Made by/ D.

r Mostafa Ahmed

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 TABLE OF CONTENTS

Introduction to anatomy……………………………………………………………………………..3&4
Bone tissue and cartilage. ………………………………………………………………………4&5&6
Joints. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………….6&7 4th week of pregnancy…………………………………………………………………………34&35

Muscles. ……………………………………………………………………………………………..7&8&9 External appearance during second month of pregnancy

Skin and fascia. ……………………………………………………………………………………….9&10 &Monthly changes til birthtime …………………………………………………….35&36&37
Human chromosomes. …………………………………………………………………………..11&12 Fetal membranes ……………………………………………………………………………37&38&39
Cardiovascular system. ……………………………………………………………………16&17&18 Placenta & twins &Birth defects………………………………………………………39&40&41
Digestive system. ……………………………………………………………………………..14&15&16

CNS………………………………………………………………………………………………………16&17&18

Respiratory system………………………………………………………………………….18&19&20

Urinary system. ………………………………………………………………………………20&21&22

Reproductive system………………………………………………………………………22&23&23

Endocrine system. ………….…………………………………………………..…………24&25&26

Gametogenesis …………………………………………………………….……..……….26&27&28

Female cycles…………………………………………………………………………….…….……28&29

1st week of pregnancy……………………………………………………………………….…29&30

2nd week of pregnancy ………………..……………………………………………………..…31&32

3rd week of pregnancy…………………..………………………………………………32&33&34

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 6. Which of the following terms is used for turning a bone around its longitudinal
axis?

a) Flexion b) Rotation
1. What is the meaning of "Anatomy"?
c) Circumduction d) Protraction
a) Study of the structure of organs in living beings

b) Study of animal behavior

7. The thoracic cavity contains:
c) Study of diseases d) Study of chemicals in the body
a) Lungs and heart b) Liver and stomach

c) Brain and spinal cord d) Pelvic viscera

2. Which type of anatomy studies structures by the naked eye?

a) Microscopic anatomy b) Developmental anatomy

8. Which is the only bone that doesn’t directly articulate with other bones?
c) Macroscopic anatomy d) Applied anatomy
a) Femur b) Tibia

c) Hyoid bone d) Patella

3. The anatomical position includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Palms facing forward b) Arms raised above the head

9. How many cervical vertebrae are in the human body?
c) Face looking forward d) Body standing erect
a) 5 b) 7 c) 12 d) 14

4. What plane divides the body into right and left parts?
10. Which ribs are considered floating ribs?
a) Coronal plane b) Sagittal plane
a) 1st and 2nd b) 7th and 8th
c) Transverse plane d) Oblique plane
c) 11th and 12th d) 9th and 10th

5. Which term refers to movement away from the median plane?

11. Which part of the sternum is the uppermost and broadest?
a) Adduction b) Abduction
a) Xiphoid process b) Body of sternum c) Manubrium d) Thoracic inlet
c) Flexion d) Extension

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 18. Which bones are arranged in arches in the foot?

12. Which bone forms the upper arm? a) Metacarpals and tarsals b) Phalanges and tibia

a) Radius b) Femur c) Ulna d) Humerus c) Tarsals, metatarsals, and phalanges

d) Patella and fibula

13. The bones of the fingers are called:

Answers
a) Tarsals b) Phalanges c) Carpals d) Metacarpals
1.a 2. c 3. b 4. b 5. b 6. b 7. a 8. c 9. b 10. c. 11. c 12. d 13. b 14. c 15. c 16.
b 17. a 18. C
14. The femur is the heaviest, strongest, and longest bone in the body. It is
located in the

a) Upper arm b) Lower leg c) Thigh d) Pelvis Bones

1. What type of tissue is bone classified as?
15. Which bone is a sesamoid bone located in front of the knee joint?
a) Epithelial tissue. b) Vascularized dense connective tissue
a) Tibia b) Fibula c) Patella d) Talus
c) Muscular tissue. d) Nervous tissue

16. The bones of the pelvic girdle include:

2. How many bones form the human body?
a) Clavicle and scapula b) Hip bones, sacrum, and coccyx
a) 180. b) 206. c) 220. d) 256
c) Radius and ulna d) Sternum and ribs

3. Which type of bone cells are responsible for bone remodeling?

17. Which bones form the skeleton of the leg?
a) Osteocytes. b) Osteoblasts c) Osteoclasts. d) Osteophytes
a) Tibia and fibula b) Femur and patella

c) Radius and ulna d) Tarsals and phalanges

4. Which bone type provides the body framework and contains bone marrow?

a) Cartilage. b) Compact bone c) Spongy bone. d) Tendons

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5. Compact bone is characterized by: 11. Which bones are small and cubical in shape?

a) Sponge-like structure. b) Dense and hard structure a) Long bones. b) Short bones. c) Flat bones. d) Irregular bones

c) Air-filled spaces. d) Cartilaginous precursors

12. Flat bones provide:

6. Where does spongy bone typically occur? a) Protection and muscle attachment. b) Support to joints

a) Shaft of long bones. b) Ends of long bones c) Skull base. d) Vertebrae c) Cartilage formation. d) Nutrient storage

7. Intra-membranous ossification occurs: 13. An example of irregular bones is:

a) With cartilage precursors. b) Without cartilage precursors a) Scapula. b) Vertebrae. c) Patella. d) Femur

c) After birth only. d) Only in long bones

14. What is the role of sesamoid bones?

8. Which bones are formed through intra-cartilaginous ossification? a) Provide body framework. b) Prevent friction in tendons

a) Skull vault. b) Long bones c) Short bones. d) Pneumatic bones c) Support air-filled spaces. d) Form muscle attachments

9. The epiphysial plate in long bones is responsible for: 15. Which bones contain air-filled spaces and communicate with the nasal
cavity?
a) Bone destruction. b) Bone growth
a) Sesamoid bones. b) Flat bones c) Pneumatic bones. d) Short bones
c) Nutrient absorption. d) Bone protection

16. What is the main organic material in bone matrix?

10. Which of the following supplies the outer cortex of long bones?
a) Keratin. b) Collagen fibers c) Elastin. d) Glycoproteins
a) Nutrient vessels. b) Periosteal vessels

c) Metaphyseal vessels. d) Epiphyseal vessels

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17. Which bone type contains delicate trabeculae? 4. What are the immobile joints found in the cranium called?

a) Spongy bone. b) Compact bone c) Long bone. d) Sesamoid bone a) Gomphosis. b) Sutures c) Synchondrosis. d) Syndesmosis

18. Osteoblasts are responsible for: 5. Which joint allows for a wide range of movement, including flexion, extension,
abduction, and adduction?
a) Maintaining mature bone. b) Forming new bone
a) Hinge joint. b) Ball and socket joint c) Pivot joint. d) Saddle joint
c) Remodeling bone. d) Destroying bone
6. What is the primary function of synovial fluid?
Answers: a) Provides structural support b) Lubricates and minimizes friction
1.b 2. b 3. c 4. b 5. b 6. b 7. b 8. b 9. b 10. b 11. b 12. a 13. b 14. b 15. c 16. c) Transmits weight d) Connects bones together
b 17. a 18. B

Joints 7. Which of the following joints allows for rotation around a single axis?

