DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL

SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI

HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2022-23)

Class - XI Subject – Accountancy

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks-80

General Instruction
1. Attempt all questions
2. Show working notes where applicable.
3. Attempt all parts of a questions together.

1. Accounting cycle starts with [1]

a) Recording of transactions in ledger
b) Recording of transactions in journal
c) Preparing Trial Balance
d) Preparing Trading Account
2. Which of the following is not sub field of accounting? [1]
a) Financial Accounting
b) Book Keeping
c) Management Accounting
d) Cost Accenting
3. Current assets do not include [1]
a) Debtors
b) Bank Balance
c) Motor Car
d) Prepaid Expenses
4. Intangible assets do not include [1]
a) Patent
b) Trade mark
c) Stock
d) Prepaid Expenses
5. Current Liabilities do not include [1]
a) Bills Payable
b) Creditors
c) Outstanding Expenses
d) Debentures

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6. Which of the following is the Capital Expenditure [1]
a) Wages paid for repair of building
b) Wages paid for white washing of building
c) Wages paid for construction of building
d) Wages paid for cleaning of building
7. Livestock includes [1]
a) Stock
b) Goods
c) Animals
d) Life Insurance Policy
8. Wasting Assets do not include [1]
a) Patent
b) Trade mark
c) Land and Building
d) Mines
9. Which equation is incorrect out of the following [1]
a) Assets = Liabilities + Capital
b) Capital = Assets – Liabilities
c) Liabilities = Assets – Capital
d) Assets = Liabilities – Capital
10. Vouchers is prepared for [1]
a) Cash received and paid
b) Ledger Account
c) Source Documents
d) All of the above
11. Main elements of accounting equation are [1]
a) Capital Creditors and Bill Payable
b) Assets, Liabilities and Capital
c) Cash, Stock and Debtors
d) Bank Balance, Investments and Bills Receivable
12. As a result of the following transactions the total of accounting equating will be ………… [1]
i) Started business with cash Rs. 200000
ii) Computer purchased Rs. 50000
iii) Goods purchased on credit Rs. 60000
a) Rs. 310000
b) Rs. 250000
c) Rs. 210000
d) Rs. 260000
13. Loss of goods by fire should be credited to [1]
a) Sales Account
b) Loss Account
c) Profit and Loss Account
d) Purchase Account

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14. Goods costing Rs. 30000 supplied to Mohan at a profit on 25% on sales price less Trade
discount @ 5% will be credited to sales account with [1]
a) Rs. 35625
b) Rs. 38000
c) Rs. 37500
d) Rs. 34200
15. Paid to Rahul on behalf of Sanjay Rs. 12000 will be debited to [1]
a) Rahul’s personal Account
b) Sanjay’s Account
c) Drawings Account
d) Cash Account
16. Goods worth Rs. 7000 given away as charity would be credited to [1]
a) Sales Account
b) Purchase Account
c) Charity Account
d) Trustee Account
17. Salary due for the month of March will appear in …………….. side of cash book [1]
a) Receipt
b) Payment
c) Contra
d) None of the above
18. Debit Note is the source of writing [1]
a) A debit entry in an Account
b) A sale to a person
c) Sales Return Book
d) Journal Proper
19. Purchase Book is a part of [1]
a) The Journal
b) The ledger
c) The Trading Account
d) The Balance Sheet
20. Credit balance Show [1]
a) Losses and Liabilities
b) Liabilities and Incomes
c) Assets and Expenses
d) All of the above
21. Explain (a) Going Concern Concept [3]
(b) Money measurement Concept
22. “Every transaction has Debit and Credit aspects” Explain [3]
23. What is accounting? Explain any three Characteristics of accounting [4]

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24. Journalise the following transactions [4]
i) Purchased goods for Rs. 10000 from Ajay and supplied it to Vijay for Rs. 15000
ii) Purchased machinery for Rs. 50000 by cheque and installation charges of Rs. 5000 paid in
cash
iii) Shyam who owed us Rs. 15000 is declared insolvent and 50 paise in a rupee is received as
final dividend from his estate
iv) Receive a cheque from Suman Rs. 5450. Allowed him discount Rs. 150 cheque is
immediately deposited into bank.
25. Pass journal entries [4]
i) Interest on Capital
ii) Interest on Drawing
iii) Interest on Fixed Deposit
iv) Interest on Bank loan
v) Interest on investment
vi) Interest allowed by bank
vii) Interest charged by bank
viii) Bad Debts
26. Enter the following transactions in the purchase book of Modi Cloth House Ranchi [4]
2022
June1 Purchased from Mohit Brothers Ranchi vide invoice No. 101
50 Metre cotton cloth @ Rs. 400 per metre
160 Metre Woolen Cloth @ Rs. 250 per metre
Trade discount @ 20%
June 5 Purchased from Mohan Brothers Kanpur UP vide invoice No. 102
100 Metre Silk Cloth @ Rs. 300 per Metre
80 Metre cotton cloth @ Rs. 125 per Metre
Trade discount @ 10%
June 10 Purchased from Modern Furniture House Delhi
10 Chairs @ Rs 1000 per chair vide invoice No. 103
June 15 Purchased from Hira Lal & Sons Gujrat vide invoice No. 104
100 Metre woolen cloth @ Rs. 600 per Metre
Trade discount @ 15%
27. Record the following transactions in sales book of Mahesh Ranchi [4]
2020
June 1 Sold goods to Ruchika Electronic Ranchi
3 colour TV Sets @ Rs. 20000 each
10 Washing Machine @ Rs. 10000 each
Trade discount @ 20%
June 5 Sold to Garima Electronic Patna
5 Colour TV sets @ Rs. 15000 each
10 Music System @ Rs. 5000 each
Trade discount @ 25%

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 June 15 Sold to Vishal Electronic Kanpur
10 Washing Machine @ Rs. 7000 each
Trade discount @ 10%
28. From the following particulars. Prepare Simple Petty Cash Book for the month of June 2022
[6]
June 1 Balance in hand Rs. 500
June 1 Received for cash payment Rs. 5000
June 2 Paid for postage Rs. 100
June 3 Paid for stationary Rs. 150
June 4 Paid for carriage Rs. 250
June 5 Paid for conveyance Rs. 300
June 6 Paid for courier Rs. 100
June 7 Paid for office cleaning Rs. 150
June 8 Paid for Taxi Fair Rs. 350
June 9 Wages to casual laborers Rs. 300
June 10 Paid for repair of printer Rs. 400
June 11 Paid for refreshment Rs. 450
June 12 Paid for bus fare Rs. 100
June 13 Locks purchased Rs. 450
June 14 Telephone bill Rs. 300
June 15 Paid for cartage Rs. 150
June 16 Paid for repair of chairs Rs. 200
June 17 Paid for auto fare Rs. 100
June 18 Paid for refreshment Rs. 300
June 19 Paid for taxi fare Rs. 200
29. Prepare Accounting Equation from the following information [6]
2022
June 1 Started business with cash Rs. 100000
June 3 Goods purchased for cash Rs. 50000 and on credit Rs. 100000
June 5 Goods sold for cash Rs. 50000 (profit 25% on cost) and on credit
Rs. 100000 (profit 30% on sales)
June 7 Furniture purchased for cash Rs. 10000
June 9 Cash received from debtors Rs. 50000
June 11 Cash paid to creditors Rs. 20000 discount received Rs. 1000
30. Prepare Trial Balance as at 31.03.2022
Furniture 10000 Capital 100000
Purchase 20000 Debtors 50000
Sales 30000 Computer 40000
Carriage 5000 Wages 10000
Postage 15000 Salaries 30000
Stationery 10000 Advertisement 10000
Creditors 30000 Bank Loan 40000 [6]

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31. Record the following transactions in Double Column Cash Book [8]
2022
June 1 Cash in hand Rs. 30000 cash and bank Rs. 10000 (cr)
June 3 A cheque of Rs. 18000 received from debtors and discount allowed to
him @ 10%
June 5 Interest charged by bank Rs. 2000
June 7 A cheque of Rs. 10000 Issued to creditors
June 9 Cash deposited into bank Rs. 5000
June 11 Dividend collected by bank Rs. 5000
June 13 Goods sold for cash Rs. 20000
June 15 Goods purchased for cash Rs. 5000
June 17 Paid for Advertisement by cheque Rs. 10000
June 19 Salary paid by cheque Rs. 20000
June 21 Wages paid Rs. 1000
June 23 Income Tax paid Rs. 2000
32. Pass Journal entries :- [8]
2022
June 1 Started business with cash Rs. 100000 Goods Rs. 200000 and building
Rs 300000
June 3 Open a current account with SBI Rs. 50000
June 5 Goods purchased Rs. 100000, trade discount 10% cash discount 5%, 20% of
purchases are on cash basis
June 7 Goods sold Rs 200000 trade discount 20% cash discount 10%, 50% of sales
are on cash basis
June 9 Salaries paid Rs 36000 by cheque after deducting TDS @ 10%
June 11 Cash received from debtors and discount allowed to him @ 20% Rs. 1000
June 13 Cash paid to creditors Rs 9500 and discount received from him @ 5%
June 15 Wages paid Rs. 3000 and wages due Rs. 2000

6
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2022-23)

Class - XI Subject – Biology

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks-70

General instructions

1. All questions are compulsory.

2. The question paper has four sections: Section A, Section B, Section C and Section D. There
are 33 questions in the question paper.
3. Section-A has 14 questions of 1 mark each and 2 case-based questions. Section-B has 9
questions of 2 marks each. Section-C has 5 questions of 3 marks each and Section-D has 3
questions of 5 marks each.
4. There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some
questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.

Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION A
1. What is the unit of classification? [1]
2. Why are Deuteromycetes known as ‘Imperfect Fungi’? [1]
3. What are Gemma ? [1]
4. Why are Platyhelminthes known as flatworms? [1]
5. What is a staminode ? [1]
6. Define metabolism. [1]
7. Bryophytes are called amphibians of the plant kingdom. Justify. [1]
8. What does the term ‘red-tides’ signify? [1]
9. Mention the role of radula in Mollusca. [1]
OR
What is meant by metagenesis ?
10. What is a perianth ? [1]

DIRECTION (Q. No’s 11 – 14)

In each of the following questions, a statement Assertion (A) is given followed by

corresponding statement of Reason (R) of the statements, mark the correct answer as

1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) If A is true, but R is false.
4) If both A and R are false

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11. ASSERTION (A) - Slime moulds are called as fungus like animals. [1]
REASON (R) - These do not have cell wall
OR
ASSERTION (A) – Bacteria are prokaryotic
REASON (R) – Bacteria do not possess true nucleus and membrane bound cell
organelles [1]

12. ASSERTION (A) – Production of two types of spores is a pre-requisite of seed habit. [1]
REASON (R) – In pteridophytes Lycopodium is precursor of seed habit.
13. ASSERTION (A) – Aschelminthes are called pseudocoelomates. [1]
REASON (R) – In Aschelminthes mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in between
ectoderm and endoderm.
14. ASSERTION (A) – Non-living things exhibit growth, but not cell division. [1]
REASON (R) – Cell differentiation occurs exclusively in living organisms.
15. DIRECTION – Read the following and answer any four of the questions that follow:

Pteridophytes are primitive seedless vascular plants. Haeckel (1860) called these groups of
plants as ‘Pteridophytes’ because of their pinnate or feather like fronds (leaves). These
shade loving plants are few centimeters to 20 m long. The plant body of pteridophytes is
differentiated into true root, stem and leaves which are either small or large. They also
possess well-differentiated vascular tissues, i.e. xylem and phloem. Most of the
pteridophytes are homosporous with few exceptional heterosporous species. The
sporophyte produces spores and gametophyte bears antheridia and archegonia.
I. Pteridophytes mostly occur in [1]
(a) Cool,damp and shady places
(b) Dry and humid areas
(c) Hot and sunny places
(d) Freezing temperatures
II. Which is wrong about pteridophytes [1]
(a) Gametophytic phase is dominant
(b) Sporophytic phase is dominant
(c) Gametophyte is independent
(d) Rhizoids are attached to pinnae
III. Selaginella possesses [1]
(a) Strobili
(b) heterospores
(c) Sporophytic plant body
(d) All of the above

IV. Pteridophytes are also known as [1]

(a) Cryptogams
(b) vascular cryptogams
(c) Amphibious plants
(d) phanerogams

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 V. ASSERTION (A) – In pteridophytes zygote produces a multicellular sporophytes.
REASON (R) – Sporophyte is the dominant phase in life cycle of pteridophytes. [1]
Choose the correct option.

(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) If both A and R are false

16. DIRECTION – Read the following and answer any four of the questions that follow
The members of kingdom – Fungi are eukaryotic, heterotrophic and achlorophyllous. They
are either unicellular or multicellular forms that are made up of hyphae. The network of
hyphae forms the mycelium. These cell wall exhibiting organisms reproduce by both sexual
asexual modes. On the basis os spore formation, fungi are classified as Phycomycetes,
Asomycetes, Basidiomycetes and Deuteromycetes. Based on the mode of nutrition, fungi
are classified as saprophytic and parasitic forms. These are also found in symbiotic
association with plants.
I. Fungal cell wall is composed of [1]
(a) Cellulose and pectins
(b) Chitin and glycoproteins
(c) Chitin, glycoproteins and glucans
(d) Pectins, chitin and cellulose
II. Club-fungi is [1]
(a) Phycomycetes
(b) Deuteromycetes
(c) Basidiomycetes
(d) Ascomycetes

III. The spores that help fungi to undergo asexual reproduction during favourable
conditions is [1]
(a) Zoospores
(b) aplanospores
(c) conidia
(d) All of these

IV. Sexual reproduction in Ascomycetes occurs through [1]

(a) Somatogamy of zoospores
(b) Isogamy of zoospores
(c) Ascospores
(d) Both (b) and (c)
V. ASSERTION (A) – Mycelium in Deuteromycetes is aseptate [1]
REASON (R) – Phycomycetes possess septate and branched mycelium
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) Both A and R are false

3
 SECTION B
17. Flower is a modified shoot. Justify. [2]
OR
Stamens of a flower may be united with the other members like petals. Describe the various
types of stamens based on their attachment to the floral whorls
18. Pinus and Cycas belong to the same group. But the roots of pinus are different from that of
cycas’. Explain how? [2]
19. ‘All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates.’ Justify. [2]
20. Brinjal and potato belong to the same genus Solanum but to two different species. What
defines them as separate species? [2]
21. What is the importance of pneumatic bones and air sacs in Aves? [2]
22. Fungi are cosmopolitan, write the roles of fungi in your daily life. [2]
OR
How are viruses different from viroid?
23. Endoparasites are found inside the host body. Mention the special structures possessed by
then which enables them to survive in the adverse conditions. [2]
24. How are Liverworts different from Mosses? [2]
25. a) Lichens are good pollution indicators. Justify.
b) Draw a labelled diagram of a bacteriophage. [2]

SECTION C
26. Give reasons :
a) Cyanobacteria are used in agricultural fields for crop production
b) Diatoms are called ‘ chief producers of ocean’.
c) Euglenoids are called ‘mixotrophs’ [3]
27. Compare the three classes of algae on the basis of:
(i) Major pigments
(ii) Stored foods
OR
Explain the following with reasons:
a) The leaves of gymnosperms are needle like, have thick cuticle and sunken stomata.
b) The spread of living pteridophytes is limited restricted to narrow geographical
regions.
c) Bryophytes are of little economic importance but Sphagnum is of great economic
importance. [3]
28. Describe the different types flowers based on the position of the ovary [3]
29. Name the following
a) A limbless amphibian
b) Excretory organs in arthropoda
c) Free floating form of Cnidaria
d) Stinging organ of jelly fishes
e) Lateral appendages in aquatic annelids
f) An organ which regulates buoyancy [3]

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30. Write a note on Archaebacteria. [3]

SECTION D

31. What is placentation? Describe the various types of placentations found in the flowering
plants.
OR
What is aestivation? Discuss the major types of aestivation seen in a flower. [5]
32. (a) ‘The study of the nature of body cavity and coelom in the classification of animals is
important’. Support this statement with examples.

(b) ‘Mammals are most adapted amongst the vertebrates’. Give four points to justify the
statement.
OR

(a) Give three major differences between chordates and non-chordates.

(b) Comment upon the habitats and features of animals belonging to class Amphibia and
Reptilia [5]
33. (a) Draw a well labeled diagram of the gametophyte and sporophyte of funaria.

(b) Briefly describe the main features of bryophytes.

OR

(a) Mention the four classes of pteridophytes

(b) Write a note on the economic importance of algae and gymnosperms [5]

5
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2022-23)

Class - XI Subject – Business Studies

Time – 3 Hour Maximum Marks- 80

General Instructions:
1. This question paper contains 34 questions.
2. Marks are indicated against each question.
3. Answer should be brief and to the point.
4. Answers to the questions carrying 3 marks may be from 50 to 75 words.
5. Answers to questions carrying 4 marks may be about 150 words.
6. Answers to the questions carrying 6 marks may be about 200 words.
7. Attempt all parts of the question together.

