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UPSC 2023 Scholarship Test

IAS hunt questions

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30 views15 pages

UPSC 2023 Scholarship Test

IAS hunt questions

Uploaded by

Sagar UDAAN IAS
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
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UDAAN IAS

NATIONAL SCHOLARSHIP TEST


UPSC 2023

IAS HUNT
23 में 23
5, Sector 19
SCF 4
d
514400 Faridaba
0 | 8130
40
8130654
Q.1] With reference to ‘Arctic Report Q.4] Military exercise: Associated
Card’, consider the following statements armed force
1. Samanvay: Indian Army
1. The report has been compiled by the
2. Garuda Shakti: Indian Air Force
Global Climate Observatory System of the
3. Naseem al Bahr: Indian Navy
World Meteorological Organization
4. Parvat Prahar: Indian Special Forces
2. Temperatures in the Arctic Circle have
Which of the following pair(s) given above
been rising much more quickly than those
are correctly matched
in the rest of the planet according to the
a) Only one pair
report
b) Only two pairs
3. Sea ice retreats, storms passing over
c) Only three pairs
warmer water and cooler air which can
d) All the pairs
hold more moisture are the main factors
that could be increasing precipitation in
Q.5] India has recently signed
different parts of the Arctic.
Economic Cooperation and Trade
Which of the following statements are
Agreement (ECTA) with which of the
correct?
following country?
a) 1 and 2 Only
a) United States
b) 2 Only
b) Japan
c) 2 and 3 Only
c) Australia
d) 1 and 3 Only
d) Bangladesh

Q.2] ‘Aeronomy’ a term seen in news


Q.6] Consider the following
is related to
statements regarding Green crackers.
a) Understanding the motion of air when
1. Green crackers cause 90 per cent less
affected by a solid object
air pollution as compared to traditional
b) Stealth capability of aircrafts
ones.
c) Creating zero pressure conditions
2. Green crackers absorb dust and don’t
d) Study of the upper atmospheric regions
contain hazardous elements like barium
of the Earth
nitrate.
3. They are developed by the Council of
Q.3] Consider the following
Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR).
statements regarding Share buyback.
Which of the above statement is/are
1. According to SEBI proceeds, a loss-
correct?
making company cannot repurchase its
a) 1 and 2 only
shares.
b) 1 and 3 only
2. To be eligible to participate in the share
c) 2 and 3 only
repurchase process, a shareholder needs to
d) All of the above
hold the shares of the company, which has
announced the buyback, before the record
Q.7] ‘Sukapaika’ a river seen in news
date declared in the announcement.
is a distributary of which river ?
Which of the above statements is/are
a) Kosi b) Mahanadi
correct?
c)Narmada d) Banas
a) 1 only b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.8] Consider the following d) Agricultural Produce Marketing
statements regarding ‘Global Hunger Index’ Committee
1. The report is released by Concern
Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe Q.12] Which of the following brings
2. All the indicators used for calculation of out the 'Consumer Price Index Number for
the index are related to health of Children Industrial Workers?
Choose the correct answer using the code (a) The Reserve Bank of India
given below (b) The Department of Economic Affairs
a) 1 only (c) The Labour Bureau
b) 2 only (d) The Department of Personnel and
c) Both 1 and 2 Training
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.13] Which one of the following
Q.9] ‘Narcondam’ an island seen in issues the 'Global Economic Prospects'
news recently is known for report periodically?
a) Having India’s only active volcano (a) The Asian Development Bank
b) A submarine command was (b) The European Bank for Reconstruction
established and Development
c) It is India’s easternmost island (c) The US Federal Reserve Bank
d) It is home to the Sentinelese (d) The World Bank

