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MANGU HIGH SCHOOL POST-MOCK EXAM 2024

NAME…………………………………………………………………ADM NO……………........
DATE………………………………………………INDEX NO…………………..........................
SIGNATURE………………………PREV EXAM MARKS………………..TARGET………….

443/1
AGRICULTURE Paper 1
Time: 2 Hours
FORM 4 – AGRICULTURE PAPER 1
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
• Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided above.
• Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
• This paper consists of three section A,B and C
• Answer all the questions in section A and B any two questions from section C.
• Candidate should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
For Examiners Use Only

SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S

SCORE

A 1-20 30

B 21 - 24 20

C 20

TOTAL SCORE 90

Thispaper consists of 13 printed pages. Candidates should check to ascertain that all pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
SECTION A (30MARKS)

1. Give four advantages of intensive farming system. (2mks)

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2. Outline four indicators of well rotten compost manure (2 mks)
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3. Give two reasons why farmers must make a choice in the use of available resources (1 mk)
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4. What is working capital in a farming situation? (1mks)
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5. List any two characteristics of high potential zones in agriculture (1mk)
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6. Name the form of soil water that is available to crops (1mk)
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7. Distinguish between GDP and GNP (2mks)
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8. Differentiate between pomoculture and olericulture (1mk)
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9. State how each of the following lead to loss of soil fertility
(a) Leaching (1mk)
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(b) Monocropping (1mk)
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10. State four cultural methods of soil and water conservation (2mks)
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11. State two reasons of earthing up the maize field (1mk)
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12. Give four reasons why seeds may fail to germinate (2mks)
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13. State three conditions that have led to fragmentation and sub-division of agricultural land
in Kenya. (1 ½ mks)
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14. Give two appropriate methods of controlling couch grass in a maize field (1mk)
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15. Give three advantages of inorganic fertilizers over organic manure (1 ½ mks)
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16. State two pests that attack cabbages (1 mk)
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17. Distinguish between pinching out and coppicing as used in crop production (1mk)
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18. State four pieces of information contained in an invoice (2 mks)
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19. State four advantages of tractor hire services. (2 mks)
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20. At the price of Ksh 3000, 41 bags of irish potatoes were bought at Wakulima market. At
the price of
Ksh 4000 per bag 30 bags were bought. Calculate the elasticity of demand showing your
working.
(2 mks)
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SECTION B (20MARKS)
• Answer all the questions on this section in the spaces provided.
21. 21.
Fixed input Variable input Total product Average product Marginal product
Land maize in 90 kg maize in 90 kg maize in 90 kg
DAP in 30kg
bag bag bags
bag

1 0 2

1 1 5 ....................... ……………

1 2 14 ……………… ……………

1 3 21 …………… ……………
(a) Fill in the blank spaces in the table above to show the average product (AP) and
marginal product (MP) values (3 mks)
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(b) Give two variable costs that the farmer whose production is illustrated above
incurred (2mks)
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22. The diagram below illustrates a feature observed after digging the soil several meters
deep. Study the diagram carefully and answer the questions that follow

(a) Identify the feature that the diagram above represents in the study of the soil (1mk)
....................................................................................................................................................
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(b) Name the parts of the diagram labelled
A
......................................................................................................................................... (1 mk)
B
........................................................................................................................................ (1 mk)
C
…………………………………….………………………………………………….. (1 mk)
(c) State one way in which the knowledge of the above feature would be of benefit to
a farmer (1mk)
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23. The diagram below illustrates a nursery practice carried out on tree seedlings before
transplanting, Study it carefully then answer the questions that follow

(a) Identify the practice being carried out on the diagram ( 1 mk)

(b) Give two reasons why the practice is encouraged when raising seedlings ( 2 mks)

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24. Identify the method of pegging tea shown in the diagrams below

(a)

(i) The pegging method is ....................................................................................... (1 mk)

(ii) The pegging method is ........................................................................................ (1 mk)

(b) Give three reasons for pruning coffee plants (3 mks)

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SECTION C (40MARKS)
• Answer any two questions from this section in the spaces provided after
questions.

25. (a)
(i) Prepare a balance sheet for Mr Bahati’s farm from the following information
extracted from his farm records on 31st December 2017
(9 ½ mks)
Item Ksh

Cash at hand 5,000

Cash in bank 50,000

Bank overdraft to Jamii bank 20,000

Debt payable to cooperative society 30,000

Debt receivable from Brookside dairy Ltd 15,000

Tax payable to KRA 2,000

Dairy Cattle 60,000

100 Layers 20,000

Maize in store 40,000

Beans in store 8,000

Farm tools in store 10,000

Tractor 350,000

Land 800,000

KCB loan 300,000

(ii) State whether Mr Bahati’s farm is solvent or insolvent stating the reason for your
answer ( ½ mk)

(b) Explain five reasons why seedlings are raised in a nursery

(5 mks)

(c) Explain five farming practices that destroy soil structure

(5 mks)
26. (a) Describe five ways through which soil loses fertility
(10 mks)
(b) Describe field production of Nappier elephant grass under the following sub heading
(i) Seed bed preparation
(6 mks)
(ii) Utilization
(4 mks)

27. (a) State problems experienced by farmers while marketing agricultural produce. Suggest
Solutions to the problems you have mentioned
(10 mks)

(b) Explain five factors considered in choosing seed rates

(5 mks)
(c) Explain five importance’s of drainage as a land reclamation method
(5 mks)
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MANGU HIGH SCHOOL POST-MOCK EXAM 2024

443/2
Agriculture
Paper 2
Time: 2 Hours
FORM 4 – AGRICULTURE PAPER 2

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

(a) Write your name, Admission number and date in the spaces provided.
(b) This paper consists of three sections; A, B and C.
(c) Answer All questions in Section A and B in the spaces provided.
(d) Answer any two questions in Section C in the spaces provided

For Examiners use only.

SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S

SCORE SCORE
A 1-17 30

B 18-22 20

C 20

TOTAL 90

SECTION A

1. Name four dairy breeds of goats. (2 mks)

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2. Outline two control measures of roundworm. (1 mk)

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3. State four maintenance practice carried on a wheelbarrow. (2 mks)

4. Give three ways of transmitting livestock diseases. (1 ½ mks)

5. State the appropriate use of each of the following farm tool.

i) Stock and die (1 mk)

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ii) Oil stone (1 mk)

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6. Distinguish between zoonotic disease and a notifiable disease. (2 mks)

7. State four reasons for keeping livestock healthy. (2 mks)

8. a) What is the intermediate host for liverfluke. (1 mk)

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b) What is the duration of oestrus cycle in a cow. (1 mk)

9. State two advantages of upgrading cattle. (2 mks)

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10. Give the functions of the following parts of a reciprocating mower.

a) swath stick ( ½ mk)

b) Shoe ( ½ mk)

c) Cutter bar ( ½ mk)

11. Give two functions of the albumen in an egg. (2 mks)

12. State four qualities of good wool. (2 mks)

13. Give two reasons why honey harvesting is discouraged at night. (2 mks)

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14. Which hormone stimulates milk let down? (1 mk)

15. Give two qualities of a creep feed. (2 mks)

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16. State two reasons for seasoning timber before use in construction. (2 mks)

17. Name the causal organisms of the following diseases.

a) Anthrax ( ½ mk)

b) Nagana ( ½ mk)

SECTION B

18. Study the diagram below carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Indicate below each diagram the conditions in the brooder. (4 mks)

19. Study the diagram below and answer the questions

i) Draw a line in the diagram indicating the correct position of debeaking the birds. (1 mk)

ii) Give the reasons for debeaking birds. (2 mks)

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20. Below are illustrations of animal hooves and an activity being done?
a) What activity is going on in the diagram F? ( ½ mk)

b) Which of the above hooves is likely to predispose foot rot infections? ( ½ mk)

c) Other than protecting animals from foot rot, give two other reasons for carrying out the above
activity. (2 mks)

21. The following is an illustration of a handsaw. Study it carefully and answer the questions
that follow.
a) Name the parts labelled.
F- (1 mk)
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G- (1 mk)
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b) Explain three maintenance practices that should be carried out on the part labelled H. (3 mks)

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22. The illustrations below represent the different stages of development of a three host tick.
Study it carefully and then answer the questions that follow.
a) Briefly explain what is happening in the following stages. (2 mks)
1–
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4–
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5–
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7–
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b) Why could it be difficult to control the above tick using acaricides? (1 mk)

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c) Name the most common sites the tick can be found on the body of an animal. (2 mks)

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SECTION C

23. (a) Describe the control measures of cannibalism in layers. (10 mks)
(b) State five maintenance practices of a mould board plough. (5 mks)
(c) State the advantages of a four stroke engine. (5 mks)

24. (a) Describe six effects of parasite on livestock (6 mks)

(b) Explain five reasons for maintaining farm tools and equipment (5 mks)
(c) Discuss the management of layers in a deep litter system (9 mks)

25. (a) Explain the practices observed in clean milk production (8 mks)
(b) Explain the importance of fences in a farm (12 mks)

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MANGU HIGH SCHOOL POST-MOCK EXAM 2024
NAME…………………………………………………………………ADM NO……………........

DATE………………………………………………INDEX NO…………………..........................

SIGNATURE………………………PREV EXAM MARKS………………..TARGET………….

FORM 4 – BIOLOGY PAPER 3

231/3
FORM 4
BIOLOGY PP3 CONFIDENTIAL

All students to be provided with the following

• Distilled water labeled solution P (50mls)

• Concentrated salt solution (20%) labeled solution Q (50mls)

• Onion bulb –one per student labeled K

• Scapel

• Petridish – Labelled R

• Ruler 30cm

•
MANGU HIGH SCHOOL POST-MOCK EXAM 2024
NAME…………………………………………………………………ADM NO……………........

DATE………………………………………………INDEX NO…………………..........................

SIGNATURE………………………PREV EXAM MARKS………………..TARGET………….

FORM 4 – BIOLOGY PAPER 1

231/1

FORM 4 BIOLOGY PAPER 1

Time: 2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
2. Answer all the questions in this paper.
3. Answers must be written in the spaces provided.
4. Additional pages must not be inserted.
5. This paper consists of 9 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ensure
that all the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

Questions Maximum Score Candidate Score

1-30
1(a) State two external features found in class Mammalia only. (2mks)

(b) Name the taxonomic unit that comes immediately after Family in classification. (1mk)

2 (a) Name the basic functional unit of the skeletal muscle. (1mk)

(b) Distinguish between a tendon and a ligament. (1mk)

3. (a) State two advantages of using a coverslip when preparing a specimen for observation

under the light microscope. (2mks)

(b) How is the low power objective lens manipulated to focus a specimen for observation

under a light miscroscope? (2mks)

4. Explain the significance of the following in the feeding of a mammal

(a) Long tongue in herbivores. (1mk)

(b) Canine in carnivores. (1mk)

5. Name the part of maize seed that elongates to bring about hypogeal germination. (1mk)

6. (a) State two characteristics of living organisms that are specific to plants. (2mks)

(b) State the name given to the study of;

i) The cell (1mk)

ii) Microorganisms (1mk)

7.What is the function of the following structures in the human reproductive organs;

(a) Fallopian tubes (1mk)

(b) Epididymis (1mk)

(c) Scrotal sac (1mk)

8. Under what conditions do animals use the following food for respiration;

(a) Carbohydrates (1mk)

(b) Fats (1mk)

(c) Tissue proteins (1mk)

10. Fingerlings of fish were introduced to two different ponds. Those fingerlings in pond one all

died within four days but the fingerlings in pond two survived. Suggest the likely reasons

why the fingerlings in one pond died. (3mks)

11. (a) State the functions of the following parts of a light microscope

i) Objective lens (1mk)

ii) Fine adjustment knob (1mk)

(b) Using a microscope a student counted 66 cells across the field of view whose diameter was

6000m. Calculate the average length of cells. Show your working.

12. Why is a change in dry mass of an organism the best indicator of growth? (2mks)
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13. Other than the visceral organs in the body name two other parts of the body where smooth

muscles are found. (2mks)

14. State the role of each of the following components of skin

a) Melanin (1mk)

b) Sebum (1mk)

c) Adipose tissue. (1mk)

15 How does a sunken stomata help a plant avoid excessive water during gaseous exchange? (3mks)

16. Name the substances produced as a result of anaerobic respiration in

i) Yeast (1mk)
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ii) Human muscles (1mk)

17. Why is Lamarck’s theory of evolution not accepted by biologist today? (2mks)

18. Give two reasons why animals have specialised organs for excretion as compared to plants.
(2mks)

19. The diagram below illustrate a response by a certain plant

(a) Name the type of response (1mk)

(b) Explain how the response illustrated above occurs (3mks)

20. (a) What is meant by the term wilting. (1mk)

(b) Explain how an increase in temperature affects the rate of active transport. (2mks)

21. Explain four adaptive characteristics features of respiratory surfaces. (4mks)

22. (a) State two advantages of complete metamorphosis to the life cycle of an insect. (2mks)

(b) Distinguish between primary and secondary growth in plants (2mks)

23. The table below shows the level of two gases X and Y, in blood entering and leaving the

lungs during the process of gas exchange.

Gas Level of gas in cm3 per/100cm of blood

Blood entering lungs Blood leaving lungs

X 10.6 19.0

Y 58.0 50.0

(a) Name gases X and Y. (2mks)

(b) How much gas X enters 100cm3 of blood, before the blood leaves the lungs. (2mks)

24. In a flower name the parts that make up;

i) Gynoecium (1mk)
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ii) Androecium (1mk)

25. State two sites for gaseous exchange in submerged aquatic plants. (2mks)

26. Viability of a seed is a necessary internal condition for germination. State two factors that

may lead to low viability. (2mks)

27. Name two disorders in human caused by chromosomal mutation. (2mks)

28. State two characteristics that researchers select in breeding programme. (2mks)

29. A man and his wife are able to roll their tongues but their children cannot. Rolling tongue

is controlled by a dominate gene. What are the genotypes of the parents. (Use letter T to

represent the gene for tongue rolling) (2mks)

30. State the economic importance of the following plants excretory products.

i) Papain (1mk)

ii) Colchicine (1mk)

(b) State two advantages of homiotherms over poikilotherms. (2mks)

END
MANGU HIGH SCHOOL POST-MOCK EXAM 2024
NAME…………………………………………………………………ADM NO……………........
DATE………………………………………………INDEX NO…………………..........................
SIGNATURE………………………PREV EXAM MARKS………………..TARGET………….

FORM 4 – BIOLOGY PAPER 2

231/2

FORM 4 BIOLOGY PAPER 2

TIME: 2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

6. Write your name, admission number and class in the spaces provided above.
7. Answer all the questions in Section A in the spaces provided.
8. In section B answer question 6 Compulsory and Either Question 7 or 8
9. This paper consists of 11 printed pages. Candidates should check the question paper to ensure
that all the pages are printed as indicated and that no questions are missing.
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

Questions Questions Maximum Score Candidate Score

A 1 8
2 8
3 8
4 8

5 8
B 6 20

7 20

8 20
TOTAL 80

SECTION A

1. The quantity of urine passed per day was established in five mammals A, B, C, D, and E of the

same species in the natural habitats. The results are ash shown in the following diagram;

(a) Which of the above mammals is likely to be excreting urine very high in ammonia? Explain

(2mks)

(b) Which of the five mammals was likely to be living in a desert? Explain (2mks)
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(d)Name two physiological mechanisms used in mammal D to regulate its salt and water

balance in the body. (2mks)

2. (a) State the function of the following parts of mammalian ear;

i) Tympanic membrane (1mk)

ii) Pinna (1mk)

iii) Ear ossicles (1mk)

(b) Give two defects of mammalian eye (2mks)

i) Name the structures labeled X and Y (2mks)

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ii) State the condition that lead to the change in appearance shown in the diagram labeled B
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3. A biologists carried out a study to investigate the growth of a certain species of herbivorous

fish and the factors influencing plant and animal life in four lakes A,B,C and D. The lakes

were located in the same geographical area.

Two of the lakes A and B were found to contain hard water due to the presence of high

content of calcium salts. The mean body length of 2 year old fish, amount of plant use and

invertebrates biomass in each lake were determined. The data was shown in the table below;

Lakes Means Type of Invertebrate biomass g/cm3

of fish water
body
length Amount insects snails crabs worms
(m) of plant
life

A 31.2 Hard 1050 11 300 10 180

B 38.6 Hard 950 72 100 9 90

C 18.4 Soft 1.2 79 0 2 20

D 16.3 soft 0.5 99 0 1 10

(a) Describe the procedure that may have been used to determine the mean body length of the

fish. (4mks)

(b)What are the likely reasons for the difference in mean body length of the fish living in lakes A

and D (2mks)

4. In an experiment to investigate a factor affecting photosynthesis a potted plant which had

been kept in the dark overnight was treated as shown in the diagram below and exposed to
light.

(a) why was the potted plant kept in the dark overnight? (1mk)

(b) Which factor was being investigated in the experiment? (1mk)

(ii) State the results obtained in the leaves labeled P and Q.

P (1mk)

Q (1mk)

P (1mk)

Q (1mk)

(iv) What was the purpose of the leaf Q in the experiment? (1mk)

5. The diagram below shows samples of blood obtained from two different persons A and B

(a) What genetic disorder is person B suffering from? (1mk)

person A and B. Show your working (5mks)

SECTION B

6.The data below represents levels of progesterone hormone produced in a female’s body within a
period of 34 days. Study the data and use it to answer the questions that follow

NB: The days were counted from the 1st day that menstruation was noticed.

Day Progesterone hormone concentration

in arbitrary units

1 6

2 5

3 3

4 2

5 1

6 1
8 1

10 2

12 4

14 7

16 8

20 9

22 10

24 10

26 10

28 10

30 11

32 11

34 11

(a) Plot a graph of progesterone concentration against time using a suitable scale. (6mks)
(b) Account for the progesterone levels in the blood between

i) Day 1 - day 5 (2mks)

ii) Day 14 – day 20 (2mks)

iii) Day 28 – day 35 (2mks)

(c) Name two structures that produce progesterone in females . (3mks)

(d) Suggest the process that usually takes place at day 14. (1mk)

(e) Suggest two other hormones that were in high concentration in the body of the female

between day 10 – 15 . Give reasons for your answer. (4mks)

8. (a) Describe the process of carbohydrates digestion in human beings. (12mks)

(b) Describe the flow of energy from the sun through the different trophic levels in an

Ecosystem (8mks)

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END.
MANGU HIGH SCHOOL POST-MOCK EXAM 2024
NAME…………………………………………………………………ADM NO……………........
DATE………………………………………………INDEX NO…………………..........................
SIGNATURE………………………PREV EXAM MARKS………………..TARGET………….