1. Identify the programme that was launched by the Government of India on 25 th September
2014 to encourage companies to manufacture their products in India and incentivize with
dedicated investments into manufacturing.
(a) Skill India
(b) Digital India
(c) Make in India
(d) None of these [1]

2. Tanmay has introduced a new method of packaging which is more user friendly. The
objective of business being described in the above lines is _____
(a) Productivity
(b) Social Responsibility
(c) Innovation
(d) None of the above [1]
3. Lack of knowledge relating to the future conditions that the business is going to face in
future is known as _____ (Fill in the blank) [1]

4. ______ activities are undertaken to satisfy social and psychological needs.

(Fill in the blank) [1]
5. Transportation removes the hindrance of time. (State True/False) [1]

6. Identify the related feature of a company that specifies,” its Assets and Liabilities are
separate from those of its owners.”
(a) Artificial Person
(b) Separate legal entity
(c) Perpetual Succession
(d) Common Seal [1]

1
7. A _____can immediately start its operations on receiving the Certificate of Incorporation.
(a) Private Ltd. Company
(b) Public Ltd. Company
(c) Joint Hindu Family Business
(d) None of these [1]
8. Government Company is completely owned, managed and controlled by a Government
Ministry. (State True/False) [1]

9. Name the two important documents to be prepared by a proposed Government company

that needs to be registered like any other public limited company under Companies Act,
2013. [1]
10. Which of the following Public Sector enterprises do not enjoy a Separate Legal Entity?
(a) Departmental Undertaking
(b) Statutory Corporation
(c) Government Company
(d) None of the above [1]

11. The liability of shareholders of a government company is ____

(Fill in the blank) [1]
12. The Government of India has opted for a _____ economy where both private and
government enterprises are allowed operate. (Fill in the Blank) [1]

13. Arya owns a business of manufacturing hospital disposables. He has taken a group life
insurance policy covering all his staff members. Whenever, a new employee joins the firm
his/her name is added to the list of employees covered in the policy. Likewise, when an
employee leaves his/her name is removed from the list. Identify the principle of insurance
applicable in the above case.
(a) Indemnity
(b) Insurable Interest
(c) Utmost Good Faith
(d) Proximate Cause [1]

14. Ranadheer took an insurance policy for his new car. In an accident his car is totally
damaged. Insurance company settles his claim in time. Identify the party which will have a
right to claim the amount realized through the sale of scrap of the car.
(a) Ranadheer
(b) Insurance company
(c) Both of them
(d) Neither of them [1]
15. The principle of Indemnity is not applicable to _____insurance.
(a) Life
(b) Fire
(c) Marine
(d) None of these [1]
16. ________ is a service provided by banks on nominal commission charges to a customer for
remittance purposes and it guarantees surety of payment.
(Fill in the blank) [1]

17. Name the two types of cheques that can be drawn to make the payments. [1]
2
18. Identify the bank account that interlinks the savings account with a deposit account and
any amount in excess of a pre-determined amount is automatically transferred to a fixed
deposit. [1]

19. Services are intangible in nature, which means that they _____-
(a)Involve simultaneous production and consumption
(b)Are performed exclusively each time
(c)Are experiential in nature
(d) Cannot be stored for a future use [1]

20. Marine insurance provides protection against loss by sea perils i.e., enemy attacks, fire and
actions of the captains etc. (State True/False) [1]

21. Profit is found to be a leading objective of business but not the only one. Do you agree with
the given statement? Give reasons to justify your answer. [3]

22. Give the classification of primary industries and explain the same with the help of suitable
examples. [3]

23. What do you mean by Joint Hindu Family Business? State the basis of membership and
ownership of the members of the same. [3]

24. If registration is optional, why do partnership firms willingly go through this legal
formality and get themselves registered? Explain by giving three suitable reasons. [3]

25. Give a comparative view of the three economic activities on the following basis :
(i) Mode of establishment
(ii) Reward or Return
(iii) Capital Investment
(iv) Code of conduct [4]
26. Bhavana is running a Sole Proprietorship business. Over the past decade, her business has
grown from a small neighbourhood corner shop selling accessories such as artificial
jewelry, bags, hair clips and nail art to a big retail house with the branches in different parts
of the city. Although she looks after varied functions, management of expanded business
has become a challenging task. She is wondering whether she should form a Company
form of organisation for better management of the business.
(a)Explain Two advantages of remaining a Sole Proprietor.
(b)Explain Two benefits of converting it to a Joint Stock Company. [4]
27. Explain the following:
(a)Consumer’s cooperative societies
(b)Credit cooperative societies [4]

28. Railways and Post and Telegraph department are the prominent examples of one of the
forms of public sector enterprises. Identify and State any three advantages of it. [4]

29. It is a Public Sector Enterprise established under Indian Companies Act and conducts
business in competition with companies in Private Sector.
(a) Identify the type of Public Sector enterprise.
(b) What is the minimum investment Government has to make in such companies?
(c) Explain any two advantages of such companies. [4]

3
30. Amar purchased a new office in Bangalore, and decided to take a double insurance policy
for it. He got his office insured with Company A for Rs. 2 crores and with Company B for
Rs. 3 crores. Due to negligence of the security guards, a theft occurred in his office, and
many laptops and other electronic gadgets were stolen. The amount of loss was estimated
to be Rs. 50 lakhs. Amar has decided to file a claim with both the insurance companies for
Rs. 50 lakhs each.
In context of the above case:
(a) How do you think he will be compensated for the loss in this case by the two insurance
companies?
(b) Calculate the relative share of each of the two companies in settling the claims of Amar.
(c) Incase Company A decides to pay Rs. 50 lakhs to Amar, how much amount of the claim
will be due from Company B to Company A?
(d) Identify the related principle of insurance applicable in the given case and explain the
same. [4]
31. Answer the following briefly:
(a)What do you mean by Business Risk?
(b)State the types of business risk.
(c)Explain the various causes of business risks briefly. [1+1+4 = 6]

32. What do you mean by a Private Limited Company? State any four privileges of a Private
Limited Company as against a Public Limited Company. [6]

33. The Reserve Bank of India was established under a special Act of the Parliament, that lays
down the objects, powers and functions of the corporation. It was established on 1st April,
1935 in accordance with the provisions of RBI Act, 1934. RBI formulates , implements and
monitors the monetary policy and its main objective is to maintain price stability while
keeping in mind the objective of growth. How will you classify RBI as a form of Public
Sector Enterprise? Explain any three merits and two limitations of this type of Public Sector
Enterprise. [6]

34. What do you mean by Banking? Explain the following briefly:

(a) Bank Overdraft
(b) Cash Credit
(c) Savings bank account
(d) Fixed Deposit account
(e) Recurring Deposit Account [6]

4
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2022-23)

Class - XI Subject – Chemistry

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks- 70

GENERALINSTRUCTIONS:-

(i) Question paper comprises of four sections A, B, C and D.

(ii) There are 33 questions in the question paper and all questions are compulsory.
(iii) Section A: Q1 to Q2 are case based questions having four MCQ or Reason-Assertion type
based on given passage, each carrying 1mark.
(iv) Section A: Q3 to Q16 are MCQ questions, carrying 1mark each.
(v) Section B: Q17 to Q25are short answer questions and carry 2 marks each.
(vi) Section C: Q26 to Q30 are short answer questions and carry 3 marks each.
(vii) Section D: Q 31to Q33 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
(viii) There are no overall choices. However internal choices have been provided.

SECTION-A

1. Read the passage given below and answer the questions:

Binary solutions can be nine different types depending upon the nature of the solute and nature of the
solvent whether solid, liquid or gas. They may be further classified as solid, liquid or gaseous solutions
based on the component which acts as solvent. However, the liquid solutions are the most important.
Both solids and gases dissolve in liquids resulting in homogenous mixture i.e., solutions. The
solubility is governed by no. of factors such as nature of solute and solvent, temperature, pressure etc.
The concentration of the solutions can be expressed in different ways such as molarity, molality, mole
fraction etc. Out of these molality and mole fraction are better as they do not change with the change
in temperature.
The following questions are multiple choice questions with single correct answer. [1x4=4]
i) One molal solution contains one mole of solute in
a. 1000 gm of the solvent
b. One litre of the solvent
c. One litre of the solution
d. 22.4 litre of the solution

1
 ii) The mole fraction of solute in 2 molal aqueous solution is:
a. 1.77
b. 1.87
c. 0.347
d. 0.0347

iii) A concentration of 1ppm means that:

a. each kilogram of a solution contains 1mg. of the solute.
b. each gram of solution contains 1gm of the solute.
c. each kilogram of solution contains 1gram of solute.
d. each kilogram of solution contains 1 ml solute.

iv) Molality of sucrose solution changes if:

a. temperature is increased
b. some water is added.
c. in both a and b cases.
d. in none of the above cases.

2. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions: [1x4 =4]

An electron in atom can be fully described in terms of certain constants known as quantum numbers.
These are the four out of which principal, azimuthal, magnetic quantum numbers have been derived
from Schrodinger wave equation. However, the spin quantum number arises from the spin of the
electron around its own axis which may be clockwise or anticlockwise in nature.

In the following questions, a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose
the correct answer out of the four choices:
a. Assertion and Reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
b. Assertion and Reason both are correct statements but reason is not the correct explanation
for assertion.
c. Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
d. Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

i) Assertion: An orbital can not have more than two electrons and their spin must be opposite.
Reason: No Two electrons in an atom can have same set of all the four quantum numbers
ii) Assertion: The quantized energy of an electron is largely determined by the principal quantum
number.
Reason: The principal quantum number is a measure of the most proabable distance of finding
the electron around the nucleus of an atom.
iii) Assertion: Angular momentum of the electron in 4p orbital is greater than that of in the 3p
orbital.
Reason: Energy of 4th orbit is greater than that of the third orbit.

2
 iv) Assertion: No two orbitals have the same number of radial nodes.
Reason: No. of radial nodes of any orbital depends upon the value of principal and azimuthal
quantum numbers.

Following questions (Q3-Q16) are multiple choice questions carrying 1 mark each with single correct
answer:

3. Which is the best example of law of conservation of mass?

a. When 6 gm of carbon is heated in vacuum, there is no change in mass
b. 6 gm of Carbon combines with 16 gm of oxygen to form 22 gm of CO2
c. 6 gm of water is completely converted in steam
d. A sample of air is heated at constant pressure when its volume increases but there is no change in
mass.
4. CH4 is burnt in the availability of oxygen. If 5 moles of each of the component is present then which
one is the limiting reactant?
a. CH4
b. O2
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
5. A sample of Ammonium phosphate (NH4)3PO4 contains 6 moles of hydrogen atoms. The no. of mole
of oxygen atoms in the sample is:
a. 1
b. 2
c. 4
d. 6
6. The ratio of masses of oxygen in the various oxides of nitrogen prove the law of:
a. Reciprocal proportion
b. Multiple proportion
c. Constant proportion
d. Conservation of mass
7. According to the Bohr theory, which of the following transition in the hydrogen atom will give rise to
the least energetic photon?
a. n=6 to n=1
b. n=5 to n=4
c. n=6 to n=5
d. n=5 to n=3
8. In Cu (Atomic no. 29):
a. 13 electrons have spin in one direction and 16 electrons in other direction
b. 14 electrons have spin in one direction and 15 electrons in other direction
c. One electron has spin only in clockwise direction
d. None of the above is correct

3
9. Ψ2= 0 represents:
a. A node
b. An orbital
c. Angular wave function
d. Wave function
10. Which one is a set of isoelectronic species?
a. N2, CO2,
b. N, H2S, CO
c. N2, CO,
d. Ca, Mg, Cl
11. The IUPAC symbol for the element with atomic number 119 would be
a. Une
b. Unh
c. Uun
d. Uue
12. The first ionization enthalpy of the following elements are in the order
a. C<N<Si<P
b. P<Si<N<C
c. P<Si<C<N
d. Si<P<C<N
13.An element with atomic number 21 is
a. Transition element
b. Alkali metal
c. Halogen
d. Representative element.
14. Which of the following element has the maximum negative electron gain enthalpy?
a. Oxygen
b. Chlorine
c. Fluorine
d. Nitrogen.
15. The screening effect of d electron is
a. Much less than s- electrons
b. Much more than s- electrons
c. Equal to s -electrons.
d. Equal to p- electrons.
16. The most non metallic element among the following is :
a. Be
b. B
c. Mg
d. Al

4
 Section – ‘B’
The following questions Q 17- Q25 are short answer type questions and carry2 marks each. [2x9 =18]
17. State Avogadro’s law. How does this law help in calculating atomicity of oxygen ?
18. state the law of multiple proportion with suitable example.
19. Write two differences between molality and molarity.
20. Explain why the uncertainty principle is significant only for the motion of subatomic particles and is
negligible for macroscopic object.
OR
What is the wavelength of the light emitted when the electron in a hydrogen atom undergoes
transition from the energy level with n=4 to the energy level n =2.(R = 109678 cm-1)
21. What are the main differences between electromagnetic wave theory and Planck’s quantum theory?
22. Write electronic configuration of Cr (24). Why are the half - filled orbitals more stable?

23. What is screening effect? How does it influence ionization enthalpy?

24. How will you justify the presence of 18 elements in 5 th period and 32 elements in 6th period of modern
periodic table?

25.Write differences between electron gain enthalpy and electronegativity

Section C
The following questions Q.26 to Q.30 are short answer type questions carrying 3marks.

[3x 5 =15]
26. What are the postulates of Daltons atomic theory? How do the law of chemical combinations follow from
it?

27. Conc HCl used in laboratory is 38 % by mass in aqueous solution. What should be the molarity of such
sample of the acid, if the density of the solution is 1.19 gm cm -3. What volume of conc HCl is required to
make 1.0 litre of 0.10 M HCl?

OR

Conc sulphuric acid is 98% H2SO4 by mass and has a density 1.84 gm cm-3, what volume of conc acid is
required to make 5.0 litre of 0. 50M sulphuric acid solution?
28.Derive deBroglie’s equation. How do de Broglie’s wave differ from electromagnetic wave ?

29. Table tennis ball has a mass 10gm and a speed of 90 m /s .If speed can be measured within the accuracy of
4% ,what will be the uncertainty in speed and position ?

30.Give reason for the following.

(i) Noble gases have positive electron gain enthalpy.
(ii)Radius of anion is more than that of the atom.
(iii)Halogens act as good oxidizing agent.

5
 Section D
Direction :Q. 31 to Q. 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each.

31. (a) Write the basic difference between the empirical formula and molecular formula. Explain with suitable
example.
(b) Butyric acid contains only carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. A 4.24 mg of sample of Butyric acid is
completely burnt, it gives 8.45 mg of CO2 and 3.46 mg of H2O. What is the percentage mass of each
component in butyric acid ? If the molecular mass of Butyric acid is 88 u. What is the molecular
formula ?
[2 + 3]
OR

(a) What do you understand by the term Formula Mass ? How does it differ from Molecular Mass?
(b) From 200 mg of CO2, if 10 21 molecules are removed. How many moles of the gas are left ?

32. (a) Show that the circumference of Bohr’s orbit for the H-atom is an integral multiple of the de- Broglies
wavelength of electron revolving around the orbit.

(b) A bulb emits light of wavelength 4500 A0. The bulb is rated as 150 watt & 8 % energy is emitted as
light. How many photons are emitted by the bulb per second ? [ 1 watt = J sec -1 ; h = 6.626 X 10 -34 J
Sec. ]

OR
(a) What is photo electric effect ? What are the main observations of photoelectric effect ?
(b) When a photon of frequency 1.0 X 10 15 S -1 was allowed to hit a metal surface ; an electron having
1.988 X 10 -19 J of kinetic energy was emitted. Calculate the threshold frequency of this metal. Show that
an electron will not be emitted if a photon with a wavelength equal to 600 nm hits this metal surface.
[2 + 3]

33. (i) What do you mean by successive electron gain enthalpies ? Why is the second electron gain enthalpy of
an atom positive ? Explain with example.
(ii) Define covalent radius. How does it vary in group &period ?
[3 + 2]

OR
(i) What are transition elements ? Why are they so called ? Write few properties of such elements.
(ii) What do you mean by diagonal relationship ? What is the cause for it ?

6
7
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2022-23)

Class - XI Subject – Computer Science

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks-70

General Instructions:-
 The question paper is divided into 4 sections-A,B,C and D.
 Section A, consists of 10 multiple choice questions. Each question carry 1 mark.
 Section B, consists of 10 questions. Each question carries 2 marks.
 Section C, consists of 8 questions. Each question carries 3 marks.
 Section D, consists of 1 question, carry 4 marks.