Q.10] Which one of the following best Q.14] The problem of international
describes the main objective of ‘Seed Village liquidity is related to the non-availability of
Concept’? (a) goods and services
a) Encouraging the farmers to use their (b) gold and silver
own farm seeds and discouraging them (c) dollars and other hard currencies
to buy the seeds from others (d) exportable surplus
b) Involving the farmers for training in
quality seed production and thereby to Q.15] Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan
make available quality seeds to others Yojana’ has been launched for
at appropriate time and affordable cost (a) providing housing loan to poor people at
c) Earmarking some villages exclusively cheaper interest rates
for the production of certified seeds (b) promoting women’s Self-Help Groups in
d) Identifying the entrepreneurs in backward areas
villages and providing them technology (c) promoting financial inclusion in the
and finance to set up seed companies country
(d) providing financial help to the
Q.11] The Fair and Remunerative Price marginalized communities
(FRP) of sugarcane is approved by the
a) Cabinet Committee on Economic Q.16] The Government of India has
Affairs established NITI Aayog to replace the
b) Commission for Agricultural Costs a) Human Rights Commission
and Prices b) Finance Commission
c) Directorate of Marketing and c) Law Commission
Inspection, Ministry of Agriculture d) Planning Commission
d) Management of concerned bank
Q.17] The term 'West Texas
Intermediate', sometimes found in news, Q.22] Economic growth is usually
refers to a grade of coupled with
a) Crude oil a) Deflation
b) Bullion b) Inflation
c) Rare earth elements c) Stagflation
d) Uranium d) Hyperinflation

Q.18] In a given year in India, official


poverty lines are higher in some States than Q.23] A “closed economy” is an
in others because economy in which
a) poverty rates vary from State to a) the money supply is fully controlled
State b) deficit financing takes place
b) price levels vary from State to State c) only exports take place
c) Gross State Product varies from State d) neither exports nor imports take place
to State
d) quality of public distribution varies
from State to State

Q.24] Disguised unemployment


generally means
Q.19] Among the following, which one a) large number of people remain
is the largest exporter of rice in the world in unemployed
the last five years? b) alternative employment is not available
a) China c) marginal productivity of labour is zero
b) India d) productivity of workers is low
c) Myanmar
d) Vietnam
Q.25] Regarding the Indus valley
civilization, consider the following
Q.20] Which of the following is not statements:
included in the assets of a commercial bank 1. It was predominantly a secular
in India? civilization first it was
a) Advances predominantly a secular civilization
b) Deposits and the religious elements, though
c) Investments present, did not dominate the scene.
d) Money at call and short notice 2. During this period, cotton was used
for manufacturing textiles in India.
Q.21] The Chairmen of public sector Which of these statements given above is or
banks are selected by the are correct
a) 1 only
a) Banks Board Bureau b) 2 only
b) Reserve Bank of India c) Both 1 and 2
c) Union Ministry of Finance d) Neither 1 nor 2.
Q.26] Match list one with list two and 3. The last ruler of the Kanav dynasty was
select the correct answer from the codes deposed by the Andhras.
given below Which of these statements is or are correct?
List I List II a) 1 and 2
A) Rigveda 1. Musical hymns b) only 2
B) Yajurveda 2. Hymns and rituals c) only 3
C) Samaveda 3. Charms and spells d) 1, 2 and 3
D) Atharvaveda 4. Hymns and prayers

Code: A B C D Q.31] Consider the following statements.


