d) Increased of tissue pressure 184. Sulfonylureas and meglitinides both work by inhibiting the
170. Why the Heat can be seen during inflammation? outflux of potassium ions from the beta cells in the pancreas. This
a) Local blood vessel dilation then causes depolarization of the cell, leading to the release of
b) Influx of plasma proteins, phagocytic cells into the tissue spaces insulin. They differ from each other in the following way.
c) Release of enzymes a) Sulfonylureas have less efficacy then meglitinides, leading
d) Increased of tissue pressure to less incidences of hypoglycemia
171. Why the swelling can be seen during inflammation? b) Meglitinides bind to a different site then sulfonylureas,
a) Local blood vessel dilation have a shorter duration of action, and have less risk of
b) Influx of plasma proteins, phagocytic cells into the tissue spaces hypoglycemia
c) Release of enzymes c) Meglitinides only cause partial depolarization of the cell,
d) Increased of tissue pressure resulting in less insulin release
172. Why the pain can be felt during inflammation? 185. Anti-obesity agents (orlistat) work by...
a) Local blood vessel dilation a) Inhibiting lipase
b) Influx of plasma proteins b) Stimulating lipase
c) Release of enzymes and increased of tissue pressure c) Inhibiting glucagon
d) Influx of phagocytic cells d) Stimulating glucagon
173. Which of the following drug is an indole derivative? 186. This drug inhibits/slows the digestion of sugars in the
a) ASA digestive tract.
b) Ibuprofen a) Biguanides
c) Phenylbutazone b) Bile acid sequesterants
d) Indomethacin c) Alpha glucosidase inhibitor
174. Which of the following drug is a Phenylpropionic acid d) Orlistat
derivative? 187. Which drug increases liver and tissue sensitivity to insulin by
a) ASA activating AMP-activated protein kinases which play a key role in
b) Ibuprofen insulin signaling?
c) Phenylbutazone a) Alpha glucosidase inhibitors
d) Indomethacin b) Orlistat
175. Which of the following is an example of salicylates? c) Metformin
a) ASA d) Dopamine agonist
b) Ibuprofen 188. Lack of glucocorticoids with primary causes would be
c) Phenylbutazon attributed to which condition?
176. Which condition results from over secretion of growth a) Cushing's
hormone? b) Hashimoto's
a) Panhypopituitarism c) Addison's
b) Addison's d) Hyperthyrodism
c) Acromegaly 189. This drug treats hyperthyroidism by inhibiting T3 and T4
d) Diabetes production in the thyroid gland, and by preventing T3 conversion
177. Mifepristone works by... to T4 in tissues.
a) Causing uterine contractions a) Mineralocorticoids
b) Thickening cervical mucus b) Propylthiouracil
c) Sodium iodide 131 c) Fomepizole.
d) Insulin d) Nalorphine.
190. This drug acts as a synthetic T4 hormone. e) Naltrexone.
a) Levothyroxine
b) Pegvisomant
c) Metformin 200. A 40 year old male was under alcoholism and apart
d) PTU from an increased risk of severe liver disease he may be at an
191. A 20 year old male suffered from moderate Aspirin increased risk for:
toxicity; he may be managed by promoting its excretion a) Angina.
when infused with: b) Heart failure.
a) Ascorbic acid. c) Pulmonary hypertension.
b) Acid citrate. d) Renal impairment.
c) Sodium bicarbonate. e) CNS-tumours.
d) Sodium chloride. 201. A 60 year old lady who was undergoing a cardiac
192. A 25 year old female was given 200mg of a drug surgery got an agent which provided full analgesia
I/V in a single dose; during first 120 minutes its 100mg without any cardiac effect; but the patient was having
were eliminated. As this drug follows first-order full awareness during surgery with recall after it. Most