SECTION-A (Multiple Choice questions) [10x1=10 Marks]

1. Which of the following falls under utilities?

(a) Text editor
(b) Backup
(c) Disk defragmenter
(d) All of these
2. ROM is a
(a) Volatile Memory
(b) Non-Volatile memory
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
3. Which smaller unit of CPU directs and coordinates all activities within it and determine
the sequences in which instructions are executed, sending instruction sequence to other
smaller units?
(a) CU
(b) ALU
(c) Processor
(d) All of these
4. Which numbering system uses numbers and letters as symbols?
(a) Decimal
(b) Binary
(c) Octal
(d) Hexadecimal
1
5. Which of the following are the fundamental building blocks of a Python program?
(a) Identifiers
(b) Constants
(c) Punctuator
(d) Tokens
6. Python language is ____________
(a) Free
(b) Open Source
(c) Free and Open Source
(d) Proprietary
7. Write the output of the following code:
A=2
A=5
A=A+A
print(A)
(a) 4
(b) 7
(c) 10
(d) Error
8. Which of the following symbol is used to write comment in python?
(a) ?
(b) //
(c) #
(d) **
9. Which gates return true if both inputs are similar otherwise false.
(a) NAND
(b) NOR
(c) XOR
(d) None of the above
10. The expression of NAND gate is _________
(a) A.B
(b) A’B+AB’
(c) (A.B)’
(d) (A+B)’

SECTION-B [13X2=26 Marks]

11. What is an application software? Why is it required?

12. What do you mean by ROM? What are PROM and EPROM?
13. Convert the following hexadecimal numbers to decimal:
(a) A6 (b) A13C

2
14. Convert the following hexadecimal numbers to octal:
(a) 38AC (b) 7FD6.4B
15. Convert the following binary numbers to octal:
(a) 1100111011 (b) 111010111.10101
16. Convert the following decimal numbers to binary:
(a) 1365.25 (b) 766.75
17. Add the following binary numbers:
(a) 10110111,1110010 and 1100101 (b) 1110.110 and 11010.011
18. Draw a logical circuit diagrams for (both L.H.S and R.H.S), of the following Boolean
Expression: (X.Y+Y.Z+Y’.Z) = (X.Y+Z).
19. Identify the invalid variable names from the following and specify the reason also.
(a) m_n
(b) unit_day
(c) 24Apple
(d) #sum
(e) for
(f) s name
20. Evaluate the following expressions:
(a) (15 > 9 and 34 > 56 or 90 > 60 and not 21 >10 and - 8 > - 10)
(b) 12 % 4 + 6 + 4 // 3
21. What do you mean by dynamic typing? Explain with examples.
22. Define the following term:
(a) Token
(b) Keywords
(c) Operand
(d) String
23. Write the output of the following:
>>>x , y = 3, 5
>>>x, y = y, x + 6
>>>print(x,y)

SECTION-C [10X3=30 Marks]

24. What do you mean by operating system? Explain any four functions of an operating
system?
25. What do you mean by booting? Explain the types of booting.
26. Explain the following term:
(a) Bus (b) Registers (c) BIOS
27. State DeMorgan’s Law of Boolean Algebra and verify them using truth table.
28. Name the law shown below and verify it using a truth table:
A+B.C=(A+B).(A+C)

3
29. Write a program to calculate the electricity bill (accept number of units from user)
according to the following criteria :
Unit Price
First 100 units no charge
Next 100 units Rs 5 per unit
After 200 units Rs 10 per unit
(For example if input unit is 350 than total bill amount is Rs2000)
30. Design a menu driven program to perform the following operations:
1. Volume of cylinder
2. Volume of cone
3. Volume sphere
4. Volume hemisphere
31. Write a program to find the largest number and smallest number, out of three unequal
integers, provided by the user.
32. Write a program to check whether an inputted year (in 4 digits), is leap year or not.
33. Write a program to accept two numbers and mathematical operators and perform
arithmetic (+,-,*,//,%) operation accordingly.

SECTION-D [1X4=4 Marks]

34. (a) Write a Program to accept the marked price from the user and calculate the Net
amount as (Marked Price - Discount) to pay according to following criteria: [2 Marks]

Marked Price Discount

>10000 20%

>7000 and
15%
<=10000

<=7000 10%

(b) Write a program to enter any three numbers and swap their values without using
fourth variable. [2 Marks]

4
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2022-23)

Class - XI Subject – Economics

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks- 80

General Instructions
1. Question Paper consists of two sections, carrying equal weightage.
2. Internal options have been provided in some questions.
3. Q1 to Q10 in Section A and Q18 to Q27 consists of 1 mark each.
4. Q11 and Q12 in Section A and Q28 and Q29 consist of 3 marks each.
5. Q13 to Q15 in Section A and Q30 to Q32 consists of 4 marks each.
6. Q16 and Q17 in Section A and Q33 and Q34 consist of 6 marks each.
7. Marks distribution has been mentioned wherever required.
8. Solve numericals clearly, with proper steps.
9. Write in points wherever possible.
10. Handwriting should be legible.
11. Use graph paper wherever needed.

MICROECONOMICS (40 Marks)

1. The opportunity cost of 100 kg of rice produced on a land which can also produce 80 tonnes of
wheat is:
(a) 100 kg of wheat
(b) 80 tonnes of wheat
(c) 8000 tonnes of wheat
(d) None of these [1]
2. Concavity of PPC implies:
(a) Increasing slope
(b) Decreasing slope
(c) Constant slope
(d) None of these [1]

3. Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility states that when more and more units of a commodity are
consumed, marginal utility:
(a) Begins to increase
(b) Remains constant
(c) Begins to decrease
(d) Becomes constant [1]

1
 OR
When total utility is maximum, marginal utility becomes:
(a) Zero
(b) Unity
(c) Positive
(d) Negative [1]

4. A shift in the budget line, when prices are constant, is due to:
(a) Change in demand
(b) Change in income
(c) Change in preferences
(d) Change in utility [1]

5. Marginal Rate of Substitution of X for Y is calculated as:

(a) Px/Py
(b) Py/Px
(c) ∆Y/∆X
(d) ∆X/∆Y [1]

6. The production possibility curve will shift to the right when there is a/ an:
(a) Advancement of technology for the production of only commodity X
(b) Increase in availability of resources
(c) Decrease in availability of resources
(d) None of these [1]

7. State whether True or False:

Marginal Utility can never be negative. [1]

8. If MUx/Px < MUy/Py, then the consumer should buy _____ (less/more) of commodity X and
______ (less/more) of commodity Y. [1]

9. Budget Line is also known as ______ (price/ expense) line. [1]

10. In case of consumer's equilibrium with two commodities when the price of commodity y rises:
(a) Consumer starts to buy less units of commodity X
(b) Consumer starts to buy more units of commodity Y
(c) Consumer does not make any change in the purchase of X and Y
(d) Consumer starts to buy less units of commodity Y [1]

11. Explain the central problem of 'how to produce'. [3]

OR
Explain the central problem of 'what to produce'. [3]

12. Suppose a consumer's income is Rs. 20. Price of Good X is Rs. 4 per unit and the price of Good
Y is Rs. 2 per unit. State the bundles which the consumer can purchase if he spends his entire
income. On this basis, also draw the budget line. [3]

2
13. A consumer consumes commodity X. The price of commodity X is Rs. 4. The Marginal Utility
of Money is 2 utils. Given the following Marginal Utility Schedule, find out the position where
the consumer will be at equilibrium. [4]

Units of Marginal
Good X Utility of Good
X

1 20

2 18

3 16

4 8

14. Calculate marginal opportunity cost from the following table and plot the production
possibility curve: [4]

Production Shirts Pens

possibilities

A 0 20

B 1 18

C 2 14

D 3 8

E 4 0

15. (a) Diagrammatically, show that higher indifference curve offers higher level of satisfaction.
[2]
(b) Diagrammatically, show that two indifference curves can never intersect each other. [2]
OR
Explain the relationship between Total Utility and Marginal Utility, using schedule and
diagram. [4]

16. Define an indifference curve. Use a schedule and diagram to show an IC. Explain the reason
behind downward sloping and convex to the origin Indifference Curve. [6]
OR
A consumer consumes two goods X and Y. Given below is a schedule. Find out the conditions
of consumer's equilibrium under the Law of Equimarginal Utility. Also, explain the changes
that will take place when the consumer is not in equilibrium.
Given: Price of Good X = Rs. 3
Price of Good Y = Rs. 4
Marginal Utility of Money= 9
Income = Rs. 20
3
 Units MU of Good X MU of Good Y

1 36 40

2 33 36

3 30 32

4 27 28

5 24 24

6 21 20

[6]

17. What are the conditions for consumer's equilibrium under ordinal approach? Show consumer's
equilibrium with the help of indifference curve analysis. [6]

STATISTICS (40 Marks)

18. In the plural sense, which of the following is not a characteristic of Statistics?
(a) Aggregates of data
(b) Only expressed in words
(c) Affected by multiplicity of causes
(d) Collected in a systematic manner [1]

19. Which of the following is a merit of a good questionnaire?

(a) Difficulty
(b) Less number of questions
(c) Not in proper order
(d) Invalid questions [1]

20. From the given data, calculate the number of workers earning more than Rs. 160

Wages 140-150 150-160 160-170 170-180 180-190 190-200

No. of 5 10 20 9 6 2
workers

(a) 47
(b) 17
(c) 37
(d) None of these [1]

4
21. A series in which every class interval excludes items corresponding to its upper limit is called:
(a) Exclusive series
(b) Inclusive series
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these [1]

22. False base line is used when there is a big difference between the smallest value and _______.
(highest value/ zero) [1]

23. Histogram and Ogive can be obtained on the graph when the series is:
(a) Individual series
(b) Discrete series
(c) Continuous series
(d) None of the above [1]

24. The price rise of a particular commodity over a period of time can be better presented on a:
(a) Bar diagram
(b) Histogram
(c) Time series graph
(d) Frequency polygon [1]
OR
A curve obtained by joining midpoints of adjacent rectangles of the histogram by straight lines
is called:
(a) Frequency curve
(b) Frequency polygon
(c) Ogive
(d) None [1]

25. The arithmetic mean of the observations 9, 8, 27, 36 and 45 is:

(a) 18
(b) 25
(c) 36
(d) None [1]

26. The mean value of the marks obtained by 20 students in a class is 25 marks. If 10 marks added
to every student, then new mean is:
(a) 25
(b) 35
(c) 40
(d) None [1]

27. Sum of deviations of different values from arithmetic mean is always equal to:
(a) Zero
(b) One
(c) Less than one
(d) More than one [1]
5
28. What is systematic or quasi-random sampling? Explain with suitable example. [3]
OR
Name any two methods of collecting primary data. Discuss two merits and two demerits of
any one of them. [3]

29. Convert the following more than distribution into a less than distribution. [3]

Marks No. of students

More than 0 55

More than 5 51

More than 10 43

More than 15 28

More than 20 16

More than 25 6

More than 30 0
30. Prepare histogram and frequency polygon on a graph paper from the following data: [4]

Marks 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60

No. of 5 8 15 11 6 4
students

OR
Represent the following data related to exports and imports of India (hypothetical figures)
graphically: [4]

Year 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018

Exports (in 300 350 400 380 450 280 250

Rs.Crore)

Imports (in 420 460 600 480 550 450 400

Rs. Crore)

31. Calculate Arithmetic Mean, using Step-deviation method: [4]

Marks 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50

No. of students 24 40 36 20

6
32. Graph the following data in the form of less than ogive and more than ogive: [4]

Marks 0-5 5-10 10-15 15-20 20-25 25-30 30-35 35-40

No. of 4 6 10 10 25 22 18 5
students

33. Present the following information in a suitable tabular form:

(i) In 2016, out of 3000 union members, 2500 were females. The number of non-union workers
was 700, of which, 250 were men.
(ii) In 2017, out of 2000 workers, 1550 were members of trade union. The number of women
workers was 250, out of which 200 did not belong to any trade union.
(iii) In 2018, the number of union members was 1,725 of which 1600 were men. The number of
non-union workers was 380, among which 155 were women. [6]

34. (a) On the basis of the given data, prove that "The sum of the squares of the deviations from
arithmetic mean is the least". [3]

X 1 2 3 4 5

(b) The mean salary paid to 1000 workers of a factory was found to be Rs. 180.4. Later on it was
discovered that the wages of two workers were wrongly taken as 297 and 165 instead of 197
and 185. Find the correct mean. [3]

OR
(a) Find the missing frequency, if the mean is 28. [3]

C.I. 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60

Frequency 12 ? 27 20 17 6

(b) Calculate Combined Mean: [3]

Section Mean No. of

Marks students

A 75 50

B 60 60

C 55 50

7
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL SAIL TOWNSHIP RANCHI
Half-yearly Examination
Class XI
(Session 2022-23)
English Core
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
• This paper is divided into three sections A, B and C. All the sections are compulsory.
• Separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary. Read the
instructions very carefully and follow them faithfully.
• Do not exceed the prescribed word-limit while answering the questions.

Section – A (Reading) [26]

I. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow. [1x10=10]
(1) Like Celine Dion’s Academy Award-winning Titanic theme song, ‘My Heart Will Go On’, the mystery around
what led to the sinking of the superliner on 14 April, 1912, it seems, will continue forever. So even one hundred
years after the incident happened, we have yet another theory bobbing to the surface. To recount the old official
tale, RMS Titanic was on its way from Southampton to New York when it struck an iceberg just off the coast
of Newfoundland. The massive blow hit the 100-metre long starboard section of the hull, creating a huge fissure
in its hull. Seawater rushed inside its six supposedly watertight compartments. Soon all the cabins were flooded
and within the next three hours, the ship went down. More than 1,500 people lost their lives in disaster.
According to some hypotheses, Titanic was doomed from the start by the design so many lauded as state of the
art.
(2) But not many bought this theory and a legion of stories about the legend began to come out. The latest has been
floated by science writer Richard Corfield who says that the rivets that held the ship’s hull together were not
according to their specifications in composition or quality and gave way when the ship hit the iceberg. A quick
web search, however, reveals that the fascinating thing called the human mind is capable of much more; while
one pinned the accident down to a fire inside the ship’s coal bunkers, another one talked about the curse of the
Pharaohs because a traveler had with him a sarcophagus containing the mummy of an ancient Egyptian priestess.
Other than these glamourous theories, there are the ordinary ones: the helmsman making a steering blunder and
the ship moving too fast to win the Blue Riband, a prestigious prize awarded to a ship for making the fastest
North Atlantic crossing.
(3) So, what makes the Titanic story tick? From the very beginning, its story was tailor-made to be fascinating copy.
Investigating it made good business too: from books to research grants to underwater expeditions, not to mention
a mega budget movie. In other words, the Titanic story has been done to death. May be the hundredth year is a
good time to leave the ship in its watery grave once and for all.

Attempt the questions given below by selecting the most appropriate option.
(i) According to Richard Corfield, the cause of sinking of the Titanic was…….
(a) The cursed mummy being carried in the ship.
(b) The helmsman moving the ship too fast
(c) The poor quality of the rivets
(d) A fire inside the ships coal bunkers.
(ii) The prize for the fastest ship to cross the North Atlantic was the …………..
(a) Sacrophagus Prize
(b) Blue Riband
(c) North Atlantic Prize

1|Page
 (d) None of these
(iii) Investigation to the Titanic story led to good business in …………..
(a) Ship construction
(b) Underwater fishing
(c) Tailor-made stories
(d) Publishing books
(iv) The word………………in paragraph 2 means ‘large number’.
(a) Legion
(b) Together
(c) Numerous
(d) Fastest

Attempt the questions given below by answering them as briefly as possible .

(v) How can Celine Dion’s Academy Award-winning theme song be compared with the mystery around
what led to the sinking of the Titanic?
(vi) What blunder did the helmsman make and why?
(vii) Who were the people who profited from the Titanic disaster?
(viii) When did the Titanic sink?
(ix) Why Titanic was doomed from the start?
(x) How many people lost their lives in the disaster?

II. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow. [1x8=8]
(1) Keep your watch accurate. For some people moving up the time on their watch will help them get up
earlier. For others, they will remember that the time on the watch is wrong and will disregard it
altogether. It may be helpful to set your watch just two minutes ahead instead of five or ten.
(2) Keep a clock, phone, computer or anything that displays time in each room of your house. One of the
easiest ways to run late is simply by not realising that the time is passing as quickly as it is.
(3) Set all your clocks and watches to the same time. Don't be too optimistic. Things usually take longer
than what you would expect, even without major delays. If you have a dinner appointment at 7:30
p.m., don't think you can work till 7:00 p.m., then take a bath, dress and reach on time. Realistically,
calculate the time you will take at each step and then add 10 minutes more to allow for unexpected
delays, or you cannot get to your job done in time.
(4) Wake up when you are supposed to wake up. Don't hit the snooze button, keep on lying in bed, and
watch TV at the very start of your day. Maybe you can try even setting your alarm-clock ten minutes
earlier than you need. If you have difficulty with this, move your alarm clock to somewhere away from
your bed; that way, you will have to get up to turn it off. Commit yourself to being 15 minutes early
for everything. If you have to reach your place of work at 8:00 am, don't even tell yourself this. Just
tell yourself (and everyone else who listens - but don't annoy them or make them think that they are
late or early!) "I have to be at work at 7:45." If you do this, you will be on time even with little
unforeseen delays. You will be on time even with a traffic jam.