FORM 4 – BIOLOGY PAPER 3

231/3

FORM 4 BIOLOGY PAPER (PRACTICALS)

TIME: 1 ¾ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

10.
Write your name, class and admission number in the spaces provided above.
11.
Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided.
12.
Answer all questions in the spaces provided.
13.
You are required to spend the first 15 minutes of the 1 ¾ hours allowed for this paper reading
the whole paper carefully before commencing your work.
14. Additional pages must not be inserted.
15. This paper contains 6 printed pages
16. Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

Section Maximum Marks Candidate Score

1 13

2 16

3 11

TOTAL SCORE 40
1. The photograph below shows two (A and B ) skeletal limbs of a certain mammal

(a) (i) Which of the two (A and B) skeletons represents a forelimb? (1mk)

(ii) State two features observable on the Skeleton to confirm your answer in (a) (i) (2mks)

(b) Name the bones labeled J, K and M

J (1mk)

M (1mk)

(d) Name the type of joint formed at the part labeled H and L (1mk)

(e) Apart from bones, state the function of any two other components of a joint. (4mks)

Component Function

(a) Use the above specimen to complete the dichotomous key below (2mks)

1. (a) Leaf simple. ..................................................................................go to 2

(b) Leaf compound .......................................................................go to 4
2. (a) leaf with parallel veins. ............................................................ wandering jew
(b) Leaf with net veins................................................................... go to 3

3. (a) leaf with smooth margin ..................................... Devils horse whip

(b) Leaf with ................................................................................. Tick berry
4. (a) Leaf trifoliate.................................................................. go to 5
(b) Leaf with more than three leaflets. ........................................................go to 6

5. (a) Leaf with sharp tips........................................................................ Bean

(b) Leaf with rounded tips.................................................................... Oxalis

6. (a) Leaf pinnate ............................................................... Cassia

(b)Leaf ................................................................................................Accacia

(b) Use the dichotomous key above to fill the table below (14mks)

Specimen Steps Identity

C
D

3. You are provided with a specimen labeled K and solution labeled P and Q. Cut the

specimen into two halves.

(a) (i) Name the type of reproduction exhibited by specimen K (1mk)

(ii) Give a reason for your answer in a(i) above (1mk)

Using specimen K, remove some of the inner leaves. Cut the leaves along their lengths into nine strips
equal length. Each strip should be about 2mm wide. Place three strips into the solution labeled P, place
another three strips into the solution labeled Q and leave the last three strips in a petri dish labeled R.
Allow the experiment setup to stand for 10 minutes.

(b) Use your fingers to feel the texture of the strips. Record your observations (2mks)

i) Strips in solution P
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ii) Strips in solution Q

(c ) Account for the texture of the strips in the solution Q (4mks)

(d) Suggest the concentration of solution P in relation to the cell sap in the strips of the

specimen.
Give a reason for your answer (1mk)

(e) State the aim of the setup R (1mk)

END.
MANGU HIGH SCHOOL POST-MOCK EXAM 2024
NAME…………………………………………………………………ADM NO……………........

DATE………………………………………………INDEX NO…………………..........................

SIGNATURE………………………PREV EXAM MARKS………………..TARGET………….

FORM 4 – BUSINESS STUDIES PAPER 1

565/1
BUSINESS STUDIES Paper 1
Time: 2 hours

Instructions
❖ Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
TOTAL
1. State four reasons why people satisfy basic wants before secondary wants. (4 mks)

2. Write the type of accounts the following items fall under (4 mks)

ITEM TYPE OF ACCOUNT

a Discount received

b buildings

c Creditor kemboi

d capital

3. Highlight four assumptions of the circular flow of income in a two-sector economy (4 mks)
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4. Highlight four reasons why it is suitable to locate a bonded warehouse at a point of entry of a
country. (4 mks)
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5. State the type of unemployment described below (4 mks)
DESCRIPTION TYPE OF
UNEMPLOYMENT
a People lose jobs and spend time looking for a new job

b Unemployment occurs repeatedly at similar times

c Affects certain occupations such as the construction industry

d Workers unwilling to accept the current wage rate

6. State four reasons why a businessperson would prefer to use current account. (4 mks)

7. Highlight four ways that can be used to correct unfavorable balance of payment. (4 mks)
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8. State four internal economies of scale. (4 mks)

9. Indicate with a (+) for increase, (-) for decrease and a (0) for no change in totals of the balance
sheet following the transactions below: (4 mks)
TRANSACTION EFFECT
a A debtor paid by cash

b Paid creditors by cheque

c Bought goods on credit

d Withdrew cash from bank for office use

10. A trader wants to import a car from Japan. List four possible channels of distribution he will use.
(4 mks)
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11. Outline four benefits that accrue to business organizations that use the latest technology in
record keeping. (4 mks)
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12. Highlight four ways in which a business idea can be implemented. (4 mks)
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13. Outline any four ways through which producers co-operatives help agricultural development in
Kenya. (4 mks)
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14. Identify four types of small scale retail business without shops that wambui can run without a
shop. (4 mks)
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15. Why would an exporter prefer to use container services as a method of transport? (4 mks)
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16. The diagram shows a shift of a supply curve for a certain commodity. (4 mks)

State four reasons why the supply curve could have shifted from S0 to S1
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17. Given the items of Njoroge Wholesalers on 1st July 2000 (5 mks)
Building 780,000
Net loss 43,000
Additional investment 8,400
Stock 45,000
Creditors 32,000
Debtors 29,000
Loan 240,000
Overdraft 60,000
Weighing machine 17,000
Cash 30,000

Prepare a balance sheet as at that date

18. Highlight three features of cartels (3 mks)

b) Rate of return on capital employed (2 mks)

21. Outline four factors that may limit te development of a less-developed country. (4 mks)
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22. Highlight four factors that should be considered by a firm when deciding on the method to use
for promoting its products. (4 mks)
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23. Identify four types of taxes based on structure of taxes. (4 mks)
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24. Highlight four problems associated with determining consumer price index in an economy.
(4 mks)
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25. A farmer’s house valued at ksh. 1,200,000 was insured against fire for ksh. 900,000 under the
‘average clause’. Fire occurred and damaged the house causing a loss of ksh. 500,000.
Determine the value of compensation due to the farmer. (4 mks)

FORM 4 – BUSINESS STUDIES PAPER 2

565/2
BUSINESS STUDIES Paper 2
2 Hours 30minutes

Instructions to candidates

1. This paper consists of six questions.

2. Answer any five questions.

3. Write your answers in the answer booklet provided.

4. All questions carry equal marks.

Question one

a) Explain five means of payment that are provided by commercial banks. (10 mks)
b) Explain five reasons why small scale firms continue to exist in an economy dominated by
large scale firms. (10 mks)

Question two

a) Describe the procedure used in making an insurance claim. (10 mks)

b) Explain five disadvantages that a country may experience from imposing trade restrictions
on trading partners. (10 mks)

Question three

a) Discuss five factors to consider when choosing an office layout for a firm. (10 mks)
b) Explain fve challenges experienced by a country when using expenditure approach to
measure national income. (10 mks)

Question four

a) Differentiate between monopoly and monopolistic competition product markets.(10 mks)

b) Explain five ways through which consumers may protect themselves against exploitation by
producers and business people. (10 mks)

Question five

a) Explain any five circumstances under which a firm may prefer written communication over
oral communication. (10 mks)
b) From the trial balance given below, prepare a trading, profit and loss account for the year
ended 31st august 2021and a balance sheet as at that date. (10 mks)
Particulars Dr Cr

Purchases/sales 349,000 582,000

Debtors/Creditors 51,000 62,000

Motor vehicle 600,000

Drawings 30,000

Returns 22,000 19,000

Carriage in 10,000

Equity loan 170,000

Furniture and fittings 45,000

Discounts 25,000 36,000

Opening stock 40,000

Carriage outwards 7,000

Rent 24,000

Advertising 13,000

Land and Buildings 500,000

KPY Bank loan 210,000

Interest on loans 48,000

Cash at bank 150,000

Cash in hand 28,000

capital 815,000

totals 1,918,000 1,918,000

Question six

a) Explain four ways through which the price of a commodity may be determined (8 mks)
b) The following information was extracted from the e books of Mbaikipingo:
2018
Feb 1 credit purchases: kamendish 12,000. Mugendish 30,000 and Opiyosh 25,000
Feb 5 credit sales to Monica sh 20,000
Feb 7 returned goods to Kamendish 320
Feb 8 cash purchases paid for by chequesh 39,000
Analyze the above transactions in the relevant day books (12 mks)
MANGU HIGH SCHOOL POST-MOCK EXAM 2024
NAME…………………………………………………………………ADM NO……………........

DATE………………………………………………INDEX NO…………………..........................

SIGNATURE………………………PREV EXAM MARKS………………..TARGET………….

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education ( K.C.S.E )

233/3

CHEMISTRY PRACTICAL

CONFIDENTIAL INSTRUCTIONS TO SCHOOLS

Requirements to Candidates.

In addition to the fittings and apparatus found in a chemistry laboratory, each candidate will require

• 4.5g of solid A supplied in a stoppered container

• 110cm of solution B
• about 450cm3 of distilled water supplied in a wash bottle
• about 2g of solid K supplied in a dry stoppered container
• about 1g of solid R supplied in a dry stoppered container
• one burette 0 – 50mls
• one pipette 25ml
• one pipette filler
• one thermometer -10 oC – 110 o C
• one 250ml volumetric flask
• two 250mls conical flask
• one Bunsen burner
• one trippod stand and wire gauge
• 6 dry test tubes
• one boiling tube
• 2 filter papers (whatman no.1 125mm)
• one filter funnel
• blue and red litmus paper
• one metallic spatula
• one 10ml measuring cylinder
• means of labeling
• one clean dropper.
Access to:

• 2M NaOH supplied with a dropper

• 2M HCl
• 2M HNO3
• 0.5M Barium nitrate solutrion
• Burnser burner (1 burner for 4 candidates)
• Universal indicator
• Solid sodium hydrogen carbonate
• Ethanol
• Bromine H2O supplied with a dropper
• Lead (II) nitrate
• Concentrated sulphuric (VI) acid
Preparations

1. Solution B is prepared by dissolving 9.48g of potassium manganate (VII) in about 400cm of 2M

sulphuric acid and diluting to one litre of solution with distilled water.

2. Bromine water is prepared by diluting 1ml of liquid bromine with 100cm 3 of distilled water in a

fume cupboard or in the open

3. Solid A should be weight accurately in a fume clipboard or a well ventilated room.

4. Solid A is oxalic acid

5. solid R is malleic acid

6. solid K is ammonium chloride.

MANGU HIGH SCHOOL POST-MOCK EXAM 2024
NAME…………………………………………………………………ADM NO……………........

DATE………………………………………………INDEX NO…………………..........................

SIGNATURE………………………PREV EXAM MARKS………………..TARGET………….

233/1
CHEMISTRY (THEORY) PAPER 1
2 HOURS

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education (KCSE)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
3. Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
4. KNEC Mathematical tables and silent non-programmable electronic calculators may be used.
5. All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary
6. This paper consists of 12 printed pages.
7. Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated
and no questions are missing.
8. Candidates should answer all the questions in English.

For Examiner’s Use Only

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score

1 – 28 80
1. Study the information in the table below and answer the questions that follow. The letters do
not represent the actual symbols of the elements.

Substance Solubility in water Electrical conductivity

Solid Molten
A Insoluble Good Good
B Soluble Poor Good
C Insoluble Poor Poor

i) Which of the substances is highly likely to be sodium chloride? Explain (2 marks)

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ii) What type of bond exists in substance A? (1 mark)
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iii) State a possible structure in substance C? (1 mark)
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2. A mass of 14.2 g sodium nitrate saturated 32.1 cm3 of water at 32 oC. Determine the solubility
of sodium nitrate at 32 oC. (Density of water = 1g/cm3). (2 marks)

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3. Explain why sulphur is a solid while oxygen is a gas at room temperature. (2 marks)

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4. The set up below represents the apparatus that may be used to separate a mixture of two miscible
liquids C and D whose boiling points are 800C and 1100C.

a) Name B (1 mark)
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b) What is the purpose of the thermometer (1 mark)
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c) Which liquid was collected in the test tube? (1 mark)
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5. In a reaction, 0.65 g of impure zinc oxide reacted with 100 cm3 of 0.15 M nitric (V) acid.
(a) Write equation of the reaction. (1 mark)

(b) Calculate percentage purity of the zinc oxide sample. (2 marks)

(Zn = 65, O = 16)

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6. The set up below can be used for the laboratory preparation of product W.

(a) Write chemical equation for the reaction that takes place in the retort flask. (1 mark)

(b) Explain why product W appears yellow in colour. How is the colour removed? (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

7. The table below shows information of four elements A, B, C and D. Study it and answer the
questions that follow. The letters do not represent the actual symbols of the elements.
Element Electronic arrangement Atomic radius Ionic radius
A 2.8.2 0.136 0.065
B 2.8.7 0.99 0.181
C 2.8.8.1 0.203 0.133
D 2.8.8.2 0.174 0.099

(a) Which two elements have similar properties? (1 mark)

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(b) Explain why B ionic radius is larger than its atomic radius. (2 marks)

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8. The production of ammonia gas involves a reversible reaction as shown.

(a) What condition is necessary for the chemical equilibrium to be established? (1 mark)

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(b) Suggest two conditions that are likely to shift the equilibrium from right to left (2 marks)

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9. Describe how chloride ions are tested in a solution. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10. The empirical formula of X is CH2Br. Given that 0.235 g of X occupies a volume of 56 cm3
at 546 K and 1 atmosphere pressure, determine its molecular formula.
(H = 1.0, C = 12.0, Br = 80.0, molar gas volume at STP = 22.4 dm3) (3 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

11. When a piece of sodium metal is place in cold water in a beaker it melts producing a hissing
sound, as it moves on the surface of the water. Explain these observations. (3 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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12. The set-up below was used to prepare a hydrocarbon. Study it and answer the questions that
follow.

(a) Identify solid X and gas Y.

Solid X………………………………………………………………..... (1 mark)

Gas Y… .........................................................................................................(1 mark)

(b) Write a chemical equation for the complete reaction between gas Y and bromine vapour.
(1 mark)

13. (a) When excess chlorine gas is bubbled through cold, dilute sodium hydroxide solution, the
resulting solution acts as a bleaching agent. Using an equation, explain how the resulting solution
acts as a bleaching agent. (1 mark)

(b). What is observed when chlorine gas is bubbled through a solution of potassium bromide?
Explain. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
14. (a) Explain why the pH of 1.0 M hydrochloric acid is 1 while that of 1.0 M ethanoic acid is
5.0 (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) How can a precipitate of barium sulphate be distinguished from that of barium sulphite?
(2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

15. A, B, C and D are dyes present in a mixture. In a given solvent, C is more soluble than B and
A is more soluble than C. D is the least soluble. Draw an ascending paper chromatogram
showing how they would appear when separated using the solvent. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
16. The reaction below refers to the preparation of lead (II) sulphate starting with lead metal.

(a) Name solution A… ......................................................................... (1 mark)

(b) Write an ionic equation for the reaction in (a) above. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

17. The diagram below represents a Bunsen burner flame. Study it and answer the questions that
follow.

(a) Under what condition is the represented flame produced? (1 mark)

(b) Which of the regions shown represents the hottest part of the flame? (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Name region Y (1 mark)

18. An element K has atomic number 20 while element M has atomic number 8.
a) Write the electronic configuration for ions of K and M
K
………………………………………………………………………………………(1 mark)
M
…………………………………………………………………………………….…(1 mark)
b) Write the symbol of the most stable ion of K and M

K............................................................................................................................ (1 mark)

M ................................................................................................................................ (1 mark)
19. (a) Distinguish between endothermic and exothermic reaction. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Nitrogen reacts with oxygen to form nitrogen (II) oxide according to the following
reaction

N2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO (g) ∆H = +180 kJmol-1

Draw an energy level diagram for this reaction including the activation energy. (2 marks)

20. (a) When a compound T was heated, a brown gas and a residue which was yellow when hot
and white when cold were formed. Identify the:

(i) Brown gas…………………………………………………………….. (1 mark)

(ii) Residue………………………………………………………………… (1 mark)

(b) Name a suitable drying agent for ammonia gas. (1 mark)

21. Give the structural formula of the following organic compounds.

(a) 2-Methylbutane (1 mark)

(b) Pent-2-ene (1 mark)

22. When iron and steam are heated in a closed container, a dynamic equilibrium is reached.
(a) Define the dynamic equilibrium. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) What is the effect on equilibrium if magnesium is added? Explain. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

23. State and explain the observations that would be made when burning magnesium is lowered
into a gas jar of sulphur (IV) oxide. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

24. A mixture contains barium sulphate, calcium chloride and dry ice. Describe how the
components can be separated. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

25. (a) Explain why aluminium utensils do not corrode as easily as iron utensils although
aluminium is higher than iron in the reactivity series. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) State two uses of aluminium other than utensils making. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

26. The diagram below represents a set up that was used to react lithium with steam. Study and
answer the question that follows.
a) Write an equation for the reaction that takes place. (1 mark)

b) Why is it not advisable to use potassium metal in place of lithium in the above set-up? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) The gas produced above is used for welding. Which other gas is combined with it? (1 mark)

27. Using dots (.) and crosses (×) to represent valence electrons, show bonding in:

(a) Nitrogen trifluoride (N = 7, F = 9) (11/2 marks)

(b) Sodium oxide (Na = 11, O = 8) (1 mark)

28. The graphs below were drawn by measuring the volume of hydrogen produced with time
when excess zinc metal in different physical states were reacted with 50 cm3 of 2 M hydrochloric
acid.
(a) Which curve corresponds to the reactions involving powdered zinc? (1 mark)

(b) Both curves eventually flatten out at the same level of hydrogen. Explain. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
MANGU HIGH SCHOOL POST-MOCK EXAM 2024
NAME…………………………………………………………………ADM NO……………........
DATE………………………………………………INDEX NO…………………..........................
SIGNATURE………………………PREV EXAM MARKS………………..TARGET………….

233/2
CHEMISTRY PAPER 2 (Theory)
Time: 2 hours

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

Instructions to Candidates
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
d) KNEC Mathematical tables and silent non-programmable electronic calculators may be
used.
e) All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary
f) This paper consists of 14 printed pages.
g) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
h) Candidates must answer all the questions in English.

For Examiner’s Use Only

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score
1 12
2 13
3 12
4 10
5 12
6 11
7 12
TOTAL 80
1.a) The grid below represents a periodic table. Study it and answer the questions
that follow. The letters do not represent the actual symbols of the elements

i) Write the formula of the compound formed by element J and M. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Identify the least reactive element. Give a reason for your answer. (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
iii) Compare the atomic size of K and O. Explain. (2mks)

b)The following graph shows the reactivity of elements in period 3.

Explain the Trend at D and E (1mks)

c) The table below gives information on the Melting Points of compounds of period 3
elements. The letters do not represent the actual symbols.
a. Write the formula of

(i) Chloride of T (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Oxide of U (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
b. (a) Using the information above, suggest the type of bonding present in the
chloride of V. Explain. (2mks)
…………………………………..……………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………….

(ii) The difference in melting point of chloride and oxide of U in terms of

structure and bonding.

(2mks)

……………………………………………………………………...…………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………..…………………………………………………………………..

(iii) Why there is no melting point in the chloride of T. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………...……………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
2.(a) Give the systematic names of the compounds whose structural formulae are given below.
HH H O

i. H – C- C- C- C OH (½ mark)

H H H ……………………………………………….

H H H

ii. H– C- C C OH (½ mark)

H H H ……………………………………………

(b) Draw and name the structural formulae of the compound obtained when compounds in
(a) react. (1 mark)

c). Study the reaction scheme below and answer the questions that follow.

C5 H12 CH3COOH

C7 H16 Step I Polymer W Step VI

Step (V)

U Step IV CH3 CH2OH

Step II

C2H6 UV (Cl2) Step III

Light

(i) Name the process labeled Step I (½ mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………....
(ii) Identify substance U (½ mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………..……………………….
(iii) State the name of the fifth member of the homologous series to which U belongs.
(1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv)
Explain how acidified potassium manganite (VII) can be used to distinguish U
from C2 H6. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(v) State one industrial application of the process in step II. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(vi) Write the equation for the reaction in step III. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(vii) Identify the reagent and condition required in step (IV) (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(viii) State one use of the polymer W. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) R - COO – Na+ (A) and R OSO3– Na + (B) represent two types of
cleaning agents
(i) Name the class of the cleaning agent to which A belongs. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Which cleaning agent would be suitable to use with water containing Magnesium
Chloride? Explain (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

3.a) In an experiment 50cm3 of 1M copper (II) Sulphate solution was placed in a 100cm3 plastic
beaker. The temperature of the solution was measured. Excess metal A powder was added to the
solution, the mixture stirred and the maximum temperature recorded. The procedure was repeated
using powders of
metal B and C. The results obtained were given in the table below.

