FlightSafety

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LEARJET
Series 40 & 45

Initial & Recurrent Pilot Training Course

LEARJET 40/45 PILOT STUDY & INFORMATION GUIDE (Client)

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FOR TRAINING PURPOSES ONLY

The material contained in this training material is based on the
information obtained from the aircraft manufacturer’s Pilot Manuals
and Maintenance Manuals. It is to be used for familiarization and
training purposes only.

At the time of printing this document contained then-current

information. In the event of conflict between data provided herein
and that in publications issued by the manufacturer or the FAA, that
of the manufacturer or the FAA shall take precedence.

We at FlightSafety want you to have the best training possible. We welcome any suggestions
you may have for improving upon this handout or any other aspect of our training program.

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CHANGES TO ORIGINAL DOCUMENT

Dated

Original Document ................................................................................................... 02/01/2008

Revision No. 1 - Added references to questions ...................................................... 06/06/2008

Revision No. 2 – A rewrite of ambiguous questions ................................................. 10/15/2008

Revision No. 3 – A rewrite of question # 46 regarding frozen brakes ........................ 07/31/2009

Revision No. 4 – A rewrite of ambiguous questions and adding question # 78 ......... 02/15/2010

Revision No. 5 – A rewrite of ambiguous questions and correcting errors;

Eliminated Learjet Operational Notes ............................................ 06/06/2012

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TABLE OF CONTENTS
Page:

Daily Review Question Assignment ................................................................................... 5

Review Questions.............................................................................................................. 5

Limitations ......................................................................................................................... 19

Right Electrical DC Bus Distribution .................................................................................. 29

Left Electrical DC Bus Distribution ..................................................................................... 30

Rotary Test Switch ............................................................................................................ 31

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Daily Review Question Assignments:

Day 1, Questions 1 – 16 Day 3, Questions 27 – 46
Day 2, Questions 17 – 26 Day 4, Questions 47 – 75

1. A white “ENTRY DOOR PIN” CAS and a red “ENTRY DOOR” CAS both illuminated at the
same time could indicate what?

a. The airplane is on the ground and the main entry door alignment and locking
pins are not all fully closed or fully open.
b. The main entry “DOOR” circuit breaker is open.
c. The main entry door is key locked from outside with the aircraft electrical
system powered.
d. Any of the above.

2. The fixed delta fins serve to:

a. Eliminate the need for a stick pusher and reduce the need for a yaw damper.
b. Dampen Dutch roll tendency.
c. Prevent deep stall characteristics.
d. All of the above.

3. In the event of a dual generator failure in-flight, how long should the main aircraft batteries
last? (Following AFM Procedures)
a. 30 minutes with the small original batteries
b. 50 minutes with the larger NiCad / Lead Acid
c. Neither a or b is correct
d. Both a and b are correct

4. The main battery contactor will automatically open if:

a. Battery voltage drops to less than 14 VDC for more than 10 seconds with the
airplane on the ground.
b. The airplane is on the ground and the battery voltage is less than 18 VDC.
c. The airplane is airborne and the battery voltage is less than 14 VDC.
d. The airplane is airborne and the battery voltage is less than 18 VDC.

5. After engine start with a GPU connected:

a. The generator will automatically come on line.
b. The generator may be manually selected on with the GEN switch.
c. The generator will automatically come on when the GPU is disconnected.
d. The generator will come on after disconnecting the GPU and momentarily
depressing the GEN switch.

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6. Normally, the two generator busses act independently; however, they are automatically
tied together:
a. During engine start.
b. Following a single generator failure.
c. When using either the GPU or APU for electrical power.
d. Any of the above.

7. Which of the following busses are automatically isolated from the main electrical system
during engine start to prevent possible voltage spike damage?
a. Emergency, Main Avionics, Essential, and Essential Avionics Busses.
b. Main Busses
c. Generator Busses
d. All of the above.

8. What voltages are indicated on the EICAS/MFD SUMRY and ELEC system schematic
pages?
a. Main and emergency batteries.
b. Aircraft generators and emergency battery.
c. Emergency Bus and L & R Essential Busses.
d. GPU or APU voltage.

9. What indications will appear during power-up with the GPU?

a. A white “EXTERNAL POWER” CAS whenever a GPU cable is connected and
more than 5 volts is sensed by the power monitor.
b. A green “AVAIL” caption on the EXT PWR S/I if the connected GPU is within
acceptable limits.
c. An “ON” indication on the EXT PWR switch indicator (S/I) when the anti-flash
contactor is closed.
d. All of the above.

10. What are the indications of a generator failure?

a. The “MASTER CAUTION” lights will flash with a single chime will audible
sound.
b. “OFF” will illuminate on the corresponding generator switch indicator (S/I).
c. A flashing amber “L or R GEN FAIL” CAS message will be posted.
d. All of the above.

11. Which of the following statements is true regarding use of the APU?
a. The APU can only be used on the ground.
b. The APU can be used either on the ground or in-flight.
c. The APU and a GPU can be used at the same time.
d. The APU and GPU cannot be used at the same time, as the APU would take
precedence.

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12. The EICAS system “TAKEOFF” and “LANDING” inhibit modes:

a. Are automatically enabled and disabled, depending on squat switch mode
(air or ground), airspeed, and throttle position.
b. Prevent certain Caution and Advisory messages from being displayed.
c. Prevent the master CAUT lights and chime from activating should the
inhibited CAS message be amber.
d. All of the above.