2|Page
 Attempt the questions given below by selecting the most appropriate option.
(i) It is good to commit yourself __________________ for everything
(a) To be late
(b) To delay
(c) To being 15 minutes early
(d) To search to the last moment
(ii) The writer suggests to keep the watch ________________ .
(a) Ahead of time
(b) Accurate
(c) Inaccurate
(d) None of these
(iii) The given chart shows that students should get up ________________.
(a) Before 5 a.m.
(b) After 5 p.m.
(c) Between 5 a.m. to 6 a.m.
(d) At 7 a.m.
(iv) A student spends maximum time in ________________ during the day time.
(a) Taking meals
(b) Taking rest
(c) School
(d) Sleep

Attempt the questions given below by answering them as briefly as possible.

(v) What has been described as one of the easiest ways of running late by the author?
(vi) Which word from the second paragraph means ‘to become conscious of something’?
(vii) Mention one of the various ways suggested by the author to wake up on time.
(viii) How much liberty should we take for keeping our watch accurate?

III. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow. [5+3=8]
(1) The nine letter word “interview” can cause the most knowledgeable and strong person to perspire. That may be
one reason, political leaders and corporate giants normally do not agree for an interview. But the popular ones,
or those who want to make an impact, willingly give interviews. In modern times, whether you like interview
or not, your prospects depend on its success. So you must know what an interviewer expects from you.
(2) First an academic question. What is an interview? It is a discussion in which an interviewer faces a candidate
for a short while and asks questions to probe his knowledge and awareness on the subject. This is done to assess
the personality of the interviewee. It is a very formal means of interaction with one person facing a group of
persons, each of whom is a specialist in his or her field.
(3) Knowledge is an important component of success in an interview. It has two aspects: range and depth. The
former implies that you should know a lot beyond your own specialization and the latter means an awareness
of the various aspects of the topics under discussion. An in-depth knowledge is gained through reading and
listening. Listening is more important than reading. Be a keen listener, store major facts in your mind and use
them at the appropriate time.
(4) Next comes appearance, which means your dress for the interview. You must be elegantly attired for the
occasion. Wear a simple outfit that suits your physique and features. Women should wear sarees or any other
sober dress. Casuals like kurta-pyjama should not feature in your selection of dresses.
(5) Conducting yourself in an apt way is equally significant. The way you move yourself, sit on the chair, place
your hands and your brief-case and talk to the members reflect your behaviour. Walking sloppily, talking loudly
or inaudibly, getting irritated easily, and showing documents insistently are symptoms of bad behaviour. A
better way is to enter the room smartly, move forward with dignity, greet the board, sit when asked to, and thank
at the end before you leave.

3|Page
 (6) Expression is the most important aspect of the interview. It conveys your views and opinions. For good
expression, what you need is clarity of mind and speech. Show your balanced thinking to convey your views
clearly.
(7) Convey your views effectively. In an interview, you may be asked questions where you have to either agree or
disagree. Whatever your approach, convince the board that it is unbiased. The board may not agree with your
view. Even if you disagree, let not your face show it. Create an impact through your expressions. Give an
impression of being a leader. Show that you can cooperate and get cooperation that you can share views and get
people to accept your authority to reach decisions and implement them.
(8) Finally, never consider yourself to be a perfect man. Being a human being makes you susceptible to flaws.
However, try to conform to the highest standards and reach as close to perfection as possible.

(a) On the basis of your reading of the above passage, make notes on it, using headings and
subheadings. Use recognizable abbreviations (minimum four) and give an appropriate title. [5]
(b) Write a summary of the passage in about 80 words based on your notes.[3]

Section-B (Writing and Grammar)[23]

IV. Answer ANY SEVEN out of EIGHT questions [from (a) and (b)] given below. [1X7=7]
(a) Fill in the blanks with the correct form of the verb (mixed tenses) given in brackets.

I (i)………..(halt) on the road. As soon as I saw the elephant, I (ii) ……………. (know) with perfect certainty
that I ought not (iii) …………… (shoot) him. But at that moment I (iv) ……………. (glance) round at the
crowd that was following me and was eager for fun and meat. Now I was in a tricky situation which tried limits
of my patience.

(b) Read the words and phrases given below and rearrange to form meaningful sentences.

(i) providence/Vivekananda/in/of/believed/the/God
(ii) began to/the station/cards/the train/when/play/whistled off/we/from
(iii) fear/farmers/displacement/from/economic zones/special/large-scale
(iv) the/gives/freedom/sense/enjoy/of/it/me/I

V. CREATIVE WRITING SKILL [3+3+5+5=16]

(A) You are S.K. Bhagat of Shakti Nagar, Delhi. You are a Chartered Accountant and are
capable of handling accounts and managing company finances, having six years of
experience. Draft a Classified Advertisement for ‘The Times of India’ seeking a job (full
time/part time). [word-limit – 50] [1x3=3]
OR
You wish to open a show-room for ‘Adidas’ and are looking for a suitable place to purchase.
Draft a Classified Advertisement for it to be published in ‘The Tribune’, New Delhi, giving
all relevant details. [word-limit – 50]
(B) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment needs a poster for its ‘Prevention of Drug
Abuse’ campaign on the occasion of International Day Against Drug Abuse (26 th June every
year). Draft a poster to raise public awareness against this evil in not more than 50 words.
[1x3=3]
OR
In a recent survey, it was found that your city has the highest rate of pollution in the country.
Innumerable vehicles on the road and lack of green cover have made the air unfit to breathe.
4|Page
 On behalf of MVN Public School, draft a poster in about 50 words, creating awareness about
the need to keep your city clean and green. You are Rakshita/Rohit. [word-limit – 50]

(C) As the Head Boy/ Girl of your school, you have found some students reaching school late in
the morning, coming late to their classrooms after recess, and returning lazily to the theory
class after doing practicals in the laboratory. Write a speech in 120-150 words that you will
deliver on the importance of discipline and punctuality in life. [5]

(D) India has completed 75 years of independence and is emerging as a global power. Yet, youth
is getting increasingly concerned about standard of education, problem of corruption and
environmental issues in the country. Write a speech in not more than 120-150 words on your
vision of India in 2040 to be delivered in the morning assembly.
[5]

Section – C (Literature) [31]

VI. Read the extracts given below and answer ANY ONE out of TWO for each question.
(A) All three stood still to smile through their hair [1x3=3]
At the uncle with the camera. A sweet face,
My mother’s, that was before I was born.
And the sea, which appears to have changed less,
Washed their terribly transient feet.

(i) Who is the poet of these lines?

(a) Shirley Toulson
(b) Sirley Tolson
(c) Shirley Tolson
(d) None of the above
(ii) Which poetic-device is used in the phrase “transient feet”?
(iii) A deep and significant contrast has been drawn in the last two lines between the sea and the humans by
using the phrases …………………….. and …………………
OR
Then sleek as a lizard, and alert, and abrupt,
She enters the thickness, and a machine starts up
Of chitterings, And a tremor of wings, and trillings –
The whole tree trembles and thrills.

(i) ‘She’ in the second line is ……………………..

(ii) The whole tree trembles because of the lizard. (True/False)
(iii) Which of the following poetic devices has been used in the first line?
(a) Personification
(b) Metaphor
(c) Simile
(d) Transferred Epithet

5|Page
 (B) She hobbled about the house in spotless white with one hand resting on her waist to balance
her stoop and the other telling the beads of her rosary. Her silver locks were scattered
untidily over her pale, puckered face, and her lips constantly moved in inaudible prayer. Yes,
she was beautiful. She was like the winter landscape in the mountains, an expanse of pure
white serenity breathing peace and contentment. [1x3=3]

(i) Who is being described in the given extract and by whom?

(ii) Which word used in the extract is a synonym of ‘satisfaction’?
(iii) What does the author mean by ‘an expanse of pure white serenity breathing peace and contentment’?

OR
In July 1976, my wife Mary, son Jonathan, 6, daughter Suzanne, 7, and I set sail from
Plymouth, England, to duplicate the round-the-world voyage made 200 years earlier by
Captain James Cook. For the longest time, Mary and I — a 37-year-old businessman —
had dreamt of sailing in the wake of the famous explorer, and for the past 16 years we
had spent all our leisure time honing our seafaring skills in British waters.
(i) Whose ‘round the world voyage’ was duplicated by the narrator?
(a) Gordon Cook
(b) Jonathan Cook
(c) James Cook
(d) Alan East
(ii) ‘The narrator and his wife Mary were passionate about round-the world voyage.’ How is that evident?
(iii) Explain the expression ‘honing our seafaring skills’.
(C) Every family has a crazy streak in it somewhere, and my cousin Mourad was considered the
natural descendant of the crazy streak in our tribe. Before him was our uncle Khosrove, an
enormous man with a powerful head of black hair and the largest moustache in the San
Joaquin Valley, a man so furious in temper, so irritable, so impatient that he stopped anyone
from talking by roaring, It is no harm; pay no attention to it. [1X4=4]

(i) Name the two members of the Garoghalanian tribe who were considered the crazy streaks.
(ii) ‘It is no harm; pay no attention to it.’ - was Mourad’s pet dialogue. True/False
(iii) What superlative feature did uncle Khosrove have?
(iv) Which from the following is an antonym of ‘descendent’.
(a) primogenitor
(b) offspring
(c) successor
(d) crazy
OR
My fingers grew warm from rubbing. I followed the lines of the pattern. Somewhere on the edge there
should be a burn mark that had never been repaired.
'My mother'll be back soon,' said the girl. ' I've already made tea for her. Will you have a cup?'
'Thank you.'
I looked up. The girl put cups ready on the tea-table. She had a broad back. Just like her mother. She
poured tea from a white pot. All it had was a gold border on the lid, I remembered. She opened a box
and took some spoons out.
(i) Who is being referred to as ‘mother’ in the lines?
(ii) What did the narrator remember about the table-cloth that once belonged to her mother?

6|Page
 (iii) What character trait of the ‘the girl’ is being reflected in the lines?
(iv) For whom ‘my’ has been used in the line, ‘My fingers grew warm from rubbing'?
(a) Mrs. Dorling
(b) Mrs. S
(c) Ms. Marga Minco
(d) Mrs. Dorling’s daughter

VII. Attempt ANY TWO out of FOUR questions given below in not more than 40-50 words.
[3x2=6
A. “I was sure my grandmother would be upset.” What was Khushwant Singh sure about? Was he right?
OR
“I had no time to worry about bumped heads”, says the narrator. What problem do you think deserved
his immediate attention? [We’re not Afraid to Die if We can All be Together]

B. In “A Photograph”, what does the poetess mean when she says “Both wry with the laboured ease of
loss”?
OR
Why is the image of the engine evoked by Ted Hughes?
VIII. Attempt ANY ONE out of TWO questions given below in not more than 40-50 words.
[3x1=3]
(i) “A man could be the father of his son’s flesh, but that did not mean that he was the father of his spirit.”
What does William Saroyan mean by this assertion?
(ii) Under what circumstances did Mrs. S. allow their valuable possessions to be carried away by Mrs.
Dorling?
IX. Attempt ANY ONE out of TWO questions given below in not more than 120-150 words.
[6x1=6]
(i) Animals recognize and value a relationship established with human beings. Explain this, keeping in
mind the relationship established by Khushwant Singh’s grandmother with animals.
(ii) In words of the captain of Wavewalker, the crew was ‘cheerful and optimistic under direst stress,’ and
was able to bring the ship out of crisis. Elaborate how the optimism of crew-members helped them to
be through the disastrous storm.
X. Attempt ANY ONE out of TWO questions given below in not more than 120-150 words.
[6x1=6]
(i) How does the story “The Summer of the Beautiful White Horse” convey the message of honesty and
integrity. How do the characters maintain it irrespective of their desire to keep the horse with
themselves?
(ii) Betrayal of trust is an evil which may afflict people and leave them traumatized forever. Discuss this
statement in the context of the chapter ‘The Address’.

7|Page
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2022-23)

Class - XI Subject – Fine Art Graphics/Painting

Time – 2 Hours Maximum Marks- 30

Section: First (1x6=6)

General Instructions: Answer to be written for each question in a word or sentence.

1. What is the differences between painting and graphics?

2. ____________ is added with hematite to make it permanent in Rock art.

(a) Cow dung
(b) Fat
(c) Gum Arabic
(d) Water

3. Harappa is situated on the bank of which river?

(a) Ravi
(b) Sutlej
(c) Ganga
(d) Yamuna

4. Lion Capital was adopted as __________ of the Indian Government on 26 Jan.1950.

5. ‘Chauri Bearer’ sculpture was excavated in _______ year.

6. Which of the following site of the Indus Valley Civilization is not located in India?
(a) Harappa
(b) Lothal
(c) Banawali
(d) Dholavira

Section: Second (2x3=6)

General Instructions: Answers to be written for each are about 30 words. (Any three)

1. What is the significance of Bhimbetka Rock art?

2. Write about the Cave paintings of the Paleolithic and Neolithic periods.
3. Write about the discovery of Indus Valley Civilization.

1
Section: Third (3x2=6)
General Instructions: Answer to be written for each question in about 100 words. (Any two)

1. Describe the characteristic features of the ‘Chauri bearer’ , a famous sculpture of the Maurya
dynasty.
2. What is a seal? What were the purposes of seals? Write short notes on seals found at Indus
Valley Civilization.
3. Write a note on any Rock paintings of Bhimbetka given in your syllabus.

Section: Forth (6x1=6)

General Instructions: Answer to be written in about 200 words. (Any one)

1. Why the sculpture ‘Chaurai Bearer’ is important in the history of Indian Art. Explain.
2. Describe the method, material, subject, purpose of Prehistoric Cave Paintings.

Section: Fifth (6x1=6)

General Instructions: Essay to be written for in not more than 350 words (Any one)

1. How can you say that the Harappan art was highly developed? Write about the sculptures
found at Indus Valley Civilization.
2. Which were the four events in the life of the Buddha which have been depicted in
‘Lion Capital’. Describe the sculpture ‘Lion Capital’ in detail.

2
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2022-23)

Class - XI Subject – General Studies

Time – 1 Hour Maximum Marks- 50

PART A

I.SELECT THE BEST OPTION (1X10=10)

1. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. On February 18th, 2022, India and the United Arab Emirates signed the Comprehensive
Economic Partnership Agreement or CEPA.
II. India and Australia have signed a Free Trade Agreement in goods and services on April 2,
2022.
III. These are the first free trade agreements finalised by the Narendra Modi-led government
since it came to power in 2014.

(A) Only I

(B) Only I and III

(C) Only III

(D) All I, II and III

2. Which of the following countries faced severe economic crisis during March-April 2022?

(A) Argentina

(B) Sri Lanka

(C) Pakistan

(D) South Korea

3. Which of the following pairs is /are matched correctly?

I. Dudhgarh Dam-Haryana
II. Phina Singh Multipurpose Project- Himachal Pradesh.
III. Sita Rama Lift Irrigation Project-Telangana.
IV. Khaira Bandhan Irrigation Project-Odisha

1
Correct code is-

(A) Only I, II and III

(B) Only II, III and IV

(C) Only I, III and IV

(D) All I, II, III and IV

4. Consider the following facts about international trade of wheat-

I. India exported record 75 lakh tonnes wheat in the FY 2021-22.

II. The Russia-Ukraine conflict in 2022 has disrupted supplies of wheat in many countries.
III. India has emerged as the best option for many developing countries to import wheat in view
of its competitive prices.
IV. Indian wheat prices are quoted at around $ 350 a tonne free-on-board (f.o.b), as compared to
the US ($ 410 per tonne) and Argentina ($ 396 a tonne) f.o.b.

Correct code is

(A) Only I and II

(B) Only III and IV

(C) Only I, II and III

(D) All I, II, III and IV

5. Consider the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct code given below

Assertion (A): Shooting, archery and wrestling were dropped from the Commonwealth Games
programme 2026.

