JM English

Table of Contents
TEST 1 – Page 3
Hello Happiness!
One Who Hopes
Long-Term Forecast: HOT AND DRY
TEST 2 – Page 12
Project: Reform of the Prison System In The UK
Special Olympics Conditions of Participation
Migrants and Refugees: Racial Discrimination and Xenophobia
TEST 3 – Page 21
Wolves, dogs and humans
Crop circles
Are these two reporters on the same planet?
TEST 4 – Page 29
Lake Vostok
The cells from hell
Mystery of the mummies
TEST 5 – Page 37
Sleeping on the job
Homeopathy
The hemp revival
TEST 6 – Page 46
Frogwatch
Just relax ...
Kids and Sport
TEST 7 – Page 55
Survivor from the sky
The race to make spider silk
Map wars
TEST 8 – Page 64
Please Hold The Line
Did tea and beer bring about industrialisation?
Team-based Learning
TEST 9 – Page 72
3D Printers
Nanotechnology: its development and uses
Driverless cars
TEST 10 – Page 80
A gentle giant and a pint-sized bully
The Scarlet Pimpernel of the Vatican
Types of Snowfall

pg. 1
JM English

TEST 11 – Page 88
Art or Craft?
Salvador Dali
The Beginnings of Art Therapy
TEST 12 – Page 96
Prison: The Solution or the Problem?
Physiology and Criminality
Jack the Ripper: A Bungled Investigation?
TEST 13 – Page 103
Daydreaming
Tricky Sums And Psychology
Care in the Community
TEST 14 – Page 109
Albert Einstein
Drinking Filtered Water
Speech Dysfluency And Popular Fillers
TEST 15 – Page 120
Sleepy Students Perform Worse
The Brains Business
Sunday Is a Fun Day for Modern Brits
TEST 16 – Page 122
Spot the Difference
The Fertility Bust
Teens Try to Change the World, One Purchase at a Time
TEST 17 – Page 129
Money Transfers by Mobile
Park the Car Permanently
Low-Cost Lamps Light Rural India
TEST 18 – Page 136
Secret of Thailand's Success?
Patients Are a Virtue
Rise of the Robots
TEST 19 – Page 144
Alternative Energy Sources
Colour Blindness
Population growth sentencing millions to hydrological poverty
TEST 20 – Page 153
Controlling Deathwatch Beetles
Therapeutic Jurisprudence: An Overview
Sleep

pg. 2
JM English

TEST 1
READING PASSAGE 1
Hello Happiness!
Ask 100 people what would make them happy, and a sizeable majority would say “winning the
lottery.” Yet, if they won a vast fortune, within a year they would be back to their previous level
of happiness. The fact is that money has many uses, but more money does not mean more
happiness. Surveys carried out in recent years by leading psychologists and sociologists all
confirm that while individuals may increase their material wealth during the course of their
lifetime, this has no bearing on their well-being. And what is true for individuals can be applied
on a larger scale to the world population. Statistically, wealthier nations do not achieve higher
scores on the happiness-ometer than developing or underdeveloped nations. Once the basic
criteria of adequate shelter and nutrition are satisfied, increased wealth plays no significant role.
So why the obsession with getting rich? The answer, say researchers, is simple. Call it jealousy,
competitiveness, or just keeping up with the Joneses, however well we are doing, there is always
someone else who is doing better. Just as we acquire a new $25,000 car, our neighbour parks his
brand spanking new $40,000 set of wheels in his drive, causing us much consternation, but
fuelling us with new aspirations in the process. And so the cycle continues. Money, or material
wealth, may be a prime mover, but it is not the foundation of our well-being.
If money isn‟t the key to happiness, then what is? In all 44 countries surveyed by a prominent
research centre, family life provided the greatest source of satisfaction. Married people live on
average three years longer and enjoy greater physical and psychological health than the
unmarried and, surprisingly, couples in a cohabitational relationship. Having a family enhances
well-being, and spending more time with one‟s family helps even more. Social interaction
among families, neighbourhoods, workplaces, communities and religious groups correlates
strongly with subjective well-being. In fact, the degree of individuals‟ social connections is the
best benchmark of their happiness.
Friendship is another major factor. Indeed, to return to the dollar-equals-happiness equation, in
one survey, having a friend converted into $50,000 worth of happiness, and confirms the well-
known phenomenon that loneliness can lead to depression. Work is another area central to well-
being, and certain features correlate highly with happiness. These include autonomy over how,
where, and at what pace work is done, trust between employer and employee, fair treatment, and
active participation in the making of decisions. Occupationally, happiness tends to be more
common among professionals and managers, that is, people who are in control of the work they
do, rather than subservient to their bosses, inequality implies less control for those who are in the
weaker position, although there are more risks of losing their privileges for those in the stronger
position.
Control of one‟s life in general is also key. Happiness is clearly correlated with the presence of
favourable events such as promotion or marriage, and the absence of troubles or bad luck such as
accidents, being laid off or conflicts. These events on their own signal the success or failure to
reach one‟s goals, and therefore the control one has. On a national level, the more that
governments recognise individual preferences, the happier their citizens will be. Choice and
citizens‟ belief that they can affect the political process, increase subjective well-being.
Furthermore, evidence exists for an association between unhappiness and poor health: people
from underdeveloped countries are among the unhappiest in the world, and their life expectancy
has been falling steadily. People are more satisfied in societies which minimally restrict their
freedom of action, in other words, where they are in control rather than being controlled. Happy

pg. 3
JM English

people are characterised by the belief that they are able to control their situation, whereas
unhappy people tend to believe that they are a victim of fate. Happy people are also more
psychologically resilient, assertive and open to experience.
But how good is the evidence for this alternative viewpoint then - that happiness, and not
financial status, contributes to good health, and long life? A study of nuns, spanning seven
decades, supports this theory. Autobiographies written by the nuns in their early 1920s were
scored for positive and negative emotions. Nuns expressing the most positive emotions lived on
average ten years longer than those expressing the least positive emotions. Happy people, it
seems, are much less likely to fall ill and die than unhappy people.
But what must we do to be happy? Experts cite the old maxim “be happy with what you‟ve got.”
Look around you, they say, and identify the positive factors in your life. Concentrating on the
negative aspects of one‟s life is a no-no, and so is worrying. Worrying is a negative thinking
habit that is nearly always about something that lies in the future. It stems, apparently, from our
cave dwelling days, when we had to think on a day-to-day basis about how and where to find
food and warmth, for example. But in the modern world, worrying simply undermines our ability
to enjoy life in the present. More often than not, the things we worry about never come to pass
anyway. Just as important is not to dwell on the past - past mistakes, bad experiences, missed
opportunities and so on.
What else can we do? Well, engage in a loving relationship with another adult, and work hard to
sustain it. Try to plan frequent interactions with your family, friends and neighbours (in that
order). Make sure you‟re not working so hard that you‟ve no time left for personal relationships
and leisure. If you are, leave your job voluntarily to become self-employed, but don‟t get sacked
— that‟s more damaging to well-being than the loss of a spouse, and its effects last longer. In
your spare time, join a club, volunteer for community service, or take up religion.
If none of the above works, then vote for a political party with the same agenda as the King of
Bhutan, who announced that his nation‟s objective is national happiness.

Questions 1-3
Choose THREE letters A - H.
Circle the correct letters, A - H, below.
NB Your answers may be given in any order.
Which THREE of the following statements are true, according to the text?
A. Money can bring misery.
B. Wealthier nations place more emphasis on happiness than poorer ones.
C. Securing a place to live is a basic human need.
D. The desire for social status is global phenomenon.
E. An unmarried couple living together are less likely to be happy than a married couple.
F. The less responsibility one has, the happier one is.
G. Involvement in policy making can increase well-being.
H. Our prehistoric ancestors were happier than we are.

Questions 4-7
Complete the summary using the list of words, A -I, below.
Write the correct letter, A - I in the spaces below.
A episode
B interaction

pg. 4
JM English

C cooperation
D control
E number
F level
G course
H conflict
I limit
Money can buy you just about anything, but not. it seems, happiness. Whether on a personal
or national 4. ……….., your bank balance won't make you happier. Once the basic criteria of
a roof over your head and food on the table have been met, money ceases to play a part. One
of the most important factors in achieving happiness is the extent of our social 5. ……….. -
our relationships with family, friends, colleagues anti so on. Equally important is the amount
of 6. ……….. we have, either in our personal life, working life, or even in our ability to
influence the political 7. ……….. that our country embarks on.

Questions 8-13
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
In spaces 8-13 below write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this
8. People from underdeveloped nations try to attain the same standard of living as those from
developed nations.
9. Seeing what others have makes people want to have it too.
10. The larger the family is, the happier the parents will probably be.
11. One‟s attitude to life has no influence on one‟s health.
12. Instinct can be a barrier to happiness.
13. Family and friends rank equally as sources of happiness.

READING PASSAGE 2
One Who Hopes
A. Language lovers, just like music lovers, enjoy variety. For the latter there's Mozart, The
Rolling Stones and Beyonce. For the former there's English, French, Swahili, Urdu... the list
is endless. But what about those poor overworked students who find learning difficult,
confusing languages a drudge? Wouldn't it put a smile on their faces if there were just one
simple, easy-to-learn tongue that would cut their study time by years? Well, of course, it
exists. It's called Esperanto, and it's been around for more than 120 years. Esperanto is the
most widely spoken artificially constructed international language. The name derives from
Doktoro Esperanto, the pseudonym under which L. L. Zamenhof first published his Unua
Libro in 1887. The phrase itself means 'one who hopes'. Zamenhof's goal was to create an
easy and flexible language as a universal second language to promote peace and international
understanding.

pg. 5
JM English

B. Zamenhof, after ten years of developing his brainchild from the late 1870s to the early 1880s,
had the first Esperanto grammar published in Warsaw in July 1887. The number of speakers
grew rapidly over the next few decades, at first primarily in the Russian empire and Eastern
Europe, then in Western Europe and the Americas, China, and Japan. In the early years,
speakers of Esperanto kept in contact primarily through correspondence and periodicals, but
since 1905 world congresses have been held on five continents every year except during the
two World Wars. Latest estimates for the numbers of Esperanto speakers are around 2
million. Put in percentage terms, that's about 0.03% of the world's population - no staggering
figure, comparatively speaking. One reason is that Esperanto has no official status in any
country, but it is an optional subject on the curriculum of several state education systems. It
is widely estimated that it can be learned in anywhere between a quarter to a twentieth of the
time required for other languages.
C. As a constructed language, Esperanto is not genealogically related to any ethnic language.
Whilst it is described as 'a language lexically predominantly Romanic', the phonology,
grammar, vocabulary, and semantics are based on the western Indo-European languages. For
those of us who are not naturally predisposed to tucking languages under our belts, it is an
easy language to learn. It has 5 vowels and 23 consonants. It has one simple way of
conjugating all of its verbs. Words are often made from many other roots, making the
number of words which one must memorise much smaller. The language is phonetic, and the
rules of pronunciation are very simple, so that everyone knows how to pronounce a written
word and vice-versa, and word order follows a standard, logical pattern. Through prefixing
and suffixing, Esperanto makes it easy to identify words as nouns, verbs, adjectives, adverbs,
direct objects and so on, by means of easy-to-spot endings. All this makes for easy language
learning. What's more, several research studies demonstrate that studying Esperanto before
another foreign language speeds up and improves the learning of the other language. This is
presumably because learning subsequent foreign languages is easier than learning one's first,
while the use of a grammatically simple and culturally flexible language like Esperanto
softens the blow of learning one's first foreign language. In one study, a group of European
high school students studied Esperanto for one year, then French for three years, and ended
up with a significantly better command of French than a control group who had studied
French for all four years.
D. Needless to say, the language has Its critics. Some point to the Eastern European features of
the language as being harsh and difficult to pronounce, and argue that Esperanto has an
artificial feel to it, without the flow of a natural tongue, and that by nature of its artificiality,
it is impossible to become emotionally involved with the language. Others cite its lack of
cultural history, indigenous literature - "no one has ever written a novel straight into
Esperanto" - together with its minimal vocabulary and its inability to express all the
necessary philosophical, emotional and psychological concepts.
E. The champions of Esperanto - Esperantists - disagree. They claim that it is a language in
which a great body of world literature has appeared in translation: in poetry, novels, literary
journals, and, to rebut the accusation that it is not a 'real' language, point out that it is
frequently used at international meetings which draw hundreds and thousands of participants.
Moreover, on an international scale, it is most useful - and fair - for neutral communication.
That means that communication through Esperanto does not give advantages to the members
of any particular people or culture, but provides an ethos of equality of rights, tolerance and
true internationalism.

pg. 6
JM English

F. Esperantists further claim that Esperanto has the potential - were it universally taught for a
year or two throughout the world - to empower ordinary people to communicate effectively
worldwide on a scale that far exceeds that which is attainable today by only the most
linguistically brilliant among us. It offers the opportunity to improve communication in
business, diplomacy, scholarship and other fields so that those who speak many different
native languages will be able to participate fluently in international conferences and chat
comfortably with each other after the formal presentations are made. Nowadays that privilege
is often restricted to native speakers of English and those who have special talents and
opportunities for learning English as a foreign language.
G. What Esperanto does offer in concrete terms is the potential of saving billions of dollars
which are now being spent on translators and interpreters, billions which would be freed up
to serve the purposes of governments and organisations that spend so much of their resources
to change words from one language into the words of others. Take, for example, the
enormously costly conferences, meetings and documentation involved in the European Union
parliamentary and administrative procedures - all funded, essentially, by tax payers. And
instead of the World Health Organisation, and all NGOs for that matter, devoting enormous
sums to provide interpreters and translations, they would be able to devote those huge
amounts of money to improving the health of stricken populations throughout the world.

Questions 14 -19
Reading Passage 2 has seven paragraphs, A - G.
Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B - G from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number i - ix in spaces 14-19 below.
i A non-exclusive language
ii Fewer languages, more results
iii Language is personal
iv What‟s fashionable in language
v From the written word to the spoken word
vi A real language
vii Harmony through language
viii The mechanics of a language
ix Lost in translation
Example
Paragraph A vii
14. Paragraph B: …………
15. Paragraph C: …………
16. Paragraph D: …………
17. Paragraph E: …………
18. Paragraph F: …………
19. Paragraph G: …………

Questions 20-22
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.
20. What advantage is there to learning Esperanto as one‟s first foreign language?

pg. 7
JM English

A. Its pronunciation rules follow those of most European languages.

B. There are no grammar rules to learn.
C. It can make the learning of other foreign languages less complicated.
D. Its verbs are not conjugated.
21. What do its critics say of Esperanto?
A. It is only used in artificial situations.
B. It requires emotional involvement.
C. It cannot translate works of literature.
D. It lacks depth of expression.
22. How could Esperanto help on a global level?
A. It would eliminate the need for conferences.
B. More aid money would reach those who need it.
C. The world population would be speaking only one language.
D. More funds could be made available for learning foreign languages.

Questions 23-26
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?
In spaces 23-26 below, write
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
23. Supporters of Esperanto say it gives everyone an equal voice.
24. Esperanto is the only artificially-constructed language.
25. Esperanto can be learned as part of a self-study course.
26. Esperanto can be used equally in formal and casual situations.

READING PASSAGE 3
Long-term Forecast: Hot And Dry
A. Melting land ice in the Arctic is set to cause a global rise in sea levels, leading to disastrous
effects for both man and wildlife. Many species worldwide are threatened with extinction,
and low-lying islands and land masses will disappear entirely. But the havoc wreaked by the
effect of greenhouse gases won‟t be confined to just too much water, but the absence of it, as
well. In other words, desertification. A decrease in the total amount of rainfall in arid and
semi-arid areas could increase the total area of drylands worldwide, and thus the total amount
of land potentially at risk from desertification.
B. Desertification is officially recognised as land degradation in arid, semi-arid and dry sub-
humid areas resulting from various factors including climatic variations and human activities.
This degradation of formerly productive land is a complex process. It involves multiple
causes, and it proceeds at varying rates in different climates. Desertification may intensify a
general climatic trend, or initiate a change in local climate, both leading towards greater
aridity. The more arid conditions associated with desertification accelerate the depletion of
vegetation and soils. Land degradation occurs all over the world, but it is only referred to as
desertification when it takes place in drylands. This is because these areas are especially
prone to more permanent damage as different areas of degraded land spread and merge
together to form desert-like conditions.

pg. 8
JM English

C. Global warming brought about by increasing greenhouse gas levels in the atmosphere is
expected to increase the variability of weather conditions and extreme events. Many dryland
areas face increasingly low and erratic rainfalls, coupled with soil erosion by wind and the
drying-up of water resources through increased regional temperatures. Deforestation can also
reduce rainfall in certain areas, increasing the threat of desertification. It is not yet possible,
despite sophisticated technology, to identify with an acceptable degree of reliability those
parts of the Earth where desertification will occur. Existing drylands, which cover over 40%
of the total land area of the world, most significantly in Africa and Asia, will probably be
most at risk from climate change. These areas already experience low rainfall, and any that
falls is usually in the form of short, erratic, high-intensity storms. In addition, such areas also
suffer from land degradation due to over-cultivation, overgrazing, deforestation and poor
irrigation practices.
D. It is a misconception that droughts cause desertification. Droughts are common in arid and
semi-arid lands. Well-managed lands can recover from drought when the rains return.
Continued land abuse during droughts, however, increases land degradation. Nor does
desertification occur in linear, easily definable patterns. Deserts advance erratically, forming
patches on their borders. Areas far from natural deserts can degrade quickly to barren soil,
rock, or sand through poor land management. The presence of a nearby desert has no direct
relationship to desertification. Unfortunately, an area undergoing desertification is brought to
public attention only after the process is well underway. Often little or no data are available
to indicate the previous state of the ecosystem or the rate of degradation. Scientists still
question whether desertification, as a process of global change, is permanent or how and
when it can be halted or reversed.
E. But desertification will not be limited to the drylands of Africa and Asia. According to the
environmental organisation Greenpeace, the Mediterranean will suffer substantially, too. If
current trends in emissions of greenhouse gases continue, global temperatures are expected to
rise faster over the next century than over any time during the last 10,000 years. Significant
uncertainties surround predictions of regional climate changes, but it is likely that the
Mediterranean region will also warm significantly, increasing the frequency and severity of
droughts across the region. As the world warms, global sea levels will rise as oceans expand
and glaciers melt. Around much of the Mediterranean basin, sea levels could rise by close to
1m by 2100. As a result, some low-lying coastal areas would be lost through flooding or
erosion, while rivers and coastal aquifers would become more salty. The worst affected areas
will be the Nile Delta, Venice in Italy and Thessaloniki in Greece, two major cities where
local subsidence means that sea levels could rise by at least one-and-a-half times as much as
elsewhere.
F. The consequences of all this, says Greenpeace, are far-reaching, and the picture is a gloomy
one. Livestock production would suffer due to a deterioration in the quality of rangeland.
Yields of grains and other crops could decrease substantially across the Mediterranean region
due to increased frequency of drought. Crop production would be further threatened by
increases in competition for water and the prevalence of pests and diseases and land loss
through desertification and sea-level rise. The combination of heat and pollution would lead
to an upsurge in respiratory illness among urban populations, while extreme weather events
could increase death and injury rates. Water shortages and damaged infrastructure would
increase the risk of cholera and dysentery, while higher temperatures would increase the
incidence of infectious diseases, such as malaria and dengue fever. Serious social disruption

pg. 9
JM English

could occur as millions are forced from their homelands as a result of desertification, poor
harvests and sea-level rise, while international disputes over shared water resources could
turn into conflict.
G. Future climate change could critically undermine efforts for sustainable development in the
Mediterranean region through its impacts on the environment and social and economic well-
being. While in many respects climate change exacerbates existing problems instead of
creating new ones, the sheer magnitude of the potential problem means it cannot be ignored.
There is some scope for adaptation, but the fact that many measures would be beneficial
irrespective of climate change suggests that radical changes in our policies and practices will
be needed. It is also vital that developed countries meet their obligations to assist adaptation
in developing countries through access to know-how and financial assistance. Ultimately,
however, the long-term sustainability of the Mediterranean region requires keeping climate
change within tolerable bounds. Current understanding of safe limits points to the need for
prompt international agreement - and action - to make the drastic cuts in emissions of
greenhouse gases required to stabilise atmospheric concentrations of these gases.

Questions 27-32
Complete the flow-chart below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Questions 33-36
Reading Passage 3 has seven paragraphs, A - G.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
Write the correct letter A - G in spaces 33 - 36 below.

pg. 10
JM English

33. Human intervention is a potential solution to potential disaster.

34. The rate of climate change is set to accelerate dramatically.
35. There is seldom enough information available in some areas to track how fast the effects of
climate change have happened in the past.
36. Desertification is attributable to a number of factors.

Questions 37-40
Complete the summary with the list of words A - I below.
Write the correct letter A - I in spaces 37-40 below.
Climate change may have catastrophic effects on the human and animal world. As glaciers
melt, sea levels will rise, causing extensive flooding and land 37. ………... Another
consequence of global warming is 38. ……….., which affects areas known as 39. ………...
These areas are subject to irregular weather patterns, but also suffer from human intervention
or neglect, such as inadequate or inefficient 40. ……….. systems.
A irrigation
B cooling
C drylands
D cause
E loss
F abuse
G desertification
H deserts
I emission

pg. 11
JM English

TEST 2
READING PASSAGE 1
PROJECT: Reform Of The Prison System In The UK
Penal progress:
The UK's large prison population is fuelled by a high level of recidivism - when criminals
repeatedly relapse into crime. This project for a model prison tackles issues of architecture,
management and funding in an enlightened attempt to achieve lasting rehabilitation.
Project:
The penal system is one of the most direct manifestations of the power of the state, but is often
also a revealing reflection of the national psyche and the public's attitude to punishment and
rehabilitation. Surprisingly, for a prosperous, progressive Western democracy, the UK has a
lamentable penal record. Britain's prison population is currently in excess of 60,000 (up 50
percent from a decade ago) making it the second largest in Europe. The average cost of keeping
an individual prisoner incarcerated for a year is £27,000 (ten times the average expenditure on a
secondary school pupil in the state sector). Despite such substantial investment, over half of
British prisoners re-offend within two years of release.
Such high rates of recidivism is a serious problem. It means that the prison population is
continuing to grow at an alarming rate (recently by as many as 700 a week), so overcrowding is
endemic, hampering opportunities for education and rehabilitation and lowering staff and
prisoner morale. To ease this pressure, the UK government is investing in the prison estate at
historic levels, with 12,000 new prison places proposed within the next few years. Yet, like their
nineteenth-century predecessors, Britain's 'new Victorian' prisons are designed for security and
control rather than for the rehabilitation and education which is increasingly recognised as what
prisoners need. Most are poorly educated young men under 30 (at least 60 percent of whom are
functionally illiterate and innumerate), so without education and skills few will be able to build
meaningful lives away from crime, no matter how often they go to prison, or how long they
spend there.
Any transformation of the penal system must start with the redesign of prison buildings. Prison
architecture has a clearly discernible effect on behaviour, operational efficiency, interaction and
morale. Last year, architects Buschow Henley were commissioned by a think tank organisation
working with the Home Office Prison Service to research and develop an alternative prison
model that focuses more intensely on rehabilitation through a concentrated programme of
intellectual, physical and social education. The model is not intended as a blueprint but rather a
series of principles that might be adapted to support the wider concept of the 'Learning Prison' in
which other aspects such as organisation, management and funding would obviously play a part.
Key to this is the introduction of a system that groups together prisoners in small communities or
'houses' of between 30 and 40 inmates. This has two important consequences. First, the more
compact spatial organisation of the house reduces staff time spent on supervising and escorting
prisoners. Second, the system places educational and other facilities at the heart of the building,
within easy reach at all times of day, reinforced by a supportive social environment. This model
also enables resources to be dramatically redeployed, from a current estimated ratio of 80:20
(costs of security versus rehabilitation) to a predicted reversed figure of 20:80, freeing up much-
needed funds to invest in educational
programmes, thereby helping to promote rehabilitation, reduce recidivism and initiate a virtuous
cycle.

pg. 12
JM English

In Buschow Henley's scheme, the proposed group size of 30-40 has the potential for social
accountability - each prisoner being known within the community and personally accountable for
his behaviour. Houses are semi-autonomous, not just dormitories, with communal, as opposed to
centralised, facilities. Circulation is simplified and reduced. Buildings are arranged in a chess-
board formation, as opposed to pavilions marooned in space, each with a discrete external area
that can be productively used for sport, games or gardening with a minimum of supervision.
Individual cells are replanned to make them less like domestic lavatories and more conducive to
learning. In an inversion of the conventional layout, the bed is placed lengthways along the
external wall at high level, freeing up space below. Storage is built in and each inmate is
provided with a moveable table equipped with electronic tools for study. Washing facilities are
contained in a small adjoining space (included in the basic 8 sqm allowance) so reducing
pressure on prison staff to manage inmate hygiene and ablution. Each cell is paired with a
neighbouring 'buddy' cell linked by sliding doors controlled by individual prisoners to mitigate
the risk of self-harm.
While this new type of prison appears to be somewhat liberal, the arrangement of spaces and
functions both inside and out is actually tightly controlled. Paradoxically, however, this
proscription enables a greater range of activities to take place, and makes general supervision
easier. In this environment the prisoners are judged not by their degree of conformity, but by the
scope of their activities and achievements, so laying the foundations for genuine rehabilitation.
As Martin Narey, Director General of the UK Prison Services observes, 'We have got to accept
that prison must be a humane and constructive place, not least because all but 23 of my
population are going home someday.

Questions 1-5
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A - H, below.
Write the correct letter A - H in spaces 1-5 below.
1. The agenda of current British prison systems is primarily ………..
2. The primary role of prisons should be ………..
3. The new prison scheme will create ………..
4. Existing prison architecture causes ………..
5. The positive results of reducing the number of prisoners in one space include ………..
List of phrases
A. improved security, supervision and education.
B. rehabilitation and education.
C. reduced efficiency, morale and interaction.
D. reduced risk of self-harm.
E. security and control.
F. an alternative prison model
G. a learning environment rather than a punitive compound
H. organisation, management and funding.

Questions 6-9
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.
6. The project to reform the penal system in the UK

pg. 13
JM English

A. is progressive.
B. is inexpensive.
C. will eliminate the need for supervision.
D. is, primarily, to make prisoners more comfortable.
7. The proposal to create 12,000 new prison places, within the next few years, indicates that
A. prison cells are too small.
B. a lot of money is invested into educating offenders.
C. there is an increasing population of offenders in the UK.
D. the government is getting tougher on offenders.
8. The proposed changes to prison architecture are designed primarily to
A. improve the aesthetic value of the building.
B. boost self-esteem and social behaviour.
C. allow prisoners more living space.
D. increase running costs within prisons.
9. Why is the bed placed lengthways along the external wall at high level?
A. to make room below for washing facilities
B. for the improvement of the inmates‟ hygiene
C. to allow room below for storage and shelves
D. to make room for sliding doors

Questions 10-13
Label the diagram, below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from, the passage for each answer.

pg. 14
JM English

READING PASSAGE 2
Special Olympics Conditions of Participation
To be eligible for participation in the Special Olympics an individual with an intellectual
disability must agree to observe and abide by the SOC Sports Rules. „Mental Retardation‟ refers
to substantial limitations in present functioning. It is characterised by significantly sub-average
intellectual functioning, existing concurrently with related limitations in two or more of the
following applicable adaptive skill areas: communication, self-care, home living, social skills,
community use, self-direction, health and safety, functional academics, leisure and work. Mental
retardation manifests itself before the age of 18. The following four assumptions are essential to
the application of the definition:
1. Valid assessment considers cultural and linguistic diversity as well as differences in
communication and behavioural factors.
2. The existence of limitations in adaptive skills occurs within the context of community
environments typical of the individual's age-peers and is indexed to the person's individualised
needs for support.
3. Specific adaptive limitations often co-exist with strengths in other adaptive skills or other
personal capabilities.
4. With appropriate support over a sustained period, the life functioning of the person with
mental retardation will generally improve.
The term „mental retardation' is a diagnostic term used to describe the condition defined above.
In keeping with the current language practised within the field, the term 'mental retardation' is no
longer commonly used. In its place, if it is absolutely necessary to use a label, i.e. in an
educational setting or in a SOC/NCCP Technical Programme, then the term that is in keeping
with the current practices is a person with an intellectual disability. Special Olympics was
created and developed to give individuals with an intellectual disability the opportunity to train
and compete in sport activities. No person shall, on the grounds of gender, race, religion, colour,
national origin or financial constraint be excluded from participation in, or be denied the benefits
of, or otherwise be subjected to discrimination under any programme or activity of Special
Olympics. Flexibility is left to the Local, Region/Zone, Chapter and National Special Olympics
organisations for determining the eligibility of the participants because of the variety of
situations and needs that exist in the many localities where Special Olympics programmes have
been and will be instituted. Inclusion is preferred to exclusion when eligibility is in question.
Individuals who have both an intellectual disability and multiple disabilities may participate in
Special Olympics programmes and competitions.
A. Participation by individuals with Down Syndrome who have Atlantoaxial Instability.
There is evidence from medical research that up to 15 percent of individuals with Down
Syndrome have a defect in the cervical vertebrae C-1 and C-2 in the neck. This condition
exposes Down Syndrome individuals to the heightened possibility of a neck injury if they
participate in activities that hyperextend or radically flex the neck or upper spine.
B. SOC requires temporary restriction of individuals with Down Syndrome from
participation in certain activities.
1) Accredited Programmes may allow all individuals with Down Syndrome to continue in most
Special Olympics sports training and competition activities. However, such individuals shall
not
be permitted to participate in sport training and competitions which, by their nature, result in
hyperextension, radical flexion or direct pressure on the neck or upper spine. Such sports training

pg. 15
JM English

and competition activities include: the butterfly stroke and diving starts in swimming, diving,
pentathlon, high jump, equestrian sports, artistic gymnastics, soccer, alpine skiing and any warm-
up exercise placing undue stress on the head and neck.
2) Restriction from participation in the above-listed activities shall continue until an individual
with Down Syndrome has been examined (including X-ray views of full extension and
flexion of the neck) by a physician who has been briefed on the nature of the Atlantoaxial
Instability condition, and the results of such an examination demonstrate that the individual
does not have the Atlantoaxial Instability condition.
3) For any individual diagnosed as having Atlantoaxial Instability condition, the examining
physician shall notify the athlete's parents or guardians of the nature and extent of the
individual's condition and such athlete shall be allowed to participate in the activities listed in
1) above only if the athlete submits written certification from two physicians combined with
an acknowledgment of the risks signed by the adult athlete or his/her parent or guardian if the
athlete is a minor.
4) It is the responsibility of parents/guardians to monitor the individual and take appropriate
action if neurological symptoms appear.
Terminology note: the term intellectual disability is used to replace the clinical term of Mental
Retardation. Intellectual disability is not a disease, nor should it be confused with mental illness.
People with mental disabilities have both a slower rate of learning and a limited capacity to
learn. They may also have difficulty managing the ordinary activities of daily living,
understanding the behaviour of others, and determining their own appropriate social responses
(adaptive behaviour). Children with intellectual disabilities grow into adults with intellectual
disabilities; they do not remain „eternal children‟.
People with intellectual disabilities constitute one of the largest groups of citizens with
disabilities. There are an estimated 156 million individuals in the world who have intellectual
disabilities. Intellectual disability cuts across lines of race, education, and social and economic
background. It can occur in anyone. Hereditary components are known to account for only a
fraction of the cases of intellectual disability. There are well over 350 causes of intellectual
disability and in three-quarters of the cases the specific cause is unknown. About 87 percent of
all people with intellectual disabilities are mildly afflicted and in many respects are
indistinguishable from people who do not have intellectual disabilities

Questions 14-20
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?
In spaces 14-20 below, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this
14. To be eligible to take part in the Special Olympics, the athlete has to be not only less than
intellectually capable, but must also be lacking in a number of other functions.
15. People with intellectual disabilities never improve their lives.
16. All people with intellectual disabilities need the written permission of a parent or guardian in
order to participate.
17. Down Syndrome participants often excel in their chosen field of athletic activity.
18. People with Down Syndrome cannot participate in any swimming events.
19. If you have Down Syndrome, your neck may be at risk of damage in certain spoils.

pg. 16
JM English

20. Participation in sports helps people with intellectual disabilities to improve their
communication and social skills.