13. Whenever a RED CWP annunciator illuminates, it will be accompanied by:

a. Illumination of a corresponding flashing red CAS message.
b. An audible warning triple chime will sound.
c. The Master WARN lights will flash.
d. All of the above.

14. What is the continuous amperage limitation for the engine-driven generators?
a. 300
b. 350
c. 500
d. 700

15. Which of the following lights can be operated from the hot busses with the aircraft
batteries turned off?
a. Aft equipment bay and baggage compartment lights.
b. SPPR area pylon light.
c. Baggage area pylon light.
d. All of the above.

16. The activation period of the emergency lighting system is controlled by a timing circuit and
limited to:
a. 15 minutes.
b. 20 minutes.
c. Minimum of 5 minutes and a maximum of 10 minutes.
d. Minimum of 10 minutes and a maximum of 12 minutes.

17. How is an ADC failure indicated?

a. A red “X” over the Airspeed, Altitude and a red VSI on the corresponding
failed side PFD.
b. A red “ADC1 FAIL” or “ADC 2 FAIL” annunciator illuminates.
c. “ADC1 FAIL” or “ADC2 FAIL” CAS is posted.
d. All of the above.

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18. When is Engine Page 1, on the RMU, automatically displayed?

a. When DU #2 fails.
b. When DU #2 and #DU 3 fail.
c. When either DAU fails.
d. When neither IC/SG is providing EICAS to either inboard DU.

19. The amber ALT comparison monitor on the PFD illuminates whenever:
a. The barometric altitude disagrees by 75 feet or more.
b. The radio altitude disagrees by 200 feet or more.
c. The barometric altitude disagrees by 200 feet or more between display units
1 and 4.
d. The barometric altitude is 200 feet or more from the pre-selected altitude.

20. If both Avionics Master switches are OFF due to dual generator failure, which displays are
available?
a. PFD or EICAS can be displayed on DU 2, until it is turned off or the left main
battery fails.
b. The engine pages can be displayed on RMU #1 or #2.
c. The navigation page can be displayed on RMU #1 or #2.
d. All of the above.

21. The “V” speeds V1, VR, and V2 can be set on the airspeed scale:
a. Automatically through the FMS if you have the “Performance Software” up-
grade.
b. Manually, by using the MFD/SPDS menu selection.
c. Both a. and b. are correct.
d. None of the above.

22. The BARO or Radio Altimeter (RA) instrument approach minimums are displayed:
a. As a digital readout to the right and below the ADI.
b. As a magenta bar on the altitude tape.
c. As an amber “MIN” annunciation on the ADI.
d. All of the above.

23. The standby fuel pumps are used for all of the following except:
a. Engine start and the right pump for APU operation.
b. As a backup to the main jet pumps.
c. Wing-to-wing fuel transfer.
d. Wing-to-fuselage transfer.

24. During flight, fuselage fuel is transferred to the wing tanks through:
a. Fuselage Boost Pumps.
b. Gravity.
c. Standby pumps.
d. Gravity and jet pumps located at the end of the transfer lines.

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25. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

a. An amber “FUEL IMBALANCE” CAS message will be posted anytime the
fuel quantity difference between wing tanks is greater than 200 pounds in
either the LR-45 or the LR-40.
b. An amber “L or R FUEL QTY LOW” CAS will be posted whenever the
corresponding wing fuel quantity is approximately 350 pounds (if system has
been reactivated).
c. A white “L or R FUEL BAY LOW” CAS will be posted whenever the
corresponding collector tank is less then 80% full.
d. None of the above.

26. Engine instrument indications can be displayed on:

a. Any of the display units.
b. Either inboard display unit.
c. Either RMU
d. Both b. and c.

27. An amber “IGN” annunciation on the EICAS display indicates:

a. Ignition has not been selected ON.
b. Ignition is ON and one igniter is bad.
c. Ignition is ON and both igniters‟ are bad.
d. An air start is still possible.

28. Automatic ignition (DEEC ON) is provided during:

a. Excessive engine deceleration.
b. Engine start sequence after the START button has been depressed.
c. Un-Commanded engine deceleration.
d. All of the above.

29. The DEEC functions to provide all of the following except:

a. Engine Over-speed protection.
b. N2 reference bug display.
c. Thrust management.
d. Automatic performance reserve.

30. Depressing an engine FIRE PUSH switch closes which of the following?
a. The main fuel shutoff valve.
b. The Environmental Control System (ECS) Pressure Regulator and Shutoff
Valve. (ECSPRSOV)
c. The hydraulic fluid supply and the thrust reverser isolation valve.
d. All of the above.

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31. When an over-heat or fire condition is detected within an engine nacelle, all of the
following warnings are activated except:
a. A red “FIRE” EI is displayed within the corresponding engine ITT indicator on
the EICAS.
b. A repeating voice message, “Left or Right Engine Fire” will sound.
c. A red FIRE light is displayed on the CWP, along with a master warning light
and chime.
d. The corresponding red “FIRE PUSH” switch illuminates on the pedestal
control panel.

