FLIGHT CREW KNOWLEDGE

CHECK DECEMB
RE

2016
.1u
•aara1 air ma•oc QUESTIONNAIRE Question
s

1. ln case of total power loss:

a. AC power provides Emergency Ughting.

b. DC power provides Emergency lighting.
c. AC and OC power provides Emergency lfghting.
d. Emergency lighting is not fitted.

2. Where is the EICAS display brightness control knob located?

a. On the center pedestal near the screen.

b. On bath glare shield contrai panels.
c. On the right hand glare shield light contrai panel.
d. On the left hand glare shield llght contrai panel.

3. ln a turn, what requires the largest clearance?

a. Wingtip.
b. Tail.
c. Nose tip.
d. Nose wheel.

4. How far can the long haut version fly with standard reserves left in the tank?

a. 1800 NM.
b. 3100 NM.
c. 2500 NM.
d. 2800 NM.

5. What light(s) will illuminate pushing in the CABIN LT TMR ARM (guarded) button?

a. Turns on sidewall and fwd. entrance light as long as the button remains pushed in.
b. Turns on ceiling and fwd. galley area light as long as the button remains pushed in.
c. Turns on courtesy light. A 5' timer turns them off whenever only the batteries are energizing
the airplane .
d. Turns on fwd. entrance light. A 3' timer turns them off whenever only the batteries are
energizing the airplane.

6. Above whlch cabln altitude will the NO SMOKING and FASTENSEAT BELT signs
automatically illuminate regardless of switch position (mask deploy selector knob AUTO or
OVRD)?

a. 10000 ft.
b. 15000 ft.
c. 14000 ft. to 14750 ft. in AUTO sel.; always when manual OVRD 1s selected.
d. 12000 ft. in AUTO sel.; above 10000 ft. when manual OVRD is selected.
 FLIGHT CREW KNOWLEDGE
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2016

•-al mimraroc: QUESTIONNAIRE Questions

7. How are the internai emergency lights (Internai batteries) charged?

a. By 6 ELPUs (Emer. Lights Pwr Units) connected to the DC BUS 1.

b. By 6 ELPUs (Emer. Lights Pwr Units) connected to the DC ESS BUS.
c. By 4 ELPUs (Emer. Lights Pwr Units) connected to the DC BUS 2.
d. By 4 ELPUs (Emer. Lights Pwr Units) connected to the DC ESS BUS.

8. How many displays and instruments are "on" during initial aircraft power-up (batteries
only)?

a. CCD 1, MCDU 2, IESS & c1ock, DUs2&3 , VHF COMM MOD 1.

b. CCD 1, MCDU 1, IESS & clock, DUs1&2 VHF COMM MOO 2.
c. CCD 2, MCDU 1, IESS, DUs2&3, VHF COMM MOD 3.
d. CCO 2, MCDU 2, IESS & c1ock, OUs1&3 VHF COMM MOD 3.

9. How long wlll the emergency lights last once illuminated (powered by ELPU's internai
batteries)?

a. Approximately 25 minutes.
b. Approximately 10 minutes.
c. Approximately 15 minutes.
d. Approximately 30 minutes.

10. How many DVDR(s) are installed?

a. 2- (1 mid e-bay and 1 aft).

b. 3- (2 forward and 1 aft).
c. 1- (1 forward).
d. 2- (1 forward and 1 aft).

11. During cruise below 37000ft, the nominal differential pressure Is llmited to:

a. 8.3 PSIO.
b. 7.8 PSID.
c. 7.9 PSID.
d. 8.7 PSID.

12. Pushing the dump swltch on the pressurization panel ln the cockpit:

a. Will depressurize the cabin to a maximum of 12400ft cabin altitude, and deactivates the ECS
packs.
b. Will depressurize the cabin to a maximum of 10000ft cabin altitude.
c. Will depressurize the cabin to a maximum of 12000ft cabin altitude, and deactivates the
recirculation fans.
d. Will depressurize the cabin to a maximum of 12400ft cabin altitude, and deactivates the
recirculation fans and the ECS packs.
 FLIGHT CREW KNOWLEDGE
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2016

rOlf'al al• marac QUESTIONNAIRE Questions

13. The warning message CABIN ALTITUDE Hl together with a red cabin altitude indication will be
displayed whenever the cabin altitude exceeds:

a. 10400ft.
b. 9700ft.
C.

