PART 1: ELECTRICAL SYSTEM

1. External power is used for aircraft when:

A. During flight
B. On ground and during flight
C. On ground
2. Differential protection circuit is used to:
A. Detect short circuits (without circuit breaker)
B. Detect open phase in AC distribution systems.
C. Detect open phase in AC distribution systems.
D. Detect open phase in AC distribution systems.
3. Main advantages of parallel operation are:
A. Share loads between generators and No power interrruption
B. No power interrruption
C. Share loads between generators
D. Isolated power supplies.
4. On an aircraft equipped with an electrical flight control system such as A320, Main DC
Power distribution works:
A. In parallel operation
B. In parallel or isolated operation
C. In isolated operation
5. When two IDGs in twin engine aircraft fails, DC EMER bus is supplied by:
A. Battery only
B. TR2 via DC bus2 or ESS TR via DC ESS bus
C. TR1 via DC bus1 or ESS TR via DC ESS bus
6. The fuction of Static Inverter is
A. Convert 115V AC to 28 V AC
B. Convert 115V three phases to 28V DC
C. Convert 28V Dc to 115 V AC
D. Convert 24V Dc to 115 V AC
7. If generator load current in phase A is zero and in normal range for the other two
phases, the GCU triggers a protection circuit of:
A. Open phase
B. Short circuit
C. Undervoltage
D. Overvoltage
8. GCU protection function can be divided into:
A. 03 groups
B. 05 groups
C. 02 groups
D. 04 groups
9. If the CSD fail, the generator will be affected:
A. voltage
B. frequency
C. current
D. Phase
10. GCU for the emergency generator provides the main functions:
A. Both parallel and isolated operation
B. For isolated operation
C. For parallel operation
11. Manual action on bus tie pushbutton (switched to OFF) will:
A. inhibit closure of the bus tie power relays
B. prevent all generators from supplying to normal consumers
C. make power supply from left to right side or vice versa possible
12. When mixing electrolytes:
A. acid is always added to the water
B. water is always added to the acid
C. it is not important how water and acid are mixed.
13. Which statement is NOT true for power source switching?
A. A power source switching always occurs when an existing power source is lost or when a new
power source becomes available.
B. Power source switching is performed by GCUs or GPCUs via electrical motors
C. Automatic switching transfers power sources for flight operation whereas manual
switching mainly transfers ground power sources.
14. Receptacles for external power connection consists of:
A. 04 thin, short pins & 02 thick, long pins
B. 03 thick, long pins & 01 thin, short pin
C. 03 thin, short pins & 02 thick, longpins
D. 04 thick, long pins & 02 thin, short pins
15. Which of the following is the most probable reason for the overload condition?
A. All galleys and entertainment systems are turned on simultaneously
B. One generator is switched off due to failures
C. Voltage and frequency regulators fail at the same time
16. In order to provide a power source of 115VAC, 400Hz, Engine driven generator and APU
generator are installed in the aircraft. They are
A. Identical in function but different in operation
B. Totally identical
C. Only different in rated power
17. Electrical power supplying all systems to operate the aircraft safely is called
Essential Power. Essential power supplies:
A. Captain’s navigation, communication equipment
B. Captain and First officer’s navigation and communication equipment
C. Captain’s navigation, communication equipment, important control and warning systems
18. A Variable Speed Constant Frequency (VSCF) generator includes:
A. A generator (PMG, exciter, main generator), a rectifier, a DC filter, a static inverter, an AC
filter, GCU, oil system
B. A generator (PMG, exciter, main generator), a rectifier, a DC filter, a static inverter, an AC
filter, GCU
C. A generator (PMG, exciter, main generator), a rectifier, a DC filter, a static inverter, an AC
filter
19. EMER GEN is driven by:
A. An electrical motor
 B. A hydraulic motor
C. Constant Speed Drive (CSD)
20. During a normal engine shutdown, generator tripping is initiated by.
A. underfrequency
B. overcurrent
C. Undervoltage
21. A single-phase AC generator has twelve poles and it runs at 600 r.p.m. Which one of the
following gives the output frequency of the generator?
A. 60Hz
B. 50Hz
C. 120Hz.
22. Ground power source switching must always be performed
A. Manually
B. Automatically
C. Both Automatically and manually
23. Over-voltage protection circuits are activated.
A. without time delay
B. after the pilot put the corresponding button.
C. Dependent on the magnitude of the overvoltage
24. For twin-engine aircraft, AC ESS bus is normally supplied by:
A. Static inverter
B. AC bus 1
C. AC bus 2
25. Discharging a battery below 22V causes:
A. the polarity of the weakest cell to be inversed
B. the polarity of the weakest cell to be inversed & the battery not to be able to recharged in the
aircraft
C. the battery not to be able to recharged in the aircraft
26. In a multi-generator system, the generator which takes more than its reactive power share
is protected by.
A. Over voltage and under frequency protecion circuits
B. Over voltage and under voltage protecion circuits
C. Over voltage and over frequency protecion circuits
27. How long can the batteries provide sufficient electrical energy in emergency
condition?
A. about 30 minutes with 24 V DC
B. about 50 minutes with 24 V DC
C. about 30 minutes with 28 V DC
D. about 60 minutes with 24 V DC
28. A fuse-type current limiter.
A. limits current flow to loads
B. Can be use as a radio suppressor
C. open a circuit after current condition has been exceeded
29. The output of TR units:
A. 220VAC
B. 28VDC
 C. 115 VAC
30. The CT is used to
A. measure the AC current
B. measure the voltage
C. measure the DC current
31. For twin engine aircraft, DC ESS bus is normally supplied by:
A. ESS TR via ESS AC bus
B. TR2 via DC bus 2
C. TR1 via DC bus 1
32. Each TRU has 02 basic protection circuits inside. They are:
A. Low current detection and overheat detection
B. Overvoltage and short circuit detection
C. Undervoltage and overheat detection
33. How much electrical energy do AC consumers need about?
A. 60 %
B. 95 %
C. 65%
D. 5%
34. Where does the GCU get its normal power?
A. Battery.
B. PMG
C. RAT.
35. If the battery is switched off in flight, the.
A. Generator voltage falls to Zero
B. Captain's instruments will be powered from the stanby bus
C. battery is disconected from bus
36. In a generator, the overvoltage failure is:
A. The voltage at the point of regulation exceeds 130V
B. The voltage at the terminal point exceeds 130V
C. The voltage at the point of regulation drops under 100V
37. Battery capacity is measured in:
A. amperes
B. ampere-hours.
C. Volts
38. In Airbus aircraft, electrical data can be shown on:
A. Lower ECAM for AC data only, DC data not shown on any display units
B. Lower ECAM for AC and DC data
C. Upper ECAM for AC and DC data
39. GCU detects an overvoltage condition when POR exceeds 130V. This occurs when:
A. Voltage regulator delivers too large exciter current
B. Generator drive speed regulation fails
C. There is an overload in distribution lines
40. Thermal runway occurs when a battery is charged with:
A. Constant voltage
B. Constant current
C. Battery discharged
41. In multi-engine aircraft, If ground power sources include external power and APU
generator, these ground power sources:
A. cannot be switched in parallel
B. can be switched in parallel if one main generator fails
C. can be switched in parallel
42. Which of the followings are considered distribution failures?
A. Overload; Open phase; Short-circuit
B. Over/under-voltage; over/under-frequency; underspeed
C. Underspeed, Differential protection
43. Electrical power in aircraft is mainly used for:
A. Lighting (cockpit, cabin, exterior); Electronic devices (computers, controls, indications,
sensors). Heating needs hot air only
B. Heating (galley, anti-icing); Lighting (cockpit, cabin, exterior); Electronic devices
(computers, controls, indications, sensors). Pumps and valves needs hydraulic power
C. Heating (galley, anti-icing); Lighting (cockpit, cabin, exterior); Mechanical power (pumps,
valves, motion); Electronic devices (computers, controls, indications, sensors)
44. AC power is generated using by
A. a constant speed generator or VSCF
B. a constant speed generator
C. a constant speed generator or a static inverter or VSCF
D. a static inverter
45. The emergency generator supplies 115 V AC directly to
A. AC Essential buses
B. AC Essential and Emergency Busses
C. AC main buses
46. In three-phase generator, voltage measured from one phase to another phase is
A. 320V
B. 115V
C. 200V
47. Which statement is NOT true for AC power sources used in modern jet aircraft?
A. They provide 115V, 400HZ, 3 phase power
B. They provide about 95% of the total electrical energy
C. Normal AC power sources provide DC power via TRUs
48. At terminal block of a generator installed in modern aircraft, there are:
A. 3 cables
B. 4 cables
C. 5 cables
49. Output frequency of engine drive generator stays within 400Hz thanks to:
A. Constant Speed Drive (CSD) via control signal from GCU
B. Exciter current via control signal from GCU
C. CBMU
50. How many power sources are used for AC generation in modern aircraft?
A. 06
B. 04
C. 05
D. 03
51. Essential power distribution consists of
A. Both AC and DC power
B. DC power
C. AC power
52. Main components for electrical distribution are:
A. Power relays, circuit breakers and fuses
B. Power relays used as switching devices; circuit breakers and fuses as safety devices and
current transformers as measuring devices
C. Power relays used as safety devices; circuit breakers and fuses as switching devices and
current transformers as measuring devices
53. For twin engine aircraft, if DC bus 1 fails, DC ESS bus is supplied by:
A. ESS TR
B. TR1
C. TR2
54. In case of total loss of the normal power sources, emergency power distribution is
switched to
A. Emergency generator (higher priority) or Batteries
B. APU
C. Emergency Generator
D. Batteries
55. When both APU and external power are available, the Aircraft will use
A. Both APU and External power
B. APU
C. External power
56. GCU power supply is from:
A. Normal power: PMG; Backup power: Battery
B. Normal power: DC bus 1; Backup power: DC ESS bus
C. Normal power: AC bus 1; Backup power: AC ESS bus
57. The function of NBPT (No Break Power Transfer) is
A. prevent the overload
B. Prevent the short circuit
C. Prevent a loss of power when power source switching
58. The function of VSCF:
A. Protection in during flight
B. Generate the 3 phase AC with constant frequency with variable speed input.
C. Frequency regulation
D. Vogtage regulator
59. The function of TR units is
A. Convert 115V AC to 24 V AC
B. Convert 115V three phases to 28V DC
C. Convert 24V Dc to 115 V AC
60. Cooling methods affect the performance of generators such as load limit. Which
generators have a higher load limit, oil-cooled generators or air-cooled ones?
A. Air-cooled generators
B. Oil-cooled generators
C. Oil-cooled or air-cooled generators have the same load limit
61. The light “AVAIL” in the cockpit illuminates when the quality of external power is good.
These lights are supplied by:
A. Aircraft battery
B. The external power via a TR inside the GPCU
C. A battery inside GPCU
62. The battery charger controls the charging current by two methods: constant current
and constant voltage. When a battery is fully charged, which charging method is used?
A. Constant current: to make a quick and safe charge
B. Constant current: to prevent battery overheat
C. Constant voltage: to compensate for battery self-discharge and to prevent overcharge
63. In twin engine aircraft, Engine 1 and APU running, when you connect external
power, which unit checks whether power is ready or not?
A. GPCU (Ground Power Control Unit) only
B. GCU (Generator Control Unit) and GPCU (Ground Power Control Unit)
C. APU GCU and GCU
64. Which of the following failures triggers automatic trip function without a time
delay?
A. Open phase
B. Shorted circuit
C. Overvoltage
65. Electrical power supplying all systems to operate the aircraft safely is called
Essential Power. Essential power supplies:
A. Captain’s navigation, communication equipment
B. Captain’s navigation, communication equipment, important control and warning systems
C. Captain and First officer’s navigation and communication equipment
66. If the current of TR unit drops below about 2 Ampere:
A. TR unit is switched off and can be swtiched by a reset signal, during the flight.
B. TR unit is switched off, the warning message is in ECAM system page
C. TR unit is only switched off manually by the coressponding button by the electrical
67. What does happen when you open the secondary winding of a current transformer
during normal operation?
A. The current transformer will be decreased
B. the current transformer will be damaged
C. The current transformer will be increased
68. What will happen if overvoltage failure occurs?
A. The alarm “system failure” and GCR automatically trips
B. The engine will be shutdown to protect the electrical system
C. The alarm “system failure”, and GCR and GPR automatically trip
69. In isolated operation, Main DC Power switching relay:
A. Normally open and close if TR1 or TR2 is shorted
B. Normally close and open if TR1 or TR2 fails
C. Normally open and close if TR1 or TR2 fails
70. When overload is detected, the protection circuit will automatically:
A. Open GCR (Generator Control Relay)
B. Switch off large loads such as galleys
 C. Open GPR (Generator Power Relay)
71. Which of the following is the most probable reason for the under-speed conditions?
A. Engine shutdown or engine start not completed
B. Faulty in generator windings
C. Faulty GCU
72. In three-phase generator, the voltage measured from one phase to neutral is
A. 300 V
B. 115V
C. 200V
73. A generator has two polepairs, if it generates a power with 400 Hz, the input speed is:
A. 8000 RPM
B. 6000 RPM
C. 1200 RPM
D. 2400 RPM
74. When two IDGs in twin engine aircraft fails, AC EMER bus is supplied by:
A. Static inverter only
B. EMER GEN or static inverter as the last power source
C. EMER GEN only
75. How much power can external power produce?
A. 5 KW
B. 60 KW to 90 KW
C. 65 KW
D. 1 KW
76. Are two external power sources switched in parallel?
A. Yes, because they are the same parameters.
B. No, because ground power sources cannot be synchronized
C. Yes, because ground power sources can be synchronized
77. No Break Power Transfer (NBPT) requires synchronization of:
A. Voltage, Frequency and phase angle
B. Voltage and Frequency
C. Voltage only
78. In during the flight, The emergency power switching is
A. normally automatic but Pilot can active by the corresponding button.
B. only automatic
C. only manual
79. For twin engine aircraft, If AC bus 1 is shorted,
A. AC ESS bus is nolonger powered
B. AC ESS bus is powered AC bus 2
C. AC ESS bus is powered by static inverter or EMER GEN
80. Aircraft battery is used to supply:
A. the emergency power & the APU starter motor
B. normal DC buses & the APU starter motor
C. APU starter motor and Emergency Generator stater
81. A Battery Charge Limiter (BCL) is designed to:
A. Monitor (1) and Monitor (2)
 B. Monitor (2): battery voltage drop (below 23V) during discharge in flight
C. Monitor (1): charge current to prevent risk of thermal runway
82. When aircraft is energized by APU, if you disconnect APU GCU, what might
happen?
A. APU GCU is damaged
B. Nothing happens
C. Current transformer connected to APU GCU is damaged
83. GCU detects an over-frequency when the frequency measured at the PMG exceeds
430Hz and under-frequency when it drops below 370Hz. If under-speed condition presents, the
automatic trip is inhibited in which case, over-frequency or under- frequency?
A. Under-frequency only
B. Over-frequency only
C. Both over-frequency and under-frequency
84. The function of Load shedding is
A. Improves the reliability of the power relays
B. Increase loads when operating parrallel.
C. Improves the reliability of the power relays and Prevents an overload of the power
D. Prevents an overload of the power
85. Which of the following are considered AC generation failures?
A. Overload; Open phase; Short-circuit
B. Over/under-voltage; over/under-frequency; underspeed
C. Underspeed, Differential protection
86. In parallel operation, if the difference between average current of all generator and
current of generator 1 exceeds 50A, what will happen with bus tie switch for AC bus 1?
A. Bus tie for AC bus 1 will close to isolate the AC bus 1, the failure of Gen 1 will be
detected by protection circuits and will be shutdown, AC bus 1 will no be supplied
power.
B. Bus tie for AC bus 1 will open to isolate the AC bus 1, the failure of Gen 1 will be
detected by protection circuits and will be shutdown, AC bus 1 will no be supplied
power.
C. Bus tie for AC bus 1 will open to isolate the AC bus 1, Gen 1 will be shutdown, this bus tie
will close again.
87. In parallel operation (multiengine aircraft), if the different phase of a line of generator 1
and a live bus in AC distribution is 180 degrees, the different voltage between two lines is
A. 320 V
B. 0 V
C. 115V
D. 230 V
88. In towing of the aircraft, a towing bus will be supplied by
A. Main AC power distribution
B. Towing static inverter
C. external power
89. DC power sources are:
A. APU and Batteries
 B. TR Units
C. TR Units and Batteries
D. Batteries
90. A modern brushless generator consists of:
A. Slip ring and brushes, main generator
B. Exciter generator, rotating rectifier, main generator
C. Permanent magnet generator, exciter generator, rotating rectifier, main generator
91. When is the power of the corresponding generator ready?
A. Voltage and frequency are ok
B. current is ok
C. 115V, 400 HZ, no failure
D. No failure is detected by GCU
92. In twin engine aircraft, when generator No.1 fails, bus tie switching will
automatically:
A. closes 2 bus tie power relays
B. opens bus tie power relay 1 and closes bus tie power relay 2
C. opens 2 bus tie power relays
93. In parallel operation, the load division circuit detects the unbalanced real load
which is related to
A. voltage of generator
B. Both voltage and frequency of generator
C. frequency of generator
94. GCU functions can be divided into:
A. Regulation; switching; monitor
B. Regulation; switching; control
C. Regulation; switching; protection
D. Protection; synchronization; monitor
95. Static inverter is used for
A. Convert DC to AC
B. Measure the current
C. Convert AC to DC
D. Convert Voltages to voltages
96. In a Brushless generator, the function of the PMG generator is
A. Supply power for GCU
B. Supply power for AC main bus
C. Supply power for APU starting
97. How many types of power are used for supplying power of GCU?
A. 3
B. 1
C. 2
98. Output voltage of engine driven generator remains 115VAC thanks to
A. CBMU
B. Exciter current via control sinal from GCU
C. Constant Speed Drive (CSD) via control signal from GCU
99. The function of split system breaker
A. Split the main power distribution into two parts when using second external power source
 B. Control the generator control relays
C. Monitor the Circuit breakers
D. Synchronization
100. In order to provide a power source of 115V, 400Hz. Engine driven generator and APU
are
A. Totally identical
B. Only different in rated power
C. Identical in function but different in operation
101. In multiengine aircraft, during automatic landing, the bus tie power relays are
A. Only opened manually
B. Closed
C. Opened automatically
102. On the ground, when one external power push button is pressed, bus tie power
relays are
A. Controlled by GCU
B. Closed automatically
C. Opened automatically
103. When generators are running, what might happen if you disconnect between GCU and
current transformer?
A. Nothing happens
B. Current transformer connected to the generator is damaged
C. GCU is damaged
104. In multiengine, the power relays of the bus tie switching are
A. Normally closed
B. Normally opened
C. Controlled by CSD
105. Parallel operation is automatically controlled and monitored by
A. VSCF
B. ECAS
C. GCU
D. GPCU
106. In an electrical system, which locations are not protected by Circuit breakers?
A. GCU
B. Large load
C. Feeder lines
D. Batteries
107. When the engine is shut down
A. Generator is only switched off manually
B. Generator power is ready and still supply power for system
C. Generator power is not ready amd the FAULT light in the generator push button on the
electrical control panel
108. When is the Emergency generator used for supplying power for aircraft?
A. Batteries failure
B. External power failure
C. When no other generator is available during flight
D. All engine driven generator failure
 E. One-engine driven generator failure
109. Power distribution is divided into 3 parts: (1) Main power distribution, (2) Essential
power distribution, (3) Emergency power distribution. Which part supplies consumers to land
the aircraft safely?
A. (3)
B. (2)
C. (1)
110. In the normal condition (during flight), which power sources are used in aircraft?
A. External power
B. APU and External power
C. Engine he generators
D. External power and Engine driven generators
111. Which are Power sources used for AC Generation?
A. Engine driven generator; External power, Static inverter; APU; Emergency generator
B. Engine driven generator; External power, Static inverter; TR units; Emergency generator
C. Engine driven generator; External power, battery; APU; Emergency generator
D. Engine driven generator; External power, TR units; APU; Emergency generator
112. Which group does use the largest power in Aircraft?
A. Lighting
B. Heating
C. Mechanical power
D. Electronic devices
 PART 2: COMMUNICATION
1. Which radio communication systems are used in modern aircraft?
A. HF, VHF, SATCOM and ACARS
B. HF, VHF, PA, ELT, SATCOM and ACARS
C. HF, VHF and SATCOM
2. Which system allows voice communication via radio signal over long distances (more than
200 nm)?
A. ACARS because radio signals are propagated by satellites
B. VHF because radio signals travel in a direct line within a visual range
C. HF radio signals are partially reflected by the ionosphere of the earth
3. Which statement is correct?
A. The lower frequency, the longer propagation with a sky wave
B. The lower frequency, the longer propagation with a ground wave
C. The lower frequency, the shorter propagation with a sky wave
4. Radio frequencies in aviation are divided into 8 frequency bands.
Which band is used by SATCOM or weather radar or radio altimeter?
A. UHF band (Ultra High Frequency): 300 MHz – 3000 MHz
B. SHF band (Super High Frequency): 3 GHz – 30 GHz
C. EHF band (Extremely High Frequency) 30 GHz – 300 GHz
5. Reception quality of which system is not always good due to daytime?
A. SATCOM
B. VHF
C. HF
6. For radio communication, we need the following components:
A. Microphone, Loudspeaker, Transceiver, Antenna
B. Microphone, Loudspeaker, Transmitter, Antenna
C. Microphone, Loudspeaker, Receiver, Antenna
7. A transmitter has 3 main components: an oscillator, a modulator and a power amplifier. What
is the purpose of the oscillator?
A. It generates the RF carrier frequency selected by pilots
B. It couples the audio signal to the RF signal with Amplitude or Frequency Modulation
C. It generates the necessary power to transmit the signal
8. For radio communication, a receiver has the following components:

A. an oscillator, a modulator and a power amplifier

B. a tuning circuit, a demodulator and an audio amplifier
C. an oscillator, a modulator, a power amplifier, a tuning circuit, a demodulator and an audio
amplifier
9. An antenna is most effective when its length is a minimum of a quarter of the
wavelength. Which system has a longer antenna?
A. SATCOM
B. VHF
C. HF
10. Connection between the transceiver and the antenna is made by RF lines. Which type is
used for weather radar system?
A. Co-axial cable only
B. Waveguides only
C. Co-axial cable or Waveguide
11. There are different types of microphone used in cockpit for voice communication. They are:
A. Area microphone, hand-held microphone and integrated microphone
B. Hand-held microphone and integrated microphone
C. Area microphone and hand-held microphone
12. Static electricity generated due to air friction at sharp trailing edges must be
continuously discharged. If not, for communication purpose, it would make:
A. the wing structure damaged
B. reception of radio signals disturbed
C. the wing structure damaged and reception of radio signals disturbed
13. The Audio Management Unit (AMU) controls all functions necessary for voice
communications of:
A. Flight crew  Cabin crew; Flight crew/ Cabin crew  Passenger
B. Flight crew/ Cabin crew  Maintenance staff
C. Flight crew members only
14. The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) receives all relevant signals from:
A. Microphones directly
B. AMU
C. ACP
15. When the oxygen mask is in use, the highest priority microphone is:

A. The integrated microphone in the mask

A. The integrated microphone in the boomset
B. The microphone in the handset and hand-mike
16. In order to use the boomset again after the oxygen mask is used, you have to:
A. Reset the oxygen mask flag
B. Restore the oxygen mask in the stowage box
C. Reset the oxygen mask flag & Restore the oxygen mask in the stowage box
17. Flight crew members can communicate with each others via:
A. Service interphone system
B. Cabin interphone system
C. Flight interphone system
18. Flight crew members can communicate with cabin crew via:
A. Service interphone system
B. Cabin interphone system
C. Flight interphone system
19. Flight crew members can communicate with maintenance staff via:
A. Service interphone system
B. Cabin interphone system
C. Flight interphone system or service interphone system
20. Audio Control Panels (ACPs) allow a separation of reception and transmission
channels. Reception selection is done by:
A. Pressing-in the corresponding pushbutton
B. Releasing the corresponding knob
C. Setting the corresponding switch to ON
21. Without any further action, service jacks are designed to connect interphone system
A. Automatically when the aircraft is in flight by an air-ground sensing circuit
B. Whenever a communication boomset is connected to a service jack
C. Automatically when the aircraft is on ground only
22. When you jack the aircraft and all shock absorbers are not compressed, which
interphone system will be automatically disabled?
A. Flight interphone system
B. Cabin interphone system
C. Service interphone system
23. In cockpit, if you want to make a conversation with a maintenance staff in the APU
compartment, look at the picture & choose the best action
 1 2

A. Make pushbutton/knob at 1 and 2 illuminated

B. Make pushbutton/knob at 2 illuminated only
C. Make pushbutton/knob at 2 and 3 illuminated
24. There are pushbuttons and knobs to respectively control transmission and reception of
VHF1, VHF2, VHF3, HF1, HF2 at each ACP. Which statement is true?
A. You can push 2 pushbuttons (lights illuminated) to activate the transmission of VHF1 and VHF2
at the same time
B. You can release 2 knobs (lights illuminated) to activate the reception of VHF1 and VHF2 at the
same time
C. You can push 2 pushbuttons (lights illuminated) to activate the transmission of HF1 and HF2
at the same time
25. On an ACP, the radio transmission switch with 3 positions permits you to transmit or
receive audio signals. What happens if flight crew put the switch in the center position?
A. The selected communication system is in the reception mode
B. The selected communication system is in the transmission mode
C. Pilots can talk to each other when they use boomset (headset or oxygen mask)
26. On an ACP, a radio transmission switch with 3 positions permits you to transmit or to
receive audio signals. What happens if flight crew put the switch in the spring loaded position?
A. The selected communication system is in the reception mode
B. The selected communication system is in the transmission mode
C. Pilots can talk to each other when they use boomset or oxygen mask
27. On an ACP, a radio transmission switch with 3 positions permits you to transmit or to
receive audio signals. What happens if flight crew put the switch in the INTerphone position?
A. The selected communication system is in the reception mode
B. The selected communication system is in the transmission mode
C. Microphones are permanently connected to flight interphone system. Pilots can talk to each
other when they use boomset or oxygen mask
28. Which components have the Push To Talk (PTT) function?
A. Hand-mikes, handsets, RT switches, side-sticks/control columns
B. Hand-mikes, headsets, RT switches, side-sticks/control columns, and boomsets
C. Hand-mikes, headsets, RT switches
29. In order to talk to a VHF station when wearing an oxygen mask, the flight crew use:
A. Radio Transmission (RT) switch on the ACP (RAD position)
B. Push To Talk (PTT) switch on the control column or side-stick
C. Either RT switch on the ACP or PTT on the side stick/control column
30. If there is a malfunction (transmission or reception) in Captain ACP, his audio
equipment can be transferred to the overhead ACP:
A. Automatically
B. Manually via audio switching to CAPT 3
C. Manually via audio switching to F/O 3
31. Each pilot can connect his hand-held microphone (hand-mike) to the flight interphone
system via the ACP by:
A. Selecting the FLT pushbutton
B. Switching the Radio Transmission (RT) switch to INT
C. Releasing the corresponding knob
32. Passenger Address (PA) system is to give information to passengers from:
A. Cockpit or cabin crew signals which is priority-controlled by AMU
B. Cockpit or cabin crew signals which is priority-controlled by CIDS
C. Cockpit or cabin crew signals, pre-recorded announcement, boarding music controlled by AMU
33. Loudspeakers in cabin will give output signals according to a different priority to
prevent a mixture of the audio signals. Chimes generated by PA system will:
A. Always sound together with other audio signals
B. Always sound at the highest priority
C. Always sound at the lowest priority
34. Volume level of loudspeaker will be automatically increased when:
A. At least one engine is started (via engine oil pressure switch)
B. The oxygen masks are released after a cabin decompression (via 14,000ft. pressure
switch)
C. engine oil pressure switch or 14,000 ft. pressure switch is activated
35. When the Captain presses the PA knob on his ACP (the light goes off), loudspeakers in
cockpit will:
A. Not sound Flight crew’s and Cabin crew’s announcement to passengers
B. Not sound Flight crew’s announcement to passengers
C. Cabin crew’s announcement to passengers
36. In order for the Solid state CVR to store the last 120 minutes of the flight in memory, it
receive inputs from:
A. 03 channels
 B. 04 channels
C. 05 channels
37. On ground, the CVR starts recording:
A. Automatically when all engines are completely started
B. Automatically when aircraft is energized
C. By pressing a pushbutton on the control panel
38. All data recorded in the CVR can be erased:
A. When the aircraft is on ground and the parking brake is set
B. Whenever you press & hold the ERASE pushbutton on the control panel
C. Automatically to keep the privacy of the crew after engines are shut down
39. On the CVR, there are some components such as:
A. A recorder itself, an Underwater Locator Beacon (ULB) & an microphone
B. A recorder itself, an ULB and a jack to connect headphone for testing
C. A recorder itself, an ULB
40. In modern aircraft, there are 3 independent VHF systems. Which system is normally
designed for the ACARS system?
A. VHF 1
B. VHF 2
C. VHF 3
41. When the transmission works with the normal output power, which statement is NOT true
for sidetone signal?
A. Pilots can hear his own voice in the headphones with sidetone
B. Sidetone signals come from ground station
C. Missing sidetone is always an indication for a system failure

42. The Radio Management Panel is used to:

A. Make frequency selections for VHF, HF, SATCOM and ACARS
B. Make frequency selections for VHF, HF
C. Control transmission and reception of VHF, HF, flight interphone
43. In the HF system, which mode gives better transmission efficiency?
A. Amplitude Modulation (AM)
B. Single Side Band (SSB)
C. Both AM and SSB have the same efficiency
44. In the HF system, you tune to the selected frequency by:
A. Pressing the radio transmission (RT) switch the first time
B. Pressing the PTT the first time
 C. Pressing the RT or PTT switch the first time
45. When the tuning is complete and ready for your communication,
A. You hear a 1 KHz tone for up to 10 seconds
B. The 1 KHz tone stops
C. The HF transmission light flashes on the RMP
46. The HF frequency range used in civil aviation is from:
A. 2 MHz to 25 MHz
B. 118 MHz to 137 MHz
C. 3 GHz to 30 GHz
47. In the HF system, which component tunes the antenna to the HF frequency selected on the
RMP?
A. HF transceiver
B. HF Antenna itself
C. Antenna coupler
48. The ACARS is a datalink communication system designed to:
A. Transfer messages and data between the aircraft and the ground
B. Establish voice connection between the aircraft and the ground
C. Transfer messages, data & Establish voice connection between the aircraft and the ground
49. For datalink communication, depending on the aircraft position, the ACARS is
normally designed to use in the following priority order:
A. VHF 3 and then SATCOM system
B. VHF 1, VHF 2 and then SATCOM system
C. SATCOM and then VHF 3 system
50. Reports automatically transmitted by the ACARS occur:
A. When all engines finish starting; or when the aircraft lifts off or touches down; or when first
door is opened
B. At 120, 20 and 07 minutes after the arrival
C. Whenever engine problem is detected
51. Manual communication via the ACARS can be found in:
A. Loadsheet report, Call request, ATC Request or Maintenance Report
B. Engine Report, Out/Off/On/In Reports
C. No way because the ACARS is working in automatic mode only
52. The ACARS Management Unit interfaces with:

A. MCDU, Printer, Dataloader, RMP3, VHF3 transceiver, Satellite Data Unit (SDU), Flight
Management Computer (FMC), Inertial Reference System (IRS), Central Maintenance Computer
(CMC) and Aircraft Condition Monitoring System
 B. MCDU, Printer, Dataloader, RMP3, VHF3 transceiver and SDU
C. MCDU, Printer, Dataloader, RMP3, VHF3 transceiver, SDU, FMC and IRS
53. The SATCOM system provides reliable world wide services such as:
A. Digital data transfer for ACARS, Cockpit Voice & Telex
B. Digital data transfer for ACARS, Passenger Voice, Telex & Fax
C. Digital data transfer for ACARS, Cockpit Voice & Telex, Passenger Voice, Telex & Fax
54. A typical SATCOM system includes:
A. Satellite Data Unit (SDU), Radio Frequency Unit (RDF), High Power Amplifier (HPA),
antenna
B. Diplexer and Low Noise Amplifier (D/LNA), Beam Steering Unit (BSU) and antenna
C. SDU, F\RFU, HPA, D/LNA, BSU and antenna
55. For normal SATCOM operation (both data and voice communications), make sure that:
A. The Inertial Reference System (IRS) and Low gain antenna are functional
B. The IRS and High gain antenna are functional
C. The IRS, Low & High Gain antennae are functional
56. Emergency locator transmitters (ELTs) help search-and-rescue crews to find an
accidental aircraft. Fixed ELTs transmit the following frequencies:
A. 121.5 MHz and 243 MHz
B. 121.5 MHz, 243 MHz and 406 MHz
C. 243 MHz and 406 MHz

57. The portable ELTs is automatically activated when:

A. Its battery comes in contact with water
B. Its internal G-switch detects an acceleration of more than 5G in the longitudinal axis
C. A pushbutton on the overhead control panel is pressed

Chapter 23 – COMMUNICATION

1. MARK THE CORRECT STATEMENT:

A) HF1 can transmit while HF2 is receiving.
B) VHF1 can transmit while VHF2 is receiving.
C) HF1 and HF2 can not receive at the same time.

2. FROM ONE OF AUDIO CONTROL PANELS:

A) We can select two HFs or VHFs in transmit mode if they have tuned to different frequencies.
B) We can select one radio system to transmit and INT square key.
C) We can not select two square keys.

3. UPON CHANGING THE HF FREQUENCY:

 A) We can receive as soon as tuning elements are in HOME position.
B) We can transmit immediately.
C) We can only receive after completion of antenna coupler tuning.

4. TUNING ELEMENTS IN HF ANTENNA COUPLER ARE USED FOR:

A) Adjusting the output voltage level.
B) Limiting the output current to a safe level.
C) Matching the antenna impedance to the line impedance.

5. HF FAULT ANNUNCIATOR LIGHTS ON THE MTP ARE CONTROLLED BY:

A) HF antenna coupler.
B) HF transceiver.
C) Both HF antenna coupler and HF transceiver.

6. HOW MUCH IS THE NOMINAL OUTPUT POWER OF VHF TRANSCEIVER?

A) 25 watt.
B) 125 watt.
C) 400 watt.

7. TO PRESERVE THE HF SYSTEM AGAINST LIGHTNING:

A) A lightning arrester is used.
B) The antenna is grounded at its upper end.
C) No need to any preparation for it because it’s a notch antenna.

8. HF CONTROL PANEL FAULT IS INDICATED ON THE:

A) HF control panel.
B) HF transceiver.
C) Fault Annunciator light.

9. WHICH STATEMENT IS CORRECT?

A) Conversation audios are recorded on CVR and key events on DFDR.
B) Conversation audios are recorded on DFDR and key events on CVR.
C) Conversation audios and key events on CVR.

10. CALLING CHIMES ARE GENERATED IN:

A) Flight Warning Computer.
B) Electronic and relays boxes.
C) PA amplifier.

11. THE CHIME ACCOMPANYING A PILOT TO ATTENDANT CALL IS A:

A) Hi chime.
B) Hi/Low chime.
C) Low chime.
12. BUZZER SOUNDS(FOR CALLING PILOT) ARE GENERATED IN:
A) Flight Warning Computer.
B) Electronic and relays boxes.
C) PA amplifier.