Reason (R): It's the prerogative of the host nation to choose disciplines among the 22-strong list of
core sports

(A) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)

(B) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are correct and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
Assertion (A)

(C) Assertion (A) is correct and Reason (R) is incorrect

(D) Assertion (A) is incorrect and Reason (R) is correct

6. Which of the following shows the correct arrangement of the continents in the descending order
of their areas?

2
(A) Asia, Africa, North America, Europe

(B) Africa, Asia, Europe, North America

(C) North America, Africa, Asia,Europe

(D) North America, Asia, Africa,Europe

7. On the surface of the sun, which of the gases is found abundantly besides hydrogen?

(A) Helium

(B) Argon

(C) Neon

(D) Oxygen

8. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through

(A) Myanmar

(B) Nepal

(C) Bangladesh

(D) China

9.Dornier-228s-First Made –in –India Commercial Flight on April 12 took off on its maiden
commercial flight from eastern Assam’s Dibrugarh to Arunachal Pradesh’s Pasighat was
manufactured by

(A)Hindustan Aeronautics Limited

(B)Embraer

(C) Aeronautic Defense and Space Company

(D)Siemens Aircraft Manufacturer

10. PM Narendra Modi recently announced the launch of a special category of …………visa to
promote medical tourism in India

(A) Ayush

(B)Transit

(C) H-1B

(D)Shanghai

3
II. Answer the following questions in 120-130 words (Any 3) (10X3=30)

1. As paucity of jobs is there in our country, advocacy for innovative startups should be
encouraged among young technocrats. Support the concept.

2.”When the Covid pandemic subsides the gap between high and low achieving students will
become larger.”Do you agree with this statement of a famous Psychiatrist, Aaron
Beck.Comment.

3. Central University Entrance Test(CUET),for admission to different programmes ,aims to

provide a single window opportunity to the students to seek admission in prestigious colleges
and university, indirectly filtering the importance of board examination. What is your view on
this new system of admission procedure.

4. What impact does social networking and its sites have on modern society ,especially students.
Give some suggestive measures as a responsible student.

III. Answer the following question in 120-130 words. (1X10=10)

1. Now a days students lean heavily on Theoretical Learning giving backseat to, ’Working on
hands and Learning by Doing’. Is this method followed by students a correct one . Justify
your answer.

4
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2022-23)

Class - XI Subject – Geography

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks-70

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS-
i. Question paper is divided into 4 Sections – A, B, C and D
ii. In Section A, question numbers 1 to15 are Objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.
Attempt any 14 questions.
iii. In Section B, Question numbers 16 and 17 are Source Based questions carrying 3 marks each.
Answer any three questions out of 4. Each of these sub-questions carries 1 mark.
iv. In Section C, Question numbers 18 to 22 are short answer questions carrying 3 marks each.
Answers to these questions should not exceed 60-80 words.
v. In Section C, Question numbers 23 to 27 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
Answers to these questions should not exceed 120-150 words.
vi. In Section D, Question numbers 28 and 29 are related to location and labelling and Identification
of geographical features on maps respectively, carrying 5 marks each.
vii. Outline map of India and World provided to you must be attached with your answer book.

SECTION A (OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS)

ATTEMPT ANY 14 QUESTIONS

1. Who among the following said that ‘Geography is concerned with the description and
explanation of the areal differentiation of the earth’s surface’. [1]
(A) Herodotus
(B) Eratosthenes
(C) Richard Hartshorne
(D) Alexander Von Humboldt

2. Match the following and choose the correct option given below: [1]
Column A Column B

a. Geology 1. Cultural Geography

b. Hydrology 2. Geomorphology

c. Pedology 3. Oceanography

d. Anthropology 4. Soil Geography

1
 Options:
(A) a. 2, b. 4, c. 3, d. 1
(B) a. 3, b. 2, c. 4, d. 1
(C) a. 2, b. 3, c. 4, d. 1
(D) a. 4, b. 3, c. 2, d. 1

3. Fill in the blanks of the following table with suitable information: [½+½=1]

Period Life / Major Events

_____________ Homo Sapiens

(A)
_____________ First trace of life on land: Plants
(B)

4. Life on the earth appeared around how many years before the present? [1]
(A) 13.7 billion
(B) 4.6 billion
(C) 3.8 million
(D) 3.8 billion

5. What is the thickness of the earth’s crust in the Himalayan region? [1]
(A) 70 km
(B) 75 km
(C) 60 km
(D) 65 km

6. Which one of the following describes the lithosphere? [1]

(A) upper and lower mantle
(B) crust and upper mantle
(C) crust and core
(D) mantle and core

7. Tillite is the sedimentary rock formed out of [1]

(A) deposits of volcanoes
(B) deposits of gold
(C) deposits of glaciers
(D) deposits of sand

8. Who amongst the following was the first to consider the possibility of Europe, Africa and
America having been located side by side? [1]
(A) Alfred Wegener
(B) Abraham Ortelius
(C) Antonio Pellegrini
(D) Edmond Hess
9. The easternmost longitude of India is [1]
(A) 97° 25’ E
(B) 68° 7’ E
(C) 77° 6’ E
(D) 82° 32’ E
2
10. Fill in the blanks of the following table with suitable information: [½+½=1]

Largest countries of the World in Area (sq.km)

Country Position
(A) ------------------- Second
(B) ------------------- Fifth

11. The Eastern and the Western Ghats meet each other at the [1]
(A) Anaimalai Hills
(B) Nilgiri Hills
(C) Garo Hills
(D) Mahendragiri Hills

12. Arrange the hills from north to south: [1]

i. Mizo Hills
ii. Manipur Hills
iii. Patkai Bum
iv. Naga Hills

Choose the correct option -

(A) (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(B) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(C) (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
(D) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

13. Which one of the following is known as the ‘Dakshin Ganga’? [1]
(A) The Narmada
(B) The Tapi
(C) The Godavari
(D) The Krishna

14. Choose the correctly matched pair from the following: [1]

River Origin

(A) Brahmaputra -- Mapchachungo Glacier

(B) Ghaghara -- Chemyungdung Glacier
(C) Gandak -- Nepal Himalayas
(D) Narmada -- Mahabaleshwar

3
15. Match the following and choose the correct option given below: [1]

River Tributary

a. Indus 1. Penganga

b. Godavari 2. Shyok

c. Krishna 3. Kabini

d. Kaveri 4. Tungbhadra

Options:
(A) a. 2, b. 1, c. 4, d.3
(B) a. 3, b. 2, c. 4, d. 1
(C) a. 2, b. 3, c. 4, d. 1
(D) a. 2, b. 4, c. 1, d. 3

SECTION B (SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS)

16. Read the text given below and answer the following questions. [1x3=3]
All natural earthquakes take place in the lithosphere. An instrument called ‘seismograph’
records the waves reaching the surface. A curve of earthquake waves is recorded on the
seismograph. The curve shows three distinct sections each representing different types of
wave patterns. Earthquake waves are basically of two types — body waves and surface
waves. Body waves are generated due to the release of energy at the focus and move in all
directions travelling through the body of the earth. Hence, the name body waves. The body
waves interact with the surface rocks and generate new set of waves called surface waves.
These waves move along the surface. The velocity of waves changes as they travel through
materials with different densities. The denser the material, the higher is the velocity. Their
direction also changes as they reflect or refract when coming across materials with
different densities.

Answer any three questions

a. The shadow zone of P-waves appears as a band around the earth between __________ away
from the epicentre.
(A) 105° and 135°
(B) 115° and 145°
(C) 125° and 135°
(D) 105° and 145°

4
 b. Which one of the following earthquake waves is more destructive?
(A) P-waves
(B) S-waves
(C) Surface waves
(D) None of the above

c. The shadow zone of S–waves is not only larger in extent but it is also a little over ______
per cent of the earth surface.
(A) 25
(B) 30
(C) 40
(D) 35

d. Consider the following statements:

i. The P-waves travel through gaseous, liquid and solid materials.
ii. The S-waves can travel only through solid materials.
iii. S-waves vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) i, ii and iii
(B) i and ii
(C) i and iii
(D) ii and iii

17. Read the text given below and answer the following questions. [1x3=3]
The North and Northeastern Mountains consist of the Himalayas and the Northeastern hills.
The Himalayas consist of a series of parallel mountain ranges. Some of the important ranges
are the Greater Himalayan range, which includes the Great Himalayas andthe Shiwalik. The
general orientation of these ranges is from northwest to the southeast direction in the
northwestern part of India. Himalayas in the Darjiling and Sikkim regions lie in an eastwest
direction, while in Arunachal Pradesh they are from southwest to the northwest direction. In
Nagaland, Manipur and Mizoram, they are in the northsouth direction. The approximate
length of the Great Himalayan range, also known as the central axial range, is 2,500 km from
east to west, and their width varies between 160-400 km from north to south.

Answer any three questions

a. In which part of Himalayas do we find the Karewa formation?

(A) North-eastern Himalayas
(B) Eastern Himalayas
(C) Himachal-Uttarakhand Himalayas
(D) Kashmir Himalayas

b. Which part of the Himalayas lies approximately between the Ravi in the west and the
Kali in the east?
(A) Kashmir Himalayas
(B) Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas
(C) Darjiling and Sikkim Himalayas
(D) Arunachal Himalayas
5
 c. Match the following
List I List II

a. Mussoorie
1. Kashmir Himalayas
b. Kanchenjunga
2. Himachal and Uttarakhand Himalayas
c. Shifting Cultivation
3. Darjiling and Sikkim Himalayas
d. Banihal Pass
4. Arunachal Himalayas

Codes: 1 2 3 4
(A) d c b a
(B) b a d c
(C) c b d a
(D) d a b c

d. Which of the following is/are features of the Himalayas?

1. Old, weak and flexible geological structure
2. Interplay of exogenic and endogenic forces
3. Tectonic in origin

Choose the correct option -

(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

SECTION C (SHORT ANSWER & LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS)

18. How is Geography considered as an integrated discipline? [3]

OR
‘Geography as a discipline is related to space and takes note of spatial characteristics and
attributes’. Analyse the statement.
19. Explain the various stages involved in the development of planets. [3]
20. ‘The size of India has endowed her with great physical diversity’. Explain. [3]
21. How are Andaman and Nicobar Islands different from Lakshadweep Islands? [3]
OR
Distinguish between the Western coastal plains and the Eastern coastal plains.
22. How did the Peninsular Drainage System evolve? [3]
23. How is Geography linked with different natural and social sciences? Explain. [5]
24. Explain the evolution of atmosphere. [5]
OR

How did the oceans come into being?

6
25. Describe the various sources of information related to the interior of the earth. [5]
OR
Explain the major types of volcanoes.
26. What facts have been revealed by the mapping of the ocean floor and palaeomagnetic studies
of rocks from oceanic regions? [5]
27. Distinguish between the Himalayan rivers and Peninsular rivers. [5]

SECTION D (MAP BASED QUESTIONS)

28. On the given map of India locate and label any five of the following: [1x5=5]
(A) Tropic of cancer
(B) Capital of Nagaland
(C) Karakoram Range
(D) Shipki La Pass
(E) Khasi Hills
(F) Luni River
(G) Tapi River

29. With the help of the following key, identify the areas marked as A, B, C, D and E on the given
outline map of the World. Write the correct name of the place in the blank space given on the
map. [1x5=5]

(A) A Minor Plate

(B) A Trench
(C) A Minor Plate
(D) A Major Plate
(E) A Minor Plate

7
28.

8
29

9
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2022-23)

Class - XI Subject – History

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks- 80

General Instructions

1. Answer all the questions. Some questions have internal Choice. Marks are indicated against
each question. This Question paper contains six sections.
2. Section A: Question numbers 1 to 16 are objective type questions carrying 1Mark and should
be answered in one word or one sentence each (Attempt any 15)
3. Section B: Question number 17 to 19 are case based questions having multiple choice
questions. Each question has 4sub -parts. Attempt any three sub parts from each question.
4. Section C:Answer to questions carrying 3 Marks (question number 20-23) should not exceed
100 words each
5. Section D: Answer to questions carrying 8 marks (question number 24-26) should not exceed
350 words each.
6. Section E: Question numbers 27-29 are source based questions carrying 5marks each
7. Section F : Question number 30 is a Map question that includes the identification and location
of significant test items. Attach the map with the answer book.

Section A
[1x15=15]
1. Which was known as ‘The city' in mesopotamia?
2. Match the following
A Homo Erectus I Southern
Ape
B Homo Sapiens II The tool
maker
C Homo Habilis III The wise
and
thinking
man
D Australopithecus IV The
Upright
man

3. What does Rasul mean ?

4. What does Mesopotamia mean ?

1
5. Which of the following nomadic communities were in power in Mari ?
A. Akkadians
B. Amorites
C. Assyrians
D. Aramaeans
6. What does Ghengis Khan means?
7. Which of the following were the biggest urban centres that lined the shores of the
Mediterranean?
A. Carthage, Alexandria and anacdotal
B. Carthage anacdotal and antioch
C. Carthage, Alexandria and Antioch
D. All of the above
8. What does Spectacula mean?
9. Name the gold coin introduced by Constantine. Mention its measurement of gold ?
10. Who was the founder of Islam?
11. Arrange the following Khalifas in chronological order
A. Khalifa Ali
B. Khalifa Umar
C. Khalifa Abu bakr
D. Khalifa Uthman
12. Name the most prominent pilgrimage centre of the Arabian tribes in the seventh century.
13. Who was Gilgamish?How many tablets were used to write the Gilgamish epic ?
14. What was the original name of Ghengis Khan
15. Assertion (A ) : The monetary system of the late empire broke with the silver based
currencies of the first three centuries
Reason (R ): The Spanish silver mines were exhausted
Codes
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is not true
D. A is not true But R is true

16. Recognise the following Roman emperor

2
 Section B
17. Read the following excerpt carefully and answer any three questions.
On the Treatment of Slaves
Soon afterwards, the City Prefect,Lucius Pedanius Secundus, was murdered by one of his
slaves. After the murder, ancient custom required that every slave residing under the same
roof must be executed. But a crowd gathered, eager to save so many innocent lives; and
rioting began. The senate-house was besieged. Inside, there was feeling against excessive
severity, but the majority opposed any change (....) [The senators] favouring execution
prevailed. However, great crowds ready with stones and torches prevented the order from
being carried out. Nero rebuked the population by edict, and lined with troops the whole
route along which those condemned were taken for execution.'
Tacitus (55-117), historian of the early empire.
i. Choose the correct option.
Codes
Assertion (A) All the slaves under the same roof of the slave who killed the city prefect was
taken for execution
Reason( R ): A crowd tried to prevent it.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is not true
D. A is not true But R is true
ii. This is about the system of ______
A. Dynastic succession
B. Successive repression
C. Slavery
D. Both B and C
iii.Who wrote this excerpt?
A. Pliny
B. Tacitus
C. Thebes
D. Olympiodorus
iv. The incident happened under which Roman emperor?
A. Tiberius
B. Nero
C. Trajan
D. Augustus

18. Read the following excerpt carefully and answer any three questions.
The Warka Head
This woman’s head was sculptured in white marble at Uruk before 3000 BCE. The eyes and
eyebrows would probably have been made taken lapis lazuli (blue) and shell (white) and
bitumen (black) inlays, respectively. There is a groove along the top of the head, perhaps
for an ornament. This is a world famous piece of sculpture, admired for the delicate
modelling of the women’s mouth, chin and cheeks. And it was modelled in hard stone that
would have been imported from a distance.

3
 i. Where did they get the Warka head ?
A. From Uruk
B. From the city
C. From Ur
D. Both A and B
ii. What was /were the most admired feature of the Warka head ?
A. Mouth
B. Chin
C. Cheeks
D. All of the above
iii.What was used for eyes and eyebrows ?
A. Lapis Lazuli
B. Shell
C. Bitumen
D. All of the above
iv. How old must have been the Warka head
A. Around 3000 years old
B. Around 5000 years old
C. 3000 years
D. None of the above
19. Read the following excerpt carefully and answer any three questions

Islamic Calendar
The Hijri era was established during the caliphate of Umar, with the first year falling in 622
CE. A date in the Hijri calendar is followed by the letters AH.
The Hijri year is a lunar year of 354 days, 12 months (Muharram to Dhul Hijja) of 29 or 30
days. Each day begins at sunset and each month with the sighting of the crescent moon.
The Hijri year is about 11 days shorter than the solar year. Therefore, none of the Islamic
religious festivals, including the Ramazan fast, Id and hajj, corresponds in any way to
seasons. There is no easy way to match the dates in the Hijri calendar with the dates in the
Gregorian calendar (established by Pope Gregory XIII in 1582 CE). One can calculate the
rough equivalents between the Islamic (H) and Gregorian Christian (C) years with the
following formulae:
(H x 32/33) + 622 = C

(C-622) x 33/32 = H
i. When was the Hijri year established?
A. 622 CE
B. 722 CE
C. 822CE
D. 1922 CE
ii. The Hijri year is a
A. Lunar year
B. Solar year
C. Universal year
D. Planet year

4
 iii.How many days are there in Hijri year
A. 354
B. 365
C. 365 ½
D. 353

iv. Who established the solar calendar mentioned in this

A. Pope Gregory
B. Christians
C. Muslims
D. Prophet Muhamad

Section C

20. How is the division of labour believed to be the main factor behind the growth of
urbanisation ?Why trade was important for the development of the River valley civilisation
of Mesopotamia [1.5+1.5=3]
21. Explain the courier system of Genghis Khan [3]
22. What was the religion of the people of Roman empire? Explain [3]
23. How were the fossils of Homo named? Explain with examples [3]

Section D

24. What in your opinion could be the uses of Writing in early civilizations ? [8]
25. Explain the social hierarchies of the the Roman Empire
OR
Explain Late antiquity in the Roman context [8]

26. Explain the major teachings of Islam [8]

Section E

27. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:

The Discovery of Australopithecus, Olduvai Gorge, 17 July, 1759

The Olduvai Gorge was first 'discovered' in the early twentieth century by a German
butterfly collector. However, Olduvai has come to be identified with Mary and Louis
Leakey, who worked here for over 40 years. It was Mary Leakey who directed
archaeological excavations at Olduvai and Laetoli and she made some of the most exciting
discoveries. This is what Louis Leakey wrote about one of their most remarkable
That morning I woke with a headache and a slight fever. Reluctantly, I agreed to spend the
day in camp. With one of us out of commission, it was even more vital for the other to
continue the work, for our precarious seven-week season was running out. So Mary
departed for the diggings with Sally and Toots [two of their dogs] in the Land Rover la
jeep-like vehicle), and I settled back to a restless day off.
5
 Some time later-perhaps I dozed off-I heard the Land-Rover coming up fast to camp. I had
a momentary vision of Mary stung by one of our hundreds of resident scorpions or bitten
by a snake that had slipped past the dogs.