Questions 21-23
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.
21. What were the objectives of the Special Olympics document?
A. to inform the public about what they are to expect from the Special Olympics
B. to provide information for future candidates
C. to promote awareness in the general population of the plight of disabled people
D. to list the problems intellectually disabled people have
22. What does the passage say about intellectual disability?
A. The majority of cases are inherited.
B. Sufferers of the condition outnumber those with physical disabilities.
C. In most cases, the cause of the condition cannot be determined.
D. It may be determined by race, education, or social and economic background.
23. What word best describes the Special Olympics participation policy?
A. Inconsistent
B. Ambiguous
C. Controversial
D. non-discriminatory

Questions 24-26
Which THREE of the following facts relating to Down Syndrome are mentioned?
Choose THREE letters A - F.
A. It is thought that about one Down Syndrome person in every seven has Atlantoaxial
Instability.
B. A person with Down Syndrome cannot participate in any winter competitions.
C. Down Syndrome sufferers with Atlantoaxial Instability who are minors need permission
from a guardian to play soccer.
D. Down Syndrome sufferers are unable to flex the upper spine.
E. Down Syndrome athletes need to wear a neck brace to participate in the Special
Olympics.
F. Down Syndrome athletes can take part in sports that do not directly affect the neck or
spine without any preconditions being fulfilled

READING PASSAGE 3
Migrants and Refugees: Racial Discrimination and Xenophobia
Today, one in every 50 human beings is a migrant worker, a refugee or asylum seeker, or an
immigrant living in a foreign country. Current estimates by the United Nations and the
International Organisation for Migration indicate that some 150 million people live temporarily
or permanently outside their countries of origin (2.5% of the world population). Many of these,
80-97 million, are estimated to be migrant workers with members of their families. Another 12
million are refugees outside their country of origin. These figures do not include the estimated 20
million Internally Displaced Persons forcibly displaced within their own country, nor the tens of
millions more of internal migrants, mainly rural to urban, in countries around the world.

pg. 17
JM English

Increasing ethnic and racial diversity of societies is the inevitable consequence of migration.
Increasing migration means that a growing number of states have become or are becoming more
multi-ethnic, and are confronted with the challenge of accommodating peoples of different
cultures, races, religions and languages. Addressing the reality of increased diversity means
finding political, legal, social and economic mechanisms to ensure mutual respect and to mediate
relations across differences. But xenophobia and racism have become manifest in some societies
which have received substantial numbers of immigrants, as workers or as asylum-seekers. In
those countries the migrants have become the targets in internal disputes about national identity.
In the last few decades, the emergence of new nation states has often been accompanied by
ethnic exclusion.
As governments grapple with the new realities of their multi-ethnic societies, there has been a
marked increase in discrimination and violence directed against migrants, refugees and other
non-nationals by extremist groups in many parts of the world. The lack of any systematic
documentation or research over time makes it unclear whether there is a real increase in the level
of abuse or in the level of exposure and reporting. Unfortunately, there is more than enough
anecdotal evidence to show that violations of the human rights of migrants, refugees and other
non-nationals are so generalised, widespread and commonplace that they are a defining feature
of international migration today.
The extent of racial discrimination and xenophobia is often played down and sometimes denied
by authorities. Racial discrimination is defined in international law as being: any distinction,
exclusion, restriction or preference based on race, colour, descent or national or ethnic origin
which has the purpose or effect of nullifying or impairing the recognition, enjoyment or exercise,
on an equal footing, of human rights and fundamental freedoms in the political, economic, social,
cultural or any other field of public life.
Racism and xenophobia are distinct phenomena, although they often overlap. While racism
generally implies distinction based on difference in physical characteristics, such as skin colour,
hair type, facial features, etc, xenophobia denotes behaviour specifically based on the perception
that „the other‟ is foreign to or originates from outside the community or nation. By the standard
dictionary definition, xenophobia is the intense dislike or fear of strangers or people from other
countries. As a sociologist puts it, „xenophobia is an attitudinal orientation of hostility against
non-natives in a given population.‟
The definition of xenophobia, and its differentiation from racism and racial discrimination, is a
still-evolving concept. One of the regional Preparatory Meetings for a recent World Conference
suggested that:
- Racism is an ideological construct that assigns a certain race and/or ethnic group, to a position
of power over others on the basis of physical and cultural attributes, as well as economic wealth,
involving hierarchical relations where the superior race exercises domination and control over
others.
- Xenophobia describes attitudes, prejudices and behaviour that reject, exclude and often vilify
persons, based on the perception that they are outsiders or foreigners in the community, society
or with respect to national identity.
In many cases, it is difficult to distinguish between racism and xenophobia as motivations for
behaviour, since differences in physical characteristics are often assumed to distinguish a person
from the common identity. However, manifestations of xenophobia occur against people of
identical physical characteristics, even of shared ancestry, when such people arrive, return or
migrate to states or areas where occupants consider them outsiders

pg. 18
JM English

Questions 27-30
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A - F, below.
Write the correct letter, A - F, in the spaces below.
27. An upward trend in violence perpetrated against non-national minority groups by radical
nationals
28. Where racism occurs, the dominant group promotes a hierarchical system in which it
29. Persons not considered to be culturally or physically distinct from the majority
30. Racism differs from xenophobia in that victims of the former
A. are always culturally or physically distinct from the perpetrators of the acts of wrongdoing.
B. tend to share a likeness with the perpetrators of the crime
C. may still find themselves the victims of xenophobic behaviour.
D. has been observed in many different parts of the world.
E. will eventually reach a position of total submission.
F. has a controlling hand in the affairs of one or more of the other sections of society.

Questions 31-34
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.
31. Which of the following migrants are there more of?
A. internally displaced persons
B. refugees
C. internal migrants
D. immigrant workers
32. The author of the text believes that
A. racism is inevitable when people emigrate.
B. governments are finding it difficult to stop racism and xenophobia.
C. the exploitation of minority groups deters others from migrating.
D. xenophobia does not exist within minority groups.
33. There is no real way of knowing how many migrants are discriminated against because
A. not all racial abuse cases are documented or looked into.
B. the number of migrants is increasing at an alarming rate.
C. migrants don‟t complain about being abused.
D. only serious cases are documented.
34. People in authority sometimes
A. exaggerate the seriousness of the problem.
B. create the problem.
C. deny there is a problem.
D. are eager to solve the problem.

Questions 35-40
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3? In
spaces 35 - 40 below, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this

pg. 19
JM English

35. Most migrants flee their country of origin because of political or social disorder.
36. Most internal migrants leave the countryside for the cities.
37. Governments are often reluctant to acknowledge that racial discrimination and xenophobia
exist.
38. Migrants are exploited and abused because they create a sense of insecurity for extremist
groups.
39. People who are racist or xenophobic are uneducated and hostile.
40. People returning to their country of ancestry do not face xenophobia.

pg. 20
JM English

TEST 3
READING PASSAGE 1
Wolves, Dogs and Humans
There is no doubt that dogs are the oldest of all species tamed by humans and their domestication
was based on a mutually beneficial relationship with man. The conventional view is that the
domestication of wolves began between 10,000 and 20,000 years ago. However, a recent ground-
breaking paper by a group of international geneticists has pushed this date back by a factor of 10.
Led by Dr. Robert Wayne, at the University of California, Los Angeles, the team showed that all
dog breeds had only one ancestor, the wolf. They did this by analysing the genetic history
through the DNA of 162 wolves from around the world and 140 domestic dogs representing 67
breeds. The research also confirms, for the first time, that dogs are descended only from wolves
and do not share DNA with coyotes or jackals. The fact that our companionship with dogs now
appears to go back at least 100,000 years means that this partnership may have played an
important part in the development of human hunting techniques that developed 70,000 to 90,000
years ago. It also may even have affected the brain development in both species.
The Australian veterinarian David Paxton suggests that in that period of first contact, people did
not so much domesticate wolves as wolves domesticated people. Wolves may have started living
at the edge of human settlements as scavengers, eating scraps of food and waste. Some learned to
live with human beings in a mutually helpful way and gradually evolved into dogs. At the very
least, they would have protected human settlements, and given warnings by barking at anything
approaching. The wolves that evolved into dogs have been enormously successful in
evolutionary terms. They are found everywhere in the inhabited world, hundreds of millions of
them. The descendants of the wolves that remained wolves are now sparsely distributed, often in
endangered populations.
In return for companionship and food, the early ancestor of the dog assisted humans in tracking,
hunting, guarding and a variety of other activities. Eventually humans began to selectively breed
these animals for specific traits. Physical characteristics changed and individual breeds began to
take shape. As humans wandered across Asia and Europe, they took their dogs along, using them
for additional tasks and further breeding them for selected qualities that would better enable them
to perform specific duties.
According to Dr. Colin Groves, of the Department of Archaeology and Anthropology at
Australian National University, early humans came to rely on dogs‟ keen ability to hear, smell
and see - allowing certain areas of the human brain to shrink in size relative to oilier areas. „Dogs
acted as human's alarm systems, trackers and hunting aids, garbage disposal facilities, hot-water
bottles and children's guardians and playmates. Humans provided dogs with food and security.
This symbiotic relationship was stable for over 100,000 years and intensified into mutual
domestication,‟ said Dr. Groves. In his opinion, humans domesticated dogs and dogs
domesticated humans.
Dr. Groves repealed an assertion made as early as 1914 that humans have some of the same
physical characteristics as domesticated animals, the most notable being decreased brain size.
The horse experienced a 16 percent reduction in brain size after domestication while pigs‟ brains
shrank by as much as 34 percent. The estimated brain-size reduction in domesticated dogs varies
from 30 percent to 10 percent. Only in the last decade have archaeologists uncovered enough
fossil evidence to establish that brain capacity in humans declined in Europe and Africa by at
least 10 percent beginning about 10,000 years ago. Dr. Groves believes this reduction may have
taken place as the relationship between humans and dogs intensified. The close interaction

pg. 21
JM English

between the two species allowed for the diminishing of certain human brain functions like smell
and hearing.

Questions 1-5
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer of the passage?
Write:
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
1. The co-existence of wolves and humans began 10,000 years ago.
2. Dogs, wolves, jackals and coyotes share a common ancestor.
3. Wolves are a protected species in most parts of the world.
4. Dogs evolved from wolves which chose to live with humans.
5. Dogs probably influenced the development of human hunting skills.

Questions 6-8
Choose the correct letter A-D.
6. How do we know that dogs have been more successful in evolutionary terms than wolves?
A. Dogs can be trained more easily than wolves.
B. Wolves are stronger than dogs.
C. Humans prefer dogs to wolves.
D. There are more dogs than wolves today.
7. As a result of domestication, the size of the human brain has ...
A. increased.
B. decreased.
C. stayed the same.
D. become more complex.
8. What can we infer from the studies of brain size and domestication?
A. Domestic life is less demanding than surviving in the wild.
B. Animals like living with humans.
C. Domestication has made animals physically weaker.
D. Pigs are less intelligent than dogs.

Question 9
Choose TWO WORDS from the passage for the answer.
There are many different types of dogs today, because, in early times humans began to 9.
……….. their animals for the characteristics they wanted.

Questions 10-14
Match one of the researchers (A-C) to each of the findings (10-14) below.
A Dr. Wayne
B Dr. Paxton
C Dr. Groves
Example: found the common ancestor of the dog A

pg. 22
JM English

10. ………..studied the brain size of domesticated animals

11. ………..claims that wolves chose to interact with humans
12. ………..established a new time frame for domestication of wolves
13. ……….. believes that dogs and humans domesticated each other
14. ……….. studied the DNA of wolves and dogs

READING PASSAGE 2
Crop Circles
The crop circle phenomenon has puzzled and mystified humanity for many years. The designs
just appear, placed carefully in fields of food grains. Some are larger than football fields and
highly complex in design and construction. Others are smaller and more primitive. We call them
crop circles, but many of them are not circular. Some are elongated abstract designs, a few
resemble insects or other known forms, and some are mixtures of lines, circles, and other shapes
melded into intricate patterns. Most become visible overnight, though it has been claimed that a
few have appeared within a half-hour in broad daylight.
Crop circles have appeared all over the world. About 10,000 instances from various countries
have been reported in recent years. The first modern rash of crop circles appeared in Australia in
December of 1973. A strange circular imprint appeared in a wheat field near Wokurna, a
community southeast of Adelaide. Soon seven swirled circles up to 14 feet in diameter appeared
in an oatfield nearby. In December of 1989, an amazing set of circles, ranging from a few inches
to a few feet in diameter appeared in the wheat best west of Melbourne. As many as 90 crop
circles were found. The best documented and largest modern spread of crop circles began
in southern England during the summer of 1980. By the end of 1988, 112 new circles had been
formed. At that time circles were being reported worldwide, 305 by the end of 1989. The total
grew to an outstanding 1,000 newly -formed circles in 1990. In 1991,200 to 300 circles were
reported. Crop circles have been documented in over 30 countries, including Canada, the former
Soviet Union Japan and the United States.
Nine out of ten circles remained simple with broken stems flattened to the ground and swirled.
The stalks around the circles remained completely erect. But over the years, crop circles have
become much more geometrically intricate. Patterns involved multiple circles, bars, triangles,
rings and spurs. Pictorial imagery also appeared. Reliable eyewitnesses have reported seeing
unusual lights and hearing unidentifiable sounds while on an early-morning walk in the
countryside where a crop circle showed later that day. High-pitched, warbling, noises have been
recorded at the site of some crop circles. On several occasions a strange glow or a
darker colouring has been seen in the sky over a crop circle. And in more than one instance, the
electrical power of small planes flying overhead has been cut off abruptly. While the causal
energies do not seem to harm animals or even insects as far as we can tell, wild creatures tend to
avoid the circles. Flocks of birds have been seen to split apart and fly around the perimeter rather
than go directly over a crop circle formation.
Researchers have spent a great deal of time investigating different aspects of crop circles. They
try to detect traces of human involvement in the circle-making, test the area of the circle itself for
geophysical anomalies, and analyze the field's grain both from within and outside the circles,
searching for differences.
Dr. W. C. Levengood of BLT Research in Cambridge, Massachusetts, has analyzed many grain
samples and confirmed, time after time, significant changes at the cellular level of crop circle

pg. 23
JM English

plants. The plants front the circles have elongated cells and blown-out growth nodes. Seeds front
the circle plants often show accelerated growth rates when they are sown, and in some instances,
quite different-looking plants result. In many instances it appears that a vortex-like energy causes
the plants to swirl down, flattening the design into the land. Whatever this energy is, it does not
generally inhibit the plants' growth. They continue to show normal response to the sun, raising
upward over several days following the appearance of the circle. Michael Chorost of Duke
University found occasions of short-lived radionuclides in the top layer of soil in some of the
formations. A British government laboratory found diminished nitrogen and decreased nematode
populations as well as decreased water con-lent in the soil of a formation. Researchers have
discovered other anomalies as well, such us curious embedded magnetic particles and charred
tissue. Some of the plant stalks within the circles show evidence of being exposed lo rapid
microwave heating.
Scientists have attempted to explain crop circles as a result of natural processes. One popular
theory accepted by many mainstream scientists and academics, is known as 'Plasma Vortex
Theory'. Developed by Dr. Terence Mearden, it theorizes that electrified air (plasma), on the side
of hills, becomes mini-tornadoes and screws down onto the ground, creating the circles. The
theory also holds that the electrified air would cause a light to appear above the circle and
therefore account for UFO sightings. Although this theory still has considerable support, it has
come under lire because of the highly intricate and complex crop circle patterns that have
appeared since 1991. Another theory is that the circles are all hoaxes or practical jokes. Major
support came to this theory when, on September 9, 1991, two Englishmen claimed to
have created approximately 250 crop circles. However, those circles were more rugged than
others, and many were already suspect. It is irrational to believe that all crop circles are fake for
publicity or other reasons. Many crop circles appeared long before the phenomenon pained large
recognition from the public and press. Too many circles and patterns are formed each year in too
many countries for them to have been hoaxes. Many crop circles show strange mathematical
trails when analyzed.
The crop circle phenomenon is an enigma. Many dollars have been spent by re-searchers and
their associations in an attempt to find a solution to this intriguing puzzle which will continue to
haunt humanity until an explanation is found

Questions 15-19
Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer of this passage?
Write:
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
15. Crop circles only appear in wheat fields.
16. Crop circles have never been documented in tropical countries.
17. The largest number of crop circle reporting in a single year occurred in 1990.
18. The patterns of crop circles have become increasingly complex over the years.
19. All crop circles are hoaxes.

Questions 20-23

pg. 24
JM English

Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Since the early 1970s, over ten thousand crop circles have been reported around the world, the
greatest number in 20. ……….. where in a single year, over one hundred circles appeared.
Phenomena such as the appearance of strange lights and unusual 21. ……….. sometimes
occur around the sites of crop circles.
22. ……….. are not affected but it has been observed that birds 23. ……….. flying over a
formation.

Questions 24-27
Use the information in the text to match one scientist (A-C) with each area of study (24-27) listed
below.
A Dr. Mearden
B Dr. Levengood
C Michael Chorost
Example: observations of light in relation to crop circles A
24. changes in the structure of soil within crop circles
25. accelerated growth of seeds from crop circles
26. electrical charges in the air around crop circles
27. changes in cell structure of plants found in crop circles

READING PASSAGE 3
Are these two reporters on the same planet?
An essay by scientist, educator and environmentalist, Dr. David Suzuki
A number of books, articles and television programs have disputed the reality of the claimed
hazards of global warming, overpopulation, deforestation and ozone depletion. Two newspaper
commentaries show the profound differences of opinion on critical issues affecting the planet.
The first, by Robert Kaplan, has generated both fear and denial. Entitled The Coming
Anarchy, the report paints a horrifying picture of the future for humanity. The author suggests
that the terrible consequences of the conjunction between exploding human population and
surrounding environmental degradation are already visible in Africa and parts of Southeast Asia.
As society is destabilised by the AIDS epidemic, government control evaporates, national
borders crumble beneath the pressure of environmental refugees and local populations revert to
tribalism to settle old scores or defend against fleeing masses and bands of stateless nomads on
the move.
Kaplan believes what he has seen in Africa and Southeast Asia is the beginning of a global
pattern of disintegration of social, political and economic infrastructure under the impact of
ecological degradation, population pressure and disease. As ecosystems collapse, this scenario
could sweep the planet, first in Eastern Europe and then the industrialised countries. It is a
frightening scenario, built on a serious attempt to project the aftermath of ecological destruction.
It comes from a core recognition that the planet is finite and consumption has vast social,
political and economic ramifications. It has also generated a great deal of discussion and
controversy.

pg. 25
JM English

Marcus Gee pronounces Kaplan‟s vision „dead wrong‟ in a major article headlined Apocalypse
Deferred. Attacking the „doomsayers‟, Gee counters with the statistics favoured by believers in
the limitless benefits and potential of economic growth. Citing the spectacular improvements in
human health, levels of education and literacy, availability of food and length of life even in the
developing world, Gee pronounces the fivefold increase in the world economy since 1950 as the
cause of this good news. He does concede that immense problems remain, from ethnic
nationalism to tropical deforestation to malnutrition to cropland losses but concludes that
Kaplan has exaggerated many of the crises and thus missed the broad pattern of progress.
Focusing on statistics of the decline in child mortality and the rise in longevity, food production
and adult literacy, Gee reaches the conclusion that things have never been better. Economic
indicators, such as the rise in gross world product and total exports show 'remarkable sustained
and dramatic progress'. Life for the majority of the world's citizens is getting steadily better in
almost every category.'
Gee's conclusions rest heavily on economic indicators. He points out the annual 3.9 percent rise
in the global economy and the more than doubling of the gross output per person that has
occurred for the past thirty years. World trade has done even better, growing by 6 percent of a
product's price in 1947 to 5 percent today.
Gee skips lightly over such facts as third world debt and the daily toll of 22,000 child deaths
from easily preventable disease. He also fails to mention that during this period the gulf between
rich and poor countries has increased. He does acknowledge the threats of loss of topsoil and
forests, pollution of the air and contamination of water. However, he concludes
that there is little evidence they are serious enough to hall or even reverse human progress. Gee
challenges the notion of a population crisis since there have never been as many people so well
off. Furthermore, he suggests there will never be a limit to population because more people
means more Einsteins to keep making life better.
Gee's outlook rests on a tiny minority of scientists who have faith in the boundless potential of
science and technology to overcome the physical constraints of air, water and soil so that a much
larger population can be sustained. His final proof? -the general rise in living standards along
with population growth. But the relationship between changes in living standards and population
is a correlation, not proof of causal connection. Gee is ignoring basic economic as well as
scientific reality.
If we inherit a hank account with a thousand dollars that earns 5% interest annually, we could
withdraw fifty dollars or less each year forever However, suppose we start to increase our
withdrawals, say up to sixty dollars, then seventy dollars and more each year. For many years the
account would yield cash. But it would be foolish to conclude that we could keep drawing more
from the account indefinitely. Yet that is what Gee believes. As ocean fisheries around the world
show, we are using up the ecological capital of the planet (biodiversity, air. water, soil)
rather than living off the interest. It is a dangerous deception to believe that the human-created
artifice called economies can keep the indicators rising as the life support systems of the planet
continue to decline.
The value system that dominates most of the popular media promotes the delusion that resources
and the economy can continue to expand indefinitely. It also blinds the public to the urgency and
credibility of warnings that an environmental crisis confronts us.

Questions 28-33

pg. 26
JM English

Use the information in the passage to match the people (A-C) with the opinions (28-33) listed
below.
There may be more than one correct answer.
Example: Environmental challenges will be met by technological advances B
28. Our patterns of consumption are using up the ecological capital of the planet.
29. Crises beginning in the Third World will spread to developed countries.
30. Scientific progress will enable the planet to sustain increased population.
31. Social and political infrastructure worldwide could collapse.
32. Earth‟s life support systems are at critical risk.
33. Environmental problems are not a threat to progress.
A R. Kaplan, author of The Coming Anarchy
B M. Gee, author of Apocalypse Deferred
C D. Suzuki, author of this passage

Questions 34-36
Choose ONE phrase pom the list below (A-G) to complete each of the following sentences.
There are more phrases than questions so you will not use all of them.
34. The growth of world trade
35. The relationship between population and standard of living
36. Natural resources and the economy

List of Phrases
A. have most benefited developing countries
B. has led to a drop in the standard of living generally
C. cannot continue to expand indefinitely
D. have decreased third world debt
E. shows a correlation, not cause and effect
F. pose a threat to human progress
G. has been accompanied by a fall in tariffs

Questions 37-40
Choose the correct letter A-D.
37. Which of the following is NOT stated by Kaplan as a key contributing factor to potential
global destabilisation?
A. political corruption
B. collapse of ecosystems
C. population explosion
D. malnutrition and disease
38. What is the main source of Gee‟s optimism?
A. scientific and technological advances
B. decreasing Third World debt
C. the rise in the standard of living worldwide
D. economic growth
39. Which of the following can we infer about the views of the author of this passage?

pg. 27
JM English

A. He disagrees with both Gee and Kaplan.

B. He supports the views of Gee.
C. His views are closer to those of Kaplan.
D. He thinks both Gee and Kaplan are right.
40. The main purpose of the author in this passage is ...
A. to alert us to an environmental crisis.
B. to educate the media.
C. to create uncertainty about the future.
D. to challenge current economic theory.

pg. 28
JM English

TEST 4
READING PASSAGE 1
Lake Vostok
A. Beneath the white blanket of Antarctica lies half a continent of virtually uncharted territory -
an area so completely hidden that scientists have little clue what riches await discovery.
Recently, Russian and British glaciologists identified an immense lake - one of Earth‟s largest
and deepest - buried beneath 4,000 meters of ice immediately below Russia‟s Vostok Station.
B. As details have emerged, a growing number of scientists are showing interest, with dozens of
investigators keen to explore the feature, known as Lake Vostok. A thick layer of sediment at the
bottom of the lake could hold novel dues to the planet‟s climate going back lens of millions of
years. By looking at the ratio of different oxygen isotopes, scientists should be able to trace how
Earth‟s temperature changed over the millennia. NASA has expressed interest in Lake Vostok
because of its similarity to Europa. This moon of Jupiter appears to have a water ocean covered
by a thick ice sheet, measuring perhaps tens of kilometers in depth. If hydrothermal vents exist
beneath the ice, chemical reactions on Europa could have created the molecular building blocks
for life, if not life itself. Vostok would be an ideal testing ground for technology that would
eventually fly to Europa or places even more distant, say many scientists. Though cheap
compared with a Europan mission, any expedition to Vostok would represent a significant
investment.
C. Vostok Station holds the uncomfortable distinction of having recorded the coldest temperature
on Earth. Thermometers there measured in July 1983, and the average temperature hovers
around -55ºC. It‟s the thick ice, strangely, that enables a lake to survive in such a frozen
environment. The 4 kilometers of ice acts effectively as an insulating blanket protecting the
bedrock underneath the ice from the cold temperatures above. Geothermal heat coming from the
planet‟s interior keeps the lake from freezing and warms the lowest layers of ice. The
tremendous weight of the ice sheet also plays a role in maintaining the lake. Beneath 4
kilometers of glacier, the pressure is intense enough to melt ice at a temperature of -4°C. These
factors have helped lakes develop across much of the thickly blanketed East Antarctica. More
ore than 70 hidden lakes have been detected in the small portion of the continent to date. Lake
Vostok is the largest of these, stretching 280km from south to north and some 60 km from east to
west. At Vostok station, which sits at the southern end of the lake, the water depth appears to be
500m according to seismic experiments carried out by Russian researchers.
D. The first clues to Lake Vostok‟s existence came in the 1970s, when British, U.S., and Danish
researchers collected radar observations by flying over this region. The radar penetrates the ice
and bounces off whatever sits below. When researchers found a surface as flat as a mirror, they
surmised that a lake must exist underneath the ice. An airborne survey of the lake is being
undertaken, the first step toward eventually drilling into the water. Along with the potential
rewards come a host of challenges. Researchers must find a way to penetrate the icy covering
without introducing any microorganisms or pollutants into the sealed-off water.
E. What about life in the depths? If tiny microbes do populate the lake, they may be some of the
hungriest organisms ever discovered. Lake Vostok has the potential to be one of the most
energy-limited, or oligotrophic, environments on the planet. For the lake‟s residents, the only
nutrients would come from below. Russian investigators have speculated that the lake floor may
have hot springs spewing out hydrothermal fluids stocked with reduced metals and other sorts of
chemical nutrients. Scant geological evidence available for this region, however, indicates that

pg. 29
JM English

the crust is old and dead. Without a stream of nutrients seeping up from the deep Earth, the only
potential source of energy lies above the lake. The ice sheet above the water is creeping from
west to east at a rate of roughly four meters per year. The lowermost layers of ice melt when they
come in contact with the lake, liberating trapped gases and bits of crushed-up rock. If the glacier
recently passed over rock before reaching the lake, it could be supplying organic compounds
useful to microorganisms. It also could be seeding the lake with a continuous source of new
residents. Bacteria, yeasts, fungi, algae and even pollen grains have been found in the Vostok ice
core samples taken down to depths of 2,750m - three quarters of the way to the bottom. At least
some of these organisms are alive and capable of growing, according to recent reports. The
results of this analysis may indirectly indicate whether anything survives in the lightless body of
water.

Questions 1-4
The passage has 5 sections A-E.
Choose the most suitable heading for sections B-E from the list of headings below.
Write the appropriate numbers (i-viii).
There are more headings than sections so you will not use all of them.
List of Headings
i Cost of exploration
ii Location and description of the lake
iii Potential for living organisms in the lake
iv Challenges of exploration
v Discovery of the lake
vi Possible sources of nutrients to support life
vii Types of organisms in the lake
viii Scientific interest in Lake Vostok
Example:
Section A v
1. Section B: ………..
2. Section C: ………..
3. Section D: ………..
4. Section E: ………..

Questions 5-6
Choose the correct letter A-D.
5. Which is NOT given as a reason for interest in exploring Lake Vostok?
A. to test technology for space exploration
B. to develop anti-pollution devices
C. to investigate the history of Earth‟s climate
D. to look for living organisms
6. Lake Vostok does not freeze because ...
A. a thick ice cover provides insulation.
B. it is warmed by heat from the earth‟s surface.
C. low pressure prevents freezing.

pg. 30
JM English

D. an underwater volcano erupted recently.

Questions 7-13
Do the following statements reflect the claims of the author?
Write:
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
7. Only one lake has been found beneath Antarctica.
8. Lake Vostok was detected by radar.
9. Exploration of Lake Vostok is coordinated by Russia.
10. Nutrients to support life have been found in the Antarctic ice.
11. The ice above the lake is moving to the east.
12. Scientists have drilled through the ice into the water of Lake Vostok.
13. The water in the lake is approximately 500 in deep at the southern end.

READING PASSAGE 2
The Cells From Hell
Recently, an international team of biologists met to discuss what they believe is a global crisis in
the sudden appearance of strange marine microorganisms capable of poisoning not just fish but
people too.
In the mid-1980s, fishermen in North Carolina, on the eastern coast of the United States, began
complaining about mysterious fish kills. They were convinced that pollution was responsible but
nobody would listen. That changed in 1988 after an accident at. a research center. Tank after
tank of fish suddenly died. Researchers spotted an unknown microorganism in the water. It was
later named pfiesteria.
Pfiesteria belongs to a prehistoric group of algae that are part plant, part animal. They are called
dinoflagellates after the liny whips or flagella that propel them through the wafer. Magnified a
thousand limes they are some of the strangest and most beautiful creatures in the sea. They are at
the bottom of the food chain but, to deter fish from swallowing them, some have evolved
powerful toxins.
As the researchers were to discover, pfiesteria doesn‟t just discourage fish. It actively hunts
them, then eats them. Fish are one of its preferred foods but one of the intriguing things about
pfiesteria is that it will eat everything from bacteria to dead plant and animal remains all the way
up to mammalian tissues. So its food spans the entire food web of an estuary. Gradually the
researchers realised that nothing in the water was safe from pfiesteria. It could harm humans too.
A mis-directed air-conditioning duct from a room containing the toxins nearly killed one of the
researchers. He suffered a host of symptoms ranging from profuse sweating, tingling hands and
feet, to liver and kidney problems, as well as memory
As the research intensified, some startling discoveries were made. In tanks, pfiesteria was quite
content to behave like a plant and photosynthesize. However, when fish were added, a dramatic
transformation occurred, pfiesteria switched to attack mode. In a matter of minutes it changed
shape and secreted a toxin. The fish quickly became disorientated and within five minutes all
were dead. Pfiesteria changed shape again and devoured them. When it had had its fill, it
vanished. No one had ever seen an organism do this.

pg. 31
JM English

Initially scientists believed this was part of a natural cycle, but on closer examination, it seemed
pollution was to blame. When the water containing the biggest fish kills was analysed, scientists
found high levels of pollution. But this is just one of the factors that can boost the transformation
in pfiesteria. Others include large numbers of fish travelling together which feed in poorly
flushed places with a lot of algae to eat and other rich food sources. That is the perfect habitat for
pfiesteria.
But pfiesteria is not the only concern. In the oceans all around the world similar kinds of algae
are now materialising and turning toxic. In the last decade these algal blooms¹ have poisoned
sea-lions in California, caused catastrophic fish kills in the Pacific, the Mediterranean and the
North Sea, and devastated the shellfish industry in New Zealand. Researchers from forty-seven
nations met recently to share the latest information about harmful algal blooms. They heard
about new kinds of toxins and discussed possible links between algae and whale standings. But
what dominated the proceedings was news that toxic algae are spreading to new shores in ballast
water carried by ships.
That may have already happened in Australian waters. A tuna kill in 1996 cost fish farmers an
estimated $45 million. The official explanation was that a storm was to blame. But there were
also reports of orange-brown streaks in the water. When a water sample was examined, it was
found to be teeming with an alga never before seen in Australia, called chattonella. The same
chattonella killed half a billion dollars‟ worth of fish in Japan in 1972.
This toxin was also present in the livers of the dead tuna. Despite this powerful evidence, the
official explanation remains that a storm was the killer. However, in Japan this was a prime
example of an algal bloom induced by the waste products of the aquaculture industry itself, and
of course that is not something that the tuna industry wants to hear.
It is clear that chattonella is present in Australian waters. But there is little knowledge of what
else may surface or where it may have come from. What is of greater concern is that, in Australia
and around the world, there is a reluctance to acknowledge that it is human activity which is
triggering the transformation of normally benign organisms into increasingly dangerous forms. If
we continue to mismanage the way nutrients and pollutants are released into the environment, we
will have to confront new versions of the cells from hell.
Glossary
¹ algal bloom: The rapid growth under specific conditions, of minute aquatic plants

Questions 14-17
Complete the summary below.
Choose your answers from the box below the summary.
There are more words than you need so you will not use all of them.
Pfiesteria is a microorganism (Example) with some unusual characteristics. Under
normal conditions, it acts like a 14. ……… but it has also developed powerful 15. ……… as a
defence against being eaten by fish.
When the fish are disabled and killed by the neurotoxins, the organism 16. ……… them and it
17. ……… afterward.
List of Words
jaws grows animal
kills eats poisons

pg. 32
JM English

plant disappears microorganism

bacteria fish dies

Questions 18-21
Fill in the blanks with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage.
Conditions which favour the growth of toxic algae include high levels of 18. ……… and 19.
……… fish feeding together.
Research scientists at the international conference learned about 20. ……… toxic algae and
how they are spreading around the world in water 21. ……… .

Questions 22-26
Classify the following as:
A caused by pfiesteria
B caused by chattonella
C caused by an unidentified micro-organism
Example: Serious illness of researcher A
22. death of sea-lions off the coast of California (1990s)
23. fish kill in Japan (1972)
24. shellfish industry losses in New Zealand (1990s)
25. tuna industry losses in Australia (1990s)
26. fish kill in North Carolina (1980s)

READING PASSAGE 3
Mystery of the mummies
In 1992, a German scientist made a discovery which was to upset whole areas of scientific study
from history and archaeology to chemistry and botany. Dr. Svetlana Balabanova, a forensic
specialist, was performing tissue tests on an Egyptian mummy, part of a German museum
collection. The mummified remains were of a woman named Henut-Taui who had died over
3,000 years ago. Amazingly, the tests revealed that her body contained large quantities of
cocaine and nicotine. Dr. Balabanova had regularly used the same testing methods to convict
people of drug consumption but she had not expected to find nicotine and cocaine in an Ancient
Egyptian mummy. It is generally accepted that these two plants, native to the Americas, did not
exist on other continents prior to European exploration.
Dr. Balabanova repeated the tests then sent out fresh samples to three other labs. When the
results came back positive, she published a paper with two other scientists. If Balabanova was
shocked by the results of her tests, she was even more shocked at the hostile response to her
publication. She received many insulting letters, accusing her of fraud.
There were two explanations that came immediately to mind. One was that something in the tests
could have given a false result. The second was that the mummies tested were not truly Ancient
Egyptian. Perhaps they were relatively modern bodies, containing traces of cocaine. Dr.
Balabanova then examined tissue from 134 naturally preserved bodies over a thousand years old
discovered in an excavated cemetery in the Sudan. About a third of them tested positive for
nicotine or cocaine.

pg. 33
JM English

But something had happened even earlier which should have initiated serious discussion. In
1976, the mummified remains of Ramses II arrived in Paris for repair work. Dr. Michelle Lescot
of the Natural History Museum (Paris) was looking at sections of bandages and within the fibres
found a plant fragment. When she checked it under a microscope, she was amazed to discover
that the plant was tobacco. Fearing that she had made some mistake, she repeated her tests again
and again with the same result every time: a New World plant had been found on an Old World
mummy. The results caused a sensation in Europe. Was it possible that a piece of tobacco had
been dropped by chance from the pipe of some forgotten archaeologist? Dr. Lescot responded to
this charge of contamination by carefully extracting new samples from the abdomen, with the
entire process recorded on film. These samples, which could not be „droppings‟, were then
tested. Once again they were shown to be tobacco. The discovery of tobacco fragments in the
mummified body of Ramses II should have had a profound influence upon our whole
understanding of the relationship between Ancient Egypt and America but this piece of evidence
was simply ignored. It raised too many questions and was too far outside of commonly accepted
scientific views.
So now the question had returned. Could Ancient Egyptian trade have stretched all the way
across the Atlantic Ocean? This was an idea so unbelievable it could only be considered after all
other possibilities had been eliminated. Could Egyptians have obtained imports from a place
thousands of miles away, from a continent supposedly not discovered until thousands of years
later? Was it possible that coca - a plant from South America - had found its way to Egypt 3,000
years ago? If the cocaine found in mummies could not be explained by contamination, or fake
mummies or by Egyptian plants containing it, there appeared to be another interesting
possibility: a trade route with links all the way to the Americas.
The Egyptians did make great efforts to obtain incense and other valuable plants used in
religious ceremonies and herbal medicines, but to the majority of archaeologists, the idea is
hardly worth talking about. Professor John Baines, an Egyptologist from Oxford University,
states: „I don‟t think it is at all likely that there was an ancient trade network that included
America. The essential problem with any such idea is that there are no artefacts found either in
Europe or in America.‟ But other experts aren‟t so sure. Professor Martin Bernal, an historian
from Cornell University, says, „We‟re getting more and more evidence of world trade at an
earlier stage. You have the Chinese silk definitely arriving in Egypt by 1000 BC.‟ In his opinion,
it is arrogance on the part of modern people to believe that a transoceanic trading network could
only have been set up in recent times.
The discoveries in mummies from Egypt and Sudan have challenged conventional beliefs. It is
no longer possible to exclude the hypothesis of transoceanic trade in ancient times. The tale of
Henut-Taui and the story of Ramses II show that, in science, facts can be rejected if they don‟t fit
with our beliefs, while what is believed to be proven, may actually be uncertain. It is
understandable then, how a story of a scientist, a few mummies and some routine tests, could
upset whole areas of knowledge we thought we could take for granted.

