1. .

Anticholinergic drugs are used to/as:

a. allow the sympathetic system to dominate

b. block the parasympathetic system, which is commonly hyperactive

c. stimulate GI activity

d. the drugs of choice for treating ulcers

2. Atropine and scopolamine work by blocking what receptor(s) in the parasympathetic nervous
system?

a. Adrenergic receptors to allow cholinergic receptors to dominate

b. Muscarinic and nicotinic receptors

c. Muscarinic receptors only

d. Nicotinic receptors only

3. Which of the following suggestions would the nurse make to help a patient who is receiving an
anticholinergic agent reduce the risks associated with decreased sweating?

a. Changing position slowly and protecting from the sun

b. Covering the head and using sunscreen
c. Ensuring hydration and temperature control
d. Monitoring for difficulty swallowing and breathing

4. Which of the following would the nurse be least likely to include when developing a
teaching plan for a patient who is receiving an anticholinergic agent?

a. Encouraging the patient to use sugarless lozenges to combat dry mouth

b. Encouraging the patient to void before dosing
c. Performing exercises to increase the heart rate
d. Setting up a bowel program to deal with constipation

5. Remembering that anticholinergics block the effects of PNS, the nurse would question an
order for an anticholinergic drug for patients with which of the following conditions?

a. Asthma
b. Biliary spasms
c. Bradycardia
d. Glaucoma
6. What is a primary difference between benzodiazepines and barbiturates?
a. Half-life
b. Safety in overdose
c. Effectiveness
d. Risk of ulcer formation

7. The physician orders an intramuscular injection of largactil for a patient with

psychosis. When preparing to draw up the medication, the nurse is careful to remove
the correct vial from the drug cabinet. It is labelled:
a. chlorhexidine
b. chlorphenamine
c. chlorpromazine
d. chloramphenicol

8. A client is taking omeprazole asks the nurse what would be the best medication to
take for a headache. The nurse tells the client that it would be best to take:
a. aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid, ASA)
b. ibuprofen (Motrin)
c. acetaminophen (Tylenol)
d. naproxen (Naprosyn)

9. Fungal infections in the ear may also be called:

a. Cholesteatoma
b. Minieres disease
c. Otitis externa
d. Otitis media

10. Anti-infective for the ear include the following EXCEPT :

a. Acetic acid
b. Boric acid
c. Citric sulphate
d. Colistin sulphate

11. Which intravenous anaesthetic agent produces dissociative anaesthesia?

a. Diazepam
b. Etomidate
c. Ketamine
d. Thiopentone

12. Which of these medications will be prescribed for a patient whose PUD was induced
by NSAIDs
a. Omeprazole
b. Misoprostol
c. Mifeprostol
d. Cimetidine
13. A patient wants to find out if he can use paracetamol in place of an aspirin he is
taking for his arthritis. The nurse bases her answer on the knowledge that paracetamol
is used for which of the following?
a. Analgesic and antipyretic
b. Analgesic and anti-inflammatory
c. Anti-inflammatory and antiplatelet
d. Antipyretic and anti-inflammatory

14. Phenobarbital, a drug used in management of anxiety achieves it therapeutic effect by

acting primarily on the:
a. Reticular activating system
b. Frontal lobe of the brain
c. Pons of the brain
d. Meninges of the brain

15. A nurse planning to administer a barbiturate to a patient understands that the drug is
not to be administered intra-anteriorly because of the risk of:
a. Embolism
b. Arteriospasm
c. Arterial infiltration
d. Risk of non-absorption

16. Benzodiazepines are contraindicated in a patient with

a. Anxiety disorder
b. Agitation
c. Narrow angle glaucoma
d. Alcohol withdrawal

17. Which of the under-listed is not a reason for coating a tablet?

a. To hide the taste of the tablet
b. To make the tablet easier to swallow
c. To decrease the tablet’s resistant to the environment
d. To extend the tablet’s shelf life

18. Which of the under-listed factors influence absorption of drugs?

a. Food and fluids
b. Blood flow
c. Surface area
d. All the above

19. A nurse planning to administer a barbiturate to a patient understands that the drug is
not to be administered intra-arteriorly because of the risk of:
 a. Arterial infiltration
b. Arteriospasm
c. Embolism
d. Risk of non-absorption