1. What type of joint connects bones with fibrous connective tissue? a) Hinge joint. b) Ball and socket joint c) Pivot joint. d) Saddle joint

a) Cartilaginous joints. b) Fibrous joints c) Synovial joints. d) Ligaments

8. The annulus fibrosus is found in which type of joint?

2. Which of the following is an example of a synovial joint? a) Fibrous joint. b) Cartilaginous joint

a) Sutures of the skull. b) Intervertebral disc c) Synovial joint. d) Ligament

c) Knee joint. d) Syndesmosis

9. Which type of joint is characterized by a joint cavity filled with synovial fluid?

3. What type of cartilage is found in primary cartilaginous joints? a) Fibrous joints. b) Cartilaginous joints

a) Hyaline cartilage. b) Fibrocartilage. c) Synovial joints. d) Amphiarthroses

c) Elastic cartilage. d) Dense connective tissue

10. What type of joint connects the tooth to its socket?

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a) Synchondrosis. b) Gomphosis c) Syndesmosis. d) Suture 18. The joints between the ribs and sternum are examples of which type of
joint?

a) Synovial joint. b) Cartilaginous joint c) Fibrous join. d) Ligamentous joint

11. Which type of synovial joint allows for sliding movements?

a) Hinge joint. b) Plane joint c) Pivot joint. d) Ball and socket joint Answers:
1.b, 2. c, 3. a, 4. b, 5. b, 6. b, 7. c, 8. b, 9. c, 10. b, 11. b, 12. b, 13. b, 14. c, 15. c,
12. The joint that allows for opposition of the thumb is which type of joint? 16. b, 17. b, 18. B

a) Hinge joint. b) Saddle joint c) Ball and socket joint. d) Plane joint

13. What type of joint is the elbow?

a) Pivot joint. b) Hinge joint c) Saddle joint. d) Ball and socket joint
Muscles
1. What is cartilage primarily composed of?

14. What kind of movement is allowed at the shoulder joint? A) Epithelial cells. B) Chondrocytes in a firm matrix

a) Uniaxial. b) Biaxial c) Multiaxial. d) Immovable C) Osteocytes. D) Adipose tissue

15. Which joint connects the vertebrae of the spine? 2. Which type of cartilage is the most common?

a) Hinge joint. b) Synchondrosis c) Cartilaginous joint. d) Synovial joint A) Elastic cartilage. B) Fibrocartilage

C) Hyaline cartilage. D) None of the above

16. What type of joint is found between the radius and ulna?

a) Hinge joint. b) Pivot joint c) Ball and socket joint. d) Saddle joint 3. Where is fibrocartilage typically found?

A) Ribs. B) Intervertebral discs C) Outer ear. D) Nose

17. Which of the following joints allows for flexion and extension?

a) Ball and socket joint. b) Hinge joint c) Saddle joint. d) Plane joint 4. What is the primary function of the muscular system?

A) Storage of energy. B) Protection of organs

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C) Production of force and movement. D) Regulation of blood flow

11. What is a prime mover in muscle action?

5. How many skeletal muscles are approximately present in the human body? A) A muscle that stabilizes

A) 400. B) 650. C) 850. D) 1000 B) A muscle that produces the desired movement

C) A muscle that opposes the desired movement

6. What type of muscle is found in the heart? D) A muscle that assists in the movement

A) Smooth muscle. B) Skeletal muscle

C) Cardiac muscle D) None of the above 12. What type of muscle attachment is a cord-like structure?

7. Which type of muscle has involuntary action and is controlled by autonomic A) Aponeurosis. B) Muscle tendon
nerves?
C) Fleshy attachment. D) None of the above
A) Skeletal muscle. B) Cardiac muscle C) Smooth muscle. D) Both B and C
13. Which of the following describes unipennate muscle architecture?

A) Shaped like a complete feather B) Shaped like half of a feather

8. What is the fleshy belly of a muscle?
C) Shaped like multiple feathers D) Parallel fibers
A) The point of attachment to the bone. B) The central main bulk of the muscle
14. What characterizes the circular form of muscle?
C) The cord-like structure. D) The expanded sheet of fibrous tissue
A) Fan-shaped. B) Sphincter-like C) Fused parts. D) Spiral shape

9. What type of muscle fibers are found in skeletal muscles?

15. Which muscle architecture has fibers arranged obliquely?
A) Short and branched. B) Long and unbranched
A) Parallel form. B) Convergent form C) Oblique form. D) Circular form
C) Spindle-shaped. D) Circular

16. What type of cartilage is found in the outer ear?

10. Which structure surrounds each muscle fiber in skeletal muscle?
A) Fibrocartilage. B) Elastic cartilage
A) Epimysium. B) Endomysium C) Perimysium. D) Aponeurosis
C) Hyaline cartilage. D) None of the above

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 17. What is the role of synergist muscles?

A) Stabilize one attachment of a prime mover

skin and fascia
1. What is the largest organ in the human body?
B) Produce the opposite of the desired movement
A) Heart. B) Liver. C) Skin. D) Brain
C) Assist the prime mover D) None of the above

2. What is the main function of the skin?

18. What is a characteristic of hyaline cartilage?
A) Protection against microbes and chemicals. B) Production of hormones
A) Contains abundant elastic fibers
C) Digestion of food. D) Circulation of blood
B) Has a glossy translucent appearance

C) Is the strongest type of cartilage

3. Which layer of the skin is the superficial epithelial layer?
D) Is made up of dense collagen fibers
A) Dermis. B) Epidermis

C) Hypodermis. D) Subcutaneous layer

19. Which of the following muscles is involuntary?
4. What type of tissue primarily composes the dermis?
A) Biceps brachii. B) Diaphragm C) Cardiac muscle. D) All of the above
A) Epithelial tissue. B) Connective tissue

C) Muscle tissue. D) Nervous tissue

20. Where are skeletal muscles primarily located?

A) In the heart. B) In the viscera

5. What is the primary factor that determines skin color?
C) Attached to the skeleton. D) In the blood vessels
A) Blood flow B) Degree of pigmentation from melanocytes

C) Thickness of the epidermis D) Environmental factors

Answers:
1. B) 2. C) 3. B) 4. C) 5. B) 6. C) 7. D) 8. B) 9. B) 10. B) 11. B) 12. B) 13. B) 14. 6. Where are sweat glands NOT distributed?
B) 15. C) 16. B)17. C) 18. B) 19. C) 20. C)
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A) Palms of the hands. B) Face C) Dermatoglyphics. D) Papillary ridges

C) Lip margins. D) Soles of the feet

12. Which type of fascia contains nerves and blood vessels of the skin?

7. Which of the following is a function of sebaceous glands? A) Deep fascia. B) Superficial fascia

A) Producing sweat. B) Producing oil C) Intermuscular fascia. D) Retinacula

C) Forming hair. D) Creating nails

13. Where are hair follicles primarily located?

8. What type of skin is characterized by being extremely thick? A) Epidermis. B) Dermis

A) Thin skin. B) Thick skin. C) Sensitive skin. D) Dry skin C) Superficial fascia. D) Subcutaneous layer

9. What is superficial fascia primarily made of? 14. What are nails primarily made of?
A) Dense connective tissue A) Smooth muscle. B) Keratin. C) Collagen. D) Elastin
B) Loose areolar and adipose connective tissue

C) Epithelial tissue. D) Cartilage 15. What do intermuscular septa do?