Metal A B C
Maximum temperature(0C) 26.3 31.7 22.0
Initial temperature (oC) 22.0 22.0 22.0

(i) Arrange the metal A, B, C and Copper in ascending order of reactivity. (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) State one observation that was made when the most reactive metal than copper was added to
the copper (II) Sulphate solution. (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii)Other than temperature state two factors that affect rate of reaction 1mk
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b). The diagram below shows the extraction of sodium metal using the Down’s cell. Study it and
answer the questions that follow.

(i)
Explain why in this process sodium chloride is mixed with calcium chloride.
(1 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Why is the anode made of graphite and not iron? (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iii) State two properties of sodium metal that make it possible for it to be collected as
shown in the diagram. (2 marks)

(v) Why is sodium metal stored under kerosene? (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4.(a) Fractional distillation of liquid air is mainly used to obtain nitrogen and oxygen.

(i) Name one substance other than sodium hydroxide that is used to remove carbon (IV) oxide
from the air before it is changed into liquid. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Describe how nitrogen gas is obtained from the liquid air.
(Boiling points nitrogen = -1960C, Oxygen = -1830C ) (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Study the flow chart below and answer the questions that follow.

Water Air

Electrolysis
Step I Step II

M N2 Conc. H2SO4

Step III

Ammonia

Step IV Air, platinum – rhodium catalyst

Colorless gas Q

Step V Air

Nitrogen (IV) oxide Ammonium

Sulphate
Step VI

Nitric (V) acid

Step (VII)

Compound Z

(i) Name substance M ............................................................................................. (1 mark)

(ii) Identify gas Q .................................................................................................... (1 mark)

(iii) State one use of compound Z ........................................................................ (1 mark)

(iv) A fertilizer manufacturing industry uses 1400dm3 of ammonia gas per hour to
produce ammonium sulphate. Calculate the amount of ammonium sulphate produced in
kg for one day if the factory operates for 18 hours.
( N = 14, H = 1, S = 32, O = 16, 1 mole of gas = 24dm3 ) (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5.. a) Define the term Half -life ( 1mk)

(b) Table 2 contains information from the measurements made of the radioactivity in counts
per minutes from a radioisotope iodine – 128.

Counts per min 240 204 180 156 138 122 108
Time (min) 0 5 10 15 20 25 30

Table 2
(i) Plot a graph of counts per minute against time. (3marks)
(ii) Use the graph to determine the half-life of iodine – 128. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………….…………………………………..
(iii) What is the counts rate after 22 minutes? (½ mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(iv) After how many minutes were the counts rate 160 counts per minute? (½ mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
c) Potassium has two isotopes 39K and radioactive 40K .
19 19
(i) State how the two isotopes differ. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………..……………………………….
(ii) The half-life of 40K is 1.3 x 109years. Determine how long it would take for 4g of
19
the isotope to decay to 1g. (1mark)

……………………………………………………………………………………………………....
...........................................................................................................................................................
(iii) 39K undergoes beta decay to form an isotope of calcium. Write the nuclear equation
19
for this decay. (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) Fig 2 shows how a radioactive material emitted radiations from its source. Study it and
answer the questions that follow as shown below.

I) Identify the radiation that: (2 marks)

i. Has no mass?
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………….………………………………………………………………………..
ii. Contains Helium particles?
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
II) State two applications of radioactivity in medicine (2 mks)

(6.a) State the Hess’s law (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

a) Use the information below to answer the questions that follow.

C(s) + O2(g) CO 2 H = -394KJmol-1

H2(g) + ½ O2(g) H2O(l) H = -286KJmol-1

C2 H2(g) +5O2(g) 2CO2 + H2O H = -1300KJmol-1

(i) Draw an energy cycle diagram that links the heat of formation of ethyne with its
heat of combustion and the heats of combustion of carbon and hydrogen.(2marks)

(ii) Calculate the standard ‘enthalpy of formation’ of ethyne. (2mark)

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(b) The diagram below represents a set-up that was used in determining the molar heat of
combustion of propanol. (C3H7OH)
Thermometer

Water

xxxxxxxxxxxx Stand

Lamp

Propanol

During the experiment the data given below was recorded.

Volume of water = 100cm3

Final temperature of water = 43.50c
Initial temperature of water = 20.50c
Mass of propanol + lamp before burning = 126.5g
Mass of propanol + lamp after burning = 124.7g

Calculate

(i) The molar heat of combustion of propanol (3marks)

3
(Density of water = 1g/cm , specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 kJ/kg/k, C=12.0, O
= 16.0, H = 1.0)

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(ii) The heating value of propanol. (1 mark)

(iii) Give two disadvantages of using hydrogen as a source of fuel. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) Study the information given in the table below and answer the questions that follow.
Bond Bond energy in kJmol-1
C–H 414
Cl – Cl 244
C – Cl 326
H - Cl 431
Calculate the enthalpy change for the reaction. (2mks)

CH4(g)……+……4Cl2(g).............................................. CCl4(g)……+……4HCl(g)

7(a) Explain the meaning of the following in terms of oxidation numbers: (2mks)
i) Reduction
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) Oxidation

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii)Determine the oxidation number of chlorine in the ion. (1mk)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) The standard electrode potentials (Eø) of elements Dand G are-
2.38Volts and -2.87 Volts respectively.
i) Identify the strongest oxidizing agent 1mk
………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………..
ii) Draw a labeled diagram of the cell formed when the two are connected.
(3mks)

iii) Determine the e.m.f of the cell formed above. (2mks)

c) During electrolysis of aqueous Copper(II) Sulphate using carbon

electrodes a current of 2.0A was passed for 3 hours.
i) Find the mass of copper metal deposited at the cathode (Cu=64;1F=96500 (3mks)

Page 103 of 276

ii) State two factors that determine preferential discharge in electrolysis (1 mark)
…………………………………………………..…………………………………….
………………………………………………………….………………………………………….

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MANGU HIGH SCHOOL POST-MOCK EXAM 2024
NAME……………….…………………………………………………………………ADM NO……………........
DATE………………………….………………………………INDEX NO…………………..........................
SIGNATURE……………………………PREV EXAM MARKS…………………..TARGET………….

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education ( K.C.S.E )

233/3

CHEMISTRY PAPER 3 (PRACTICAL)

FORM 4 CHEMISTRY PAPER 3

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:

• Write your name, admission number and the name of your school in spaces provided above.
• Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
• Answer all the questions in the spaces provided below each question.
You are not allowed to start working on the apparatus for the first 15 minutes of 21/2 hours allowed for
this paper. This time is to enable you to read the question paper and make sure you have all the
chemicals and apparatus that you may need..

• All workings must be clearly shown where necessary.

• Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:
QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE

1 20

2 08

3 12

TOTAL 40

This paper consists of 6 printed pages.

Candidates should check to ascertain that all pages are printed as indicated
and that no questions are missing.

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1. You are provided with:

• 4.5g of solid A in a boiling tube

• Solution B 0.06M acidified potassium manganate (VII)

You are required to determine:

1. The solubility of solids A at different temperatures

2. The number of moles of water of crystallization in solid A

Procedure:

a). Using a burette add 4cm3 of distilled water to solid A in the boiling tube . Heat the
mixture while stirring with the thermometer to about 700c .When all the solid has
dissolved allow the solution to cool while stirring with the thermometer. Note the
temperature at which crystals of solid A first appear. Record this temperature in table 1.

b). Using the burette, add 2cm3 of distilled water to the contents of the boiling tube warm
the mixture while stirring with the thermometer until all the solid dissolves. Allow the
mixture to cool while stirring. Note and record the temperature at which crystals of solid
A first appear.

c). Repeat procedure (b) two more times and record the temperature in the table 1. Retain
the contents of the boiling tube for use in the procedure (e).

d). i).Complete table 1 by calculating the solubility of solid A at the different

temperature. The solubility of a substance is the mass of that substance that dissolves

in 100cm3 (100g) of water at a particular temperature.

Table 1 (6 Marks)

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Volume of water in the boiling Temperature at which Solubility of solid A
tube (cm3) crystals of solid A first (g/100 g water)
appear (0C)

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ii). On the grid provided above, plot a graph of solubility of solid A (vertical axis) against
temperature. (3 marks)

iii). Using your graph, determine the temperature at which 100g of solid A would dissolve in
100cm3 of water. (1 mark)

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e) i).Transfer the contents of the boiling tube into a 250ml volumetric flask, rinse both the boiling

tube and the thermometer with distilled water and add to the volumetric flask. Add more
distilled

water to make up to the mark. Label this solution A. fill a burette with solution B. Using the
pipette

and pipette filter, place 25.0cm3 of solution A into a conical flask. Warm the mixture to about

600C. Titrate the hot solution A with solution B until a permanent pink colour persists.

Record your readings in table 2.Repeat the titration two more times and complete the table 2.

Table 2

I II III

Final burette reading

Initial burette reading

Volume of solution B used (cm3)

(4 marks)

ii). Calculate the:

I. average volume of solution B used (1 mark)

II. Number of moles of potassium manganate (VII) used (1 mark)

Page 109 of 276

III. Number of moles of A in 25cm3 of solution A given that 2 moles of potassium manganate
(VII) react completely with 5 moles of A. (1 mark)

IV. Relative formula mass of A, (1 mark)

iii). The formula of A has the form D.XH2O. Determine the value of x in the formula given that

the relative mass of D is 90.0 and atomic masses of oxygen and hydrogen are 16.0 and 1.0

respectively. (2 marks)

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2. You are provided with solid K. Carry out the tests below. Write your observations and inferences
in

the spaces provided.

Place all of solid K in a boiling tube, add about 10 cm3 of distilled water and shake until all the
solid

dissolves. Divide the solution into 4 portions.

a) To the first portion in a test -tube, add a few drops of sodium hydroxide until in excess.
Retain the mixture for procedure (b)

Observation Inferences

(1mk) (1mk)

b) Warm the mixture in (a) above and test any gases produced using red and blue litmus papers.

Observation Inferences

(1mk) (1mk)

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c) To the third portion, add about equal volume of freshly prepared lead (II) nitrate solution
followed by a few drops of dilute nitric (V) acid.
Observation Inferences

(1mk) (1mk)

d) To the fourth portion add Lead (II) nitrate solution

Observation Inferences

(1mk) (1mk)

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3. You are provided with solid R. Carry out the tests below. Write your observations and inferences
in

the spaces provided.

a) Place a spatula-end full of solid R in a dry boiling tube and add about 10cm3 of distilled
water.
Shake thoroughly and heat to boil. Divide the solution into five portions

Observations inference

1mark (1 mark)

bi) test the first portion with universal indicator solution provided.

Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

ii) To the second portion add a few drops of acidified potassium manganate (VII) solution

Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

iii) To third portion, add a few drops of bromine water.

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Observations Inferences

1mark 1mark

iv) To fourth portion add half spatula of sodium hydrogen carbonate

Observation Inferences

1mark 1mark

v) To the fifth portion add 5cm3 of ethanol followed by a few drops of concentrated sulphuric (VI)
acid. Warm the mixture
Observation Inference

1mark 1mark

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MANGU HIGH SCHOOL POST-MOCK EXAM 2024
NAME…………………………………………………………………ADM NO……………........
DATE………………………………………………INDEX NO…………………..........................
SIGNATURE………………………PREV EXAM MARKS………………..TARGET………….

451/1
COMPUTER STUDIES
PAPER 1 (THEORY)
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS

FORM 4 – COMPUTER STUDIES PAPER 1

Instructions to Candidates
(a) Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided above.
(b) This Paper consists of two sections A and B.
(c)Answer ALL the questions in section A.
(d)Answer question 16 (compulsory) and any other THREE questions from section B.
(e)All answers should be written in the spaces provided.
(f)This paper consists of 12 printed pages. Candidates should check to ensure that all pages are
printed as indicated and no questions are missing
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY
Section Questions Candidate’s score
A 1- 15
16
17
18
B
19
20
TOTAL SCORE
This paper consists of 14 printed pages. Candidates should check to ensure that all pages
are printed as indicated and no question is missing.

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SECTION A (40 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section
1. For each of the following computer generations, state the technology used to control the
internal operations. (2marks)
i) 1st generation:

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………..……………………………………………………………………….

ii) 2nd generation:

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………..……………………………………………………

iii) 3rd generation:

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iv) 4th generation:

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………….…………………………………………………………………………………………………..

2. State three ways in which computers have been used to fight the spread of corona virus in
Kenya. (3marks)
............................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................................

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3. Define two types of booting in computer. (2 marks)
.......................................................................................................................................................

.......................................................................................................................................................

4. Explain the term “log on” as applied in internet (2marks)

............................................................................................................................................................

5. a) What is disk formatting? (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) State two reasons for disk formatting (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………..…………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

6. State a stage in system development life cycle where each of the following activities are
carried out:
a) identifying the technologies that may be used in a proposed system; (1 mark)

b) identifying shortcomings of a system; (1 mark)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………….......................................................................................................................................

c) Preparing a system for migration plan. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………….......................................................................................................................................

7. State three reasons why an organisation may opt to develop its own software in-house rather
than buy off-the-shelf software. (3 marks)

............................................................................................................................................................

8. A particular computer stores numbers in a single 8-bit word. How would it represent?
0.312510 (3marks)
............................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................................

9. A computer technician found it necessary to disable a firewall when working on a computer

system.
(a) What is a firewall? (1mark)

..........................................................................................................................................................

.........................................................................................................................................................

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(b) State two reasons that may have necessitated disabling of the firewall. (2marks)

............................................................................................................................................................

10. Differentiate between absolute cell references and relative cell references as applied to
spreadsheets. (2 Marks)

............................................................................................................................................................

11. Mwanzo Micro finance organization has offices in Kericho and Nairobi connected into a
network. The management is convinced that someone is illegally gaining access to the data in
their computers. State three ways the company can overcome this problem. (3marks)

............................................................................................................................................................

12. The following worksheet represents the number of litres of milk produced by different cows’
species at Kajiado Ranch Ltd.

s/no A B C D E

1 Month Friesian Ayrshire Guernsey

2 Jan 70 80 65

3 Feb 120 62 75

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4 Mar 110 65 45

5 Apr 70 45 60

The cost of each litre of milk is Kshs.30/=. This amount is typed in cell B10

a) Write a function that will calculate the total number of liters of Friesian in all the months. (1mark)

............................................................................................................................................................

........................................................................................................................................................

b) Write a formula that can be typed in cell E2 and then be copied down to obtain monthly
sales of milk. (1mark)

............................................................................................................................................................

(a) Identify the data type in cell C1 and cell D3 (1mark)

............................................................................................................................................................

13. . State three main types of looping control structures as used in programming. (3 marks)

14. A school intends to install wireless media in their communication system.

a) State any two types of wireless communication media. (1mark)

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............................................................................................................................................................

b) Give two advantages of this mode of communication media. (2marks)

......................................................................................................................................................

...............

15. State the functions of the following keys on the computer keyboard:

(a) Backspace (1 mark)

............................................................................................................................................................

(b) Tab key (1 mark)

............................................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................................

SECTION B (60 MARKS)

Answer question 16 and any other THREE questions from this section in the spaces provided

16. (a) What is meant by each of the following terms as used in programming.
(3marks)
(i) Pseudocode

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............................................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................................

(ii) Flowchart

............................................................................................................................................................

(iii) Dry run

............................................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................................

b) Outline two disadvantages of low level programming languages. (2marks)

............................................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................................

c) Differentiate between compilers and interpreters as used in programming. (2marks)

............................................................................................................................................................

......................................................................................................................................................

d) A trader bought a car from a manufacturer and later sold it to another person. Write a
pseudocode for a program that will accept the buying price and the selling price of the
car, determine whether the trader made a profit /or loss, calculate the profit/loss and
display it. (4marks)

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e) Draw a flowchart for the above pseudocode (4marks)

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17. (a) State three limitations of traditional filing methods (3marks)

............................................................................................................................................................

(b) Below are two table structures of files in a database.

TABLE A TABLE B

FIELD DATA TYPE

FIELD DATA TYPE
Employee no. Number
Employee name Text
Date employed Date/time
Employee number Auto number
Department Text
DOB Date/time
Salary Currency
Address Text

i) Which of the two tables is likely to be the parent table (1mark)

ii) It is advisable to ‘enforce referential integrity’ when creating a relationships. What

do you understand by the term referential integrity? (2marks)

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iii) The field ‘Employee no’ in TABLE B is likely to be the foreign key. What is a
foreign key? (2marks)

iv) Which fields in both tables is most appropriate for creating relationship? (1mark)

v) What would make the relationship between the tables fail to work? (2marks)

c) In databases the field properties specify finer details related to the fields and the table
entries expected. State four field properties in database. (4marks)

18. (a) Describe any two characteristics octal number system. (2marks)

(b) Convert each of the following to the number system indicated:

i. 111.1012 to decimal (3marks)

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............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
ii. 14.687510 to binary (4marks)

c) Convert the number -1710 into 8-bit:

i. signed magnitude representation (2marks)
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
ii. two’s complement (2marks)
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................
............................................................................................................................................................

d) Perform the arithmetic operation.

110.112 +11.0112 (2marks)

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............................................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................................

19. a) distinguish between Computer Aided Instructions (CAI) and Computer Aided
Learning(CAL) (4marks)

(b) i) State four activities that may be carried out when disposing off an old system in an
organization. (4 marks)

ii) State four ways of getting user specifications during system design. (4 marks)

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(c) State any three reasons why people may resist the introduction of computers at their place of
work (3 marks)

20. a) State the role of each of the following data communication devices:
i) repeater; (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) router. (1mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
b) Figure 3 shows a network based on the bus topology

i. Identify the component labelled p (1mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii. State the function of component labelled p (2marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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c) Students of Neema secondary school formed an environmental club with a goal of
taking part in environmental conservation activities. Outline three ways in which they
can use the internet to achieve this goal. (3marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
d) i) A company has three branches A, B and C where A is the headquarter. The local area
network (LAN) is directly connected to LAN at B and directly to the LAN at C.
Explain two benefits of having the LAN at B also directly connected to the LAN at C.
(4marks)

This is the last printed page.

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451/2
COMPUTER STUDIES PAPER 2
(PRACTICAL) TIME: 2 ½ HOURS

FORM 4 – COMPUTER STUDIES PAPER 2

Instructions to candidates

• Type your Name and Index No at the top right hand corner of each printout.
• Write your Name and Index No on the CD
• Write the Name and version of software used in each question on the answer sheet
• Passwords should not be used
• Answer ALL the questions
• All answers must be saved in a CD
• Make printouts of the answers
QUESTION MARKS

QN1

QN2

TOTAL

Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed and no questions
are missing

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QUESTION ONE

Tip Top consultants has shortlisted candidates for an interview for various positions in their
organization. The following is a standard letter for each of the candidates to be interviewed.

The information enclosed in << >> represents details about recipients, position, date and time of
the interview.

a) Using a word processor, type the documents as it appears and save it as letterMain
(16
marks)

Tip Top consultants

Top Human Resources Consultants

P.O. Box 456, Tel: 03221345

Nairobi. Email:info@tiptop.co.ke

Monday, 11 April 2015.