20. The following are examples of volatile liquids EXCEPT:

a. Halothane
b. Enflurane
c. Nitrous oxide
d. Isoflurane

21. Bioavailability is the dose that reaches the systemic circulation and is available to act
on the body cells. It is primarily determined by:
a. Dose administered
b. Individual’s general health status
c. Route of administration
d. None of the above

22. The transportation of a drug from the blood stream to the body tissues and intended
site of action is called:
a. Absorption
b. Bioavailability
c. Distribution
d. Metabolism

23. To be effective, a drug must be present in concentrations at or above

a. The toxic concentration
b. Therapeutic range
c. Minimum effective concentration
d. The plasma concentration

24. The objective of drug dosing is to maintain plasma drug levels within the
a. The toxic concentration
b. Therapeutic range
c. Minimum effective concentration
d. The plasma concentration

25. Side effects and drug toxicity are both examples of adverse reactions. Whereas side
effects related to lack of specificity of action exhibited by the drug, drug toxicity is
related to
 a. The route of administration
b. The dose of drug administered
c. Knowledge of the nurse administering the drug
d. None of the above

26. The situation where two drugs with different mechanism of action produce greater
effects than the effect of each drug given separately is referred to as:
a. Potentiating
b. Additive effect
c. Antagonism
d. Incompatibility

27. Aminoglycosides achieve their therapeutic effects by:

a. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
b. Inhibition of metabolic activity in the bacteria
c. Inhibition of translation of mRNA
d. Interference of tRNA and mRNA attachment

28. Cefipime is a:
a. A first generation cephalosporin
b. A second generation cephalosporin
c. A third generation cephalosporin
d. A fourth generation cephalosporin

29. Doxycycline is classified as:

a. Cephalosporin
b. Penicillin
c. Aminoglycoside
d. Tetracycline

30. Nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, confusion, and cardiac effects are the commonest
effects of a patient receiving
a. Penicillin
b. Ceftriazone
c. Gentamycin
d. Sulphonamide

31. A nurse is giving education to a patient who is about to be discharge on tetracycline.

The nurse identifies the need for further education if the patient mentions that:
a. ‘I will take this medication with milk products such as yoghurt’
b. ‘I will check the expiration date on all bottles of medication’
c. ‘I will wear a sunscreen and protective clothing while taking this medication’
d. ‘ I will throw away old tetracycline’
32. One of the under-listed drugs has been associated with ‘sunburn’ reaction that appears
upon exposure to direct sunlight?
a. Sulfadiazine
b. Septrin
c. Neomycin
d. Doxycycline

33. The following factors affect the rate at which a drug in storage lose their quality
except
a. Heat
b. Moisture
c. Light
d. PH

34. The immunologic response to a medication to which the client has been sensitive is?
a. Side effects
b. Idiosyncratic effects
c. Allergic reaction
d. Toxic effect

35. A patient who is being prepared for surgery tells you that she is allergic to penicillin.
The nurse is aware that the patient may also be allergic to:
a. Azithromycin
b. Tetracycline
c. Cefuroxime
d. Clarithromycin

36. A client being discharged home on co-trimoxazole has received education from the
nurse. Which of the under-listed responses from the client will suggest a poor
understanding of the education giving?
a. ‘I will drink adequate amount of fluids’
b. ‘I will resume normal activities; including driving’
c. ‘I will wear protective clothing and also put on sunscreen’
d. ‘I will call my doctor if a notice skin rash’

37. The name of the drug registered by the manufacturer is called

a. Chemical name
b. Manufacturer name
c. Non-proprietary name
d. Trade name
 38. Nurse Acquah is reading research about a drug. The literature states that the
drug is potent. What does this mean?
a. The drug produces strong effects at small dose
b. The drug produces effects at any dose
c. The drug requires high doses to produce its effects
d. The drug is very likely to cause adverse effects

39. Which of the under-listed is not a property of competitive antagonist?

a. Compete with the agonist drug for the same receptor site.
b. They prevent the agonist from causing effect
c. Its effect can be overcome by giving greater dose of the agonist
d. Its effect cannot be overcome by giving greater dose of the agonist

Match the stages of anesthesia in column A with their descriptions in column B

A B

40. Analgesia ___________ A. if breathing stops, death may occur

41. Excitement/hypersensitivity_________ B. skeletal muscles relax
42. Surgical anesthesia________________ C. client delirious; may resist anesthesia
43. Medullary paralysis_______________ D. loss of sensation; patient may be
awake