A) Separate skin from muscle B) Lie between muscles

10. What is the primary function of deep fascia? C) Cover the surface of muscles D) Enclose neurovascular structures
A) Protect against heat loss B) Facilitate movement of skin
Answers:
C) Provide structural support and protection to muscles
1.C 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. B 9. B 10.C 11. C 12. B 13. B
D) Store fat
14. B 15. B

11. What are the patterns of fingerprints known as?

A) Dermal patterns. B) Fingerprint configurations

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chromosomes (karyotyping). A) One copy of a chromosome

B) Three copies of a chromosome

1. What is the definition of karyotyping?
C) Two copies of a chromosome
A) A process to analyze blood cells
D) Four copies of a chromosome
B) A laboratory procedure to examine the cell chromosomes

C) A method to study DNA sequences

7. What is the genetic structure associated with Down syndrome?
D) A technique for cell culture
A) 44 + XO

B) 45 + XXY
2. How many pairs of chromosomes are present in a somatic cell?
C) 45 + XX or XY (3 copies of 21st chromosome)
A) 23 pairs. B) 22 pairs
D) 44 + XY
C) 24 pairs. D) 21 pairs

8. Which syndrome is characterized by the genetic structure 44 + XXY?

3. What type of chromosome has its centromere at the end of chromatids?
A) Turner syndrome. B) Down syndrome
A) Metacentric. B) Submetacentric
C) Klinefelter syndrome. D) Fragile X syndrome
C) Acrocentric. D) Telocentric

9. What are the features of Klinefelter syndrome?

4. Which group of chromosomes includes the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd pairs?
A) Short stature and webbed neck
A) Group A. B) Group B C) Group C. D) Group D
B) Flattening of the occiput

C) Female hips and gynecomastia

5. What is an example of a structural chromosome anomaly? A) Trisomy. B)
Deletion. C) Monosomy. D) Nondisjunction D) Upward slanting of the lateral eye angle

6. What does the term "trisomy" refer to?

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10. What type of anomaly occurs due to the failed separation of chromatids 15. What is the characteristic of the inner reticular layer of the dermis? A)
during anaphase? Greater cellularity

A) Structural anomaly. B) Numerical anomaly B) Thin and vascularized

C) Nondisjunction. D) Deletion C) Consists of dense irregular collagen fibers

D) Contains sweat glands

11. Which chromosome group includes the sex chromosomes?

Answers:
A) Group A. B) Group B
1. B 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. C 8. C 9. C 10. C 11. D 12. C 13. D
C) Group C. D) Group G 14. C 15. C

12. What is the result of a monosomy?

A) Two copies of a chromosome. B) Three copies of a chromosome

Cardiovascular system and lymphatic system
C) One copy of a chromosome. D) Four copies of a chromosome
1. What is the outer fibrous layer of the pericardium called?

a) Epicardium. b) Myocardium
13. Which chromosome group contains the 21st and 22nd pairs?
c) Endocardium. d) Fibrous pericardium
A) Group A. B) Group B. C) Group F. D) Group G

2. Which layer of the heart is responsible for muscle contraction?

14. What are fingerprints primarily determined by?
a) Epicardium. b) Endocardium
A) The number of chromosomes
c) Myocardium. d) Pericardium
B) The position of centromeres

C) The patterns of collagen fibers in papillary ridges

3. What is the location of the heart?
D) The type of skin
a) Right mediastinum. b) Left thoracic cavity

c) Middle mediastinum. d) Inferior thoracic cavity

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4. What is found between the visceral and parietal layers of the serous 9. What valve guards the pulmonary orifice?
pericardium?
a) Mitral valve. b) Tricuspid valve
a) Blood. b) Air
c) Pulmonary valve. d) Aortic valve
c) Serous fluid. d) Lymph

10. Which of the following arteries supplies blood to the heart?

5. Which chamber of the heart has pectinate muscles?
a) Pulmonary artery. b) Coronary artery
a) Left atrium. b) Right atrium
c) Carotid artery. d) Subclavian artery
c) Left ventricle. d) Right ventricle

11. How many semi-lunar cusps are found in the aortic valve?
6. What valve is located between the right atrium and the right ventricle?
a) 2. b) 3. c) 4. d) 5
a) Bicuspid valve. b) Pulmonary valve

c) Tricuspid valve. d) Aortic valve

12. Which circulation supplies oxygenated blood to the body tissues?

a) Pulmonary circulation. b) Systemic circulation

7. What is the primary function of the coronary sinus?
c) Coronary circulation. d) Lymphatic circulation
a) Carry oxygenated blood to the lungs. b) Collect deoxygenated blood from
the heart
13. The crista terminalis is found in which part of the heart?
c) Supply blood to the heart muscles. d) Pump blood to the aorta
a) Right atrium. b) Left atrium

c) Right ventricle. d) Left ventricle

8. Which of the following is the main structure forming the cardiac base?

a) Right atrium. b) Right ventricle

14. Which of the following blood vessels is valveless?
c) Left atrium. d) Left ventricle

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a) Arteries. b) Veins 19. Which of the following has valves to prevent the reflux of blood?

c) Venules. d) Lymph vessels a) Arteries. b) Capillaries

c) Veins. d) Lymphoid tissue

15. What structure is absent in the cornea and cartilage?

a) Lymph vessels. b) Blood capillaries 20. What is the primary function of lymph nodes?

c) Sinusoids. d) Arteries a) Filter blood. b) Produce oxygen

c) Filter lymp. d) Transport nutrients

16. Which lymphatic duct collects lymph from the greater part of the body?
Answers:
a) Right lymphatic duct. b) Thoracic duct
1. d. 2. c. 3. c. 4. c. 5. b. 6. c. 7. b. 8. c. 9. c. 10. b. 11. b. 12. b. 13. a.
c) Coronary sinus. d) Jugular vein
14. a. 15. b. 16. b. 17. b. 18. a. 19. c. 20. C

17. What kind of fluid does the lymphatic system collect and return to the
bloodstream?

a) Blood. b) Lymph c) Plasma. d) Serous fluid

Digestive system

18. Where do the pulmonary veins carry blood? 1. What are the two main parts of the digestive system?
a) From the lungs to the left atrium A) Alimentary canal and respiratory tract
b) From the lungs to the right atrium B) Alimentary canal and accessory digestive organs
c) From the heart to the lungs C) Stomach and small intestine
d) From the right ventricle to the lungs D) Liver and pancreas

2. How long is the alimentary canal approximately?

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A) 6 meters. B) 9 meters C) Palatine tonsils. D) Pharynx

C) 12 meters. D) 15 meters

3. Which of the following is NOT a part of the alimentary canal? 8. How many temporary (deciduous) teeth do humans have?

A) Mouth. B) Pharynx A) 20. B) 24. C) 28. D) 32

C) Pancreas. D) Large intestine

9. At what age do permanent teeth typically begin to appear?

4. What is the main function of accessory digestive organs? A) 3 years. B) 6 years

A) Absorb nutrients C) 12 years. D) 18 years

B) Facilitate digestion and absorption

C) Produce bile. D) Store food 10. What structure connects the pharynx to the stomach?