12400ft. d.
14000ft.

14. The emergency ram air valve is commanded open:

a. If Pack2 is commanded/failed OFF, and the altitude is less than 20000ft.

b. If Pack1 and Pack2 are commanded/failed off, and the altitude is more than 25000ft.
c. If Pack2 is commanded/failed OFF, and the altitude is more than
a. 20000ft.
d. If Pack1 and Pack2 are commanded/failed off, and the altitude is less than 25000ft.

15. During normal operation, the conditioned air consists of:

a. 52 percent fresh air and 48 percent recirculation air.

b. 40 percent fresh air and 60 percent reclrculation air.
c. 52 percent recirculatlon air and 48 percent fresh air.
d. 75 percent fresh air and 25 recirculation air.

16. The Cabin Pressure Control System consists of the following main components:

a. One cabin pressure controller, one cabin outflow valve, one negative relief valve, one positive
pressure relief valve and one static port.
b. Two cabin pressure controllers, one cabin outflow valve, one negative relief valve and one
static port.
c. One cabin pressure controller, one cabin outflow valve, one negative relief valve, two positive
pressure relief valves and one static port.
d. Two cabin pressure controllers, one cabin outflow valve, two positive pressure relief valves
and two static ports.

17. Cabin zone temperature control:

a. Can only be controlled using the PAX/GABIN selector knob in the cockpit.
b. Can be transferred from the cockpit control panel to the flight attendant contrai panel.
c. 1s set by an automatic temperature sensor behind the cabin wall paneling.
d. Can only be controlled using the respective knob on the flight attendant contrai panel.

18. The Positive pressure relief valve (safety valve) opens independently whenever the
differential pressure exceeds:

a. 7.9 PSID.
b. 8.4 PSID.
c. 8.6 PSID.
d. 7.7 PSID.
 FLIGHT CREW KNOWLEDGE
CHECK DECEMBRE

2016
JdJ,o,i&j
•-a• airmarac QUESTIONNAIRE Questions

19. Which of the following components regulate the air flow into the ECS packs?

a. The Flow Contrai Valve.

b. The fan air modulation valve.
c. The Trim Contrai Valve.
d. The Conditioned air Check Valve.

20. The CPCS calculates a target cabin altitude for each of the following CPCS fllght modes:

a. Taxi, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent and land.

b. Takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, approach and abort.
c. Ground, taxi, takeoff, climb, cruise, descent and abort.
d. Takeoff, climb, cruise, descent, land and abort.

21. Where is bleed air extracted from the angines?

a. From the 5th LP and 9th HP stage compressors, the System alternates between valves to
regulate an adequate and safe pressure.
b. From the 6th LP and the 10th LP stages of the compresser on the ground and from the 10th
LP stage compresser in the air.
c. The System alternates between the low stage bleed valve and high stage bleed valve to
regulate an adequate and safe pressure.
d. From the 6th HP and 10th HP stage compressors, the System alternates between valves to
regulate an adequate and safe pressure.

22. The CPCS (Cabin Pressure Control System) ABORT mode is set active when:

a. The airplane stops climbing.

b. Cruise mode was not activated.
c. Pressure altitude is less than 10.000 ft. or airplane is lower than 5.000ft above takeofffield
elevation.
d. Ali the above.

23. What keeps the 3 avionic E-BAYs temperature cool?

a. FWD & CTR E-BAY 3 fans each pull air from cockpit (FWD) or cabin
a. (CTR) to bay, in AFT E-BAY no fan is installed.
b. FWD, CTR & AFT E-BAY 3 fans each pull air from cabin (AFT and CTR) or cockpit (FWD) to
bay.
c. FWD & CTR E-BAY 3 fans each pull air from cockpit and cabin to bay, AFT E-BAY 2 fans pull
air from cabin to bay.
d. FWD, CTR & AFT E-BAY use natural air-flow from upper cabin deck to E-bays expelled than
towards the underflow recirculation bay.