Questions 27-29
Choose the correct letter A-D.
27. What most surprised Dr. Balabanova about her discovery?
A. the presence of drugs in the mummies
B. the fact that the plants originated in the western hemisphere
C. the positive results of tests on other mummies

pg. 34
JM English

D. the hostile reaction of the scientific community

28. Which of the following was ruled out by Dr. Lescot‟s investigation?
A. Tobacco had been dropped onto the mummy.
B. Tobacco grew in Ancient Egypt.
C. Chemicals produced false test results.
D. The mummies were fake.
29. Why was the discovery of tobacco in the body of Ramses II ignored?
A. Contamination was suspected.
B. The evidence raised difficult questions.
C. The tests produced false results.
D. The researcher was a woman.

Questions 30-34
Match ONE of the researchers (A-D) to each of the statements (30-34) below.
There may be more than one correct answer.
30. first to find a substance from the Americas in a mummy
31. argues against transoceanic trade because of lack of evidence
32. had to defend against attacks on research methodology
33. gives evidence of extensive Egyptian trade in ancient times
34. publication of research results was controversial

A Dr. Svetlana Balabanova

B Dr. Michelle Lescot
C Professor John Baines
D Professor Martin Bernal.

Questions 35-39
Do the following statements reflect the opinions of the writer in the passage?
Write:
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
35. There is proof that tobacco was grown in Ancient Egypt.
36. Trade routes across the Atlantic Ocean may have existed thousands of years ago.
37. Ancient Egyptians were great ship builders.
38. The scientific community generally rejects the idea of contact between Ancient Egypt and
the Americas.
39. The unusual test results could have come from „qat‟, a plant native to North Africa.

Question 40
Choose the correct letter A-D.
What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Experimental research often gives false results.

pg. 35
JM English

B. Long-held beliefs can be challenged by new information.

C. The scientific community is conservative by nature.
D. Ideas which don‟t fit our belief system must be wrong.

pg. 36
JM English

TEST 5
READING PASSAGE 1
Sleeping on the job
North Americans are not a people of the siesta. There is a tendency to associate afternoon naps
with laziness and non-productivity. Latin Americans and some in European cultures take a
different view. In Mexico and Greece, for example, it is customary in close businesses between
noon and about 4:00 pm - siesta time. Recent studies are showing that if you can take a 15 to 30-
minute nap while at work in the afternoon, you‟ll be more alert, more energetic, happier doing
what you do, more productive and therefore more likely to get ahead. Napping on the job is not
yet a trend but there is serious talk in academic circles about the merits of „power napping‟.
By some estimate, the average American collects an annual 'sleep debt' of 500 hours -
subtracting from an assumed norm of eight hours a night. Two out of three Americans get less
than eight hours of sleep a night during the work week, according to a recent study by the
National Sleep Foundation in Washington. Forty percent say they're so tired that it interferes
with their daily activities. Sleep researcher William Anthony, a professor of psychology at
Boston University, says fatigue is a significant problem in modern society. he says sleepiness is a
leading cause of auto accidents, second only to drunkenness. All that drowsiness costs an
estimated &18 billion annually in lost productivity. 'We have a simple message,' says Professor
Anthony. 'People should be allowed to nap at their breaks. The rationale is a productivity one -
workers are sleepy, and when they're sleepy on the job they‟re not productive.'
Some companies are encouraging sleep at work, primarily for safety. The Metropolitan Transit
Authority, which runs the New York subway system and two suburban railroads, is considering
power naps for its train operators and bus drivers. Another railway has started letting its train
operators take nap breaks of up to 45 minutes but only when trains are stopped at
designated spots off the main lines and dispatchers have been notified. Some overseas air carriers
permit airline pilots, when not on duty, to nap in the cockpit. Airlines in the United States have
not accepted this practice yet.
According to the Encyclopedia of Sleep and Dreaming: 'There is a biologically-based tendency
to fall asleep in mid-afternoon just as there is a tendency to fall asleep at night. Moreover, if
sleep the night before is reduced or disturbed for any reason, a nap the subsequent afternoon is
not only more likely to occur, but it can also relieve sleepiness and increase alertness.‟ The nap
zone, documented in numerous studies, is typically between noon and 3:00 pm. Some people
power through this natural slowdown with caffeine or sugar but if employers allowed naps, the
benefits would be improvements in mood and performance, especially in mid-afternoon.
Workers would concentrate better and persevere in tasks longer. Workers commonly sneak naps
even without permission but some companies have begun encouraging naps as part of their
policies on boosting production. One US distributor, is opening a 2,000-square-foot nap facility
that provides beds for up to 20 of its 225 workers at a time. A company in Japan sets up tents in
business offices provides eyeshades and ear plugs and encourages employees to snooze in the
middle of the work day. According to Professor Anthony, 'You're not going to see napping at
traditional types of operations ... but in 21st century-style operations, this isn‟t going to be a
perk. It‟s going to have more to do with productivity. Smart employers are understanding that
their employees need rest to do their best.‟
Some suspect that corporate naptime, like other perks, is just a way to keep people at the office
longer. On the other hand, growing flexibility in hours, for some workers, is allowing nap times
to become more common. With eleven million Americans telecommuting and another forty

pg. 37
JM English

million winking out of their bonus full- or part-time, office hours are basically as long as you can
stay awake. One thing is sure: longer commutes, more intense, stressful workday and higher
production demands are taking a toll. So, with Americans sleeping, less and working, longer
hours, some employers are warming up to the idea that a little nap in the middle of the day can
be good for business.
Question 1
Circle the correct answer A-D.
According to the passage, which of the following statements is supported by recent research?
A. Napping is an indicator of laziness.
B. Two thirds of Americans sleep too much.
C. Napping in the workplace is a current trend.
D. Short naps at work increase productivity.

Questions 2-6
Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer in Passage 1?
Write:
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
2. The number one cause of car accidents is fatigue.
3. People who nap in the afternoon are lazy.
4. A nap in the middle of the day can improve your mood.
5. People who nap regularly live longer.
6. The majority of Americans sleep at least eight hours a night.

Questions 7-9
Choose one phrase from the list in the box (A-F) to complete each of the following sentences.
7. Humans are biologically programmed to ...
8. Employees of some progressive companies are encouraged to ...
9. Traditional employers are likely to ...
10. Drink coffee to stay awake during the afternoon
List of phrases
A. drink coffee to stay awake during the afternoon
B. have a nap during breaks
C. fall asleep when they are bored
D. sneak naps without permission
E. resist the trend toward napping
F. fall asleep in the afternoon

Questions 10-11
Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage.
In the transportation, industry napping is a matter of 10. …………..
On some airlines, pilots can sleep in the cockpit if 11. …………..

Questions 12-13

pg. 38
JM English

Circle the correct answer A-D.

12. According to the writer, in America the workplace is becoming ...
A. less flexible.
B. more exciting.
C. less demanding.
D. more stressful.
13. According to the writer, what is the main reason why employers support the idea of naps at
work?
A. for health reasons
B. to promote safety
C. to increase productivity
D. to encourage creativity

READING PASSAGE 2
Homeopathy
A. Homeopathy is an alternative system of medicine, founded in the early 19th century by a
German physician, Dr. Samuel Hahnemann. Since 1980, homeopathy has experienced a
strong resurgence of interest in North and South America as well as in Europe. Surveys
indicate that more than a third of French physicians have prescribed homeopathic remedies
and almost 50 percent of British physicians have referred patients for homeopathic
treatment.
B. Hahnemann‟s discovery of the principle of homeopathy was accidental. After taking some
quinine, he noticed that he developed malaria-like symptoms. Since malaria patients were
treated with quinine, he speculated that possibly malaria is cured by quinine because it
causes malaria-like symptoms in healthy people. He decided to explore his theory by testing
other substances used as medicine at the time, such as arsenic and belladonna. His tests were
conducted by either taking the substances internally himself or by administering them to
healthy volunteers and then recording all of the symptoms the volunteers experienced. He
continued his experiments on a wide range of natural substances, often toxic. These
recorded results created „drug pictures‟ which formed the basis for the new system of
medicine. The next step was to give the tested substances to patients suffering from the
same group of symptoms represented by the drug picture recorded. The results were
incredible. People were being cured from diseases that had never been cured before. He
condensed his theory into a single Latin phrase: similia similibus curentur (let likes be cured
by likes). This means that a disease can be cured by a medicine which produces in a healthy
person, symptoms similar to those experienced by the patient.
C. The process of making remedies is very precise. A homeopathic remedy is normally a single
substance. The substances may be made from plants, minerals and even animals, for
example snake venom and cuttlefish ink. To make remedies, the raw material is dissolved in
a mixture that contains approximately 90% alcohol and 10% water. The mixture is left to
stand for 2 to 4 weeks, shaken occasionally then strained. The resulting liquid or tincture is
then diluted according to very specific measures to a factor of 1:100. For example, to
produce a remedy called 1c potency or strength, one drop of the tincture is added to 99
drops of alcohol/water mixture. To produce a 2c potency, one drop of the 1c mixture is
added to 99 drops of alcohol/water mixture. Between each mixture the remedy is shaken
vigorously. Hahnemann believed that through this process, the energy of the substance was

pg. 39
JM English

released. Once the remedy has been diluted beyond a 12c potency, it is unlikely that even a
molecule of the original substance remains. Yet, ironically, the more dilute the remedy, the
stronger it is. This makes no sense in light of present-day science but regardless of what
science tells us is impossible, in practice, the higher the dilution the stronger and more
lasting the effect.
D. It is this use of high dilutions that has given rise to controversy. Many conventional doctors
claim that homeopathy functions only as a placebo because the dosage is so small. However,
the clinical experience of homeopathy shows that this tiny dose can be effective: it works on
unconscious people and infants, and it even works on animals. Controlled clinical studies
performed by medical researchers are demonstrating that homeopathy can be an effective
method of treatment for many diseases.
E. The most important part of homeopathic treatment lies in the lengthy interview which the
homeopath conducts with the patient. The idea behind this one to two hour consultation is to
build up a psychological, emotional and physical history of the patient, to discover the
underlying patterns of disease. The homeopath then decides which medicine to prescribe
based on the closest match between the patient‟s symptoms and the known symptoms
elicited by the medicine in a healthy body. A single dose is given for the shortest period of
time necessary to stimulate the body‟s healing power.
F. How does the concept of homeopathy differ from that of conventional medicine? Very
simply, homeopathy attempts to stimulate the body to recover itself. In-stead of looking
upon the symptoms as something wrong which must be set right, the homeopath sees them
as signs of the way the body is attempting to help itself. Another basic difference between
conventional medical therapy and homeopathy is in the role of medication. In much of
conventional therapy the illness is controlled through regular use of medical substances. If
the medication is withdrawn, the person returns to illness. For example, a person who takes
a pill for high blood pressure every day is not undergoing a cure but is only controlling the
symptoms. Homeopathy‟s aim is the cure: „The complete restoration of perfect health,‟ as
Dr. Hahnemann said.
G. Homeopathy has made significant progress in treating diseases which orthodox medicine
finds difficult. Best at dealing with inflammatory conditions such as arthritis, skin
conditions, migraines and respiratory problems linked to allergies, it has also proved highly
successful at treating asthma. But homeopathy is not an appropriate treatment for
degenerative diseases such as emphysema. It cannot treat diseases which destroy tissue,
although it can still be beneficial if used in combination with other treatments. Two of the
main advantages of homeotherapy are the low cost of the medications and the rarity of
adverse reactions. The medicines are inexpensive, safe, and easy to use, so people can learn
to handle many of the common illnesses for which they currently seek medical help. The
resulting savings in costs and the increase in personal independence represent a significant
contribution to health care

Questions 14-19
The reading passage has 7 sections A-G.
Choose the most suitable headings for sections B-G from the list of headings (i-x).
There are more headings than sections so you will not use all of them
List of Headings
i The future of homeopathy

pg. 40
JM English

ii Concerns about homeopathy

iii Comparison with traditional western medicine
iv Dr. S. Hahnemann
v Theoretical and experimental basis
vi Revival of homeopathy
vii Preparation of medicines
viii Debate over effectiveness
ix Advantages and limitations of homeopathy
x Aspects of treatment
Example Answer
Section A vi
14. Section B: ……………
15. Section C: ……………
16. Section D: ……………
17. Section E: ……………
18. Section F: ……………
19. Section G: ……………

Questions 20-22
Complete the description below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Making a homeopathic remedy
The remedies come from plant, animal and mineral sources.
A single product is mixed with 20. …………… and left to stand for 2-4 weeks.
This mixture is strained to produce a tincture which can be diluted.
1 drop of this tincture is added to 99 drops of alcohol/water.
The mixture is then 21. …………… vigorously.
This produces a remedy with a potency of 1c.
As the remedy becomes more diluted, it gets 22. ……………

Questions 23-26
Complete the summary.
Choose your answers from the box below.
Homeopathy differs from conventional medicine in a number of ways. Conventional medicine
views symptoms as an indication of something wrong in the body whereas homeopathy sees
them as signs that the body is attempting to 23. ………… The uses of medication differ also.
Many types of conventional medication 24. ……… but if the medicine is taken away, the
illness returns. The intention of homeopathy is to bring about a complete cure. Homeopathic
remedies are 25. ……… than conventional medicine and have fewer 26. ………
List of Words/Phrases
cheaper cure heal itself

pg. 41
JM English

illness treatments getting better

control symptoms more expensive side effects
stronger healthy patients

READING PASSAGE 3

The Hemp Revival

The hemp plant, one of the world‟s oldest industrial resources, is back. The rediscovery of this
renewable resource is making it the fibre of choice for future textiles, personal care products,
building materials, paper and fuel.
Hemp has been grown for paper, textiles, food and medicine throughout human history. The
earliest known woven fabric, made of hemp, dates back to the eighth millennium (8000-7000
BC). The majority of all sails, clothes, tents, rugs, towels, paper, rope, twine, art canvas, paints,
varnishes and lighting oil were made from hemp. Hemp seeds were regularly used as a source of
food and protein for centuries.
Hemp‟s drastic decline in use and importance within a matter of fifty years is widely considered
to have been brought about by the timber and petrochemical industries in America. By the mid-
1930s, changes in technology were beginning to impact on the hemp industry. Mechanical
stripping equipment and machines to conserve hemp‟s high-cellulose pulp became available and
affordable. Timber and paper holding companies stood to lose billions of dollars if hemp were to
be grown on a large scale. A resurgence of the hemp industry also threatened the emerging petro-
chemical companies which had patented the chemicals for pulp processing. Newspaper articles
began to appear, linking hemp with violent crime. The term used, however, was „marijuana‟ to
distance it from hemp used for industrial purposes. Because few people realised that marijuana
and hemp came from the
same plant species, virtually nobody suspected that the Marijuana Prohibition of 1938 would
destroy the hemp industry.
Supporting the theory that marijuana was banned to destroy the hemp industry, were two articles
written just before the Marijuana Prohibition, claiming that hemp was on the verge of becoming
a super crop. These articles, which appeared in well-respected magazines, praised the usefulness
and potential of hemp. „Hemp can be used to produce more than 25,000 products‟, and
„hemp will prove, for both farmer and public, the most profitable and desirable crop that can be
grown.‟ This was the first time that „billion dollar‟ was used to describe the value of a crop. Less
than one year after these articles were written, the Marijuana Prohibition took effect. To what
extent a conspiracy was involved is still being debated, but the important thing is that for
thousands of years, hemp was used extensively. Then over a short period, it became illegal in
many parts of the world.
Now, however, the focus is on the development of hemp as an industrial resource. Initially, a
distinction needs to be made between the two types of hemp. „Cannabis has evolved into
two basic species. Plants grown for fibre and seed are universally called hemp. Cannabis grown
for its drug content is commonly called marijuana or drug cannabis. Drug-type cannabis
varies widely in THC content from approximately 1-2% in unselected strains to 10% in the best
modern varieties.‟ (as cited from Watson 1994). Hemp contains virtually none of the active
ingredients of drug-type cannabis (THC). It is not feasible to „get high‟ on hemp, and most

pg. 42
JM English

marijuana produces very low-quality fibre. Hemp should never be confused with marijuana, as
their roles cannot be reversed.
It is evident that hemp is an extraordinary fibre. Both stems and seeds can be utilised. Most
significantly, hemp can be grown without pesticides and herbicides. The plant also has the ability
to suppress weeds and soil-borne diseases. Based on the hemp industries which have been
established overseas, there is a large demand for hemp products and hemp is proving to be a
highly profitable industry. On an annual basis, one acre of hemp will produce as much libre as 2
to 3 acres of cotton. The fibre is stronger and softer than cotton, lasts twice as long and will not
mildew. Cotton grows only in warm climates and requires more water and more fertiliser than
hemp as well as large quantities of pesticide and herbicide.
Hemp can also be used to produce fibreboard that is stronger and lighter than wood, and is fire
retardant. Unlike paper from wood pulp, hemp paper contains no dioxin, or other toxic
residue, and a single acre of hemp can produce the same amount of paper as four acres of trees.
The trees take 20 years to harvest and hemp takes a single season. In warm climates hemp can be
harvested two or even three times a year. On an annual basis, one acre of hemp will produce as
much paper as 2 to 4 acres of trees. From tissue paper to cardboard, all types of paper products
can be produced from hemp. The quality of hemp paper is superior to tree-based paper. Hemp
paper will last hundreds of years without degrading and it can be recycled many more times than
tree-based paper.
Today, industrialised nations around the world are waking up to the enormous potential of hemp.
While some countries, like China and India, have never had laws against hemp cultivation,
others are legalising industrial hemp after many years of lumping it together with marijuana. The
products and fabrics that are emerging from the international hemp industry are finding strong
demand in an eco-aware global community. Hemp is indeed an agricultural crop for the twenty-
first century

Questions 27-31
Re-order the following letters (A-F) to show the sequence of events according to the passage.
A Timber and petro-chemical industries threatened
B Articles praise hemp as a potential billion dollar crop
C Widespread cultivation of hemp (Example)
D Prohibition of marijuana
E Newspaper articles link hemp to violent crime
F Development of stripping machines
The first one has been done for you as an example.

pg. 43
JM English

Questions 32-33
Complete the following using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage.
Hemp Marijuana
Fibre strong and durable 32. ……………
Drug Content 33. …………… up to 10% THC
Questions 34-39
From the information given in the passage, classify the following (34-39) as characteristic of:
A Hemp
B Wood
C Cotton
34. mildew-resistant …….
35. dioxin is a by-product of processing …….
36. can be harvested more than once a year …….
37. large amounts of fertiliser needed …….
38. fire-retardant properties …….
39. requires mild temperature …….

Question 40
Choose the correct answer A-D.
The main purpose of this article is ...

pg. 44
JM English

A. to criticise government policy on hemp.

B. to show the economic benefits of hemp.
C. to compare hemp and marijuana.
D. to promote research into new uses of hemp.

pg. 45
JM English

TEST 6
READING PASSAGE 1
Frogwatch
Frogwatch, a remarkable success story started in Western Australia, is the brainchild of Dr. Ken
Aplin. His work, as the curator of reptiles and frogs in the Western Australian Museum, invoked
long field trips and he wondered if a community-based frog-rmonitoring network could help him
keep track of frogs. Through such a network, ordinary untrained members of the community
could learn about frog habitats, observe the numbers and kinds of frogs in their local area, and
report this information to the museum.
'Launched in 1995, Frogwatch recently gained its 3221st member, and many people say that this
is the best thing the museum has ever done. Each participant receives a „Frogwatch Kit‟ - a
regular newsletter, an audio tape of frog calls and identification sheets. Recently, Frogwatch
membership increased dramatically when a mysterious parasitic fungus disease began attacking
frogs nationwide. Although research is yet incomplete, scientists suspect the fungus originated
overseas, perhaps in South America, where frogs have died in catastrophic numbers from a
fungus disease genetically similar to the Australian organism.
Researchers in Western Australia needed to know how widespread the infection was in the
state‟s frog populations. So Aplin sent an „F-file‟ (frog fungus facts) alert to Frogwatch
members, requesting their help. He asked them to deliver him dead or dying frogs. More than
2,000 frogs have now been examined, half from the museum‟s existing collection. Aplin once
thought the fungus had arrived in Western Australia in only the past year or two, but tests now
suggest it has been there since the late 1980s.
Frogwatch has proved to be Abe perfect link to the public and Aplin has become a total convert
to community participation. He‟s now aiming for a network of 15,000 Frogwatch members as the
museum can‟t afford to use professional resources to monitor frog populations. Much of the frog
habitat is on private land, and without community support, monitoring the frogs would be
impossible.
Not everyone is convinced by the „feelgood' popularity of Frogwatch. While Aplin believes even
tiny backyard ponds can help to significantly improve frog numbers, Dr. Dale Roberts isn‟t so
sure, A senior zoology lecturer at the University of WA, Roberts agrees the program has: tapped
into the public‟s enthusiasm for frogs, but he warns that strong public awareness does not
amount to sound science.
He argues that getting the public to send in pages of observations is a good thing, but giving
these reports credibility may not be valid scientifically. In addition, he‟s not convinced that
Frogwatch‟s alarmist message about the danger of fungal infection is valid either. In Western
Australia, for example, there was a long summer and very, late drenching rains, that year,
following two equally dry years. So, he argues, there are other things that might have
precipitated the deaths. He questions what could be done about it anyway. If it‟s already
widespread, it may not be worth the cost and effort of doing anything about it. Even if it‟s
causing high death rates, he says he can still find every frog species found over the past ten years
in the south-west of Australia.
Roberts argues that Western Australia is different. Unlike most other states, species are still
being discovered there; the disappearances of frog types in Queensland and New South Wales,
are not occurring in Western Australia, although three south-west species are on the endangered
list. Roberts believes that no amount of garden ponds in Perth will help those species, which live
in isolated habitats targeted for development.

pg. 46
JM English

Aplin‟s response is that increasing the number of frog-friendly habitats is important for the very
reason that many Western Australian frog species are found in small, highly restricted locations.
He argues that pesticide-free gardens and ponds can offer a greater chance of survival to animals
battling habitat disturbance, environmental pollutants, climatic variations, and now fungal
disease. Aplin‟s opinion is that they should use the precautionary principle in cases where they
don‟t yet know enough about the situation. Usually diseases sort themselves out naturally and
some frog fauna will co-evolve with the fungus. Given time some balance may be restored, but
in the shorter term, they are seeing negative impacts.
The nationwide spread of the chytrid fungus is being mapped by Dr. Rick Speare, a specialist in
amphibian disease at James Cook University. Speare also tests the accuracy of' Aplin‟s fungus
diagnoses and says Frogwatch is „an amazing and under-acknowledged system ... the best
program in Australia for harnessing public interest in frog biology... There are a lot of eyes out
there looking for dead or sick frogs, beyond the power of any biologist to collect.‟
Aplin argues that they should never underestimate the importance of' having a community base,
especially when governments want to cut research funds, „People can protest in ways that a
handful of scientists hiding in a laboratory can‟t do. For just about every environmental problem,
community involvement is fundamental.‟ Furthermore, Frogwatch is proving to be a social
phenomenon as much as anything else. It seems ordinary people know that frogs are a measure
of the environment‟s health.

Questions 1-6
Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer of the passage?
Write:
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
1. Frogwatch members need a basic level of scientific training.
2. All Frogwatch members live in Western Australia.
3. Frogwatch has proved that frogs are disappearing because of a fungus.
4. Scientists in WA have examined about two thousand frogs collected by Frogwatch.
5. The frog fungus disease has been in Western Australia for more than ten years.
6. New species of frogs have been found in Western Australia recently.

Questions 7-12
The reading passage describes the opinions of Dr, Ken Aplin, Dr. Dale Roberts and Dr. Rick
Speare in relation to strategies for frog conservation.
Match one of the researchers A-C to each of the statements below.
There may be more than one correct answer.
Write:
A - for Dr. Aplin
B - for Dr. Roberts
C - for Dr. Speare
Example: Frogwatch is the best Australian program for encouraging public interest in
frogs. A
7. Although the involvement of large numbers of people is encouraging, this does not
guarantee scientifically valid data.

pg. 47
JM English

8. The development of frog-friendly backyards will help to conserve frog species.

9. Although it is possible that frogs will adapt to fungal and other problems in the long term,
we should take precautions in case this does not occur.
10. As there may be many other explanations for recent frog deaths, it is not worth spending a
great deal of time and money studying this fungus.
11. Because of the unique geography of Western Australia,most frog species in this State are
not in danger of extinction.
12. Frogwatch has greater potential for frog observation than is possible by the scientific
community.

Question 13
Write the appropriate letter A-D.
The main purpose of Frogwatch is ...
A. for people to collect and deliver dead or dying frogs to scientists.
B. for people to observe and collect information about frog populations for scientists.
C. for people to allow scientists onto their private laud to look at frog habitats.
D. for people to set up ponds in their gardens as habitat for frogs.

READING PASSAGE 2
Just relax ...
A. Hypnosis is an intriguing and fascinating process. A trance-like mental state is induced in one
person by another, who appears to have the power to command that person to obey instructions
without question. Hypnotic experiences were described by the ancient Egyptians and Greeks,
whilst references to deep sleep and anaesthesia have been found in the Bible and in the Jewish
Talmud. In the mid-1700s, Franz Mesmer, an Austrian physician, developed his theory of
„animal magnestism‟, which was the belief that the cause of disease was the „improper
distribution of invisible magnetic fluids‟. Mesmer used water tubs and magnetic wands to direct
these supposed fluids to his patients. In 1784, a French commission studied Mesmer‟s claims,
and concluded that these „cures‟ were only imagined by the patients. However, people continued
to believe in this process of „mesmerism‟ and it was soon realised that successful results could be
achieved, but without the need for magnets and water.
B. The term hypnotism was first used by James Braid, a British physician who studied
suggestion and hypnosis in the mid-1800s. He demonstrated that hypnosis differed from sleep,
that it was a physiological response and not the result of secret powers. During this same period,
James Esdaile, a Scottish doctor working in India, used hypnotism instead of anaesthetic in over
200 major surgical operations, including leg amputations. Later that century, a French
neurologist, Jean Charcot, successfully experimented with hypnosis in his clinic for nervous
disorders.
C. Since then, scientists have shown that the state of hypnosis is a natural human behaviour,
which can affect psychological, social and/or physical experiences. The effects of hypnotism
depend on the ability, willingness and motivation of the person being hypnotised. Although
hypnosis has been compared to dreaming and sleepwalking, it is not actually related to sleep.
It involves a more active and intense mental concentration of the person being hypnotised.
Hypnotised people can talk, write, and walk about and they are usually fully aware of what is
being said and done.

pg. 48
JM English

D. There are various techniques used to induce hypnosis. The best-known is a series of simple
suggestions repeated continuously in the same tone of voice. The subject is instructed to
focus their attention on an object or fixed point, while being told to relax, breathe deeply, and
allow the eyelids to grow heavy and close. As the person responds, their state of attention
changes, and this altered state often leads to other changes. For example, the person may
experience different levels of awareness, consciousness, imagination, memory and reasoning or
become more responsive to suggestions. Additional phenomena may be produced or eliminated
such as blushing, sweating, paralysis, muscle tension or anaesthesia. Although these changes can
occur with hypnosis, none of these experiences is unique to it. People who are very responsive to
hypnosis are also more responsive to Suggestions when they are not hypnotised. This
responsiveness increases during hypnotism. This explains why hypnosis takes only a few
seconds for some, whilst other people cannot be easily hypnotised
E. It is a common misunderstanding that hypnotists are able to force people to perform criminal
or any other acts against their will. In fact, subjects can resist suggestions, and they retain their
ability to distinguish right from wrong. This misunderstanding is often the result of public
performances where subjects perform ridiculous or highly embarrassing actions at the command
of the hypnotist. These people are usually instructed not to recall their behaviour after re-
emerging from the hypnotic state, so it appears that they were powerless while hypnotised. The
point to remember, however, is that these individuals chose to participate, and the success; of
hypnotism depends on the willingness of a person to be hypnotised.
F. Interestingly, there are different levels of hypnosis achievable. Thus deep hypnosis can be
induced to allow anaesthesia for surgery, childbirth or dentistry. This contrasts to a lighter state
of hypnosis, which deeply relaxes the patient who will then follow simple directions. This
latter state may be used to treat mental health problems, as it allows patients to feel calm while
simultaneously thinking about distressing feelings or painful memories. Thus patients can
learn new responses to situations or come up with solutions to problems. This can help recovery
from psychological conditions such as anxiety, depression or phobias. Sometimes, after
traumatic incidents, memory of the events may be blocked. For example, some soldiers develop
amnesia [loss of memory] as a result of their experiences during wartime. Through hypnosis
these repressed memories can be retrieved and treated. A variation of this treatment involves age
regression, when the hypnotist takes the patient back to a specific age. In this way patients
may remember events and feelings from that time, which may be affecting their current well-
being.
G. Physicians also have made use of the ability of a hypnotised person to remain in a given
position for long periods of time. In one case, doctors had to graft skin onto a patient‟s badly
damaged foot. First, skin from the person‟s abdomen was grafted onto his arm; then the graft was
transferred to his foot. With hypnosis, the patient held his arm tightly in position over his
abdomen for three weeks, then over his foot for four weeks. Even though these positions were
unusual, the patient at no time felt uncomfortable!
H. Hypnosis occasionally has been used with witnesses and victims of crime to enable people to
remember important clues, such as a criminal‟s physical appearance or other significant details
that might help to solve a crime. However, as people can. both lie and make mistakes while
hypnotised, the use of hypnotism in legal situations can cause serious problems. Also hypnosis
cannot make a person divulge secret information if they don‟t want to. This was confirmed by
the Council on Scientific Affairs of the American Medical Association, which, in 1985 reported

pg. 49
JM English

that memories refreshed through, hypnosis may include inaccurate information, false memories,
and confabulation (fact and fantasy combined)

Questions 14-18
The passage has eight sections A-H.
Choose the most suitable heading for sections B-F from the list of headings below.
Write the appropriate numbers (i-x).
There are more headings than sections, so you will not use all of them.
EXAMPLE Answer
Section A x
14. Section B: ………..
15. Section C: ………..
16. Section D: ………..
17. Section E: ………..
18. Section F: ………..
List of Headings
i Use of hypnotism in criminal cases
ii The normality of hypnotised subjects‟ behaviour
iii Early medical experiments with hypnotism
iv Early association of hypnosis with psychology
v Dangers of hypnotism
vi How to hypnotise
vii Hypnosis and free will
viii Difference between mesmerism and hypnotism
ix Therapeutic uses of hypnosis
x Origins of hypnosis (Example)

Questions 19-23
Complete the notes on the history of hypnosis using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from
the passage.
References to hypnotism can be found in both the Talmud and the 19. ……….. Even when
Mesmer‟s 20. ……….. were not used, successful results occurred without them. Braid
identified hypnosis as a natural 21. ……….. response, rather than magical or mystical. Early
psychological studies showed the difference between sleep and hypnosis. Successful hypnosis
requires the subject‟s active 22. ……….. Consequently subjects can speak or move around
and are 23. ……….. of their surroundings.

pg. 50
JM English

Questions 24-28
Choose the correct letter A-D.
24. In order to induce hypnosis, the hypnotist will ...
A. encourage the person to relax using a repetitively even tone of voice.
B. say a specific set of words in a special tone of voice.
C. say any words but in a particular tone of voice.
D. encourage the person to relax while focussing on a slowly moving object.
25. Hypnotised subjects can be instructed to ...
A. do something they have previously said is against their wishes.
B. demonstrate physical strength they would normally not have.
C. reveal confidential information against their will.
D. do something that they would not normally be opposed to doing.
26. Past events are recalled under hypnosis ...
A. to entertain the hypnotist.
B. to allow subjects to reassess them without distress.
C. to help the subjects improve their memories.
D. to make the subject feel younger.
27. After surgery, hypnosis may be used ...
A. to make drugs unnecessary.
B. to keep the patient mobile.
C. to make the patient forget to move.
D. to minimise patient's discomfort while immobile.
28. The American Medical Association reported that ...
A. people lie when giving evidence under hypnosis.
B. people should be hypnotised before giving evidence.
C. evidence given, when hypnotised may be unreliable.
D. secret evidence can be obtained through hypnosis.