E. Patient completely recovers

42. Which of the under-listed is not true about drug-receptor interactions?

a. Drugs can mimic the actions of endogenous molecules

b. Drugs generally cannot block the action of endogenous molecules
c. A receptor must be selective in choosing drugs
d. A receptor must change its function upon binding to a drug

44. When the therapeutic window of a drug is narrow, what should the nurse
expect?
a. The drug will produce the desired effects at low doses
b. It will be difficult to administer the drug safely
c. The drug can be administered safely and with ease
d. The drug will only be used in emergency
45. An adult patient has been taking a drug (Drug A) that is highly metabolized by
the cytochrome p-450 system. He has been on this medication for 6 months. At
this time, he is started on a second medication (Drug B) that is an inducer of the
cytochrome p-450 system. You should monitor this patient for:
a. Increased therapeutic effects of Drug A.
b. Increased adverse effects of Drug B.
c. Decreased therapeutic effects of Drug A.
d. Decreased therapeutic effects of Drug B.

46. Morphine causes the following effects EXCEPT:

A. Constipation
B. Dilatation of the biliary duct
C. Urinary retention
D. Bronchiolar constriction

47. Which of the following opioid agents is used in the treatment of acute opioid
overdose?
A. Pentazocine
B. Methadone
C. Naloxone
D. Remifentanyl

48. Non-narcotic analgesics are mainly effective against pain associated with:
A. Inflammation or tissue damage
B. Trauma
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Surgery

49. Which of the following non-narcotic agents is salicylic acid derivative?

A. Phenylbutazone
B. Ketamine
C. Aspirin
D. Tramadol

50. The following are examples of volatile liquids except:

a. halothane
b. enflurane
 c. nitrous oxide
d. isoflurane
51. A type of regional anesthesia that is commonly employed in obstetrics during labour
is
a. Delivery anesthesia
b. Epidural anesthesia
c. Infiltration anesthesia
d. Nerve block anesthesia
52. A patient who received spinal anesthesia may be at risk of severe headache post-
operatively. The nurse prevents this by:
a. Checking the vital signs and asking patient to lie down for up to 12 hrs.
b. Giving analgesics and asking the patient to lie down for up to 12 hrs.
c. Giving diversion therapy and asking the client to lie down for up to 12 hrs.
d. Hydrating the patient and asking him to lie down for up to 12 hrs.
53. Balanced anesthesia is the most commonly used practice of administering general
anesthesia because it:
a. Is the easiest method of administering general anesthesia
b. Never induces respiratory compromise in the elderly
c. Provides deep anesthesia for all types of surgery
d. Provides safe, effective and controlled level of anesthesia
54. A common adverse effect associated with the use of morphine is?
a. Abdominal discomfort
b. Electrolyte imbalance
c. Reye’s syndrome
d. Urinary retention
55. Phenobarbital, a drug used in management of anxiety achieves it therapeutic effect by
acting primarily on the:
a. Frontal lobe of the brain
b. Meninges of the brain
c. Pons of the brain
d. Reticular activating system
From the PREAMBLE provided in quotes, indicate whether each question (under the
preamble) is either TRUE or FALSE, UNDERLINE your choice (in the TRUE or
FALSE column). ONE MARK is awarded for each CORRECT response

“An antimalarial”

56. Septrin TRUE / FALSE

57. Quinine TRUE / FALSE
58. Amodiaquine TRUE / FALSE
59. Doxycycline TRUE / FALSE

“ A Nursing Principle of Pharmacodynamics”

60. Drug Side effects TRUE / FALSE

61. Drug Metabolism TRUE / FALSE
62. Drug Elimination TRUE / FALSE
63. Drug Liberation TRUE / FALSE

“ Opioid Analgelsics”

64. Codeine Phosphate TRUE / FALSE

65. Tramadol HCL TRUE / FALSE
66. Morphine Sulfate TRUE / FALSE
67. Tylenol TRUE / FALSE

“A Generic Name”
68. Mebendazole TRUE / FALSE
69. Cytotec TRUE / FALSE
70. Amoxiclav TRUE / FALSE
71. Paracetamol TRUE / FALSE