<< First Name >> << Second Name >>,

P.O. Box << Adress>>,

<< Town >>.

Dear<<Title>> << Second Name>>,

RE: INVITATION FOR AN INTERVIEW

Following your application for the position of << Position >>, I am glad to inform you that you
have been shortlisted. You will be required to report for an interview on <<Date>> at
<<Time>>. You are required to bring the following documents with you.

▪ Identity card
▪ Original certificates
▪ Two passport size photographs
▪ A reference letter
We are looking forward to seeing you.

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Yours faithfully,

Pascal Sasha

Consulting partner

b) Insert the following as a footer:

Vision: “To be a leader in the provision of quality Human Resource for development”
(2
marks)
c) Create the logo in Figure 1 and position it below the statement ‘Top Human Resources
Consultants’. (6
marks)

NMS

Figure 1

d) Table 1 shows details about shortlisted candidates. Create a data source to store information
in the table and save it as ListFile.
( 11 marks)

Title First Name Second Name Address Town Position Date Time

Miss Anyango Patricia 3656 Kisumu ICT Assistant 6th Dec 11:30 am

Ms Caroline Kandai 3456 Kajiado Accountant 6th Dec 12:30 pm

Mr Zachary Esokon 123 Lodwar ICT Assistant 7th Dec 1:30 pm

Mrs Susan Chemutai 721 Kericho Accountant 7th Dec 2:30 pm

Mr Jilo Buya 222 Mombasa Accountant 8th Dec 12:00 pm

Mr Sospeter Kamau 912 Kiambu Accountant 9th Dec 12:30 pm

Table 1

e) Using mail merge feature, merge the files letterMain and ListFile and save the document as

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Merged Document. (5
marks)
f) Insert page numbers at the top right hand sight in the merged document saved in (e) above

(2 marks)
g) Using listfile as a data source, create a list of addresses to be printed on envelops as shown in
figure 2 and save it as envelopes.
(4marks)

<< Title>> << First Name>> << Second Name>> ,

P.O. Box <<Address>>,
<<Town>>.

Figure 2

h) Print the following:

(4marks)
i. Lettermain
ii. Listfile
iii. Page 5 of the merged document
iv. Addresses to be printed on the first envelope.

QUESTION TWO

Company XYZ sells products P, Q and R. figure 3 shows an extract of a spreadsheet for the
company’s salespersons and their respective sales in shillings for each product.

A B C D E F G H

1 SALES PRODUC PRODUC PRODUC TOTA POINT CATEGOR TOTA

T T T L S Y L
PERSO
N P Q R SALE PAY
S

2 Clifford 4,000.00 6,230.00 7,500.00

3 Kamau 4,500.00 6,700.00 8,000.00

4 Shantel 5,678.00 10,000.00 7,800.00

5 Melinda 3,200.00 4,000.00 9,600.00

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6 Kipkoec 8,000.00 7,005.00 8,900.00
h

7 Wekesa 9,800.00 9,670.00 10,000.00

8 Anyang 2,700.00 3,400.00 2,300.00

9 TOTAL

Figure 3

a) i) Using a spreadsheet package, enter the above information and save it as SALES-
TABLE

(9 marks)
ii) Format the worksheet to appear as it is.
(4 marks)

b) i) type a formula:
I. at cell B9 to compute the total sales for product P;
(1 mark)
II. at cell E2 to compute total sales for Clifford.
(1 mark)
ii) Apply the formulae to the appropriate cells.
(2 marks)

c) A salesperson earns points for the sale of each product based on the following criteria;
• 1 point for every shs 50 for product P,
• 2 points for every shs 65 for product Q,
• 3 points for every shs 40 for product R,
i. Type a formula in cell F2 to compute the total points earned by Clifford (3 marks)
ii. Apply the formula in(c) (i) to the rest of the persons. (1 mark)

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d) A salesperson is categorized based on points earned as follows.
POINTS RANGE CATEGORY

Over 1300 Gold

1101-1300 Silver

Up to 1100 Bronze

Those salespersons attaining a Gold category earn a promotion

(i) Type a formula in G4 to determine Shantel’s category. (5 marks)

(ii) Apply the formula in (d) (i) to other appropriate cells.

(1 mark)

(iii)Type a formula in G10 to determine the number of salespersons who will earn a
promotion.

(4marks)

e) Each salesperson earns a total pay of shs 20,000 plus 2% commission of their total sales.
Using absolute referencing, determine the total pay for each salesperson if value 2 is
entered in cell B12. (5 marks)

f) Create a bar chart showing product P and product R sales for each salesperson. Insert
appropriate labels on the chart.
(9 marks)

g) Rename the worksheet containing the data as salesData and the chart sheet as
salesChart.
(2 marks)
h) Print the following:
(3 marks)
(i) SalesData;
(ii) SalesData showing the formula;
(iii) SalesChart

This is the last printed page

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FORM 4 – C.R.E PAPER 1

313/1 CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION PAPER 1
2 ½ Hours
INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES
a) Write your name and Admission number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper consists of six questions.
d) Answer any FIVE questions in the spaces provided.
e) Each question carries 20 marks.
f) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
g) Candidates should answer the questions in English.
For examiner’s use.
QUESTION 1 2 3 4 5 6 TOTAL

MAX. 20 20 20 20 20 20 100
SCORE

This paper consists of 2 printed pages. Candidates should check the questions to ensure that all pages
are printed as indicated and no question(s) are missing.

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1. a) Give six reasons how the learning of Christian Religious Education promotes equity. (6mks)
b) Describe the translation of the bible from its original language into local Kenya languages.
(7mks)
c) Identify seven ways in which Christians can avoid sin. (7mks)
2. a) Describe the covenant ceremony between God and Abraham in genesis 15:1-9. (7mks)
b) Explain characteristics of a covenant demonstrated in the covenant between God and
Abraham.
(8mks)
c)What is the importance of the Decalogue to Christians Today. (5mks)
3. a) Outline seven duties of Samuel in Israel. (7mks)
st
b) Describe how prophet Elijah fought against corruption and injustice in Israel in 1 kings 21.

(7mks)
c) Give six reasons why Christians should fight against the spread of devil worship in Kenya
today.
(6mks)
4. a) Identify six methods used by old testament prophets to pass on their messages. (6mks?)
b) Outline the teaching of prophet Amos on Israel election (8mks)
c) State six ways through which prophecy is practiced in the church today. (6mks)
5. a) State eight occasions when Nehemiah prayed. (8mks)
b) Outline the promises that the Israelites made when they renewed their covenant with God
during the time of Nehemiah (Nehemiah:10 28-39)
(7mks)
c) Give seven lessons learnt from Nehemiah’s prayer life.
(5mks)
6. a) Identify six elements of worship in traditional African society. (6mks)
b) Identify seven roles of the priest in the traditional African society.
(7mks)
c) State seven changes that have taken place in traditional African medical practices today.
(7mks)

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FORM 4 – C.R.E PAPER 2

313/2
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION PAPER 2
2 ½ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Write your name and Admission number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
(c ) This paper consists of six questions.
(d) Answer any five questions in the spaces provided.
(e) Each question carries 20 marks.
(f) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain all pages printed as indicated and
that no questions are missing.
(g) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

QUESTION CANDIATES
TOTAL SCORE
CANDIDATES
SCORE
CRE PAPER TWO

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1. a) Outline Jeremiah’s prophecy concerning the messiah (Jeremiah 23:5-6) (7mks)
b) Describe the birth of John the Baptist. (Luke1: 57-80) (8mks)
c) State six attributes of Gods learned from the magnificat. (5mks)
2. a) Describe the call of the first disciples by Jesus (like 5:1-11) (7mks)
b) Give seven reasons why Jesus accepted to be baptized yet he wasn’t a sinner. (7mks)
c) What lessons do Christians learn about Jesus from His temptations? (6mks)
3. a) With reference to the parable of the rich fool, state seven teaching by Jesus on materials
possession. (7mks)
b) Describe the triumphant entry of Jesus into Jerusalem. (Luke 18:28-40) (8mks)
c) State five ways through which modern church leaders perform the duties of a disciple.(5mks)
4. a) Outline the teaching of Jesus on the role of the holy spirit. (7mks)
b) Explain the unity of believers in the analogy of the body of Christ. (8mks)
c) Give six ways in which churches discipline those who cause disunity in church today. (5mks)
5. a) Identify five sources of Christians ethics. (5mks)
b) Outline the changes that have taken place in marriage in traditional African society. (7mks)
c) How is the church preparing the youth for marriage today? (8mks)
6. a) State six ways in which a Christian can acquire wealth. (6mks)
b) State seven Christian teaching on wealth. (7mks)
c)Give seven reasons why Christians should not involve themselves in gambling. (7mks)

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SIGNATURE………………………PREV EXAM MARKS………………..TARGET………….

101/1

ENGLISH (Functional Skills)

TIME: 2 HOURS

FORM 4 –ENGLISH PAPER 1

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:-

▪ Write your Name, Admission number and Class in the spaces provided above.
▪ Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
▪ Answer all questions in this question paper.
For Examiner’s Use Only:

QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE

1 20

2 10

3 30

TOTAL SCORE 60

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1. QUESTION 1 : FUNCTIONAL WRITING (20 Marks)

Imagine that you are the secretary of the COVID 19 prevention and control team. You hold a
meeting to plan the prevention and control of the entry of the virus into your school upon the
resumption of all the students after the nine-month-long break. Write the minutes that you took during
the meeting that you attended regarding the same.

A non- member has been invited to the meeting. Four out of the twelve members are absent and no
one knows their whereabouts. Two others had informed the chairperson that they would not attend.
There were only three items of discussion.

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………..…………………………………………………………………

2. CLOZE TEST (10 Marks)

Read the passage below and fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word.

Around the world, forests are being 1) at a rate of 13 million hectares a year.

In 2) , forests and other deforestation accounts for about 17% to 20% of

3) global emissions. The destruction of forests emits1.6 Gt of carbon a

year, which severely 4) forests capacity to absorb emissions from other

sources. However, the effects of deforestation extend beyond carbon. Rain forests

5) a wide variety of ecosystem services from regulating rainfall to keeping

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fertile soil from 6) . Deforestation damages food production and

7) to clean water in an entire region. Rain forests are also home and a

8) of income for many people in Africa, Asian and South America.

9) this, economic pressures drive government in the developing world to

10) these forests in unsustainable ways.

3. ORAL SKILLS (30MARKS)

(a) Read the poem below and answer the questions that follow.

Words going around and around

Like in a washing machine,

Only there in my head,

I pluck one out and put it aside,

There is more going around again,

Through the dark tunnel the words continue to spread

The poem is almost done.

Reading it out aloud stuttering as I go,

I’m pleased with what I have done,

Writing words I don’t stutter

As my oral words have done

I’m glad I wrote this poem,

I can write what I can’t say,

And be understood in every way,

I’ve been given a voice.

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Tracey McFayde

(i) Identify the rhyme scheme of the poem. (2marks)

(ii)
Other than rhyme, what two other mnemonic devices has the poet employed?
(4marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………..…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) How would you say the following lines in the poem?
(4marks)
a) Line 1, stanza 1, ……………………………………………………………………………

b) Line 2, stanza 2,……………………………………………………………………..............

4. Imagine that the school nurse has sent you to the principal’s office to pass him urgent information.
He is in the middle of a meeting and as you walk through the doors he rises and begins walking towards
you.

a) What two things must you do before you begin talking to him? (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..................................................
........................................................................................................................................................................
.......................................................................................................................................................................

b) What two non-verbal cues will you employ to pass the message without distracting
the on-going meeting? (2marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………....................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................................................

5. Pick the silent letters from the words listed below. (4 marks)

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a) Subtle

b) Handsome

c) Nestle

d) Clothes

6. Indicate intonation in the sentences that are in bold. (4 marks)

Student: Sir, I did not participate in the riots.

Teacher: I can hear you, speak on...

Student: Don’t you believe me?

Teacher: Keep talking Allan. Why do you seem to doubt yourself?

Student: Alright, I just hope that you will be fair and just in your decision.

Teacher: Don’t worry. Leave everything to me.

Student: Alright Sir.

7. From the following sets of words, pick the one with an odd sound. ( 4 marks)

i) Bird heard car world. …………………………………………….………………………………………….…….

ii) cup slap hut bud………………………………………………………………………………………………..…………….

iii) widget switch journey gender……………………………………………………………………………….…………

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iv measure pleasure azure sure…………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Supply homophones to the following words. (4 marks)

New

Due

Fairy

Write

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ENGLISH (101)
PAPER 2
FORM THREE (3)
TIME: 2 ½ hours
(COMPREHENSION, LITERARY APPRECIATION AND GRAMMAR.)
Instructions to Students
(a) Write your name and admission number in the spaces provided.
(b) Sign and write the date of exam in the spaces provided.
(c) Answer all the questions in this paper.
(d) All your answers must be written in the space provided.
(e) Students must answer all questions in English
For Examiners use only

Question Maximum score Student’s score

1 20
2 25
3 20
4 15
Total score 80
Check to ascertain that all pages are printed.

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1. Read the passage below and then answer the questions that follow.

A lot of students think that learning is only in class. If students use two extra steps, most students
will not forget what they learned in class. To achieve effective learning, students need to follow
two extra steps in the three strategic learning processes.

The key to success is by following these three strategies. Review is essential to student success.
Unless content is reviewed by students shortly after it is learned, it will soon be forgotten. To avoid
forgetting what you learned, it is recommended to review daily.

It is also recommended to reduce large volumes of notes into point form and to paraphrase what
you have learned. Other helpful tips include creating concept maps and diagrams; creating fact,
concept or vocabulary cards and using visualization to better connect to what you learned. These
are all important tools to helping students better understand and memorize lesson content.

The key to achieving academic success cannot be directly correlated to one specific area. Rather
it requires students to be overall rounded in many different aspects. This includes attending class
regularly to keep pace with the class. Falling behind in studies or homework can be detrimental
to academic success and can induce stress onto students. Participating in class activities and
discussions are also vital parts of learning and applying concepts learned. On the other hand,
taking good, concise notes will always help in the long run when reviewing for tests and exams.
To sum it all up, strategic learning is the password for many academic achievements. Being
exposed to knowledge is the first step in the journey, the fact that young scholars can learn and
be a part of history is a phenomenal step in furthering their search to success. Reviewing notes,
in the way the young individual wishes, by himself/herself, or with a good friend, will help
him/her to understand what has been learned in a way s/he understands. Lastly practice is a great
way to memorize what has been learned, when practice achieves its full potential, the individual
won’t only be entitled for a good mark, but also a way to view, understand and think of things.
Those three attributes will help scholars become more successful, but it’s important to one as it is
to the other, and each and every person should find the learning strategies effectual for him/
herself, and in extremely exceptional occasions even invent or innovate new strategies.

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Questions
(a) What does the writer fault in the students thinking according to the first paragraph? (2 marks)
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(b) Make notes on the three strategies that are key to success. (3marks)
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(c) Unless content is reviewed by students shortly after it is learned, it will soon be forgotten
Begin: if………) (1 mark)
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(d) The key to achieving academic success cannot be directly correlated to one specific area.
Add a question tag. (1mark)
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(e) Identify and explain the tone of the passage. (3 marks)
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(f) How, according to the passage, does practice help memorise what has been learned?(3marks)
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(g) Name three helpful tips to success. (3mks)

2. Read the excerpt below and answer the questions that follow: (25 marks)

Forty-nine foreign heads of state were in Banjul for the summit. All looked happy, and why

not? Had they not escaped from troublemakers in their home countries? They saw ahead of

them a stay free from trouble here, in the Gambia, a country everyone kept calling 'the land of

Kunta-kinteh'. All hoped to get from their stay as much rest as possible. Of course, at some

point, they would each other take the floor and, as fans back home expected, address the

summit, but this was something that they could do with little or no effort at all. For Gambians,

though, the presence of so many visiting dignitaries was not fun. True, forty-nine heads of state

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could give a hosting country good publicity, but heads of state are a huge inconvenience. So,

this publicity comes at a high price.

Nowhere is the price higher than it is in Africa. Here, before the dignitaries arrive,

bulldozers dispatched at night in slum-clearance 'exercises' demolish roadside kiosks on

which whole families depend for their livelihood. This way, the dignitaries will see that a

few streets once had sidewalks. Roads get rare layers of tarmac at times of maximum

traffic. This way, motorists come to a standstill when it really hurts. Checkpoints sprout

everywhere. This way, guards get even more bases for extorting bribes from passers-by.

When the dignitaries finally arrive, water taps at which whole neighborhoods queue to get

just buckets of water dry up because now all water has to go to new water fountains built to

mesmerise the visitors.

QUESTIONS

1. Explain what happens immediately before this extract (4mks)

2. Identify and explain two styles used in the excerpt. (4 marks)

3. Identify and illustrate three thematic concerns evident in this extract (4mks)

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4. What does the author mean when he says, "Had they not escaped from troublemakers in
their home countries"? (4 marks)
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5. From your knowledge of the text, who were the four strangers who checked in at
the Seamount Hotel in Banjul for the summit? (4 marks)
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6. Add a question tag: This way, motorists come to a standstill when it really hurts.
(1 mark)
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7. Explain the meanings of the following vocabulary used in the excerpt. (4 marks)
a) Mesmerise –
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b) Demolish –

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c) Extort –

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d) Summit –

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3.Read the song below and then answer the questions that follow.
There is no needle without piercing point
There is no razor without trenchant blade
Death comes to us in many forms
with our feet we walk the goats earth
with our hands we touch God’s sky
Some future day in the heat of noon,
I shall be carried shoulder high
Through the village of the dead
When I die, don’t bury me under forest trees,
I fear their thorns
Bury me under the great shade trees in the market,
I want to hear the drums beating,
I want to feel the dancer’s feet.

9. With a reason, classify the song above. (2marks)

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10. Why does the singer choose not to be buried under forest trees? (2marks)
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11. Where does the speaker want to be buried? Why? (3marks)
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12. Identify and explain one economic and two social activities evident in the oral song (6 marks)
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13. Explain the meaning of the following word as used in the poem. (1mk)
Trenchant
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14. Identify and explain three features of style from the above poem. (6mks)
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4. GRAMMAR
(a) Rewrite the following sentences based on the instruction given after each. (2 marks)
(i) He understood why people had been laughing after he realized the ugliness of his
headgear. (Rewrite using present participle).
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(ii) The President-elect was sworn in only after the Supreme Court had validated the
Presidential result. (Begin: Not until...)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(b). (i) The maid had prepared supper by the time we got home.
(Rewrite to remove gender bias). (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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(ii) I have been studying in this school for four years complained the student but I
have never scored one hundred per cent in any subject. (Punctuate correctly)
(1 mark)
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(iii)Chinua Achebe one of Africa’s greatest writers passed on three months ago.
(Rewrite using parenthesis). (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………...………………………………………………….………………………...

(c.) Use the correct form of the word given in the brackets. (3 marks)

(i) Sports persons need to arrive in the camp two days early in order to. ......................(climate)

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(ii) Pope Francis I took over the .............................after Pope Benedict XVI resigned. (Pope)
(iii) No single female candidate won the........................seat in the just concluded election. (Governor)

(d). Fill the blanks with the most suitable prepositions. (3 marks)
(i) He was sentenced to life imprisonment .................................................. the law.
(ii) Unemployed youth often subscribe .............................................. illegal gangs.
(iii) They attended the party dressed. ........................................... smart casual.

(e). Using the words in brackets, complete the following sentences with the most
appropriate phrasal verbs. (3 marks)

(i) My parents managed to ........................................... high school although with difficulty.