elimination kinetics, after 6 hours the amount of the drug probably she got:
left behind in the blood will be: a) Ketamine.
a) None. b) Enflurane.
b) 5 mg. c) Fentanyl.
c) 15 mg. d) Thiopental.
d) 25 mg e) Midazolam.
e) 35 mg. 202. Lidocaine, an amide was injected in an infected tissue to
193. A 2 month child accidentally got a dose of get a local anaesthesia; its pKa is 7.9; 90% of the drug
chloramphenicol which may be harmful to him due to low converted in an ionized state because the tissue pH was:
enzymatic activity. It is metabolised through phase-I reaction a) 6.9.
like: b) 5.9.
a) Acetylation. c) 4.9.
b) Reduction. d) 3.9.
c) Sulfation. e) 2.9.
d) Methylation. 203. A young girl of 15 years old experiences epileptic fits
e) Glucoronidation. during her menstrual periods. She may however be
194. A single 10 mg dose of Enalapril was given to a managed with:
hypertensive patient; after first half life of 3 hours its plasma a) Ethosuximide.
concentration was 50 ng/ml. To reach almost 0.75 ng/ml it
b) Valproic acid.
will take:
a) 9 hours. c) Phenytoin.
b) 15 hours. d) Corticosteroids.
c) 21 hours.
d) 27 hours. e) Acetazolamide.
e) 30 hours. 204. In the management of opioid withdrawal states the
195. After synthesis in the cytoplasm, Acetylcholine is drugs usually used are those which have:
stored in the vesicles and in each vesicle the “quanta” of
a) Short duration of action.
acetylcholine molecules usually contain:
a) 500 – 1000 molecules. b) Long duration of action.
b) 1000 – 10,000 molecules. c) Pure antagonistic activity.
c) 1000 – 20,000 molecules.
d) 1000 – 50,000 molecules. d) Euphoric effects also.
e) 1000 – 100,000 molecules. e) Mixed agonist-antagonistic activity.
196. Extensive research up till now on the adrenergic
205. A 35 year old depressive patient who was taking a
receptors has shown that the endothelium of the blood
tricyclic Antidepressant also got clonidine to manage his
vessels contains:
hypertension. The possible drug interactions may show:
a) a1 - receptors.
b) a2 - receptors. a) Re-appearance of depressive symptoms.
c) b1 – receptors. b) Increased respiratory depression.
d) b2 – recepto rs.
e) No adenoceptors. c) Increased blood pressure.
197. A 30 year old asthmatic patient is having mild to d) Decreased blood pressure.
moderate hypertension; he may be best managed by a good
e) Increased anticholinergic activity.
beta-blocker, like:
a) Atenolol. 206. A 50 year old woman with a history of peptic ulcer
b) Nadolol. disease is suffering from early stages of Rheumatoid
c) Pindolol. Arthritis. She may be better managed with:
d) Propranolol. a) Penicillamine.
e) Timolol.
198. A 60 year old male patient wit a history of b) Methotrexate.
postural hypotensive attacks is in need of an a 1A – specific c)Omeprazole.
blocker for his benign prostatic hyperplasma like:
a) Prazosin. d) Celecoxib.
b) Terazosin. e)Indomethacin.
c) Doxazosin. 207. Paracetamol is almost free of anti-inflammatory effect;
d) Tamsulosin its analgesic mechanism of action is:
e) Alfuzosin.
199. An accidental overdosage of Chlordiazepoxide a) Selective COX-2 inhibition.
was observed in a 6 year old child; he may be best treated by b) Non-Selective COX 1 & 2 inhibition.
giving him an antagonist like:
a) Flumazenil. c) COX-3 inhibition in CNS.
b) Naloxone. d) Low CO2 levels at Spinal Cord.
e) Decreased levels of Substance-P. 215. A 40 year old hypertensive patient while taking
208. In those patients with a history of GIT upset due to anti-hypertensive drugs suffered from a precipitous fall in
various NSAIDS, one of the followings may be better blood pressure and fainting on initial administration. It is
tolerated comparatively: commonly seen with:

a) Aspirin. a) Nifedipine.

b) Indomethacin. b) Prazosin.

c) Ibuprofen. c) Atenolol.

d) Diclofenace sodium. d) Hydrochlorthiazide.

e) Naproxen. e) Verapamil.

209. A 35 year old patient suffering from Chronic Gout 216. Diphenoxylate is an opioid derivative anti-diarrheal
needs increased urinary excretion of uric acid; one of the drug and it is usually combined with Atropine to:
followings will be effective even if he is having renal a) Enhance its activity.
insufficiency: b) Reduce its CNS side effects.
a) Probenecid. c) Reduce the likelihood of abuse.
b) Sulfinpyrazone. d) Make useful for children also.
c) Allopurinol. e) Decrease the GIT secretions.
d) Colchicine. 217. A 40 year old known asthmatic patient reported to
e) Benzbromarone. emergency for his severe exacerbations of asthma; he must
210. Sulfasalazine is also a disease-modifying anti-rheumatic get oxygen and frequent administration of corticosteroid
drug; it can show anti-rheumatic action due to its active with:
metabolite: a) Epinephrine.
a) Sulfapyridine. b) Salbutamol.
b) 5 – aminosalicylic Acid. c) Ipratropium.
c) Acetylsalicylic Acid. d) Cromolyn.
d) Hydroxysalicylic Acid. e) Zileuton.
e) Sodium Salicylic Acid. 218. The life saving drug given parenterally in severe status
211. A 30 year old pregnant lady was diagnosed to be asthmaticus will act by inhibiting Phospholipase A2:
suffering from haemolytic anaemia; no exact cause of it a) Epinephrine.
could be found except that of a history of drug intake to b) Aminophylline.
control her hypertension. The most likely drug she took may
be: c) Salbutamol.
a) Propranolol. d) Prednisone.
b) Captopril. e) Metaproterenol.
c) Clonidine. 219. A 25 year old lady is suffering from severe
Thyrotoxicosis; after chemotherapy she may be required to
d) Methyldopa. be prepared for surgical intervention by using a drug which
e) Hydralazine. has most rapid onset of action:
212. A 55 year old male has been taking orally Nitroglycerin a) I131 .
for any acute attack of “Angina on Effort”. But due to b) Ipodate.
frequently occurring such attacks he must be given some
useful alternative like: c) Prophylthrouracil.
a) Esmolol. d) Methimazole.
b) Amyl nitrite. e) Thyroglobulin.
c) Diltiazem. 220. A 40 year old male has developed signs and symptoms
of Cushing’s Syndrome which is due to an adrenal tumor. He
d) Isosorbide dinitrate sublingually. may be given a drug which reduces the uncontrolled
e) Sublingual nitroglycerine. production of adrenal tumour:
213. To treat a case of chronic congestive cardiac failure a a) Cortisol.
drug is to be selected which can reduce the mortality also; b) Betamethasone.
but one of the followings can hardly reduce the mortality
like: c) Ketoconazole.
a) Spironolactone. d) Fludrocortisone.
b) Captopril. e) Triamcinolone.
c) Enalapril. 221. 28 year old male is using high doses of Oxandrolone
for the last few months; he is at increased risk of:
d) Carvedilol.
a) Hirsutism.
e) Digoxin.
b) Anemia.
214. Lidocaine is an amide local anesthetic agent but also has
useful anti- arrhythmic activity. Typically it: c) Hyperprolactinemia.
a) Decreases resting potential. d) Testicular Enlargement.
b) Decreases abnormal automaticity. e) Cholestatic Jaundice.
c) Increases PR interval. 222. A 15 year old boy with Type-I Diabetes Mellitus has
been admitted in emergency with Severe Hyperglycemia,
d) Increase contractility. Ketoacidosis and a blood pH of about 7.1; the most
e) Increases duration of action potential. appropriate drug to control rapidly the severe Ketoacidosis
is:
a) Glyburide. b) increased gastric secretion
b) Tolbutamide. c) increased cardiac rate
c) Crystalline Zinc Insulin. d) increased urinary frequency
d) Isophane Insulin. 231. A young man of 24 years is suffering from Generalized
e) Ultralente Insulin. Anxiety Disorder; which drug may be preffered for his
problem?
223. A 45 year old patient of Type-II Diabetes is insisting to
be managed with monotherapy without having a pronounced a) Zolpidem
risk of hypoglycaemia. Therefore he may be given: b) Buspirone
a) Glipizide. c) Midazolam
b) Glyburide. d) Triazolam
c) Repaglinide. 232. A patient with a systemic infection is being treated
d) Pioglitazone. with an antibiotic whose elimination half-life(t1/2) is 8
hours. To maintain the patient's total body store at 300 mg of
e) Tolbutamide. the antibiotic, what should the dosage be?
224. An important adverse effect produced by Miglitol, an a a) 100 mg every 8 hours
-glucosidase inhibitor is:
b) 200 mg
a) Post Prandial Hyperglycemia.
c) 300
b) Edema.
d) 400
c) Mild Anemia.
233. A 29 year old woman says that her eyes will not stay
d) Flatulence and Abdominal Pain. open despite the fact that she's not tired. On physical
e) Lactic acidosis. examination, her facial musculature weakens as she
continues to talk. Which of the following drugs would be
225. A 55 year old male patient of metastatic prostate cancer most useful in helping to make a diagnosis in this patient?
may be treated with some androgen receptor blockers like:
a) Physostigmine
a) Flutamide.
b) Neistigmine
b) Methyltestosterone.
c) Pyridostigmine
c) Desogestrel.
d) Edrophonium
d) Anastrozole.
234. A patient who is using a direct (receptor) acting
e) Oxandrolone. sympathomimetic agent as a nasal decongestant. He is more