32. If both channel 1A and 1B of DAU 1 fail, how will the engine instrument display on the
EICAS be affected?
a. All engine indications will continue to operate through DAU 2.
b. Left engine indications for N1, ITT, N2, oil pressure, oil temperature and fuel
flow will be lost.
c. If the DAU NORM reversion switch is selected to Channel B, all engine
indications will be restored.
d. If the IC/SG NORM reversion switch is selected to No. 2, all engine
indications will be restored.

33. In the manual engine mode of operation, all of the following are true except:
a. The surge valve will remain fixed at 1/3 open.
b. Acceleration time is slower.
c. Automatic ignition is provided during an air-start mode.
d. Fuel control is through the metering valve of the FCU.

34. All of the following are true regarding engine ignition except:
a. The ignition is scheduled on automatically by the DEEC.
b. “IGN” is displayed on the EICAS whenever the ignition is being called for by
the DEEC or through the ignition switches.
c. The color of the “IGN” annunciation (white, amber, or green) is determined
by the number of plugs which are functioning.
d. The “IGN” switches will always show a white “ON‟ when ignition is activated.

35. The auxiliary hydraulic system, when activated with the HYD XFLOW ON can provide
hydraulic pressure for operation of:
a. Landing gear, flaps, spoilers, brakes, and thrust reversers.
b. Emergency gear extension, brakes, and thrust reversers.
c. Spoilerons and brakes.
d. Landing gear and flaps.

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36. Hydraulic fluid from the reservoir is shut off to the engine driven pump:
a. When the corresponding FIRE handle is pulled.
b. When the HYD XFLOW valve is opened.
c. When the corresponding FWSOV circuit breaker pops out.
d. When the corresponding engine “FIRE PUSH” switch is depressed.

37. When does the auxiliary hydraulic pump automatically come ON?
a. When the airplane electrical system is initially powered up.
b. Anytime the airplane is on the ground with an engine running.
c. When the landing gear handle is placed to the DOWN position.
d. When the accumulator pressure drops below 2,200psi.

38. If the main hydraulic system loses all fluid:

a. Thrust reversers can be operated with the auxiliary pump.
b. Flaps may be operated with the auxiliary pump if HYD XFLO is selected ON.
c. The emergency brake accumulator will have to be used for braking.
d. All of the above.

39. In order for the auxiliary hydraulic pump to provide hydraulic pressure for anti-skid braking,
the HYD XFLO must be ON.
a. True
b. False

40. If the free-fall gear extension system was used to lower the gear, the cockpit indications
will be:
a. Three green DOWN lights.
b. Three green DOWN lights and three advisory lights.
c. Three green DOWN lights and two main gear advisory lights.
d. Three green DOWN lights and a nose gear advisory light.

41. A landing gear WARNING is initiated whenever:

a. Both thrust levers are less than the MCR detent, airspeed is less than 170
knots, altitude is below 14,500‟, the RA is invalid, and the gear is not down
and locked or either main gear door is not up and locked.
b. Indicated airspeed is greater than 210 knots and one or more gear is in
transition or either inboard main gear door is not up and locked.
c. Any gear is not down and locked and the flaps are extended past 25
degrees.
d. Any landing gear is not down and locked, the RA indicates greater than 500‟,
and both power levers are set below the MCR detent.

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42. The emergency brake accumulator is sized to provide a minimum of how many brake
applications?
a. Three
b. Four
c. Five
d. Six

43. Following a gear retraction sequence and all advisory lights have extinguished, the main
gear:
a. Rest on the inboard gear doors after the doors are up and locked.
b. Are held retracted by positive hydraulic pressure.
c. Are held retracted by auxiliary hydraulic pressure.
d. Are held retracted with mechanical uplocks.

44. The auxiliary hydraulic pump automatically deactivates whenever:

a. Landing gear handle is moved to the DOWN position.
b. Landing gear handle is moved to the UP position.
c. The HYD XFLO is selected ON.
d. Both a. and c. are true.

45. The brake control unit (BCU) provides the following protection:
a. Locked-wheel protection.
b. Touchdown protection.
c. Nose gear retraction braking.
d. Both a. and b. are correct.

46. Departing an airport with contaminated runway and taxiways, in order to prevent the
possibility of frozen brakes, the pilot should
a. Delay retraction of the landing gear to allow for residual slush to be blown off
the brake assemblies
b. Turn, “OFF” the anti-skid system and cycle the pilot and co-pilot brakes
c. Use the brakes while taxing creating friction induced heating of the brake
discs to prevent the brakes from freezing once airborne
d. Both A and C are correct

47. If the horizontal stabilizer ever becomes jammed, the crew should:
a. Disconnect the elevator by pulling the ELEV T-Handle.
b. Engage the autopilot.
c. Use the Pitch Trim Bias switch to help reduce control loads.
d. Use primary bypass trim.

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48. If pitch trim, aileron trim, or rudder trim is not within the takeoff band when the thrust levers
are advanced for takeoff:
a. A voice message “Configuration” sounds.
b. The white “TAKEOFF TRIM” CAS message turns red.
c. Digital indication for the out-of-trim condition turns red and is boxed in red.
d. All of the above are true.

49. Normally, the spoilerons assist the ailerons in roll control:

a. If the flaps are less than 25 and the spoiler lever is in RET or ARM.
b. If the flaps are less than 25 regardless of the spoiler lever position.
c. Only when the aileron roll-disconnect is actuated.
d. At all times regardless of the flap or spoiler control position.