(see)

(ii) I was ......................................... by his childish behavior during the academic parade. (take)

(iii) The new students could not.......................................their way to the dormitory. (make)

(f). His decision was a typical case of putting the cart before the ox.
(Correct the idiomatic expression). (1 mark)
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MANGU HIGH SCHOOL POST-MOCK EXAM 2024
NAME…………………………………………………………………ADM NO……………........

DATE………………………………………………INDEX NO…………………..........................

SIGNATURE………………………PREV EXAM MARKS………………..TARGET………….

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

101/3 - ENGLISH - Paper 3
2hrs 30min
Instructions to Candidates
• Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
• Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
• Answer THREE questions ONLY.
• Questions one and two are compulsory
• Select one question from Question 3.
• Each of your essay must not exceed 450 words
Examiner’s Use Only:

Question Maximum Score Candidate’s Score

1 20

2 20

3 20

TOTAL 60

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Answer three questions only

1. Imaginative Composition ( Compulsory) (20 marks)

Either

a) Write a composition ending:

…..that it is never too late to begin again.

b) Write a composition to illustrate the saying, " Still waters run deep."

2. Compulsory Set Text (20 marks)

THE SAMARITAN BY JOHN LARA

2. ‘Our Greatest enemies are those close to us.’ Support this statement from The Samaritan by
John Lara. (20
marks)

3. Optional Set Texts (20 marks)

Answer any one of the following three questions.

Either

(a) The Short Story

Leonard Kibera, A Silent Song

In the face of hopelessness, what matters is the imagined freedom of our souls from this world
of suffering. Using illustrations from the short story, " A Silent Song " by Leonard Kibera, write
an essay in support of this statement.

(b) The Novel

Kazuo Ishiguro, An Artist of the Floating World

The desire to pass family values and reputation from one generation to another can result in
disagreements. Drawing illustrations from Kazuo Ishiguro's novel, An Artist of the Floating
World, write an essay to justify this assertion.

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312/1
GEOGRAPHY PAPER 1
TIME: 2 ¾ HRS

FORM 4 – GEOGRAPHY PAPER 1

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Write your name and Admission number in the spaces provided above.
2. This paper has TWO sections: A and B.
3. Answer ALL the questions in section A. In section B answer QUESTION 6 and any other
TWO
4. ALL answers MUST be written in the Answer Booklet provided.
5. Do not remove any pages from this booklet.
6. This paper consists of 4 printed pages. Candidates should check to ensure that all pages are
printed as indicated and no questions are missing

FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY

SECTION A 6 7 8 9 10 TOTAL

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SECTION A (25 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section.
1. a) What is the relationship between Geography and medicine. (2
marks)
b) State three characteristics of Planet earth. (3
marks)

2. (a) What are harmattan winds.

(2marks)
(b) The diagram below shows a type of wind

(I) Identify the type of wind marked W (1

mark)
(II) List two characteristics of the type of wind marked W (2
marks)

3. (a) What are limbs in a fold? (2

marks)
(b) List three theories put forward by scientists on the formation of Fold Mountains. (3
marks)

4. (a) Distinguish between a seismic focus and epicenter.

(2marks)
(b) Identify three major earthquake belts of the world.
(3marks)

5. (a) Name two warm ocean currents in Africa.

(2marks)

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(b) State three factors that influence ocean water temperature.
(3marks)

SECTION B (75 MARKS)

Answer question 6 and any other two questions from this section
6. a) (i) Give the map tittle
(2mark)
(ii) Give the longitudinal extent of the area covered by the map (2
marks)
b) (i) Give the index to adjoining sheet to the North west of the area covered by the map
(1mark)
(ii) Convert the scale of the map to statement scale. (2
marks)
(iii) Calculate the area covered by western province. Give your answer in square km (2
marks)

c) (i) Using a vertical scale of 1cm rep 20m draw a cross section from grid reference 260940 to
320940.
(3marks)
On it mark and label the following
(4marks)

• kadimu Bay
• Road C501/2
• Main Tracks
• thicket
(ii) Calculate the vertical exaggeration (2 marks)
d) (i) Citing evidence, identify three the social activities carried out in the area covered by the
map.
(3marks)
(ii) Describe the relief of the area covered by the map.
(4marks)

7. a. (i) Name three forces responsible for the shape of the earth (3
marks)

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(ii) Give four proofs that the earth is spherical in shape (4
marks)

b. (i) What is international dateline (2

marks)
(ii) What is the longitude whose local time is 5:00 p.m. when the local time at
Longitude 0° is 8:00p.m?
(2 marks)

c. Use the diagram below to answer the questions that follow.

i) What type of eclipse is represented by the diagram how does it occur? (3

mark)
ii) Name the features marked P and Q (2
marks)
d. The diagram below represents the structure of the earth. Use it to answer the
questions that follow.

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A

(i) Name the parts marked A, B and C. (3

marks)
(ii) Give four characteristics of the layer marked B (4
marks)
(ii) Name any two constituents of the atmosphere. (2
marks)

8. a. (i) What is a climax vegetation? (2

mark)
(ii) State four characteristics of the mediterenean type of vegetation (4
marks)
b. Explain three factors which influence the distribution of vegetation in Kenya (6
marks)
c. Give Reasons why Tundra region has scanty vegetation. (3
marks)
(c) Write the names of the grasslands found in the following areas (3
marks)
(i) East Africa
(ii) Canada
(iii) Argentina
(d) You are required to carry out a field study of the vegetation within the local environment:

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(i) Apart from identifying the different types of plants, state three other activities you
will carry out during the field study.
(3 marks)
(ii) Give three reasons why it would be necessary to sample out part of the area covered
by the vegetation for the study (2
marks)
(iii) List three methods they may have used to collect data
(2marks)
9. (a) Distinguish between river regime and river discharge. (2
marks)
(b) (i) State three factors influencing river transport. (3
marks)
(ii) Explain three ways through which a river transports its load. (6
marks)
(c) With the aid of a well labelled diagram, describe how a river braid is formed. (6
marks)
(d) Students of Buruburu Girls High School carried out a field study on river
rejuvenation on River Athi.
(i) State three causes of river rejuvenation they found out. (3
marks) (ii) Name any three types of meanders they are likely to have
identified. (3 marks)
(iii) Identify two problems they may have encountered during the field study.
(2 marks)
10. (a) (i) What is soil? (2
marks)
(ii) Identify two components of soils. (2
marks)
(iii) Differentiate between soil structure and soil texture. (2
marks)
(iv) Name two types of soil according to soil texture. (2
marks)
(b) Explain how the following factors influence the formation of soil.
(i) Climate (2
marks)
(ii) Topography (2
marks)

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(c) The diagram below shows a soil catena.

HILL TOP VALLEY

BOTTOM
W X Y Z

(i) Name the type of soils found in position W and Z. (2 marks)

(ii) State two characteristics of soils found in section marked W and Z. (4
marks)
(d) Explain two causes of chemical soil degeneration. (4 marks)
(e) State three measures of conserving soils. (3 marks)

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FORM 4 – GEOGRAPHY PAPER 2

312/2
GEOGRAPHY PAPER 2
TIME: 2 ¾ HRS

INSTRUCTIONS

1. The paper comprises of two sections A & B

2. Attempt all the questions in Section A
3. In Section B answer question 6 and choose any other TWO questions

SCORE SHEET

SECTION A

QUESTION 6

QUESTION 7

QUESTION 8

QUESTION 9

QUESTION 10

TOTAL

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SECTION A

Answer all the questions in this section

1 a) What is human geography? (2 marks)

b) State three ways in which the study of Geography contributes to National development.
(3 marks)

2. a) Apart from coniferous forest, name two other types of natural forests. (2 mks)
b) State three characteristics of coniferous which favour their exploitation. (3 mks)

3. a) Give the characteristics of plantation agriculture in Kenya. (3 marks)

b) State 2 problems facing coffee farming in Kenya. (2 marks)

4 a) Study the map of the Ruhr Industrial region and use it to answer the question below

(i) Name
(ii) The town marked Q (1 mark)
(iii) The River marked X (1 mark)

b) Apart from the iron and steel, list 3 other industries in the region. (3 marks)

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5. a) State three causes of urban rural migration (3 marks)
b) Give two reasons for rapid population growth. (2 marks)

SECTION B (75 MARKS)

Answer question 6 and any other TWO questions from this section.

6. The table below shows the number of tourists who visited Kenya between 1996 -1999. Use it
to answer the questions that follow.

Origin/Year 1996 1997 1998 1999

Britain 100,000 80,000 60,000 40,000

N. America 80,000 50,000 45,000 45,000

Germany 70,000 40,000 35,000 30,000

S.E Asia 40,000 30,000 25,000 25,000

(a) Using a scale 1 cm to represent 20,000 people, draw a compound bar graph to present this
data. (6 marks)
(b) State possible reasons for the decline in the number of tourists since 1997 (4 marks)
(c) (i) What is eco-tourism (2 marks)
(ii) State two objectives of eco-tourism. (2 marks)
(d) Explain three factors that hinder development of domestic tourism in Kenya. (6 marks)
(e) Identify five steps taken by the Kenya government to promote tourism in the country. (5
marks)

7. Study the sketch map of the great lakes of St. Lawrence

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a) Name
i) The port marked N. (1 mk)
ii) The waterfall marked M (1 mk)
iii) The lakes marked I, J, K, L (4 mks)

b) Explain five ways in which the great lakes of St. Lawrence sea way has contributed to the
economy of Canada and USA. (10 mks)
c) i) State three recent developments that have taken place in Kenya to improve
communication of information. (3 mks)
ii) Explain three problems facing telephone as a means of communication in Kenya. (6
mks)

8. (a) (i) What is Environmental Hazards. (2 marks)

(ii) Identify three environmental hazards caused by human activities. (3 marks)

(b) (i) State three cause of floods. (3 marks)

(ii) Explain four ways of combating floods in Kenya. (8 marks)

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(i) State four reasons why the working schedule is very important in their study. (4
marks)
(ii) List two methods of data collection they are likely to use. (3 marks)
(iii) Name two areas in Kenya prone to flooding. (2 mks)

(9) a) (i) Apart from nuclear energy name three other non-renewable sources of energy. (3
marks)
(ii) State three factors that hinder development of nuclear energy in many countries.
(3 marks)

(b) (i) Explain the three effects of overdependence of petroleum on the economy of oil
importing countries. (6 marks)
(ii) State 3 methods that Kenya can use to conserve her energy. (3 marks)

(d) Use the map of Africa to answer the questions that follow

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(i) Name the H.E.P projects that are marked 1,2,5,6. (4 marks)
(ii) Give two reasons why Africa has a high potential of H.E.P ( 2 mks)

10. (a) i) Name four forms of which minerals occur. (4 mks)

ii) State four factors that are necessary for the occurrence of minerals. (4 mks)

b) State three ways in which open cast mining affect the environment. (3 mks)

c) Explain four ways in which mining contribute to the economy of Kenya. (8 mks)

d) Form 4 Geography students carried out field study on mineral found in the Rift Valley
i) State three objectives of their study. (3 mks)

ii) List down three problems they are likely to come across. (3 mks)

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311/1
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT PAPER 1
2 ½ HOURS

FORM 4 - HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT Paper 1

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

a) This paper consists of three sections: A, B and C.

b) Answer all the questions in section A, three questions from section B and two questions
from Section C.
c) Answer to all the questions must be written in the answer booklet provided.

SCORE SHEET

Section A 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 Total
Scores
1 - 17

Max Score 25 15 15 15 15 15 15 15 100

Candidate’s
Score

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SECTION A – (25 MARKS )

Answer all the questions from this section

1. Identify one disadvantage of using electronics as a source of information on History and

Government. (1mk)

2. State two environmental factors that influenced the migration of the cushites into
Kenya. (2mks)

3. Give the reason why the Luo are referred to as the River Lake Nilotes. (1mk)

4. Identify two conflict resolution methods used to settle disputes during the pre-colonial
period. (2mks)

5. Mention two written sources of History on the Kenyan Coast. (2mks)

6. Mention any two Treaties that paved the way for the abolition of slave trade in Kenya.
(2mks)
7. Give one reason why the government of Kenya may limit a person’s freedom of speech.
(1mk)
8. Name the type of constitution used in Kenya. (1mk)

9. Give the main reason why a Referendum is held. (1mk)

10. Identify two pillars of the Nyayo Philosophy. (2mks)

11. State two political challenges faced in Kenya between 1978-1982. (2mks)

12. Mention one political party that was formed after the Second Lancaster House
Conference. (1mk)

13. Give two subordinate courts in Kenya. (2mks)

14. Mention two arms of the National police service. (2mks)

15. State one role played by the Ministry of Health to reduce the spread of HIV/AIDS in
Kenya. (1mk)

16. Define the term ‘Rule of Law’? (1mk)

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17. Name the officer who controls public finance in county National Governments. (1mk)

SECTION B (45 MARKS)

Answer three questions from this section

18. a) Identify five social features that are similar between the Bantu and the Nilotes.
(5mks)

b) Discuss five impacts of the migration of the Borana into Kenya. (10mks)

19. a) State three reasons why Africans were discouraged from growing cash crops
upto 1939. (3mks)

b) Discuss five economic activities introduced by the colonial government during

the colonial period. (12mks)

20. a) Identify five characteristics of early political organizations. (5mks)

b) Discuss five challenges faced by independent churches and schools in Kenya.

(10mks)

21. a) Give three major reforms which resulted from the Lyttleton Constitution of 1954
in Kenya. (3mks)

b) Explain six ways through which Thomas Joseph Mboya contributed to the
struggle for independence in Kenya. (12mks)

SECTION C: ( 30 MARKS)

Answer any two questions from this section.

22. a) Give five reasons for multi-party democracy in Kenya since 1991.
(5mks)
b) Explain five challenges of multiparty democracy in Kenya. (10mks)

23. a) State five functions of the Cabinet in Kenya? (5mks)

b) Discuss five challenges facing the Kenya Defence Forces. (10mks)

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24. a) Identify three factors considered while changing county boundaries in Kenya.
(3mks)
b) Explain six factors which undermines the provision of services by the county
governments in Kenya. (10mks)

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311/2
HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT PAPER 2
2 ½ HOURS

FORM 4 - HISTORY AND GOVERNMENT Paper 2

Instructions to candidates

d) This paper consists of three sections: A, B and C.

e) Answer all the questions in section A, three questions from section B and
two questions from Section C.
f) Answer to all the questions must be written in the answer booklet
provided.

SCORE SHEET

Section 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 Total
A Scores
1 - 17
Max Score 25 15 15 15 15 15 15 15 100

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SECTION A – (25 MARKS)

Answer all the questions from this section

1. Differentiate between pre-history and History. (1mk)

2. State any two uses of fire as a method of hunting in the Middle Stone age.
(2mks)
3. Give two ways in which HIV/AIDS has contributed to food shortage in the
Third World Countries. (2mks)
4. Mention two Arab families that administered the city states of the East
Africa Coast. (2mks)
5. Identify the main challenge of sailing ships as a means of transport. (1mk)
6. Name two theories that explain the origin and spread of Agriculture in
Africa. (2mks)
7. Give two examples of regional trade in Africa. (2mks)

8. Mention one early source of energy. (1mks)

9. Give two ways by which poor transport hinders industrialization in Third
World countries. (2mks)
10. State two factors that led to the growth of Athens. (2mks)
11.Name the official who represented the judicial arm of the Buganda
Kingdom. (1mk)
12. Identify two chartered companies that were used to administer European
colonies in Africa. (2mks)
13. What was the main reason for the Maji Maji rebellion? (1mk)
14.Name two leaders who spearheaded the re-birth of the East African
community. (2mks)
15. Give one member of Triple Alliance. (1mk)
16. Name one founder member of the Non Aligned Movement. (NAM) (1mk)
17.Identify the executive organ of the East African Community (2001) (1mk)

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SECTION B-(45 MARKS )

Answer any THREE questions from this section

18.a) Identify the first five stages of evolution of man. (5mks)

b) Describe five aspects of social organization of man during the middle
stone age. (10mks)

19.a) State five social effects of modern forms of transport. (5mks)

b) Explain five advantages of using the internet as a source of
information on History and Government. (10mks)

20.a) State five factors that led to Nationalism in Mozambique. (5mks)

b) Discuss five results of the partition of Africa on Africans. (10mks)

21.a) Name three officials who assisted the Mwene Mutapa to run the
kingdom. (3mks)
b) Explain six reasons for the Chimurenga War of (1896 – 1897)
(12mks)
SECTION C – (30 MARKS)

Answer any TWO questions from this section.

22.a) Outline three conditions given to Serbia by the Austrian government

after the Sarajevo assassination. (3mks)
b) Discuss five political effects of the Second World War. (12mks)

23.a) Identify five economic challenges that have faced Tanzania since
independence. (5mks)
b) Explain five factors that derailed the smooth running of the Pan
African Movement. (10mks)

24.a) Identify any five powers of the President in India. (5mks)

b) Explain five checks and balances applied on the United States of
America presidency. (10mks)

Page 180 of 276

FORM 4 – I.R.E Paper 1

314/1

ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION PAPER ONE

2 ½ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

• Write your name, admission number and date

• This paper has two printed pages
• This paper has SIX questions
• Answer any FIVE questions only
• Check to ascertain that it has all the questions
• Answer ALL questions in the foolscaps provided
• Answers should be written in English

FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY

QUESTION

SCORE
TOTAL SCORE

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1 a) Highlight six lesson derived from suratul An-Nasr (6marks)
b) What are the results of compiling Quran in one volume? (6marks)
c) Explain the modern ways adapted in teaching the Quran (8marks)

2 a) Explain the difference between Abubakar’s Mashaf and Uthman’s Mashaf (8marks)
b) Explain the significance of reciting Ayatul Kursy Q2:255 (6marks)
c) Show six similar themes found in Suratul Hujrat Q49 and Suratul Nur Q. 24 (6marks)

3 a) Enumerate five shia collections of Hadith (5marks)

b) Give reasons why the fourth period of Hadith collection is regarded as golden age (8marks)
c) The holy Prophet (S.A.W) said, “Looking for lawful earning is an obligatory act next to the
obligatory worship” in reference to the above hadith, how can Muslims eradicate poverty. (7marks)

4 a) Discuss the relevance of punishment according to Sharia law. (8marks)

b) Describe six factors that led the emergence of schools of thought. (6marks)
c) Mention six obligatory rites main activities of Haj (6marks)

5 a) Discuss the relevance of the sunnah acts observed during the month of Ramadhan. (7marks)
b) Highlight five ways of asking for tawbah (forgiveness) (5marks)
c) Discuss the challenges of zakat collection in Kenya (8marks)

6 a) Give the rational of forbidding Shirk in Islam. (6marks)

b) Discuss the relevance of the belief in Qadar. (8marks)
c) Explain six characteristics of the revealed books of Allah (sw) (6marks)

Page 182 of 276

FORM 4 – I.R.E Paper 2

314/2

ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION PAPER ONE

2 ½ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS

• Write your name, admission number and date

QUESTION

SCORE

TOTAL SCORE

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1. a) Discuss the importance of marriage in Islam. (6marks)
b) Outline six Islamic teaching on an ideal Muslim home. (6marks)
c) Why is it important for Muslims to conserve the environment? (8marks)

2. a) State the Islamic rule governing the treatment of employees. (6marks)

b) Outline the rationale for eddat. (6marks)
c) Discuss impact of Talaq (divorce) on children (8marks)

3. a) Mention the Islamic manners of eating. (5marks)

b) Identify five legal ways of earning in Islam. (5marks)
c) Discuss the rights of a woman in Islam. (10marks)

4. a) State the importance of the battles of Hunain. (8marks)

b) Give five lessons Muslims can learn from the treaty of hudaibiya. (5marks)
c) Discuss the religious conditions of Pre-islamic Arabia. (7marks)

5. a) Explain five the factors that led to the spread of Islam in Mumias. (10marks)
b) Assess the achievements of the Abbassids to education. (10marks)

6. a) What were the views of Ib Khaldun on politics? (10marks)

b) Explain the reasons for the decline of the Fatimid Dynasty. (10marks)

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KIDATO CHA NNE – KISWAHILI KARATASI YA 1

102/1
KISWAHILI Karatasiya 1
INSHA
MUDA: SAA 1 ¾
Maagizo
a) Andikajinalakonanambariyakoyamtihanikatikanafasiulizoachiwahapojuu.
b) Tia sahihiyakokishauandiketareheyamtihanikatikanafasiulizoachiwahapojuu
c) Andikainshambiliinshaya kwanza niyalazima
d) Kishachaguainshanyinginemojakatiyahizotatuzilizobakia.
e) Kilainshaisipunguemanenomia 400
f) Kilainshainaalama 20.
g) Kilainshalazimaiandikwekwalughaya Kiswahili
Kwamatumiziyamtahinipekee

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1. Andikabaruakwamhaririwagazeti la ‘Sanifisha’
ukitoamaoniyakokuhusujinsiyakuendelezautangamanowakitaifa.
2. Jadilimatatizoyanayowakumbavijanakatikajamiiyaleo.
3. Ibilisiwamtunimtu.
4. Andikainshaitakayoanzakwamanenoyafuatayo.
“Nilipowakumbukawenzangu, macho yaliingia kiwi, machoziyakanilengalenga........... ”

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KIDATO CHA NNE – KISWAHILI KARATASI YA 2

102/2
KISWAHILI LUGHA Karatasi ya 2
Muda: Saa 2𝟏
𝟐
Maagizo

a) Andika jina lako, nambari ya usajili na darasa lako katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo
juu.
b) Jibu maswali yote katika nafasi ulizopewa.
c) Majibu yote yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili.