READING PASSAGE 3
Kids and Sport
Two Italian psychologists, Vincenzo Marte and Giovanni Notarnicola, describe the traditional
spontaneous practice of sport by children -climbing trees, riding a bicycle along quiet
roads, racing their friends across the fields - as an activity of freedom, a special activity of
discovery and learning. In the case of free sporting activity, the child‟s time is given up entirely
to the activity, as can be seen in the endless games of football young children play, which may
then be followed by bicycle races and/or a swim in the river, for example.
Today, however, children‟s discovery of sport has become very different. It is often parents who
take their children, when they are very young, to the swimming pool or to the sports grounds or
sports halls. Children‟s first experience of sport thus takes place as an organised activity, which
they see as organisation of their free time. By organising sport for children, and often deciding
for them, we unfortunately create an imbalance preventing them from managing their own
play/sports time, thus denying them an opportunity of autonomy and independence as was
possible in the past.
A first possible reason for the imbalance in the practice of sport by children is therefore linked
to the urban society we live in today. We need not regret the past; it is rather a question of
knowing how to recreate this freedom in our towns and in the country, where sport is

pg. 51
JM English

increasingly based on organised leisure activities. Doing one sport is now the rule in clubs.
Sports grounds are often on the outskirts of cities, and are overcrowded and invariably enclosed,
while recreational areas such as parks or hard-packed surfaces, are very few and far between.
How can we find the balance of a varied and spontaneous relationship to sport under
such conditions?
Some interesting answers have already been suggested, which take into account the need to
recreate this freedom. Marte and Notarnicola have shown that children who have experienced
such freedom were considered by sports trainers to be more capable when they joined organised
sport aged 12-13. Their study concluded that no formal training, no matter how early in life it
took place, could replace these first experiences.
Measures which would reverse this imbalance include: increasing the number of sports
facilities which encourage self-organisation by the children, and also setting up unstructured
playing areas with little in the way of equipment. Areas where street sport can be practised need
to be established and sports clubs which offer multidisciplinary sports training should be
supported. Children should be offered pre-school activity where they can be discover different
sports.
For children, sport remains a special kind of discovery and learning, no matter how much adults
limit and control the practice of early intensive training. Here is the second example of
imbalance in children‟s sport. Today, sport is practised with early intensive training from the
youngest possible age. Sometimes this is even before the age of six and is usually one specific
sport within an organised framework. When adult-style competitions are introduced at an early
age, the conditions which encourage a balanced development of children through sport are no
longer respected.
Today, early intensive training is much more widely on offer. Many sports organisations
claim that they are forced to do to this type of training because of what is called „the golden age‟
to acquire the physical skills. It is considered unthinkable for a young skater or gymnast to miss
this period, because if they did so, they would fall so far behind the best, that they could never
hope to catch up. Faced with this demand for early ability, it is important that a safety net is put
in place to maximise the benefits and minimise the disadvantages of such intensive training.
Why do very young children give up sport? The most common reason for leaving a sport is
to change to another sport, which in itself is no bad thing. However, children may leave a sport
because they believe that they have received too much criticism and too many negative
assessments. We know that young children, up to the age of eleven or twelve, cannot assess their
own level of competence. They believe that if they are making an effort, then this in itself is a
sign of their competence. We also know that young children are particularly sensitive to criticism
from adults or peers. Trainers must therefore pay particular attention to this and avoid excessive
criticism. They should also avoid any strategies that discriminate against the child: for example
in team sports, naming first choice players and reserves. It should be remembered that primary
school children‟s main desire is to have fun and socialise. The desire to improve and become a
good competitor will develop later. This brief example shows that knowledge of child
development is indispensable for those who take care of children at this age. It is up to trainers,
sports doctors and psychologists to implement the measures necessary to limit this excessive
early practice of sport by children.
A third source of imbalance which threatens children and sport is parental attitudes. The
American psychologist, Rainer Martens, emphasises that, „too often children‟s joy of sports is
destroyed by adults who want glory through victory.‟ Several studies have shown that parental

pg. 52
JM English

pressure is high on the list of reasons why children leave sport. The presence of mothers and
fathers can prevent children from considering sport as their own, where they can learn to master
technical difficulties, manage interpersonal relations, and experience success and failure. As
Martens highlights, „adults are solely to blame if joy and sadness become synonymous, to
a child, with victory or defeat.‟
If the children make the decisions, this ensures that they enjoy being a child in sport, and are
relaxed with their development as human beings. We need only observe the activity in a school
playground, where games are organised on an improvised playing field, to understand that
children show genetic traces of the hunter instinct, which naturally leads them to physical
activity. Sport is included as something they want, and which they identify both as a means of
release and as a form of self-expression. By acting as a route to self-discovery, sport gives
children both the opportunity to know their limits, and to acquire tools which will allow them to
surpass them. Playing sport is a source of learning, progress and pleasure; an additional way of
enriching life.

Questions 29-36
Complete the summary below using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage.
Marte & Notarnicola define the spontaneous sporting games of children as activities of 29.
……….. Because today sport is often decided and 30. ……….. by parents, children lose their
autonomy. A first imbalance occurs because 31. ……….. are out of the city and often crowded,
whilst there are a limited number of open recreational areas where children can play
spontaneously. Children should discover and learn about sports themselves. The second
imbalance occurs because they start early 32. ……….. training very young and participate
in only 33. ……….. specific activity. Children often give up a sport because of negative 34.
……….. . It is important that trainers avoid excessive criticism of young children, who should
have 35. ……….. at sporting activities. Another reason that children may give up sport is the
attitudes of their parents. This third imbalance occurs as parents exert 36. ……….. on children to
win rather than to enjoy sport.

Choose the correct letter A-D.

37. Children‟s expression of this „freedom‟ is important because ...
A. it allows them to be lazy.
B. it means they can learn to swim and ride a bike.
C. it puts them in charge of what they do and when they do it.
D. it relieves the parents from transporting their children to sports.
38. Ways of allowing children to develop this „freedom‟ include ...
A. making transport to sports clubs free.
B. offering a range of different sports in each sports club.
C. offering sporting tuition to pre-school children.
D. making children play outside regularly.
39. To encourage young children to continue with sport,we should give them ...
A. accurate feedback about their ability at sport.
B. experience of failure as well as success.
C. experience of being reserves as well as first choice team members.
D. the opportunity to mix socially with their peers at sport.

pg. 53
JM English

40. The author believes that ...

A. children‟s sport should not be organised by adults.
B. playing sport is an important: part of children‟s development.
C. children need to learn that sport is about losing as well as winning.
D. children can be psychologically and physiologically damaged by sport.

pg. 54
JM English

TEST 7
READING PASSAGE 1
Survivor From The Sky
In a remarkable documentary, Wings of Hope, German director Werner Herzog re-counts the
true story of an eighteen-year-old girl, the sole survivor of a plane crash in the Amazon jungle in
1971. Twenty-nine years later, Herzog returns to the jungle with Juliane Koepke, now a 46-year-
old biologist, and she tells her amazing story on film.
Juliane had just graduated from high school in Lima, Peru and, with her mother, was flying out
to spend Christmas at her father‟s research station in the jungle. A half hour into the flight they
encountered a horrific storm. In the midst of wild turbulence, the plane was struck by lightning
and fell into a nosedive. Passengers screamed as baggage flew around the compartment. Then the
plane broke into pieces and suddenly Juliane found herself outside free-falling 30,000 feet. „I
was suspended in mid-air, still in my scat. It wasn‟t so much that I had left the plane but that
the plane had left me. It simply wasn‟t there any more. I was all alone with my row of seats,‟
says Juliane. „I sailed on through the air, then I tumbled into a fall. The seatbelt squeezed my
stomach and I couldn‟t breathe any more.‟ Before she lost consciousness, Juliane saw the dense
jungle below, „a deep green, like broccoli‟, with no clearings for hundreds of miles.
Somehow, miraculously, Juliane survived that fall from the sky. In the film, she speculates on a
number of factors which may have combined to save her. First, the storm had produced a strong
updraft from the thunder clouds. Secondly, being strapped into a row of seats, she was aware of
falling in a spiralling movement, like a maple seed pod. Then, hitting the canopy of trees, she
tumbled through a maze of vines which slowed her landing in deep mud.
But surviving the fall, though miraculous in itself, was just the beginning. When Juliane awoke
hours later, wet and covered with mud, she was still strapped to her seat. Staggering to her feet,
she assessed her injuries: a fractured bone in the neck, concussion and deep cuts in her leg and
back. She was also in shock, lost and totally alone in the Amazon jungle.
No doubt it was her familiarity with the wilderness that enabled her to cope. Her parents were
biologists and Juliane had grown up in the jungle. She realised her only hope was to follow a
little stream of water nearby, trusting that it would eventually lead to a larger river and rescue.
With no provisions, dressed in the miniskirt she had worn on the plane and wearing just one
shoe, she set off through the jungle. She passed broken fragments from the plane - a wheel, an
engine. „Initially, I saw planes circling above me, but after a few days I realised the search had
been called off,‟ she said.
Surprisingly she felt no hunger but as the days passed her health was deteriorating rapidly. The
gash in her shoulder, where flies had laid their eggs was now crawling with maggots. „I knew I‟d
perish in the jungle so I stayed in the water.‟ Walking in the stream, however, presented one risk
more serious than any others. Before each step she had to poke ahead in the sand with a stick, to
avoid treading on poisonous sting rays, lying hidden on the bottom.
As the stream grew into a river, swimming was the only option. However, here in deeper water,
there were new threats. Crocodiles basking on the shores slipped silently into the water as she
passed. Juliane trusted that they feared humans and were entering the water to hide. She swam
on. On the tenth day, starving and barely conscious, she spotted a hut and a canoe. They
belonged to three woodcutters working nearby. Rescue was at hand.
For this 46-year-old woman, re-living such a traumatic experience on film must have been a
great challenge. But she shows little emotion. Flying back into the jungle, she sits in the same
seat (19F) as on that fateful day. She is dispassionate, unemotional in describing the flight. On

pg. 55
JM English

the ground, when they finally locate the crash site, in dense jungle, Juliane is scientific in her
detachment, looking through the debris, now buried under dense vegetation. She examines a
girl‟s purse, the skeleton of a suitcase. Walking along the stream, she spots the engine which she
remembers passing on the third day. Her arms and legs are covered with mosquitoes, but she
seems to ignore all discomfort. Then, back in the town, standing in front of a monument erected
in memory of the victims of the crash, entitled Alas de Esperanza (Wings of Hope), Juliane
comments simply, T emerged, as the sole embodiment of hope from this disaster.

Questions 1-3
Answer the following questions using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage.
1. How old was Juliane at the time of the crash? ………
2. What is her occupation now? ………
3. What was the cause of the plane crash?

Questions 4-10
Choose the correct letter A-D.
4. What happened to the plane?
A. It broke apart in the air
B. It hit trees and exploded.
C. It crashed into a mountainside.
D. It hit the ground and burst into flames.
5. Which of the following did NOT help to slow her fall?
A. an updraft caused by storm clouds
B. hitting vines
C. the section of seats to which she was attached
D. a parachute
6. Which of the following injuries did she sustain?
A. a broken foot
B. a broken arm
C. concussion
D. cuts on her head
7. What helped her to survive?
A. Knowledge of the jungle
B. a map showing the location of the river
C. appropriate clothing and shoes
D. food supplies from the plane
8. What was the biggest threat to her survival?
A. infected wounds
B. sting rays
C. starvation
D. crocodiles
9. How long was she lost in the jungle?
A. 3 Days
B. 5 days
C. 10 days
D. 15 days

pg. 56
JM English

10. How she was finally rescued?

A. A search party found her in the jungle.
B. Native hunters found her.
C. She signalled to a plane from the river.
D. She reached a campsite along the river.

Questions 11-14
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in this passage?
Write:
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
11. Other survivors of the crash were found in the jungle.
12. Juliane was upset when she re-visited the crash site.
13. „Wings of Hope‟ is the name given to a memorial statue.
14. Suffered nightmares for many years as a result of her experience.

READING PASSAGE 2
The Race To Make Spider Silk
The strength, toughness, and elasticity of silk continue to fascinate scientists, who wonder what
gives this natural material its unusual qualities. Finer than human hair, lighter than cotton, and
ounce for ounce stronger than steel, silk is of special interest to materials researchers. They are
trying to duplicate its properties and synthesise it for large-scale production. Silk holds the
promise of wear-resistant shoes and clothes; stronger ropes, nets, seatbelts and parachutes;
rustfree panels and bumpers for automobiles; improved sutures and bandages; artificial tendons
and ligaments; supports for weakened blood vessels as well as bulletproof vests.
Many insects secrete silks of varying quality. Best known is the moth bombyx mori, whose
caterpillar is commonly known as the silkworm. It spins its cocoon from a single thread between
300 and 900 metres long and has been used for centuries to make fine garments. But the focus of
scientific attention today is on spider silk: tougher, stretchier, and more waterproof than
silkworm strands. Spiders make as many as seven different types of silk, but one spider and two
types of silk are at the centre of intense interest. The spider is the golden orb-weaving
spider, nephila clavipes. Its two silks under investigation go by the evocative names „dragline‟
and „capture‟.
Dragline is the silk which forms the frame for the wheel-shaped webs and enables the dangling
spider to drop down and grab its prey. This silk exhibits a combination of strength and toughness
unmatched by high-performance synthetic fibre.
Capture silk is the resilient substance at the centre of the web. To catch a speeding insect, it may
stretch to almost three times its original length. Insects get entangled in the sticky web because
the stretchiness of capture silk lets the web move back and forth after the insect hits it. If the web
were stiff, the insect might just bounce off. Whereas dragline is stronger, capture silk is more
flexible, five times more flexible in fact.
Because the orb weaver‟s survival depends on its silk, some 400 million years of evolution have
fine-tuned a remarkably tough and versatile material. Now, research groups all over the world
are competing to spin the first artificial spider silk, a job that requires a three-step approach: to

pg. 57
JM English

determine the fibre‟s molecular architecture, to understand the genes that yield silk proteins, and
then to learn how to spin the raw material into threads.
The first two steps are well underway. The molecular structure for both dragline and capture silk
is known and now researchers have cloned several genes for the silks and unravelled their
protein structure.
The next step is to find hosts for the artificial genes. Plants and fungi, as well as bacteria, are
being considered. If a hardy plant could express a dragline silk gene, silk proteins could
eventually be harvested in large quantities, processed into a liquid, polymer, and spun in
factories, A different experimental approach is to insert the web gene into goats in order to
collect the protein from the goats‟ milk. Goats are being used instead of the simpler and much
cheaper bacteria, because the secret of the protein‟s strength lies in how the molecules cross-link
with one another. When bacteria is used to make artificial web, the protein folds in a way that
prevents it. from cross-linking properly, resulting in hard while lumps. The spider makes protein
in a manner similar to the way mammals make milk, so the researchers hope that the protein
made in the goats‟ mammary glands will be able to cross-link properly. Once the protein is
extracted from the goats‟ milk, the next step is to find a way to spin it.
Spiders make their silk in environmentally friendly ways. They process proteins from water-
based solutions which, from a manufacturing point of view, is very attractive. The process of
making synthetic fibres like nylon, on the other hand, requires petroleum products or organic
solvents and results in pollution. So bio-technologists arc motivated by both the practical and
economic potential of generating artificial spider silk. Globally, as much as 60 percent of the
threads used to weave clothing come from natural fibre, including cotton, wool, and silk. The
aim is to offer substitutes for natural fibres that arc free of the problems of poor wash-wear
performance: stretching, wrinkling arid shrinkage. They are seeking a better-than-natural
alternative fibre for which there is a major market. Bio-inspired materials are providing a new
frontier for the fibre business.

Questions 15-19
Classify the following as relating to:
A the silk of bombyx mori
B dragline silk of nephila clavipes
C capture silk of nephila clavipes
EXAMPLE ANSWER
forms the cocoon A
15. forms the framework of a web
16. most elastic silk
17. allows predator to drop quickly
18. single strand can be up to 900 metres long
19. strongest silk

Questions 20-24
Do the following statements reflect the claims of the writer in the passage?
Write:
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer

pg. 58
JM English

NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
20. All spiders secrete silk.
21. Artificial genes for spider silk have been produced.
22. Spider silk protein occurs naturally in goats‟ milk.
23. China is leading research efforts in the area of spider silk.
24. Spider silk is now being produced commercially.

Questions 25-27
Using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer, complete the
following.
Comparison of Synthetic and Natural Fibres
• Main problem in the production of synthetic fibres:
25. ………..
• 3 disadvantages of natural fibres:
26. ………..
• Proportion of clothing made from natural fibre:
27. ………..

READING PASSAGE 3
Map Wars
A map of the world expresses a point of view. A correct model of the earth is a sphere - or an
ellipsoid to be precise. Photographs of the earth from space provide comforting reassurance on
that point. If you wish to know the relative positions of the continents and the oceans you should
go out and buy yourself a globe and spin it around.
But a globe cannot be pinned to a wall or printed in a book. For that you need a two-dimensional
representation. This is where the problems start since you cannot project three-dimensional
information onto a flat plane without making certain assumptions. The arguments between
cartographers mostly concern what those assumptions should be.
The simplest two-dimensional representation is a „cylindrical‟ projection - what you get by
wrapping a sheet of paper around a globe and simply transferring the information across. This
means it indicates true north and south. So, Newfoundland is directly north of Venezuela and it
appears that way on the map. East and west similarly are also indicated correctly. Such a map
demonstrates what is called „fidelity of axis‟.
One of the longest-lived cylindrical projections was based on the needs of sixteenth century
navigators. Gerhard Kremer, a Flemish mathematician, produced his view of the world in 1569.
„Kremer‟ translates to „merchant‟ in English and „mercator‟ in Latin. And the Mercator
projection survives to this day in many books and maps.
Mercator‟s projection of the world also shows intermediate compass directions like north-west
more or less accurately. So, it is possible to conclude from his map that Brazil is south-west of
Liberia and if you plot a course in that direction you will eventually arrive at your destination.
No wonder it was appreciated by the early explorers! If it can be used in this way a map is said to
have „fidelity of angle‟.

pg. 59
JM English

But fidelity of angle is only achieved at a cost. To make it work, the further away you get from
the equator, the further apart you have to move the horizontal lines of latitude. As these distances
increase so do the sizes of the countries underneath them. So, by the time you get to the North or
South Poles the lines would be drawn infinitely far apart and the Arctic and Antarctic regions can
scarcely be represented at all since they would be infinitely large. More importantly the relative
sizes of intermediate areas are completely distorted; South America seems smaller than Europe
whereas in fact it is twice the size. These changes in scale distort both the size and shape of
countries. Given such defects, it is surprising that the Mercator projection has survived so long,
especially as dozens of other more satisfactory projections have appeared since. One of the
best known of these is the Aitoff projection of 1889, which attempted to represent country sizes
and shapes more correctly. But to do so required a compromise - the lines of latitude and
longitude had to be „bent‟. Fidelity of axis had thus been lost and you could no longer judge
north, south, east and west so easily. Most of us, however, did not notice that these projections
were different from Mercator. We assumed that all maps were simply factual statements.
Dr. Arno Peters, a German historian, was irritated by the maps he saw widely published,
particularly by the survival of Mercator which he argued, gave a euro-centric view of the world.
It shrank the developing countries since most of these are around the equator, and it expanded
the richer countries since they lay further north. Even the equator itself is shown two thirds of the
way down on the traditional Mercator map. Dr. Peters insisted that his map, which first appeared
in 1985, has equal-area projection so that no country is given prominence over another, plus
fidelity of axis to avoid the disorientating effect of bent lines of latitude and longitude.
Then there is the question of country shape. If you were to take a photo of a globe in its normal
position you would find the countries around the equator like Zaire or Ecuador came out of it
pretty well. They would be shown relatively large and with something close to their correct
shape. But further north or south there are considerable distortions: Australia tails away
alarmingly. Dr. Peters decided that the minimum distortions should occur not at the equator but
at the 45 degree lines of latitude, as these are much more populated areas. However, this
controversial Peters map does radically change the shape of both Africa and South America; and
although all projections distort to some extent, it is clear that Africa appears exceptionally long
and thin on the Peters map.
But the oddity of the Peters projection is at least partly responsible for its success, as there has
been widespread discussion on the misrepresentation of country sizes in previous maps. The
issues which the Peters map raises are relatively simple. If you decide you want an equal area
map with fidelity of axis you will always get something resembling the Peters projection. If you
decide that shape is more significant you will get something else.
The real value of the Peters projection is that it has made the world think about something that
before was never taken seriously: that maps of the world represent a point of view just as do
press articles or TV programmes or photographs. But it isn‟t recommended that you navigate a
'747‟ round the world with the Peters projection or with any other single global projection they
would all lead you astray!

Questions 28-31
Complete the summary.
Choose your answers from the box below the summary.

pg. 60
JM English

List of Words
axis estimate perspective
map direction compare
size judge accurately
angle distances models
projection change
There are more words than you will need to fill the gaps.
For four centuries, map makers have been trying to convert three-dimensional information
as accurately (example) as possible onto a two-dimensional plane. However, each method of
28. ……….. involves a compromise. Thus Mercator‟s projection indicates true north and
south, known as fidelity of 29. ……….., but misrepresents the relative size of countries.
To avoid this distortion, other cartographers rounded the lines of latitude and longitude. Dr.
Peters felt that such maps presented a first-world 30. ………... His map, with equal area
projection, enables us to 31. ……….. the size of one country with another.

Questions 32-36
Use the information in the text to match the map projections [M A P] with the characteristics
listed below.
M Mercator projection
A Aitoff projection
P Peters projection
Example: designed for the needs of early navigators M
32. makes Europe seem larger than it is
33. maximum distortions at the poles
34. maintains greatest accuracy at 45 degrees latitude
35. most distorts the position of the equator
36. more accurately represents country shapes and sizes

Questions 37-39
Choose one drawing (A-D) to match each of the three projection types (37-39).

pg. 61
JM English

There are more drawings than names so you will not use all of them.

pg. 62
JM English

37. Mercator projection

38. Aitoff projection
39. Peters projection

Question 40
Choose the correct letter A-D.
40. The main point made by the writer of this article is that we need to ...
A. understand maps.
B. understand map-making.
C. understand that maps are not objective.
D. understand the importance of latitude and longitude.

pg. 63
JM English

TEST 8
READING PASSAGE 1
Please Hold The Line
Nearly all of us know what it‟s like to be put on „musical hold‟. Call almost any customer service
number, and you can expect to hear at least a few bars of boring elevator music before an
operator picks up. The question is: do you hang up or do you keep holding? That may depend on
your gender and what type of music is playing, according to research reported by University of
Cincinnati Associate Professor of Marketing, James Kellaris.
Kellaris, who has studied the effects of music on consumers for more than 12 years, teamed with
Sigma Research Management Group to evaluate the effects of „hold music‟ for a company that
operates a customer service line.
The researchers tested four types of „on-hold‟ music with 71 of the company‟s clients, 30
of them women. Light jazz, classical, rock and the company‟s current format of adult alternative
(a mix of contemporary styles) were all tested. The sample included individual consumers,
small business and large business segments. Participants were asked to imagine calling a
customer assistance line and being placed on hold. They were then exposed to „on-hold‟ music
via headsets and asked to estimate how long it played. Their reactions and comments were
also solicited and quantified by the researchers.
Service providers, of course don‟t want you to have to wait on hold, but if you do, they want it to
be a pleasant experience for you. But Kellaris‟ conclusions may hold some distressing news for
companies. No matter what music was played, the time spent „on hold‟ was generally
overestimated. The actual wait in the study was 6 minutes, but the average estimate was 7
minutes and 6 seconds.
He did find some good news for the client who hired him. The kind of music they‟re playing
now, alternative, is probably their best choice. Two things made it a good choice. First, it did
not produce significantly more positive or negative reactions in people. Second, males and
females were less polarised in their reactions to this type of music.
Kellaris‟ other findings, however, make the state of musical hold a little less firm: time spent „on
hold‟ seemed slightly shorter when light jazz was played, but the effect of music format differed
for men and women. Among the males, the wait seemed shortest when classical music was
played. Among the females, the wait seemed longest when classical music was played. This may
be related to differences in attention levels and musical preferences.
In general, classical music evoked the most positive reactions among males; light jazz evoked
the most positive reactions (and shortest waiting time estimates) among females. Rock was the
least preferred across both gender groups and produced the longest waiting time estimates. „The
rock music‟s driving beat kind of aggravates people calling customer assistance with a problem,‟
said Kellaris. „The more positive the reaction to the music, the shorter the waiting time seemed to
be. So maybe time does tend to fly when you‟re having fun, even if you‟re on musical
hold,‟ Kellaris joked.
But unfortunately for companies operating on-hold lines, men and women have different ideas
about what music is „fun‟. „The possible solution,‟ Kellaris joked, „might be for the recorded
message to say: if you‟re a male, please press one; if you‟re a female, please press two. If you are
in a bad mood, please hang up and try later.‟

Questions 1-2

pg. 64
JM English

Choose the correct letter A-D.

1. The researchers concluded that ...
A. subjects underestimated the time spent ‟on hold‟.
B. it is better for companies not to use any „on-hold‟ music.
C. light jazz was the most acceptable music overall.
D. both gender and type of music influence callers‟ reaction.
2. The researchers recommended that ...
A. their client continue to play alternative music.
B. four types of music should be offered to people „on hold‟.
C. advertising is preferable to music.
D. women can be kept waiting for longer than men.

Questions 3-7
Choose the type of music from the list A-D below which corresponds to the findings of the study.
Types of music
A light jazz
B alternative
C classical
D rock
Example: longest waiting lime estimate for women C
3. ……… music preferred by men
4. ……… longest waiting time estimate (both sexes)
5. ……… music to avoid on telephone hold
6. ……… music to use if clients are mostly women
7. ……… best choice of „on-hold‟ music overall

Questions 8-13
Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer?
Write:
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
8. Businesses want to minimise the time spent „on hold‟.
9. The research sample consisted of real clients of a company.
10. The sample consisted of equal numbers of men and women.
11. Advertising is considered a poor alternative to „on-hold‟ music.
12. The consumer service company surveyed was playing classical music.
13. Researchers asked subjects only to estimate the length of time they waited „on hold‟.

READING PASSAGE 2
Did tea and beer bring about industrialisation?
A. Alan Macfarlane thinks he could rewrite history. The professor of anthropological science at
King‟s College, Cambridge has, like other historians, spent decades trying to understand the
enigma of the Industrial Revolution. Why did this particular important event - the world-

pg. 65
JM English

changing birth of industry - happen in Britain? And why did it happen at the end of the 18th
century?
B. Macfarlane compares the question to a puzzle. He claims that there were about 20 different
factors and all of them needed to be present before the revolution could happen. The chief
conditions are to be found in history textbooks. For industry to „take off, there needed to be
the technology and power to drive factories, large urban populations to provide cheap labour,
easy transport to move goods around, an affluent middle-class willing to buy mass-produced
objects, a market-driven economy, and a political system that allowed this to happen. While
this was the case for England, other nations, such as Japan, Holland and France also met
some of these criteria. All these factors must have been necessary but not sufficient to cause
the revolution. Holland had everything except coal, while China also had many of these
factors. Most historians, however, are convinced that one or two missing factors are
needed to solve the puzzle.
C. The missing factors, he proposes, are to be found in every kitchen cupboard. Tea and beer,
two of the nation‟s favourite drinks, drove the revolution. Tannin, the active ingredient in tea,
and hops, used in making beer, both contain antiseptic properties. This, plus the fact that both
are made with boiled water, helped prevent epidemics of waterborne diseases, such as
dysentery, in densely populated urban areas.
D. Historians had noticed one interesting factor around the mid-18th century that required
explanation. Between about 1650 and 1740, the population was static. But then there was a
burst in population. The infant mortality rate halved in the space of 20 years, and this
happened in both rural areas and cities, and across all classes. Four possible causes have been
suggested. There could have been a sudden change in the viruses and bacteria present at that
time, but this is unlikely. Was there a revolution in medical science? But this was a century
before Lister introduced antiseptic surgery. Was there a change in environmental conditions?
There were improvements in agriculture that wiped out malaria, but these were small gains.
Sanitation did not become widespread until the 19th century. The only option left was food.
But the height and weight statistics show a decline. So the food got worse. Efforts to explain
this sudden reduction in child deaths appeared to draw a blank.
E. This population burst seemed to happen at just the right time to provide labour for the
Industrial Revolution. But why? When the Industrial Revolution started, it was economically
efficient to have people crowded together forming towns and cities. But with crowded living
conditions comes disease, particularly from human waste. Some research in the historical
records revealed that there was a change in the incidence of waterborne disease at that time,
especially dysentery. Macfarlane deduced that whatever the British were drinking must have
been important in controlling disease. They drank beer and ale. For a long time, the English
were protected by the strong antibacterial agent in hops, which were added to make beer last.
But in the late 17th century a tax was introduced on malt. The poor turned to water and gin,
and in the 1720s the mortality rate began to rise again. Then it suddenly dropped again. What
was the cause?
F. Macfarlane looked to Japan, which was also developing large cities about the same time, and
also had no sanitation. Waterborne diseases in the Japanese population were far fewer than
those in Britain. Could it be the prevalence of tea in their culture? That was when Macfarlane
thought about the role of tea in Britain. The history of tea in Britain provided an
extraordinary coincidence of dates. Tea was relatively expensive until Britain started direct
trade with China in the early 18th century. By the 1740s, about the time that infant mortality

pg. 66
JM English

was falling, the drink was common. Macfarlane guesses that the fact that water had to be
boiled, together with the stomach-purifying properties of tea so eloquently described in
Buddhist texts, meant that the breast milk provided by mothers was healthier than it had ever
been. No other European nation drank tea so often as the British, which, by Macfarlane‟s
logic, pushed the other nations out of the race for the Industrial Revolution.
G. But, if tea is a factor in the puzzle, why didn‟t this cause an industrial revolution in Japan?
Macfarlane notes that in the 17th century, Japan had large cities, high literacy rates and even
a futures market. However, Japan decided against a work-based revolution, by giving up
labour-saving devices, even animals, to avoid putting people out of work. Astonishingly, the
nation that we now think of as one of the most technologically advanced, entered the 19th
century having almost abandoned the wheel. While Britain was undergoing the Industrial
Revolution, Macfarlane notes wryly, Japan was undergoing an industrious one.
H. The Cambridge academic considers the mystery solved. He adds that he thinks the UN
should encourage aid agencies to take tea to the world‟s troublespots, along with rehydration
sachets and food rations.

Questions 14-18
The passage has 8 sections A-H.
Choose the most suitable headings for paragraphs B-F from the list of headings below.
Write the appropriate numbers (i-x).
There are more headings than sections so you will not use all of them.
List of Headings
i The significance of tea drinking
ii Possible solution to the puzzle
iii Industry in Holland and France
iv Significant population increase
v The relationship between drinks and disease
vi Gin drinking and industrialisation
vii Dysentery prevention in Japan and Holland
viii Japan‟s waterborne diseases
ix Preconditions necessary for Industrial Revolution
x Introduction
Example Answer
Section A x
14. Section B ………
15. Section C ………
16. Section D ………
17. Section E ………
18. Section F ………

Questions 19-22
Complete the table using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage.

pg. 67
JM English

Questions 23-25
Choose the correct letter A-D.
23. In 1740 there was a population explosion in Britain because ...
A. large numbers of people moved to live in cities.
B. larger quantities of beer were drunk.
C. of the health protecting qualities of beer and tea.
D. of the Industrial Revolution.
24. According to the author, the Japanese did not industrialise because they didn‟t ...
A. like drinking beer.
B. It want animals to work.
C. Iike using wheels.
D. want unemployment.
25. Macfarlane thinks he has discovered why ...
A. the British drink beer and tea
B. industrialisation happened in Britain when if did.
C. the Japanese did not drink beet.
D. sanitation wasn‟t widespread until the 19th century.

READING PASSAGE 3
Team-based Learning
With the globalisation of information technology (IT) and worldwide access to the Internet,
people from all areas of learning are finding themselves using some form of information
technology in the workplace. The corporate world has seen a boom in the use of IT tools, but
conversely, not enough people with IT skills that can enter the workplace and be productive
with minimal on-the-job training.
A recent issue of the New York Times reports that many companies are looking for smart
students who may have a budding interest in IT. Some companies, trying to encourage students
to attend interviews, provide good salary packages and challenging work environments.
For example, one American IT consulting company offers high salaries, annual bonuses, and

pg. 68
JM English

immediate stock options to potential recruits. It also brings in 25 to 40 prospective applicants at a

time for a two-day visit to the company. This time includes interviews, team exercises and social
events. The idea behind the team exercises is that the applicants get to see that they will be
working with other smart people doing really interesting things, rather than sitting alone
writing code.
In the past 10 years, employers have seen marked benefits from collaborative projects in product
development. Apart from the work environment, there is also a similar body of research
indicating that small team-based instruction can lead to different kinds of desirable educational
results. In order to prepare IT graduates to meet these workplace requirements, colleges and
universities are also beginning to include team-based educational models.
One of the leaders in promoting team-based education is the American
Intercontinental University (AIU), which has campuses worldwide. AIU offers programs in IT
with a major portion of the curriculum based on team projects. AIU has a large body
of international students and students from different educational backgrounds. This team-based
learning gives the students a sense of social and technical support within the group, and allows
students first-hand experience of both potential successes and of inherent problems encountered
when working with others.
Team-oriented instruction has not been the common mode of delivery in traditional college
settings. However, since most college graduates who choose to go into an IT work environment
will encounter some form of teamwork at work, it is to their advantage that they are
educated using collaborative learning and that they are taught the tools needed to work
with different people in achieving common goals or objectives.
In team-based learning, students spend a large part of their in-class time working in permanent
and heterogeneous teams. Most teams are made up of individuals with different socio-cultural
backgrounds and varying skill levels. Team activities concentrate on using rather than
just learning concepts, whilst student grades are a combination of overall team performance and
peer evaluation of individual team members.
In a team-based environment, the teacher takes on the role of a facilitator and manager of
learning, instead of just providing information to passive students. The facilitator/teacher also
guides the team in identifying their goals and establishing standards of team performance. Team
exercises then help the students to improve their problem-solving skills by applying theory to
simulated real-world situations. Working as a team allows students to adopt new roles
and empowers them to control their own learning. Students in teams are taught to use each other
as resources and accept the responsibility of managing tasks.
Team members must also study assigned material individually to ensure their preparation for
classes. There are individual assessment tests to measure if students have not only read the
assigned material, but also understand the concepts of the module, and can apply them to given
problems. Additional team assessment tests present a problem for discussion and require
consensus, helping students learn critical communication skills. This also enables them to deal
with conflicts between members before they escalate to crises. Team presentations (written or
verbal) allow the team to focus and build cohesion, with team members sharing the responsibility
for presenting and persuading the audience to accept their viewpoint. Feedback on how the team
is functioning with task management, team dynamics and overall work is given by the facilitator.
Team exercises that are application-oriented help students experience the practical application of
concepts and learn from other students‟ perspectives.

pg. 69
JM English

Team-based classrooms are especially beneficial in colleges with international students. Since
this type of learning encourages people to listen and communicate with others, share problems,
resolve personal conflicts, and manage their time and resources, it is a great environment for
students who are in a new social situation. Since social interaction plays an important role during
teamwork, team learning has an added advantage for students who are not comfortable
in traditional classroom settings. It allows students from different cultures to understand their
differences and use them productively. This type of learning environment also allows students to
express themselves freely in a team context, rather than feeling singled out as when answering
questions in a traditional classroom.
This learning model was designed to better prepare students for today‟s global workplace.
Students are encouraged to explore ideas together, to build communication skills and achieve
superior results. It is likely that employers will increasingly seek out students with these skills as
we move into the future.