226. An 18 year old girl is very anxious before undergoing a likely to be taking
tooth extraction. She is being allowed to lay down on a couch a) Ephedrine
for another half an hour to avoid one of the following
possible effects of Promethazine: b) Amphetamine
a) Sedation. c) Phenylephrine
b) Dryness of mouth. d) Mephentermine
c) Constipation. 235. A patient is taking a mixed-acting sympathomimetic as
a nasal decongestant. This agent, which exhibits
d) Orthostatic hypotension. tachyphylaxis and qualitatively resembles epinephrinein its
e) Blurring of vision. cardiovascular effects, most likely is
227. Cimetidine may have toxicity like: a) Ephedrine
a) Blurring of Vision. b) Phenylephrine
b) Diarrhea. c) Terbutaline
c) Sedation. d) Amphetamine
d) Orthostatic Hypotension. 236. A patient is given an inhalation anesthetic, an inert gas
that supports combustion Though it is not effective as a
e) Hepatic Enzymes Inhibition.
single agent, when combined with is more portant inhalation
228. Deferoxamine is a known chelator which has selectively agents, it provides significant analgesia. Because of its high
high affinity for: partial pressure in blood, this agent could result in all af the
a) Aluminium. following, except
b) Lead. a) Distention of bowel
c) Iron. b) Leukocytosis
d) Arsenic. c) Rupture of a pulmonary cyst
e) Mercury. d) Rupture of a tympanic membrane in an occluded middle
ear
229. A patient is maintained on a dasage regimen of drug X
which is highly bound to plasma proteins. Beginning 237. 50 year old patient is having propanolol due to his
concurrent therapy with drug Y, which is also highly bound cardiac problems but his physician now wants to stop this
might be expected to result in drug; which of the following is the most important reason for
this step
a) A need for increased dosage of Xbox
a) Familial tremor
b) An excessive effect from regular dose of X
b) Partial AV heart block
c) A need for a higher than normal dose of Y
c) Mild hypertension
d) No interaction expected
d) Angina pectoris
230. A 3 year old child has been admitted to emergency with
suspicious of Atropine overdose as there are:
a) Abdominal cramps
238. 35 year old patient complaining of severe pain along the c) Aminoglycosides
right side of the jaw and face; the best choice for this d) Quinolones
neuralgic pain is:
245. Which of the following statements about NSAIDs is
a) Methadone false?
b) Ibuprofen a) NSAIDs are not recommended during pregnancy
c) Carbamazepine b) NSAIDs increase renal blood flow
d) Lorazepam c) NSAIDs reduce the therapeutic effect of SSRIs
239. A patient undergoing general anesthesia experiences d) NSAIDs have a hypocoagulability effect
muscle rigidity upon intravenous injection of succinylcholine
for tracheal intubation. The body temperature rises 246. Paracetamol is an NSAID with a comparatively low
precipitously. A drug that may be useful in this situation is anti-inflammatory effect compared to other NSAIDs.
a) Carbamazepine a) True
b) Valproic acid b) False
c) Dantrolene 247. This drug treats hyperthyroidism by inhibiting T3 and
T4 production in the thyroid gland, and by preventing T3
d) Clonazepam conversion to T4 in tissues.
240. A patient with renal failure is to undergo abdominal a) Mineralocorticoids
surgery. Which competitive neuromuscular blocking agent
could be used in this patient as adjunct to the surgery? b) Propylthiouracil
a) Pipecuronium c) Sodium iodide 131
b) Gallamine d) Insulin
c) Atracurium 248. Which drug increases liver and tissue sensitivity to
insulin by activating AMP-activated protein kinases which
d) Succinylcholine play a key role in insulin signaling?
241. A 62 year old patient who is known to have glaucoma is a) Alpha glucosidase inhibitors
scheduled for a cholecystectomy. Which neuromuscular
blocking agents is contraindicated? b) Orlistat
a) Tubacurarine c) Metformin
b) Pancuronium d) Dopamine agonist
c) Succinylcholine 249. Sulfonylureas and meglitinides both work by inhibiting
the outflux of potassium ions from the beta cells in the
d) Gallamine pancreas. This then causes depolarization of the cell, leading
242. Pancuronium was used in a patient undergoing surgery to the release of insulin. They differ from each other in the
as skeletal muscle relaxant, to achieve balanced anesthesia. following way.
Now, after the surgery, which drug can be used to reverse a) Sulfonylureas have less efficacy then meglitinides, leading
the muscle relaxation? to less incidences of hypoglycemia
a) Physostigmin b) Meglitinides bind to a different site then sulfonylureas,
b) Neostigmine have a shorter duration of action, and have less risk of
c) Acetylcholine hypoglycemia

d) Adrenaline c) Meglitinides only cause partial depolarization of the cell,

resulting in less insulin release
243. Which of the following NSAIDs has greater inhibitory
selectivity for COX-1 than COX-2? 250. Postmenopausal women should not take hormone
replacement therapy if...
a) Flurbiprofen
a) They have begun menopause less then five years ago
b) Indomethacin
b) They have begun menopause more then five years ago
c) Diclofenac
c) They have an absence of troublesome symptoms
d) Celecoxib
d) They have a family Hx of estrogen sensitive breast cancer
244. NSAIDs increase the risk of CNS adverse effects when
taken with which group of antibiotics?
a) Macrolides
b) Penicillins