A) Duodenum. B) Esophagus. C) Trachea. D) Colon

5. What forms the anterior boundary of the mouth cavity?

A) Cheeks. B) Lips 11. The esophagus is approximately how long?

C) Hard palate. D) Tongue A) 20 cm. B) 25 cm. C) 30 cm. D) 35 cm

6. What divides the mouth cavity into vestibule and mouth cavity proper? 12. Where does the esophagus begin?

A) Uvula. B) Palate A) At the stomach. B) At the pharynx

C) Frenulum. D) Teeth C) At the duodenum. D) At the mouth

7. What is the soft palate's posterior end called? 13. What prevents the reflux of gastric acid into the esophagus?

A) Lingual frenulum. B) Uvula A) Cardiac sphincter. B) Pyloric sphincter

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C) Lower esophageal sphincter

D) Upper esophageal sphincter 19. The liver is primarily located in which part of the abdominal cavity?

A) Left hypochondrium. B) Right hypochondrium

C) Epigastrium. D) Pelvic cavity

14. Which part of the stomach is the dome-shaped upper convex part?

A) Body. B) Fundus. C) Pylorus. D) Cardia 20. What type of gland is the pancreas?

A) Exocrine only. B) Endocrine only

15. What is the longest part of the alimentary tract? C) Both exocrine and endocrine

A) Large intestine. B) Stomach D) Neither exocrine nor endocrine

C) Small intestine. D) Esophagus

Answers:
1.b 2.b 3.c 4.b 5.b 6.d 7.b 8.a 9.b 10.b
16. How many parts does the small intestine have?
11.b 12.b 13.a 14.b 15.c 16.b 17.c 18.c 19.b 20.c
A) Two. B) Three. C) Four. D) Five

17. What is the main function of the large intestine? central nervous system
A) Digestion. B) Absorption of nutrients

C) Absorption of water and formation of feces

D) Production of digestive enzymes 1. The central nervous system consists of which two main components?

A) Brain and cranial nerves

18. Which gland is the largest salivary gland? B) Brain and spinal cord

A) Submandibular gland. B) Sublingual gland C) Spinal cord and peripheral nerves

C) Parotid gland. D) Thyroid gland D) Brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves

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 B) Involuntary functions of organs

2. What is the primary function of the somatic component of the nervous C) Sensory information
system?
D) Skeletal muscle innervation
A) Control of cardiac muscle

B) Innervation of skeletal muscle and transmission of sensory information

7. The outer protective layer of the brain is known as:
C) Regulation of glands
A) Pia mater. B) Arachnoid mater
D) Coordination of body movements
C) Dura mater. D) Grey matter

3. Which part of the brain is responsible for planning and coordination of body
8. What is the role of the posterior horn of the spinal cord?
movements?
A) Motor function. B) Sensory function
A) Cerebrum. B) Cerebellum
C) Autonomic function. D) Reflex actions
C) Brainstem. D) Diencephalon

9. Which structure is located inferior to the occipital lobe of the cerebrum?

4. What connects the two hemispheres of the cerebrum?
A) Cerebellum. B) Medulla oblongata
A) Cerebral aqueduct. B) Dura mater
C) Pons. D) Diencephalon
C) Corpus callosum. D) Arachnoid mater

10. Which cranial nerve is involved in hearing and equilibrium?

5. Which cranial nerve is responsible for vision?
A) Glossopharyngeal nerve. B) Facial nerve
A) Olfactory nerve. B) Oculomotor nerve
C) Vagus nerve. D) Vestibulocochlear nerve
C) Optic nerve. D) Trigeminal nerve

11. How many pairs of cranial nerves are there in the human body?
6. The autonomic nervous system is responsible for controlling:
A) 10. B) 12. C) 31. D) 24
A) Voluntary muscle movements

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 D) Central nervous system

12. The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for:

A) Decreasing heart rate 16. What type of neurons are found in the anterior horn of the spinal cord?

B) Increasing GIT motility A) Sensory neurons. B) Motor neurons

C) Increasing heart rate C) Interneurons. D) Autonomic neurons

D) Constricting pupils

17. The largest part of the brain is the:

13. The central canal of the spinal cord is surrounded by: A) Cerebellum. B) Brainstem

A) White matter. B) Grey matter C) Cerebrum. D) Diencephalon

C) Dura mater. D) Arachnoid mater

18. Which layer of the meninges is closest to the brain?

14. What is the main role of the medulla oblongata? A) Dura mater. B) Arachnoid mater

A) Planning movements C) Pia mater. D) Grey matter

B) Relaying sensory information

Answers:
C) Controlling involuntary functions
1.B 2.B 3.B 4.C 5.C 6.B 7.C 8.B 9.A 10.D 11.B 12.C 13.B 14.C 15.C
D) Coordinating muscle contractions 16. B 17.C 18.C

15. Which part of the nervous system is primarily involved in the 'fight or flight'
response? Respiratory System
A) Somatic nervous system

B) Parasympathetic nervous system 1. Which of the following structures is part of the upper respiratory system?
C) Sympathetic nervous system A) Trachea. B) Bronchi

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C) Nose. D) Lungs 6. What type of epithelium lines the respiratory part of the nasal cavity?

A) Stratified squamous

2. What is the primary function of the nasal cavity? B) Transitional

A) Gas exchange C) Simple cuboidal

B) Filtration of air D) Respiratory epithelium

C) Sound production

D) Humidification of air 7. Which bronchi is shorter and wider?

A) Left main bronchus

3. Which part of the pharynx is located behind the oral cavity? B) Right main bronchus

A) Naso-pharynx B) Oropharynx C) Secondary bronchi

C) Laryngo-pharynx D) Nasal cavity D) Tertiary bronchi

4. What is the significance of the epiglottis?

A) Produces sound 8. How many lobar bronchi are present in the right lung?

B) Prevents food from entering the trachea A) 1. B) 2. C) 3. D) 4

C) Filters inhaled air

D) Supports the larynx 9. What is the primary role of the pleura?

A) Facilitate gas exchange

5. The trachea is composed of how many C-shaped cartilaginous rings? B) Provide structural support

A) 12-14. B) 16-20 C) Reduce friction during breathing

C) 20-24. D) 22-26 D) Filter air

~ 19 ~
10. Which part of the lung contains the hilum? 15. The main function of the paranasal sinuses is to:

A) Medial surface. B) Anterior border A) Produce mucus

C) Posterior border. D) Lateral surface B) Humidify inhaled air

C) Decrease skull weight

11. What feature distinguishes the left lung from the right lung? D) Facilitate gas exchange

A) Has a cardiac notch B) Has 3 lobes

C) Is larger D) Has a horizontal fissure 16. Which of the following statements is true regarding the lungs?