Questions 26-32
Complete the summary below.
Choose your answers from the box below the summary.
There are more words than you will need to fill the gaps.
Although IT is one of the leading career choice (example) made by graduates today, the
industry‟s demand for qualified applicants 26. …….. the supply of skilled IT personnel.
Despite the 27. …….. widespread use of computer technology in all areas of life, 28.
…….. face difficulties recruiting people whose education has equipped them to commence
working productively without further training. Several business organisations now offer
income and other 29. …….. inducements to potential employees. They also include group 30.
…….. in their selection procedures, often inviting up to forty 31. …….. to their company for
the two-day visit. In this way the company can demonstrate the reality of the working 32.
…….. which is more likely to involve challenging co-operative projects than individualised
tasks.
List of Words
exceeds extracts choices candidates employees
admiration previous financial employment regularity
advantages employers environment activities current

Questions 33-37
Do the following statements reflect the views of the writer of the passage?
Write:
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
33. The American Intercontinental University includes team-based learning in all its courses on
all its campuses.
34. The composition of teams is changed regularly.

pg. 70
JM English

35. Theoretical problems are the most important team activity.

36. The team members participate in assessment of other team members.
37. International students prefer traditional classroom learning to team-based learning.

Questions 38-40
Choose one phrase from the list of phrases A-H below to complete each of the following
sentences.
There are more phrases than questions so you will not use all of them.
38. Students‟ work is assessed ...
39. The teams make a joint presentation ...
40. The need to achieve consensus assists ...
List of Phrases
A. to compete with other teams as judged by the facilitator.
B. by individual tests and exams.
C. to see who has the strongest point of view in the group.
D. individually, by their peers and as a team.
E. in the development of communication skills.
F. to practise working as a group while putting theory into practice.
G. to assist international and non-traditional students.
H. in getting to know new friends and colleagues.

pg. 71
JM English

TEST 9
READING PASSAGE 1
3D Printers
Ever wished you could find a pair of shoes to match your outfit? Fancy a pizza but don't want
to go out or wait for your delivery service to arrive? Simple. All you need is a 3D home printer.
Whilst admittedly not yet mainstream technology, it is only a matter of time until the 3D printer
becomes as much a part of the domestic furniture as the statutory TV or the washing machine.
Currently, however, the technology remains firmly in the province of geeks and gadget lovers.
The design of the 3D home printer is nevertheless refreshingly simple. Its components are
relatively few, and could theoretically be assembled by anyone with a rudimentary knowledge of
mechanics and technological know-how. The 3 main elements of the printer are a metal
framework which contains the mechanical part of the printer, a printer control board and a PC.
The PC is connected via USB to the printer control board, which in turn is connected to the
framework of the printer and attached to the side of the latter. A plastic filament of around 3m m
in diameter feeds into the printer from an external source, connecting to the extruder motor
inside the printer. During printing, the controlled movement of the extruder motor ensures the
correct volume of plastic is used. The extruder motor in turn is connected to a heated extruder
or 'hot end' that heats the plastic filament during printing. As the heated plastic emerges or
is 'extruded' to use the correct terminology, it cools and is arranged in layers to create a solid 3D
model.
In order to move the extruder about in 3D space, there are 3 axes, each controlled by motors. The
X-axis motor, located in a midway position on the metal framework of the printer, moves the
extruder left and right, using a pulley. The two Z-axis motors, which are located on either side of
the heated printing bed, move the entire X-axis up and down via two threaded rods. The heated
bed of the printer, which lies directly underneath the hot end of the extruder, is moved back and
forth beneath the extruder by the Y-axis motor located underneath the heated bed. The bed is
heated to around 70 degrees Celsius to ensure the newly laid plastic does not warp as it cools.
Overall control of the printer is effected by the printer control board and the PC which contains
the programme of the model that is being printed.
Once assembled, in theory it should be possible to print a 3D version of virtually anything.
However, comparatively easy as it is to assemble, would-be DIY gadget enthusiasts should be
warned that the printer has major technical limitations. The finished product will always have
banding and surface detail remaining as evidence of how the model was laid down. In addition,
operators of the printer have to be extremely careful not to knock it whilst the machine is in the
process of printing, since this will end up in model distortion. Extreme care also has to be taken
in the choice of plastic filament which will ultimately create the structure of the model. Some
types of plastic may warp if the temperature is not controlled properly when the melted plastic
leaves the nozzle, and later, when it is cooling on the bed. Obviously the 3D model will be the
same colour as the plastic filament forming it, but colour limitations can easily be overcome
by painting afterwards for a multicolour finish. Another problem is that the plastic structures
have to be supported as they are laid down on the heated bed or they will distort or fall away as
the plastic cools.
It is virtually certain, however, that such issues will be overcome in the future. The innumerable
advantages of 3D printers far outweigh any disadvantages and justify time and resources spent
on such technology. Firstly, the product can be produced on the spot within a very short time
frame, thereby reducing time and cost of manufacturing by traditional means. Secondly, printing

pg. 72
JM English

objects on a 3D printer removes the need for storage space of items since whatever is required is
printed as and when necessary. Finally, despite expensive set-up costs, in the long run, 3D
printing works out far cheaper than normal manufacturing processes since there is no longer
a need for labour costs.
However, the 3D printer is still very much in its early stages and can be likened to early home
computers which in technological hindsight now seem so cumbersome and slow. So far, early
experimentations with the new technology have been impressive but not earth-shattering.
Nevertheless, in the future that is all set to change. In fact, the potential of 3D printers is jaw-
dropping. The most ambitious plan yet for 3D printing has to be in the military field. If all goes
to plan, fighter planes will at some, probably very distant, point in the future carry printers
on board that during flight will be capable of printing out other fighter planes to replenish the
flying squad. Admittedly, it takes a quantum leap of the imagination to accept that a machine that
prints out clothing and pizzas will also be able to print out planes. Sceptics, however, should
remember that one of the forerunners to the modern computer, designed in the mid-twentieth
century, filled an entire room, So, in theory, if we have come so far in a matter of years then who
knows what the future may hold for 3D printers?

Questions 1-5
Label the diagram below.
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 1-5.

1. Z-axis motor ………….

2. hot end of extruder ………….
3. extruder motor ………….
4. plastic filament ………….
5. X-axis motor ………….

Questions 6-10

pg. 73
JM English

Complete the notes below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each
answer.
The Pros and Cons of 3D Printers
Cons
The finished product is far From perfect, exhibiting 6. …………. in addition to banding. In
order to 7. …………. desired, extreme care has to be taken in selecting the plastic filaments to
be used. It is also necessary for plastic structures 8. ………….. during the printing process to
avoid distorting the printed model.
Pros
Only a very 9. ………….. is required to produce 3D models. 3D products are also much
cheaper to make than using normal manufacturing processes and need no storage space. In
theory 10. ………….. of 3D printers to create virtually anything from pizza to fighter planes is
astounding.

Questions 11-13
Complete the summary below.
Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Whilst 3D printing is far from becoming 11. ………….., so far experiments with the
new technology have been promising. Although 3D models have yet to produce anything as
12. ………….. as fighter planes, the foundation for such a technology is in place. For the
moment, however, the realisation of such projects remains in the 13. ………….. future.

READING PASSAGE 2
Nanotechnology: its development and uses
A. Nanotechnology has been hailed by many as being a twentieth-century miracle of science.
Essentially, nanotechnology, a term derived from Greek, translating literally as 'dwarf
technology' is, as the origin of its name suggests, engineering at the atomic level. Scientists
work with particles of substances known as 'nanoparticles' which may measure no more than
1 nanometre or a billionth of a metre. That's around 40,000 times smaller than the width of
the average human hair. Whilst some of these substances derived from carbon compounds
are manufactured, others, such as metals, are naturally-occurring or arise as a by-product of
another process e.g. volcanic ash or smoke from wood burning. What makes these substances
of such scientific interest is that their minute size facilitates medical and technological
processes that would otherwise be impossible.
B. It may be something of a revelation for many of us to learn that nanotechnology - or its
concept - is far from cutting-edge science. In fact, nanotechnology as an idea was first
referred to in an influential lecture by American physicist, Richard Feynman, as far back as
1959. During the lecture, entitled 'There's Plenty of Room at the Bottom', Feynman outlined
the basic concept of nanotechnology. Individual atoms and molecules, he claimed, could in
the future be created by a physical process. Such a process, he envisaged, would involve the
building of a set of precise tools to build and operate another proportionally smaller set. The
building of increasingly minute tools at the microscopic level would in turn produce ultra-
microscopic materials, later to become known as 'nanoparticles'.

pg. 74
JM English

C. Strangely, what should have sparked a scientific revolution was then virtually forgotten about
for the next 15 years. In 1974, a Japanese scientist, Norio Taniguchi, of the Tokyo University
of Science reintroduced Feynman's theory and put a new name to an old concept, referring to
the science as 'nanotechnology'. However, it wasn't until nearly a decade later, in the 1980s,
that the way was paved for nanotechnology to leave the realm of theoretical science and
become reality. Two major scientific developments within a relatively short period were to
enable practical application of nanotechnology. The invention of the Scanning Tunnelling
Microscope (STM), combined with the discovery of nano-sized particles termed 'fullerenes',
were to prove a turning point in nanotechnology.
D. Fullerenes are derived from carbon molecules and, in common with other nanoparticles,
possess chemical and physical properties that are of huge scientific interest. The potential
value of fullerenes for medical science was first raised in 2003 and in 2005 when the
scientific magazine 'Chemistry and Biology' ran an article describing the use of fullerenes as
light-activated antimicrobial agents. Since then, fullerenes have been used for several
biomedical applications ranging from X-ray imaging to treating cancer by targeting cancer
cells. In addition, these nanoparticles have been used in the manufacture of commercial
products, from sunscreen to cosmetics and some food products. Furthermore, nanoparticles
of metals, like gold and silver, have been used in environmental clean-ups of oil slicks and
other forms of pollution. The remarkable properties of nanoparticles are down to two main
factors: their greater surface-to-weight ratio, compared to larger particles which promotes the
attachment of substances to their surface, and their minute size which allows them
to penetrate cell membranes. These properties are of great benefit, for example in medicine,
as drugs to fight cancer or AIDS can be attached to nanoparticles to reach their target cell in
the human body.
E. However, despite the amazing properties attributed to nanoparticles such as fullerenes,
nanotechnology has yet to win wider universal acceptance in scientific circles. For the very
properties that make nanoparticles so valuable to technology and medical science are also the
ones that make them potentially so toxic. Such pro perties are potentially lethal if toxic
substances attach themselves to the same nanoparticles, thereby delivering a fatal toxin
through the cell membranes into the cells themselves. The toxic effect of these compounds is
further increased, since their size permits them to enter the bloodstream and hence the
body's major organs. Furthermore, the nanoparticles in themselves are essentially a foreign
element being introduced to the body. Unlike foreign elements, such as bacteria, the body has
no natural immune system to deaI with these ultramicroscopic particles. Scientists have yet to
convince the nanotechnology sceptics that the potential side effects of nanoparticles are more
than compensated for by the advantages that they confer. It may be, however, that opposition
to this technology is no more than a general distrust of scientific innovation. In fact, Urban
Wiesing from the University of Tubingen has been quoted as saying 'Many of the
risks associated with nanotechnology have at least been encountered in part in other
technologies as well.' He also believes that regulations can be put in place to minimise such
risks. This is a view echoed by the Fed eral Environment Agency that proposes that such
risks are vastly outweighed by the potential benefits of nanotechnology, in particular for the
environment.

Questions 14-18
The text has five paragraphs, A-E.

pg. 75
JM English

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-E, next to questions 14-18.
14. promising beginnings …………..
15. definition of a revolutionary technology …………..
16. repackaging an old idea …………..
17. dubious attributes …………..
18. the foundation of a new technology …………..

Questions 19-23
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
19. Nanotechnology
A. has limited value.
B. is not related to science.
C. incites controversy.
D. poses insurmountable safety issues.
20. In the beginning, nanotechnology was
A. overlooked as a science.
B. considered to be irrelevant.
C. highly unpopular.
D. regarded as being revolutionary.
21. Nanoparticles are a product of
A. manufacturing processes alone.
B. natural and manufactured processes.
C. purely biological processes.
D. environmental factors alone.
22. Nanotechnology remained a purely theoretical science until
A. other technologies caught up with it.
B. scientists were better able to understand its practical applications.
C. Taniguchi convinced other scientists of its practical value.
D. a scientist invented a new technology.
23. Safety concerns about nanotechnology are
A. completely unfounded.
B. exaggerated by its detractors.
C. real but manageable.
D. misunderstood.

Questions 24-26
Complete the sentences.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
A major 24. …….. in the field of nanotechnology came with the discovery of fullerenes and the
invention of the Scanning Tunnelling Microscope.
Amongst scientists, nanotechnology has not met with 25. …….. The ability of nanoparticles to
penetrate 26. …….. is somewhat of a mixed blessing,

READING PASSAGE 3
Driverless cars

pg. 76
JM English

Driverless cars may be set to become reality. At least that is, if the executives behind the taxi
app, Uber, are to be believed. Currently, Uber is taking its biggest steps yet towards a driver-free
world, launching the Uber Advanced Technologies Centre in Pittsburgh. The ultimate goal of
this institution is to 'do research and development, primarily in the areas of mapping and vehicle
safety and autonomy technology'.
To date, Uber has provided a chauffeur-driven taxi service for American clients. Venturing into
the realms of driverless cars is therefore a new direction which will require massive investment.
It is indeed a huge leap of faith on Uber's part, since technology has yet to catch up with the idea
of a fully autonomous vehicle. On the as well as stay in lane, and maintain a steady cruising
seed. In a patchwork fashion such cars could eventually build up to almost full automation and
Uber believes that car owners will readily embrace the idea of driverless taxis. In Uber's eyes,
current car owners only stand to gain by the introduction of such technology. Hiring a driverless
cab means that the client does not have to pay for the cost of the driver in the cab fee. The only
cost incurred by clients is for fuel, plus wear and tear. It is certainly an attractive proposition.
Uber stands to benefit, too, since employees currently working as taxi drivers will be removed
from the company's payroll. Apparently for car drivers and Uber, it is a win-win situation.
Not everyone will benefit however from this technology, the car industry being an obvious
example. Not surprisingly, the industry views the concept of selt-driving cars with a sense of
growing alarm. Such technology could well prove the death knell for private car ownership. As a
result, the industry is dragging its feet over the manufacture and introduction of fully automated
vehicles onto the market, due to commercial issues.
The commercial aspect apart, there is also the safety issue. Whilst a fully automated car could
respond to most eventualities in the course of a trip, would it be capable of responding to
unforeseen events, such as changes in route or unexpected diversions? Evidently legislative
authorities are also of this opinion. Currently, no matter how much automation a car has, it still
requires a driver with a full licence behind the wheel to drive on public roads. Whilst robot
drivers, on the whole, have the upper hand on their human counterparts safety-wise, that still
does not guarantee that they will become legal. As a consortium of researchers put it, 'I self-
driving cars cut the roughly 40,000 annual US traffic fatalities in half, the car makers might get
not 20,000 thank-you notes, but 20,000 lawsuits.'
Interestingly, Uber are now undertaking an aggressive hiring campaign for taxi drivers to meet
the demand for their taxi app. It seems that even Uber is less than confident that driverless taxis
will soon become a reality. Whether Uber is backing a doomed campaign or instead is about to
bring in a technology that will be universally greeted with positivity and acceptance depends
entirely on your viewpoint.
John Reynolds, a Pittsburgh taxi driver, is angry at Uber's attitude on fully automated
technology. 'They are completely disregarding individual livelihoods, such as mine, as well as
those of big car manufacturers in the pursuit of money. Admittedly things change and we have to
roll with the times, but there should be some safeguards in place to protect those potentially
affected by the introduction of new technologies. I guess I'm biased, being a taxi driver myself,
but it's difficult to see it objectively.'
Susie Greenacre, a redident of Pittsburgh, has no such reservations about driverless cars. 'I'm all
for it. Driverless cars have my backing, any day! I hate the stress of rush-hour traffic| I think if I
could just hop in a driverless car which would take me anywhere I wanted I would never want to
drive again!'

pg. 77
JM English

Jason Steiner, a school teacher in a Pittsburgh secondary school, is inclined to agree with Susie.
'Whilst I'm not averse to driving, I would swap the stressful daily commute by car to a driverless
one if I had the chance! It just takes the pressure off driving. I would be slightly wary though, of
completely dependent on a robot-driven car when it comes to having to react to unexpected
obstacles in the road.'

Questions 27-32
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
27. Which of the following statements is accurate?
A. Driverless cars conform to safety regulations.
B. There is an obvious market for fully automated cars.
C. Human drivers are no competition for driverless cars.
D. Potentially, fully automated taxis are more cost-effective than normal taxis.
28. Uber is investing in a technology that
A. will prove controversial.
B. has been tried and tested.
C. is unlikely to prove cost-effective.
D. will be universally welcomed.
29. What is NOT true about driverless cars?
A. They have become a reality in many countries.
B. They may improve road safety.
C. They will reduce the cost of travelling.
D. They will endanger jobs.
30. What can be said about current legislation?
A. It is in favour of driverless cars.
B. It currently doesn't favour fully automated cars.
C. It is keeping up with technology.
D. It already accommodates driverless cars.
31. What is the general view held by car manufacturers?
A. Driverless cars are more dangerous than non-automated cars.
B. Fully automated cars are too expensive to manufacture.
C. The introduction of driverless cars will threaten their livelihoods.
D. Technology is still too underdeveloped to manufacture driverless cars.
32. What can be said about the writer's opinion of driverless cars?
A. He is not really interested, but sceptical, that such a technology will be developed.
B. He reserves judgement as to whether fully automated cars will become a reality.
C. He believes that such a technology will never become a reality.
D. He is critical of Uber's plans to introduce fully automated cars.

Questions 33-37
Look at the following statements, 33-37, and the list of people.
Match each statement to the correct person, A-C.
You may use any letter more than once.
A John Reynolds
B Susie Greenacre
C Jason Steiner

pg. 78
JM English

27. I his person is willing to give up control of their vehicle because they appreciate the benefits
of fully automated cars.
28. This person would have no regrets about giving up driving entirely in favour of being driven
by a fully automated car.
29. This person is aware that the new technology of driverless cars may not provide an adequate
substitute for a human driver.
30. This person believes that those affected adversely by new technology should be protected
from its effects.
31. This person enjoys driving but only under favourable conditions.

Questions 38-40
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
For questions 38-40, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this
38. Driverless technology will have to overcome legal and safety obstacles to become completely
viable.
39. Uber has shown nothing but complete self-conviction in its investment in driverless cars,
40. The safety issues with driverless technology are likely to be resolved fairly quickly.

pg. 79
JM English

TEST 10
READING PASSAGE 1
A Gentle Giant And A Pint-sized Bully
Though a giant - more horse than dog, some say - the Irish Wolfhound, towering over his canine
brethren, makes a surprisingly good pet. Hard as it may be to imagine how a hound bred for
wolf-hunting, with muscular limbs, a swift turn of pace, the eyesight of an eagle, the stature of a
thoroughbred, primed for, and indeed employed in, battle many times for war-hungry Celtic
lords of yore, could possibly cut the mustard as a domestic pet, trust me: looks can be deceiving.
In fact, despite his size and reputation, the wolfhound is becoming an increasingly popular
pet choice for many families up and down the country.
Why? Well, there is a number of very good reasons. Firstly, the wolfhound is of above-average
intelligence, and, therefore, responds very well to obedience training (provided the training is
done from an early age, otherwise the animal‟s strong prey drive may hinder development in this
area). Secondly, he is very good-natured; despite the hound‟s reputation as a fierce, battle-
hardened animal, he is, in fact, very calm and even-tempered. Thirdly, the Irish Wolfhound is a
very social animal and does well with young children. He views himself as a member of the
family and so will be fiercely protective of all his „siblings‟ and will not intentionally let any of
them get in harm‟s way, though his considerable frame and slight clumsiness can lead to
collisions if the little members of the household don‟t watch where they are going.
Though the Irish Wolfhound makes an adequate guard dog, he is, surprisingly perhaps, not
terribly strong in this department. The hound tends to be aloof with strangers rather than
aggressive towards them, and he may not, at least initially, bark at intruders, therefore scoring
low in the watchdog department as well by failing to sound the alarm or alert the other members
of the household to danger in good time. If he is provoked, however, or if a member of his „pack‟
is threatened, his primeval instincts kick in. When that happens, intruders‟d better look out!
He is a very needy pet and a large enclosed backyard is a must-have for any prospective owner
because though he is easily house-trained, it is simply not fair to keep a dog of his size cooped up
inside all day. His appetite is huge and this is one of the practicalities to consider before buying a
Wolfhound - can you afford him? His large appetite also means that regular exercise is essential
in order for him to remain healthy and at a reasonably good weight. Five-minute walks to
the corner shop will not do; this animal needs proper exercise and should be taken out
for between one and two hours each day. Another practicality, and also a factor that
influences cost (the cost of clean-up), is his tendency to shed. Irish Wolfhounds shed a lot of fur
and dog hair will likely be deposited all over the house in vast quantities. If all this is
bearable and if you still want a cuddly, affectionate giant anyway, then go for it! The Irish
Wolfhound will provide you with many years of loyalty and friendship.
The truth, though, is that not everyone has the space to accommodate such a beast. And, indeed,
others would struggle to find the time to devote to this needy creature. The alternative, perhaps,
is the comparably tiny little West Highland White Terrier. The Highland and the
Wolfhound have one very important thing in common; they are both fantastic with kids. It is
here, though, that the similarity ends. The Highland sheds virtually no hair at all, so you won‟t be
cleaning up after him all the time. He also loves to make noise, making him the perfect watchdog
and quick to alert you when anything suspicious occurs. His size limits his ability to respond
meaningfully to any real threat discovered though. Compared to the Wolfhound, he is a
little more of a challenge in the training department, and must be monitored carefully and shown
his place in the „pack‟, otherwise his aggressive streak may come out and take over.

pg. 80
JM English

In almost every way possible, the Highland and the Wolfhound are different characters. The
Highland could never be described as placid, and, in fact, is extremely excitable and very
energetic. This little fellow suffers from a size complex of sorts, too, which sees him determined
to boss those around him and have his way, despite his modest profile. He is not that interested in
„cuddles‟ either, so don‟t let his size fool you into suggesting otherwise -this is no toy dog. And
he is, in general, not the most affectionate of dogs, being far happier digging up your garden or
barking at the neighbour‟s cat than lying in the arms of his owner. So, while the Wolfhound is
a gentle giant, the West Highland is, well, a little terrier in every sense of the word.
But while their character may differ, their fondness for exercise does not. The Highland is an
intelligent breed and needs stimulation; regular walks are essential. He also has a penchant for
water and loves to go swimming. And while he is excellent with older kids, toddlers should not
be left alone around the Highland as their size, coupled with their noisiness and hyperactivity,
may prompt an aggressive response from the dog.
Though both breeds have their strengths and weaknesses as pets, overall, either would make an
excellent addition to the family. The West Highland will be content enough indoors, provided he
gets regular exercise, but the Wolfhound must have an outdoor play area. And that is the one
point I must emphasize; don‟t buy a Wolfhound unless you have plenty of room.

Questions 1-10
Complete the table below.
Choose 10 answers from the box and write the correct letter, a-i, next to questions 1-10.
West Highland White
Irish Wolfhound
Terrier
1. ……… 6. ………
Temperament and Considerations
2. ……… 7. ………
When Training:
3. ……… 8. ………
4. ……… 9. ………
Behaviour around Children:
5. ……… 10. ………
A. not very tolerant of or interested in gestures of affection from children (or any member
of the family)
B. generally well-behaved around children, but inclined to react badly to very young
children who are loud and energetic
C. reacts well to training once training has commenced at an early stage in life
D. strong sense of pack loyalty makes it want to look after and care for young family
members
E. restless and can make itself a bit of a nuisance around the house and in the garden
F. reasonably good with children of all ages, though its natural awkwardness can mean it
poses a slight danger to young ones
G. must be taught its place in the hierarchy otherwise may try to dominate
H. a typically sedate and unexcitable temperament
I. requires more training and supervision
J. success of late-start training may be hindered by the animal‟s strong hunting instincts

pg. 81
JM English

K. better with younger children to whom its size poses less of a threat
L. training from a young age is essential, otherwise it will lack confidence

Questions 11-13
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-E, below.
Write the correct letter, A-E.
11. The Irish Wolfhound, despite its size and reputation
12. The West Highland White Terrier is quick to respond to intruders and alert the other
members of the household
13. Granted the Irish Wolfhound has the ideal temperament to become a loyal member of the
family
A. actually makes a pretty ineffectual watchdog, being slow to react to intruders or to
perceive them as a threat.
B. it is important to consider the costs of feeding and cleaning up after it, as well as the
space requirements for keeping one, before making the decision to purchase.
C. but it should never be left unsupervised around children of any age since it has an
excitable temperament and can be aggressive towards them.
D. is actually a fierce guard dog, alerting family members at the slightest hint that
something is wrong.
E. though it is largely ineffectual when it comes to neutralising any threats that have been
identified.

READING PASSAGE 2
The Scarlet Pimpernel of the Vatican
Born in Kiskeam in his mother's native North Cork, Hugh O'Flaherty was brought up in
Killarney, where his father was the steward of a local golf club. He was the eldest of
four children, and, from an early age, appeared to have a vocation for the priesthood.
His fondness for the church was formed in part during his education, which began at Presentation
Brothers' School in a local monastery in his home town. He later attended Waterford College, but
the priesthood was always going to be his calling, so he applied to Mungret College in Limerick
and was accepted into the seminary there. He was posted to Rome as a young seminarian
in 1922, the year in which Mussolini came to power. While studying in Rome, he earned
a degree in theology and was ordained in 1925 before going on to study there for a further two
years, earning his doctorates in divinity, canon law and philosophy.
O'Flaherty, posted at various times over the next few years in Egypt, Haiti, San Domingo and
Czechoslovakia, as well as Palestine, soon proved himself a very able diplomat. His golfing
skills were also noted, and he developed a number of high-profile connections in Italy through
the world of golf, often playing with the likes of ex-king Alfonso of Spain and Count Ciana,
Mussolini's son-in-law. These people were no doubt impressed by the golfing talents of the man,
which were, considering he had been playing the game since early childhood and was a natural,
by then rather impressive to say the least. O'Flaherty would come to rely on his high profile, as
well as his 'high' connections in the coming years as war broke out in Europe and Italy aligned
itself with Hitler's Germany and its policy of discriminating against minority groups. His
connections would give him the power and influence to make a difference to the lives

pg. 82
JM English

of thousands of innocent people when the time came, whilst his high profile made the German
and Italian authorities slow to move against him.
In the autumn of 1942, the Germans and Italians started to crack down on prominent figures they
viewed as being hostile to their goals. As their policies became more and more extreme, many
people started to become alarmed by fascist propaganda. The German and Italian governments
were not interested in justice, they were aligned on an ideological level and started to execute
their policy of ethnically cleansing Italy of the so-called 'unwanted': Jews, blacks, gypsies and so
on. O'Flaherty, on the other hand, having socialised with many prominent Jews throughout his
time in Italy, did not adhere to the Nazi ideology, and it was then that he started to act, protecting
innocent Jews and other victims of injustice, and keeping them away from the claws of the
Italian and German police, whose orders were to ship them to concentration camps.
O'Flaherty used his old college and indeed his own official residence as hiding places for the
people he was trying to protect. As the situation got more and more desperate, and the numbers
of people threatened grew, he even turned to using monasteries and convents as hideouts, calling
in favours from old friends in these places who, by agreeing to house the 'unwanted', were not
just risking a reprimand from the fascists had they been caught but were endangering their own
lives by being party to O'Flaherty's campaign. In the summer of 1943, O'Flaherty extended
his efforts to include helping escaped British prisoners-of-war and shot-down allied
airmen. Calling once again on his contacts, he developed a network of apartments in which to
house them until their safe return to Britain could be arranged.
By the end of the war, over 6,500 Jews and American and British soldiers had O'Flaherty to
thank for their escape from the Germans and a nearly certain death. His success in never being
identified when on unauthorised rescue missions outside of Vatican City, and in smuggling Jews
and allied airmen inside the city led to him being given the nickname the Scarlet Pimpernel of
the Vatican, an acknowledgement of how much the master of disguise O'Flaherty had become.
After the war, O'Flaherty continued to serve in Rome and received many accolades, including the
US Medal of Freedom and the title Commander of the British Empire. The fledgling Jewish state
of Israel also recognised O'Flaherty's contribution by proclaiming him Righteous among
the Nations.
In 1960, O'Flaherty retired and went home to Ireland to a town called Cahirsheveen. There he
lived for the remainder of his life until he died on the 30th October 1963. His death was mourned
throughout the world and the prestigious New York Times carried a front-page tribute in his
honour.
Margaret Mead once said: 'Never doubt that a small group of thoughtful, committed, citizens can
change the world. Indeed, it is the only thing that ever has'. O'Flaherty and his loyal group of
helpers within the Vatican and without are exactly the kind of people she was referring to. In life,
he saved thousands of innocent Romans; in death, he is remembered as a man who bravely stood
up to extremism and who was not prepared to turn a blind eye to injustice.

Questions 14-16
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
14. O‟Flaherty went to Rome
A. voluntarily for personal reasons as he wanted to pursue his studies there.
B. after completing his studies at Mungret College in Limerick and becoming a priest.
C. at the same time as a Mussolini went to study there.
D. under the instructions of the religious organisation of which he was a part.

pg. 83
JM English

15. O‟Flaherty‟s golfing talents

A. were exploited by him as a means by which to meet and influence important people.
B. were the product of his extremely hard work and tireless practice from a young age.
C. went unnoticed until he was posted in Italy where they impressed a number of high-
profile individuals.
D. were exaggerated by friends and connections in order to win him favour with the German
and Italian authorities.
16. When it came to Nazi ideology, O‟Flaherty‟s beliefs
A. were similar to those of Jews, blacks and gypsies, who viewed the German interference in
Italy as unwanted.
B. were influenced by the conclusions he had drawn from socialising with certain groups of
people in the past.
C. were in keeping up with the stated views of the German and Italian governments.
D. were similarly hostile and extreme as he was influenced by fascist propaganda.

Questions 17-18
There are TWO correct answers.
Choose TWO letters from A, B, C, D and E.
17+18: Where did O‟Flaherty conceal the people he had taken into his care?
A. in the place at which he was then studying
B. in a former college that had been converted into a network of apartments
C. in the place where he officially lived at the time
D. in the residences of certain religious groups
E. in the houses of old friends of his

Questions 19-21
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
19. What impressive aspect of the actions of O‟Flaherty‟s helpers does the writer highlight?
A. how eager they were to help him
B. how many of them were willing to volunteer
C. their disregard for the possible consequences of being caught
D. their ability to coordinate and work together
20. Why O‟Flaherty was nicknamed the Scarlet Pimpernel of the Vatican?
A. He resembled a Scarlet Pimpernel in the disguises he used to wear.
B. He often disguised himself as a Vatican priest.
C. He had successfully used disguises to avoid being identified.
D. He had earned a Master‟s in the art of disguise.
21. What impression does the writer leave us with of his own personal feelings with respect to
O‟Flaherty‟s life and achievements?
A. He admires O‟Flaherty‟s bravery and determination to stop injustice.
B. He admires O‟Flaherty‟s loyalty to the Vatican and his church.
C. He feels that Margaret Mead was a superior speech-maker to O‟Flaherty.
D. He feels he didn‟t get the recognition he deserves for his achievements.

pg. 84
JM English

Questions 22-26
Complete the summary below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
A moral, determined and resourceful man
O‟Flaherty‟s personal beliefs were at loggerheads with fascist ideology, which he saw as
mindless propaganda, so he took it upon himself to combat the injustices being
perpetrated against Jews and other minority groups at the hands of the German and
Italian police, who, acting on orders from above, were rounding said groups up to be
sent to 22. ………
Initially, O'Flaherty used familiar places as hideouts for the people he was trying to
conceal. However, as the situation started to deteriorate, and more and more people were
in need of assistance, he was forced to call upon old friends and contacts for help. In
helping O‟Flaherty, these friends showed their own bravery as getting 23. ……… might
have cost them their lives.
Not only did O‟Flaherty help the „unwanted‟, he also extended his assistance to fallen
24. ……… as well as British soldiers who had been detained by the Germans. By the
war‟s end, the lives of 6,500 people had been spared thanks to O‟Flaherty and his
helpers.
So effective had he been at 25. ……… Jews and servicemen inside that he earned the
nickname The Scarlet Pimpernel of the Vatican. O‟Flaherty received a huge number of
26. ……… from countries all around the world in acknowledgement of his war-time
feats.