13. SELCAL TEST SWITCH IS LOCATED ON THE:

A) Selcal front panel.
B) "Avionic sys test" panel on MTP.
C) On both selcal front panel and "Avionic sys test" panel on MTP.

14. THE COCKPIT CALL BUTTON ON THE GROUND POWER RECEPTACLE PANEL IS PRESSED.
THIS WILL BRING IN THE COCKPIT:
A) The MECH CALL light and a Hi/Low chime.
B) The MECH CALL light and an intermittent buzzer sound.
C) The MECH CALL light and a one-second buzzer sound.

15. WHICH OF THE AUDIO INPUTS TO PA AMPLIFIER HAS THE HIGHER PRIORITY?
A) Flight crew stations audio.
B) Emergency announcement.
C) Attendant stations.

16. TO ANNOUNCE THROUGH THE PA, WHICH STATEMENT IS WRONG?

A) The pilot Selects EMER PA switch in ON and uses BOOM/ MASK mic.
B) The pilot selects PA square key on ACP and uses handset common to CAB/SVC INT.
C) The pilot selects PA pushbutton on the overhead panel in on and uses handset common to
CAB/SVC INT.

17. THE INPUT LINE TO THE PA AMPLIFIER TO INCREASE THE GAIN BY 6 DB COMES FROM:
A) CVR.
B) Oxygen masks system.
C) Engines' oil pressure switch.

18. WHICH STATEMENT ABOUT DRIVING THE PA SYSTEM LOUDSPEAKERS IS RIGHT?

A) Cabin and Att spkrs by main (120 W) amp, lavatory spkrs by aux (20W) amp.
B) Cabin spkrs by main, lavatory and att spkrs by aux.
C) Cabin and lavatory spkrs by main, att spkrs by aux.

19. THE AUDIO INTERCOM UNIT IS LOCATED:

A) E&E compartment 94VU.
B) E&E compartment, aft of forward pressure bulk head.
C) Flight deck behind 3CM panel.

20. FLIGHT INTERPHONE AMPLIFIER IS LOCATED:

A) On 85VU.
B) On 96VU.
 C) Inside the Audio Intercom Unit.

21. TO ESTABLISH A COMMUNICATION WITH FLT INT, WHICH STATEMENT IS WRONG?

A) The pilot Set the RADIO/INTER switch in INTER position and necessarily selects INT square
key on ACP.
B) The pilot Set the RADIO/INTER switch in RADIO position and necessarily selects INT square
key on ACP.
C) The pilot Set the RADIO/INTER switch in INTER position irrespective of square key
selection.

22. THE GAIN OF THE PA AMPLIFIER IS INCREASED BY 6 DB:

A) When the aircraft is airborne.
B) When at least one engine is running.
C) When the aircraft is airborne and at least one engine is running.

23. CVR IS POWERED IF:

A) As soon as aircraft is powered up and until the power is available.
B) Aircraft is airborne.
C) Both engines running.

24. DURING THE FLIGHT THE PILOT:

A) Must not erase the CVR.
B) Is permitted to erase the CVR.
C) Can not erase the CVR.

25. IN ORDER TO ERASE THE CVR TAPE ENTIRELY IT IS NECESSARY TO:

A) Set the parking brake, and press erase button for at least 2 seconds.
B) Set the parking brake, and press erase button for at least 2 seconds when the aircraft is on
the ground.
C) Set the parking brake, and press erase button for at least 2 seconds when the aircraft is on
the ground and the CVR is powered somehow

AUTOPILOT

1. An inner loop control system is one in which:

a) auto stabilization is provided about a single axis

b) all three axes of movement in flight are sensed and the appropriate actuator is selected
c) only roll control can be achieved
d) a torque limiter controls the aircraft in pitch

2. An autopilot system:

a) must provide at least aircraft guidance functions

 b) must provide at least aircraft stabilization functions
c) may provide automatic take off functions
d) must provide automatic take off functions

3. An automatic pilot is a system which can ensure the functions of:

a) piloting only
b) piloting and guidance of an aircraft in both the horizontal and vertical planes
navigation
c) piloting from take-off to landing without any action from human pilot

4. In a closed loop system a device in which a small input operates a large output in a strictly
proportional manner is called:

amplifier
auto-pilot
servomotor
servomechanism

5. During a CAT 2 approach, what is providing the height information to the auto-pilot?

Capsule stack
Radio altimeter
Captain's barometric altimeter
Central Air Data Computer

6. In an auto-pilot system, aircraft flight path modes include which of the following:

1) Pitch attitude holding

2) Horizontal wing holding
3) VOR axis holding
4) Inertial heading holding
5) ASI & Mach hold.
6) Yaw damper

1, 2, 4
1, 2, 5
2, 4, 6
3, 4, 5

7. Among the following functions of an auto pilot, those related to the airplane guidance are:

1) pitch attitude holding

2) horizontal wing holding
 3) indicated airspeed or Mach number holding
4) altitude holding
5) VOR axis holding
6) Yaw damping

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 3, 4 and 5

8. The command functions of an autopilot include, among others, the holding of:

1) vertical speed
2) altitude
3) attitude
4) bank
5) heading

The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 2, 5

9. In an auto flight system, modes for stabilizing the aircraft include which of the following:

1) Yaw damper
2) Pitch attitude holding
3) VOR axis holding
4) ASI & Mach hold.
5) Horizontal wing holding
6) Altitude holding

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 2, 5

10. Among the following functions of an auto pilot, those related to the airplane stabilization are:

1) pitch attitude holding

2) horizontal wing holding
3) displayed heading or inertial track holding
4) indicated airspeed or Mach number holding
5) yaw damping
6) VOR axis holding

11. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1 and 2

12. The auto pilot basic modes include, among other things, the following functions:
 1) pitch attitude hold
2) pressure altitude hold
3) horizontal wing hold
4) heading hold

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 3

13. During an automatic landing, from a height of about 50 ft the:

LOC and glide slope modes are disconnected and the airplane carries on its descent until landing
auto pilot maintains an angle of attack depending on the radio altimeter height
glide slope mode is disconnected and the airplane continues its descent until landing
auto pilot maintains a vertical speed depending on the radio altimeter height

14. At 50 feet AGL during an auto-land, what happens to the glide slope signal?

is used until the nose landing gear touches the ground

is disconnected
is factored for range
is used to flare the aircraft

15. The control law of a transport airplane auto pilot control channel may be defined as the relationship
between the:

a) crew inputs to the computer and the detector responses (returned to the airplane)
b) computer input deviation data and the output control deflection signals
c) computer input deviation data and the signals received by the servo- actuators
d) input and output signals at the amplifier level respectively control deviation data and control
deflection signals

16. An automatic landing system necessitating that the landing be continued manually in the case of a
system failure during an automatic approach is called FAIL:

OPERATIONAL
REDUNDANT
SAFE
PASSIVE
17. In automatic landing mode, when the two auto pilots are used, the system is considered:

fail operational or without failure effect with function always ensured

fail soft or with minimized failure effect
fail passive or without failure effect but with disconnection
fail hard or with failure effect and disconnection

18. When an automatic landing I interrupted by a go-around:

1) the auto throttle reacts immediately upon the pilot action on the TO/GA (Take-off/Go-around)
switch in order to recover the maximum thrust
2) the auto pilot monitors the climb and the rotation of the airplane
3) the auto pilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap deflection in order to reduce the drag
4) the pilot performs the climb and the rotation of the airplane
5) the pilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap deflection in order to reduce the drag

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 2 and 5

19. If a Go-Around is initiated from an auto pilot coupled approach:

1) the auto throttle selects GA power as soon as the TOGA switch is pressed
2) the auto pilot carries out the climb
3) the auto pilot retracts flap and landing gear to reduce drag
4) the pilot carries out the procedure
5) the pilot cleans up (retracts flaps and raises gear)

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 4 & 5

20. When air aircraft, operating in the VOR coupled mode, approaches the CONE OF CONFUSION
over a VOR station, the roll channel of the auto pilot:

temporarily switches over to the heading mode

is damped by a trim input signal from the lateral trim system
remains always coupled to the selected VOR radial
is temporarily disconnected

21. In an auto pilot slaved powered control circuit, the system which ensures synchronization:

is inhibited when the automatic pilot is engaged

intervenes only when the automatic pilot has been engaged
prevents un-commanded surface deflection when the automatic pilot is disengaged
can itself, when it fails, prevent the automatic pilot from being engaged
22. The auto pilot is engaged with no modes selected. What is the auto pilot providing:

wing leveling
altitude hold
attitude hold with auto trim
LNAV and VNAV

23. In a transport airplane, an auto pilot comprises, in addition to the mode display devices, the following
fundamental elements:

1) Airflow valve
2) Sensors
3) Comparators
4) Computers
5) Amplifiers
6) Servo-actuators

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

24. When operating with the auto pilot in ALT hold mode what happens if the Captain's barometric
altimeter pressure setting is increased:

ALT hold disengages

Nothing
The aeroplane will climb
The aeroplane will descend

25. An autopilot is selected "ON" in mode "altitude hold", the pilot alters the barometric pressure set on
the sub-scale of his altimeter the:

aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the auto pilot takes its pressure information from the
static source
aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the auto pilot takes its pressure information from the
altimeter corrected to standard pressure 1013.25 hPa
aircraft will climb or descend in the sense of the change, the auto pilot takes its pressure information
from the altimeter
mode altitude hold will disengage

26. When the altitude acquisition mode is engaged on a jet transport airplane equipped with auto pilot
(AP) and auto throttle (ATS) systems the:

true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the auto pilot by means of elevator
 indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the auto pilot by means of elevator
true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the auto throttle system
indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the auto throttle system

27. A pilot engages the control wheel steering (CWS) of a conventional autopilot and carries out a
maneuver in roll. When the control wheel is released, the auto pilot will:

restore the flight attitude and the rate of turn selected on the auto pilot control display unit
roll wings level and maintain the heading obtained at that moment
maintain the track and the flight attitude obtained at that moment
maintain the flight attitude obtained at that moment

28. What are the auto pilot minimum requirements in order to fly single pilot operations in IFR
conditions or at night?

Two axis auto pilot with altitude hold and heading hold
Two axis auto pilot with altitude hold, heading hold, VOR tracking and Alt acquire
Single axis auto pilot with Altitude hold only
Single axis auto pilot with Heading select and VS

29. In automatic landing mode, in case of failure of one of the two auto pilots, the system is considered:

fail passive or without failure effect but with disconnection

fail survival or without failure effect with function always ensured
fail hard or without failure effect and disconnection
fail soft with minimized failure effect

30. If only a single A/P is used to climb, cruise and approach; following a failure of an inner loop
component:

it is fail passive with redundancy

it is fail operational and will not be disconnected
it is fail soft and will not disconnect
it is fail safe and will disconnect

31. When only one auto pilot is used for climbing, cruising and approach, the system is considered:

fail passive or without failure effect but with disconnection

fail soft or with minimized failure effect
 fail survival or without failure effect with function always ensured
fail safe with failure effect without disconnection

32. An auto land system which can continue to automatically land the aircraft after a single failure is
called:

Fail passive
Fail Soft
Fail Safe
Fail active

33. An auto pilot system whereby if one A/P fails cannot carry out an auto land is called fail:

passive
safe
operational
redundant

34. Auto land flare is initiated at: 50 feet

35. In heading select the auto pilot delivers roll commands to the controls to bank the aircraft:

1) proportional to TAS, but not beyond a specified maximum

2) set bank of 27 degrees
3) set bank of 15 degrees
4) proportional to the deviation from the selected heading

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 4, 1

36. In a selected axis capture mode, the autopilot gives a bank attitude input:

of a fixed value equal to 20o

of a fixed value equal to 27o
proportional to the deviation between the selected heading and the current heading but not
exceeding a given value
proportional to the aircraft true airspeed but not exceeding a given value

37. The control law in a fly-by-wire system is a relationship between:

how the pilot's control demands are translated into control surface movements
input and output at the amplifier level respectively control the deviation data
computer input deviation data and flap position modification
the versine signal between the ailerons and elevators
38. What is the purpose of the synchronization in an auto pilot.