A) The left lung has three lobes

12. Where does the trachea bifurcate into the main bronchi? B) The right lung has a cardiac notch

A) At the sternal angle C) Both lungs have the same number of broncho-pulmonary segments

B) At the level of the diaphragm D) The right lung is larger and shorter than the left lung

C) At the cricoid cartilage D) At the thoracic inlet

Answers
1.C 2.B 3.B 4.B 5.B 6.D 7.B 8.C 9.C 10.A 11.A 12.A 13.A 14.D 15.C
16.D
13. The respiratory bronchioles lead directly to which structure?

A) Alveolar ducts. B) Lungs

Urinary System
C) Trachea. D) Bronchi
1. What is the primary function of the urinary system?

14. Which structure is NOT part of the bronchial tree? A) Digestion of food

A) Main bronchi. B) Segmental bronchi B) Regulation of body temperature

C) Alveoli. D) Trachea C) Elimination of waste products

D) Production of hormones

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 7. Which part of the ureter prevents urine from flowing back to the kidney?

2. How many kidneys are present in the urinary system? A) Pelvic part

A) One. B) Two B) Intramural part

C) Three. D) Four C) Abdominal part

D) Renal pelvis

3. The renal cortex contains approximately how many nephrons?

A) 100,000. B) 1 million 8. What shape does the urinary bladder assume when empty?

C) 5 million. D) 10 million A) Oval. B) Flat

C) Three-sided pyramid

4. Which structure is located at the medial border of the kidney? D) Spherical

A) Renal pelvis. B) Renal hilum

C) Renal pyramids. D) Ureters 9. How many openings are present in the urinary bladder?

A) One. B) Two. C) Three. D) Four

5. The urinary bladder is primarily responsible for:

A) Filtering blood 10. The male urethra is approximately how long?

B) Storing urine A) 4 cm. B) 10 cm. C) 15 cm. D) 20 cm

C) Producing urine

D) Absorbing nutrients 11. Which part of the male urethra is the widest?

A) Prostatic urethra

6. The ureters are approximately how long? B) Membranous urethra

A) 10 cm. B) 20 cm. C) 25 cm. D) 30 cm C) Penile urethra

D) Urethral sphincter

~ 21 ~
 1.C 2.B 3.B 4.B 5.B 6.C 7.B 8.C 9.C 10.D 11.A 12.B 13.C
14.C 15.A
12. What type of muscle surrounds the internal urethral sphincter?

A) Skeletal muscle

B) Smooth muscle Reproductive system

C) Cardiac muscle

D) Voluntary muscle
1. What is the primary function of the reproductive system?

A) Digestion. B) Respiration
13. The external urethral sphincter is composed of which type of muscle?
C) Sexual reproduction
A) Smooth muscle
D) Circulation
B) Cardiac muscle

C) Skeletal muscle
2. Which organ is considered the primary sex organ in females?
D) Involuntary muscle
A) Fallopian tubes. B) Ovaries.

C) Uterus. D) Vagina
14. The right kidney is positioned lower than the left kidney because of the
presence of which organ?
3. The fallopian tubes are primarily responsible for:
A) Stomach. B) Pancreas
A) Fertilization B) Transporting urine
C) Liver. D) Spleen
C) Hormone production

D) Sperm storage
15. The female urethra opens into which structure?

A) Vaginal vestibule. B) Rectum

4. Which part of the uterus is the uppermost convex part?
C) Bladder. D) Uterus
A) Cervix. B) Body. C) Fundus. D) Vagina
Answers
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5. What type of gland is the ovary? C) Sperm transport D) Hormone secretion

A) Exocrine only B) Endocrine only

C) Mixed gland D) None of the above 11. The bulbourethral glands function to:

A) Produce sperm

6. The vagina is a: B) Secrete testosterone

A) Hollow muscular organ B) Solid structure C) Lubricate the urethra

C) Glandular organ D) Connective tissue D) Produce seminal fluid

7. What is the length of the male urethra? 12. The primary hormone secreted by the testis is:

A) 4 cm. B) 10 cm. C) 15 cm. D) 20 cm A) Estrogen B) Progesterone

C) Testosterone D) Luteinizing hormone

8. Which of the following is NOT part of the male reproductive system?

A) Prostate. B) Seminal vesicles 13. The uterus has how many layers?

C) Fallopian tubes. D) Epididymis A) One. B) Two. C) Three. D) Four

9. The testis is primarily responsible for: 14. The neck of the urinary bladder is continuous with the:

A) Producing eggs B) Producing sperm and hormones A) Urethra. B) Vagina

C) Providing a site for fertilization C) Uterus. D) Fallopian tubes

D) Supporting the uterus

10. The epididymis is primarily involved in: 15. What is the primary function of the seminal vesicles?

A) Sperm production B) Sperm maturation A) Produce sperm B) produce hormones

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C) Produce seminal fluid D) Transport sperm C) Pituitary gland D) Thyroid gland

16. The muscular tube that transports sperm from the epididymis to the 4. What type of glands are ovaries and testes classified as?
prostatic urethra is called the:
A) Exocrine glands B) Mixed glands
A) Urethra. B) Vas deferens
C) Endocrine glands D) Secretory glands
C) Epididymis. D) Ejaculatory duct

Answers 5. What is the function of the pituitary gland?

A) Regulating blood pressure

1.C 2.B 3.A 4.C 5.C 6.A 7.D 8.C 9.B 10.B 11.C 12.C 13.C 14.A
15.C 16.B B) Master gland of the endocrine system

C) Producing digestive enzymes

D) Controlling muscle contractions

Endocrine system:
1. What does the endocrine system consist of?
6. Where is the pituitary gland located?
A) Muscles. B) Glands
A) At the base of the neck
C) Nerves. D) Blood vessels
B) Inside the sella turcica of the sphenoidal bone

C) Above the kidneys

2. Where is the main control center for the endocrine organs located?
D) Near the heart
A) Brainstem B) Cerebellum

C) Hypothalamus D) Cortex
7. What hormones are secreted by the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland?

A) Thyroid stimulating hormone

3. Which of the following is NOT a key endocrine gland?
B) Prolactin
A) Hypothalamus B) Liver
C) Vasopressin and oxytocin

~ 24 ~
D) Growth hormone

12. How many parathyroid glands do most individuals have?

8. What hormone does the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland NOT secrete? A) Two. B) Three C) Four. D) Five

A) ACT hormones B) Oxytocin

C) Prolactin D) Growth hormone 13. Where are the adrenal glands located?

A) At the base of the skull

9. What shape does the thyroid gland resemble? B) On top of the kidneys

A) Oval. B) Butterfly C) In the abdomen

C) Pyramidal. D) Circular D) Near the pancreas

10. Where is the thyroid gland located? 14. What is the shape of the right adrenal gland?

A) In the abdomen A) Circular. B) Semi-lunar

B) In front of the lower neck C) Pyramidal. D) Rectangular

C) Above the heart

D) Behind the stomach 15. What do the adrenal glands secrete?