READING PASSAGE 3
Types Of Snowfall
Snow is typically the product of weather conditions in which an extratropical cyclone has
formed. Extratropical cyclones bring extremely hazardous weather, such as high winds and
heavy rain or snow, and are often referred to as windstorms in Europe. The band of precipitation
associated with their warm front is often very extensive. When the warm front and cold front
collide, snow can result on the poleward side of the precipitation band; that is, on the northern
side in the Northern Hemisphere and on the southern side in the Southern Hemisphere.
Lake-effect snow is another kind of common snowfall. Although the name suggests a particular
correspondence of this type of precipitation to lake features, in fact, all narrow bands of water
may generate it. Lake-effect snow occurs when the water temperature is considerably higher than
the air temperature of a cold front progressing over a large water mass. Warm moist air is then
attracted upward at a relatively fast rate, condensing to form vertically oriented clouds. If the
temperature difference between the body of water and the air above is significant, say, 13
degrees or more, this can result in heavy and prolonged snowfall.
Mountainous areas are also prone to experiencing heavy snowfall. Accumulations typically occur
on the windward side of the mountain as precipitation is 'squeezed out' of the warm moist air as
it is forced to ascend the slopes; the moisture condenses upon contact with the colder air found at
higher altitudes and heavy snowfall can then occur if ground conditions are sufficiently cold.
How Snow Is Formed
Snow crystals, tiny supercooled cloud droplets, form at extremely low temperatures in the
atmosphere. Temperatures lower than minus 35 degrees Celsius are required for this supercool

pg. 85
JM English

moisture to freeze by itself. In warmer clouds, an aerosol particle such as clay or desert dust, or
an ice nucleus is needed for the freezing to start.
Once a droplet of water has frozen, it starts to grow in the supersaturated environment of the
cloud. Eventually, due to its size, the cloud will not be able to contain the ice crystal anymore. At
this point the ice crystal will fall to the ground and, if it is not melted by warmer air at lower
altitudes, it will do so as snow. Although the ice crystals that land on the ground are actually
transparent, hollow imperfections in them mean that light is scattered and they often appear
white in colour owing to diffuse reflection of the whole spectrum of light.
The Snowflake
The shape of a snowflake is determined by the atmospheric conditions present at the time of its
formation, specifically temperature and humidity. Between 0 and -3 degrees Celsius, thin flat
crystals called planar crystals grow. From -3 to 8, the crystals form needles or prisms with
pencil-like shapes. The shape then reverts back to plate-like until after 22 degrees Celsius when
column-like structures (needles and prisms, etc.) begin to form again. At temperatures of 22
degrees and below, as well as the column-like structures, more complex growth patterns also
form.
Snowfall in the British Isles
Snowfall occurs frequently in the U.K., but the quantities are typically small and it seldom
persists for very long. In recent years, a trend towards milder, wetter winters has been
developing, though the 2010/11, 2011/12 and 2012/13 winters seem to have bucked the trend
and, indeed, represent the longest period of consecutive cold winters for more than 50 years. For
its latitude, the British Isles should see far more prolonged cold weather in winter and regular
snowfall. However, the Gulf Stream, a mild Atlantic Ocean current, keeps the climate several
degrees warmer than regions of similar latitude in other parts of the world. As a consequence,
despite the occasional incident of prolonged cold, Britain‟s winters are typically not very severe.
Some parts of the isles see little, if any, snow from year to year. The most snow-prone are the
Pennines, the Scottish Highlands, the Welsh Hills and the mountains of Northern Ireland. The
Scottish Highlands boasts the isles‟ highest peaks and also their only winter ski resorts. For
years, unreliable snowfall has threatened to close these resorts, though, having had three
consecutive bumper seasons, there is now less pressure on the Scottish ski industry, which, not
so long ago, was threatened with going out of existence.
Long-term weather forecasts for the British Isles are notoriously hard to get right; however, so
far, three months before the official start of the meteorological winter in December, forecasters
are predicting another winter of record-breaking low temperatures. They point to sunspot and
geothermal activity, and changes in the strength of the Gulf Stream as key indicators of the fact
that a cold winter is in prospect. Were their predictions to be realised, then this would point to
the isles undergoing a subtle climatic change and a return to more severe winters in general.

Questions 27-33
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?
Write:
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
27. When a warm front from an extratropical cyclone meets a cold front, snow is more likely to
occur on the poleward side of the weather system.

pg. 86
JM English

28. Lake-effect snow is aptly named, given that it is a weather phenomenon which is only
associated with lakes.
29. Heavy snowfall is more likely to be seen on the side of the mountain that is exposed to high
winds.
30. In the absence of dust or a similar particle to start the freezing process, supercool moisture
will not freeze in a cloud whose mean temperature is -34 degrees or more.
31. The real colour of snow is the same as the colour snow appears to be to the human eye.
32. Snowflakes shaped like a prism are more likely to form in milder weather than are flakes
with more intricate growth patterns.
33. The thin flat crystals created at temperatures of between zero and minus three degrees
Celsius are more voluminous than column-like crystals.

Questions 34-37
Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
While snowfall is not an uncommon feature of a United Kingdom winter, it is rare for significant
34. ……… to accumulate, or for the snow to remain on the ground for any great length of time.
Three consecutive winters have failed to follow the 35. ……… towards milder, wetter weather.
Despite its latitude, the British Isles does not suffer from 36. ……… on account of the influence
of the Gulf Stream.
Should next winter be another unusually cold one, this may be indicative of the fact that a 37.
……… is under way.

Questions 38-40
Complete the summary with the list of words A-F below.
Write the correct letter, A-F, in spaces 38-40 below.
The British Winter
Snowfall is not an uncommon sight in Britain during winter, but such weather rarely
persists for very long. In fact, up until a few years ago, it looked like British winters
were getting milder. However, this perception has changed fairly dramatically over the
last three winters, which have been the longest 38. ……… period of cold winters for
more than half a century. It is now feared that the climate of the British Isles is
changing and that, should the next few winters be equally severe, this could signal a
permanent move to more 39. ……… winter weather in general. Scientists blame sunspot
and geothermal activity as well as the 40. ……… influence of the Gulf Stream, which,
until now, has kept Britain‟s climate milder than that of areas of similar latitude
throughout the rest of the world.
A uninterrupted
B mild
C strengthening
D waning
E extreme
F direct

pg. 87
JM English

TEST 11
READING PASSAGE 1
Art or Craft?
Down the centuries, craftsmen have been held to be distinct from artists. Craftsmen, such as
woodworkers and plasterers, belonged to their own guild, whilst the artist was regarded as a
more solitary being confined to an existence in a studio or attic. In addition, whilst craftsmen
could rely on a reasonably steady income, artists were often living such a hand-to-mouth
existence that the term 'starving artist' became a byword to describe the impoverished existence
of artists generally. Even today, the lifestyles of the craftsman and the artist could not be more
different. However, what exactly separates craft from art from both a practical and
a philosophical view?
One of the main distinctions between art and craft resides in the nature of the finished product
or piece. Essentially, the concept of craft is historically associated with the production of useful
or practical products. Art, on the other hand, is not restricted by the confines of practicality. The
craftsman's teapot or vase should normally be able to hold tea or flowers while the artist's work is
typically without utilitarian function. In fact, the very reason for art and its existence is purely to
'be', hence the furlined teacup created by Dada artist, Meret Oppenheim. The 'cup' as such was
quite obviously never intended for practical use any more than a chocolate teapot might have
been.
Artistry in craftsmanship is therefore merely a byproduct, since the primary focus is on what
something does, not what it is. The reverse is true for art. Artistic products appeal purely at the
level of the imagination. As the celebrated philosopher, Kant, stated, 'At its best, art cultivates
and expands the human spirit.' Whether the artist responsible for a piece of art has sufficient
talent to achieve this is another matter. The goal of all artists nevertheless remains the same: to
produce a work that simultaneously transcends the mundane and uplifts the viewer. In contrast,
the world of the craftsman and his work remain lodged firmly in the practicality of the everyday
world. An object produced by an artist is therefore fundamentally different from the one
produced by a craftsman.
Differences between the two disciplines of art and craft extend also to the process required to
produce the finished object. The British philosopher R.G. Collingwood, who set out a list of
criteria that distinguish art from craft, focused on the distinction between the two disciplines in
their 'planning and execution'. With a craft, Collingwood argued, the 'result to be obtained is
preconceived or thought out before being arrived at.' The craftsman, Collingwood says, 'knows
what he wants to make before he makes it'. This foreknowledge, according to Collingwood, must
not be vague but precise. In fact, such planning is considered to be 'indispensable' to craft. In this
respect, craft is essentially different from art. Art is placed by Collingwood at the other end of
the creative continuum, the creation of art being described as a process that evolves non-
deterministically. The artist is, therefore, just as unaware as anyone else as to what the end
product of creation will be, when he is actually in the process of creating. Contrast this with the
craftsman who already knows what the end product will look like before he or she has even
begun to create it.
Since the artist is not following a set of standard rules in the process of creation, he or she has
no guidelines like the craftsman. Whilst the table or chair created by the craftsman, for example,
has to conform to certain expectations in appearance and design, no such limitations are imposed
on the artist. For it is the artist alone who, through a trial-and-error approach, will create the final
object.

pg. 88
JM English

The object merely evolves over time. Whereas the craftsman can fairly accurately predict when
a product will be finished taking technical procedures into account, the artist can do no such
thing. The artist is at the mercy of inspiration alone and quite apart from not being able to have a
projected finishing date, may never be able to guarantee that the object will be finished at all.
Unfinished symphonies by great composers and works of literature never completed by their
authors testify to this.
Having no definite end-goal in mind, the emphasis on the finished product that is true of
craftsmanship is placed Instead on the act of creation itself with the artist. The creation of the
work of art is an exploration and a struggle and path of discovery for the artist. It could be said
that the artist is producing as much for himself as for those who will view the finished product.
This act of creation is very distinct from the production of an object that is crafted, therefore. The
goal of making craftwork is monetary compensation. Craft is produced for purchase and is
essentially a money-generating industry. Any craftsman who followed the artistic approach to
creation would soon be out of a job. Craftsmen are expected to deliver, artists are not. This is
probably the most fundamental difference that separates the craftsman from the artist.

Questions 1-10
Complete the table below.
Choose 10 answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-L, next to questions 1-10.
Art Craft
1. ……… 2. ………
End Product
3. ……… 4. ………
5. ……… 6. ………
Act of Creation/ Production
7. ……… 8. ………
9. ……… 10. ………
A the finished object appeals on an emotional and spiritual level
B the final product has no pretensions to being anything more than it appears
C only a functional use is considered for the finished object
D no practical purpose as such is envisaged for the created object
E the process of creation is merely a means to an end
F whether or not there is an end product, the product itself is secondary to the process of
creation
G not having to adhere to a set of rules, the process is a matter of experimentation
H there is no margin of error for experimentation, all of the process following a set of
guidelines
I its goal is defined from the outset
J the process is fluid and undefined
K it is useful but not commercially viable
L the production process is a mixture of following rules and experimentation

READING PASSAGE 2

pg. 89
JM English

Salvador Dali
Few with even a passing knowledge of the art world are likely not to have heard of Salvador
Dali, the eccentric and avant-garde exponent of the Surrealist movement. Love him or loathe
him, Dali's work has achieved enduring worldwide fame as his name and work have become
virtually synonymous with Surrealism itself. The artist's melting clock image is surely one of the
most iconic paintings of the art world, whilst Dali's antics have become the stuff of anecdotes.
Born into a middle-class family in the Catalonian town of Figueres in north-eastern Spain, Dali
(or Salvador Felipe Jacinto Dali Domenech, to give him his full name) aimed high from the
beginning. In the artist's 1942 autobiography entitled 'The Secret Life of Salvador Dali', the artist
wrote: 'At the age of six I wanted to be a cook. At seven I wanted to be Napoleon. And my
ambition has been growing steadily ever since.' Such ambition and self-belief matured into full-
blown arrogance in later years. An example of this is amply shown on an occasion when the
artist felt the examiners of the Madrid Academy he was attending were well below par.
To a degree, his undeniably impressive and precocious talent excused his conceit. He was only
14 when his first works were exhibited as part of a show in Figueres. Then three years later he
was admitted to the Royal Academy of Fine Arts of San Fernando, in Madrid. However, it wasn't
long before Dali's highly developed sense of self-worth (or conceit, depending on how you view
the artist) came to the fore and also affected the course of his life. Believing himself way
superior to the Academy tutors, who nevertheless refused to grant him a degree, the rebellious
artist left for Paris. There he hoped to avail himself of knowledge that he believed his tutors were
not adequate to impart. He soon made the acquaintance of the French surrealists Jean Arp, Rene
Magritte and Max Ernst and this would prove a turning point in Dali's artistic life.
Already familiar with the psychoanalytic theories of Sigmund Freud, Dali was to witness how
the French surrealists were attempting to capture Freud's ideas in paint. The whole world of
the unconscious sublimated into dreams was to become the content of these artists' work and
later that of Dali's, too. International acclaim followed shortly after. In 1933 he enjoyed solo
exhibitions in Paris and New York City, becoming, as one exhibition curator put it, 'Surrealism's
most exotic and prominent figure'. Praise continued to be heaped on Dali as French poet and
critic, Andre Breton, the leader of the Surrealist movement gave the artist his blessing to
continue carrying the torch for the artistic movement, writing that Dali's name was 'synonymous
with revelation in the most resplendent sense of the word'.
Dali's surrealist paintings were packed with Freudian imagery: staircases, keys, dripping candles,
in addition to a whole host of personally relevant symbolism such as grasshoppers and ants
that captured his phobias on canvas. Despite Dali's overt adulation for Freud, a meeting with the
grandmaster of psychoanalysis proved somewhat unfortunate. On the occasion that Dali met
Freud, he proceeded to sketch the latter in earnest. However, something about Dali's fervid
attitude must have alarmed the psychoanalyst as he is said to have whispered to others in the
room, 'The boy looks like a fanatic.'
Sometimes Dali came across as not only mad but also unintelligible, at least as far as his
paintings were concerned. One work, 'The Persistence of Memory', was particularly singled out
for the sheer confusion it caused amongst its viewers. Featuring melting clocks, swarming ants
and a mollusc that was the deflated head of Dali in disguise, the images were so puzzling that
one critic urged readers to 'page Dr. Freud' to uncover the meaning of the canvas. His work was,
if nothing else, provocative and powerful.
With the passing years, Dali became ever more infatuated with money, admitting to a 'pure,
vertical, mystical, gothic love of cash'. Accordingly, he indiscriminately endorsed a host of

pg. 90
JM English

products for French and American TV commercials. Fie also never failed to promote himself and
displayed increasingly exhibitionist behaviour as time went on. Most notably, he once turned up
for a lecture in Paris in a Rolls Royce stuffed with cauliflowers. Fie obviously believed the
slogan of one of his advertising campaigns for Braniff Airlines, where he declares 'If you got it,
flaunt it.' As a more positive outcome of his love for money, Dali took on increasingly diverse
projects, ranging from set design to designing clothes and jewellery. His critics, however,
believed that early on in his career his love for money exceeded his dedication to producing great
art, resulting in Dali producing 'awful junk' after 1939, according to one art critic.
Despite a lukewarm reception from critics, Dali's public popularity never declined. In 1974, at 70
years old, the Dali Theatre Museum opened in his hometown, Figueres. More of a surrealist
happening than a museum, one exhibit was a long black Cadillac that rained inside itself
whenever a visitor dropped a coin into the slot. Even today hundreds of thousands of visitors still
tour the museum each year. Whatever your opinion of him, at least Dali is unlikely to ever be
forgotten.

Questions 11-13
Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-E, below.
A. of certain limitations in his artistic skills that became evident in his later works.
B. opened Dali's eyes to the psychoanalytic movement, the ideas of which he then
incorporated into his works.
C. his artistic studies needed to be supplemented by going to Paris to meet the Surrealist
artists.
D. dome art critics are less impressed with his work than the general public.
E. inspired Dali to focus on the psychoanalytic content of his artwork.
Write the correct letter, A-E, next to questions 11-13.
11. Dali displayed a precocious talent from an early age; however, he was aware
12. Encountering the French Surrealist painters in Paris
13. Dali‟s artistic legacy is secure although

Questions 14-16
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D
14. Dali's departure for Paris was
A. inspired by a desire to learn about psychoanalysis.
B. a result of being disgraced at the Madrid Academy.
C. to blame for his failure to complete his Academy degree.
D. a quest for self-improvement.
15. Dali came to represent the Surrealist movement
A. due to a personal endorsement by fellow artist, Andre Breton.
B. because he depicted the most memorable images of Surrealism.
C. as he had a better understanding of psychoanalysis than his fellow artists.
D. since he was no more talented, as an artist, than his peers.
16. Dali's work was
A. accessible to those with an understanding of psychoanalysis.
B. loaded with secret symbolism.
C. more a channel for personal expression than a financial undertaking.

pg. 91
JM English

D. to prove more popular as Dali grew older.

Questions 17-18
There are two correct answers.
Choose two letters from A, B, C, D and E.
What is Dali most likely to be remembered for?
A. his contribution to the field of psychoanalysis
B. his diverse output of artistic works
C. his inappropriate behaviour and eccentricity
D. his striking and unusual paintings
E. his attempt to create popular accessible works

Questions 19-21
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
19. What does the writer convey about Dali's childhood and student days?
A. his inability to pursue a goal until its conclusion
B. his mental instability, evident in his grandiose ambitions
C. his supreme confidence in his own abilities
D. his obviously superior intelligence
20. Why did critics turn against Dali?
A. It was a reaction to his increasingly obscure works.
B. He was devoting more time to TV commercials than painting.
C. His work no longer did justice to his talent.
D. His obsession with Surrealism overshadowed his work.
21. What does the writer convey about his own attitude towards Dali's life and work?
A. He believes that despite promising beginnings, Dali wasted his talents.
B. In his opinion, few artists have made such an impact as Dali during his lifetime.
C. He thinks that people focused more on Dali's exhibitionist behaviour than his talent.
D. He believes that despite his failings, Dali has left an enduring legacy.

Questions 22-26
Complete the summary below.
Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Dali has managed to achieve 22. ……… becoming the figurehead of the Surrealist
movement. His sheer 23. ……… which for some might have been interpreted as
arrogance, led him to believe he was capable of achieving anything. Moving to France,
where he encountered Surrealist artists, was a 24. ……… in his life. Dali's work was
chiefly inspired by Freud's 25. ……… theories. However, as Dali became increasingly
infatuated with money, the standard of his art declined. Despite the fact that his work is
of varying quality, Dali will never 26. ………

pg. 92
JM English

READING PASSAGE 2
The Beginnings of Art Therapy
Art therapy is a relative newcomer to the therapeutic field. Art therapy as a profession began in
the mid-20th century, arising independently in English-speaking and European countries. Many
of the early practitioners of art therapy acknowledged the influence of a variety of disciplines on
their practices, ranging from psychoanalysis through to aesthetics and early childhood education.
However, the roots of art as therapy go back as far as the late 18th century, when arts were used
in the 'moral treatment' of psychiatric patients.
It wasn't until 1942, however, that the British artist Adrian Hill coined the term 'art therapy', as
he was recovering from tuberculosis in a sanatorium. He discovered that therapeutic benefits
could be derived from drawing and painting whilst recovering. Art, he claimed, could become
therapeutic since it was capable of 'completely engrossing the mind... releasing the creative
energy of the frequently inhibited patient'. This effect, argued Hill, could in turn help the patient
as it would 'build up a strong defence against his misfortunes'.
In 1964, the British Association of Art Therapists was founded. Proponents of art therapy fell
into one of two categories: those who believed that the therapeutic effect of art lay in its
effectiveness as a psychoanalytic tool to assess a patient through their drawings and those who
held the belief that art-making was an end in itself, the creative process acting therapeutically on
the patient. The two practices, however, were not incompatible, a degree of overlap occurring
between the two. A patient, for example, could produce work that could be analysed for content
and forms of self-expression but which could also be a creative outlet at the same time.
Who Benefits from Art Therapy
Art therapy in all its forms has proved effective in the treatment of individuals suffering with a
wide range of difficulties or disabilities. These include emotional, behavioural or mental health
problems, learning or physical disabilities. These include emotional, behaviour or mental health
problems, learning or physical disabilities, neurological conditions and physical illness. Therapy
can be provided on a group or individual basis according to the clients' needs. Whether the
approach adopted by the therapist is oriented towards a psychoanalytic or creative approach, the
effect of therapy is multifold. Partaking in art therapy can raise a patient's self-awareness and
enable them to deal with stress and traumatic experience. In addition, art therapy sessions can
enhance a patient's cognitive abilities and help the patient enjoy the life-affirming pleasures of
making art.
What an Art Therapy Session Involves
Typically, an art therapy session is fundamentally different from an art class in that the
individual is encouraged to focus more on their internal feelings and to express them, rather than
portray external objects. Although some traditional art classes may ask participants to draw from
their imagination, in art therapy the patient's inner world of images, feelings, thoughts and ideas
are always of primary importance to the experience. Any type of visual art and medium can be
employed in the therapeutic process including painting, drawing, sculpture, photography and
digital art.
Art therapy sessions are usually held by skilled and qualified professionals. The presence
primarily of the therapist is to be in attendance, guiding and encouraging artistic expression in
the patient, in accordance with the original meaning of the word for therapy derived from the
Greek word 'therapeia', meaning 'being attentive to'.
The Regulation of Art Therapy

pg. 93
JM English

Requirements for those wishing to become an art therapist vary from country to country. In the
USA, where entry to the profession is highly regulated, a master's degree in art therapy is
essential. In addition, those applying for such a post must have taken courses in a variety of
studio art disciplines in order to demonstrate artistic proficiency. On completion of the master's
degree, candidates also have to complete a minimum of 1000 hours of direct client contact post-
graduation that is approved by the American Art Therapy Association (AATA).
However, whilst entry to the profession is strictly regulated in the USA, the same does not hold
true for other countries. The problem is that art therapy is still considered a developing field. As
such, until it becomes truly established as a therapy, its practice and application will remain
unregulated in many countries for some time yet.

Questions 27-33
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
For questions 27-33, write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this
27. The artist Adrian Hill was strongly influenced by psychoanalytic theories when formulating
his ideas on art therapy.
28. Twentieth-century art therapy focuses on treating a client‟s mental or physical health
problems rather than dealing with moral issues.
29. Approaches to art therapy can be broadly considered to be creative or
psychoanalytic; however, practitioners tend to avoid combining the two schools of practice.
30. Clients who respond best to art therapy have a previous background in art.
31. Art therapy sessions are more concerned with expression through art than on the created art
itself.
32. Many art therapists are insufficiently qualified as they are not aware of the regulations
regarding the practice of art therapy.
33. Art therapy sessions involve limited interaction between therapist and client.

Questions 34-37
Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
The early pioneers of art therapy admitted that their beliefs had been shaped by a 34. ………
influences.
Artist Adrian Hill realised the 35. ……… of art as therapy, and coined the term 'art therapy' in
1942.
Those supporting art therapy advised a psychoanalytic approach or alternatively one that placed
more emphasis on the 36. ……… itself,
Whilst theories behind art therapy may differ, they are 37. ……… in practice.

Questions 38-40
Complete the summary with the list of words, A-F.
Write the correct letter, A-F, in spaces 38-40 below.
A capable

pg. 94
JM English

B strong
C keen
D inhibited
E creative
F therapeutic
How Art Therapy Evolved into Its Modern Form
Modern-day art therapy has its beginnings in the 1940s. Adrian Hill, one of
its early pioneers, realised that art therapy was effective in helping patients
create a 38. ……… resistance to psychological and social stresses. Hill
considered that 39. ……… patients would particularly benefit from having
an artistic outlet. Art therapy then developed into two types of practice, one
emphasising a psychoanalytic approach and the other a more 40.
……… one. Today there is often an overlap between the two practices.

pg. 95
JM English

TEST 12
READING PASSAGE 1
Prison: The Solution or the Problem?
In the Netherlands and parts of the USA such as Johnson County, a move towards rehabilitation
of offenders and decreasing crime has seen a reduction in incarceration rates. Bucking this trend,
the UK's prison population has increased by an average rate of 3.6% per year since 1993. As the
situation currently stands, England's and Wales' incarceration rate is 148 per 100,000 compared
to 98 in France, 82 in the Netherlands and 79 in Germany. Without a shadow of a doubt, out of
all European countries, the UK has adopted the most hardline approach to offenders.
The trend towards imposing prison sentences on offenders in the UK is made to seem all the
more harsh since the Dutch Justice Ministry is actively in the process of systematically closing
down prisons. In the period between 2010-2015, 28 prisons were closed in total. If anything, the
Dutch reform of the prison system has been accelerating at a phenomenal pace, with 19 of the
prisons being shut down in 2014 alone.
As would be expected, closures of prisons in the Netherlands have led to a drop in the numbers
of incarcerated offenders. This is also largely due to the fact that those convicted are choosing
electronic tagging instead of incarceration. However, there is more to these statistics than meets
the eye. Defying all expectations of the pro-incarceration lobbyists, crime rates in the
Netherlands are also actually decreasing in direct proportion to the closure of prisons.
With such statistics laid bare for all to see, many are now beginning to question the validity of
incarceration as a method of reforming offenders. All the more so since the average prison place
costs the taxpayer £37,648 per year - a hefty sum for a service that fails to deliver, especially
since there are vastly cheaper and more effective methods to deal with offenders. Allowing
offenders to be tagged electronically rather than be incarcerated would save around £35 million
per year for every 1000 convicted offenders. Serving a probation or community service order
would also be 12 times less costly than the average prison placement for an offender.
More tellingly, a decreased incidence of relapse into criminal behaviour when offenders receive
a community sentence, rather than a custodial one, has been revealed in re-offending statistics
issued by the UK Ministry of Justice. There is definitely an argument that serving a prison term
tends to create rather than alleviate the problem of crime. As a Conservative white paper
concluded in 1990, 'We know that prison is an expensive way of making bad people worse.'
Interestingly, the report also argued that there should be a range of community-based sentences
which would be cheaper and more effective alternatives to prison.
Quite apart from the cost and relative ineffectiveness of incarceration is the short-sightedness of
imposing a custodial sentence in the first place. A punitive system of incarceration presupposes
that the prisoner needs to be punished for bad behaviour. Since the prisoner is considered
answerable for their behaviour, it is believed that they are also completely responsible for their
actions. Such an approach overlooks social and economic factors that can play an integral role in
the incidence of crime. Such an oversight only serves to perpetuate crime and punish offenders
who need help rather than a penal sentence.
It would do no harm for the UK to look to the Netherlands for an example in reducing crime
through addressing social problems as a key to reducing incarceration. In the Netherlands, the
focus is on deterring crime by investing in social services rather than seeking purely to punish
the offender. In addition, those who do offend are helped with rehabilitation programmes.
Overlooking the social circumstances of the offender can also be detrimental to children's
welfare, especially if a mother is convicted and given a custodial sentence. Often childcare

pg. 96
JM English

arrangements are not in place when custodial sentences are handed down to mothers caring for
children. In fact, research suggests that more than half of the women who go to court are not
expecting a custodial sentence, leading to provisions made for the children being haphazard at
best. The number of children who fall foul of the custodial system in this way totals a
staggering 17,000 per year. Worse still, figures show that adult children of imprisoned mothers
are more likely to be convicted of a crime than adult children of imprisoned fathers. Viewing the
offender and their crime in isolation and disregarding all other social and environmental factors
is therefore mistaken, if not downright morally reprehensible.
All evidence would seem to point to a much needed shake-up of the English penal system. As
things stand, there are too many losers and no identifiable winners. It was Dostoevsky who said:
'The degree of civilisation in a society is revealed by entering its prisons.' Maybe we would do
better to go one step further and amend his quotation to 'The degree of civilisation in a society is
revealed by not having prisons and instead by addressing social issues in society itself.'

Questions 1-7
Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
A decrease in crime in the Netherlands and parts of the US is attributable more to the 1. ………
than to their incarceration.
Closure of prisons in the Netherlands 2. ……… at an unprecedented rate over recent years.
Against 3. ……… the Netherlands are seeing a drop in crime along with the closure of prisons.
Since statistics do not support the argument for incarceration this has made many 4. ……… of
such a practice.
In fact, incarceration may serve to fuel rather 5. ……… crime, thereby defeating the purpose of
such a punishment.
In recognition of the fact that custodial sentences achieve little, less costly and 6. ……… were
put forward by the Conservatives in 1990.
Crime is not only down to individual behaviour but is also a result of 7. ……… influences.

Questions 8-13
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
For questions 8-13, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this
8. Mothers who receive a custodial sentence are worse role models for their children than
fathers who receive similar justice.
9. Custodial sentences are intended primarily to reform prisoners.
10. Factors other than an individual‟s guilt are rarely taken into account by the English judicial
system.
11. A proven link exists between mothers receiving a custodial sentence and their offspring
committing crimes in later life.
12. The English judicial system stands to benefit from incarcerating offenders.
13. There are signs that custodial sentences are becoming less popular in the UK.

pg. 97
JM English

READING PASSAGE 2
Physiology and Criminality
Prior to the 19th century, criminality was considered more of a moral or philosophical issue.
Only with the advent of Italian anthropologist Cesare Lombroso did the subject of criminality
take a more scientific turn. With the publication of his theories of criminal behaviour, Lombroso
advanced the idea that criminal behaviour was attributable to physiological disposition rather
than to any existential reasons.
In his 'atavistic form' theory published in 1876, Lombroso claimed that criminality was heritable.
He proposed that a distinct biological class of people were prone to criminality. Such people, he
claimed, exhibited 'atavistic' or primitive features and were 'throwbacks', bearing physical
resemblances to Man's predecessors, the Neanderthals. Characterised by a strong, well-defined
jaw and heavy brow, they certainly had little to recommend them in the beauty stakes. With such
features, coupled with a tendency towards criminal behaviour, Lombroso's atavistic type was
certainly not cut out for social success. Just for good measure, Lombroso also included other
distinguishing features to identify criminals, such as bloodshot eyes and curly hair for murderers
and thick lips and protruding ears for sex offenders. It has to be wondered, given the unusual
appearance with which they were credited, how such individuals would have got close enough to
their victims to begin with and, more to the point, how any such criminals hoped to get away
with their crime, seeing as they were so readily identifiable.
In hindsight, Lombroso's hypothesis seems ludicrous and deeply flawed. One major failing in
Lombroso's theory of an atavistic type is that no proper controls were used in studies designed to
support his hypo-thesis. All individuals were confined to a criminal population, no comparison
being made at the time with non-criminal control groups. Secondly, the concept of what
constitutes a crime is in itself a social construct and can vary cross-culturally and over time.
Therefore, the argument that criminal behaviour is inherited is hard to sustain. Finally, in the
light of modern genetic research, complex behaviours are not considered to be controlled by
single genes, thereby completely ruling out any possibility of inherited criminality.
Surprisingly, given his strong conviction of a biological disposition towards criminality,
Lombroso later modified his views to admit environmental influences in determining criminal
behaviour. Such views now form the basis of contemporary theories of criminality. In
recognition of this fact, contemporary criminologists have bestowed on Lombroso the honorary
title 'the father of criminology'. Furthermore, despite scientific failings in his experimental
approach, Lombroso is to be credited with shifting the study of criminal behaviour from a moral
basis to an empirical one, thereby placing the study of criminology on a more scientific footing.
The argument for a biological basis to criminality resurfaced, however, nearly a century later
with Sheldon's theory of somatotypes. In 1949, Sheldon advanced the theory that individuals fell
within three broad physical types: the ectomorph, mesomorph and endomorph. The ectomorph
was essentially thin, the mesomorph muscular and athletic, whilst the endomorph type was said
to be fat and rather lethargic. Each physical type, Sheldon claimed, was associated with a distinct
personality and temperament. Ectomorphs were characterised by a solitary and restrained nature,
whilst mesomorphs were said to be adventurous and endomorphs relaxed and pleasure-loving.
Unfortunately for the mesomorphs, Sheldon also claimed that those corresponding to this
physical type had criminal tendencies. By linking inherited physical types with personality,
Sheldon thereby was hypothesising a hereditary aspect to criminal behaviour. Sheldon's studies
of mesomorphic college students did to some extent confirm his theory as did a later study
conducted by Putwain and Sammons as recently as 2002. In partial support of Sheldon's

pg. 98
JM English

theory, an increased level of testosterone associated with a mesomorphic build could explain
such a biological disposition towards criminality associated with a particular body type.
However, social prejudices and self-fulfilling prophecies could also be at play in the above
average correlation between mesomorphic types and criminal behaviour in society.
Following on from Sheldon's hypothesis, a further argument for a biological disposition to
criminality was proposed in the 1960s. This time, hereditary tendencies were linked to genetic
defect or chromosomal abnormality. Variations of the normal 'XY' genetic component or
genotype of males were hypothesised to determine criminal behaviour from homicide to violent
crime. The theory was based on the unproven assumption that possession of an extra 'X'
chromosome 'feminises' a man and so conversely having an extra male 'Y' chromosome should
make a man more masculine and aggressive. However, this somewhat weak hypothesis was
severely undermined by the study of Epps in 1995. Epps demonstrated that possessing an extra
'Y' chromosome, as in the 'XYY' genotype, made an individual no more likely to commit
violent crime than anyone else. The further finding that testosterone levels amongst 'XYY' men
are no different from 'XY' men and that the former are no more aggressive than the latter
sounded the final death knell for the hypothesis of a criminal type determined by genotype alone.
At least those who place trust in rehabilitation programmes to reform criminal types can now
breathe a sigh of relief. It would seem that the rather pessimistic prognosis for individuals born
with a certain physique or genotype no longer holds credence in scientific circles. If biological
predisposition does play a role in criminality, it seems to be at least tempered by environmental
and social factors to a large extent.

Questions 14-24
Complete the timeline diagram below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
1876
No longer is criminality confined to a 14. ……… realm.
Italian scientist, Lombroso proposes a 15. ……… to criminality.
A biological theory of criminality presupposes that such a condition is 16. ……… Criminal
types are claimed to be 17. ……… distinctive „atavistic‟ or primitive features.
1949
In common with Lombroso, Sheldon proposes a 19. ……… to criminality.
Body types are 19. ……… particular dispositions.
Mesomorphs are types considered to have 20. ………
1960s
21. ……… is now implicated in a biological disposition towards criminality.
An additional „Y‟ chromosome is associated with more 22. ……… males.
The proposed link between criminality and genotype is 23. ……… Epps‟ study of 1995.
Today
A purely biological basis to criminality is discredited.
Genetic factors arc thought to be moderated by 24. ……… elements.

Questions 25-26
Choose two letters, A-E.
A. Overwhelming evidence exists in support of a biological predisposition towards crime.
B. Lombroso‟s experimental work has been completely discredited by modern scientists.

pg. 99
JM English

C. Modern criminologists believe that Lombroso hindered rather than helped the advance of
criminology.
D. Recently there has been a shift away from the emphasis of biological factors as a basis of
criminality.
E. Biological evidence may partially support Sheldon‟s theory of somatotypes.