1) prevents snatch on disengagement

2) prevents snatch on engagement
3) cancels rudder control inputs
4) may not allow the auto pilot to engage if unserviceable

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:2, 4

39. The synchronization of the auto pilot control channel system:

1) enables the prevention of jerks during disengagement

2) enables the cancellation of rudder control signals
3) enables the prevention of jerks during engagement
4) functions in the heading, navigation, approach modes

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 3, 4

40. The auto synchronisation system does which of the following?

1) prevents snatching on engagement

2) prevents snatching on disengagement
3) cancels rudder input
4) works in climb, cruise and descent

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:1, 4

41. The functions of an autopilot (basic modes) consist of:

monitoring the movement of the airplane centre of gravity

stabilising and monitoring the movement around the airplane centre of gravity
guiding the airplane path
stabilising and monitoring the movement around the airplane aerodynamic centre

42. The computers of the electrical flight controls system comply with programs defined by attitude
control laws such as:

1) on the longitudinal axis, the law may combine the load factor and the changes in the pitch rate as
control data sources
2) the trimming is automatic and ensures neutral stability
3) the protections apply to pitch and bank attitudes depending on the speed
4) these laws do not apply to the whole flight envelope
 The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:1, 2, 3

43. When using the auto pilot, the function of the pitch channel automatic trim is to:

1) cancel the hinge moment of the elevator

2) ease as much as possible the load of the servo-actuator
3) restore to the pilot a correctly trimmed airplane during the auto pilot disengagement

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 2 and 3

44. What does the auto pilot pitch/rotate around?

Centre of gravity
Maneuver point
Centre of pressure
Neutral point

45. The correction of the control surface deflection made by the automatic pilot calculator in order to
stabilize the longitudinal attitude will be all the more significant as the:

1) difference between the reference attitude and the instantaneous attitude is high
2) rate of change of the difference between the reference attitude and the instantaneous attitude is
high
3) temperature is low
4) pressure altitude is high

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:1, 2

46. The correction of the control surface deflection made by the auto pilot calculator in order to keep a
given altitude will be all the more significant when the:

1) difference between the attitude necessary to keep the given or reference altitude and the
instantaneous attitude is high
2) variation speed of the difference between the attitude necessary to maintain the altitude and the
instantaneous attitude is high
3) difference between the altitude of reference and the instantaneous altitude is high
4) variation speed of the difference between the reference altitude and the instantaneous altitude is
high
The combination regrouping the correct statements is:1, 2, 3 and 4
47. When being engaged, and without selecting a particular mode, an automatic pilot enables:

aero plane stabilization with attitude hold or maintaining vertical speed and possibly automatic
trim
a constant speed on track, wings horizontal
all aero plane piloting and guidance functions except maintaining radio- navigation course lines
aero plane piloting and guidance functions

48. In the automatic trim control system of an autopilot, automatic trimming is normally effected about
the: pitch axis only

49. The engagement of an auto pilot is not possible when:

1) there is a fault in the electrical power supply

2) the controlled turn knob is not set to centre off
3) there is a synchronization fault in the pitch channel
4) there is a fault in the attitude reference unit

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 2, 3, 4

50. From a flight mechanics point of view, the guidance functions of a transport airplane auto pilot
consist in:

monitoring the movements of the centre of gravity in the three dimensions of space (path)
stabilising and monitoring the movements around the aerodynamic centre
stabilising and monitoring the movements around the centre of gravity
monitoring the movements of the aerodynamic centre in the three dimensions of space (path)

51. (Refer to figure 022-42)The block diagram of an auto pilot is shown in the annex. For each control
channel (pitch, roll and yaw) the piloting law is the relationship between the deflection of the control
surface commanded by the computer (BETA c) and the:
 real deflection of the control surface (BETA control surface feedback)
offset EPSILON at the computer input
pilot command E
aircraft response S

52. The airspeed hold mode can be engaged and maintained during:

turns only
climbs and descents only
climbs, descents, and power changes only
climbs, descents, turns and power changes

53. What is the most basic function of an auto pilot?

altitude hold
heading hold
wing leveller
altitude and heading hold

54. A landing will be considered to be performed in the SEMI-AUTOMATIC mode when:

1) the auto pilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the decision height is reached then is
disengaged automatically
2) the auto throttle maintains a constant speed until the decision height is reached then is disengaged
automatically
3) the auto pilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the flare
4) the auto throttle decreases the thrust when the height is approximately 30 ft
5) the flare and the ground roll are performed automatically
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1 and 2

55. A semi-automatic landing system disconnects itself automatically:

at the decision height

at approximately 100 ft
on ground
when going around

56. At what height during a semi-automatic landing is the auto pilot disengaged?

100 ft
45 ft
Decision height
14 ft

57. During a semi-automatic landing:

the A/P is disengaged at DH having followed the ILS

the A/T flies airspeed down to approximately 30 ft and automatically disengages
the A/P flies the approach and flare and roll-out
the A/T flies approach speed and disengages automatically at DH

58. A landing will be considered to be performed in the AUTOMATIC mode when:

1) the auto pilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the decision height is reached then is
disengaged automatically
2) the auto throttle maintains a constant speed until the decision height is reached then is disengaged
automatically
3) the auto pilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the flare
4) the auto throttle decreases the thrust when the height is approximately 30 ft
5) the flare and the ground roll are performed automatically

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 3,4,5

59. The auto pilot disconnects (or the auto land is completed) at: roll out

60. An automatic ILS approach can be flown only:

within a range of levels of turbulence and no limit for crosswinds

within a range of crosswinds and no limit for turbulence
 within a range of crosswinds and levels of turbulence
without limits for crosswind or turbulence

61. The initiation of an automatic go-around can be:

at Vy +/- 5 kt only
with no limit of approach airspeeds
at 70 kt +/- 5 kt only
in a range of approach airspeeds

62. The sequence of the automatic landing comprises several phases (from final approach to touch down)
actuated by:

the distance left before the touch down zone

the altimeter set to the QNH
the radio altimeter
the DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) of the ILS (Instrument Landing System)

63. What is the purpose of a master caution light?

Draw the attention of pilot and crew

64. What is the purpose of the press to test function of an annunciator system?
Energizes all warning circuitry to confirm readiness

65. What is the purpose of an aural warning system?

They audibly inform the pilot of a situation requiring attention

66. What type of things would activate the aural warning system when preparing for takeoff?
A bell sounds if the throttle is retarded and the landing gear is not in a down and locked
condition.

67. What are the four basic components of an autopilot?

Sensing, computing, output, and command elements

68. Advanced autopilot systems contain a fifth component. What is it?

Feedback or Follow-up

69. What instruments make up the autopilot sensing elements?

Attitude, Directional Gyros, Turn coordinator, and Altitude Control

70. What is the purpose of the computing element?

Interpret the sensing element data, integrate commands and navigational input, and send
signals to the output elements
71. What makes up the output elements of the autopilot?
 Servos

72. Which element of the autopilot system is considered to be the human element?
Command Elements

73. What is the primary purpose of an autopilot?

Reduce work strain and fatigue

74. What is the name given to a single-axis autopilot system?

Wing leveler Systems

75. Which flight control is controlled by a single-axis autopilot?

Ailerons

76. What controls are activated on a two-axis system?

Ailerons and Elevators

77. What is the basis of an autopilot system?

Error Correction

78. What controls are activated on a three-axis system?

Ailerons, elevators, and rudder

79. In what two ways do autopilot systems correct errors and return the aircraft to the desired flight
attitude?
Position Based, Rate Based

80. What is another way an EFIS system may be referred as?

Glass cockpit

81. What are the four basic modes of ECAM?

Flight phase, advisory, failure related, and manual

82. What makes up the flight phase?

Pre-flight, take off, climb, cruise, descent, approach, and post landing

83. Engine indicating and crew alerting system

EICAS

84. What is the main component of the FMS system?

Flight management computer
85. Flight Management System
FMS

86. How does a yaw damper work?

By deflecting the rudder slightly in flight as needed to control yawing in turbulence and to
eliminate the coupled roll/yaw dynamic condition known as Dutch roll. It also works
automatically to keep all turns properly coordinated between the roll and yaw modes.

87. Cable-actuated systems utilize?

Electric servo motors or electro-pneumatic servos

88. Hydraulic actuated flight control systems use what servo?

Electro-hydraulic autopilot servos

89. What does the AFCS do?

It enhances the stability and handling qualities of the airplane and provides autopilot functions.

90. What flight instruments can be displayed on EFIS?

All basic flight instruments

91. Annunciator Panel

Displays information about the location and type of alarm

92. Landing Gear Warning System

Uses a warning horn or audible tone/voice to indicate an unsafe condition
Warns pilot during landing approach if gear is retracted

AUTOPILOT

1. An inner loop control system is one in which:

a) auto stabilization is provided about a single axis

b) all three axes of movement in flight are sensed and the appropriate actuator is selected
c) only roll control can be achieved
d) a torque limiter controls the aircraft in pitch

2. An autopilot system:

a) must provide at least aircraft guidance functions

b) must provide at least aircraft stabilization functions
c) may provide automatic take off functions
d) must provide automatic take off functions
3. An automatic pilot is a system which can ensure the functions of:

a) piloting only
b) piloting and guidance of an aircraft in both the horizontal and vertical planes
navigation
c) piloting from take-off to landing without any action from human pilot

4. In a closed loop system a device in which a small input operates a large output in a strictly
proportional manner is called:

amplifier
auto-pilot
servomotor
servomechanism

5. During a CAT 2 approach, what is providing the height information to the auto-pilot?

Capsule stack
Radio altimeter
Captain's barometric altimeter
Central Air Data Computer

6. In an auto-pilot system, aircraft flight path modes include which of the following:

1) Pitch attitude holding

2) Horizontal wing holding
3) VOR axis holding
4) Inertial heading holding
5) ASI & Mach hold.
6) Yaw damper

1, 2, 4
1, 2, 5
2, 4, 6
3, 4, 5

7. Among the following functions of an auto pilot, those related to the airplane guidance are:

1) pitch attitude holding

2) horizontal wing holding
3) indicated airspeed or Mach number holding
4) altitude holding
5) VOR axis holding
 6) Yaw damping

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 3, 4 and 5

8. The command functions of an autopilot include, among others, the holding of:

1) vertical speed
2) altitude
3) attitude
4) bank
5) heading

The combination which regroups all of the correct statements is: 1, 2, 5

9. In an auto flight system, modes for stabilizing the aircraft include which of the following:

1) Yaw damper
2) Pitch attitude holding
3) VOR axis holding
4) ASI & Mach hold.
5) Horizontal wing holding
6) Altitude holding

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 2, 5

10. Among the following functions of an auto pilot, those related to the airplane stabilization are:

1) pitch attitude holding

2) horizontal wing holding
3) displayed heading or inertial track holding
4) indicated airspeed or Mach number holding
5) yaw damping
6) VOR axis holding

11. The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1 and 2

12. The auto pilot basic modes include, among other things, the following functions:

1) pitch attitude hold

2) pressure altitude hold
3) horizontal wing hold
 4) heading hold

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 3

13. During an automatic landing, from a height of about 50 ft the:

LOC and glide slope modes are disconnected and the airplane carries on its descent until landing
auto pilot maintains an angle of attack depending on the radio altimeter height
glide slope mode is disconnected and the airplane continues its descent until landing
auto pilot maintains a vertical speed depending on the radio altimeter height

14. At 50 feet AGL during an auto-land, what happens to the glide slope signal?

is used until the nose landing gear touches the ground

is disconnected
is factored for range
is used to flare the aircraft

15. The control law of a transport airplane auto pilot control channel may be defined as the relationship
between the:

a) crew inputs to the computer and the detector responses (returned to the airplane)
b) computer input deviation data and the output control deflection signals
c) computer input deviation data and the signals received by the servo- actuators
d) input and output signals at the amplifier level respectively control deviation data and control
deflection signals