24. How many AMS controllers are installed?

a. Two controllers which contrai the respective onside system.

b. One controller which contrais the air packs system.
c. One controller with 2 channe1s which control the respective onside system (normal operation).
d. Two controllers, one for the cockpit and one for the forward cabin (aft cabin option) which
contrai the air flow in the respective area (normal operation).
 FLIGHT CREW KNOWLEDGE
CHECK DECEMBRE

♦ ,,,,.:w,
rowaJ air 1111cirac QUESTIONNAIRE
2016

Questions

25. A single pack can provide air for the entire ECS to a maximum altitude of:

a. 25000 ft.
b. 15000 ft.
c. 21000 ft.
d. 31000ft.

26. By pressing the NAV button the FMA annunciator displays:

a. GS, FLARE, NLOW.

b. FLCH, ASEL, ALT.
c. PTH, VGP, VAPP.
d. LNAV, LOC.

27. Pressing the center of the ALT selector knob does what:

a. De-activates the Holding Altitude.

b. Selects a new altitude.
c. Activates the Holding Altitude.
d. Provides the selected ALT in METERS to be displayed on the PFD.

28. What actions trip the autopilot?

a. Ali the other answers are correct.

b. The fly by wire system in direct mode , aileron and efevat or system disconnects.
c. A column and control wheel force monitor sensor trips.
d. Manual trim or quick dise switches actlvated, column shakers are activated.

29. Pressing the backup trim switch with autopilot engaged:

a. Primary serves are re-engaged.

b. The auto-pilot disconnects.
c. Lateral control retums to previous selected lateral mode.
d. The airplane maintains the new requested ait.

30. What are the default bank factors for EN ROUTE and TERMINAL (within 30 NM from
ARR/DEP airport)? What is the bank angle limit in case of BANK button selection on the
Guidance Panel?

a. EN ROUTE 15°, TERMINAL 20°, 17° for BANK selection on GP.

b. EN ROUTE 25°, TERMINAL 30°, 17° for BANK selection on GP.
c. EN ROUTE 25°, TERMINAL 25°, 15° for BANK sefe ction on GP.
d. EN ROUTE 45°, TERMINAL 20°, 20° BANK selection on GP.
 FLIGHT CREW KNOWLEDGE
CHECK DECEMBRE

♦
•- ■I■I P ltl ■PDC QUESTIONNAIRE
2016

Questions

31. Where the takeoff crossbars guide to ?

a. Lateral: Maintain wings level (roll mode then track mode). Pitch attitude: Maintain pitch
guidance according to slat/flap setting, airplane weight and V2 speed.
b. Lateral: lnitially maintain first track of the selected SID. Maintain a fixed pitch according to the
slaVflaps in use.
c. Lateral: Maintain selected heading. Pitch attitude: Maintain pitch guidance according to
preflight input on the MCDU.
d. Lateral: Maintain wings level (roll mode). Pitch attitude: Maintain a fixed pitch according to the
slaVflaps in use.

32. Can the yaw damper be deactivated if the autopilot is on?

a. No.
b. Yes, it can be disengaged independently of the AP status.
c. Only when a lateral mode is selected.
d. Yes, only when FO is de-activated and the autopilot is in basic lateral mode (ROLL).

33. on takeoff, when the auto-throttle will engage during the ground roll? And in flight?

a. On ground: AT button is armed & speed > 60 kts; in flight: AT is armed & airplane > 200' AGL.
b. On ground: AT button is armed & TLA > 50°; in flight: AT is armed & airplane > 400' AGL.
c. On ground: AT is armed & TLA > 50°; in flight: AT is armed & airplane > 1000' AGL.
d. On ground: AT TO is armed & speed > 60 kts; in flight: AT is armed & airplane > 400' AGL.

34. What is the working principle of auto throttle SPDe? Which auto throttle mode use(s)
SPDe?

a. Speed on Elevator, thrust is fixed and pitch trim is adjusted to maintain desired airspeed;
FLCH use SPDe for climbs and descents.
b. Speed on Elevator, thrust is fixed and pitch is adjusted to maintain selected airspeed: FLCH
and OVSP use SPDe for climbs and descents.
c. Speed on Elevator, thrust is adjusted to maintain selected airspeed; FPA, VS, GS, ALT, ASEL
use SPDe for climbs and descents.
d. Speed on Elevator, thrust is fixed and pitch is adjusted to maintain airspeed: FPA, VS, GS,
ALT, ASEL use SPDe for climbs and descents.