READING PASSAGE 3
Jack the Ripper: A Bungled Investigation?
Few murder enquiries have stirred the public imagination to such an extent as those relating to
Jack the Ripper. The report of murders worthy of a depraved savage simultaneously appalled and
enthralled Victorian society as the 19th century came to a close. The unleashing of a serial killer
onto the London scene caught police unprepared as did the unprecedented brutality of the
killings which earned their perpetrator the nickname 'Jack the Ripper'. So, given the heightened
public interest and the existence of a police force more competent than ever before since the
formation of the Metropolitan Police in 1829, it has to be asked: why did the Ripper evade
capture and why was no one even charged with the five murders attributed to the Ripper?
Conspiracy theorist would have us believe that the identity of the Ripper was, contrary to public
belief, unmasked by police. However, the truth about the Ripper's identity proved so unpalatable
that it had to be hushed up. Far-fetched as it may seem, Queen Victoria's grandson, Prince Albert
Victor, was thought by some to be the Ripper himself. Whilst he did frequent places of ill repute,
there is no tangible evidence to support this somewhat sensationalist theory. In fact, the Ripper
may have successfully evaded the police for far more prosaic reasons.
Back in 1888, when the Ripper began his reign of terror in the streets of Whitechapel, forensic
science was barely in its infancy. Rudimentary knowledge existed as to the necessity of keeping
a murder scene intact to preserve vital clues but the means to thoroughly analyse such evidence
through DNA testing was light years away still. In fact it was only with the publication of Hans
Gross' 'A Handbook for Examining Magistrates, Police Officials, Military Police, etc.' in 1893
that the foundation for forensic science was laid. It was too late, however, to help the Ripper
investigation that floundered in its ignorance of modern forensic techniques.
The Ripper investigation also just missed out on developments in fingerprint identification that
might have led police to the identity of the Ripper. Nearly a decade prior to the first Ripper
murder, Dr. Henry Faulds had published a letter in the scientific journal Nature in 1880. In the
letter he outlined for the first time the possibility of using fingerprints for identification purposes.
It was only in 1896 that Sir Francis Galton, Inspector General of Bengal Police, sought to put
theory into practice. Using the new-found method of 'dactyloscopy' (later known as
fingerprinting) he employed the technique to successfully identify criminals. Again, new
technology arrived just too late for the Ripper investigators.
Whilst investigative police could not be blamed for a lack of forensic knowledge, their failure to
apply known investigative methods to the crime scene certainly smacked of incompetence.
Photographing the crime scene was not exactly standard practice of the time but it was a known
procedure. Unfortunately the officers leading the investigation at the time saw fit to only
photograph one of the Ripper's victims, a certain Mary Kelly, at the crime scene. Even more
bizarrely, photographs of the victim were more centred on photographing her eyes to the neglect
of all else. The reason or 'forlorn hope' as cited by Inspector Walter Dew was that the imprint of
the Ripper might have been recorded on the victim's retina at the time of her death. No
conclusions were drawn from the undertaking.

pg. 100
JM English

Another more serious criticism that has been levelled at the investigative police at the time is
their deliberate tampering with evidence. It is well-known that a semi-illiterate message was
scrawled above one of the Ripper's victims. However, before it could be properly analysed, the
investigating officer ordered that it be removed as it was thought to implicate the Jews and racial
repercussions were feared. the motive was well-intended but this action may have destroyed vital
clues.
A final problem was the lack of co-operation that existed not just between the Press and the
police but also between law enforcement agencies themselves. With regard to the former
problem, police distrust if the Press led to limited information being released to the newspapers.
This was due to a fear that information made public could alert a suspect or waste time in
throwing up false leads. Unfortunately, if information had been circulated in the public arena,
important information might have been uncovered that would have led to the arrest of the Ripper.
As regards the law enforcement agencies, in-fighting and rivalry between the City and
Metropolitan Police Forces served to delay exchange of information and so further hinder
proceedings

Questions 27-32
Complete the diagram below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

DNA is left unexamined as no 27. ……… yet is available to analyse it.

Fingerprints are not used 28. ………
Only one of the Ripper‟s 29. ……… is photographed at the crime scene.
Images taken are 30. ……… capturing the victim‟s eyes.
Vital written evidence is 31. ……… on the orders of a police investigator.
Investigators representing rival 32. ……… fail to exchange information.

pg. 101
JM English

Questions 33-38
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
What is so startling about the Ripper case is how the murderer managed to 33. ……… against
the odds.
Only on closer investigation does the reason become more apparent.
Often a 34. ……… was disturbed, destroying vital evidence within it.
Only later, with 35. ……… a book by Hans Gross, were more scientific investigative methods
introduced.
Until then there was a lack of knowledge of 36. ……… In 1896 Sir Francis Galton used a 37.
……… method known as dactyloscopy.
This method was to greatly aid the police in identifying criminals.
Curiously, investigative methods known to police at the time were often not employed.
Crime scene photography was rarely 38. ……… for example.

Questions 39-40
Choose two letters, A-E.
A. Limited forensic knowledge probably affected the outcome of the Ripper case.
B. The Ripper murders convinced the police of a need for more sophisticated investigative
methods.
C. Disagreement existed amongst the police as to what information should be released to the
Press.
D. Whilst rivalry existed amongst the police, they were united in their dislike of the Press.
E. The police investigating the Ripper murders made good use of what techniques were
available to them at the time.

pg. 102
JM English

TEST 13
READING PASSAGE 1
Daydreaming
Everyone daydreams sometimes. We sit or lie down, close our eyes and use our imagination to
think about something that might happen in the future or could have happened in the past.
Most daydreaming is pleasant. We would like the daydream to happen and we would be very
happy if it did actually happen. We might daydream that we are in another person's place, or
doing something that we have always wanted to do, or that other people like or admire us much
more than they normally do.
Daydreams are not dreams, because we can only daydream if we are awake. Also, we choose
what our daydreams will be about, which we cannot usually do with dreams. With many
daydreams, we know that what we imagine is unlikely to happen. At least, if it does happen, it
probably will not do so in the way we want it to. However, some daydreams are about things that
are likely to happen. With these, our daydreams often help us to work out what we want to do, or
how to do it to get the best results. So, these daydreams are helpful. We use our imagination to
help us understand the world and other people.
Daydreams can help people to be creative. People in creative or artistic careers, such as
composers, novelists and filmmakers, develop new ideas through daydreaming. This is also true
of research scientists and mathematicians. In fact, Albert Einstein said that imagination is more
important than knowledge because knowledge is limited whereas imagination is not.
Research in the 1980s showed that most daydreams are about ordinary, everyday events. It also
showed that over 75% of workers in so-called 'boring jobs', such as lorry drivers and security
guards, spend a lot of time daydreaming in order to make their time at work more interesting.
Recent research has also shown that daydreaming has a positive effect on the brain. Experiments
with MRI brain scans show that the parts of the brain linked with complex problem-solving are
more active during daydreaming. Researchers conclude that daydreaming is an activity in which
the brain consolidates learning. In this respect, daydreaming is the same as dreaming during
sleep.
Although there do seem to be many advantages with daydreaming, in many cultures it is
considered a bad thing to do. One reason for this is that when you are daydreaming, you are not
working. In the 19th century, for example, people who daydreamed a lot were judged to be lazy.
This happened in particular when people started working in factories on assembly lines. When
you work on an assembly line, all you do is one small task again and again, every time exactly
the same. It is rather repetitive and, obviously, you cannot be creative. So many people decided
that there was no benefit in daydreaming.
Other people have said that daydreaming leads to 'escapism' and that this is not healthy, either.
Escapist people spend a lot of time living in a dream world in which they are successful and
popular, instead of trying to deal with the problems they face in the real world. Such people often
seem to be unhappy and are unable or unwilling to improve their daily lives. Indeed, recent
studies show that people who often daydream have fewer close friends than other people. In fact,
they often do not have any close friends at all.

Questions 1-8
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
For questions 1-8, write

pg. 103
JM English

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this
1. People usually daydream when they are walking around.
2. Some people can daydream when they are asleep.
3. Some daydreams help us to be more successful in our lives.
4. Most lorry drivers daydream in their jobs to make them more interesting.
5. Factory workers daydream more than lorry drivers.
6. Daydreaming helps people to be creative.
7. Old people daydream more than young people.
8. Escapist people are generally very happy.

Questions 9-10
Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.
Writers, artists and other creative people use daydreaming to 9. ………
The areas of the brain used in daydreaming are also used for complicated 10. ………

Questions 11-13
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
11. Daydreams are
A. dreams that we have when we fall asleep in daytime.
B. about things that happened that make us sad.
C. often about things that we would like to happen.
D. activities that only a few people are able to do.
12. In the nineteenth century, many people believed that daydreaming was
A. helpful in factory work.
B. a way of avoiding work.
C. something that few people did.
D. a healthy activity.
13. People who daydream a lot
A. usually have creative jobs.
B. are much happier than other people.
C. are less intelligent than other people.
D. do not have as many friends as other people.

READING PASSAGE 2
TRICKY SUMS AND PSYCHOLOGY
A. In their first years of studying mathematics at school, children all over the world usually have
to learn the times table, also known as the multiplication table, which shows what you get
when you multiply numbers together. Children have traditionally learned their times table by
going from '1 times 1 is 1' all the way up to '12 times 12 is 144'.
B. Times tables have been around for a very long time now. The oldest known tables using base
10 numbers, the base that is now used everywhere in the world, are written on bamboo strips
dating from 305 BC, found in China. However, in many European cultures the times table is

pg. 104
JM English

named after the Ancient Greek mathematician and philosopher Pythagoras (570-495 BC).
And so it is called the Table of Pythagoras in many languages, including French and Italian.
C. In 1820, in his book The Philosophy of Arithmetic, the mathematician John Leslie
recommended that young pupils memories the times table up to 25 x 25. Nowadays,
however, educators generally believe it is important for children to memorise the table up to
9 x 9, 10 x 10 or 12 x12.
D. The current aim in the UK is for school pupils to know all their times tables up to 12 x 12 by
the age of nine. However, many people do not know them, even as adults. Recently, some
politicians have been asked arithmetical questions of this kind. For example, in 1998, the
schools minister Stephen Byers was asked the answer to 7 x 8. He got the answer wrong,
saying 54 rather than 56, and everyone laughed at him.
E. In 2014, a young boy asked the UK Chancellor George Osborne the exact same question. As
he had passed A-level maths and was in charge of the UK's economic policies at the time,
you would expect him to know the answer. However, he simply said, 'I've made it a rule in
life not to answer such questions.'
F. Why would a politician refuse to answer such a question? It is certainly true that some sums
are much harder than others. Research has shown that learning and remembering sums
involving 6,7,8 and 9 tends to be harder than remembering sums involving other numbers.
And it is even harder when 6,7,8 and 9 are multiplied by each other. Studies often find that
the hardest sum is 6x8, with 7x8 not far behind. However, even though 7x8 is a relatively
difficult sum, it is unlikely that George Osborne did not know the answer. So there must be
some other reason why he refused to answer the question.
G. The answer is that Osborne was being 'put on the spot' and he didn't like it. It is well known
that when there is a lot of pressure to do something right, people often have difficulty doing
something that they normally find easy. When you put someone on the spot and ask such a
question, it causes stress. The person's heart beats faster and their adrenalin levels go up. As a
result, people will often make mistakes that they would not normally make. This is called
'choking'. Choking often happens in sport, such as when a footballer takes a crucial penalty.
In the same way, the boy's question put Osborne under great pressure. He knew it would be a
disaster for him if he got the answer to such a simple question wrong and feared that he
might choke. And that is why he refused to answer the question.

Questions 14-19
The text has seven paragraphs, A-G.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
Write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 14-19.
14. a 19th-century opinion of what children should learn
15. the most difficult sums
16. the effect of pressure on doing something
17. how children learn the times table
18. a politician who got a sum wrong
19. a history of the times table

Questions 20-25
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
For questions 20-25, write

pg. 105
JM English

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this
20. Pythagoras invented the times table in China.
21. Stephen Byers and George Osborne were asked the same question.
22. All children in the UK have to learn the multiplication table.
23. George Osborne did not know the answer to 7 X 8.
24. 7 X 8 is the hardest sum that children have to learn.
25. Stephen Byers got the sum wrong because he choked.

READING PASSAGE 3
Care in the Community
'Bedlam' is a word that has become synonymous in the English language with chaos and
disorder. The term itself derives from the shortened name for a former 16th century London
institution for the mentally ill, known as St. Mary of Bethlehem. This institution was so
notorious that its name was to become a byword for mayhem. Patient 'treatment' amounted to
little more than legitimised abuse. Inmates were beaten and forced to live in unsanitary
conditions, whilst others were placed on display to a curious public as a side-show. There is little
indication to suggest that other institutions founded at around the same time in other European
countries were much better.
Even up until the mid-twentieth century, institutions for the mentally ill were regarded as being
more places of isolation and punishment than healing and solace. In popular literature of the
Victorian era that reflected true-life events, individuals were frequently sent to the 'madhouse' as
a legal means of permanently disposing of an unwanted heir or spouse. Later, in the mid-
twentieth century, institutes for the mentally ill regularly carried out invasive brain surgery
known as a 'lobotomy' on violent patients without their consent. The aim was to 'calm' the patient
but ended up producing a patient that was little more than a zombie. Such a procedure is well
documented to devastating effect in the film 'One Flew Over the Cuckoo's Nest'. Little wonder
then that the appalling catalogue of treatment of the mentally ill led to a call for change from
social activists and psychologists alike.
Improvements began to be seen in institutions from the mid-50s onwards, along with the
introduction of care in the community for less severely ill patients. Community care was seen as
a more humane and purposeful approach to dealing with the mentally ill. Whereas
institutionalised patients lived out their existence in confinement, forced to obey institutional
regulations, patients in the community were free to live a relatively independent life. The patient
was never left purely to their own devices as a variety of services could theoretically be accessed
by the individual. In its early stages, however, community care consisted primarily of help from
the patient's extended family network. In more recent years, such care has extended to the
provision of specialist community mental health teams (CMHTs) in the UK. Such teams cover a
wide range of services from rehabilitation to home treatment and assessment. In
addition, psychiatric nurses are on hand to administer prescription medication and give
injections. The patient is therefore provided with the necessary help that they need to survive in
the everyday world whilst maintaining a degree of autonomy.
Often, though, when a policy is put into practice, its failings become apparent. This is true for the
policy of care in the community. Whilst back-up services may exist, an individual may not call

pg. 106
JM English

upon them when needed, due to reluctance or inability to assess their own condition. As a result,
such an individual may be alone during a critical phase of their illness, which could lead them to
self-harm or even become a threat to other members of their community. Whilst this might be an
extreme-case scenario, there is also the issue of social alienation that needs to be considered.
Integration into the community may not be sufficient to allow the individual to find work,
leading to poverty and isolation. Social exclusion could then cause a relapse as the individual is
left to battle mental health problems alone. The solution, therefore, is to ensure that the patient is
always in touch with professional helpers and not left alone to fend for themselves. It should
always be remembered that whilst you can take the patient out of the institution, you can't take
the institution out of the patient.
When questioned about care in the community, there seems to be a division of opinion amongst
members of the public and within the mental healthcare profession itself. Dr. Mayalla, practising
clinical psychologist, is inclined to believe that whilst certain patients may benefit from care in
the community, the scheme isn't for everyone. 'Those suffering moderate cases of mental illness
stand to gain more from care in the community than those with more pronounced mental illness.
I don't think it's a one-size-fits-all policy. But I also think that there is a far better infrastructure
of helpers and social workers in place now than previously and the scheme stands a greater
chance of success than in the past.'
Anita Brown, mother of three, takes a different view. 'As a mother, I'm very protective towards
my children. As a result, I would not put my support behind any scheme that I felt might put my
children in danger... I guess there must be assessment methods in place to ensure that dangerous
individuals are not let loose amongst the public but I'm not for it at all. I like to feel secure where
I live, but more to the point, that my children are not under any threat.'
Bob Ratchett, a former mental health nurse, takes a more positive view on community care
projects. 'Having worked in the field myself, I've seen how a patient can benefit from living an
independent life, away from an institution. Obviously, only individuals well on their way to
recovery would be suitable for consideration as participants in such a scheme. If you think about
it, is it really fair to condemn an individual to a lifetime in an institution when they could be
living a fairly fulfilled and independent life outside the institution?'

Questions 26-31
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
26. Which of the following statements is accurate?
A. In the 20th century, illegal surgical procedures were carried out on the mentally ill.
B. The Victorian era saw an increase in mental illness amongst married couples.
C. Mental institutions of the past were better-equipped for dealing with the mentally ill.
D. In the past, others often benefitted when a patient was sent to a mental asylum.
27. What does the writer mean by patient treatment being 'legitimised abuse'?
A. There were proper guidelines for the punishment of mentally ill patients.
B. Maltreatment of mentally ill patients was not illegal and so was tolerated.
C. Only those who were legally entitled to do so could punish mentally ill patients.
D. Physical abuse of mentally ill patients was a legal requirement of mental institutions.
28. What brought about changes in the treatment of mentally ill patients?
A. A radio documentary exposed patient maltreatment.
B. People rebelled against the consistent abuse of mentally ill patients.
C. Previous treatments of mentally ill patients were proved to be ineffective.

pg. 107
JM English

D. The maltreatment of mentally ill patients could never be revealed.

29. What was a feature of early care in the community schemes?
A. Patient support was the responsibility more of relatives than professionals.
B. Advanced professional help was available to patients.
C. All mentally ill patients could benefit from the scheme.
D. Patients were allowed to enjoy full independence.
30. What is true of care in the community schemes today?
A. They permit greater patient autonomy.
B. More professional services are available to patients.
C. Family support networks have become unnecessary.
D. All patients can now become part of these schemes.
31. What can be said of the writer's attitude towards care in the community?
A. He believes that the scheme has proved to be a failure.
B. He believes that it can only work under certain circumstances.
C. He believes that it will never work as mentally ill patients will always be disadvantaged.
D. He believes it has failed due to patient neglect by professional helpers.

Questions 32-36
Look at the following statements, 32-36, and the list of people, A-C.
Match each statement to the correct person.
A Dr. Mayalla
B Anita Brown
C Bob Ratchett
32. This person acknowledges certain inadequacies in the concept of care in the community, but
recognises that attempts have been made to improve on existing schemes.
33. This person whilst emphasising the benefits to the patient from care in the community
schemes is critical of traditional care methods.
34. This person‟s views have been moderated by their professional contact with the mentally ill.
35. This person places the welfare of others above that of the mentally ill.
36. This person acknowledges that a mistrust of care in the community schemes may be
unfounded.

Questions 37-40
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
For questions 37-40, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this
37. There is a better understanding of the dynamics of mental illness today.Community care
38. Schemes do not provide adequate psychological support for patients.
39. Dr. Mayalla believes that the scheme is less successful than in the past.
40. The goal of community care schemes is to make patients less dependent on the system.

pg. 108
JM English

TEST 14
READING PASSAGE 1
Albert Einstein
Albert Einstein is perhaps the best-known scientist of the 20th century. He received the Nobel
Prize in Physics in 1921 and his theories of special and general relativity are of great importance
to many branches of physics and astronomy. He is well known for his theories about light,
matter, gravity, space and time. His most famous idea is that energy and mass are different forms
of the same thing.
Einstein was born in Wurttemberg, Germany on 14th March 1879. His family was Jewish but he
had not been very religious in his youth although he became very interested in Judaism in later
life.
It is well documented that Einstein did not begin speaking until after the age of three. In fact, he
found speaking so difficult that his family were worried that he would never start to speak. When
Einstein was four years old, his father gave him a magnetic compass. It was this compass that
inspired him to explore the world of science. He wanted to understand why the needle always
pointed north whichever way he turned the compass. It looked as if the needle was moving itself.
But the needle was inside a closed case, so no other force (such as the wind) could have been
moving it. And this is how Einstein became interested in studying science and mathematics.
In fact, he was so clever that at the age of 12 he taught himself Euclidean geometry. At fifteen,
he went to school in Munich which he found very boring. he finished secondary school in Aarau,
Switzerland and entered the Swiss Federal Institute of Technology in Zurich from which he
graduated in 1900. But Einstein did not like the teaching there either. He often missed classes
and used the time to study physics on his own or to play the violin instead. However, he was able
to pass his examinations by studying the notes of a classmate. His teachers did not have a good
opinion of him and refused to recommend him for a university position. So, he got a job in a
patent office in Switzerland. While he was working there, he wrote the papers that first made him
famous as a great scientist.
Einstein had two severely disabled children with his first wife, Mileva. His daughter (whose
name we do not know) was born about a year before their marriage in January 1902. She was
looked after by her Serbian grandparents until she died at the age of two. It is generally believed
that she died from scarlet fever but there are those who believe that she may have suffered from a
disorder known as Down Syndrome. But there is not enough evidence to know for sure. In fact,
no one even knew that she had existed until Einstein's granddaughter found 54 love letters that
Einstein and Mileva had written to each other between 1897 and 1903. She found these letters
inside a shoe box in their attic in California. Einstein and Mileva's son, Eduard, was diagnosed
with schizophrenia. He spent decades in hospitals and died in Zurich in 1965.
Just before the start of World War I, Einstein moved back to Germany and became director of a
school there. But in 1933, following death threats from the Nazis, he moved to the United States,
where he died on 18th April 1955.

Questions 1-8
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
For questions 1-8, write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

pg. 109
JM English

NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this

1. The general theory of relativity is a very important theory in modern physics.
2. Einstein had such difficulty with language that those around him thought he would never
learn how to speak.
3. It seemed to Einstein that nothing could be pushing the needle of the compass around except
the wind.
4. Einstein enjoyed the teaching methods in Switzerland.
5. Einstein taught himself how to play the violin.
6. His daughter died of schizophrenia when she was two.
7. The existence of a daughter only became known to the world between 1897 and 1903.
8. In 1933 Einstein moved to the United States where he became an American citizen.

Questions 9-10
Complete the sentences below.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.
He tried hard to understand how the needle could seem to move itself so that it always 9.
…………
He often did not go to classes and used the time to study physics 10. ………… or to play music.

Questions 11-13
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
11. The name of Einstein's daughter
A. was not chosen by him.
B. is a mystery.
C. is shared by his granddaughter.
D. was discovered in a shoe box.
12. His teachers would not recommend him for a university position because
A. they did not think highly of him.
B. they thought he was a Nazi.
C. his wife was Serbian.
D. he seldom skipped classes.
13. The famous physicist Albert Einstein was of
A. Swiss origin.
B. Jewish origin.
C. American origin.
D. Austrian origin.

READING PASSAGE 2
Drinking Filtered Water
A. The body is made up mainly of water. This means that the quality of water that we drink
every day has an important effect on our health. Filtered water is healthier than tap water and
some bottled water. This is because it is free of contaminants, that is, of substances that make
it dirty or harmful. Substances that settle on the bottom of a glass of tap water and
microorganisms that carry diseases (known as bacteria or germs) are examples of

pg. 110
JM English

contaminants. Filtered water is also free of poisonous metals and chemicals that are common
in tap water and even in some bottled water brands.
B. The authorities know that normal tap water is full of contaminants and they use chemicals,
such as chlorine and bromine in order to disinfect it. But such chemicals are hardly safe.
Indeed, their use in water is associated with many different conditions and they are
particularly dangerous for children and pregnant women. For example, consuming bromine
for a long time may result in low blood pressure, which may then bring about poisoning of
the brain, heart, kidneys and liver. Filtered water is typically free of such water disinfectant
chemicals.
C. Filtered water is also free of metals, such as mercury and lead. Mercury has ended up in our
drinking water mainly because the dental mixtures used by dentists have not been disposed of
safely for a long time. Scientists believe there is a connection between mercury in the water
and many allergies and cancers as well as disorders, such as ADD, OCD, autism and
depression.
D. Lead, on the other hand, typically finds its way to our drinking water due to pipe leaks. Of
course, modern pipes are not made of lead but pipes in old houses usually are. Lead is a well-
known carcinogen and is associated with pregnancy problems and birth defects. This is
another reason why children and pregnant women must drink filtered water.
E. The benefits of water are well known. We all know, for example, that it helps to detoxify the
body, So, the purer the water we drink, the easier it is for the body to rid itself of toxins. The
result of drinking filtered water is that the body does not have to use as much of its energy on
detoxification as it would when drinking unfiltered water. This means that drinking filtered
water is good for our health in general. That is because the body can perform all of its
functions much more easily and this results in improved metabolism, better weight
management, improved joint lubrication as well as efficient skin hydration.
F. There are many different ways to filter water and each type of filter targets different
contaminants. For example, activated carbon water filters are very good at taking chlorine
out. Ozone water filters, on the other hand, are particularly effective at removing germs.
G. For this reason, it is very important to know exactly what is in the water that we drink so that
we can decide what type of water filter to use. A Consumer Confidence Report (CCR) should
be useful for this purpose. This is a certificate that is issued by public water suppliers every
year, listing the contaminants present in the water. If you know what these contaminants are,
then it is easier to decide which type of water filter to get.

Questions 14-20
The text has seven paragraphs, A-G.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
Write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 14-20.
14. a short summary of the main points of the text
15. a variety of methods used for water filtration
16. making it easier for the body to get rid of dangerous chemicals
17. finding out which contaminants your water filter should target
18. allergies caused by dangerous metals
19. a dangerous metal found in the plumbing of old buildings
20. chemicals of cleaning products that destroy bacteria

pg. 111
JM English

Questions 21-26
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
For questions 21-26, write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this
21. The type of water you consume on a regular basis has a great impact on your overall health
and wellness.
22. Filtered water typically contains water disinfectant chemicals.
23. Exposure to disinfectant chemicals is linked with poisoning of the vital organs.
24. Drinking tap water helps minimise your exposure to harmful elements.
25. People wearing artificial teeth are more likely to be contaminated.
26. People who are depressed often suffer from dehydration

READING PASSAGE 3
Speech Dysfluency And Popular Fillers
A speech dysfluency is any of various breaks, irregularities or sound-filled pauses that we make
when we are speaking, which are commonly known as fillers. These include words and sentences
that are not finished, repeated phrases or syllables, instances of speakers correcting their own
mistakes as they speak and "words" such as 'huh', 'uh', 'erm', 'urn', 'hmm', 'err', 'like', 'you know'
and 'well'.
Fillers are parts of speech which are not generally recognised as meaningful and they include
speech problems, such as stuttering (repeating the first consonant of some words). Fillers are
normally avoided on television and films, but they occur quite regularly in everyday
conversation, sometimes making up more than 20% of "words" in speech. But they can also be
used as a pause for thought.
Research in linguistics has shown that fillers change across cultures and that even the different
English speaking nations use different fillers. For example, Americans use pauses such as 'um' or
'em' whereas the British say 'uh' or 'eh'. Spanish speakers say 'ehhh' and in Latin America (where
they also speak Spanish) but not Spain, 'este' is used (normally meaning 'this').
Recent linguistic research has suggested that the use of 'uh' and 'um' in English is connected to
the speaker's mental and emotional state. For example, while pausing to say 'uh' or 'um' the brain
may be planning the use of future words. According to the University of Pennsylvania linguist
Mark Liberman, 'um' generally comes before a longer or more important pause than 'uh'. At least
that's what he used to think.
Liberman has discovered that as Americans get older, they use 'uh' more than 'um' and that men
use 'uh' more than women no matter their age. But the opposite is true of 'um'. The young say
'um' more often than the old. And women say 'um' more often than men at every age. This was
an unexpected result because scientists used to think that fillers had to do more with the amount
of time a speaker pauses for, rather than with who the speaker is.
Liberman mentioned his finding to fellow linguists in the Netherlands and this encouraged the
group to look for a pattern outside American English. They studied British and Scottish English,
German, Danish, Dutch and Norwegian and found that women and younger people said 'um'
more than 'uh' in those languages as well.

pg. 112
JM English

Their conclusion is that it is simply a case of language change in progress and that women and
younger people are leading the change. And there is nothing strange about this. Women and
young people normally are the typical pioneers of most language change. What is strange,
however, is that 'um' is replacing 'uh' across at least two continents and five Germanic languages.
Now this really is a mystery.
The University of Edinburgh sociolinguist Josef Fruehwald may have an answer. In his view,
'um' and 'uh' are pretty much equivalent. The fact that young people and women prefer it is not
significant. This often happens in language when there are two options. People start using one
more often until the other is no longer an option. It‟s just one of those things.
As to how such a trend might have gone from one language to another, there is a simple
explanation, according to Fruehwald. English is probably influencing the other languages. We all
know that in many countries languages are constantly borrowing words and expressions of
English into their own language so why not borrow fillers, too? Of course, we don't know for a
fact whether that's actually what's happening with 'um' but it is a likely story.

Questions 27-34
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
For questions 27-34, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this
27. Fillers are usually expressed as pauses and probably have no linguistic meaning although
they may have a purpose.
28. In general, fillers vary across cultures.
29. Fillers are uncommon in everyday language.
30. American men use „uh‟ more than American women do.
31. Younger Spaniards say „ehhh‟ more often than older Spaniards.
32. In the past linguists did not think that fillers are about the amount of time a speaker hesitates.
33. During a coffee break Liberman was chatting with a small group of researchers.
34. Fruehwald does not believe that there are age and gender differences related to „um‟ and
„uh‟.

Questions 35-40
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
35. Fillers are not
A. used to give the speaker time to think.
B. phrases that are restated.
C. used across cultures.
D. popular with the media.
36. It had originally seemed to Mark Liberman that
A. 'um' was followed by a less significant pause than 'uh'.
B. 'uh' was followed by a shorter pause than 'um'.
C. 'uh' was followed by a longer pause than 'um'.
D. the use of 'um' meant the speaker was sensitive.

pg. 113
JM English

37. Contrary to what linguists used to think, it is now believed that the choice of filler
A. may have led to disagreements.
B. depends on the characteristics of the speaker.
C. has nothing to do with sex.
D. only matters to older people.
38. According to Liberman, it's still a puzzle why
A. a specific language change is so widely spread.
B. the two fillers are comparable.
C. we have two options.
D. 'um' is preferred by women and young people.
39. Concerning the normal changes that all languages go through as time goes by,
A. old men are impossible to teach.
B. men in general are very conservative.
C. young men simply copy the speech of young women.
D. women play a more important role than men.
40. According to Fruehwald, the fact that 'um' is used more than 'uh'
A. proves that 'um' is less important.
B. shows that young people have low standards.
C. shows that they have different meanings.
D. is just a coincidence.

pg. 114
JM English

TEST 15
READING PASSAGE 1
Sleepy Students Perform Worse
A. Staying up an hour or two past bedtime makes it far harder for kids to learn, say scientists
who deprived youngsters of sleep and tested whether their teachers could tell the difference.
They could. If parents want their children to thrive academically, “Getting them to sleep on
time is as important as getting them to school on time," said psychologist Gahan Fallone,
who conducted the research at Brown Medical School.
B. The study, unveiled Thursday at an American Medical Association (AMA) science writers
meeting, was conducted on healthy children who had no evidence of sleep- or learning-
related disorders. Difficulty paying attention was among the problems the sleepy youngsters
faced - raising the question of whether sleep deprivation could prove even worse for people
with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, or ADHD. Fallone now is studying that
question, and suspects that sleep problems “could hit children with ADHD as a double
whammy”.
C. Sleep experts have long warned that Americans of all ages do not get enough shuteye. Sleep
is important for health, bringing a range of benefits that, as Shakespeare put it, “knits up the
ravelled sleave of care”. Not getting enough is linked to a host of problems, from car crashes
as drivers doze off to crippled memory and inhibited creativity. Exactly how much sleep
correlates with school performance is hard to prove. So, Brown researchers set out to test
whether teachers could detect problems with attention and learning when children stayed up
late - even if the teachers had no idea how much sleep their students actually got.
D. They recruited seventy-four 6- to 12-year-olds from Rhode Island and southern
Massachusetts for the three-week study. For one week, the youngsters went to bed and woke
up at their usual times. They already were fairly good sleepers, getting nine to 9.5 hours of
sleep a night. Another week, they were assigned to spend no fewer than ten hours in bed a
night. The other week, they were kept up later than usual: First -and second-graders were in
bed no more than eight hours and the older children no more than 6.5 hours. In addition to
parents‟ reports, the youngsters wore motiondetecting wrist monitors to ensure compliance.
E. Teachers were not told how much the children slept or which week they stayed up late, but
rated the students on a variety of performance measures each week. The teachers reported
significantly more academic problems during the week of sleep deprivation, the study, which
will be published in the journal Sleep in December, concluded. Students who got eight hours
of sleep or less a night were more forgetful, had the most trouble learning new lessons, and
had the most problems paying attention, reported Fallone, now at the Forest Institute of
Professional Psychology.
F. Sleep has long been a concern of educators. Potter-Burns Elementary School sends notes to
parents reminding them to make sure students get enough sleep prior to the school‟s yearly
achievement testing. Another school considers it important enough to include in the school‟s
monthly newsletters. Definitely, there is an impact on students‟ performance if they come to
school tired. However, the findings may change physician practice, said Dr. Regina
Benjamin, a family physician in Bayou La Batre, who reviewed the data at the Thursday‟s
AMA meeting. “I don't ask about sleep” when evaluating academically struggling students,
she noted. “I‟m going to start.”
G. So how much sleep do kids need? Recommended amounts range from about ten to eleven
hours a night for young elementary students to 8.5 hours for teens. Fallone insists that his

pg. 115
JM English

own second-grader get ten hours a night, even when it meant dropping soccer - season that
practice did not start until 7:30 — too late for her to fit in dinner and time to wind down
before she needed to be snoozing. “It‟s tough,” he acknowledged, but “parents must believe
in the importance of sleep."

Questions 1-4
The text has 7 paragraphs (A - G).
Which paragraph contains each of the following pieces of information?
1. Traffic accidents are sometimes caused by lack of sleep.
2. The number of children included in the study
3. How two schools are trying to deal with the problem
4. How the effect of having less sleep was measured

Questions 5-8
Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each
gap.
Fallone is now studying the sleep patterns of children with 5. …………
The researchers used 6. ………… that show movement to check that children went to bed at the
right time.
Students with less sleep had problems with memory, remembering new material, and 7.
…………
Fallone admitted that it was 8. ………… for children to get enough sleep.

Questions 9-13
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
In boxes 9 - 13 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this
9. The results of the study were first distributed to principals of American schools,
10. Some of the children in the study had previously shown signs of sleeping problems.
11. The study could influence how doctors deal with children‟s health problems.
12. Fallone does not let his daughter play soccer.
13. Staying up later is acceptable if the child is doing homework.