a) 4 2 1 3 Assertion (A): During the time of Akbar
b) 3 2 4 1 for every 10 cavalry men, the
c) 4 1 2 3 mansabdars had to maintain twenty
d) 2 3 1 4 horses.
Reason (R): Horses had to be rested
Q.27] What does ‘Triratna’ means in while on march and replacements were
Buddhism? necessary in the times of war.
a) Tripitaka
b) Buddha, Dhamma, Sangha Chose the correct option:
c) Sheel, Samadhi, Sangha a) both A & R is true and R is the correct
d) Satya, Ahimsa, Karuna explanation of A
b) both A & R are true but R is not the
Q.28] Which is called lokayukta correct explanation of A
darshan? c) A is true but R is false
a) Jain d) A is false but R is true.
b) Buddha
c) Charvaka Q.32] With reference to Mian Tansen
d) Samkhya which one of the following statements is not
correct?
Q.29] Which of the following a) Tansen was the title given to him by
statements regarding Ashokan stone pillars emperor Akbar
is incorrect? b) Tansen composed dhrupads on
a) these are highly polished Hindu gods and goddesses
b) these are monolithic c) Tansen composed songs on his
c) the shaft of pillars is tapering in shape patrons
d) these are parts of architectural d) Tansen invented many ragas.
structures.
Q.33] Who among the following was
Q.30] Consider the following the first European to initiate the policy of
statements what taking part in the quarrels of Indian
1. The last Maurya ruler Brihadratha was princesses with the view to acquire
assassinated by his commander-in-chief territories ?
Pushyamitra shunga a) Clive
2. The last Shunga king Devabhuti was b) Dupleix
assassinated by his brahmana minister c) Albuquerque
Vasudev kanav who usurped the throne d) Warren Hastings
Q.34] Consider the following d) Bhagat Singh
1. assessment of land revenue on the basis
of nature of the soil and the quality of Q.38] Consider the following events:
crops 1) Indigo revolt
2. use of mobile cannons in warfare 2) Santhal rebellion
3. cultivation of tobacco and red chillies 3) Deccan riot
4) Mutiny of sepoys.
Which of the above was or were introduced The correct chronological sequence of these
into India by the English? events is:
a) only 1 a) 4,2,1,3
b) 1 and 2 b) 4,2,3,1
c) 2 and 3 c) 2,4,3,1
d) none of these. d) 2,4,1,3