16. An automatic landing system necessitating that the landing be continued manually in the case of a
system failure during an automatic approach is called FAIL:

OPERATIONAL
REDUNDANT
SAFE
PASSIVE

17. In automatic landing mode, when the two auto pilots are used, the system is considered:

fail operational or without failure effect with function always ensured

fail soft or with minimized failure effect
 fail passive or without failure effect but with disconnection
fail hard or with failure effect and disconnection

18. When an automatic landing I interrupted by a go-around:

1) the auto throttle reacts immediately upon the pilot action on the TO/GA (Take-off/Go-around)
switch in order to recover the maximum thrust
2) the auto pilot monitors the climb and the rotation of the airplane
3) the auto pilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap deflection in order to reduce the drag
4) the pilot performs the climb and the rotation of the airplane
5) the pilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap deflection in order to reduce the drag

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 2 and 5

19. If a Go-Around is initiated from an auto pilot coupled approach:

1) the auto throttle selects GA power as soon as the TOGA switch is pressed
2) the auto pilot carries out the climb
3) the auto pilot retracts flap and landing gear to reduce drag
4) the pilot carries out the procedure
5) the pilot cleans up (retracts flaps and raises gear)

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 4 & 5

20. When air aircraft, operating in the VOR coupled mode, approaches the CONE OF CONFUSION
over a VOR station, the roll channel of the auto pilot:

temporarily switches over to the heading mode

is damped by a trim input signal from the lateral trim system
remains always coupled to the selected VOR radial
is temporarily disconnected

21. In an auto pilot slaved powered control circuit, the system which ensures synchronization:

is inhibited when the automatic pilot is engaged

intervenes only when the automatic pilot has been engaged
prevents un-commanded surface deflection when the automatic pilot is disengaged
can itself, when it fails, prevent the automatic pilot from being engaged

22. The auto pilot is engaged with no modes selected. What is the auto pilot providing:

wing leveling
altitude hold
 attitude hold with auto trim
LNAV and VNAV

23. In a transport airplane, an auto pilot comprises, in addition to the mode display devices, the following
fundamental elements:

1) Airflow valve
2) Sensors
3) Comparators
4) Computers
5) Amplifiers
6) Servo-actuators

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

24. When operating with the auto pilot in ALT hold mode what happens if the Captain's barometric
altimeter pressure setting is increased:

ALT hold disengages

Nothing
The aeroplane will climb
The aeroplane will descend

25. An autopilot is selected "ON" in mode "altitude hold", the pilot alters the barometric pressure set on
the sub-scale of his altimeter the:

aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the auto pilot takes its pressure information from the
static source
aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the auto pilot takes its pressure information from the
altimeter corrected to standard pressure 1013.25 hPa
aircraft will climb or descend in the sense of the change, the auto pilot takes its pressure information
from the altimeter
mode altitude hold will disengage

26. When the altitude acquisition mode is engaged on a jet transport airplane equipped with auto pilot
(AP) and auto throttle (ATS) systems the:

true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the auto pilot by means of elevator
indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the auto pilot by means of elevator
true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the auto throttle system
indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the auto throttle system
27. A pilot engages the control wheel steering (CWS) of a conventional autopilot and carries out a
maneuver in roll. When the control wheel is released, the auto pilot will:

restore the flight attitude and the rate of turn selected on the auto pilot control display unit
roll wings level and maintain the heading obtained at that moment
maintain the track and the flight attitude obtained at that moment
maintain the flight attitude obtained at that moment

28. What are the auto pilot minimum requirements in order to fly single pilot operations in IFR
conditions or at night?

Two axis auto pilot with altitude hold and heading hold
Two axis auto pilot with altitude hold, heading hold, VOR tracking and Alt acquire
Single axis auto pilot with Altitude hold only
Single axis auto pilot with Heading select and VS

29. In automatic landing mode, in case of failure of one of the two auto pilots, the system is considered:

fail passive or without failure effect but with disconnection

fail survival or without failure effect with function always ensured
fail hard or without failure effect and disconnection
fail soft with minimized failure effect

30. If only a single A/P is used to climb, cruise and approach; following a failure of an inner loop
component:

it is fail passive with redundancy

it is fail operational and will not be disconnected
it is fail soft and will not disconnect
it is fail safe and will disconnect

31. When only one auto pilot is used for climbing, cruising and approach, the system is considered:

fail passive or without failure effect but with disconnection

fail soft or with minimized failure effect
fail survival or without failure effect with function always ensured
fail safe with failure effect without disconnection

32. An auto land system which can continue to automatically land the aircraft after a single failure is
called:
 Fail passive
Fail Soft
Fail Safe
Fail active

33. An auto pilot system whereby if one A/P fails cannot carry out an auto land is called fail:

passive
safe
operational
redundant

34. Auto land flare is initiated at: 50 feet

35. In heading select the auto pilot delivers roll commands to the controls to bank the aircraft:

1) proportional to TAS, but not beyond a specified maximum

2) set bank of 27 degrees
3) set bank of 15 degrees
4) proportional to the deviation from the selected heading

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 4, 1

36. In a selected axis capture mode, the autopilot gives a bank attitude input:

of a fixed value equal to 20o

of a fixed value equal to 27o
proportional to the deviation between the selected heading and the current heading but not
exceeding a given value
proportional to the aircraft true airspeed but not exceeding a given value

37. The control law in a fly-by-wire system is a relationship between:

how the pilot's control demands are translated into control surface movements
input and output at the amplifier level respectively control the deviation data
computer input deviation data and flap position modification
the versine signal between the ailerons and elevators

38. What is the purpose of the synchronization in an auto pilot.

1) prevents snatch on disengagement

2) prevents snatch on engagement
 3) cancels rudder control inputs
4) may not allow the auto pilot to engage if unserviceable

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:2, 4

39. The synchronization of the auto pilot control channel system:

1) enables the prevention of jerks during disengagement

2) enables the cancellation of rudder control signals
3) enables the prevention of jerks during engagement
4) functions in the heading, navigation, approach modes

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 3, 4

40. The auto synchronisation system does which of the following?

1) prevents snatching on engagement

2) prevents snatching on disengagement
3) cancels rudder input
4) works in climb, cruise and descent

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:1, 4

41. The functions of an autopilot (basic modes) consist of:

monitoring the movement of the airplane centre of gravity

stabilising and monitoring the movement around the airplane centre of gravity
guiding the airplane path
stabilising and monitoring the movement around the airplane aerodynamic centre

42. The computers of the electrical flight controls system comply with programs defined by attitude
control laws such as:

1) on the longitudinal axis, the law may combine the load factor and the changes in the pitch rate as
control data sources
2) the trimming is automatic and ensures neutral stability
3) the protections apply to pitch and bank attitudes depending on the speed
4) these laws do not apply to the whole flight envelope

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:1, 2, 3

43. When using the auto pilot, the function of the pitch channel automatic trim is to:

1) cancel the hinge moment of the elevator

2) ease as much as possible the load of the servo-actuator
3) restore to the pilot a correctly trimmed airplane during the auto pilot disengagement

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 2 and 3

44. What does the auto pilot pitch/rotate around?

Centre of gravity
Maneuver point
Centre of pressure
Neutral point

45. The correction of the control surface deflection made by the automatic pilot calculator in order to
stabilize the longitudinal attitude will be all the more significant as the:

1) difference between the reference attitude and the instantaneous attitude is high
2) rate of change of the difference between the reference attitude and the instantaneous attitude is
high
3) temperature is low
4) pressure altitude is high

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:1, 2

46. The correction of the control surface deflection made by the auto pilot calculator in order to keep a
given altitude will be all the more significant when the:

1) difference between the attitude necessary to keep the given or reference altitude and the
instantaneous attitude is high
2) variation speed of the difference between the attitude necessary to maintain the altitude and the
instantaneous attitude is high
3) difference between the altitude of reference and the instantaneous altitude is high
4) variation speed of the difference between the reference altitude and the instantaneous altitude is
high
The combination regrouping the correct statements is:1, 2, 3 and 4

47. When being engaged, and without selecting a particular mode, an automatic pilot enables:

aero plane stabilization with attitude hold or maintaining vertical speed and possibly automatic
trim
 a constant speed on track, wings horizontal
all aero plane piloting and guidance functions except maintaining radio- navigation course lines
aero plane piloting and guidance functions

48. In the automatic trim control system of an autopilot, automatic trimming is normally effected about
the: pitch axis only

49. The engagement of an auto pilot is not possible when:

1) there is a fault in the electrical power supply

2) the controlled turn knob is not set to centre off
3) there is a synchronization fault in the pitch channel
4) there is a fault in the attitude reference unit

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1, 2, 3, 4

50. From a flight mechanics point of view, the guidance functions of a transport airplane auto pilot
consist in:

monitoring the movements of the centre of gravity in the three dimensions of space (path)
stabilising and monitoring the movements around the aerodynamic centre
stabilising and monitoring the movements around the centre of gravity
monitoring the movements of the aerodynamic centre in the three dimensions of space (path)

51. (Refer to figure 022-42)The block diagram of an auto pilot is shown in the annex. For each control
channel (pitch, roll and yaw) the piloting law is the relationship between the deflection of the control
surface commanded by the computer (BETA c) and the:

real deflection of the control surface (BETA control surface feedback)

 offset EPSILON at the computer input
pilot command E
aircraft response S

52. The airspeed hold mode can be engaged and maintained during:

turns only
climbs and descents only
climbs, descents, and power changes only
climbs, descents, turns and power changes

53. What is the most basic function of an auto pilot?

altitude hold
heading hold
wing leveller
altitude and heading hold

54. A landing will be considered to be performed in the SEMI-AUTOMATIC mode when:

1) the auto pilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the decision height is reached then is
disengaged automatically
2) the auto throttle maintains a constant speed until the decision height is reached then is disengaged
automatically
3) the auto pilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the flare
4) the auto throttle decreases the thrust when the height is approximately 30 ft
5) the flare and the ground roll are performed automatically

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 1 and 2

55. A semi-automatic landing system disconnects itself automatically:

at the decision height

at approximately 100 ft
on ground
when going around

56. At what height during a semi-automatic landing is the auto pilot disengaged?

100 ft
45 ft
Decision height
14 ft
57. During a semi-automatic landing:

the A/P is disengaged at DH having followed the ILS

the A/T flies airspeed down to approximately 30 ft and automatically disengages
the A/P flies the approach and flare and roll-out
the A/T flies approach speed and disengages automatically at DH

58. A landing will be considered to be performed in the AUTOMATIC mode when:

1) the auto pilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the decision height is reached then is
disengaged automatically
2) the auto throttle maintains a constant speed until the decision height is reached then is disengaged
automatically
3) the auto pilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam until the flare
4) the auto throttle decreases the thrust when the height is approximately 30 ft
5) the flare and the ground roll are performed automatically

The combination regrouping all the correct statements is: 3,4,5

59. The auto pilot disconnects (or the auto land is completed) at: roll out

60. An automatic ILS approach can be flown only:

within a range of levels of turbulence and no limit for crosswinds

within a range of crosswinds and no limit for turbulence
within a range of crosswinds and levels of turbulence
without limits for crosswind or turbulence

61. The initiation of an automatic go-around can be:

at Vy +/- 5 kt only
with no limit of approach airspeeds
at 70 kt +/- 5 kt only
in a range of approach airspeeds

62. The sequence of the automatic landing comprises several phases (from final approach to touch down)
actuated by:

the distance left before the touch down zone

the altimeter set to the QNH
 the radio altimeter
the DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) of the ILS (Instrument Landing System)

63. What is the purpose of a master caution light?

Draw the attention of pilot and crew

64. What is the purpose of the press to test function of an annunciator system?
Energizes all warning circuitry to confirm readiness

65. What is the purpose of an aural warning system?

They audibly inform the pilot of a situation requiring attention

66. What type of things would activate the aural warning system when preparing for takeoff?
A bell sounds if the throttle is retarded and the landing gear is not in a down and locked
condition.