35. During a normal APU shutdown what services are available?

a. Electrics only.
b. No services are available.
c. Conditioning air only.
d. Electrics and conditioning air.

36. What causes the APU to automatically shut down on the ground?

a. Over speed, under speed, FADEC critical fault.

b. Ali the other answers are correct.
c. APU tire, EGT over temp, sensor failure.
d. APU high oil temperature, APU low oil pressure.
 FLIGHT CREW KNOWLEDGE
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2016

•DJral al• ma•ac QUESTIONNAIRE Questions

37. What is the maximum altitude for conditloning air operation from the APU?

a. 25000ft.
b. 15000ft.
C. 33000ft.
d. 21000ft.

38. Pushing the emergency stop button on the APU panel's causes:

a. A red bar to appear in the button.

b. The fire extinguisherto be armed.
c. APU to stop immediately.
d. APU to stop after 2 minute cool down period.

39. What happens If the APU selector knob is turned back to ON during the cool down period?

a. This action cancels the shutdown.

b. The APU will shut down immediately and the fire extingulsher will be armed.
c. "APU DISAG. caution message on EICAS.
d. APU will stop after the cool down period anyway.

40. What causes the APU to automatically shut down in the air?

a. Over speed, FADEC critical fault, under speed.

b. APU fire, over speed, FADEC critical fault, under speed.
c. APU fire, EGT over temp, over speed.
d. APU high oil temperature, FADEC critical fault, APU low oil pressure.

41. Which fuel pump provldes fuel for APU (no crossfeed considered)?

a. AC powered aircraft: AC fuel pump 2.

b. Right engine running: Ejector fuel pump.
c. Batteries "ON" only: DC fuel pump in right tank.
d. Ali the other answers are correct.

42. What is the maximum altitude to assist engine start in flight with the APU?

a. 25000ft.
b. 15000ft.
C. 21000ft.
d. 30000
ft.

43. What is the APU maximum continuous EGT?

a. 1032"C.
b. 662°C.
c. 717°C.
d. 740"C.
 FLIGHT CREW KNOWLEDGE
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·
2016

r..-a1 air marac QUESTIONNAIRE Questions

44. What does the AVAIL lamp on the overhead electrical panel mean?

a. There ls a failure ln the ground power unit.

b. The DC extemal power is connected and all parameters are correct.
c. The AC extemal power is powering the aircraft systems.
d. The extemal power is connected and all quality requirements are satl sfied.

45. The STBY AC BUS is normally powered by the ESS AC BUS. lt wlll be powered by the
jnverter?

a. When RAT is operating.

b. After the loss of two IDGs.
c. After the less of one IDG.
d. When the aircraft is pewered by batteries only.

46. When IDG1 or IDG2 is selected off:

a. The generator is energized and the line contacter is closed.

b. The generator is de-energized and the llne contacter is open.
c. The generator is de-energized and the line contacter s closed.
d. The generator is energized and the line contacter is open.

47. Can you reconnect the IDG in flight?

a. Yes.
b. Yes, but is not allowed due to short-circuit in generator line.
c. Yes by cycling in the IDG push-button.
d. No.

48. If the APU 1s avallable and one engine generator fails, the failed generator is replaced by:

a. The APU generator.

b. The RAT generator.
c. The other engine generator.
d. The inverter via AC STBY BUS.

49. What components power the AC system?

a. 2 Integrated Drive Generaters (IDGs) and one Auxiliary Power Unit ( APU) generator.
b. An inverter and the Ram Air Turbine (RAT).
c. AC Greund Power Unit (GPU) receptacle.
d. Ali the abeve items.

50. What components power the DC system?

a. 3 Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs), DC GPU receptacle, 2 NiCad batteries.

b. 3 Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs), RAT generator, 2 NiCad batteries.
c. 3 Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs), 2 Integrated Drive Generators, 2 NiCad batteries.
d. DC GPU receptacle, 2 NiCad batteries, 2 lnverter.
 FLIGHT CREW KNOWLEDGE
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·
2016

•qal airma•119c QUESTIONNAIRE Questions

51. How does the Integrated Drive Generator (IDG) maintain a stable power output?

a. A dedicated Generator Control Unit (GCU) monitors and controls each IDG.
b. A Constant Speed Drive (CSD) attaches the IDG to the AGB (Accessory Gear Box).
c. Via the engine FADEC input to the IDG.
d. The main IDG power inverter.