Kwa Matumizi ya Mtahini Pekee

Swali Upeo Alama

1 15

2 15

3 40

4 10

Jumla 80

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SEHEMU YA A- UFAHAMU (ALAMA 15)
Soma taarifa ifuatayo kisha jibu maswali
Zaraa ndio uti wa mgongo wa taifa Ia Kenya. Viwanda vingi nchini hutegemea kilimo kama malighafi na
kuwalisha wafanyakazi. Licha ya umuhimu wa sekta hii, mkulima ambaye ndiye nguzo ya zaraa anaende
lea kukabiliwa na matatizo mbalimbali yanayokwamiza juhudi zake.

Mojawapo ya matatizo yanayomkabili mkulima ni ukosefu wa ushauri wa zaraa. Wataalamu

wanaotarajiwa kumshauri mkulima kuhusu njia bora za kuzalisha na kuongeza pato lake ni haba
ikilinganishwa na idadi ya wakulima wanaohitaji ushauri. Wachache walioko nao wanakwamizwa na
mambo tofauti. Mathalani, utawapata hawaendi nyanjani ili kukutana na wakulima kwa kuwa hawana
vyombo vya usafiri. Iwapo vipo, huenda petroli ikawa ni kizungumkuti Halikadhalika, usisahau kuwa
baadhi ya wataalamu hawa ni walazadamu au mafisadi. Kuna wale wanaofika ofisini na kushinda siku
nzima wakisoma gazeti huku wakijaza miraba, wakicheza bao au karata. Kuna wale nao ambao hufika
ofisini wakaangika koti au sweta kitini ili waonekane kuwa bado wapo na kisha kutokomea kwenda
kushughulikia mambo yao ya kibinafsi yasiyohusu ndewe wala sikio kazi waliyoajiriwa kuifanya.

Ukosefu wa sera mwafaka kuhusu ardhi nalo ni tatizo jingine linalotatiza kilimo nchini. Serikali haijaweka
sera mahususi kuhusu matumizi ya ardhi. Wananchi wengi huongozwa na taratibu za utamaduni za nasaba
zao. Taratibu hizi hupendekeza ugawaji wa ardhi kwa minajili ya urithi kulingana na warithi waliopo. Si
ajabu kuwa kote nchini, ardhi inayofaa kwa kilimo imekatwakakatwa vipande vidogovidogo ambavyo
haviwezi kuwa na faida kwa zaraa.

Kushindwa kwa mkulima kuongeza virutubishi ardhini ni changamoto nyingine inayokabili kilimo nchini.
Ulimaji wa kile kipande cha ardhi mwaka nenda mwaka rudi, bila kukipa nafasi ya kukipumzisha, huufanya
mchanga kupoteza virutubishi muhimu vinavyohitajiwa na mimea. Hili nalo huchangia kupunguza
uzalishaji wa mazao. Ili kutatua tatizo hili, wakulima wengi hukimbilia mbolea za kisasa ambazo badala ya
kumsaidia, humwongezea madhila. Mbolea hizi zinatambulikana kuchangia uchafuzi wa mchanga na
ardhi.

Mabadiliko ya hali ya anga nayo huongeza msururu wa madhila ya mkulima. Mabadiliko haya yamemfanya
mkulima kushindwa kupanga wakati anaotakiwa kutayarisha shamba, kupanda, kupalilia, kunyunyizia
dawa na kadhalika kwa sababu mvua imekuwa adimu. Badala yake panakuwa na vipindi virefu vya kiangazi
ambavyo huathiri bidii za mkulima. Maji nayo yanaendelea kupungua na wakulima wengi hawawezi
kukimu mahitaji ya unyunyizaji maji mashambani.

Maradhi pamoja na wadudu waharibifu kama vile viwavi, kupena mbung’o ni changamoto nyingine
inayotatiza juhudi za mkulima hapa nchini. Haya hupunguza uzalishaji wa mkulima au wakati mwingine
kupunguza mifugo au mimea yake.
Kwa sadfa, iwapo mkulima ataweza kuzalisha mazao licha ya msururu huu wa vikwazo; ana tatizo jingine
linalomngojea: ukosefu wa soko kwa mazao yake. Aghalabu, maeneo mengi yanayotoa mazao ya kilimo
kwa wingi huwa na matatizo ya usafiri. Njia na barabara huwa mbovu na hazipitiki. Mazao mengi huwa
hayafiki sokoni kwa wakati na huwa ni hasara kwa wakulima.

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Fauka ya hayo, gharama ya uzalishaji wa mazao ya kilimo hapa nchini huwa ya juu zaidi kuliko faida
anayopata mkulima. Watu wengi wameacha kutegemea kilimo kama njia ya ajira kwa kuwa hakilipi. Hii ni
zaidi ya ushindani wa bidhaa za kilimo kutoka nje ya nchi ambao ni tatizo jingine linalomkabili mkulima.
Mara nyingune wakulima wa kutoka nje ya nchi husaidiwa na serikabi zao kuzalisha mazao kwa kufidiwa
au kupewa karadha. Mazao kama haya yaingiapo sokoni huuzwa kwa bei ya chini na hayawezi kushindana
na yale ya wale wasiopata mchango wowote kutoka kwa serikali kama wakulima wa hapa nchini. Mkulima
wa Kenya anahitaji msaada wa dharura ili aweze kunyanyua kilimo ambacho ni uti wa mgongo wa uchumi
wetu. Lau haya hayatofanyika, uchumi wetu utaendelea kudidimia.

Maswali
(a) Ipe taarifa hii anwani mwafaka. (Alama1)

(b) Kilimo kina umuhimu gani hapa nchini? (Alama2)

(d) Eleza sababu zozote nne zinazokinga mkulima kuzalisha mazao ya kutosha. (Alama 4)

(e) Kwa nini watu wengi wameacha kutegemea kilimo kama njia ya ajira (Alama 2)

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(f) Eleza msamiati ufuatao kama ulivyotumiwa katika taarifa. (Alama 2)
(i) Walazadamu
(ii) Karadha

SWALA LA 2: UFUPISHO

Ajira ya watoto ni tatizo sugu linalokumba ulimwengu wa sasa, hasa katikanchi zinazoendelea. Jambo la kusikitisha
ni kwamba hivi ndivyo ilivyyo katika nchi nyingi za ulimwengu huu. Kuna idadi kubwa ya watoto wanaoajiriwa katika
Nyanja mbalimbali za jamii. Zipo sababu nyingi zinazowasukuma watoto kutafuta ajira barani Afrika kwa mfano,
familia nyingi huishi maisha ya ufukara hivi kwamba hushindwa kuyatimiza mahitaji muhimu hususan kwa watoto.
Kupanda kwa gharama ya maisha kunazidisha viwango vya umaskini. Ukosefu wa lishe pia huwafanya watoto
kutoroka nyumbani kutafuta ajira. Janga la UKIMWI limesababisha kuwepo kwa idadi kubwa ya mayatima
wanaoshia kutafuta ajira ili kuyakimu maisha. UKIMWI umezifanya familia nyingi pia kuwaondoa watoto shuleni ili
waweze kuajiriwa kwa lengo la kuzalisha pato la familia hizo. Watoto wengine hutoroka makwao kwasababu ya
maonevu. Maonevu haya ni kama vile kupigwa, kutukanwa kila wakati, kunyanyaswa kijinsia na kadhalika. Huko
nje hutaabishwa kimwili na kiakili. Hufanyishwa kazi za sulubu zenye malipo duni au wasilipwe kabisa. Hili
huwasononesha na kuathiri afya yao.

Wengine hujiingiza katika vitendo vya jinai pale wanapokosa ajira. Huchukua sheria mikononomwao, wakaendeleza
vitendo vya ukatili kama vile kuwahangaisha watu na kupora mali yao au hata kuwakaba roho. Aidha, wengine
hujikuta kwenye madanguro ambako huendesha biashara.

Uundaji wa umoja wa Afrika hivi majuzi ni hatua muhimu ya kushughulikia matatizo ya Afrika kamavile ajira ya
watoto, kuzorota kwa miundo msingi, magonjwa, njaa, umaskini, ufisadi na ukabila. Katika kushughulikia haki za
watoto, nchi za Afrika hazina budi kuzingatia masharti yaliyowekwa na Umioja na Mataifa kuhusu haki za watoto.
Nchi hizi basi lazima zishugulikie haki za watoto kupitia sharia za nchi. Watoto ni rasilmali muhimu na ndio tumaini
la kuwepo kwa kizazi cha binadamu.

a) Fupisha ujumbe wa mwandishi katika aya ya kwanza. (Maneno 45-50) (al 7, 1 ya utiririko)

Matayarisho

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JIBU

b). Bila kubadilisha maana aliyokusudia mwandishi fupisha aya mbili za mwisho.
(Maneno 50-55) (maneno 8, 1 ya Mtiririko)
Matayarisho

JIBU

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3. MATUMIZI YA LUGHA (ALAMA 40)
a) (i) Taja sauti mbili mwambatano ambazo hutamkiwa midomoni. (al 2)

-
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(ii) Taja sauti moja yenye sifa ifuatayo. (al 1)

b) Andika neno moja lenye viambajengo vifuatavyo:

Nafsi ya kwanza wingi, wakati uliopita, yambwa, mzizi, kauli tendesha, kauli tenda (al 3)

c) (i) Shadda ni nini? (al 1)

(ii) Onyesha iliko shadda mara mbili kwenye neno hili na ueleze ili kuleta maana zake
mbili tofauti.
a) Barabara

b) Barabara

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(al 2)

d) Huku ukitoa mifano eleza miundo miwili ya silabi za Kiswahili. (al 2)

e) Tumia neno ‘Kimya’ katika sentensi kama:

(i) Kielezi (al 1)

(ii) Kihisishi (al 1)

f) Weka nomino ifuatayo katika ngeli mbili tofauti.

Uwele (al 2)

g) Tumia kirejeshi ‘O’ katika sentensi ifuatayo.

Mtu ambaye hutupa tope hujichafua mwenyewe. (al 2)

h) Geuza katika usemi wa taarifa.

“Nitaleta kitabu hiki kesho iwapo utakuwepo, “Maria alimwambia rafikiye. (al 3)

i) Onyesha virai katika sentensi ifuatayo.

Moto ule mkali uliziteketeza nyumba zote karibu na mji ule. (al 3)

j) Onyesha aina za shamirisho katika sentensi ifuatayo.

Nyanya alimpikia mjukuu wake uji mtamu kwa unga mweupe. (al 3)

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---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
k) Jibu maswali yafuatayo kulingana na maagizo. (al 4)
(i) Ningalikuwa kiongozi ningalileta maendeleo nchini (kanusha)

(ii) Manakaanga haba manapogonjeka. (sahihisha)

(iii) Mzee ule alibeba meza kubwa (udogo, wingi)

(iv) Sijui anakosomeaJuma. Ningeenda kumtembelea (unganisha kwa kiunganishi lau)

l) Eleza matumizi matatu ya neno ‘na’ katika sentensi ifuatayo.

Amina na Juma wanasema eti nyumba yao ilijengwa na mwashi hodari. (al3)

m) Katika sentensi moja onyesha matumizi mawili tofauti ya kibainishi. (al 2)

n) Andika maana ya nahau: Kunja jamvi (al 1)

o) Changanua sentensi ifuatayo kwa mchoro wa jedwali. (al 4)

Wanafunzi walipojiandaa vilivyo walifuzu mtihani wao.

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4. ISIMU JAMII

Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali yanayofuata.

Nini?Umetumana?
Utatumia chai ya kahawa au majani?
Nataka kachai na katosti!

Tosti ni kumi. Tea is twenty shillings

Mbona unaniletea maji ukisema ni chai?
Samahani customer, ngoja nikuletee moto.

a) Lugha iliyo katika kifungu hiki hutumika katika muktadha upi? (al 1)

b) Eleza sifa nne za matumizi ya lugha katika muktadha huu. (al 4)

c) Toa sababu mbili zinazoonyesha umuhimu wa lugha ya Kiswahili nchini Kenya. (al 2)

d) Orodhesha hatua tatu zinazoweza kuchukuliwa kusuluhisha matatizo yanayokumba Kiswahili nchini
Kenya. (al 3)

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MANGU HIGH SCHOOL POST-MOCK EXAM 2024
NAME…………………………………………………………………ADM NO……………........

DATE………………………………………………INDEX NO…………………..........................

SIGNATURE………………………PREV EXAM MARKS………………..TARGET………….

KISWAHILI

KARATASI YA 3 FASIHI KIDATO CHA 3

MUDA: SAA 2 ½

MAAGIZO KWA MTAHINIWA

a) Jibu maswali manne pekee

b) Swali la kwanza ni la lazima
c) Maswali hayo mengine matatu yachaguliwe kutoka sehemu nne zilizobaki ; yaani :
riwaya, Tamthlia, hadithi fupi na ushairi.
d) Usijibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja.
Kwa matumizi ya mtahini pekee

Swali 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 Jumla

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SEHEMU YA A: LAZIMA:FASIHI SIMULIZI

(iv) Soma kisa kifutacho kasha ujibu maswali

Hapo zamani za kale paliishi mtoto katika kisima kimoja. Siku moja, mtoto aliokota kijiwe
karibu na soko kuu. Kijiwe kilikuwa kikimeremeta kwa rangi mbalimbali na kuzingirwa na pete
ya dhahabu.

Mtoto huyo na wenzake walianza kurushiana kijiwe hicho. Baada ya muda kikaanza kuongezeka
umbo na kuonekana kama kiwiwili cha binadamu. Kikaanza kuwakimbiza wale watoto wawili.
Kutokana na ukelele wao, watu walikuja kutazama ni nini kilikuwa cha mno. Walipofika
walikutana ana kwa ana na dubwana hilo. Lilizidi kuongeza kwa umbo na likawameza wote
pamoja na mifugo wao. Wachache waliojaribu kukimbia liliwashika kwa mikono yake mirefu na
mipana. Kwa bahati njema kulikuwa na mama mmoja aliyeyaona hayo yote. Alikuwa mbali kiasi
na hapo. Aliteremka kutoka kilele cha mlima na kuwapata wakulima makondeni na sawia
akawajuza kuhusu kilichomwogofya sana. Wote wakaacha shughuli zao na wakatwaa silaha zao
wakaelekea soko kuu.

Dude sasa lilikuwa limejilaza baada ya shibe. Wakulima wale waliwachagua watu sita ambao
walijulikana kwa ushujaa wao. Pamoja walilinyemelea lile nyangarika na kulikata mara moja.
Lilitoa mkoromo mkuu kabla halijakata kamba. Punde, wanakijiji kwa uangalifu mkubwa
walitoboa tumbo lake wakitarajia kupata maiti za wapenzi wao. Wote walijawa na furaha kuu
walipoona wapenzi wao wakichomoza kutoka tumboni, mmoja baada ya mwingine hadi akatoka
yule wa mwisho. Mbuzi, kondoo na ng’ombe wote walitoka mmoja mmoja.

Siku hiyo kuliandaliwa sherehe kuu ya kumshukuru muumba kwa wema wake. Watoto
wakashauriwa wasithubutu kuchezea vitu wasivyojua. Hadithi yangu inaishia hapo.
(f) Bainisha kipera cha utungo huu. (alama. 1)

(g) Fafanua sababu nne za kuthibitisha jibu lako. (alama 4)

(h) Eleza manufaa manne ambayo jamii itapata kwa kurithisha kipera hiki kwa jamii.(alama 4)

(i) Bainisha shughuli mbili za kiuchumi zinazoendelezwa na jamii inayosawiliwa na utungo

huu (alama 2)

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(j) Bainisha mbinu za kimtindo ambazo msimulizi ametumia kufanikisha ujumbe wake.
(alama 4)
(k) Kipera hiki kimeanza kudidimia kutoka kwa jamii yako. Eleza hatua tano ambazo
utashauri jamii yako ichukue ili kudumisha kuwepo wake katika jamii. (alama. 5)

SEHEMU YA B: USHAIRI

(v) Soma shairi hili kisha ujibu maswali.

Wasiwasi n’ondokeya, ondoka enenda zako,
Ondoka andama ndiya, n’ondosheya uso wako,
Ondoka!wanisikiya? ziwate jeuri zako,
Jishughulishe na yako, yangu wayatakiani?

Wasiwasi siitaki, suhuba yako si nzuri,

Haisatahimiliki, uwovu umekithiri,
Inganyoshwa hainyoki, ikukutene kikiri
Siitaki yako shari, enda zako wasiwasi

Huna kazi ufanyayo, ela kuwafitinisha,

Viumbe na zao nyoyo, vitwa kuwagotanisha,
Hiino ndiyo kaziyo, yenye kukufurahisha,
Ni kazi isokuchosha, mno umeizoweya.

Tukaapo wanambia, hayawi niyatakayo,

Kwamba tamaa ngatiya, nasumbuwa wangu moyo,
Kwamba hata ningojeya, hayo niyangojeyayo,
Ng’o siyapati hayo, ni bure najisumbuwa.

Mara waja na bahari,mambo yalivyo nyumbani,

Ati mambo si mazuri, mambo yote tafashani,
Wanitaka nifikiri,usemayo ni ya yakini,
Nisononeke moyoni, upate kufurahika.

Au mara unijiya, na kingine kisahani,

Kukhusu zao afiya,hao waliyo nyumbani,
Huwa hwishi kunambiya, hali zao taabani,
Zingawa; watakiyani? Ni zako au ni zao?