50. When the pitch trim selector switch is in the SEC position:
a. Mach trim and Configuration trim are both inoperative.
b. Autopilot trim is inoperative.
c. Secondary pitch trim can be actuated through the console switch.
d. Both a. and c. are correct.

51. The trim-in-motion clacker will sound:

a. Anytime primary or secondary trim runs continuously for more than 1
second.
b. Anytime trim runs for more than 1 second when the flaps are up.
c. Anytime the autopilot activates secondary trim for more than 2 to 3 seconds.
d. There is no trim-in-motion clacker in this airplane.

52. If the amber „FLAPS FAULT” CAS is posted In-flight:

a. Flaps should be functional, after reset.
b. Flaps are inoperative.
c. HYD XFLO must be selected to operate the flaps.
d. A flap asymmetry in excess of 7 has been detected.

53. If the #1 IC/SG fails In-flight:

a. Primary trim will be operative.
b. Pitch trim will still function in the bypass mode, but Mach and Configuration
trim will be inoperative.
c. All trim will function normally if IC/SG #2 is selected on the reversion panel.
d. All trim will be inoperative.

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54. If the spoiler lever is in the ARM position for landing, which of the following are required for
auto-spoiler deployment?
a. Thrust levers at idle.
b. Both main squat switches showing weight-on-wheels and ground speed in
excess of 50 knots on both inboard wheels.
c. All four wheel speeds indicate in excess of 50 knots.
d. Both a. and b. are required.

55. Which of the following indications is provided during stall warning?

a. Stick shaker and repeating, non-cancelable “STALL” voice warning.
b. Stick pusher.
c. A red L and R STALL annunciator.
d. A warning horn.

56. In order to provide engine bleed air to the ECU for pressurization and air-conditioning,
which of the following must be ON?
a. The pack HI FLOW switch.
b. PACK switch.
c. EMER PRESS switch.
d. Both a. and b.

57. Illumination of a, “L or R Bleed OVHT” amber caution CAS message indicates:

a. The respective bleed-air detection loop in the tail-cone has exceeded 255 F.
b. A bleed-air temperature sensor in the pylon has exceeded 250 F.
c. Bleed-air in the respective supply duct has exceeded 700 F.
d. PACK turbine discharge has exceeded a temperature of 450 F.

58. Which of the following is not available when the L and R BLEED switches are OFF?
a. Normal pressurization.
b. Emergency Pressurization.
c. Temperature control through the ECU.
d. All of the above.

59. Which of the following is true regarding pressurization if total electrical failure should occur
during flight?
a. Emergency pressurization automatically activates and temperature control is
still available.
b. Emergency pressurization automatically activates but temperature control is
not available.
c. Pressurization is lost and the cabin will climb to airplane altitude.
d. Both ECS PRSOVs and the PACK Bi-Level PRSOV are de-energized open
for pressurization: however, temperature control is lost and the cabin will go
to maximum differential.

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60. Cabin temperature can be read:

a. On the cabin temperature indicator located on the Environmental Control
Panel.
b. On the EICAS/MFD SUMRY display.
c. On the cabin temperature indicator located in the cabin area.
d. At the top left corner of the EICAS/MFD ECS system schematic page.

61. In the unlikely event emergency pressurization activates due to a leak in the cabin:
a. Neither automatic nor manual temperature control is available.
b. MANUAL TEMP must be selected for cockpit and cabin temperature control.
c. Automatic temperature control will still be operational.
d. Cockpit and cabin temperature control will automatically revert to manual
control.

62. If the cabin altitude is climbing due to a significant leak in the cabin, which of the following
will occur?
a. When the cabin altitude reaches 8,000 feet, a white “LR CABIN PRESS
FAIL” message will be displayed on the CAS system.
b. When the cabin altitude reaches 8,750 feet, the amber Master CAUT lights
will flash with a flashing “CABIN ALTITUDE” CAS message being posted.
c. When the cabin altitude reaches 8,750 feet, the cabin altitude digital readout
on the CPC LCD will flash and the cabin altitude display on the EICAS/MFD
SUMRY page is boxed and turns amber.
d. Both b. and c. are correct.

63. What indication does the crew have if the cabin altitude has climbed to 10,000 feet?
a. The “CABIN ALTITUDE” warning horn will sound.
b. The aural voice message announces “CABIN ALTITUDE” until muted or
cabin altitude is returned to below 10,000 feet.
c. The digital display of CAB ALT on the SUMRY display turns red.
d. Both b. and c. are correct.

64. If a total electrical failure occurs while airborne;

a. The controller reverts to manual mode.
b. MANUAL PRESS must be selected to enable manual control.
c. The cabin will depressurize.
d. The cabin will go to maximum differential pressure (9.7psid).

65. The cabin pressurization system (CPCS) automatically switches to manual mode
whenever:
a. Dual ADC failure occurs.
b. Cabin altitude reaches 8,750 feet.
c. PRI or SEC PRESS circuit breaker pops.
d. Either channel of the CPC fails.

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66. What does the amber “NAC” EI on the EICAS indicate?

a. NAC heat is turned ON and pressure to the corresponding nacelle lip is
below an acceptable level.
b. That NAC heat is turned ON and the corresponding Pt 2/Tt2 probe is not being
heated.
c. NAC heat is off and bleed-air pressure is being supplied to the
corresponding nacelle lip.
d. Any of the above.