A) Digestive enzymes

11. What is the primary function of the thyroid gland? B) Corticosteroids, androgens, and catecholamines

A) Regulating calcium levels C) Thyroid hormones D) Insulin

B) Regulating metabolic rate 16. What type of organs are the adrenal glands classified as?

C) Producing adrenaline A) Intra-abdominal organs

D) Regulating blood sugar levels B) Retroperitoneal organs

C) Intrathoracic organs

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D) Peritoneal organs C) In the ovary

D) In the adrenal glands

ANSWERS
1.B 2.C 3.B 4.B 5.B 6.B 7.C 8.B 9.B 10.B 11.B 12.C 13.B 14.C
15.B 16.B 4. What is the haploid number of chromosomes in human gametes?

A) 46. B) 23. C) 22. D) 44

Gametogenesis 5. During which phase of spermatogenesis do spermatogonia divide by mitosis?

A) Maturation. B) Proliferation

1. What is the definition of gametogenesis? C) Growth. D) Spermiogenesis

A) The formation of blood cells

B) The production of mature male and female gametes 6. What hormone is primarily responsible for stimulating the maturation of
follicles in females?
C) The division of somatic cells
A) Testosterone
D) The formation of connective tissues
B) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

C) Luteinizing hormone (LH)

2. What is the main purpose of spermatogenesis?
D) Estrogen
A) To produce ova

B) To produce mature sperm cells

7. What stage follows the first meiotic division in oogenesis?
C) To create hormonal changes
A) Second meiotic division.
D) To regulate blood sugar
B) Proliferation

C) Maturation. D) Fertilization
3. Where does oogenesis primarily occur?

A) In the testes B) In the uterus

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8. Which of the following structures is formed after meiosis II in
spermatogenesis?
13. How many sperm are typically present in one milliliter of semen?
A) Primary spermatocyte
A) 20 million. B) 60-120 million
B) Secondary spermatocyte
C) 150 million. D) 200 million
C) Spermatids. D) Oocytes

14. What is the function of the zona pellucida?

9. Which abnormality is characterized by the absence of sperm in semen?
A) Nourishes the oocyte
A) Oligospermia. B) Azospermia
B) Protects the oocyte
C) Necrospermia. D) Azoospermia
C) Facilitates fertilization

D) All of the above

10. In which phase does the secondary oocyte arrest during oogenesis?

A) Prophase I. B) Metaphase II
15. Which condition is characterized by having 47 chromosomes, specifically
C) Anaphase I. D) Telophase II XXY?

A) Turner Syndrome

11. What is the lifespan of the corpus luteum if pregnancy does not occur? B) Klinefelter Syndrome

A) 3 days. B) 14 days. C) 9 days. D) 28 days C) Down Syndrome

D) Oligospermia

12. What is the role of the acrosome in a mature sperm?

A) Provides energy for movement 16. What does the term "follicular phase" refer to in the ovarian cycle?

B) Contains enzymes for fertilization A) Release of the ovum

C) Forms the tail B) Maturation of the follicle

D) Protects the nucleus C) Shedding of the endometrium

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D) Production of hormones
Ovarian Cycle

17. During which phase does the endometrium thicken in preparation for
pregnancy? 1. What is the average duration of the ovarian cycle?

A) Menstrual phase B) Proliferative phase a) 21 days. b) 28 days c) 35 days. d) 14 days

C) Secretory phase

D) All of the above 2. Which hormones control the ovarian cycle?

a) Estrogen and testosterone

18. Which hormone triggers ovulation? b) FSH and LH

A) FSH. B) Estrogen c) Progesterone and prolactin

C) Progesterone. D) LH d) Cortisol and aldosterone

19. What is the primary function of the polar body during oogenesis? 3. What occurs during the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle?

A) To provide nutrients to the oocyte a) Release of the ovum

B) To receive excess chromosomes b) Formation of the corpus luteum

C) To undergo fertilization c) Development of the Graafian follicle

D) To develop into an ovum d) Menstruation

Answers 4. The surge in which hormone triggers ovulation?

1.B 2.B 3.C 4.B 5.B 6.B 7.A 8.C 9.B 10.B 11.C 12.B 13.B 14.D 15.B a) FSH. b) Estrogen
16.B 17.C 18.D 19.B
c) LH. d) Progesterone

5. What is the role of the corpus luteum?

~ 28 ~
a) To produce testosterone a) LH. b) FSH c) Estrogen. d) Progesterone

b) To secrete progesterone and estrogen

c) To initiate menstruation 10. What is the endometrial thickness during the secretory phase?

d) To release the ovum a) 4 mm. b) 6 mm C) 8 mm. d) 10 mm

Answers
6. How long does the corpus luteum phase last?
1.b. 2. b. 3. c. 4. c. 5. b. 6. b. 7. b. 8. c. 9. c. 10. C
a) 7 days. b) 14 days c) 21 days. d) 28 days

7. What is the purpose of the uterine cycle? First Week of Pregnancy

a) To produce ova

b) To prepare the uterus for pregnancy 1. What is fertilization?

c) To regulate body temperature a) The process of sperm swimming through the female reproductive tract
d) To maintain menstrual flow b) The union of a male gamete and a female gamete to form a zygote

c) The implantation of a blastocyst into the uterus

8. Which phase is characterized by the shedding of the endometrium? d) The division of the zygote into blastomeres
a) Proliferative phase

b) Secretory phase 2. Where does fertilization usually occur?

c) Menstrual phase a) Uterine cavity. b) Ovary
d) Follicular phase c) Ampulla of the uterine tube

d) Cervix
9. The proliferative phase of the uterine cycle is primarily controlled by which
hormone?
3. Which covering is NOT associated with the secondary oocyte?

~ 29 ~
a) Vitelline membrane. b) Zona pellucida

c) Corona radiata. d) Amniotic sac 8. The trophoblast is responsible for:

a) Developing into the embryo

4. What occurs during capacitation of the sperm? b) Forming the wall of the blastocyst and providing nutrition

a) Release of enzymes to penetrate the oocyte c) Completing meiosis

b) Removal of glycoprotein from the sperm's acrosomal cap d) Initiating cleavage

c) Fusion of sperm and oocyte membranes

d) Division of the zygote 9. By which day does the blastocyst begin to adhere to the endometrium?

a) 4th day. b) 5th day c) 6th day. d) 7th day

5. The zona reaction prevents:

a) Fertilization b) Implantation 10. What type of pregnancy occurs when implantation happens in the fallopian
tube?
c) Other sperm from entering the oocyte
a) Ovarian pregnancy
d) Cleavage of the zygote
b) Intestinal pregnancy

c) Tubal pregnancy
6. What does the cleavage of the zygote result in?
d) Intrauterine pregnancy
a) A single blastomere

b) The formation of a morula Answers

c) A blastocyst 1.b. 2. c. 3. d. 4. b. 5. c. 6. b. 7. b. 8. b. 9. c. 10. C
d) A diploid zygote

7. When does the morula typically form after fertilization?

a) 1 day. b) 3 days c) 5 days. d) 7 days

~ 30 ~
Second Week of Pregnancy c) Endoderm and mesoderm

d) Placental and amniotic layers

1. What is the primary event that completes during the second week of
development? 5. Which layer of the outer cell mass forms the extraembryonic mesoderm?