52. The IDG and APU power output are:

a. IDG and APU: 115/230 VAC, 400 Hz, 50 KVA three phase.
b. IDG: 115VAC, 400 Hz, 40 KVA-APU: 28 VACS, 40 KVA.
c. IDG and APU: 115 VAC, 400 Hz, 40 KVA, three-phase.
d. IDG: 115VAC, 400 Hz, 40 KVA-APU: 115 VACS, 400 Hz, 30 KVA.

53. What is the normal electrlcal source priority order?

a. Respective IDG, opposite IOG, APU, GPU.

b. APU, respective IDG, opposite IDG, GPU.
c. Respective IDG, APU, GPU, opposite IDG.
d. GPU, respective IDG, opposite IDG, APU.

54. What controls the Fuel Metering Unit?

a. A mechanical link to the throttle lever.

b. An electrical link direct to the throttle lever.
c. The FMU is self-controlled.
d. The FADEC.

55. What type of engine 1s the General Electric CF34-10E?

a. High-Bypass two spool turbofan.

b. Low-Bypass twin spool turbofan.
c. High-Bypass triple spool turbofan.
d. Low-Bypass turbojet.

56. during normal engine start:

a. The FADEC opens and closes the Starter Control Valve automatically.
b. The pilot opens and closes the Starter Contrai Valve manually.
c. The FAOEC opens the Starter Control Valve and the Pilot closes it.
d. The pilot opens the Starter Contrai Valve and the FADEC closes it.

57. Each thrust reverser half has:

a. 4 air driven actuators.

b. 2 hydraulic actuators.
c. 2 air driven actuators.
d. 2 electrical actuators.
 FLIGHT CREW KNOWLEDGE
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2016

PDV ■I alP ftHIPDC QUESTIONNAIRE Questions

58. Does the FADEC provide engine start protection?

a. Yes, only on the ground for hot start, hung start.

b. No.
c. Yes, only on the ground for hot start, hung start or no light-off.
d. Yes only in flight for hot start and hung start.

59. What will trigger an ATTCS event?

a. Difference between both engine N1 values is greater than 15%.

b. One engine failure during takeoff or go around.
c. Windshear detected.
d. Ali the above, provided the system is armed and thrust levers at TOGA positi on.

60. What does the cyan line on the N1 gauge display during approach?

a. Normal N1 operating range.

b. Maximum N1 for the engine thrust rating mode indicated on EICAS.
c. The minimum N1 value to meet bleed requirements in icing conditions, conflgured for landing
below 1200' RA,
d. lndicates the N1 limit in the event of a GA, conflgured for landing below 1200' RA.

61. How can the Go-Around (GA) thrust be achieved?

a. The GA is achieved in flight pushing the TOGA button on the thrust levers below 2500ft.
b. The GA is achieved in flight whenever the flaps reach the landing configuration with the
landing gear down.
c. The GA can be achieved any time in flight when thrust rate mode is other than take off and
thrust lever are set to TOGA.
d. The GA is achieved in case of Windshear detection.

62. How much thrust do the angines produce according to the Take Off ratings and in the event
of OEI (ATTCS ON when available)?

a. TO-1: 18000 lbs. AEO and OEI, TO-2: 17100 lbs. AEO and OEI, TO- 3: 14550 lbs. AEO and
16900 lbs. OEI.
b. TO-1: 18000 lbs. AEO and 18500 OEI, T0-2: 17100 lbs. AEO and 18500 lbs. OEI, TO-3:
15450 lbs. AEO and 16650 lbs. OEI.
c. TO-1: 20000 lbs. AEO and OEI, TO-2: 18500 lbs. AEO and 18500 lbs. OEI, TO-3: 14500 lbs.
AEO and 16650 lbs. OEI.
d. TO-1: 18500 lbs. AEO and OEI, TO-2: 17100 lbs. AEO and 18500 lbs. OEI, TO-3: 15450 lbs.
AEO and 16650 lbs. OEI.
 FLIGHT CREW KNOWLEDGE
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2016

r..-a1 air marac QUESTIONNAIRE Questions

63. The lavatory Flre Extinguisher is:

a. Activated automatically into the waste bin when a lavatory tire is detected by the lavatory
smoke detector.
b. Activated manually from the cockpit or the fllght attendant panel.
c. Activated automatically when a certain temperature has been reached.