The Land-Rover rattled to a stop, and I heard Mary's voice calling over and over: "I've got
him! I've got him! I've got him!" Still groggy from the headache, I couldn't make her out.
"Got what? Are you hurt?" I asked. "Him, the man! Our man," Mary said. "The one we've
been looking for 23 years. Come quick, I've found his teeth "

1. What is this source tells us about? [1]

2. What does Australopithecus mean? [2]
3. Who discovered the first fossils of Australopithecus? [2]
28. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
The Capture of Bukhara

Juwaini, a late-thirteenth-century Persian chronicler of the Mongol rulers of Iran, carried an

account of the capture of Bukhara in 1220. After the conquest of the city, Juwais reported,
Genghis Khan went to the festival ground where the rich residents of the city were and
addressed them: "O people know that you have committed great sins, and that the great
ones among you have committed these sins. If you ask me what proof I have for these
words, I say it is because I am the punishment of God. If you had not committed great sins,
God would not have sent a punishment like me upon you'... Now one man ha escaped from
Bukhara after its capture and had come to Khurasan. He was questioned about the fate of
the city and replied: They came, they [mined the walls], they burnt, they slew, they
plundered and they departed.'
Questions

(i) By whom is the above passage written? What does he describe in it [2]
(ii) What do you know about Genghis Khan? [1]
(iii) What did Genghis Khan say to the conquered people? [2]

29. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

In India, early stone seals were stamped. In Mesopotamia until the end of the first
millennium BCE, cylindrical stone seals, pierced down the centre, were fitted with a stick
and rolled over wet clay so that a continuous picture was created. They were carved by
very skilled craftsmen, and sometimes carry writing; the name of the owner, his god, his
official position, etc. A seal could be rolled on clay covering the string knot of a cloth
package or the mouth of a pot, keeping the contents safe. When rolled on a letter written on
a clay tablet, it became a mark of authenticity. So the seal was the mark of a city dweller’s
role in public life.
Questions

(i) Which type of material was used to make seals? [1]

(ii) What were the various types of seals? [2]
(iii) Who carved these seals? Write a few features of these seals (Mesopotamian seals) [2]

6
 Section F

30. Map question [1x5=5]

Mark in the given out line map of Europe the following places

1. Capital of Roman Empire

2. Altamira
3. Neander Valley
4. Heidel Berg
5. Gaul

7
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL Township, Ranchi
Half Yearly Examination 2021
Class: XI Subject: Informatics Practices (065)
Max Marks: 70 Time: 3 Hours

General Instructions:
• There are 2 Groups (A, B) and each group has 2 sections (I, II)
• Group-A: Section-I contains 20 marks, Objective Type, 20 questions are to be attempted.
• Group-A: Section-II contains total 16 marks questions of 1 or 2 marks each
• Group-B: Section-I contains total 10 marks questions of 2 marks each
• Group-B: Section-II contains total 24 marks questions of 3 marks each
• Always keep margin at the left side of your answer script & clearly write the Question Numbers
• Try to maintain the order of the questions in each group during answering.
• Keep spaces and mark ‘line-of-separation’ in between two answers.

Group – A: SECTION-I
[Attempt any 20 Question]
Q1. Answer the following questions (Objective type): [20X1=20]
1) RAM works until power is_________________.
2) When you assign a value to a variable then existing value gets_____________
(i) Replaced (ii) Updated (iii) Deleted (iv) Gets added
3) Rhombus symbol in flowchart works to _______________
(i) Make decision (ii) Control data flow (iii) None of i , ii (iv) Both i, ii
4) The: (colon) is put ___________ (i) Before if….else (ii) After while (iii) Before for (iv) None
5) The __________ operator gives TRUE output when both of the conditions are correct.
6) Indent sets_______________ (i) Block (ii) Space (iii) Data flow (iv) Statement
7) The only language which the computer understands is______________________:
(i) Assembly Language (ii) Binary Language (iii) BASIC (iv) C Language
8) Which of the following is correct in terms of range() function? _______________
(i) It begins from 1 (ii) 3 arguments are must (iii) Runs up to final-value minus 1 (iv) All
9) Algorithm depicts the _____________ representation of the programming logic.
10) print(x[ :-2]) gives the output_______ to ________ elements of a list x.
11) List is: (i) Mutable (ii) Heterogeneous (iii) Has +ve & -ve index (iv) All
12) Traversing/looping of String prints in: (i) Horizontal order (ii) Vertical order
(iii) Whole Text (iv) None
13) ________________ terminates the block and goes to next statement:
(i) Break (ii) Continue (iv) Both i & ii (v) None i & ii

[Pg-1/4]
14) Difference between while() and for() loop in terms of placement(s) of statement(s) is/are:
(i) initialization (ii) increment/decrement (iii) Both i & ii (iv) None i & ii
15) ________and _______ operators give Boolean output.
16) FAT keeps the records of _______________
(i) Data of the memory (ii) Files in disk (iii) Number of tracks (iv) Numbers of sectors
17) System software has two categories ____________________:
(i) Language Processor & Application Software (ii) Application Software & Operating System
(iii) Operating System & Language Processor (iv) None of those
18) The difference between = & == respectively are:
(i) Equality & Similarity (ii) Assignment & Equality (iii) Both i & ii (iv) None i & ii
19) The difference between / & // respectively are:
(i) Give decimal & integer quotient (ii) Give integer & decimal quotient
(iii) Give quotient & reminder (iv) All are wrong
20) In print() function %d prints:
(i) The value of the variable (ii) DataType of the value
(iii) Both i , ii (iv) None i , ii
21) In print() function end=” ” prints the output:
(i) Horizontally (ii) Vertically
(iii) Horizontally with one white space (iv) Vertically with one white space

Group – A: SECTION-II
[Attempt Questions 22 & 23]
[16 marks]
22) Answer the following questions on a Software-Development-Project based case studies, where you
are supposed to write notes of the followings for PPT presentations to train employees:
(i) In the project, you have been asked to write the Difference between Primary Memory and Secondary
memory with proper diagram. [1]
(ii) Your project manager assigned to write Disk Memory Management System with diagram. [1]
(iii) Now you have been assigned to write a note on: how do Memory Unit, Central Processing Unit and
Control Unit of a computer system work together. [1]
(iv) Your project manager asked you to explain to your junior: (i) How does Cache-Memory work with RAM
and CPU. (ii) Difference between Data & Information. [1]
(v) One of your juniors of your project requested you to help him to write on various types of software and
to explain the function of Language Processor. [1]
(vi) Present the basic safety measures to handle a computer safely. [1]

[Pg-2/4]
23) Answer the following questions on writing logic for a Software Development program:
i) Write an algorithm to calculate the Total and Average Marks of a class out of 5 subjects (to be entered
by the user) of Full marks 100 each. [1]
ii) Write an algorithm to Input two numbers (using 3rd variable) from the user and Swap & print. [1]
iii) Draw a flowchart to find the greater number of any two entered numbers. [1]
iv) Draw a flowchart to enter age and check whether he is eligible (age 18 or above) to caste vote. [1]
v) Draw a flowchart to find the sum of even and odd numbers separately within 50, but in the same single
program. [2]
vi) Draw a flowchart to find that an entered number is Prime or not. [2]
vii) Show the steps to find the final output (T/F) of the following statement, if x=10, y=20 & z=30. [2]
! (((x>=y) OR (y! =z)) AND (!(z==x) OR (y<z)))

Group – B: SECTION-I
[10 marks]
24) Write a Python program to enter age and display the Group according to the following list: [2]
Age range Group
1-20 Red
21-40 Blue
41-55 Green
56 & above Yellow
25) Write a Python program to find S= 1/2 + 2/3 + 3/4 + --------------- Nth term. [2]
26) Write a Python program to find the following output: [2]
*
**
***
27) Re-write a Python code to the following using while loop, and also write the output: [2]
n=5
f=1
for i in range( n ):
f=f*(i+1)
print(f)
28) Write a Python code to find S=1+4+27+256+……… Nth term [2]

Group – B: SECTION-II
[24 marks]
29) Write a Python code to create a String say: str= “Indo-Aryan Culture” and display as given: [1X3=3]
(i) Traverse the string i.e. show all the elements one by one.
(ii) Display “Culture” from the string.
(iii) What is the output of the command: print(str[0:4])

[Pg-3/4]
30) Write a Python code to create a list L=[10,20,30,40,50,60,70,80,90,100] and perform the followings:
[1X3=3]
(i) Display 20,30,40,50, from the list using +ve index.
(ii) Display last 5 elements from the list.
(iii) What is the output of: print (L [-5 : -1])
31) Write program to enter a value and check whether it is present in the following list:
L=[10,20,30,40,50,60,70,80,90,100] [3]
32) Write a Python program to find s = (1) + (1+2) + (1+2+3) + ………. Nth term. [3]
33) Write a Python program to enter a number and find reverse of the same. [3]
34) Write a Python program to find s=1! + 2! +3! + …… Nth term. [3]
35) Write a Python program to find s=1+1+2+3+5+8+------------ Nth term. [3]
36) Write a Python program to create the following output: [3]

*
***
*****

###

[Pg-4/4]
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2022-2023)

CLASS XI SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS

Time: 3 Hrs. M.M: 80

General Instructions:-
 This question paper contains two parts A and B.
 Each part is compulsory.
 Part A carries 24marks and Part B carries 56 marks
 Part-A has Objective Type Questions.
 Part -B has Descriptive Type Questions.
 Both Part A and Part B have choices.
Part – A:
 It consists of two sections- I and II.
 Section I comprises of 16 questions of very short answer type.
 Section II contains 2 case studies.
 Each case study comprises of 5 case-based MCQs. An examinee
is to attempt any 4 out of 5 MCQs.
 Internal choice is provided in 2 questions of section – I.
Part – B:
 It consists of three sections- III, IV and V.
 Section III comprises of 10 questions of 2 marks each.
 Section IV comprises of 7 questions of 3 marks each.
 Section V comprises of 3 questions of 5 marks each.
 Internal choice is provided in 2 questions of Section –III, 2
questions of Section- IV and 1 question of Section-V. You have
to attempt only one of the alternatives in all such questions.
PART-A (SECTION – I) (16 x 1 =16)
All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices attempt anyone.
1. Write the following set in the roster form. A = {x | x is a positive integer less than 10 and
2x – 1 is an odd number}.
2. If B′ ⊂ A′, show that A ⊂ B.
3. If X and Y are 2 sets such that n(X) = 17, n(Y) = 23 and n(X⋃ 𝑌) = 38, find n(X∩ 𝑌).
OR
Given U = [–5, 5] and A is (–3, 5], then find A′
𝒙𝟐 𝟐𝒙 𝟏
4. Find the domain of the function f(x) = 𝒙𝟐 𝟖𝒙 𝟏𝟐
5. Is the given relation a function? Give reasons for your answer if S = {(n, n2): n is a
positive integer}
6. Let f and g be real functions defined by f (x) = 2x + 1 and g(x) = 4x – 7. For which real
number x, f(x) = g(x)?

1/4
7. Write in degrees.
OR
Convert 40° 20′45’’ into radian measure.

8. Find the value of sin 75° cos 15° + cos 75° sin 15°
𝐭𝐚𝐧 𝟔𝟗𝟎 𝒕𝒂𝒏𝟔𝟔𝟎
9. Find the value of 𝟏 𝐭𝐚𝐧 𝟔𝟗𝟎 𝒕𝒂𝒏𝟔𝟔𝟎
10. Express the following as sum or difference: 2 sin 5θ sin 3θ
𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝒙 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝟑𝒙
11. Prove that 𝒔𝒊𝒏𝟐𝒙 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝟐 𝒙
= 2 sin x
12. Find the Range of the polynomial function f (x) = 3x2 – 4x + 9?
13. Give a rough sketch of the function 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 − [𝑥] .
14. Solve the inequality, 3x – 5 < x + 7, when x is a whole number
15. Solve the inequality 𝑥 + < 11 −
16. If | x – 1| > 5, then find the value of x.

PART – A (SECTION- II) (2 x 4 =8)

Case study-based questions are compulsory. Attempt any 4 sub-parts
of each question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.
17. Method to find the sets when Cartesian Product is given.
For finding these two sets, we write first element of each ordered pair in first set say
A and corresponding second element in second set B(say).
If there are p elements in set A and q elements in set B, then there will be pq elements
in A × 𝐵.
Based on the above topic answer the following questions.
I. If A × 𝐵 = {(a,1),(b,3),(a,3),(b,1),(a,2),(b,2)}. Then A & B are
a) {1,3,2}, {a, b}
b) {a, b}, {1,3}
c) {a, b}, {1,3,2}
d) None of these
II. If the set A has 3 elements and set B has 4 elements, then find the number of
elements of A × 𝐵.
III. A & B are two sets given in such a way that A × 𝐵 contains 6 elements. If
three elements of A × 𝐵 are (1,3), (2,5) & (3,3) then find A & B.
IV. Find the remaining elements of A × 𝐵 in the above question III.
V. The cartesian product P × 𝑃 has 16 elements among which are found (a,1) &
(b,2) then find P.
18. The school organized a cultural event for 100 students. In the event, 15 students
participated in dance, drama & singing. 25 students participated in dance & drama; 20
students participated in drama & singing; 30 students participated in dance & singing. 8
students participated in dance only; 5 students in drama only and 12 students in singing
only.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions.

2/4
 I. Find the number of students who participated in dance?
II. Find the number of students who participated in drama?
III. Find the number of students who participated in singing?
IV. Find the number of students who participated in dance & drama but not in
singing?
V. Find the number of students who did not participated in any events?

PART – B (SECTION -III) (10 x 2 = 20)

All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices attempt anyone

19. A and B are two sets such that: n (A – B) = 14 + x, n (B – A) = 3x and n (A ∩ B) = x, draw a

Venn diagram to illustrate the given information and if n(A) = n(B)
then find the value of x.
20. Two finite sets have m and n elements. The total number of subsets of the first set is 56
more than the total number of subsets of the second set.
Find the values of m and n.

OR
Let T = 𝑥: −5 = . Is T an empty set? Justify you answer

21. Find the domain and range for the following function f(x) = √
1−𝑥, 𝑥<0
22. The function f(x) is defined by f(x) = 1, 𝑥 = 0 . Draw the graph of f(x).
1 + 𝑥, 𝑥 > 0
23. A train is travelling on a curve of 700 m radius at 14 km/h, Through what angle will it
turn in one minute?

OR
A wheel makes 270 revolutions in one minute. Through how many radians does
it turn in one second?
24. Find the value of 2 𝑠𝑖𝑛 + 2 𝑐𝑜𝑠 − 2𝑡𝑎𝑛
25. Find the value of tan 720° – cos 270° – sin 150° cos 120°.
26. Express each of the following as a product: sin 320 + sin 540
27. If A = {x: x ∈ W, x < 2}, B = {x: x ∈ N, 1 < x < 5}, C = {3, 5}
find (i) A × (B ∩ C) (ii) A × (B 𝖴 C)
28. Solve | |
≤

PART-B (SECTION- IV) (7 x 3 =21 )

All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices attempt anyone.
29. Let U = {x ∈ N : x ≤ 8}, A = {x ∈ N : 5 < x2 < 50} and B = {x ∈ N : x is prime number less
than 10}. Draw a Venn diagram to show the relationship between the given sets. Hence
list the elements of the following sets (i) A′ (ii) B′ (iii) A – B (iv) A ∩ B′.