67. Which of the following is heated electrically for anti-icing?

a. Nacelle inlet lip.
b. Windshield.
c. Stab leading edge.
d. All of the above.

68. Selecting L and R PROBES switches to On activates heating elements within all of the
items listed except:
a. Engine inlet pressure and temperature sensor (Pt2/Tt2).
b. Left and right AOA vanes.
c. Standby pitot-static probe and TAT probe.
d. Left and right main pitot-static probes.

69. Following a dual generator failure in-flight and loss of Main DC bus equipment, which of
the following anti-ice systems remains operative?
a. Main pitot-static heat elements.
b. Left and right AOA vane heat elements.
c. Standby pitot-static heat elements.
d. All of the above.

70. Which of the following statements is true if the PAX OXY/AUTO switch is in the ON
position and electrical power is available?
a. Oxygen will automatically flow through all the passenger masks if the cabin
altitude reaches 14,500 feet 250 feet.
b. Passenger masks will deploy and oxygen will be supplied in the event of a
dual generator failure.
c. Passenger masks will automatically deploy if cabin altitude reaches 14,500‟
( 250‟).
d. All of the above are true.

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71. Raising the protective safety cover and depressing the DEPLOY switch on the PAX
OXYGEN control panel will:
a. Open the passenger oxygen control valve.
b. Deploy all of the passenger oxygen masks.
c. Regulate oxygen pressure to the passenger distribution system.
d. All of the above are true.

72. To provide cockpit communication when the crew masks are donned:
a. The MIC/MASK button on the audio control panel must be out (extended).
b. The INPH button on the audio control panel must be out (extended) to
activate hot interphone and the on-side speaker.
c. The SPKR ON/OFF button must be in the out (ON) position.
d. Both a. and b.

73. The cockpit voice recorder can be erased when:

a. The aircraft is on the ground.
b. Anytime, ground or during flight.
c. The aircraft is on the ground and the parking brake is set.
d. It cannot be erased it‟s overwritten after 30 minutes continuous use.

74. TCAS “NORMAL” display presents traffic from:

a. Between 2,700 feet above to 2,700 feet below the current altitude.
b. Between 5,700 feet above to 5,700 feet below the current altitude.
c. Between 7,000 feet above to 2,700 feet below the current altitude.
d. Between 2,700 feet above to 7,000 feet below the current altitude.

75. Turbulent air penetration speeds are:

a. .75 Mach or 300 knots, whichever is less.
b. .73 Mach or 250 knots, whichever is higher.
c. .73 Mach or 250 knots, whichever is less.
d. .75 Mach or 300 knots, whichever is higher.

76. The Standard Universal Avionics System (Flight Management System) in the Lear 45 is
the;
a. UNS-1M
b. UNS-1C
c. UNS-1E or 1EW
d. UNS-1B

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77. Provided the Flight Management System referenced above receives usable sensor
signals, it‟s approved for the following operations:
a. VFR / IFR en-route oceanic and remote en-route domestic, terminal and
instrument approach operation within the U.S. National Airspace system using
the NAD-83 or WGS-84 coordinate reference datum in accordance with the
criteria of AC20-130A, AC 91-49, AC 120-33 and AC 90-94.
b. VFR / IFR en-route oceanic and remote, en-route domestic, terminal and
instrument approach operation within the U.S. National Airspace System.
c. VFR / IFR en-route terminal and instrument approach operation within the U.S.
National Airspace System.
d. IFR Instrument Departures, Arrivals and Approaches “ONLY”

78. When changing the range scale on the Multi Function Display while using weather radar
the pilot must;
a. With the Weather Radar system turned “ON” and displayed on the MFD, select
Menu and using the rotary select knob select the desired range scale.
b. With the Weather Radar system turned “ON” and displayed on the MFD, select
MFD Menu / Weather and using the rotary select knob select the desired range
scale.
c. On the Weather Radar control panel select the “UP” or “DOWN” arrow keys to
increase or decrease the range scale on the MFD.
d. Depress both of the “UP / DOWN” arrow keys together while rotating the MFD
rotary select knob until the proper range is achieved.

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LEARJET 40/45
Limitation Study Guide
The LR-45 is certificated in accordance with FAR Part (Transport Category)

Icing conditions exist when outside air temperature (OAT) on the ground and for takeoff is
or below, or the static air temperature (SAT) in flight is to and
visible moisture in any form is present.

Icing conditions also exist when the OAT on the ground and for takeoff is or below when
operating on ramps, taxiways or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush may
be ingested by the engines, or freeze on engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes. This
airplane is not certified for under FAR 25.801

The minimum flight crew shall consist of a and a .

Maximum Ramp Weight is: lbs. or kg (not modified by SB 45-11-4)

Maximum Ramp Weight is: lbs. or kg (modified by SB 45-11-4)

Maximum Certified Takeoff Weight is: lbs. or kg (not modified by SB 45-11-4)

Maximum Certified Takeoff Weight is: lbs. or kg (modified by SB 45-11-4)

Minimum Flight Weight is: lbs. or kg

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight not modified by SB 45-11-5 is: lbs. or kg.

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight modified by SB 45-11-5 is lbs. or kg.

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All weights in excess of the “Maximum Zero Fuel Weight” must consist of: .