Q.35] Which of the following pairs is


correctly matched?
a) Battle of Buxar- Mir Jafar v/s Clive Q.39] Lord Macaulay was related to:
b) Battle of Wandiwash-French v/s East a) Military reforms
India company b) Abolishment of sati
c) Battle of Chilianwala-Dalhousie v/s c) English education
marathas d) Permanent settlement
d) Battle of Khurda-Nizam v/s East India
company
Q.40] Match list-I and list-II and select
Q.36] Consider the following the correct answer from the codes given
statements below
1. In the Third battle of Panipat, List-I List-II
Ahmadshah Abdali defeated Ibrahim Newspapers Editors
lodhi A. Kal 1. Surendranath Banerjee
2. Tipu Sultan was killed in the third B. Bengalee 2. Gopalkrishna Gokhale
Anglo Mysore war C. Sudharak 3. Dwarkanath
3. Meer Jafar entered in conspiracy with D. Somaprakash 4. Shivram M. Prapanje
the English for the defeat of Nawab Codes:
Siraj-ud-daula in the Battle of Plassey A B C D
Which of these statements given above is or a) 4 1 2 3
are correct? b) 4 1 3 2
a) 1, 2 and 3 c) 3 1 4 2
b) 3 only d) 3 1 2 4
c) 2 and 3
d) none. Q.41] Who was the first woman
president of the Indian National Congress?
Q.37] Who among the following was a) Sarojini naidu
not associated with the revolt of 1857 b) Sucheta Kriplani
a) Tatya Tope c) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
b) Rani Lakshmi Bai d) Annie besant
c) Bahadur Shah Zafar
Q.42] Who among the following d) Kottagudem-Kalakote-Korba-Talcher
organized the famous Chittagong armoury
raid? Q.47] Velikonda Range is a structural
a) Lakshmi Sehgal part of
b) Suryasen (a) Western Ghats
c) Batukeshwar Dutt (b) Western Himalaya
d) JM Sengupta. (c) Eastern Ghats
(d) Eastern Himalaya
Q.43] Which of the following were the
main objectives of the khilafat movement? Q.48] Match the items in List-I with
1. To rouse anti-British feelings among the items in List-II.
the Muslims of India Choose the correct answer using the code
2. To reform the Muslim society given below the lists:
3. To demand separate electorates and
preserve the khilafat List-I (Phenomenon) List II-(Date)
4. To save the Ottoman Empire and A. Summer Solstice 1. 21st June
preserve the khilafat B. Winter Solstice 2. 22nd December
Choose the correct answers from the codes C. Vernal Equinox 3. 23rd September
given below. D. Autumnal Equinox 4. 21st March
Codes:
a) 1 and 2 Code: A B C D
b) 2 and 3 (a) 4 2 3 1
c) 3 and 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
d) 1 and 4 (c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 1 2 3 4
Q.44] Who among the following
drafted the resolution on fundamental Q.49] Why is summer the only season
rights for the Karachi session of Congress in experienced by the Equatorial
1931? region?
a) Mahatma Gandhi 1. The length of day and night is more or
b) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru less equal over the year.
c) Dr Rajendra Prasad 2. The Coriolis force is zero at the Equator.
d) Dr BR Ambedkar 3. The Earth's rotational velocity is
maximum at the Equator.
Q.45] Of the following, biodiversity is Select the correct answer using the code
richest in which of the following region? given below:
a) Arctic regions (a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 Only
b) Equatorial (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
c) Tropical regions
d) Temperate regions Q.50] To which of the following
empires did the river Tungabhadra provide
Q.46] Arrange these coal mines of sustenance?
India from north to south. (a) Chera
a) Kalakote-Korba-Talcher-Kottagudem (b) Rashtrakuta
b) Kalakote-Kottagudem-Korba-Talcher (c) Pallava
c) Kalakote-Korba-Kottagudem-Talcher (d) Vijayanagara
(d) Bangladesh, South Korea, Indonesia,
Q.51] Using the code given below the Cambodia and Rwanda
options, identify the largest and smallest
respectively in terms of geographical area Q.54] Identify the non-renewable
among the following Indian states: resource.
1. Himachal Pradesh (a) Solar Energy
2. Andhra Pradesh (b) Coal
3. Odisha (c) Biomass
4. Uttarakhand (d) Wind
5. Chhattisgarh
Code: Q.55] Where is the Mahatma Gandhi
(a) 2 and 4 Marine National Park located?
(b) 1 and 4 (a) Bhitarkanika
(c) 5 and 3 (b) Port Blair
(d) 2 and 5 (c) Gulf of Mannar
(d) Kachchh
Q.52] Based upon an examination of
the following statements, choose Q.56] Which of these is the Pir Panjal
the answers using the code below: Range in the Himalayas part of?
Statement I: The Kuro Shio is a warm north- (a) Ladakh Ranga
flowing ocean current on the west side of (b) Central Himalaya
the North Pacific Ocean. (c) Lesser Himalaya
Statement II: Presence of a number of (d) Karakoram Range
volcanoes at the bottom of the Sea of Japan
is responsible for the Kuro Shio becoming
warm. Q.57] Which of these is not a tributary
Code: of the river Ganga?
(a) Both the statements are individually (a) Tista
true and Statement II is the correct (b) Ramganga
explanation of Statement I (c) Gomati
(b) Statement I is false but Statement II is (d) Yamuna
true
(c) Both the statements are individually
true but Statement Q.58] In the term GIS, 'G' stands for
II is not the correct explanation of (a) Google
Statement I (b) Geographic
(d) Statement I is true but Statement II is (c) Graphic
false (d) Geospatial