3/4
30. Let U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}, A = {1, 2, 3, 4}, B = {2, 4, 6, 8} and C = {3, 4, 5, 6}.
find (i) A′ (ii) (A ∩ C)′ (iii) (A′)′ (iv) (B – C)′
31. If sin x = , cos y = and x & y both lie in the second quadrant,
find the value of sin (x +y)
32. Prove that cot x cot 2x – cot 2x cot 3x – cot 3x cot x = 1
𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝑨 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝟑𝑨 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝟓𝑨 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝟕𝑨
33. Prove that = 𝒄𝒐𝒕 𝟐𝑨.
𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝑨 𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝟑𝑨 𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝟓𝑨 𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝟕𝑨
OR
𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝟖𝑨 𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝟓𝑨 𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝟏𝟐 𝑨 𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝟗𝑨
Prove that = 𝐭𝐚𝐧 𝟒 𝑨.
𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝟖𝑨 𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝟓𝑨 𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝟏𝟐𝑨 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝟗𝑨

34. Show that tan 3x tan 2x tan x = tan 3x – tan 2x – tan x

35. Draw the graph of f (x) = 1 − |𝑥 − 2|, x ∈ R. What are the domain and range of
f (x) = 1 − |𝑥 − 2|?
OR
Reduce the function 𝑓(𝑥) = |𝑥 − 2| + |2 + 𝑥|, −3 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 3 & draw the graph for the
given function.

PART-B (SECTION-V) (3 x 5 = 15)

All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices attempt anyone.

36. In a survey it was found that 21 persons liked product P1, 26 liked product P2
and 29 liked product P3. If 14 persons liked products P1 and P2; 12 persons liked
product P1 and P3; 14 persons liked product P2 and P3, and 8 liked all the
three products.

i. Find how many liked only one product?

ii. Find how many liked only 2 products?
iii. Find the number of persons who liked P1 & P2 but not P3.
37. Prove that sin 10 sin 30 sin 50 sin 70 =
38. A manufacturer has 600 litters of a 12% solution of acid. How many liters of a
30% acid solution must be added to it, so that acid content in the resulting
mixture will be more than 15% but less than 18%.
OR
Solve the following system of inequations:
5𝑥 3𝑥 39 2𝑥 − 1 𝑥 − 1 3𝑥 + 1
+ > & − < , 𝑥 𝜀 𝑅.
4 8 8 12 3 4

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

4/4
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2022-23)

Class - XI Subject – Hindustani Music Vocal

Time – 2 Hours Maximum Marks - 30

खंड - अ
िन निल खत म से क ह 15 (पं ह) के सह उ र द जए। सभी के अंक समान है । [1x15=15]

1. भारत म संगीत क मु य कतनी प ितयाँ चिलत है ?

i) 5
ii) 4
iii) 3
iv) 2

2. हं द ु तानी संगीत प ित म थाट क सं या कतनी है ?

i) 8
ii) 10
iii) 12
iv) 20

3. राग भीमपलासी कस थाट का है ?

i) भैरव
ii) काफ़
iii) क याण
iv) पूव

4. िु तयां कतने होते है ?

i) 10
ii) 20
iii) 22
iv) 30

5. नाद क कतनी वशेषताएं है ?

i) 2
ii) 3
iii) 4
iv) 5

1
6. सबसे धीमी लय को या कहते है ?
i) म य लय
ii) त
ु लय
iii) वलं बत लय
iv) अित त
ु लय

7. एक राग म कतने संवाद वर होते है ?

i) 1
ii) 2
iii) 3
iv) 4

8. जो विन कान को प सुनाई पड़े उसे या कहते है ?

i) विन
ii) वेग
iii) िु त
iv) आहट

9. संगीत म (X) ास के िच ह को या कहते है ?

i) ताली
ii) खाली
iii) दस
ू र ताली
iv) सम

10. कसने राग िमयां क म हार बनायी?

i) अमीर खुसरो
ii) भीमसेन जोशी
iii) तानसेन
iv) भातखंडे

11. आ य राग क सं या है -
i) 14
ii) 12
iii) 10
iv) 8

12. वलं बत , म य और त
ु कसके कार है ?
i) वर
ii) लय
iii) ताल
iv) मा ा

2
13. वकृ त वर कतने होते है ?
i) 5
ii) 7
iii) 10
iv) 12

14. राग भीमपलासी म कौन से वर कोमल लगते है ?

i) ग - ध
ii) ग - िन
iii) ग - रे
iv) ग - सा

15. जन वा म खचे हुए चमड़े पर हार करने से जो विन उ पन होती है वे या कहलाते है ?

i) अनब वा
ii) घन वा
iii) सु षर वा
iv) तत ् वा

16. िन निल खत म संगीत म खाली का िच ह या है ?

i) X
ii) 0
iii) 3
iv) 2

17. िन न म से ाकृ ितक (अचल) वर है -

i) िन
ii) म
iii) ग
iv) सा

18. राग भीमपलासी म कन वर क संगित बार बार दखाई जाती है ?

i) सा- प
ii) सा- म
iii) सा- ग
iv) सा- िन

19. िमयां तानसेन कसके दरबार म संगीत थे?

i) अकबर
ii) हुमायूं
iii) जयिसंह
iv) माधोिसंह

3
 खंड - ब
िन निल खत म से क ह 3 (तीन) के सह उ र द जए। सभी के अंक समान है । [5x3=15]

1. िन न को प रभा षत क जए

नाद, जाित

2. स क को प रभा षत करते हुए उसके कार को समझाइए।

3. दादरा ताल का प रचय व ठे का िल खए।

4. तानसेन जी का जीवन प रचय पर काश डािलए।

5. थाट से आप या समझते है ? इनके नाम िल खए।

4
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2022-23)

Class - XI Subject – Odissi Dance

Time – 2 Hours Maximum Marks- 30

General instructions:
 Please check that this question paper contains 6 questions.
 Please write down the serial Number of the question before attempting it.

1. Complete the following sentences.(Attempt any five question, each question carries one
mark) [1X5=5]

a) Sakuni arranged for a game of dice between the Pandavas and the Kauravas and invited
________ to play.
b) All the forms of Indian Classical dance owe faithfulness to __________ which is often
regarded as fifth Veda.
c) Indian dance has been contently influenced by several factors. The native Classical
dance patterns underwent change with the coming of the ________.
d) Indian Classical dance celebrated around the world for its lyricism, sensuality and
emphasis on _______.
e) Shiva as Natarja was first depicted in the __________ status.
f) Krishna was growing in Gokul as the younger son of _______.
g) __________ is the traditional Classical music of Odisha.

2. State whether the following are true or false: (Attempt any five question, each question
carries one mark) [1X5=5]

a) Cheer haran of Droupadi was attempted in the court of Hastinapur.

b) In the story of Dashavatar Balaram as the eight Avatar.
c) Demon Hiranyakaashyap brother of Hiranyaksha was granted a powerful boon from
Brahma that he could not be killed by Man or Animal.
d) Prashuram was the son of Jamadgni and Renuka.
e) The Mahari of Jagannathtemple were belonged to six groups.
f) The British were unable to distinguish the Devadasi from religious street dancers.
g) Kaliya chose Vridavan as his residence for safty.

1
3. Match the following pairs correctly: [0.5X10=5]
a) Natya------------------- Nrutyahram
b) Dancing girla---------- Ramnaka
c) Yakshagana------------ KVK
d) Kummi------------------ Orissa Theatre
e) Konark temple ---------- BandhaNritya
f) Gotopua------------------ Narasingha Deva
g) MayadharRaut ---------- Tamil Nadu
h) BabulalDoshi ------------ Karnatak
i) Island ----------------------- Mohenjodaro
j) 1990 - ---------------------- Veda

4. Write the definition of any two of the following. [2X2=4]

a) Kurma,
b) Balaram,
c) Varaha,
d) Kalki

5. State the difference between the following terms: [3X2=6]

a) KaliyaDaman .
b) concept of Makhanchor.

6. Attempt any one question: [5]

a) Briefly describe about Mahari dance.
b) Briefly describe about Gotipua dance.
c) Briefly describe history of the Odissi dance tradition and development of the style

2
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2022-23)

Class - XI Subject – Physical Education

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks- 70

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
a. The question paper contains 30 questions and all are compulsory
b. Question 1 to 12 carry 1 mark each
c. Question 13 to 16 carry 2 marks each and shall not exceed 40-60 words
d. Question 17-26 carry 3 marks each and shall not exceed 80-100 words
e. Question 27 to 30 carry 5 marks each and shall not exceed 150-200 words

1. When the modern Olympic Games was started? [1]

a. 1893
b. 1894
c. 1895
d. 1896

2. Ability to get overcome the resistance with high speed is known as _______________. [1]
a. Flexibility
b. Explosive strength
c. Maximum strength
d. Strength endurance

3. “Physical Education is the sum of those experiences which come to the individual through
movements”. This definition was given by______________________. [1]
a. C C Cowell
b. D Oberteuffer
c. C L Brownell
d. R J B Nash

4. “Measurement refers to the process of administrating a test to obtain quantitative data”.

This definition was given by________________________. [1]
a. H M Barrow
b. Jack Nelson
c. Megee
d. Barry L Johnson

1
5. In which year Boxing was included in Ancient Olympic Games? [1]
a. 688 BCE
b. 724 BCE
c. 720 BCE
d. 648 BCE

6. Khelo India programme was launched in the session of _____________. [1]

a. 2014-15
b. 2015-16
c. 2016-17
d. 2017-18
OR
What is the full form of CPEd _____________________.
a. Central course of Physical Education
b. Certificate course in Physical Education
c. Centre course of physical education
d. All of the above

7. Identify the odd one: [1]

a. Rugby
b. Jallikattu
c. Lattoo
d. Chor-Sipahi

8. Fit-Indian movement was launched on the occasion of the birth anniversary of

_____________________. [1]
a. Bhagat Singh ji
b. Mahatma Gandhi ji
c. Major Dhyanchand ji
d. None of the above

9. Identify the Cardiovascular Endurance test? [1]

a. 50 mt. dash
b. Sit and Reach test
c. BMI Test
d. 600 mt. run/walk test

10. In which test the length of various bones are measured and tested? [1]
a. Cardiovascular test
b. Speed test
c. Agility test
d. Anthropometric test

2
 OR

Ability to change the direction as fast as possible is known as_______________.

a. Strength
b. Flexibility
c. Agility
d. Speed

11. Who declares the modern Olympic Games open in opening ceremony in the stadium?
[1]
a. Sports Minister
b. Prime Minister
c. Home Minister
d. Defense Minister

12. Static strength can be measured by _________________. [1]

a. Goniometer
b. Skinfold caliper
c. Stadiometer
d. Dynamometer
OR
Other name of Dynamic Strength is __________________.
a. Isotonic strength
b. Isometric strength
c. Maximum strength
d. None of the above

13. Define Endurance and its types? [2]

14. Write short note on Playing Surface of changing trends in Sports? [2]
OR
Write in brief on Technological advancements in changing trends in sports.
15. Write any four rules of ancient Olympic games? [2]
16. Enlist any four tests which is used to measure physical fitness of the individual? [2]
17. Elaborate the objectives of Physical Education? [3]
18. Write brief note on Achievement test and Motor ability test? [3]
19. Explain any three Olympic Values in detail? [3]
20. Explain any three careers in Communication Media? [3]
OR
Write any six objectives of Khelo-India programme?
21. Define Flexibility and its types in detail? [3]
22. Write brief note about the start of the Ancient Olympic Games? [3]
23. Briefly explain about the importance of health? [3]
OR
Discuss any six components of wellness?
3
24. Explain the benefits of Fit-India movement? [3]
25. Write short note on Questionnaire and Interview? [3]
26. Explain any three of the following:- [3]
a. Olympic Motto
b. Olympic Flag
c. Olympic Anthem
d. Modern Olympic Awards

27. Write brief note on Traditional sports and Regional sports and explain its importance in
daily life? [5]
28. Briefly explain about the teaching career in physical education? [5]
OR
Briefly explain any two of the following:
a. Sports Coaching
b. Sports marketing
c. As Players
d. As Officials
29. Explain the guidelines of advance preparation in test administration? [5]
30. Write brief note on IOC and its functions? [5]

4
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2022-23)

Class - XI Subject – Physics

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks-70

General Instructions: -

Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them.

1. There are 33 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. This question paper comprises five sections – A, B, C, D, and E.
3. Section A contains ten very short answer questions and four Assertion-Reasoning MCQ of
1 mark each.
4. Section B has two Case based questions of 4 marks each
5. Section C contains nine short answer questions of 2 marks each.
6. Section D contains five short answer questions of 3 marks each.
7. Section E contains three long answer questions of 5 marks each.
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, internal choice has been
provided. You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.

SECTION A

1. Can a quantity have units but still be dimensionless? Comment.

2. Pressure is defined as momentum per unit volume. Is it true?
OR
What is the dimension of time in power?
3. By the use of dimensions, show that energy per unit volume is equal to pressure.
4. Write down the number of significant figures in the following
(a) 4200kg (b) 0.02340
5. Two balls of different masses (one lighter and other heavier) are thrown vertically upward
with same initial speed. Which one will rise to the greater height?
OR
A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Draw its velocity-time graph.
6. Write an expression for distance covered in the nth second for uniformly accelerated motion.
7. A bullet fired vertically upwards falls at the same place after some time. What is the
displacement of the bullet?
8. Under what condition will the equality = . hold good?
9. A body is projected with speed at an angle to the horizontal to have maximum range. What
is the velocity at the highest point?
10. A ball is thrown upwards and returns to the ground describing parabolic path. Which of the
quantities remain constant throughout the motion.

1
 For the question 11,12, 13 and 14 two statements are given. One labelled Assertion (A) and
the other labelled Reason (R). select the correct answer to these question from the codes (a)
(b), (c) and (d) as given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.

11. Assertion (A): Force cannot be added to pressure

Reason (R) : Because their dimensions are different .

12. Assertion (A): An object can have constant speed but variable velocity.
Reason (R) : Speed is a scalar but velocity is a vector quantity.

13. Assertion (A): If dot product and cross product of and are zero, it implies that one of the
vector and must be null vector.
Reason (R) : A null vector is a vector of zero magnitude.
14. Assertion (A): In Javelin throw, the athlete throws the projectile at an angle slightly more than
45 .

Reason (R) : The maximum range does not depend upon angle of projection.

SECTION B

Q. No 15 and Q. No 16 are Case- Based Questions and are compulsory. Attempt any four sub-
parts from each question. Each subpart carries one mark.

15. Dimensional analysis is the study of the relation between physical quantities based on their
units and dimensions. The basic involved is that only dimensionally similar quantities can be
added or subtracted or compared.
I. Suppose that quantity y can be dimensionally represented in terms of M, L and T as
[y]= [ ] then M

a. May be represented in terms of L, T and y if a=0

b. May be represented in terms of L, T and y if a≠0
c. Can always be dimensionally represented in terms of L,T,and y
d. Can never be dimensionally represented in terms of L,T,and y
II. What are the dimensions of is the relation F=A√ + B ,
a. [ ]
b. [ ]
c. [ ]
d. [ ]

2
 III. Which of the following is a dimensionless quantity?
a. Strain
b. Stress
c. Specific heat
d. Quantity of heat
IV. If force (F), length (L) and time (T) be considered as fundamental units, then units of mass
will be.
a. [ ]
b. [ ]
c. [ ]
d. [ L ]
V. In the relation y=r sin (wt+k ), the dimensional formula for k or wt is same as
a.
b.
c.
d.