67. What are the four basic components of an autopilot?

Sensing, computing, output, and command elements

68. Advanced autopilot systems contain a fifth component. What is it?

Feedback or Follow-up

69. What instruments make up the autopilot sensing elements?

Attitude, Directional Gyros, Turn coordinator, and Altitude Control

70. What is the purpose of the computing element?

Interpret the sensing element data, integrate commands and navigational input, and send
signals to the output elements
71. What makes up the output elements of the autopilot?
Servos

72. Which element of the autopilot system is considered to be the human element?
Command Elements

73. What is the primary purpose of an autopilot?

Reduce work strain and fatigue

74. What is the name given to a single-axis autopilot system?

Wing leveler Systems

75. Which flight control is controlled by a single-axis autopilot?

Ailerons

76. What controls are activated on a two-axis system?

 Ailerons and Elevators

77. What is the basis of an autopilot system?

Error Correction

78. What controls are activated on a three-axis system?

Ailerons, elevators, and rudder

79. In what two ways do autopilot systems correct errors and return the aircraft to the desired flight
attitude?
Position Based, Rate Based

80. What is another way an EFIS system may be referred as?

Glass cockpit

81. What are the four basic modes of ECAM?

Flight phase, advisory, failure related, and manual

82. What makes up the flight phase?

Pre-flight, take off, climb, cruise, descent, approach, and post landing

83. Engine indicating and crew alerting system

EICAS

84. What is the main component of the FMS system?

Flight management computer

85. Flight Management System

FMS

86. How does a yaw damper work?

By deflecting the rudder slightly in flight as needed to control yawing in turbulence and to
eliminate the coupled roll/yaw dynamic condition known as Dutch roll. It also works
automatically to keep all turns properly coordinated between the roll and yaw modes.

87. Cable-actuated systems utilize?

Electric servo motors or electro-pneumatic servos

88. Hydraulic actuated flight control systems use what servo?

Electro-hydraulic autopilot servos

89. What does the AFCS do?

 It enhances the stability and handling qualities of the airplane and provides autopilot functions.

90. What flight instruments can be displayed on EFIS?

All basic flight instruments

91. Annunciator Panel

Displays information about the location and type of alarm

92. Landing Gear Warning System

Uses a warning horn or audible tone/voice to indicate an unsafe condition
Warns pilot during landing approach if gear is retracted

1. Tần số đầu ra IDG được giữ 400 HZ nhờ vào thiết bị nào?
CONSTANT SPEED DRIVE (CSD) VIA control signal GCU
2. CSD disconnection must be performed if:
A. Low oil pressure or oil overheat is detected
B. Low oil pressure or oil overheat or underspeed is detected
C. Low oil pressure and oil overheat and underspeed are detected
3. Principle of CSD operation is:
A. Increase or decrease in hydraulic pressure depending on engine speed
B. Increase or decrease in exciter current depending on engine speed
C. Increase or decrease in speed of an electrical motor inside CSD
depending on engine speed
4. Protection circuit triggers the automatic trip function with an inverse
time delay due to the following failure(s):
A. Overvoltage or overload
B. Undervoltage or short circuit
C. Open phase or overload
5. Battery charger controls charging current by two methods: constant current and constant
voltage. When a battery is fully charged, which charging method is used?
A. Constant voltage: to compensate for battery self-discharge and to prevent
overcharge
B. Constant current: to make a quick and safe charge
C. Constant current: to prevent battery overheat
6. Thermal runway occurs when a battery is charged with:
A. Constant current
B. Constant voltage
C. Either constant current or constant voltage
7. Khi máy bay 320 bị mất cả hai AC bus, nguồn điện nào được sử dụng?
8. GCU functions can be divided into:
A. 02 parts
B. 03 parts
C. 04 parts
9. Each Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU) is designed to convert 115VAC to
28VDC and includes main components as follows:
A. 01 transformer of 03 windings in star/star/delta connection & 02 rectifiers
B. 01 transformer of 02 windings in delta/delta connection & 01 rectifiers
C. 01 transformer of 02 windings in delta/star connection & 01 rectifiers
10. Receptacles for external power connection consists of:
A. 03 thick, long pins & 01 thin, short pin
B. 04 thick, long pins & 02 thin, short pins
C. 03 thin, short pins & 02 thick, long pins
ATA 26
11. Which statement is true for semi-conductor loop used in fire detection
system?
A. Material inside semi-conductor loop increases its electrical resistance with
increasing temperature
B. Material inside semi-conductor loop decreases its electrical resistance with
increasing temperature
C. Material inside semi-conductor loop increases its pressure with increasing
temperature
12. Dual fire detection loops make fire protection system highly reliable
because it will:
A. Not trigger faulty message on the ECAM/EICAS
B. Prevent false alarm & not prevent a fire warning in case of single failure
C. Not prevent false alarm & prevent a fire warning in case of single failure

13. What statement is true for normal operation of a gas pressure loop? (no
fires detected)
A. Monitor switches are closed; Alarm switches are open
B. Both Monitor and Alarm switches are open
C. Monitor switches are open; Alarm switches are closed
14. If a fire occurs, a fire control unit triggers fire warnings. In a gas pressure loop system, the fire
control unit triggers fire warnings when it receives an input of:
A. Decreasing resistance
B. Increasing pressure
C. Increasing temperature
15. The ionization source in ionization smoke detector is used to:
A. Make the air molecules move
B. Electrically charge the air molecules
C. Absorb smoke molecules and trigger alarms
16. Addition to electrical circuits for control and monitoring, main components
of a basic fire extinguishing system include:
A. Extinguisher bottle with Halon 1211; squib and spray nozzle
B. Extinguisher bottle with halon 1301; cartridge head and spray nozzle
C. Extinguisher bottle, cartridge head, explosive powder, squib and spray nozzle
17. Smoke detectors are installed in:
A. Engines and APU
B. Cargo, avionics compartments and toilets
C. Cargo, avionics compartments, cabin, toilets, engines and APU

18. In twin engine aircraft, number of extinguisher bottles installed on engines

and APU are:
A. 6 bottles: 2 for ENG 1, 2 for ENG 2 and 2 for APU
B. 3 bottles: each for ENG 1, 2 and APU
C. 5 bottles: 2 for ENG , 2 for ENG 2 and 1 for APU
19. Inside the discharge head, there are:
A. A wire, explosive powder, a frangible disc and a filter
B. An extinguishing agent, explosive powder, and a filter
C. A SQUIB, explosive powder, and a filter
20. In APU fire extinguishing system, when the yellow disc is burst and disappears, which statement
is correct?
A. Halon discharges over spray nozzles
B. Overpressure happens in the bottle
C. Fire detection is failed
ATA 30
21. Ice build-up on the airplane mainly has the following effects
A. Reduce in aerodynamic quality; decrease in weight and visibility
B. Decrease in lift and drag, Increase in weight, blocked probes
C. Disturbed air at engine inlet can lead to a compressor stall or damaged fan
blades/inlet vanes.
22. When ice is formed on the ice detector,
A. It triggers a message on ECAM/EICAS immediately
B. It triggers a message on ECAM/EICAS after some certain cycles of heatingmelting-
ice building are counted
C. It triggers the highest warning level in cockpit
23. Thermal anti-ice system is designed for:
A. Engine inlet and wing leading edge
B. Engine outlet and Probes
C. Wing trailing edge and drain mast
24. Electrical anti-ice circuits are designed to control heating power. Which
statement is NOT true for heating power switching?
A. Heating elements receive 115V on the ground and 200V in the air
B. On the ground, heating elements receive only positive wave through a diode
in the AC circuit. In the air, the diode is bypassed
C. Heating elements are switched in parallel on the ground and they are
switched in series in the air
25. How can you control drain mast heat system?
A. By a pushbutton inthe cockpit
B. By a pushbutton at theFAP (Flight Attendant Panel)
C. No pushbutton; the system i s switched on automatically when electrical power is supplied
26. In most windshields, how many thermistors are installed?
A. 01
B. 02
C. 03
27. By usesing repellent fluid or special coating, the contact anglebetween water droplets and
windshield glass will:
A. Increaseto 80 or 100 degrees
B. Decreaseto 20 degrees
C. Decreaseto 60 degrees
28. When the wiper control switchis at OFF, which statement is true?
A. Power and speed control relays are energized and then the motor and wiper stop immediately
B. Motor rotating still continues but in reverse direction until the park switch moves up
C. The park switch moves up makes the motor circuit open and then stops both the motor and wiper
immediately
ATA31
29. On Airbus aircraft, automatic display switching isperformed when the:
A. Navigation Displays (ND’ s) or the System Display (SD)fail
B. PFD’s orthe Engine & Warning Display (EWD) fail
C. PFD’s orthe Engine & Warning Display (EWD)fail or the related control switch is at OFF position
30. With adual EFISdisplayunit failure on either captain or firstofficer side, the EFIS image on the
affected side:
A. Can be recovered
B. Cannot be recovered
C. Can or cannot be recovered, depending onthe manufacture (Airbus or Boeing)
31. All functionsof the central warning system on the Airbus aircraft are controlled and displayed by:
A. 7 computers
B. 4 computers
C. 5 computers
32. Heading information canbe normallyindicated on:
A. PFD’s and ND’s
B. EICAS/ECAM and SD
C. ND’s only
33. What happensifbarometric reference settingis not appropriate?
A. Altitude shown onthe PFD’s is always not correct
B. Altitude shown onthe PFD’s might be not correct
C. Altitude shown onthe PFD’s is not affected by barometric setting
ATA33
34. Integral lights are used to illuminate:
A. Flight compartment
B. Cabin area
C. Controls and indications on panels in flight deck
35. Service lights can be found in:
A. Landing gear wheel bay
B. APU compartment and lavatory
C. Forward cargo compartment only
36. Anti-collision lights are installed:
A. At the top and bottom of the fuselage
B. At wing tips and tail cone
C. At the top and bottom of the fuselage; at wing tips and tail cone
37. When being turned on, which light(s) will be flashing?
A. Navigation lights and Logo lights
B. Navigation lights and Beacon lights
C. Beacon lights and Strobe lights
38. If the control switch is at AUTO, on Airbus aircraft, which signal causes the strobe lights
illuminated?
A. Flaps and slats extended
B. Shock absorbers not compressed
C. Landing gear downlocked
39. At the Forward Attendant Panel, on Airbus aircraft, cabin crew can control lighting of:
A. Cabin lights; Passenger Reading lights, Lavatory lights & Entry lights
B. Cabin lights; Cockpit Reading lights, Lavatory lights & Service lights
C. Cabin lights; exterior lights; Lavatory lights; Entry lights & EMER lights

40. When the lavatory door is unlocked, brightness level in the lavatory:
a. Remains
b. Increases 100%
c. Decreases 50%
ATA22
41. Speed adapter circuit isdesigned in theinnerloop to:
A. Prevent damage in control surfaces at high airspeeds
B. Make control surfaces move smoothly
C. Help pilotsfeel comfortable and less heavy during surface control
42. Related to autopilot safetylevels, a hardover is adangerous failure. A hardover causes:
A. A full surface deflection atthe wrong time
B. A full surface retraction at the wrongtime
C. A control surface jammed at where it stays
43. A certain difference signal compared from 2 autopilot channels for the same axis will causeboth
autopilotsdisengaged completely. Then, the system will follow pilots’ command. This system is called:
A. Fail-safe system
B. Fail-passi ve system
C. Fail-operational system
44. Thepilotis following the flight director (FD)indications to control the aircraft. If theFD pitchbar
moves UP and the roll bar to theleft, which statementis true for nose and aileron of the aircraft at that
time?
A. Nose Down, Left Aileron Down
B. Nose UP, Left Aileron UP
C. Nose Down, Left Aileron UP
45. TheFlight Mode Annunciator (FMA) on the modern PFDs shows:
A. Autothrust operation, AP/FD pitch modes, AP/FD roll modes (1)
B. Approach capabilities, Engagement status of AP, FD, Autothrust (2)
C. Both (1) and (2)
46. The YD computer will differentiatebetween a duct roll oscillation and a steady turn and prevent a
constant rudderdeflection during turnby:
A. Airspeed signalfromthe air data computer
B. Roll attitudefrom the vertical gyro or inertial reference system
C. A band passfilter integrated insidethe computer
47. An aircraft with tuck-under condition results in a unwanted effect:
A. A pitch up effect
B. A pitch down effect
C. Yaw motion effect
48. Alpha trim subsystem isprimarily used to:
 A. Prevent high pressure differences at the wing tips by increasing the maximum angle of attack
 B. Decrease the induced drag during high speedflights
 C. Smoothly control pitch attitudefor passengers and pilots’ comfort