Na mara huja nambiya, nitakapotoka humu,

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Ya kwamba yaningojeya, nde maisha agumu,
Ulilonikusudiya, ni kunitiya wazimu?
Kama ndiyo yako hamu, basi ushatahayari

Huo urafiki wako, wa kuja niungulisha,

Kunipa masikitiko, na mateso yasokwisha,
Kutoka leo ni mwiko, sitautaka maisha,
Kamwe hutanikondesha, tokomeya mwanakwenda.

(Abdilatif Abdala, 1971)

Maswali
a) Eleza ujumbe wa shairi hili. (alama 3)
b) Taja na ueleze umuhimu wa aina ya urudiaji katika shairi hili. (alama 2)
c) Bainisha aina zifutazo za idhini za kishairi katika shairi hili (alama 4)
Inksari
Lahaja
Mazda
Kubananga sarufi
d) Eleza namna sheria za kiarudhi zimetumiwa kuboresha ubeti wa kwanza wa shairi hili
(alama. 4)
e) Bainisha nafsinenewa wa shairi hili. (alama 2)
f) Eleza toni katika shairi hili. (alama 1)
g) Andika ubeti wa mwisho katika lugha nathari. (alama 4)

SEHEMU YA C: NGUU ZA JADI: JIBU SWALI LA 3 AU 4

3. Bainisha nguu mbalimbali zilizotinga maendeleo ya nchi ya Matuo kulingana na riwaya ya

Nguu za Jadi. (alama 20)

4. ‘‘Mrima, dunia yote inajua aliyemsaliti Yesu Kristo. Unajua mtu huyo aliishia wapi?

a) Fafanua muktadha wa dondoo hili (alama 4)

b) Tambua mbinu mbili za kimtindo zinazojitokeza katika dondoo hili. (alama 4)

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c) Fafanua namna wahusika walivyowaendea kinyume wenzao katika riwaya ya Nguu za
Jadi. (alama 12)

SEHEMU YA D: BEMBEA YA MAISHA: JIBU SWALI LA 5 AU 6

5. ‘‘Japo nilipungukiwa na mengi niliyotamani, nilitaka nyinyi muote mbawa mpae juu na
kuitazama dunia kutoka kule juu kwa niaba yangu. Stahamala yangu haikuniletea hasara...’’
a) Fafanua muktadha wa dondoo hili (alama 4)
b) Bainisha toni inayojitokeza katika dondoo hili (alama 2)
c) Eleza umuhimu wa mandhari ya dondoo hili (alama 8)
d) Onyesha namna stahamala ya msemaji ilimletea manufaa (alama 6)

6. ‘‘ ... Mara ile ya kuzuka, ulikuwa kimbaumbau mwiko wa pilau. Upepo kidogo tu
ungekuyumbisha kama jani kavu wakati wa kipupwe.’’
a) Tambua mbinu nne za kimtindo katika dondoo hili (alama 4 )
b) Onyesha namna wahusika mbalimbali walivyoyumbishwa na hali tofauti katika
tamthilia (alama 10)
c) Eleza umuhimu wa msemaji wa maneno haya katika kukuza : (alama 6)
i) ploti
ii) wahusika wengine

SEHEMU YA E: MAPAMBAZUKO YA MACHWEO NA HADITHI NYINGINE: JIBU

SWALI LA 7 AU 8

7. Fafanua namna ukiukaji wa haki umeendelezwa katika hadithi zifuatazo (alama 20)

a) Fadhila za Punda
b) Sabina
c) Kifo cha Suluhu
d) Nipe Nafasi

Pupa: F.M. Kagwa

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8. a. “Pupa imenitumbukiza kwenye kisima nilichochimba, sasa naingia mwenyewe …”
a) Bainisha mbinu za kimtindo katika dondoo hili. (alama 2)
b) Huku ukitolea mifano mwafaka, onyesha ukweli wa kauli hii. (alama 8)

Kila Mchezea Wembe: Pauline Kea Kyovi

8. b“Dunia hii nayo kubwa, anasa zake nyingi huwezi kuzimaliza”

a) Eleza muktadha wa dondoo hili. (alama 4)

b) Fafanua toni katika dondoo hili. (alama 2)
c) Jadili namna ambavyo anasa imejitokeza katika hadithi hii. (alama 4)

MWISHO

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121/1
MATHEMATICS PAPER 1
2 ½ HRS
FORM 4 – MATHEMATICS PAPER 1
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• Write your name and your class in spaces provide
• The paper contains two sections. Section I and Section II
• Answer all the questions in section I and any five questions from section II.
• Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces
below each question.
• Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
• Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be
used except where stated otherwise.
• This paper consists of 16 printed pages
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY.

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL
Marks

GRAND TOTAL
Question 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 TOTAL
Marks

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SECTION A (50 marks)

Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided.

1. Without using a calculator evaluate

5x6 + (-76)÷4+27÷3
(-5)÷3 x (-4) (3mks)

2. ( a) Express 2268 in terms of its prime factors (1mk)

(b) Hence determine the smallest positive number x such that 2268x is a perfect square. (2mks)

3. Elvis arrived in Kenya with 5000 sterling pound, he exchanged it to Kenya Shilling and spent
sh. 267 100. Before jetting out of the country, he exchanged the balance into Euros. Using the
exchange rates below, calculate the amount he obtained in Euros in Kenya shillings. (3mks)

Currency Buying Selling

1 Sterling pound 114.20 114.50
1Euro 101.20 101.30

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4. Simplify the expression (3mks)
2
2x +3x-2
x3- 4x

5. When two wires of length 179m and 234m are divided into pieces of equal lengths a
remainder of 3m is left in each case. Find the least number of pieces that can be obtained.
(3mks)

1 𝑛 242
6. Without using calculator, solve for n in the equation 1-( ) = (3mks)
3 243

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7−𝑦 9−2𝑦 1
7. Solve for y in the equation - = (3mks)
4 3 2

8. Two similar solids have surface area of 48cm2 and 108cm2 respectively. Find the volume of
the smaller solid if the bigger solid has a volume of 162 cm3 (3 mks)

1
9. Use reciprocal table only to evaluate (3mks)
0.325

√0.25
Hence, evaluate to 1.d.p
0.325

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10. A plot measuring 1.2m by 19.1 m is surrounded by a path 0.5m wide. Find the area of the
path in square metres. (3mks)

11. The interior angle of a regular polygon is 600 more than its exterior angle, find the number
of sides of the polygon. (3mks)

12. Complete the following solid given that ABC is its cross-section (3mks)

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1
13. If tan x= find without using tables or calculator the value of
√3
Sin (90-x)+ cos (90-x) leaving your answer in simplified surd form (3mks)

14. A line perpendicular to the line 3y-2x=2 passes through the point (-3,2). Determine the
equation of the line and write it in the form ax +by = c where a, b, and c are constant.
(3mks)

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4 3 3 7
15. Given that A = ( ) and C = ( ) (4mks)
−1 −2 −1 −2
Find B such that A2 + B = C-1

16. Ali travelled a distance of 5km from village A to village B in direction of N600E. He then
changed direction and travelled a distance of 4km in the direction of 1350 to village C.
a) Using a scale of 1cm to represent 1.0 km represent the information on an accurate diagram.
(2mks)

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b) Using scale drawing (a) above determine
(i) distance between A and C (1mk)

(ii) bearing of A from C (1mk)

SECTION B (50mks)
Answer only five questions in this section, in the spaces provided below each question.

17. The table below shows marks obtained by 100 candidates at Highway secondary school in a
Biology examination

Marks 15-24 25-34 35-44 45-54 55-64 65-74 75-84 85-94

Frequency 6 14 24 14 x 10 6 4

a) Determine the value of x (2mk)

b) State the modal class (1mk)

c) Calculate the median mark to 4 significant figures (3mks)

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d) Using an assumed mean of 59.5 calculate the mean mark (4mks)

18. the diagram below represents a frustum of a right pyramid with a rectangular base ABCD
measuring 24cm by 18cm. the frustum was made by cutting off a small pyramid exactly 2/3 up
the vertical height

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The slant height of the original pyramid is 36cm. Calculate to 1 decimal place;
a) Vertical height of the original pyramid. (3mks)

b) Volume of the frustum. (4mks)

c) Surface area of the original pyramid. (3mks)

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19. The figure below shows a cube of side 10cm. M is the midpoint of AF

Find;
a) Length HM (4mks)

b) The angle between HM and ABCD (2 mks)

c) Angle between HM and MC (4mks)

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20. (a) Complete the table below for y= 3x2+4x+6 (2mks)

X 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0 4.5 5.0 5.5 6.0

(b) Using a trapezium rule with 5 strips determine the area enclosed by the curve y= 3x2 +4x+6.
The lines x= 1 and x= 6 and the x-axis. (2mks)

(c) Use mid-ordinate rule with 5 strips to determine the area under the curve y= 3x2+4x+6 the
lines x= 1, x=6 and x- axis. (2mks)

(d) Find the exact area enclosed by the curve y= 3x2+4x+6 the
lines x= 1, x=6 and x- axis. (2mks)

(e) Find percentage error in using trapezium rule. (2mks)

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3 4
21. a) Given that A = find inverse of A (1mk)
2 3

b) Two universities, TECK and KCT purchased beans and rice . TECK bought 90 bags of
beans and 120 bags of rice for a total of sh 360 000 . KCT bought 200 bags of beans and
300 bags of rice for a total of sh 850 000. Use matrix method to find the price of one bag of
each item . (6marks)

C) The price of beans later decreased in the ratio 4: 5 while that of rice increased by 20 %. A
businessman bought 20 bags of beans and 30 bags 0f rice. How much did he pay? (3mks)

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22. A commuter train moves from station A to D via B and C in that order, the distance from A
to C via B is 70km and that of B to D via C is 88km. Between stations A and B the train
travels at an average speed of 48km/h and it takes 15minutes. The average
speed of the train between C and D is 45km/h. Find;
a) Distance between B and C (2mks)

b) Time taken between C and D (2mks)

c) If the train halts at B for 3 minutes and at C for 4 minutes and average speed for the
whole journey is 50km/h. Find its average speed between B and C. (4mks)

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d) If the return journey was 54km/h how long did it take for the whole journey? (2mks)

23. In a triangle OPQ, OP =P and OQ= q and that N is a point on PQ such that PN = 2 PQ, M is
3
the midpoint of OQ.

(a) Find in terms of p and q the vecors

(i) PQ (1mk)

(ii) PM (1mk)

(iii ) PN (1mk)

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(b) Given further that PX= nPM and OX -= mON where m and n are scalars and that x is a point
of intersection of PM and ON.
Express OX in terms of;
i. P, q and m (1mk)

ii. P, q and n (1mk)

(c) Determine the values of m and n. (5mks)

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(d) find ratio OX= ON (1mk )

24. The floor of a rectangular room can be covered completely by a carpet costing sh. 200 per
square metre. The total cost of the carpet would be sh. 5600. Taking the length of the room
to be x m;
a) Express width of the room in terms of x (2mks)

b) If a uniform width of 1 m is left uncovered all round. The cost is sh. 2000 less. Form and
2
solve an equation to determine the value of x. (5mks)

c) Later it was decided that the floor left uncovered in (b) above should also be covered.
However the cost of the carpet had then gone up by sh. 150 per square metre. Determine
the cost in covering the previously uncovered region. (3mks)

THE END

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121/2
MATHEMATICS PAPER 2
2 ½ HRS

FORM 4 – MATHEMATICS PAPER 2

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• Write your name and your class in spaces provide
• The paper contains two sections. Section I and Section II
• Answer all the questions in section I and any five questions from section II.
• Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces
below each question.
• Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
• Non-programmable silent electronic calculators and KNEC Mathematical tables may be
used except where stated otherwise.
• This paper consists of 15 printed pages
FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY.

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL

GRAND TOTAL
Question 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 TOTAL

Marks

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SECTION 1 (50 MARKS)

Answer all questions in this section

1. Use logarithm tables to evaluate to 4 significant figures

1 1/3
90.35 + (4mks)
0.03506

2. Simplify 𝟑 +
𝟒−√𝟐 . Write your answer in the form a+ b√𝐶 (3mks)
𝟐+√𝟐 𝟐−√𝟐

3. Expand (p - 3q )5 (1mks)
hence state
i. Coefficient of p4q (1mks)
ii. Fourth term in the expansion (1mk)

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4. Make c the subject of the formula b = √𝑘 − 𝑎𝑐 , hence find the value of c when k= 1, a=4
and b= 2 (3mk

3𝑥 𝑥 − 36
5. Given that A= [ ] Find value of x such that A is a singular matrix. (3mks)
−6 2𝑥 − 2

6. The dimensions of a rectangle are 40cm and 45cm. If there is an error of 5 % in the
dimensions find the percentage error in calculating area of the rectangle. (3 mks)

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7. Solve the equation
Log 2 (2 +3x) + 3log2 2 = 2+log2 (2x+6) (3mks)

8. The cash price of a TV set is Ksh 13800. A customer opts to buy the set on hire purchase
terms by paying a deposit of Ksh. 2280. If the simple interest of 20% p.a is charged on the
balance and customer is required to pay 24 equal monthly instalments calculate the amount of
each instalment. (2mks)

9. Chords PQ and RS intersect internally at point T. Given that PT = 3.2 cm, TQ= 4.7cm and
TS = 5.2cm, find the length of chord RS. (3mks

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10. On the line AB below show by shading the region R above the line such that
i. R is nearer A than B
ii. R is not more than 3.0 cm from A (4mks)
0
iii. < ARB ≥90

11. Determine the radius and centre of a circle whose equation is

3x2 +3y2-18x+12y-9=0 (3mks)

12. Grade A coffee costs sh.100 per kg while grade B costs sh150 per kg. Find the ratio in

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which the two grades should be mixed so that by selling the mixture at sh.147 per kg a 5%
profit is realised. (3mks)

13. The following table shows income tax rates

Income Ksh per month Rate in ksh per every sh.20

1-8400 2

8401-18000 3

18001-30000 4

Above 30000 5

Mr Ngondu is a non-director of a company, he is housed freely therefore for purpose of taxation

15 % of his basic salary is added to his income to obtain a taxable income. He is also entitled to a
family relief of sh. 1162 and his P.AY.E is sh. 3038. Determine his income. (3 mks)

14. In a transformation, an object A of area 4cm2 is mapped into B of area 48cm2 by a

transformation whose matrix is 𝑦 1 determine possible values of y. (3mks)
( )
4 2

15. The figure below shows a triangle ABC not drawn to scale. Calculate the length marked b
given that AB= 240cm <BAC = 300 and <ACB =450 (3mks)

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16. Two variables R and V are such that R= kvn where k and n are constants. The table below
shows values of logR and logV to 2d.p.
Log V 0.48 0.60 0.70 0.78 0.85 0.90

Log R 1.43 1.68 1.88 2.03 2.16 2.28

On the grid provided draw a graph of Log R against log V hence find value of n (4 mks)

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SECTION II (50 MARKS)

ANSWER ONLY FIVE QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION

17. (a) Complete the table below for values of y for the curve
Y= x3-5x2+2x+9 for -2≤ x ≤5 (2mks)

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X -2 -1.5 -1 0 1 2 3 4 5

(b) Draw a graph of y= x3-5x2+2x+9 for -2 ≤ x ≤ 5 (3mk

(c) Use your graph to solve the equations

i. X3-5x2+2x+9 =0 (2mks)

ii. X3-5x2+6x = -5 (3 mks)

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18. The cost Y of producing a number of items varies partly as X and partly inversely as X. To
produce 2 items it costs sh. 135 and to produce 3 items it costs sh.140.

a) find Law connecting Y and X. (5mks)

b) Cost of producing 10 items. (2mks)

c) Number of items produced at a cost of sh.180 (3mks)

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19. The first, fourth and thirteenth terms of an AP correspond to the first three consecutive terms
of an increasing Geometric progression.
Given that the first term of the AP is a and common difference is d

(a) Write down the first three terms of the GP in terms of a and d. (1mk)

(b) The sum of the third and eleventh terms of the AP is 30.
Calculate;

i. The first term and common difference of the AP (5mks)

ii. Common ratio of the GP (2mks)

iii. Sum of the first 10 terms of the GP (2mks)

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20. (a) Two towns on latitude 300 N are 3000km apart. Find the longitude difference of the two
towns. (Take 𝜋 = 22 and radius of earth to be 6370km) (2mks)
7

(b) The position of the airport P and Q are P (600N, 450W) and Q (600N, K0E)
It takes a plane 5 hrs to travel due East from P to Q at an average speed of 600 knots.

i. Calculate the value of K (3mks)

ii. The local time at P is 10.45 am when is the local time at Q when the plane reached there?
(3mks)

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21. The probability that Andrew goes to bed on time is 2⁄3. If he goes to bed on time the
probability that he wakes up early is 3⁄5 otherwise it is 1⁄7. If Andrew wakes up late, the
probability that he will be punctual for class is1⁄4 otherwise its is 2⁄7.

(a) Draw a tree diagram to represent above the information. (2mks)

(b) Determine the probability that;

i. He will wake up late (2mks)

ii. He will wake up early and arrive in class late (2mks)

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iii. He will go to bed late but arrive class early (2mks)

iv. He will be late for class. (2mks)

22. A shear parallel to x-axis (x-axis invariant) maps point (3,1) onto ( 5,1). If S is the
transformation find the matrix that defines S (3mks)

(b) A transformation X maps points (1,3) and -2,3) onto (2,4) and (-3, -1) respectively.
Determine the matrix of transformation ` (4mks)

2 1
(c) Transformations R and T are represented by matrices ( ) and ( 3 0) respectively,
0 2 1 3
point P has coordinates ( 3,-2)
i. Find coordinates of RT(P) (3mks)

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23. A transport company runs a fleet of two types of buses operating between Meru and Nairobi.
Coach buses and Minibuses. A coach bus carries 52 passengers and 200kg of luggage while a
minibus carries 32 passengers and 300kg of luggage. On one Saturday, there were 500
passengers with 3500 kg of luggage to be transported, the company could only use a maximum
of 15 buses all together.
(a) if the company uses x coach buses and y minibuses write down all inequalities that satisfy
the given conditions. (4mks)

(b) Represent the inequalities graphically in the grid provide

(use a scale of 1cm to represent 1 unit) (3mks)

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(c) if the cost of running one coach bus is sh.7200 and that of running one minibus is sh. 6000
use the graph above to determine the minimum cost of running the vehicles (3 mks)

24. The velocity of a particle after t seconds is given by V= t2 – 4t+4.

(a) Find displacement of the particles during the third second (4mks)

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(b) Determine the time when the particle is momentarily at rest (3mks)

(c) The acceleration of the particle after 2 seconds (3mks)

THEEND

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MANGU HIGH SCHOOL POST-MOCK EXAM 2024
NAME…………………………………………………………………ADM NO……………........

DATE………………………………………………INDEX NO…………………..........................

SIGNATURE………………………PREV EXAM MARKS………………..TARGET………….