Q.53] Identify the members of BRICS. Q.59] Which of the following is


(a) Brazil, Russia, India, China and South accurate?
Africa (a) Chilika is known for tiger reserve.
(b) Bhutan, Italy, Canada Romania and (b) Periyar National Park is meant for lion
Saudi Arabia conservation.
(c) Brazil, Russia, India, China and Sri Lanka (c) Pachmarhi is a biosphere reserve.
(d) Nal Sarovar is a Wildlife Sanctuary
(b) 3 and 5
Q.60] The All India Census was (c) 1, 2, 4 and 5
1. first attempted in 1872 (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. regularly undertaken since 1881
3. always undertaken as a seven-year Q.64] A news item is broadcast from
exercise London at 12.00 noon on Sunday.
Select the correct answer using the code At what time and on what day it will be
given below: heard at Dhaka (90° E)?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 Refer atlas page 3rd cover
(b) 2 and 3 (a) 6.00 p.m. on Monday
(c) 1 and 2 (b) 6.00 p.m. on Sunday
(d) 1 only (c) 6.00 a.m. on Monday
(d) 6.00 a.m. on Sunday
Q.61] Which one of the following
National Parks has a climate that Q.65] Identify the pair of islands that
varies from tropical to subtropical, are separated from each other by the Ten
temperate and arctic? Degree Channel.
(a) Singalila National Park (a) Nicobar and Borneo
(b) Namdapha National Park (b) Minicoy and Suheli
(c) Corbett National Park (c) Andaman and Nicobar
(d) Bandipur National Park (d) Maldives and Minicoy

Q.62] Which of the following factors Answer the following questions from the
leads to the occurrence of tides in the passages below:
oceans and seas?
1. Gravitational force of the Sun Thousands of candles can be lighted from
2. Gravitational force of the Moon a single candle and the life of the candle
3. Gravitational force of the Earth will not be shortened. Happiness never
Select the correct answer using the code decreases by being shared.
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 Q.66] Which one of the following
(b) 2 and 3 expresses the view implied from the above
(c) 1 and 2 passage?
(d) 2 Only
(a) Happiness can be given to an infinite
Q.63] Identify the activities for which number of people and it will not diminish or
Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) decrease
satellites are used. (b) Happiness increases by sharing
1. Assessment of crop productivity (c) Happiness is something personal. It
2. Locating ground water resources cannot be shared with anyone
3. Mineral exploration (d) A single candle may light many other
4. Telecommunications candles, but its own energy may be sapped
5. Traffic studies
Select the correct answer using the code Mudra Scheme is aimed at 'funding the
given below. unfunded'. The small entrepreneurs of
(a) 1 and 4 India are used for exploitation at the
hands of moneylenders so far, with the
introduction of Mudra Scheme; a new Q.69] If ABC x DEED=ABCABC, where
confidence will be instilled in the A, B,C, D and E are different digits, what are
entrepreneurs as the country was ready the values of D and E?
to support them in their efforts. Brand
building, advertising, marketing and a) D = 0, E = 1
financial support, when given to such b) D = 1, E = 2
small entrepreneurs will strengthen the c) D = 2, E = 0
foundation of the Indian economy. A d) D = 1, E = 0
number of facilities provided for the large
industries in India, but there is a need to
focus on these 5 crore 75 lakh self- Q.70] A and B can do a piece of work in
employed people, who use funds of 11 45 days and 40 days, respectively. They
lakh crore with an average per unit debt began to do the work together but, A left
of ₹ 17000 to employ 12 crore Indians. after some days and then B completed the
These facts have led to the vision for remaining work in 23 days. The number of
Mudra Bank. days after which A left the work, is

Q.67] Which of the following is the a) 7 days


most logical, rational and critical inference b) 9 days
that can be made from the passage? c) 11 days
d) 12 days
(a) Mudra Scheme is going to boost Indian
economy as it will provide financial support Q.71] There are 50 students admitted
and brand building to small entrepreneurs to a nursery class. Some students can speak
who have to struggle a lot to get finance for only English and some can speak only Hindi.
their business 10 students can speak both English and
(b) Mudra Scheme will help the small Hindi. If the number of students who can
entrepreneurs from exploitation by speak English is 21, then how many
moneylenders as nation was willing to students can speak Hindi, how many can
extend credit to these self-employed people, speak only Hindi and how many can speak
who employ 12 crore people in the country only English?
(c) A lot of Indians are unemployed and
Mudra Scheme can give impetus to a) 21, 11 and 29, respectively
entrepreneurship b) 28, 18 and 22, respectively
(d) The small credits will not bring about a c) 37, 27 and 13, respectively
huge change in Indian economy d) 39, 29 and 11, respectively