16. A body released near the surface of earth is accelerated downward under the influence of force
of gravity. In the absence of air resistance, all bodies fall with the same acceleration near the
surface of the earth. This motion of a body falling towards the earth for a small height (h<< R)
is called free fall. Free fall is an example of motion with constant acceleration.
I. When a ball is thrown vertically upwards, at the maximum height.
a. The velocity is zero and therefore there is no acceleration acting on the particle.
b. The acceleration is present and therefore velocity is not zero .
c. The acceleration depends on the velocity as a is = .
d. The acceleration is independent of the velocity.
II. Velocity of body on reaching the point, from which it was projected upwards, is
a. V=0
b. V=2
c. V=0.5
d. V=
III. Three different objects of mass , , and are allowed to fall form the same point O
along three different frictionless paths. The speeds of the three objects, on reaching the ground
will be in the ratio of
a. : :
b. :2 :3
c. : :
d. 1: 1: 1
IV. A body falling from rest describes distance , and in the first , second and third seconds
of its fall, then the ratio : : is
a. 1:1:1
b. 1:3:5
c. 1:2:3

3
 d. 1:4:9
V. The displacement of a particle moving is straight line is given by. = 2 +t+5, where is
expressed in meters and t in seconds . The acceleration at t=2 sec is
a. 4 /
b. 10 /
c. 8 /
d. 15 /

SECTION C

17. Calculate in the equation

= pressure difference x

OR

Using the principle of homogeneity of dimension , find which of the following is correct

(i) =
(ii) = where T is time period, G is universal gravitational constant, M is mass and r is
radius.
18. The body travels a distance with velocity and with velocity in the same direction.
Calculate the average velocity of the body.
19. When two bodies move uniformly towards each other, the distance between them decreases by
6m/sec. If both the bodies move in the same direction with their same speeds, the distance
between them increases by 4m/sec. What are the speeds of the two bodies.
OR
A ball thrown vertically upward with a speed of 19.6m/sec, from the top of a tower returns to
the earth in 6 seconds. Find the height of tower.
20. What is the angle made by vector =2 ̂+2 ̂ with - axis?
21. The sum and difference of two vectors are perpendicular to each other. Prove that the vectors
are equal in magnitude.
22. Two forces 10 N and 14 N are acting upon a body. what can be the maximum and minimum
resultant force on the body?
OR
Two vectors, both equal in magnitude, have their resultant equal in magnitude of the either.
Find the angle between the two vectors.
23. Points P, Q and R are in a vertical line such that PQ=QR. A ball at P is allowed to fall freely.
What is the ratio of the times of descent through PQ and QR?
24. A particle is projected at an angle from the horizontal with kinetic energy k. What is the
kinetic energy of the particle at the highest point?
25. Two projectiles A and B are projected with velocities √2 V and V respectively. They have the
same range. If A is thrown at angle of 15 with the horizontal, then what is the angle of
projection of B?

SECTION -D
26. State parallelogram law of vector addition. Find the magnitude and direction of resultant
vector when two vectors and inclined at an angle .
4
27. If the velocity of light C, the constant of gravitation G and Planck’s constant h be chosen as
fundamental units, find the dimensions of mass and length in term of C, and G and h.

OR

The frequency ( ) of an oscillating drop may depend upon radius (r) of the drop, density ( ) of
liquid and the surface tension (s) of the liquid. Deduce the formula of frequency ( )
dimensionally. Given [s]=[ ]

28. The rate of flow (V) of a liquid flowing through a pipe of radius r and pressure gradient ( ) is

given by poiseuilles equation V= . Check the dimensional correctness of this relation

29. Obtain dimensional formula for.
a. Power
b. Co-efficient of viscosity
c. Resistance
30. a. The velocity- time relation of an electron starting from rest is given by v=kt, where
k=2 . Calculate the distance traversed is 3sec.
b. A body starting from rest moves along a straight line with constant acceleration. Draw a
graph showing the variation of speed V with distance S.

OR

a. A body A is thrown up vertically from the ground with a velocity and another body B is
simultaneously dropped from a height H. Find the value of if they meet at height .
b. The graph of displacement versus time is shown in figure. Draw the velocity- time graph
for it .

SECTION E

31. A projectile is fired upward at an angle with the horizontal with velocity . Show that its
trajectory is a parabola. Obtain expression for (a) maximum height attained (b) time of flight
and (c) horizontal range.
OR
a. Determine the sine of the angle between the vectors 3 ̂+ ̂+2 and 2 ̂-2 ̂ +4
b. ̂ and ̂ are unit vectors along any y axes respectively. What is the component of a vector
= 2 ̂ +3 ̂ along the direction of ̂- ̂ ?

32. a. State four advantages of SI over other systems of units

b. Find the value of 100J on a system which has 20cm, 250gm and half minute as fundamental
units of length, mass and time .
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 OR

a. Write four limitations of dimensional analysis.

b. The number of particle crossing a unit area perpendicular to - axis in unit time is given
by.
n= -D where and are number of particles per unit volume for the values of
meant to be and . Find the dimensions of the diffusion constant D

33. a. Derive the following relations for uniformly accelerated motion

(i) s=ut+
(ii) − =2 as.
b. The speed – time graph of a particle moving along a fixed direction is shown in figure. Find
(i) distance travelled by the particle between 0 sec to 10 sec .
(ii) average speed between this interval.
(iii) the time when the speed was minimum.
(iv) the time when the speed was maximum

OR
a. The relation between time t and distance is t = ∝ + where ∝ and are constants.
Show that retardation is 2∝ , where V is the instantaneous velocity
b. Two straight lines drawn on the same velocity time graph make angle 30 and 60 with the
time axis respectively as shown in figure. Which line represent greater acceleration? What
is the ratio of the two accelerations?

6
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2022-23)

Class - XI Subject – Political Science

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks- 80

General Instructions:
All questions are compulsory.

Question 1-15 carry 1 mark each, answer to one mark question.

Questions 16-23 carry 2 marks each, answer to two marks question should exceed 40 words.

Questions 24-27 carry 4 marks each, answer to four marks question should not exceed 100 words.

Questions 28-30 carry 6 marks each , answer to six marks question should not exceed 200 words

Questions 31-33carry 5 marks each and are source based questions.

1. In which year did Nepal emerged as a democratic republic after abolishing the monarchy?
(a) 2015
(b) 1990
(c) 1959
(d) 2008
2. Ares described the constitution of which country as the “Castle of Cards”?
(a) Afghanistan
(b) Pakistan
(c) Iran
(d) Iraq
3. Who said “These principles of liberty, equality and fraternity are not to be treated as
separate items in a trinity. They form a union of trinity in the sense that to divorce one from
the other is to defeat the very purpose of democracy.”?
(a) Dr B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(c) PanditJawaharLal Nehru
(d) Jaiprakash Narayan
4. Number of members who signed the constitution after 24th January 1950?
(a) 284
(b) 15
(c) 12
(d) 00

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5. When did Dr Ambedkar said that “One likes to ask whether there can be anything new in a
constitution framed at this hour in the history of the world… The only new things, if there
can be any, in a constitution framed so late in the day are the variations made to remove the
faults and to accommodate it to the needs of the country.”?
(a) November 4, 1948
(b) November 9, 1948
(c) November 19, 1948
(d) November 25, 1948
6. In which year was the legal age for being an adult citizen in India reduced from 21 to 18?
(a) 1947
(b) 1969
(c) 1979
(d) 1989
7. Who said that “…But I have come to say a few words on behalf of the Adivasis of India….
In the past, thanks to the major political parties, thanks to the British Government and
thanks to every enlightened Indian citizen, we have been isolated and kept, as it were, in a
zoo. ...We are willing to mix with you, and it is for that reason, ..., that we have insisted on a
reservation of seats as far as the Legislatures are concerned.”?
(a) Dr Ambedkar
(b) Jaipal Singh
(c) Arhar Munda
(d) RimonGogoi
8. Who won the 2016 assembly elections in Tamil Naidu?
(a) Dmk
(b) Aiadmk
(c) Pmk
(d) Bjp
9. “The Republic” opens with a discussion between?
(a) Socrates and Cephalus
(b) Plato and Cephalus
(c) Socrates and Polemarchus
(d) Plato and Polemarchus
10. Who wrote the book “The Republic”?
(a) Plato
(b) Socrates
(c) Aristotle
(d) Polemarchus
11. Who among the following was the first to argue for freedom as a fundamental right of
humankind?
(a) Karl Marx
(b) Rousseau
(c) Mill
(d) Kant

2
12. Who amongst the following observed that politics envelops us like the coils of a snake and
there is no other way out but to wrestle with it.
(a) Dr Ambedkar
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Pandit Nehru
(d) Srimati Indira Gandhi
13. Hind swaraj was written by?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Dr Ambedkar
(c) Pandit Nehru
(d) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose.
14. Mention the 2 functions of south African government that is enshrined in their constitution
for pursuing collective good of the society beyond mere rules and regulations?
15. What is a constitution?
16. Elaborate article 324(1) of the Indian constitution.
17. What is meant by special majority?
18. What is the tenure or the CEC as per the Indian constitution? and how can he be removed
from his office before the expiry of his term?
19. What is meant by equality and how does its meanings change with change in context?
20. What gives rise to politics?
21. Whatis that for which Dr Ambedkar rigorously argued and how does it finds its expression
in the Indian constitution?
22. Mention the 4 main functions of a constitution and elaborate on each briefly.
23. How and by whom were the members of the constituent assembly elected? Mention the 4
major points of the cabinet mission plan roughly around which the constituent assembly
was composed.
24. Compare FPTP and PR systems of electionwith at least 4 major points and provide
examples of countries following each system.
25. Elaborate 4 major functions of the Election Commission of India.
26. Mention 4 substantial reasons why should one study political theory.
27. What are the major themes that political theory deals with? Give three arguments to prove
the relevance of political theory in the present world.
28. Mention the 5 main points of the objective resolution. Who gave it?
29. Mention 5 major factors to which the success of India’s election system can be attributed to.
Also mention at least 3 reforms suggested to be brought in the constitutional provisions for
electoral reforms?

3
30.

(a) Who is the man standing with a violin on extreme left?

(b) Name the man standing on the right of Maulana Azad.
(c) Name the man in the crawling position behind Nehru ji.
(d) Who is the second man on a chair just beside Nehru ji?
(e) What is Pandit Nehru trying to do and how far was he successful?

31. “Then if a man says that justice consists in the repayment of debts, and that good is the debt
which a man owes to his friends, and evil the debt which he owes to his enemies, —to say
this is not wise; for it is not true, if, as has been clearly shown, the injuring of another can be
in no case just.”
(a) Who is the narrator of the above lines?
(b) To whom are the above lines narrated?
(c) These lines are originally present in which book?
(d) Who is the author of the book from which these lines are taken?
(e) What is the idea of justice present in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

32. “Separate electorates have been a curse to India, have done incalculable harm to this
country… Separate electorates have barred our progress… We (Muslims) want to merge in
the nation. ...for God’s sake keep your hands off reservation for the Muslim community.”
(a) Who is the speaker of the above lines?
(b) What is meant by separate electorates?
(c) How are separate electorates different from reserved seats?
(d) How many seats are reserved for Muslims in the Indian Parliament?
(e) When and where were these lines said?

4
 DELHI PUBLIC SCHOOL
SAIL TOWNSHIP, RANCHI
HALF YEARLY EXAMINATION (2022-23)

Class - XI Subject – Sociology

Time – 3 Hours Maximum Marks- 80

General Instructions
1. The question paper is divided into four sections.
2. There are 35 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
3. Section A includes question No. 1-16. These are objective type questions.
4. Section B includes question No. 17-25. These are very short answer type questions carrying
2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 30 words.
5. Section C includes question No. 26-32. These are short answer type questions carrying 4
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words. Question no. 26 and 27
are case based questions with 4 parts each carrying 1 mark, making the questions of 4
marks each.
6. Section D includes question No. 33-35. They are long answer type questions carrying 6
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 200 words each. Question no 35 is
to be answered with the help of the passage given.

SECTION - A

1. Capitalism's root lies in the --------------

A. French Revolution
B. Russian Revolution
C. Industrial revolution
D. Intellectual Revolution
2. -------------, the French scholar, considered to be the founder of sociology.
A. C. Wright Mills
B. Auguste Comte
C. Peter Berger
D. Herbert Spencer
3. Modes of action which do not conform to the norms or values held by most of the
members of a group or society:
A. Sanction
B. Norms
C. Deviance
D. Value
4. Personal, Uncodified and Unofficial type of social control is called
A. Informal
B. Functional
C. Formal
D. None of these

1
5. It is a mode of reward or punishment that reinforces socially expected forms of behavior
A. law
B. rule
C. Sanction
D. Control
6. It is simply a position in society or in a group every individual occupies........-
A. Identity
B. Status
C. Role
D. Authority
7. -------------- emphasises the analysis of social systems and population on large scale.
A. Functionalist theory
B. Conflict theory
C. Micro sociology
D. Macro sociology
8. -------- -- refers to type of marriage in which a man marries more than one woman.
A. Monopoly
B. Monogamy
C. Serial monogamy
D. Polygamy
9. Which of the following rights includes the rights to own property?
A. Social rights
B. Civil rights
C. Political rights
D. None of these
10. According to sociologist ......., the number of joint families have gradually increased in post
independence India. According to him, the rising life expectancy in India is a contributing
factor.
A. A.M. Shah
B. Emile Durkheim
C. Herbert Spencer
D. George Simmel
11. For .......... no society can survive without a ‘common base’, a certain number of ideas,
sentiments and practises which education must inculcate in all children indiscriminately to
whatever social category they belong.
A. Max Weber
B. Auguste Comte
C. Emile Durkheim
D. Clifford Geertz
12. A family where couple lives with the man's parents is called------
A. Matrilineal
B. Patrilineal
C. Matrilocal
D. Patrilocal

2
13. Sovereignty, citizenship and ideas of Nationalism are defining features of ......
A. Modern state
B. Monarchy
C. Colonial Rule
D. Autocracy
14. The most important agent of Socialisation in the early childhood is----
A. Family
B. Peer group
C. School
D. Mass media
15. ------- culture refers to the intangible elements of culture.
A. Material
B. Non-material
C. Explicit
D. Mass
16. The process of Socialisation which takes place in school and other institutions is known as--
A. Personality development
B. Secondary socialisation
C. Primary Socialisation
D. Both A and B

SECTION B

17. What is society?

18. What do you understand by Synthetic School of thoughts In sociology?
19. How sociology is a progressive science?
20. What are secondary groups?
21. What is peer group?
22. What is meant by role?
OR
What do you mean by deviance ?
23. What do you understand by the term marriage?
24. What is kinship?
25. What are the main elements of culture?
OR
What is Material Dimension of culture?

SECTION – C

26. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Political institutions are concerned with the distribution of power in society. Two concepts,
which are critical to the understanding of political institutions are power and authority.
Power is the ability of individuals or group to carry out their will even when opposed by
others. It implies that those who hold power do so at the cost of others. There is a fixed

3
 amount of power in a society and if some wield power, others do not. In other words an
individual or group does not hold power in isolation. They hold it in relation to others.

(i) Around 60 years ago, social anthropologists conducted empirical studies of...... to
explain how order can be preserved in the absence of a modern governing apparatus.
A. Stateless societies
B. Empirical societies
C. Modern States
D. Nationalism
(ii) ......... rights involve the freedom of individuals to live where they choose to.
A. Civil
B. Political
C. Social
D. All of these
(iii) ......... is a collection of symbols and values that give people a sense of belonging to a
single political group.
A. Nationalism
B. Regionalism
C. Fascism
D. Communism
(iv) ..........is a branch of Protestant Christianity.
A. Capitalism
B. Calvinism
C. Nationalism
D. Socialism
27. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Families have varying locations within the overall institutions of a society. In most
traditional societies, the family into which a person is born largely determines the
individual’s social position for the rest of his/ her life.
Even when social position is not inherited at birth in this way the region and social class of
the family into which an individual is born affects patterns of socialisation quite sharply.
Children pick up ways of behaviour characteristic of their parents or others in their
neighbourhood or community.

(i) A sociological agency, ..........is friendship groups of children of a similar age.

A. school
B. Peer group
C. Reference group
D. None of these
(ii) .......... culture refers to the intangible elements of culture.
A. Explicit
B. Material
C. Artifacts
D. Non – material

4
 (iii) Normative aspect of culture includes.......
A. Folkways
B. Customs
C. Conventions
D. All of these
(iv) Every behaviour that is made possible by the use of materials and is considered to be
a part of culture falls under the ........ dimension of cultures.
A. Material
B. Non – material
C. Cosmopolitan
D. Ethnocentrism

28. Why is the study of the origin and growth of Sociology important?
29. Bring out four differences between sociological perspective and common sense knowledge.
30. What do you understand by social groups? State any four characteristics of social groups.
OR
What is social stratification? Explain its key principles.
31. State the political institution and its concepts.
32. Discuss the cognitive and normative dimensions of culture.
OR
What are the material aspects of culture?

SECTION – D

33. ‘Types of families and their forms are based on various parameters’. How can you find the
list of family and family forms?
34. Discuss differences between social change and cultural change.

OR

What do you mean by Socialisation? Discuss the characteristics of Socialisation.

35. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
The ultimate and no doubt the oldest means of social control is physical violence, even in
the politely operated societies of modern democracies the ultimate argument is violence No
State can exist without a police force or its equivalent in armed might. In any functioning
society violence is used economically and as a last resort, with the mere threat of this
ultimate violence. Sufficing for the day-to-day exercise of social control.Where human
beings live or work in compact groups, in which they are personally known and to which
they are tied by feelings of personal loyalty (the kind that sociologists called primary
groups), very potent and simultaneously very subtle mechanisms of control are constantly
brought to bear upon the actual or potent deviant.....

1. Explain functionalist perspective of social control. [2]

2. Why Social control is necessary for an orderly social life? Explain. [4]