The Maximum Allowable Takeoff Weight is limited by the most restrictive of the following
requirements:
a. .

b. .

c. .

Maximum Certified Landing Weight is lbs. or kg.

Note: Perform a or inspection if Max Certified

Landing Weight has been exceeded.

The Maximum Allowable Landing Weight is limited by the most restrictive of the following
requirements:
a. .

b. .

c. .

The most Forward Center of Gravity Limit (ground or flight) is: %.

The most Aft Center of Gravity Limit (ground or flight) is: %.

The allowable C.G. range at Max Takeoff Weight is to %.

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AIRSPEED/MACH LIMITS
The Maximum Operating Speed (Vmo) with Primary Flight Display (PFD) is: .KIAS.
MMO with Mach Trim operative is: Mach
MMO with Mach Trim inoperative and Autopilot engaged is: Mach
MMO with Mach Trim inoperative and Autopilot disengaged is: Mach
The maximum operating speed with Standby Instruments VMO is: KIAS
The maximum operating speed with Standby Instruments MMO is: Mach

Maneuvering Speed (Va) is the highest speed that full and

control can be applied without overstressing the aircraft, or the speed at which the aircraft will
stall with a load factor of at maximum gross weight, whichever is less .

Maximum landing gear operating speed VLO is KIAS

Maximum landing gear extended speed VLE is KIAS
Maximum flap extended speed VFE is:
Flaps 8 KIAS
Flaps 20 KIAS
Flaps 40 KIAS
Minimum Control Speed VMCA while airborne is:
Flaps 8 KIAS
Flaps 20 KIAS
Minimum Control Speed VMCG while on the ground is:
Rudder Boost “On”, APR “On” KIAS
Rudder Boost “On”, APR “Off” KIAS
Minimum Control Speed Landing VMCL for:
Flaps 8 KIAS
Flaps 40 KIAS

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The definition of Takeoff Decision Speed (V1) is: .

The definition of Rotation Speed (VR) is

The definition of Takeoff Safety Speed (V2) is

OPERATIONAL LIMITS/REQUIREMENTS

TAKEOFF
Maximum pressure altitude for takeoff is feet.
Maximum tailwind component for takeoff is knots (not modified by SB 45-72-1)
Maximum tailwind component for takeoff is knots at 12,000‟ or below (modified by SB45-72-1)
and knots above feet msl.

Runway conditions for takeoff are limited to and a maximum of inch or

mm of standing water. (JAA aircraft, inch, or mm of water)

Prior to takeoff, the must be .

Prior to takeoff, the fuel in the wing tanks must be balanced within lbs or kg.

Prior to takeoff, the EICAS must display either the or page.

Prior to takeoff, the system must be .

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ENROUTE
The maximum pressure altitude en-route is feet.
En-route fuel in the wings must be balanced within lbs. or kg. if NOT
modified by TFM 2005-01
En-route fuel in the wings must be balanced within lbs. or kg. IF
modified by TFM 2005-01

The maximum pressure altitude for landing is feet.

LANDING
The maximum tailwind component during landing is knots.
Runway conditions for landing are limited to and inch or
mm of standing water. JAA aircraft, inch or mm of
standing water

The cabin must not be during landing.

The fuel in the wing tanks must be balanced within lbs or kg)
for landing.
The EICAS must display either or the page for
landing.

Limit Maneuvering Load Factors

Flaps Up to .
Flaps Down to .

The acceleration values limit the bank angle in a level coordinated turn to °
degrees (Flaps Up) and ° degrees (Flaps Down).

SUMRY or FLT Page must be selected for and .

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Do not extend Landing Gear or Flaps above feet.

No maneuvers, including , are approved.

Intentional are prohibited above feet.

All occupants during takeoff and landing must wear seat belts and shoulder harnesses.
NOTE: The seat is certified for takeoff and landing with seat belt only.

If the aircraft has been cold soaked on the ground to –23° C or lower the aircraft and its
components must be warmed to °C or above prior to ground start.

The cabin temperature must be °C or warmer prior to takeoff.

SYSTEM LIMITS
Air Data Computer Systems (ADC 1 and 2) must be selected for
takeoff and the check in Section II of the AFM must be accomplished.

The LR-45 meets requirements for RVSM;

However, this is an operational approval.

Attitude Heading Reference Systems (AHRS 1 and AHRS 2) must be selected

for takeoff.

The Autopilot must be for and .

Do not intentionally the autopilot.

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Autopilot minimum use heights are:

En-route Climb or Descent feet. (JAA feet AGL)
Approach feet. (JAA feet.
FMS/VNAV coupled approaches feet, or whichever is higher.

The Autopilot and Flight Director(s) are approved for approaches.

Delta P pressure limits are to .

Do not land with the cabin .

The must be “OFF” with takeoff power selected, for landing, anti-
ice operations, and flight above feet.

The appropriate must be immediately

available to the flight crew.

The ENG SYNC must be for takeoff, landing and operation.

The maximum amperage from an external power source must be limited to amps.

Continuous Generator Output is limited on the ground or in flight to amps

higher transient loads for and are authorized.

Crew and passenger oxygen masks are not approved for use above feet
cabin altitude.

Prolonged operation of passenger masks above feet cabin altitude is not

recommended.