64. Pushing the test button on the fire extinguisher panel in the cockpit will:

a. Test the engine and APU fire detection system.

b. Test the engine and APU fire detection system as well as the cargo smoke detection system.
c. Test the engine, the APU and the lavatory fire detection system.

65. ln the event of an APU fire on ground:

a. The APU will continue ta run until the APU emergency stop switch is pressed.
b. The APU will shut down after 10 seconds.
c. The APU will shut down immediately and the extinguisher bottle is armed.
d. After 10 seconds the APU will shut down and the APU fire extinguisherdischarges the tire
bottle.

66. What is the power source for engine and APU fire detection and
Extinguishing?

a. Engine and APU detection and extinguishing: HOT BATI BUS 1 and 2, engine and APU
detection and extinguishing: MAU 2 and 3.
b. Engine detection and extinguishing: DC ESS BUS 1 and 2, APU detection and extinguishing:
DC EMER BUS 1.

c. Engine extinguishing: HOT BATT BUS1 and 2, engine detection: MAU 1 and 3,
APU extinguishing: OC ESS BUS 2, APU detection: MAU 1 and 3.
d. Engine detection and extinguishing: DC HOT BATT BUS 1 and 2, APU detection and
extinguishing: DC ESS BUS 2.

67. How many extinguishing bottle (s) are installed for the cargo compartments?

a. 1 Halon bottle connected with the APU EXT system.

b. 1 Halon bottle dedicated to the cargo compartments only.
c. 2 identical bottles for both compartments.
d. 2 bottles used for both compartment, 1 high and 1 low rate.

68. What is the difference between the high rate and low rate extinguishing bottles lnstalled for
the cargo compartments?

a. High-rate bottle saturates the compartment immediately; Law-rate bottle maintains saturation
over a specific time span (60 min).
b. High-rate bottle saturates the compartment immediately; Low-rate bottle maintains saturation
over a specific time span (30 min).
c. Law-rate bottle saturates the compartment immediately; High-rate bottle maintains saturation
over a specific time span (60 min).
d. High-rate is used for FWD, while the low rate is used for AFT cargo.
 FLIGHT CREW KNOWLEDGE
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♦
f'- lf Dlf' fflllf"aC QUESTIONNAIRE
2016

Questions

69. ln the event of an APU fire, the extinguisher automatically discharges?

a. Yes.
b. Only on the ground, 10 seconds after the APU fire warning on EICAS.
c. No.
d. Yes, on the ground 1 minute after the APU fire warning on EICAS.

70. What happens when a cargo extinguishing button is pushed if smoke?

Has been detected by EICAS?

a. Airplane in flight: high-rate bottle discharges immediately, low-rate bottle discharges after 1
min automatically.
b. Airplane in flight: high-rate bottle discharges immediately, low-rate bottle will not discharges
automatically.
c. Airplane on the graund: high-rate bottle discharges immediately, for the low-rate battre, cargo
extinguishing button must be pushed again.
d. Answer a. and c. are correct.

71. What is the correct sequence of slat/flap extension and retraction?

a. Flaps extend first, while slats retract first.

b. Bath surfaces move together.
c. Slats extend and retract first.
d. Slats extend first, while flaps retract first.

72. Hydraulic system 3 powers which elevator PCU?

a. Left outboard.
b. Left and right outboard.
c. Right outboard.
d. Left and right inboard.

73. ln case of a single electric motor failure within the flap PDU how will the system operate?

a. The flap/slat system will be shutdown.

b. The flap/slat has to be retracted to the previous position immediately.
c. The flap/slat system will operate at low rate speed.
d. The flap/slat system will operate norrnally.