Q.68] Out of the fractions, 4/7, 5/13, Q.72] If f(x) = (x+3) and g(x) = 4x, then
6/11, 3/5 and 2/3, f{g(2)} is equal to
Which is the second smallest fraction?
a) 12
a) 4/7 b) 11
b) 5/13 c) 8
c) 6/11 d) 9
d) 3/5
Q.73] Find the wrong term in the Select the correct answer using the codes
series given below
2, 10, 50, 260, 1250, 6250. a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3
a) 50 c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
b) 260 d) 2 and 4
c) 1250
d) 6250 Q.77] Consider the following
statements:
Q.74] Consider the following 1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is
phenomena transmitted by the same mosquito that
transmits dengue.
1. Size of the Sun at dusk 2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease
2. Colour of the Sun at dawn is possible.
3. Moon being visible at dawn Which of the statements given above is/are
4. Twinkling of stars in the sky correct?
5. Polestar being visible in the sky. (a) Only 1
Which of the above are optical illusions? (b) Only 2
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2, 3 and 5 Q.78] What is the application of
Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology?
Q.75] Rainbow is produced when (a) Production of bio larvicides
sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the (b) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics
following physical phenomena are (c) Reproductive cloning of animals
responsible for this? (d) Production of organisms free of diseases
1. Dispersion
2. Refraction
3. Internal reflection Q.79] Which one of the following
Select the correct answer using the codes reflects back more sunlight as compared to
given below other three?
(a) 1 and 2 (a) Sand desert
(b) 2 and 3 (b) Paddy crop land
(c) 1 and 3 (c) Land covered with fresh snow
(d) All of these (d) Prairie land

Q.76] Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a Q.80] What is the purpose of 'evolved