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Passenger oxygen masks are intended for use during an descent to an altitude of
requiring Supplemental Oxygen

Rudder boost must be for takeoff.

Do not extend wing spoilers with extended while airborne, except

as specified in Emergency and/or Abnormal procedures.

must be armed for takeoff and landing, except do not arm for training
maneuvers where will be simulated above V1 speed or
for landings.

The following cooling periods must be observed between consecutive uses of the starter
After 1st attempt, wait minute
After 2nd attempt, wait minutes
After 3rd attempt, wait minutes

Operation of the Thrust Reverser is limited to operation surfaces

and attempts to deploy shall be made be made .

Thrust reversers must be used to back up the aircraft.

Thrust reverser circuit breakers must be intentionally

while in flight, except as specified in Emergency and/or Abnormal procedures.

Thrust reversers must be limited to reverse when the

engines are operating in mode.

A minimum of ___________ minutes must elapse between landing touchdown and selection of
takeoff thrust for the next takeoff. This does not prohibit tough-and-go landings.

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The Tire Limiting speed (ground speed) is knots.

POWERPLANT LIMITS
(Complete for either modified or unmodified aircraft)
The engine type(s) are or turbofans.

The engines must be operated at all times with the switches

in the position, except as specified in Normal, Emergency and
Abnormal procedures in this manual.
Engine operating limits are:
APR N1 N2 ITT and a maximum of minutes.
T/O N1 N2 ITT and a maximum of minutes.
MCT N1 N2 ITT Continuous
MCR N1 N2 ITT Continuous
Starting N1 N2 ITT maximum.

Minimum Oil Pressure is .

Maximum Oil Pressure is to .

Maximum Oil Temperature is °C to °C

Minimum Oil Temperature is °C.
Oils conforming to specification are approved for use in the aircraft engines.

FUEL LIMITS
Mixing of fuel types is in accordance the Addendum Section of
the AFM. Approved fuels are: .

For aircraft modified by SB 45-11-1 anti-icing additive is required. However, for

microbial protection, it is recommended that fuel containing a additive
be used at least for aircraft in regular use.

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For aircraft modified by SB 45-28-2 single-point pressure refueling is limited to psig

or hPa and de-fueling is limited to psig or hPa).

Hydraulic fluid conforming to military specification is approved.

AUXILIARY POWER UNIT (APU) LIMITS (If equipped)

The APU is limited to operations only, up to field pressure
altitudes of feet, and must be prior to takeoff.

Operation of the APU during and is

prohibited.

Do not takeoff with an amber CAS illuminated. If the APU

automatically shuts down due to a failure, a must
be conducted prior to flight.

The following cooling periods must be observed between consecutive uses of the APU starter:
After 1st attempt, wait minute
After 2nd attempt, wait minutes
rd
After 3 attempt, wait minutes

Continuous APU Generator Output is limited to amps. Higher

transient loads for and are authorized.

Approved Fuels for the are also approved for APU use.

Oils conforming to specification are approved for APU use.

Refer to Addendum II of the AFM.

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LEARJET 40/45 RIGHT SIDE DC POWER DISTRIBUTION BUSES

R- Essential Bus R- Essential Bus R - Main R – Main Av R – Hot Bus
Air Data Computer # 2 R - Stall Warning APU Fire Detect ADF #2 L Ckpt Ovrhd Light
AHARS PWR #1 Sec R - Standby Pump Control APU Fire Ext ATC #2 Entry Lighting
AHARS PWR #2 Pri R - Standby Pump Power APU Generator Comm #2 Radio Cntrl Hot Bus
Audio Panel #2 R - Crew Warning Panel APU Start Comm #3 #1 Comm/Nav
Brake Accumulator R - Wheel Master Auto Temp Ctrl DME #2 #1 & 2 Audio Panels
Pressure
Cockpit Instr Rt Ess Power R - Windshield Heat Nav #2 Receiver FMS #2 Clearance Delivery
DAU #2 Channel “B” RMU #2 Power SEC Pedestal Lights GPWS
Emergency Lighting Rudder Force R - AOA Probes HF #2
Flight Data Recorder Rudder Trim R - C/B Lighting Lightning Sens Rear Hot Bus
Flap Control SEC Pitch Trim R - Clock NAV #2 SPPR Valve
IC-600/SG #2 Spoiler Indicator R - Cockpit Instr CSS #2 De-Fuel Valve
Ice Detect Temperature Control Manual R - NAC Heat R Av Bus Main Fuel X-Flow Valve
Out Board Brakes/Anti Skid R- Wing/Stab Ht R -Ovrhd Lights RMU #2 PWR Tail Cone Lighting
Right Bleed Air X-Flow Valve (Hydraulic) R Pitot Ht Probe TCAS Toilet Service
R - Display Control R Rudder Adjust WXR Emergency Lighting
R - Engine Computer R – Essential Avionics R - SAT Probe Pylon Lighting
R - Essential Bus DU #3 R - Taxi/Ldg Lt Baggage Lighting
R - Essential Bus Volts DU #4 R -Vibr Monitor
R - Fire Detect Wing Insp. Lt
R - Flap Position R – Emer Hot Bus
R - Fuel Flow R – Non Essential R - Fire Extinguisher
R - Fuel Pressure Low Isle Lighting R – FW Shutoff
Pitch Trim Bias Coffee
R - Fuel Quantity Galley Lighting
R - Ignition Channel “A” Hot Water R – Gen Bus
R - Ignition Channel “B” Logo Lighting R-Land Light
R - Eng Oil Press/Temp Oven R-Taxi Light
R - Pitot Standby Heat Pax Briefing Baggage Heat
Probes
R - Reverser Annunciator Reading Lights Nav Light-FWD
R - Reverser Deploy Toilet Nav Lights-AFT
R - Reverser Stow Video Sec Pitch Trim
R - Squat Switch Baggage Heat R-Gen Field