FORM 4 – PHYSICS PRACTICAL

CONFIDENTIAL INSTRUCTIONS TO SCHOOLS

Question 1

Each candidate is required to have:

• A metre rule
• Two stands
• A pendulum bob
• Some plasticine
• Stop watch
• Protractor
• Two pieces of strings (long~1m and short ~20cm one)
Question 2

Each candidate is required to have:

• A glass block (10 cm x 6 cm)

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• A Plane mirror (7cm x 6 cm)
• 4 optical pins
• A soft board
• Cellotape (about 15 cm long)
• 2 white – plain sheets of paper
• a ruler or half – metre rule
• A protractor
• 4 office pins
• a nichrome wire, 1m long mounted on mm scale and labeled AB
at the ends (SWG 28)

• A dry cell
• 1 ammeter ( 0 – 1A)
• A switch
• A bulb
• A voltmeter ( 0-5v or 0 – 3v)
• A one cell holder
• At least 6 connecting wires, one with a jockey

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232/1
PHYSICS PAPER 1 (THEORY)
2 HOURS

FORM 4 – PHYSICS PAPER 1

INSTRUCTIONS
• Write your name and admission number in the space provided
• Sign and write the date of the examination in the space provided above
• This paper consists of two sections A and B.
• Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.
• All workings must be clearly shown.
• Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may be used.
• This paper consists of11 printed pages. Candidates should check to ensure that all pages are
printed as indicated and no questions are missing
For examiner’s use only

SECTION QUESTION TOTAL MARKS CANDIDATE’S SCORE

A 1-13 25

B 14 12

15 10

16 12

17 10

18 11

GRAND TOTAL 80

TOTAL CANDIDATE’S SCORE

Section A + section B =

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SECTION A (25 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
(Take g=10N/kg or 10m/s2)
1. The figure1 below shows a wire wound on a test tube. The windings just touch each other. If
the total number of complete loops was found to be 15, and the distance covered by the
windings on the test tube is 20cm; find the radius of the wire.
(2marks)
Figure 1

20cm
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2. A paratrooper flexes his legs when he lands. Explain (1mark)
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3. A needle may float on clean water but sinks when a detergent is added. Explain. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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4. The mass of a fabric of a large balloon is 100kg. the balloon is filled with 200 m3 of helium
and attached to a cable fixed to the ground as shown below.

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Given that the densities of air and helium are 1.3 kg/m3 and 0.018kg/m3 respectively, determine
the tension in the string. (3 marks)
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5. Water flows in a pipe of diameter 7cm at a speed of 5m/s. The water then gets to the perforated
end which has 20 holes of diameter 0.7cm each.Determine the speed of water jets. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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6. For an enclosed system with a liquid, a force is applied at one point.
a) Briefly explain how force is transmitted to other parts of the system. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) State one application of such a system. (1 marks)
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7. A 150g mass tied on a string is whirled in a vertical circle of radius 30cm with a uniform speed.
At the lowest position the tension in the string is 9.5N.Calculate the velocity of the mass.
(3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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8. A spring of elastic constant K has its length increased from 4.00m when unloaded to 4.25m
when loaded with a 75N weight. Assuming that the elastic limit is not exceeded, determine the
value of K.(2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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9. The figure 2 below shows a glass tube fitted on to a boiling tube filled with water. State and
explain what is observed when the boiling tube is heated.
(2marks)
Figure 2
Glass tube
Cork

Water

10. A bus that carries goods in the roof carrier is less stable than one that carries goods in the boot.
Explain why this is so. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11. A rod consists of glass on one part and copper on the other. The rod is wrapped with a piece
of paper and then a flame passed below it. It is observed that the paper on the side with glass
is charred while that on the side of copper is not. Explain this observation. (1 mark)

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12. The figure 3 below shows a uniform 50cm rod. It is balanced horizontally by a load of 4N on
one end. Calculate the weight of the rod. (2marks)
fig. 3 20cm

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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13. The figure 4 below shows a bimetallic strip cooled below room temperature. Sketch on the
side the bimetallic strip at room temperature.
(1Mark)
Figure 4.

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SECTION B (55 Marks)
Answer all questions in this section in the spaces provided.

14. a) Define “absolute zero temperature” for an ideal gas (1 Mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) Using kinetic theory, explain Boyle’s law for an ideal gas. (2Marks)
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c) The diagram shows an experiment to investigate the relationship between volume and
temperature of a fixed mass of gas at constant pressure.

i) Explain the function of;

(I) Concentrated sulphuric acid (1 Mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(II) Stirrer (1 Mark)

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ii). Explain how the set up above can be used to verify Charles law for an ideal gas
(3Marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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iii. On the grid below sketch a graph of volume (cm3) against temperature (0c). Mark with
letterT the
absolute zero temperature.
(2 Marks)

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(d) A column of air 20cm long is trapped by mercury thread 6cm long as shown in figure 7 (a)
below.

6cm
x
Fig 7
Air
20cm 6cm

(a) (b)
If the tubeis now inverted,determine column X in figure b).Take atmospheric pressure as 76cm
of mercury. (2Marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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15. The figure 8 below shows an experimental set up for estimating the diameter of an oil molecule.
Figure 8

Tray
Water
d
Oil path

Lycopodium
powder

Wooden planks

a) Describe how the oil patch is formed (2Marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) i)In this experiment the diameter ‘d’ of the oil patch was measured to be 21cm for an oil
drop of
radius 0.28mm. Determine the diameter of the oil molecule. (3Marks)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii)State any two assumptions made in calculating the diameter of the oil molecule. (2Marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c) What is the role of the lycopodium powder in this experiment? (1Mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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d) Describe one method of determining the diameter of an oil drop. (2Marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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16. The figure 9 below shows the pattern formed on a tape in an experiment to determine the
acceleration of a trolley.The frequency of the ticker tape used was 50Hz
Figure 9

5cm
1cm

Calculate
i) The initial velocity of the trolley (2Marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) The final velocity of the trolley (2Marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
iii) The acceleration of the trolley (2Marks)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) A gun is fired vertically upwards from the top of an open truck moving horizontally at a
uniform velocity of 50m/s. The bullet attains a maximum height of 45m.
Calculate
i) The time taken by the bullet to reach the maximum height (3Marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) The distance covered by the truck just before the bullet reaches the level from which it
was fired. (3Marks)
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17. A man used a wooden plank to lift a wooden log from the ground to a stationary truck as shown
in the figure. The wooden plank is inclined at an angle of 300 to the ground.
Figure 10

i) Show that the velocity ratio of the system is given as V.R= 1

(3Marks) 𝑆𝑖𝑛 300
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) Given that the system is 65% efficient, determine the Mechanical Advantage. (3 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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iii) Explain why the efficiency of this system cannot be 100%. (1Mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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b) The figure 11 shows a pulley system.
Figure 11

Effort

Load
i) State the velocity ratio of the machine. (1Mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) Explain what happens to the Mechanical Advantage of the machine as the load is
increased gradually. (1Mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c) Water drops from a waterfall to the bottom. The temperature of the water is found to be
higher at the bottom than at the top.State the energy transformations. (1Mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
18. a) Define “specific heat capacity” of a substance (1Mark)

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b) In an experiment an aluminium block of mass 2kg was heated using an immersion heater as
shown in figure 12 below
Figure 12 (+) Thermometer
(-) A V

Aluminium block
Insulating cover

The temperature of the block was recorded every minute for exactly five minutes and then
the heater was switched off. A graph of temperature in 0c against time in minutes for the
experiment is shown below.

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Figure 13

Study the graph above and answer the questions that follow.
Suggest why;

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i) The reading in the thermometer rose relatively slowly between point A and B.
(1Mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) The temperature continued to rise after the heater was switched off (1Mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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iii) Use the straight portion of the graph (Bto C)to calculate the specific heat capacity of the
aluminium given that the voltmeter read 22.00V and ammeter 10A throughout the course
of the experiment.
(3Marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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c) Explain the two reasons why the value calculated in b) iii) will not be accurate.
(2Marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) A temperature scale X has an ice point of 400 and a steam point of 2400 .What is the
temperature in X0 when the Celsius temperature is 500C. (3Marks)
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FORM 4 – PHYSICS PAPER 2

232/2
Physics Paper 2
Time: 2 hours
Instructions
✓ Write your name, index number and name of your school in the spaces provided above.
✓ This paper consists of two sections, section I and II. Answer all the questions in both
sections.
✓ Mathematical tables and silent non – programmable calculators may be used.
✓ This paper consist of 12 printed pages. Ensure all the pages are printed.

For examiners’ use only

Maximum Candidate’s
section Question score
score
I 1 – 11 25
12 11
13 11

II 14 11
15 12
16 10

Total 80

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Section I (25 marks)
Answer all the questions in this section
1. What is the reading shown by the pointer in the figure below, if the full scale range is;

1.5
1.0 2.0
0.5
0 3 2.5
2 4 5
0 1

a) 0 - 2.5 (1 mark)

b) 0 – 5 (1 mark)

2. The following diagram shows two mirrors inclined at an angle  to each other. A ray of
light is incident on one of the mirrors and finally reflected from the second mirror parallel
to the first mirror find the angle between the mirrors.
(2 marks)

300
ɵ

3. It is not possible to charge an electroscope by contact method using a metal rod. Explain

(2 marks)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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4. A car battery is rated 40 Ah and it is expected to supply a constant current for 120
minutes.
a) What is the strength of the current delivered? (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Explain why eight dry cells in series cannot be used to start a car engine even though
they have the same e.m.f. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

5. A coil of insulated wire is wound around a u – shaped soft iron core X Y and connected
to a battery as shown below.

X Y

State the polarities of the ends X and Y. (2 marks)

X ……………………………………………………………………………………………

Y……………………………………………………………………………………………

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6. The figure below shows a coil carrying a current flowing in the direction shown in a
magnetic field.

On the same diagram draw the magnetic field lines across the coil. (1 mark)

7. An object of height 5 cm is placed 25 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 15 cm.

determine the image distance and hence state the nature of the image formed. (3 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

8. Loudspeaker placed between two wall A and B is sending out constant wave pulses.
Determine how far the loudspeaker is from wall B if it is 100m from wall A, and the time
between the two echoes received is o.2 seconds (speed of sound is 340m/s) (3 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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9. The following table shows part of the electromagnetic wave spectrum.

Ultraviolet rays
Microwaves
X-rays
Visible light

(a) On the right column of the table, arrange the waves in the order of decreasing energy. (1 marks)

(b) Give an application of each of the following electromagnetic waves. (2 marks)

i) Ultraviolet rays:

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Microwaves:

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

10.A 4  resistor is connected in series to a battery of e.m.f 6V and negligible internal

resistance. Determine the power dissipated by the resistor. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………........................

............................................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................................

11. State any two laboratory safety rules that deal with electrical safety in the lab. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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Section II (55 marks)
Answer all the questions in this section.
12. a) Define term focal length as used in thin lenses (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Give the functions of the following parts of a lens camera. (3 marks)

i. Shutter:

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………….…………………………………………………………………………………...

ii. Film

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii. Diaphragm:

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) A compound microscope with objective lens L1 of focal length 0.8cm and an eyepiece
lens L2 of focal length 2.5cm is shown in figure below. An object O is placed in front
of the objective lens at a distance u1 of 1.2cm. The system forms a final image I2 at a
distance of 10cm from L2. Determine the distance of separation of lenses L1 and L2.
(4 marks)

L2
L1

I2
O Fo Fo Fe

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) The figure below (figure 9) shows an object placed in front of a convex lens.
Complete the ray diagram to show the position of the image. (3 marks)

13. The figure below shows the features of an X-ray tube

- +
High p.d
Vacuum
Tungsten target

Filament oil
supply

Copper anode
x- rays
Cathode
Filament
(a) (i) What is the purpose of the oil going in and out of the anode (1mk)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) State the property of tungsten that makes it suitable as a target (1mk)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b)An X-ray tube operates with a potential difference of 100kv and filament
current is 20mA. Calculate;
I. The power transferred to the target of X-ray tube (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

II. The number of electrons hitting the target per set (2mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

III.
The maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons (Take charge of an
electron=1.6x10-19C, mass of an electron =9.1x10-31kg)
(2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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(c) The diagram shows monochromatic radiation falling on a photocell connected to a
circuit

Anode Incident
monochromatic
Variable d.c supply
-6v to 6v
Photo cathode

The incident radiation has a wavelength of 2.15x10-7m. The metal surface of the
photocell has a work function of 2.26 eV.
(i) Calculate the energy in eV of a photon of the incident radiation (Take
c=3.0x108m/s, h=6.63x10-34Js and e=1.6x10-19C) (3mks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………..…

(ii) What is the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electrons (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………..…

(iii)Write down the value of the stopping potential (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

14. a) State Snell’s law (1 mark)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) A student prepares to swim to the bottom of a pool to pick a coin on the bed. It is only
while under the water that she realizes the presence of a sharp object beside the coin
that she had not seen. Explain a possible reason why it was not visible in clear
swimming pool water. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

c) The figure below shows a ray of light travelling

i) Calculate the refractive index of water with respect to glass given the refractive
index of glass and water are 3/2 and 4/3 respectively. (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) Calculate the angle Ɵ (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

d) Using a well-labeled diagram, describe how optic fibers are used for communication.
(3 marks)

15. a) Define the term capacitance. (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) The figure below shows two charged plates close to each other
++ ++ + + + + + ++ + + +

--------------------- -- -

(i) Complete the diagram to show the electric field patterns between the plates
(1 mark)

(ii) Without changing the area of overlap, suggest any two ways of increasing the
capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

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c) You have been provided with THREE identical capacitors each of capacitance 12 
F. State and show how you would combine them to get the following effective
capacitance

(i) 36µF (2marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

4µF (2marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) 8µF (2marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

16. (a) (i) The following nuclear reaction is part of a radioactive series


210
82 A⎯⎯ →210x B⎯
⎯r →210
84C ⎯
⎯s →206yD

I. Name the radiation represented by r and s (1mk

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r……………………………..………………………………………..……………………………

s …………………………………………………………………………………………………..

II. Determine the number represented by x and y (1mk)

x …………………………………………………………………………………………………….

y …………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(ii) The figure below shows the features of diffusion cloud chamber used for detecting
radiations from radioactive sources

Felt soaked in alcohol

Base of chamber
Lamp Radioactive source

Solid CO2
Transparent glass
Form

I. State the property of alcohol that makes it suitable for use in the chamber (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

II. What is the purpose of the solid CO2? (1mk)

………………………………………………………………………………………………………

III. Explain how the radiation from the radioactive source is detected in the
chamber. (2mks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………

IV. State one advantage of the cold chamber over a charged gold leaf electroscope
when used as detectors of radiation (1mk)

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………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) The graph below shows how the activity of a sample of the radioisotope
technetium which is used extensively in medicine, varies with time

8
7

6
Activity x 107(B2)

0
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20 22 24
Time (hours)
I. Use the graph to determine the half-life. T ½ of technetium (1mk)

0.6931
II. Hence calculate the decay constant for technetium given that T1 = where
2 
 is the decay constant. (1mk)

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III. Determine the number of technetium atoms remaining in the sample after 24
hours (1mk)

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MANGU HIGH SCHOOL POST-MOCK EXAM 2024
NAME…………………………………………………………………ADM NO……………........

DATE………………………………………………INDEX NO…………………..........................

SIGNATURE………………………PREV EXAM MARKS………………..TARGET………….

232 / 3

PHYSICS PAPER 3 PRACTICAL

2 ½ HOURS

FORM 4 – PHYSICS PAPER 3

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
❖ Write your name and Admission number in the spaces provided above.
❖ Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
❖ You are supposed to spend the first 15 minutes of the 2 ½ hours allowed for this paper reading
the whole paper carefully before commencing your work.
❖ Marks are given for a clear record of the observations actually made, for their suitability and
accuracy and the use made of them.
❖ Candidates are advised to record their observations as soon as they are made.
❖ Mathematical table and electronic calculators may be used.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY
Question Score
1
2
Total

This paper consists of 6 printed pages.

Candidates should check the question paper to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and no questions
are missing.

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1. You are provided with the following apparatus
• A metre rule
• Two stands
• A pendulum bob
• Some plasticine
• Stop watch
• Protractor
• Two pieces of strings (long and short one)
Proceed as follows:

a) Attach one end of the length of string to the metre rule at 10cm mark. Mark by use of a
sliding loop of string round the meter rule.
b) Fix the string at this point with the small bob of plasticine.
c) Tie the string in a second loop at 90cm mark so that the string is stretched taught between
the two marks.
d) Fix this loop with a small plasticine. Attach the pendulum bob to the centre of the string so
that the centre of gravity is 15cm below the point of suspension.
e) If the attachments of the pendulum bob to the pieces does not produce a V-shape squeeze
the string at the knot between the thumb and the fore finger.

A B

L1 L2

2

15cm

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i) Measure the angle 2
ii) Pull the pendulum bob towards you through a small distance, release it; measure the time (t) of
the motion by timing 10 oscillations.
iii) Remove the plasticine at B and slide the loop towards A by 4cm and repeat (ii) above for other
distances AB as shown in the table below.
RESULTS
(9 marks)

Length from A to B(cm) 80 76 72 68 64 60

Time for 10 oscillations(s)

Periodic time T(s)

T2(s2)

2

cos

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f) Plot a graph of T2 against Cos 
g)

(5 marks)

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g) Find the slope S of the graph. (3 marks)

1.6 2
h) Given that S = , find k (3 marks)
k

2. PART A

a) You are provided with the following apparatus

- a glass block

- a plane mirror

- 4 optical pins

- a soft board

- A cellotape ( about 15cm long)

- 2 white – plain sheets of paper

- a ruler or half metre rule

- a protractor

- 4 office pins

Proceed as follows:-

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(i) Using the cello tape provided fix the plane mirror to the glass block alongside as shown in the
figure below. The reflecting surface to face the glass block.
Length

Plane mirror

Glass Breadth
block

(ii) With the use of the office pins, secure firmly a white plain paper on the board and place the block
together with attached mirror.
(iii) Draw the outline of the glass block together with the mirror
(iv) Remove the block and the mirror and draw a normal at B somewhere a quarter- way the length
of the outline you drew in (iii) above.
(v) Draw four(4) different rays AB incident at B and extended to C. The incident rays should make
angles 10, 20, 30,and 40.
(vi) Replace the glass block together with the attached mirror so as exactly fit the outline in(iii)
(vii) Place two object pins P1 and P2 along the 10 line. Locate the images of pinsP1 and P2 as they
appear by non-parallax (the images of the pins appear to be in a straight line when viewed through
the glass block).
Place pins P3 and P4 so that the images of pins P1 and P2 are not seen.

(viii) Remove the glass block together with the attached mirror from the outline and produce the lines
joining P1 to P2 and P3 to P4 so that the they intersect at C. Measure and record the distance x in
the table 2 below. (4 marks)

NB. It may be necessary for you to draw another outline so as to avoid congestion of
(construction) lines.

Angle i  10 20 30 40

Distance x(cm)

Table 2

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(ix) Now measure the breadth b of the glass block.
b= (1mark)

(x) Calculate the average Ax of the values of x in table 3 above

Ax (1mark)

(xi) Determine the refractive index of the glass block using the formula.

𝑏
Refractive index n of glass 𝑛 = (2 marks)
𝐴𝑥

PART B

You are provided with the following

- A nichrome wire 1m long mounted on a scale

- A dry cell
- 1 ammeter ( 0 – 1A)
- A switch
- A bulb
- A voltmeter ( 0-5v or 0 – 3v)
- A one cell holder
- At least 6 connecting wires, one with a jockey
Proceed as follows

a) (i) Set up the circuit as shown in fig. 2

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Fig 2

jockey

(ii) With the jockey / crocodile clip at B (L=100cm) note the voltmeter reading V and
ammeter reading, I and record on the table III below.
(iii) Repeat the procedure in (ii) above for L=80cm, 60cm, 40cm, 20cm and 0cm and record.
5 marks

Table III

L(cm) 100 80 60 40 20 0

V(volts)

I (A)

iv) Plot the graph of V(y-axis) against I on the grid provided. 5marks

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v) Calculate the slope of your graph when current is 0.15A. 2 marks

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