health hazard. After the addition of lead to Laser Interferometer Space Antenna
petrol has been banned, what still are the (eLISA)' project?
sources of lead poisoning? (a) To detect neutrinos
1. Pens and pencils (b) To detect gravitational waves
2. Smelting units (c) To detect the effectiveness of missile
3. Hair oils and cosmetics defence system
4. Paints (d) To study the effect of solar flares on our
communication Systems
3. Elections Commission resolves the
Q.81] The terms 'Event Horizon', disputes relating to splits/mergers of
Singularity', 'String Theory' and 'Standard recognised political parties.
Model' are sometimes seen in the news in Which of the statements given above is/are
the context of correct?
(a) Observations and understanding of the (a) 1 and 2
Universe (b) Only 2
(b) Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses (c) 2 and 3
(c) Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth (d) 3 only 20s
(d) Origin and evolution of living organisms
on the Earth Q.86] Consider the following statements with
respect to Equality before Law and Equal
Q.82] Which one of the following Protection of Laws:
objectives is not embodied in the Preamble 1. The Indian constitution adopted equal
to the Constitution of India? protection of laws instead of equality before
a) Liberty of thought law.
b) Economic liberty 2. The concept of equality of laws connotes
c) Liberty of expression that the like should be treated alike without
d) Liberty of belief any discrimination.
3. The concept of Equal Protection of Laws
Q.83] Democracy's superior virtue lies in the connotes the equality of treatment under
fact that it calls into activity equal circumstances.
(a) the intelligence and character of
ordinary men and women Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) the methods for strengthening executive correct?
leadership. (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) a superior individual with dynamism (b) 3 only
and vision. (c) l and 3 only
(d) a band of dedicated party workers (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.84] For election to the Lok Sabha, a Q.87] Which among the following determines
nomination paper can be filled by that the Indian Constitution is federal?
(a) anyone residing in India. 1. A written and rigid Constitution
(b) a resident of the constituency from 2. An independent Judiciary
which the election is to be contested. 3. Dual Citizenship
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears 4. Distribution of powers between the
in the electoral roll of a constituency. Centre and the States Choose the correct
(d) Any citizen of India. answer by using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
Q.85] Consider the following statements : (b) 2 and 4 only
1. The Election Commission of India is a (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
five-member (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides
the election schedule for the conduct of both
general elections and bye-elections.
Q.88] Consider the following statements with Q.92] Consider the following statements:
respect to Secularism as practiced in India 1. The Directive Principles of State Policy
1. The Indian Constitution embodies the (DPSP) is borrowed from the Irish
positive concept of secularism. Constitution.
2. It places equal focus on intra-religious 2. Dr. Ambedkar has described the Directive
and interreligious domination. Principles as the Conscience of the
3. It allows equal disrespect for some Constitution.
aspects of organised religions 3. To promote equal justice and to provide
Choose the correct statements using the free legal aid to the poor is a Gandhian
codes given below principle.
a) 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above is/are
b) 3 Only correct?
c) 2 and 3 (a) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above (b) 1 only
(c) 1,2and
Q.89] Which of the following are not (d) 2 only
Fundamental duties as given under Article
51A of the Indian Constitution? Q.93] Which of the following statements are
1. To defend the country. correct about Delimitation Commission?
3. To safeguard public property. 1. The chairman of the commission will
Choose the correct answer using codes always be the Chief Election Commissioner
below of India.
a) 1, 2 and 4 2. In case of dispute regarding commission's
b) 2, 3 and 4 report, the appeal lies only with the
c) 2 and 4 Supreme Court.
d) All of the above Choose the correct answer using codes
below
Q.90] The writ of certiorari can be issued a) 1 only
against b) 2 only
1. Judicial and quasi-judicial authorities c) Both 1 and 2
2. Administrative authorities d) None of the above
3. Legislative bodies
a) l and 3 Q.94] Consider the following statements with
b) 2 only reference to the Money bills
c) 2 and 3 1. A money bill can be introduced only
d) All of the above by a Minister.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot reject or
Q.91] The directive principles of State Policy amend the money bill.
have been given precedence over 3. The President cannot withhold his
Fundamental Rights in the Constitutional assent to the bill.
Amendment: Choose the correct statement/s using codes
a) 41st below
b) 42nd a) 1and2
c) 45th b) 1and3
d) 43rd c) 2and3
d) All of the above
Q.95] Which of the following grant is made 1. Reservation of a Bill for the Consideration
when funds to meet the proposed of the President.
expenditure on a new service can be made 2. Recommendation for the imposition of
available by re-appropriation? the President's Rule in the State.
a) Additional Grant 3. Making the rules to conduct the business
b) Excess Grant of the state government.
c) Supplementary Grant 4. Exercising his functions as the
d) Token Grant administrator of an adjoining union
territory.
Q.96] Which of the following bills do not lapse Which of the statements given above are
on dissolution of Lok Sabha? correct?
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha a) 1,2and4
2. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha b) 1,3and4
but not passed by the Lok Sabha. c) 2,3and4
3. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
pending in the Rajya Sabha
4. A bill passed by both Houses but Q.100] Consider the following
returned by the president for statements with respect to ‘National Cyber
reconsideration of Houses Security Strategy’.
Choose the correct statement/s using codes
below 1. It formulates a risk-based approach to be
a) 1, 2 and 3 adopted by the private sector, the
b) 2 and 4 government, academia and civil society in
c) 3 and 4 responding to cyber-related threats
d) 1, 3 and 4 2. The Cyber Security Strategy has been
prepared by National Security Council
Q.97] Which of the following decides the Secretariat (NSCS) under Ministry of Home
question of disqualification of a member of Affairs
the Parliament, arising on the ground of Which of the following statements are
defection? correct?
a) President of India a) 1 Only b) 2 Only
b) Election Commission c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Supreme Court
d) Presiding Officer of the House

Q.98] Who has the power to declare an area


as a scheduled area?
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) Governor of that state
d) Chief Minister of that state

Q.99] Consider the following statements


about the discretionary power of a
governor of a state.

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