74. Following ajammed control column (pitch). When the Elev Dise Handle is pulled:

a. The unrestricted contrai column contrais one PCU on each elevator.

b. The unrestricted contrai column contrais bath halfs of the elevator.
c. The elevator is controlled via the trim switches.
d. The unrestricted contrai column contrais its own side elevator.
 FLIGHT CREW KNOWLEOGE
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·
r..-ar air maroc QUESTIONNAIRE
2016

Questions

75. Which of the following systems are NOT driven by Fly-By-Wire (FBW) technology?

a. The flaps and slats (electra-mechanical contrai system), and the ailerons (hydro-mechanical
contrai system).
b. The horizontal stabilizer (electro-mechanical contrai system), and the ailerons.
c. Ali the flight contrais are Fly-By-Wire.
d. The ailerons only; ait other flight contrai systems are driven by Fly-By-Wire technology.

76. The two aileron PCUs per side operate the aileron surface:

a. ln a contrai/monitor configuration.
b. ln an active/active configuration.
c. ln an active/standby configuration.
d. ln standby configuration only.

77. The flight control system can operate in normal or direct mode. Which
of the following statements concerning the two different modes is true?

a. ln direct mode, the P-ACE unit is removed from the control loop.
b. ln direct mode, other aircraft systems contrai the P-ACE.
c. ln direct mode, FCM commands are removed from the control loop.
d. ln direct mode, FCM commands are added to the pilot input commands.

78. The HS-ACE responds to:

a. Trim commands from the autopilot only.

b. Elevator position commands via the FCM.
c. Trim commands from the contrai column only.
d. Trim command from the Backup trim, Pilot trim, Co-Pilot trim and FCM trim inputs.

79. A single trim command for yaw and pitch is limited to:

a. 7 seconds.
b. 5 seconds.
c. 3 seconds.
d. 4 seconds.

80. The Elevator Thrust Compensation (ETC) function, stabilizing the airerait around the pitch
axis, will be available:

a. Only in case of engine failure.

b. ln direct and normal mode, as it is computed in the P-ACE unit.
c. ln normal mode only, as it is computed in the FCM unit.
d. Only when the autopilot is engaged, as it is computed in the AFCS.
 FLIGHT CREW KNOWLEDGE
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2016

r8S'al air maroc QUESTIONNAIRE Questions

81. When will the speed brakes automatically retract even if the lever shows deployed?

a. ln case of engine failure.

b. Upon selection of Flaps 2 or above, airspeed < 210 kts, TLA > 60°,engine failure:
c. Upon selection of Flaps 2 or above, airspeed < 180 kts, TLA > 70°,
d. Upon selection of Flaps 1 or above, airspeed < 210 kts, TLA > 70°;

82. The Air Data System is comprised of what components?

a. 4 ADSPs, 2 TAT probes, 3 ADAs and the Baro Set on the GP.
b. 4 ADSPs, 2 TAT probes, 2 ADAs and the Baro Set on the GP.
c. 2 ADSPs, 2 TAT probes, 3 ADAs and the Baro Set on the GP.
d. 4 ADSPs, 4 TAT probes, 2 ADAs and the Baro Set on the GP.

83. What does selecting SECTOR SCAN on the weather radar do?

a. Reduces the sweep angle to ±30 degrees and increases the sweep rate to 24spm.
b. Reduces the sweep angle to ±90 degrees and increases the sweep rate to 24spm.
c. Reduces the sweep angle to ±30 degrees and increases the sweep rate to 42spm.
d. Reduces the sweep angle to ±60 degrees and increases the sweep rate to 24spm.

84. Which IRS is the primary source for the Captain PFD?

a. IRS 1.
b. IRS3.
c. IRS 1 and 2.
d. IRS2.

85. What Powers the IESS in case of electrical emergency?

a. RAT or Batteries.
b. RAT only.
c. lnverter.
d. RAT, lnverter or Batteries.

86. What is the primary means of radio tuning?

a. CCD.
b. Audio Panel.
c. MCDU.
d. PFD via CCD imput.

87. With the angines running, through which pumps are the engines and the APU fed?

a. The primary ejector pumps.

b. The electrical DC pumps.
c. The engine driven fuel pumps.
d. The electrical AC pumps.
 FLIGHT CREW KNOWLEDGE
CHECK DECEMBRE

2016
.,u
PIQ'al air fflGl'IIIC
QUESTIONNAIRE Questions

88. What is the purpose of the wing surge tanks?

a. The surge tanks are used ta refuel and defuel only.

b. The surge tanks collect the fuel during wing-down or an uncoordinated flight maneuvers.
c. The surge tanks are designed to avoid a fuel tank rupture in a case of an uncontained engine
rotor burst.
d. The surge tanks ensure continuous fuel feed to the engine throughout the whole flight
envelope.