49. Speed Trim subsystemprovides speed stabilityduring:

 A. Low speed and highthrust operation during take-off and go-around
 B. High speed and low thrust operation duri ng cruise
 C. One engine shut down in-flight

50. Thrust Mode controls:

 A. Calibrated airspeed (CAS)
 B. Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) or N1 rotation speed
 C. CAS or EPR or N1, depending on the engine type

51. During CRUISE phase, the autothrottle system uses:

 A. Thrust Mode only
 B. Speed Mode only
 C. Thrust or Speed Mode depending onthe active AP orFD pitch mode

 52. At TOUCH-DOWN, the autothrottle system uses:

 A. Thrust Mode only
 B. Speed Mode only
 C. Neither Speed nor Thrust Mode because the system is automatically
 disengaged and the pilot control the engines manually

53. To calculate the thrustlimit for enginesin certain situation, the following information or signals are
needed:
 A. Total air temperature (TAT) & altitude (ALT) from the ADC, Bleed air (for air
condition, anti-ice, pneumati c loads) from the BMC and Flight phase from the FMS
 B. TAT, ALT fromthe ADC andFlight phase fromtheFMS
 C. Bleed airfromthe BMC andFlight phasefromthe FMS

54. Flexible takeoffis selected when:

 A. One engines isfailed
 B. The highest thrust is limitedfor upto 5 minutes
 C. Maximumthrust i s not required because of lowtakeoff weights or long runway

55. L-NAVpartof theFMC will command the aircraft to:

 A. Fly left or right (for roll channel) accordingto theflight plan
 B. Fly withthrust limit suppliedtothe Autothrottle System (ATS)
 C. Fly with optimum speed (for pitch channel) &thrust limit to the ATS

56. To calculate the optimum speed (ECON SPEED), theFMC needs:

 A. Pressure, temperature signal s fromthe ADC; aircraft weight & cost index
 B. Pressure, temperature signal s fromthe ADC & aircraft weight
 C. Pressure, temperature signal s fromthe ADC & cost index

57. Cost index can vary from 0 to 999. When 0is inserted via the MCDU, it means:
 A. Time costs are important andthe flight is planned with maximum speed
 B. Fuel costs are important andtheflight is planned with minimumfuel use
 C. Time costs & Fuel costs are not important and the flight is planned with best comfort for
passengers

58. Which database or software should be updated every 28 days?

 A. Performance database
 B. Navigation database
 C. Softwarefor theFlight Management Computer
ATA 23
59. Reception qualityof which systemis not alwaysgood due to daytime?
 A. SATCOM
 B. VHF
 C. HF

60. Static electricity generated due to air friction at sharp trailing edges must be
continuouslydischarged. If not, for communication purpose, it would make:
 the wing structure damaged
 reception of radio signals di sturbed
 the wing structure damaged and reception of radio signals disturbed

61. When you jack the aircraft and no shock absorbers are compressed,
which interphone system will be automatically disabled?
A. Flight interphone system
B. Cabin interphone system
C. Service interphone system

62. Passenger Address (PA) system is to give i nformation to passengers from:

 A. Cockpit or cabin crew signal s which is priority-controlled by AMU
 B. Cockpit or cabin crew signal s which is priority-controlled by CIDS
 C. Cockpit or cabin crew signals, pre-recorded announcement, boarding music controlled by
AMU

63. Volumelevel ofloudspeaker will be automaticallyincreased when:

 A. At least one engine is started (via engine oil pressure switch)
 B. The oxygen masks are released after a cabin decompression (via 14,000 ft. pressure switch)
 C. engine oil pressure switch or 14,000ft. pressure switch i s acti v ated

64. In order for the Solid state CVR to store thelast 120 minutesof the flight in memory, it recei ve
inputs from:
 A. 03 channels
 B. 04 channels
 C. 05 channels

65. All data recordedin the CVR canbe erased:

 A. Whenthe aircraft is on ground andthe parking brake is set
 B. Whenever you press & holdthe ERASE pushbutton onthe control panel
 C. Automatically to keepthe pri vacy of the crew after engines are shut down

66. In modern aircraft, there are three independent VHF systems. Which systemis normallydesigned
for the ACARS system?
 A. VHF 1
 B. VHF 2
 C. VHF 3

67. When the transmission works with the normal output power, which statementis NOT true for
sidetone signal?
 A. Pilots can hear his own voi ce in the headphones with sidetone
 B. Sidetone signals comefrom ground station
 C. Mi ssing sidetone is always an indicationfor a systemfailure

68. The Radio Management Panel is used to:

 A. Makefrequency selectionsfor VHF, HF, SATCOM and ACARS
 B. Makefrequency selectionsfor VHF, HF
 C. Control transmission and reception of VHF, HF,flight interphone

69. Reports automatically transmitted by the ACARSoccur:

 A. When all engines finish starting; or when the aircraft lifts off or touches down; or whenfirst
door is opened
 B. At 120, 20 and 07 minutes after the arri v al
 C. Whenever engine problem i s detected

70. For normal SATCOMoperation (bothdata and voice communications), make sure that:
 A. TheInertial Reference System (IRS) and Low gain antenna arefunctional
 B. TheIRS and High gain antenna are functional
 C. TheIRS, Low & High Gain antennae are functional

71. Theportable ELTsis automatically activated when:

 A. Its battery comes in contact with water
 B. Its internal G-switch detects an acceleration of more than 5G in the longitudinal axis
 C. A pushbutton onthe overhead control panel is pressed
  72. Track is the direction in which an aircraft is moving over the earth and is
 measured from:
 A. True north or magnetic north
 B. Ground station
 C. aircraft longitudinal axis

 73. The Automatic tuning for navigation system is based on:

 A. Database and software uploaded in the FMS (1)
 B. Flight plan created by pilots before each flight (2)
 C. Both (1) and (2)

74. In addition to aural output, the Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) system
also provides:
A. Magnetic Relative bearing presented on the Navigation Display (ND) and
Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI)
B. True bearing presented on the Primary Flight Display (PFD) and RMI
C. Magnetic bearing presented on ND and PFD
75 In order to achieve the direction to the station, the ADF antenna will be searching for:
A. Minimum signal strength
B. Maximum signal strength
C. Average signal strength
76 With the loop antenna alone, the station could be in:
a. Only one direction
b. Two different directions
c. 4 different directions
77 The VOR indication on the RMI is called:
a. Manual VOR mode
b. Automatic VOR mode
c. True relative bearing
78 When the aircraft is on the right side of the runway center line:
a. The left lobe modulated with 90 Hz predominates
b. The right lobe modulated with 150 Hz predominates
c. The right lobe modulated with 90 Hz predominates
79 When the aircraft is lower than the G/S signal, its deviation pointer:
a. Deflects upwards
b. Deflects downwards
c. Is out of view (disappears from the display)
80 CAT 3 landinginstrument requireslimitations in runway visibility range (RVR) and decision
height (DH) as follows:
A. RVR of lessthan 200 m, DH of below 100ft.
B. RVR of 400 m & DH of 100ft.
C. RVR of 800 m & DH of 200ft.

81 Marker beacons (OM – MM – IM) have:

a. Similar transmission signals; differences in modulated tone & indication colors (blue – amber
– red, respectively)
b. Similar transmission signals & modulated tones but differences in indication colors (blue –
amber – white, respectively)
c. Similar to transmission signals; differences in modulated tone and indication colors (blue –
amber – white, respectively)

82 Radio altimeter shows its calculated data on the display:

 a. When the aircraft is above 2,500 feet
b. When the aircraft is below 2,500 feet
c. From take-off, climb, cruise, approach to landing phase
83 Antenna assembly of which system includes an antenna pedestal?
a. WXR
b. GPWS
c. TCAS
84 The azimuth motor is used to move the weather antenna:

85 In WXR turbulence detection, Doppler effect says the frequency of echoes:

a. Increase when the targets move towards the aircraft and vice versa
b. Decrease when the targets move towards the aircraft and vice versa
c. Remain unchanged, compared to the transmission frequency
86 Without an correct action when passing the windshear area, the aircraft will:
a. First get a strong tail wind, then in a very short time, a head wind
b. First get a strong head wind, then in a very short time, a tail wind
c. Be damaged in wing structure due to high stress by windshear
87 In mode S, the ATC transponder transmits:
a. Aircraft identification code
b. Barometric altitude
c. Messages in reply to selective interrogations from ground or other aircraft
88 TCAS can monitor up to 50 aircraft and put them into one of:
a. 02 groups: Resolution Advisory (RA), Traffic Advisory (TA)
b. 03 groups: RA, TA and Proximate traffic
c. 04 groups: RA, TA, Proximate traffic and other traffic
89 If a target aircraft (intruder) reaches the RA-TAU area, TCAS will give:
a. Aural traffic warning, intruder position on the NDs (1)
b. Escape maneuver information on the PFDs (2)
c. Both (1) and (2)
90 Squitter signals which contain aircraft identification and altitude are permanently transmitted
from:
a. Intruders without TCAS
b. Intruders with TCAS
c. Any intruders within 40 NM
91 The TCAS roll call list contains a list of aircraft. The TCAS computer uses it to:
a. Track all the aircraft in the list
b. Track some highest threatening aircraft in the list
c. Track 08 first-reply intruders

92 Two types of aural alert during an RA intruder are: Preventive action RA & Corrective action
RA. The Preventive action RA occurs when:
a. The present vertical speed achieves a safe altitude separation
b. The altitude separation is not safe
c. Pilots have to follow instructions from the Air traffic controller
93 The purpose of the GPWS is to warn the pilot when
a. Turbulence happens
b. The aircrafts may collide each other
c. The aircraft mistakenly comes too close to the ground
94 Additional functions of an EGPWS can be:
a. Terrain Awareness (TA) (1)
b. Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF) (2)
c. Both (1) and (2)
95 GPWS Mode 7 “Windshear” alerts the flight crew about a dangerous windshear condition
 during take-off or approach by comparing:
a. True airspeed (TAS) from the ADC & Ground speed (GS) from the IRS
b. Transmission and reception frequencies
c. TAS and a database in the GPWS computer
96 The Terrain Awareness function of an EGPWS shows:
a. Terrain structure around the aircraft by green, yellow and red dots (1)
b. Buildings & mountains around the runway by colored dots (2)
c. Both (1) and (2)
97 In order to create outputs for the TA function, the EGPWS computer compares:
a. Minimum height around the runway and actual radio altitude
b. Actual aircraft position (from the GPS or the FMS) with a world-wide terrain database inside
the computer
c. Terrain signals from weather radar and a world-wide terrain database inside the computer

98 The EGPWS has a function/mode called Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF). In this mode, the
computer compares:
a. Actual radio altitude & elevation of buildings/mountains in its database
b. Actual radio altitude & terrain floor envelope in its database
c. Actual radio altitude & the highest buildings/mountains around the runway
99 Global Position System can calculate:
A. Radio Altitude, Latitude, Longitude
B. Altitude, Latitude, Longitude
C. Latitude, Longit ude
100 In order to calculate accurate position, the aircraft must receive signals from :
A 2 satellites
B. 3 satellites
C. 4 satellites