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LEARJET 40/45 LEFT SIDE DC POWER DISTRIBUTION BUSES

L- Essential Bus L- Essential Bus L – Main L – Non Emergency Battery
Essential
ATC #1 L – Ignition Channel “A” AFCS Servos AC Outlets Ckpt Instrs Emer Pwr
Air Data Computer #1 L – Ignition Channel “B” Beacon Strobe Cabin Flood DAU #1 Channel “A”
ADF #1 L – Oil Instrument Fan Drain Heater DAU #2 Channel “A”
Pressure/Temperature
AHARS #1 Primary L – Reverser Annunciator L - Clock Lavatory Emergency Bus
Lights
AHARS #2 Secondary L – Reverser Deploy L – Cockpit CB Lights Stereo System Emergency Bus Volts
Aileron Trim L – Reverser Stow L – Cockpit Instr. Gear Ctrl/Ind
Lights
Audio Panel #1 L – Squat Switch L – NAC Heat INBD Brakes/Antiskid
Aux Hydraulic Pump Control L – Stall Warning L – Overhead Lights Pax/Oxy Manual Dep
Aux Hydraulic Pump Power L – Standby Pump Control L – Probe Heat AOA RMU #1 Power SEC
Cabin Passenger Address L – Standby Pump Power L – Probe Heat Pitot STBY Alt Vib & Light
Sys.
Cockpit Instr. Essential L – Crew Warning Panel L – Rudder Adjust STBY A/S Light
Power
Cockpit Flood Light L – Wheel Master L – Taxi/Landing Light R – Press
Cockpit Map Light Leak Detect L – Vibration Monitor Emer Lighting (GND)
Communication Radio #1 Main Hydraulic Pressure L - Press
Cockpit Voice Recorder Nav #1 Sync Switch
DAU #1 Channel “B” Nose Wheel Steer Cmpter System Test L – Emer Hot Bus
DME #1 Nose Wheel Steer Motor L - Fire Extinguisher
Door Lights Pack L – FW Shutoff
Display Unit #2 Primary Pitch Trim
Elevator Disconnect RMU #1 Primary L – Main Avionic
Flight Management System SPLR Control AFIS L – Gen Bus
#1
IC-600/SG #1 L – Wing/Stab Heat DTU L-Land Light
L - Bleed Air & Emer Press Flight Phone L-Taxi Light
L - Display Control L – Essential Avionic HF #1 Aux Hyd Pump Pwr
L – Engine Computer DU #1 L – Av Bus Main Pri Pitch Trim
L – Essential Bus Volts Rad Alt #1 MLS L-Gen Field
L – Fire Detect OSS #1
L – Flap Position SELCAL
L – Fuel Flow
L – Fuel Pressure Low
L – Fuel Quantity
L – Windshield Heat

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(3 “Dings”) & Lights
LR-45 SYSTEM TEST CHECKS
“LEFT ENGINE FIRE” Voice
“RIGHT ENGINE FIRE” Voice
ANTI-ICE - M/Warning Chime Both FWSOW S/I‟s Illuminated
(3 “Dings”) & Lights All extinguisher S/I‟s illuminated
“WING/STAB HT OK” White CAS “FIRE” IN ITT‟s (Red) illuminated
“WING OVHT” CWP “FIRE” on RMU Engine Page 1
“STAB OVHT” CWP “L & R BLEED AIR LEAK”
CWP‟s (2)
“L/R BLEED AIR LEAK” CAS
APU FIRE S/I Illuminated
STALL -M/Caution APU FIRE HORN (after ≈15
Chime (1 “Ding”) & seconds)
Lights
“ADC TEST” on both
PFD‟s
“STALL” Voice
Low Speed Awareness
tape on both PFD‟s moves
up scale.
AOA needle‟s sweep
“L AOA HT FAIL” CAS LIGHTS - All S/I’s
“R AOA HT FAIL” CAS Illuminate
STICK Shaker‟s both
sides CWP lights
illuminated
FGC progressive
Tones and Voices
ADC (after ≈15 seconds)

“OVERSPEED” Voice
“ADC TEST” depicted on
PFD‟s (#1 & 4 DU‟s) FLAPS – M/Caution Chime GEAR – M/Warning
Over-Speed Cue = 330 KIAS (1 “Ding”) & Lights Chime (3 “Dings”) and
IAS = 330 KIAS Lights
“FLAPS FAIL” CAS
Mach = .81
“FLAPS FAULT” CAS “GEAR” Voice
Altitude = 1,000
Flaps digital display amber box GEAR CWP AND CAS
Altitude trend = 1,500
„In Transit‟ Lights (White)
Baro-Altimeter = 29.92”
VSI = +5,000 fpm w/needle
pegged “UP”
TAS (MFD) = 466kts
SAT (MFD) = - 45°

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