a) Gastrulation. b) Implantation a) Syncytiotrophoblast. b) Epiblast

c) Neurulation. d) Organogenesis c) Cytotrophoblast. d) Hypoblast

2. What does the bilaminar embryonic disc consist of? 6. What is the role of the primary villi in the trophoblast?

a) Hypoblast and epiblast a) Formation of the amnion

b) Cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast b) Increase surface area

c) Endoderm and ectoderm c) Produce proteolytic enzymes

d) Mesoderm and endoderm d) Formation of the chorion

3. Which of the following cavities forms during the second week? 7. What are the spaces filled with maternal blood within the
syncytiotrophoblast called?
a) Amniotic and yolk sac
a) Yolk sacs. b) Amniotic cavities
b) Neural tube and chorionic cavity
c) Lacunae. d) Blastocoel
c) Blastocoel and extraembryonic mesoderm

d) Chorion and neural cavity

8. What is the cavity formed within the epiblast called?

a) Chorionic cavity b) Amniotic cavity

4. What layers does the inner cell mass differentiate into?
c) Yolk sac d) Placental cavity
a) Cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast

b) Epiblast and hypoblast

~ 31 ~
9. When do small cavities first appear in the extraembryonic mesoderm?

a) 3rd day. b) 6th day c) 9th day. d) 12th day 14. What lines the cytotrophoblast and forms the connecting stalk?

a) Splanchnic mesoderm b) Parietal layer

10. What is the extraembryonic cavity called after it forms on the 13th day? c) Visceral layer. d) Epiblast

a) Amniotic cavity. b) Yolk sac

Answers:
c) Chorionic cavity
1.b. 2. a. 3. a. 4. b. 5. c. 6. b. 7. c. 8. b. 9. c. 10. c. 11. d. 12. b. 13. b. 14. B
d) Placental cavity

11. What structure will later form the umbilical cord? Third week of pregnancy
a) Amniotic sac b) Chorionic vesicle 1. What major event occurs during the third week of pregnancy?
c) Cytotrophoblast d) Connecting stalk a) Formation of bilaminar disc

b) Formation of trilaminar germ disc

12. What is the function of the allantois during development? c) Neurulation. d) Organogenesis
a) Formation of the yolk sac

b) Development of the urinary bladder 2. How many types of chorionic villi are there?
c) Formation of the neural tube a) One. b) Two c) Three. d) Four
d) Placental circulation

3. Gastrulation is the process of forming which structure?

13. Which layer covers the secondary yolk sac? a) Bilaminar germ disc b) Trilaminar germ disc
a) Parietal layer. b) Visceral layer c) Neural tube
c) Chorionic layer d) Amniotic cavity
d) Syncytiotrophoblast

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4. What is the prechordal plate responsible for forming in the future? 9. Which layer of the intra-embryonic mesoderm forms the appendicular
skeleton?
a) Heart. b) Brain
a) Splanchnopleure b) Somatopleure
c) Mouth. d) Anus
c) Ectoderm d) Endoderm

5. Which structure is formed at the caudal end of the embryonic disc?

10. The chorionic vesicle is derived from which structure?
a) Neural tube. b) Primitive streak
a) Amnion b) Blastocyst
c) Notochord. d) Allantois
c) Cytotrophoblast d) Yolk sac

6. The notochord plays a role in inducing the formation of which structure?

11. What are the villi lying opposite the decidua basalis called?
a) Neural tube. b) Yolk sac
a) Chorion leave b) Chorion frondosum
c) Placenta. d) Amniotic cavity
c) Syncytiotrophoblast d) Allantois

7. Which of the following structures does the neural crest give rise to?
12. What are the primary villi composed of?
a) Brain. b) Spinal cord
a) Two layers of trophoblast
c) Sensory ganglia of cranial nerves
b) Three layers of trophoblast
d) Heart
c) Extraembryonic mesoderm

d) Cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast

8. What structure is involved in the development of the urinary bladder?

a) Notochord. b) Allantois
13. When do tertiary villi form?
c) Neural tube. d) Prechordal plate
a) End of the second week

b) Mid-third week

~ 33 ~
c) End of the third week 4. What does the lateral folding lead to the formation of?

d) Beginning of the fourth week a) Amniotic cavity b) Umbilical ring

c) Intraembryonic coelom
Answers:
d) Foregut
1. b 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. B 6. A 7. C 8. B 9. b. 10. b. 11. b. 12. a. 13. C

5. Which of the following is a derivative of the ectoderm?

4th week of pregnancy a) Lining of the gastrointestinal tract

b) Epidermis of the skin

1. What type of folding occurs in the fourth week of pregnancy? c) Thyroid gland d) Pancreas

a) Cranial only. b) Lateral only

c) Caudal only 6. What is the primary role of the endoderm?

d) Cranial, caudal, and lateral a) Forming the central nervous system

b) Lining of the viscera

2. What structure becomes cranial to the heart during head folding? c) Forming the skin d) Developing limbs

a) Buccopharyngeal membrane b) Brain

c) Cloacal membrane d) Connecting stalk 7. By the end of the fourth week, how many somites does the embryo have
approximately?

a) 15. b) 30. c) 45. d) 60

3. Which structure becomes ventral and caudal to the connecting stalk?

a) Buccopharyngeal membrane
8. What measurement is used to express the age of the embryo during the
b) Cloacal membrane second month?
c) Foregut. d) Hindgut a) Somites

b) Crown-rump length (CRL)

~ 34 ~
c) Weight. d) Length

---

9. What occurs due to the rapid growth of the intestine by the sixth week? Answers

a) Physiological hernia 1.d 2.b 3.b 4.c 5.b 6.b 7.b 8.b 9.a 10.b 11.b 12.b 13.b
b) Abdominal swelling

c) Limb development d) Heart formation

Fetal Period
10. At what week does the placenta fully develop?

a) 6th week. b) 8th week 1. What is the duration of the fetal period?

c) 10th week. d) 12th week a) From conception to the end of the second month

b) From the third month until birth

11. Which of the following structures appears segmented by the end of the c) From birth to one year
second month? d) From the end of the first trimester to the end of the pregnancy
a) Heart. b) Limbs

c) Brain. d) Stomach 2. During which months is the growth in length most rapid?

a) First two months b) Third to fifth months

12. What is the average length of the embryo by the end of the second month? c) Sixth to ninth months d) Last two months
a) 10 mm. b) 25 mm c) 50 mm. d) 75 mm

3. What significant development occurs during the third month of fetal

13. During which months does rapid growth in length occur? development?

a) 1st and 2nd. b) 3rd and 4th a) Development of limbs

c) 5th and 6th. d) Last 2 months b) Primary ossification centers appear in long bones

c) Full development of external genitalia

~ 35 ~
d) Formation of the placenta c) The outer layer of the placenta

d) A genetic marker for fetal health

4. By the end of the fifth month, what is the approximate weight of the fetus?

a) 100 grams. b) 250 grams 8. At the time of birth, what is the average weight of a newborn?