89. The OC fuel pump:

a. ls located in the right wing tank and can be used in flight and on the ground.
b. ls located in the left tank and operates automatically.
c. ls located in the right wing tank and is only used on the ground.
d. ls located in the left wing tank and can be used for APU start only.

90. Which is the primary fuel pump?

a. Venturi ejector pump üet pump) with no moving part and no electrical power.
b. Electrical DC fuel pump.
c. Engine driven fuel pump.
d. Electrical AC pump.

91. What is the purpose of the scavenge pumps?

a. Back-up in case of primary ejector pump failure.

b. Maintain fuel level in the collecter tank.
c. Prevent fuel spillage via NACA inlet during uncoordinated flight maneuvers.
d. Engine start in case of electrical DC pumps sudden failure.

92. What is the purpose of the AC main fuel pump?

a. Back-up pump in case of primary ejector pump failure and onside angine start, APU feed
when engine is net running.
b. Back-up pump in case of primary ejector pump failure, onside engine start, cross feed
operations, APU feed when angine is net running.
c. Back-up pump in case of primary ejector pump failure, cross feed operations and APU start
(when AC power available).
d. Used for APU or onside engine start if DC power or the DC main pump is not available.

93. Which Electric Hydraulic pumps are automatically switched on for Take-Off and Landing?

a. Ali Electric Hydrautic pumps.

b. System 3, Electric Hydraulic "A" pump.
c. System 3, Electric Hydraulic "B" pumps.
d. System 1 and 2.
 FLIGHT CREW KNOWLEDGE
CHECK DECEMBRE

♦
•owal al• ma,a1: QUESTIONNAIRE
2016

Questions

94. Hydraulic system 3 powers which flight controls?

a. Rudder, Right Elevator and both Ailerons.

b. Rudder, Left Elevator and right Aileron.
c. Rudder, Right Elevator and right Aileron.
d. Rudder, bath Elevators and bath Allerons.

95. The PTU transfers hydraulic power from system 1 to system 2 to guarantee normal
operation of which systems?

a. Ali the other answers are correct.

b. Flaps and slats.
c. Ail primary Flight Contrais.
d. Landing Gear.

96. When the PTU automatically activate during tlo and landing in normal operation?

a. With landing gear not up and locked if engine 2 fails or EDP 2 fails.
b. With landing gear not up and locked if ACMP 3A or EDP 2 fails.
c. With flaps not set to O or landing gear not up and locked, if englne 2 fails or EDP 2 fails (EDP
1 not failed and HYD reservoir 2 qty > 12 %).
d. With flaps not set to O or landing gear not up and locked if englne 1 fai1s or EDP 1 fails (EDP 2
not failed and HYD reservoir 2 qty > 12 %).

97 When are the ADSP and TAT probe heaters powered?

a. Whenever the Engines are running.

b. Whenever there is AC power.
c. When the aircraft is in flight (WOW equal to true).
d. When the TLA is greater than 60 degrees and airspeed is above 45kts.

98. With the lce Protection Mode Selector Knob set to ON. When will the Engine A/1 system
operate?

a. Whenever the Engines are running.

b. Whenever the Engines are running and ice is detected.
c. At 1700ft AGL or 2 min after liftoff .
d. At liftoff.

99. ln the event of a failure in the PSEM electronics, the landing gear should be extended by
means of?

a. The electrical override switch.

b. By resetting bath circuit breakers of the landinggear system and then extend the landing gear by
the altemate gear extension lever.
c. The altemate gear extension lever.
d. By resetting bath circuit breakers of the landing gear system and then recycle the normal landing
gear handle.
 FLIGHT CREW KNOWLEDGE
CHECK DECEMBRE

2016

,..,a, airmaroc QUESTIONNAIRE Questions

100. ln the event of multiple alerts:

a) the highest priority alert sounds first

b) it is always first in, first out
c) first warnings are sounded then whichever came in next
d) Only wamings are sounded