c) Less than 500 grams d) 1 kilogram a) About 1 kg. b) About 2 kg

c) About 3 to 3 ½ kg. d) About 4 kg

5. What characterizes the external appearance of the fetus during the 6th month
until birth?
9. What does CRL stand for?
a) Significant decrease in length
a) Crown to rump length
b) Rapid increase in weight due to fat deposition
b) Cranial length
c) Absence of lanugo hairs
c) Chest to rib length
d) Increase in the number of primary ossification centers
d) Cord to rib length

6. What are lanugo hairs?

10. What is the approximate CRL of a fetus at birth?
a) Thick, pigmented hairs
a) 25 cm. b) 30 cm c) 36 cm. d) 40 cm
b) Fine, soft, unpigmented downy hairs

c) Hair that appears only in the first trimester

11. When do primary ossification centers appear?
d) Hairs that fall out before birth
a) First trimester. b) Third month

c) Fifth month. d) Seventh month

7. What is Vernix Caseosa?

a) A type of amniotic fluid

12. Which structure protects the fetus from the macerating effect of amniotic
b) A fatty secretion from sebaceous glands to protect the fetus fluid?

~ 36 ~
a) Placenta. b) Amniotic sac

c) Vernix Caseosa
Fetal membranes
d) Umbilical cord

1. What is the amniotic cavity primarily surrounded by during the chorionic

13. What happens to the physiological hernia during the third month? vesicle stage?
a) It increases
A. Fetal mesoderm
b) It remains unchanged
B. Extra-embryonic mesoderm
c) It is reduced
C. Trophoblast. D. Epiblast
d) It disappears completely

2. When does the amniotic cavity completely surround the embryo?

14. Which of the following statements is true about fetal growth?
A. 2nd week. B. 4th week
a) Weight gain is most rapid in the first trimester C. 10th week. D. 20th week
b) Length growth is most rapid in the last two months

c) Rapid increase in length occurs during the 4th-5th months

3. What is the main source of amniotic fluid after the 5th month of pregnancy?
d) Both weight and length grow at the same rate
A. Amnioblast cells

B. Placental secretion
15. At what point can external genitalia be determined by ultrasound? C. Fetal urine. D. Chorionic fluid
a) First month. b) Second month

c) Third month. d) Fifth month

4. How often does the circulation of amniotic fluid occur?

Answers A. Every hour. B. Every 3 hours

C. Every 6 hours. D. Every 12 hours

1.b 2.b 3.b 4.c 5.b 6.b 7.b 8.c 9.a 10.c 11.b 12.c 13.c 14.c 15.c

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5. What is one of the primary functions of amniotic fluid? C. Allantois

A. Provides nutrients to the fetus D. Amniotic membrane

B. Acts as a water cushion for protection

C. Serves as a waste reservoir 9. What is the typical length of a full-term umbilical cord?

D. Supplies oxygen to the fetus A. ~ 25 cm. B. ~ 40 cm

C. ~ 55 cm. D. ~ 70 cm

6. What condition is defined as having excess amniotic fluid greater than 2000
cc?
10. What is a possible consequence of an abnormally long umbilical cord (> 1
A. Oligohydramnios meter)?

B. Amniotic band syndrome A. Increased blood flow to the fetus

C. Polyhydramnios B. Formation of true knot

D. Amniocentesis C. Enhanced fetal movement

D. Increased amniotic fluid

7. What is the definition of the umbilical cord?

A. A membrane surrounding the fetus 11. What is the diameter range of a full-term umbilical cord?

B. A connection between the amniotic fluid and placenta A. 0.5 - 1 cm. B. 1 - 2 cm

C. A soft cord connecting the fetus to the placenta C. 2 - 3 cm. D. 3 - 4 cm

D. A duct for nutrient absorption

12. What happens to the right umbilical vein during development?

8. Which structure is transformed to form the median umbilical ligament? A. It persists

A. Umbilical artery B. It degenerates

B. Vitello-intestinal duct C. It becomes the main vein

~ 38 ~
D. It doubles in size
placenta, twins andbirth defects

13. What does oligohydramnios indicate?

1. What is the primary functional unit of exchange between the fetus and the
A. Excess fluid. B. Lack of fluid mother?
C. Normal fluid levels A) Amniotic sac. B) Placenta
D. Infected fluid C) Umbilical cord. D) Chorion

14. Which structure connects the midgut to the definitive yolk sac? 2. The fetal part of the placenta is called:
A. Umbilical cord A) Decidua basalis
B. Vitello-intestinal duct B) Chorion frondosum
C. Amnion. D. Allantois C) Cytotrophoblast

D) Syncytiotrophoblast
15. What is the primary function of the umbilical cord?

A. Protection from infections 3. Which type of chorionic villi is formed by the end of the third week?
B. Nutrient absorption A) Primary chorionic villi
C. Circulation of blood between the fetus and placenta B) Secondary chorionic villi
D. Temperature regulation C) Tertiary chorionic villi

D) Anchoring villi
Answers
1.B 2.B 3. C 4. B 5. B 6. C 7. C 8. C 9. C 10. B 11. B 12. B 13. B 14. B
4. At what stage do anchoring (stem) villi develop?
15. C
A) By the end of the first month

B) By the second month of gestation

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C) By the third month of gestation 9. Which type of twins results from two different ova being fertilized?

D) By the fourth month of gestation A) Monozygotic twins B) Dizygotic twins

C) Conjoined twins D) Identical twins

5. What is the approximate weight of a full-term placenta?

A) 250 grams. B) 500 grams 10. What percentage of twins are dizygotic (fraternal)?

C) 750 grams. D) 1000 grams A) 1/3. B) 1/2. C) 2/3. D) 3/4

6. Which of the following is NOT a function of the placenta? 11. Which of the following is a major contributor to birth defects?

A) Gas exchange. B) Nutritional supply A) Maternal age

C) Production of red blood cells B) Chromosomal anomalies

D) Hormonal production C) Environmental factors

D) Multiple pregnancies

7. What does the placental barrier consist of?

A) Syncytiotrophoblast only 12. Teratogens are defined as:

B) Syncytiotrophoblast and endothelium of fetal capillaries A) Genetic defects

C) All layers separating maternal and fetal blood B) Agents that produce congenital anomalies

D) Cytotrophoblast and extra-embryonic mesoderm only C) Conditions leading to premature labor

D) Methods of prenatal diagnosis

8. How often does delivery of twins occur?

A) 1 in 40 deliveries B) 1 in 80 deliveries 13. What is the purpose of folic acid supplementation during pregnancy?

C) 1 in 120 deliveries D) 1 in 200 deliveries A) To prevent maternal diabetes

B) To lower the incidence of neural tube defects

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C) To enhance fetal growth

D) To reduce the risk of chromosomal anomalies

14. Which technique uses high-frequency sound waves to create images for
prenatal diagnosis?

A) Amniocentesis

B) Chorionic villi sampling

C) Maternal serum screening

D) Ultrasonography

Answers
1. B 2.B 3. C 4. C 5. B 6. C 7. C 8. B 9. B 10. C 11. B 12. B 13. B 14. D

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