READING PASSAGE 2
The Brains Business
A. For those of a certain age and educational background, it is hard to think of higher education
without thinking of ancient institutions. Some universities are of a venerable age - the
University of bologna was founded in 1088, the University of Oxford in 1096 - and many of
them have a strong sense of tradition. The truly old ones make the most of their pedigrees,
and those of a more recent vintage work hard to create an aura of antiquity. Yet these
tradition-loving (or -creating) institutions are currently enduring a thunderstorm of changes
so fundamental that some say the very idea of the university is being challenged. Universities
are experimenting with new ways of funding (most notably through student fees), forging

pg. 116
JM English

partnerships with private companies and engaging in mergers and acquisitions. Such changes
ate tugging at the ivy's toots.
B. This is happening for four reasons. The first is the democratisation of higher educa-tion -
“massification". in the language of the educational profession. In the rich world,
massification has been going on for some time. The proportion of adults with higher
educational qualifications in developed countries almost doubled between l975 and 2000.
From 22% to 41%. Most of the rich countries are still struggling to digest this huge growth in
numbers. Now massification is spreading to the developing world. China doubled its student
population in the late 1990s, and India is trying to follow suit.
C. The second reason is the rise of the knowledge economy. The world is in the grips of a “soft
revolution” in which knowledge is replacing physical resources as the main driver of
economic growth. Between 1985 and 1997, the contribution of knowledge-based industries
to total value added increased from 51% to 59% in Germany and from 45% to 51% in
Britain. The best companies are now devoting at least a third of their investment to
knowledge-intensive intangibles such as R&D, licensing, and marketing. Universities are
among the most important engines of the knowledge economy. Not only do they produce the
brain workers who man it, they also provide much of its backbone, from laboratories to
libraries to computer networks.
D. The third factor is globalisation.. The death of distance is transforming academia just as
radically as it is transforming business. The number of people from developed countries
studying abroad has doubled over the past twenty years, to 1.9 million; universities are
opening campuses all around the world; and a growing number of countries are trying to turn
higher education into an export industry. The fourth is competition. Traditional universities
are being forced to compete for students and research grants, and private companies are
trying to break into a sector which they regard as “the new health care”. The World Bank
calculates that global spending on higher education amounts to $300 billion a year, or 1 % of
global economic output. There are more than 80 million students worldwide, and 3.5 million
people are employed to teach them or look after them.
E. All this sounds as though a golden age for universities has arrived. However, inside
academia, particularly in Europe, it does not feel like it. Academics complain and
administrators are locked in bad-tempered exchanges with the politicians who fund them.
What has gone wrong? The biggest problem is the role of the state. If more and more
governments are embracing massification, few of them are willing to draw the appropriate
conclusion from their enthusiasm: that they should either provide the requisite hinds (as the
Scandinavian countries do) or allow universities to charge realistic fees. Many governments
have tried to square the circle through lighter management, but management cannot make up
for lack of resources.
F. What, if anything can be done? Techno-utopians believe that higher education is ripe for
revolution. The university, they say, is a hopelessly antiquated institution, wedded in
outdated practices such as tenure and lectures, and incapable of serving a new world of mass
audiences and just-in-time information. “Thirty wars from now the big university campuses
will be relics," says Peter Drucker, a veteran management guru. "I consider the American
research university of the past 40 years to be a failure." Fortunately, in his view, help is on
the way in the form of Internet tuition and for-profit universities. Cultural conservatives, on
the other hand, believe that the best way forward is backward. They think it is foolish to

pg. 117
JM English

waste higher education on people who would rather study "Seinfeld" than Socrates, and
disingenuous to contuse the pursuit of truth with the pursuit of profit.

Questions 14-17
The text has 7 paragraphs (A - F).
Which paragraph does each of the following headings best fit?
14. Education for the masses
15. Future possibilities
16. Globalisation and competition
17. Funding problem

Questions 18-22
According to the text, FIVE of the following statements are true.
Write the corresponding letters in answer boxes 18 to 22 in any order.
A. Some universities are joining with each other.
B. There are not enough graduates in developed countries.
C. Most companies in developed countries devote a third of their profits to research and
development.
D. The number of people from developed countries studying outside their home countries
has doubled in the last two decades.
E. Scandinavian governments provide enough money for their universities.
F. The largest university in the world is in Turkey.
G. Italian students must have a five-minute interview with a professor before being accepted
into university.
H. Peter Drucker foresees the end of university campuses.

Questions 23-26
According to the information given in the text, choose the correct answer or answers from the
choices given.
23. Universities are responding to changes by
A. constructing new buildings in old styles so they appear old and traditional.
B. introducing new subjects for study.
C. charging students higher fees.
24. The knowledge economy is
A. on the rise most of all in Germany.
B. not fully appreciated in Britain.
C. heavily reliant on universities.
25. Current problems at universities, especially in Europe, include
A. managers arguing with governments.
B. problems with funding.
C. poor management.
26. Possible solutions put forward by reformists and conservatives include
A. greater use of technology.
B. employing management gurus to teach.
C. teaching fewer students.

pg. 118
JM English

READING PASSAGE 3
Sunday Is a Fun Day for Modern Brits
In a new study, Essex University sociologists have dissected the typical British Sunday, and
found we get up later and do fewer chores than we did 40 years ago - and we are far more likely
to be out shopping or enjoying ourselves than cooking Sunday lunch. Academics at the
university‟s Institute of Social and Economic Research asked 10,000 people to keep a detailed
diary of how they spent Sundays in 2001. Then they compared the results with 3,500 diaries
written in 1961, a treasure trove of information that had been uncovered „in two egg boxes and a
tea chest‟ in the basement of the BBC by ISER‟s director, Professor Jonathan Gershuny.
The contrast between the two periods could not be more striking. Forty years ago, Sunday
mornings were a flurry of activity as men and women - especially women - caught up on their
weekly chores and cooked up a storm in the kitchen. Women rarely allowed themselves any
„leisure‟ until the afternoon, after the dishes were cleaned. In 1961, more than a fifth of all men
and women in Britain were sitting at a table by 2 p.m., most likely tucking into a roast with all
the trimmings. Then there would be another rush to the table between 5 p.m. and 6 p.m. for high
tea.
Since the arrival of brunch, the gastropub and the all-you-can-eat Sunday buffet at the local curry
house, such institutions have become extinct. Today, we graze the entire day. You only have two
free days a week. You don‟t want to have to waste one because there is nothing to do but watch
TV. Sunday has leapfrogged Saturday in the fun stakes. On Saturdays, you are recovering from
the week. Sundays are the last bastion of the weekend - you want to get as much as you can out
of the day before you have to go back to work.
According to researchers, the ability to trail around B&Q has made the most dramatic difference
to our Sundays. In 1961, adults spent an average of 20 minutes a day shopping; by 2001, it was
50 minutes. „Shopping used to be a gender segregated activity that would take place during the
week, while the husband was at work. Now it‟s as much men as women,‟ said Gershuny. We‟re
all more likely to be relaxing or shopping on a Sunday morning these days than scrubbing the
floor or putting up shelves. „Men now stay in bed longer, and get up not, as previously, to work
around the house, but rather to shop or to pursue other outside leisure activities.‟
Men do about the same amount of unpaid work around the house as they used to on a Sunday,
but it‟s spread throughout the whole day, instead of crammed into the morning. Women do
considerably less than 40 years ago. Indeed, men and women were „pretty much different
species‟ in 1961, as far as the way they spent Sundays was concerned, with men far more likely
to be out of the house - at the pub or playing football - before lunch. „For women, leisure
happened only in the afternoon. But by 2001, the shapes of men‟s and women‟s Sundays were
much more similar,‟ says the report.
„Sunday for me is all about holding on to the weekend and trying to stave off Monday. An ideal
Sunday would involve getting up and having a nice lunch. Sometimes we cook, but more often I
go out to get a roast or bangers and mash at a gastropub. If it is a nice day, there is nothing better
than sitting outside in the beer garden, reading the Sunday papers - one tabloid and one
broadsheet - with a Guinness, extra cold. Sunday is often a chance to visit other parts of London,
as long as it is not too far. I use Sundays to go clothes shopping, or to the cinema. I often go to
Camden market, as I love the international foods on offer and hunting for bargains and vintage
clothes.‟
Jonathan Bentley Atchison (25, Clapham, London, works in communications)

pg. 119
JM English

„I am usually at home making the Sunday lunch. Some friends go out to eat, but my husband
Mark loves a roast, so we don‟t. After that, I do the washing, like every day, and then I take my
daughter Grace to netball and watch her play. Mark potters around - last Sunday, he tidied the
garage. He works six days a week, so on Sunday he stays at home. I don‟t like shopping on a
Sunday because every man and his dog is out. I don‟t work, so I can do it in the week. I tend to
watch television and chill out. When summer comes, we go to barbecues at family or friends‟
houses. When I was growing up, my dad would do the gardening and paint the fences while my
mum would do housework.‟
Hazel Hallows (42, Manchester, housewife, married with three children)
„When we were at home, I would get out in the garden, and my late wife Rose would cook the
Sunday lunch and do the housework. I was an engineer, and Rose worked full-time as a
supermarket manageress. In 1961, we had just moved to Bristol, and I spent Sunday maintaining
the new house. The washing and ironing had to be done - it was a working-together atmosphere.
We would sometimes go and spend the day with Rose‟s sister or other relatives. In 1961, it was
the first time I had a new car, so we spent time in the countryside or garden centres. Now, I get
up on Sundays and spend a couple of hours reading the newspapers.‟
Bryan Jones (79, pensioner, Frampton Cotterell, near Bristol)
Questions 27-30
For each question, only ONE of the choices is correct.
Write the corresponding letter in the appropriate box on your answer sheet.
27. According to the diaries, in 1961, women rarely had free time on Sunday
A. mornings.
B. afternoons.
C. evenings.
28. People want to do more on Sundays because
A. more shops are open.
B. it is a good day to graze.
C. they are tired on Saturdays.
29. Shopping habits have changed since 1961 in that
A. people shop less at weekends.
B. men shop more than women.
C. men do as much shopping as women.
30. Compared with 1961,
A. women do far less housework on Sundays.
B. men do far less housework on Sundays.
C. men and women do far less housework on Sundays.

Questions 31-35
Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for
each gap.
Professor Gershuny discovered thousands of 31. ………… at the BBC.
In 1961, people ate 32. ………… at 5 or 6 o‟clock.
In 2001, people spent 33. ………… 50 minutes on shopping on Sundays.
Shopping is something that is not as 34. ………… as it was in 1961.
In 1961, men would often go for a drink or be 35. ………… before lunch.

pg. 120
JM English

Questions 36-40
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 36 - 40 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this
36. Mr. Atchison usually eats out.
37. Mrs. Hallows‟ husband does no household chores on Sundays.
38. Mrs. Hallows thinks the shops are too busy on Sundays.
39. Mr. Jones is a widower.
40. Mr. Jones does household chores on Sundays.

pg. 121
JM English

TEST 16
READING PASSAGE 1
Spot the Difference
A. Taxonomic history has been made this week, at least according In the World Wildlife Fund
(WWF). a conservation group. Scientists have described a new species of clouded leopard
from the tropical forests of Indonesia with spots (or “clouds", as they are poetically known;
smaller than those of other clouded leopards, with fur a little darker and with a double as
opposed to a "partial double" stripe down its back.
B. However, no previously unknown beast has suddenly leapt out from the forest. In-stead,
some scientists have proposed a change in the official taxonomic accounting system of
clouded leopards. Where there were four subspecies there will likely now be two species. A
genetic analysis and a closer inspection of museum specimens‟ coals published in Current
Biology has found no relevant difference between three subspecies described 50 years ago
from continental Asia and from the Hainan and Taiwan islands. The 5.000-11,000 clouded
leopards on Borneo, the 3,000 -7,000 on Sumatra, and the remaining few on the nearby Batu
islands can now, the authors say, claim a more elevated distinction as a species.
C. What this actually means is fuzzy and whether it is scientifically important is questionable. In
any case, biologists do not agree what species and subspecies are. Creatures are given Latin
first and second names (corresponding to a genus and species) according to the convention of
Carl von Linné, who was born 300 years ago this May. But Linneaus, as he is more
commonly known, thought of species as perfectly discrete units created by God. Darwinism
has them as mutable things, generated gradually over time by natural selection. So,
delineating when enough variation has evolved to justify a new category is largely a matter
of taste.
D. Take ants and butterflies. Ant experts have recently been waging a war against all types of
species subdivision. Lepidopterists, on the other hand, cling to the double barrel second
names from their discipline‟s 19th-century tradition, and categorise many local subclasses
within species found over wide areas. Thus, it would be futile - if one were so inclined - to
attempt to compare the diversity of ant and butterfly populations.
E. The traditional way around the problem is to call a species all members of a group that share
the same gene pool. They can mate together and produce fertile offspring. Whether
Indonesian clouded leopards can make cubs with continental ones remains unknown but
seems probable. Instead, the claim this week is that genetics and slight differences in fur
patterning are enough to justify rebranding the clouded leopard as two significant types.
Genetically, that makes sense if many DNA variations correlate perfectly between members
of the two groups. The authors did find some correlation, but they looked for it in only three
Indonesian animals. A larger sample would have been more difficult.
F. One thing is abundantly clear: conservationists who are trying to stop the destruction of the
leopards‟ habitat in Borneo and Sumatra see the announcement of a new species of big cat as
a means to gain publicity and political capital. Upgrading subspecies to species is a strategy
which James Mallet, of University College London, likes to call species inflation. It is a
common by-product of genetic analysis, which can reveal differences between populations
that the eye cannot. Creating ever more detailed genetic categories means creating smaller
and increasingly restricted populations of more species. The trouble is that risks devaluing
the importance of the term “species”.

pg. 122
JM English

G. The problem of redefining species by genetics is the creation of taxonomic confusion, a

potentially serious difficulty for conservationists and others. The recent proposal to add the
polar bear to the list of animals protected under America‟s Endangered Species Act is an
example. That seems all well and good. However, study the genetics and it transpires that
polar bears are closer to some brown bears, than some brown hears are to each other. Go by
the genes and it seems that the polar bear would not count as a species in its own right (and
thus might not enjoy the protection afforded to species) but should be labelled a subspecies
of the brown bear.

Questions 1-4
The text has 7 paragraphs (A - G).
Which paragraph contains each of the following pieces of information?
1. How it is generally accepted that different species are named
2. The reason that conservationists are happy with the apparent discovery of a new species
of leopard
3. How genes could cause a potential problem for conservationists
4. Some scientists want to change the way clouded leopards are classified into species
and subspecies.

Questions 5-8
Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each
gap.
It is difficult to decide exactly when there is enough 5. ………… to say an animal is a new
species.
It is 6. ………… to compare the number of species of ant and butterfly.
Generally, animals of the same species can make 7. ………… together.
Some scientists claim that genetics has led to 8. ………… rather than the actual discovery of
new species.

Questions 9-13
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
In boxes 9 -13 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this
9. The possible new species of leopard appears different in two ways.
10. Darwinism created a problem with how species are defined.
11. Lepidopterists study ants.
12. Scientists are going to study more clouded leopards in Indonesia.
13. The writer believes that polar bears are not a species in their own right.

READING PASSAGE 2
The Fertility Bust
A. Falling populations - the despair of state pension systems - are often regarded with calmness,
even a secret satisfaction, by ordinary people. Europeans no longer need large families to

pg. 123
JM English

gather the harvest or to look after parents. They have used their good fortune to have fewer
children, thinking this will make their lives better. Much of Europe is too crowded as it is. Is
this all that is going on? Germans have been agonising about recent European Union
estimates suggesting that 30% of German women are, and will remain, childless. The number
is a guess: Germany does not collect figures like this. Even if the share is 25%, as other
surveys suggest, it is by far the highest in Europe.
B. Germany is something of an oddity in this. In most countries with low fertility, young
women have their first child late, and stop at one. In Germany, women with children often
have two or three, but many have none at all. Germany is also odd in experiencing low
fertility for such a long time. Europe is demographically polarised. Countries in the north and
west saw fertility fall early, in the 1960s. Recently, they have seen it stabilise or rise back
towards replacement level (i.e. 2.1 births per woman). Countries in the south and east, on the
other hand, saw fertility rates fall much faster, more recently (often to below 1.3, a rate at
which the population falls by half every 45 years). Germany combines both. Its fertility rate
fell below 2 in 1971, However, it has stayed low and is still only just above 1.3. This
challenges the notion that European fertility is likely to stabilise at tolerable levels. It
raises questions about whether the low birth rates of Italy and Poland, say, really are, as some
have argued, merely temporary.
C. The list of explanations for why German fertility has not rebounded is long.
Michael Teitelbaum, a demographer at the Sloan Foundation in New York ticks them
off: poor childcare; unusually extended higher education; inflexible labour laws; high youth
unemployment; and non-economic or cultural factors. One German writer, Gunter Grass,
wrote a novel, “Headbirths”, in 1982, about Harm and Dorte Peters, “a model couple” who
disport themselves on the beaches of Asia rather than invest time and trouble in bringing up a
baby. “They keep a cat,” writes Mr. Grass, “and still have no child.” The novel is subtitled
“The Germans Are Dying Out”. With the exception of this cultural factor, none of these
features is peculiar to Germany. If social and economic explanations account for persistent
low fertility there, then they may well produce the same persistence elsewhere.
D. The reason for hoping otherwise is that the initial decline in southern and eastern Europe was
drastic, and may be reversible. In the Mediterranean, demographic decline was associated
with freeing young women from the constraints of traditional Catholicism, which encouraged
large families. In eastern Europe, it was associated with the collapse in living standards and
the ending of pro-birth policies. In both regions, as such temporary factors fade, fertility rates
might, in principle, be expected to rise. Indeed, they may already be stabilising in Italy and
Spain. Germany tells you that reversing these trends can be hard. There, and elsewhere,
fertility rates did not merely fall; they went below what people said they wanted. In 1979,
Eurobarometer asked Europeans how many children they would like. Almost everywhere,
the answer was two: the traditional two-child ideal persisted even when people were not
delivering it. This may have reflected old habits of mind. Or people may really be having
fewer children than they claim to want.
E. A recent paper suggests how this might come about. If women postpone their first child past
their mid-30s, it may be too late to have a second even if they want one (the average age of
first births in most of Europe is now 30). If everyone does the same, one child becomes the
norm: a one-child policy by example rather than coercion, as it were. If women wait to start a
family until they are established at work, they may end up postponing children longer than
they might otherwise have chosen. When birth rates began to fall in Europe, this was said to

pg. 124
JM English

be a simple matter of choice. That was true, but it is possible that fertility may overshoot
below what people might naturally have chosen. For many years, politicians have argued that
southern Europe will catch up from its fertility decline because women, having postponed
their first child, will quickly have a second and third. The overshoot theory suggests there
may be only partial recuperation. Postponement could permanently lower fertility, not just
redistribute it across time.
F. There is a twist. If people have fewer children than they claim to want, how they see the
family may change, too. Research by Tomas Sobotka of the Vienna Institute of Demography
suggests that, after decades of low fertility, a quarter of young German men and a fifth of
young women say they have no intention of having children and think that this is fine. When
Eurobarometer repeated its poll about ideal family size in 2001, support for the two-child
model had fallen everywhere. Parts of Europe, then, may be entering a new demographic
trap. People restrict family size from choice. Social, economic, and cultural factors then
cause this natural fertility decline to overshoot. This changes expectations, to which people
respond by having even fewer children. That does not necessarily mean that birth rates will
fall even more: there may yet be some natural floor, but it could mean that recovery from
very low fertility rates proves to be slow or even non-existent.

Questions 14-17
The text has 6 paragraphs (A - F).
Which paragraph does each of the following headings best fit?
14. Even further falls?
15. One-child policy
16. Germany differs
17. Possible reasons

Questions 18-22
According to the text, FIVE of the following statements are true.
Write the corresponding letters in answer boxes 18 to 22 in any order.
A. Germany has the highest percentage of childless women.
B. Italy and Poland have high birth rates.
C. Most of the reasons given by Michael Teitelbaum are not unique to Germany.
D. Governments in eastern Europe encouraged people to have children.
E. In 1979, most families had one or two children.
F. European women who have a child later usually have more soon after.
G. In 2001, people wanted fewer children than in 1979, according to Eurobarometer
research.
H. Here may be a natural level at which birth rates stop declining.

Questions 23-26
According to the information given in the text, choose the correct answer or answers from the
choices given.
23. Reasons that ordinary Europeans do not think it is necessary to have as many
children include
A. less labour needed to farm land.
B. the feeling that Europe is too crowded.

pg. 125
JM English

C. a general dislike of children.

24. Michael Teitelbaum adds the following reasons:
A. poor childcare facilities.
B. longer working hours.
C. high unemployment amongst young adults.
25. Initial declines in southern and eastern Europe were because (of)
A. the reduced influence of the Catholic church.
B. lower standards of living.
C. governments encouraged smaller families.
26. People may have fewer children than they want because
A. women are having children at a later age.
B. they are following the example of other people.
C. politicians want them to.

READING PASSAGE 3
Teens Try to Change the World, One Purchase at a Time
When classes adjourn here at the Fayerweather Street School, eighth-graders ignore the mall
down the street and go straight to the place they consider much cooler: the local natural-foods
grocer‟s. There, they gather in groups of ten or more sometimes, smitten by a marketing
atmosphere that links attractiveness to eating well. When time comes to buy something even as
small as a chocolate treat, they feel good knowing a farmer somewhere probably received a good
price. “Food is something you need to stay alive,” says eighth-grader Emma Lewis. “Paying
farmers well is really important because if we didn‟t have any unprocessed food, we‟d all be
living on candy.”
Eating morally, as some describe it, is becoming a priority for teenagers as well as adults in their
early 20s. What began a decade ago as a concern on college campuses to shun clothing made in
overseas sweatshops has given birth to a parallel phenomenon in the food and beverage
industries. Here, youthful shoppers are leveraging their dollars in a bid to reduce pesticide usage,
limit deforestation, and make sure farmers are not left with a pittance on payday. Once again,
college campuses are setting the pace. Students at 30 colleges have helped persuade
administrators to make sure all cafeteria coffee comes with a “Fair Trade” label, which means
bean pickers in Latin America and Africa were paid higher than the going rates. Their peers on
another 300 campuses are pushing to follow suit, according to Students United for Fair Trade in
Washington, D.C.
Coffee is just the beginning. Bon Appetit, an institutional food-service provider based in
California, relies on organic and locally grown produce. In each year since 2001, more than 25
colleges have asked the company to bid on their food-service contracts. Though Bon Appetit
intentionally limits its growth, its collegiate client list has grown from 58 to 71 in that period.
“It‟s really just been in the last five years that we‟ve seen students become concerned with where
their food was coming from,” says Maisie Ganzler, Bon Appetit‟s director of strategic initiatives.
“Prior to that, students were excited to be getting sugared cereal.”
To reach a younger set that often does not drink coffee, Fair Trade importer Equal Exchange
rolled our a line of cocoa in 2003 and chocolate bars in 2004. Profits in both sectors have
justified the project, says Equal Exchange co-president Hob Everts. What is more, dozens of
schools have contacted the firm to use its products in fundraisers and as classroom teaching,

pg. 126
JM English

tools. "Kids often are the ones who agitate in the family‟" for recycling and other eco-friendly
practices, Mr. Everts says. “So, it‟s a ripe audience.”
Concerns of today‟s youthful food shoppers seem to reflect in some ways the idealism that
inspired prior generations to join boycotts in solidarity with farm workers. Today‟s efforts are
distinct in that youthful consumers say they do not want to make sacrifices. They want high-
quality, competitively priced goods that do not require exploitation of workers or the
environment. They will gladly reward companies that deliver. One activist who shares this
sentiment and hears it repeatedly from her peers is Summer Rayne Oakes, a recent college
graduate and fashion model who promotes stylish Fair Trade clothing. “I‟m not going to buy
something that can‟t stand on its own or looks bad just because it‟s socially responsible,” Ms.
Oakes says. “My generation has come to terms with the fact that we‟re all consumers, and we all
buy something. So, if I do have to buy food, what are the consequences?”
Wanting to ameliorate the world‟s big problems can be frustrating, especially for those who feel
ineffective because they are young. Marketers are figuring out that teenagers resent this feeling
of powerlessness and are pushing products that make young buyers feel as though they are
making a difference, says Michael Wood, vice president of Teenage Research Unlimited. His
example: Ethos Water from Starbucks, which contributes five cents from every bottle sold to
water-purification centres in developing countries. “This is a very easy way for young people to
contribute. All they have to do is buy bottled water,” Mr. Wood says. “Buying products or
supporting companies that give them ways to support global issues is one way for them to get
involved, and they really appreciate that.”
Convenience is also driving consumer activism. Joe Curnow, national coordinator of United
Students for Fair Trade, says she first got involved about five years ago as a high schooler when
she spent time hanging out in cafes. Buying coffee with an eco-friendly label “was a very easy
way for me to express what I believed in”, she says. For young teens, consumption is their first
foray into activism. At the Fayerweather Street School, Emma Lewis teamed up with classmates
Kayla Kleinman and Therese LaRue to sell Fair Trade chocolate, cocoa, and other products at a
school fundraiser in November. When the tally reached $8,000, they realised they were striking a
chord.
Some adults hasten to point out the limitations of ethical consumption as a tool for doing good
deeds and personal growth. Gary Lindsay, director of Children‟s Ministries, encourages Fair
Trade purchases, but he also organises children to collect toys for foster children and save coins
for a playground-construction project in Tanzania. He says it helps them learn to enjoy helping
others even when they are not getting anything tangible in return. “When we're benefiting, how
much are we really giving? Is it really sacri-lice?" Mr. Lindsay asks. Of Fair Trade products, he
says: “Those things are great when we‟re given opportunities like that once in a while, but I think
for us to expect that we should get something out of everything we do is a very selfish attitude to
have.”

Questions 27-30
For each question, only ONE of the choices is correct.
Write the corresponding letter in the appropriate box on your answer sheet.
27. Trying to change the world through what people purchase began with
A. Chocolate
B. Clothing
C. Coffee

pg. 127
JM English

28. Bon Appetit had_______colleges using its services in 2006.

A. 25
B. 58
C. 71
29. Buying Ethos Water helps provide money for
A. poor people in Africa.
B. poor farmers.
C. clean water projects.
30. Joe Curnow first got involved with consumer activism through buying
A. Coffee
B. Cocoa
C. Water

Questions 31-35
Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN ONE WORD from the text for each
gap.
Eighth-graders from Fayerweather Street School go to the natural-foods grocer‟s rather than the
31. …………
Bon Appetit limits its growth 32. …………
Previously, young generations were 33. ………… to make sacrifices.
Young people can feel frustrated and 34. ………… because of their age.
Gary Lindsay 35. ………… people to buy products that make use of Fair Trade.

Questions 36-40
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 36 - 40 on your answer sheet, write:
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this
36. Fair Trade coffee is more expensive than usual coffee.
37. Bon Appetit used to sell sugared cereal.
38. Hob Everts thinks that kids do not understand about protecting the environment.
39. Summer Rayne Oakes will wear clothes that do not look so good as long as they
promote Fair Trade.
40. Gary Lindsay thinks people should do more than just consume ethically.

pg. 128
JM English

TEST 17
READING PASSAGE 1
Money Transfers by Mobile
A. The ping of a text message has never sounded so sweet. In what is being touted as a world
first, Kenya‟s biggest mobile operator is allowing subscribers to send cash to other phone
users by SMS. Known as M-Pesa, or mobile money, the service is expected to revolutionise
banking in a country where more than 80% of people are excluded from the formal financial
sector. Apart from transferring cash - a service much in demand among urban Kenyans
supporting relatives in rural areas - customers of the Safaricom network will be able to keep
up to 50,000 shillings (£370) in a “virtual account” on their handsets.
B. Developed by Vodafone, which holds a 35% share in Safaricom, M-Pesa was
formally launched in Kenya two weeks ago. More than 10,000 people have signed up for
the service, with around 8 million shillings transferred so far, mostly in tiny denominations.
Safaricom‟s executives are confident that growth will be strong in Kenya, and later across
Africa. “We are effectively giving people ATM cards without them ever having to open a
real bank account,” said Michael Joseph, chief executive of Safaricom, who called the money
transfer concept the “next big thing” in mobile telephony.
C. M-Pesa‟s is simple. There is no need for a new handset or SIM card. To send money, you
hand over the cash to a registered agent - typically a retailer - who credits your virtual
account. You then send between 100 shillings (74p) and 35,000 shillings (£259) via text
message to the desired recipient - even someone on a different mobile network - who cashes
it at an agent by entering a secret code and showing ID. A commission of up to 170 shillings
(£1.25) is paid by the recipient but it compares favourably with fees levied by the major
banks, whose services are too expensive for most of the population.
D. Mobile phone growth in Kenya, as in most of Africa, has been remarkable, even among the
rural poor. In June 1999, Kenya had 15,000 mobile subscribers. Today, it has nearly 8
million out of a population of 35 million, and the two operators‟ networks are as extensive as
the access to banks is limited. Safaricom says it is not so much competing with financial
services companies as filling a void. In time, M-Pesa will allow people to borrow and repay
money, and make purchases. Companies will be able to pay salaries directly into workers‟
phones - something that has already attracted the interest of larger employers, such as the tea
companies, whose workers often have to be paid in cash as they do not have bank accounts.
There are concerns about security, but Safaricom insists that even if someone‟s phone is
stolen, the PIN system prevents unauthorised withdrawals. Mr. Joseph said the only danger is
sending cash to the wrong mobile number and the recipient redeeming it straight away.
E. The project is being watched closely by mobile operators around the world as a way of
targeting the multibillion pound international cash transfer industry long dominated by
companies such as Western Union and Moneygram. Remittances sent from nearly 200
million migrant workers to developing countries totalled £102 billion last year, according to
the World Bank. The GSM Association, which represents more than 700 mobile operators
worldwide, believes this could quadruple by 2012 if transfers by SMS become the norm.
Vodafone has entered a partnership with Citigroup that will soon allow Kenyans in the UK to
send money home via text message. The charge for sending £50 is expected to be about £3,
less than a third of what some traditional services charge.

pg. 129
JM English

Questions 1-4
The text has 5 paragraphs (A - E).
Which paragraph contains each of the following pieces of information?
1. A possible security problem
2. The cost of M-Pesa
3. An international service similar to M-Pesa
4. The fact that most Kenyans do not have a bank account

Questions 5-8
Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for
each gap.
Safaricom is the 5. ………… mobile phone company in Kenya.
An M-Pesa account needs to be credited by 6. …………
7. …………companies are particularly interested in using M-Pesa.
Companies like Moneygram and Western Union have 8. ………… the international money
transfer market.

Questions 9-13
Do the statements on the next page agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
In boxes 9 - 13 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this
9. Most Kenyans working in urban areas have relatives in rural areas.
10. So far, most of the people using M-Pesa have used it to send small amounts of money.
11. M-Pesa can only be used by people using one phone network.
12. M-Pesa can be used to buy products and services.
13. The GSM Association is a consumer organisation.

READING PASSAGE 2
Park the Car Permanently
A. More than a million people are likely to be disappointed by their experience of the
Government's attempts to improve the democratic process. They may have signed an online
petition against road pricing, but ministers are determined to push ahead with plans to make
it more expensive to drive. The Government is convinced that this is the only way to reduce
congestion and the environmental damage caused by motoring.
B. Why wait until you are forced off the road by costly charges? You may enjoy the
convenience of your car, but the truth is that for huge numbers of people, owning a car makes
little financial sense. You'd be far better off giving it up and relying on other forms of
transport. "I'm 47 and I've never owned a car, despite having a job that requires me to travel
all over the South-East to visit clients," says Donnachadh McCarthy, an environmental expert
who specialises in advising people how to be greener. "A car is a huge financial commitment,
as well as being a psychological addiction. Not owning a vehicle is far more practical than
most people realise."

pg. 130
JM English

C. It may seem as if cars have never been cheaper. After all, it is now possible to buy a brand
new car for less than £4,800 - the Perodua Kelisa, if you're interested. There are plenty of
decent vehicles you can buy straight from the showroom for between £5,000 and £7,000. Of
course, if you buy second-hand, the prices will be even lower. However, the falling purchase
price of cars masks the fact that it has never been more expensive to own and run a vehicle.
The estimate is that the cost of running a car rose by more than ten percent last year alone.
The annual cost of running your own vehicle is pul at an average of £5,539, or £107 a week.
While drivers who do less or more than the average mileage each year will spend
correspondingly less or more, many of the costs of ear ownership are fixed - and therefore
unavoidable.
D. Depreciation - the fact that your vehicle loses a large chunk of its resale value each year -
is one problem, accounting for £2,420 a year. The cost of finance packages, which most
people have to resort to to pay for at least part of the price of a new car, has also been rising -
to an average of £1,040 a year. Then there's insurance, maintenance, tax, and breakdown
insurance, all of which will cost you broadly the same amount, however many miles you do.
Only fuel costs are truly variable. While petrol prices are the most visible indicator of the
cost of running a car, for the typical driver they account for less than one fifth of the real
costs each year. In other words, leaving aside all the practical and psychological barriers to
giving up your car, in financial terms, doing so makes sense for many people.
E. Take the cost of public transport, for example. In London, the most expensive city in the
UK, the most expensive annual travel card, allowing travel in any zone at any time, costs just
over £1,700. You could give up your car and still have thousands of pounds to spare to spend
on occasional car hire. In fact, assuming that you have the most expensive travel card in
London, you could hire a cheap car from a company, such as easyCar for about 30 weeks a
year, and still be better off overall than if you own your own vehicle. Not that car hire is
necessarily the most cost-effective option for people who are prepared to do without a car but
may still need to drive occasionally.
F. Streetcar, one of several "car clubs" with growing numbers of members, reckons that
using its vehicles twice a week, every week, for a year, would cost you just £700. Streetcar's
model works very similarly to those of its main rivals, Citycarclub and Whizzgo. These three
companies, which now operate in 20 of Britain's towns and cities, charge their members a
refundable deposit - £150 at Streetcar - and then provide them with an electronic smart card.
This enables members to get into the vehicles, which are left parked in set locations, and the
keys are then found in the glove compartment. Members pay an hourly rate for the car -
£4.95 is the cost at Streetcar - and return it to the same spot, or to a different designated
parking place.
G. Car sharing is an increasingly popular option for people making the same journeys regularly -
to and from work, for example. Many companies run schemes that help colleagues who
live near to each other and work in the same place to contact each other so they can share
the journey to work. Liftshare and Carshare are two national organisations that maintain
online databases of people who would be prepared to team up. Other people may be able to
replace part or all of their journey to work - or any journeys, for that matter - with low-cost
transport such as a bicycle, or even by just walking. The more you can reduce your car use,
however you gain access to it, the more you will save.

Questions 14-17

pg. 131
JM English

The text has 7 paragraphs (A - G).

Which paragraph does each of the following headings best fit?
14. Don't wait!
15. Team up
16. Join a club
17. Use public transport

Questions 18-22
According to the text, FIVE of the following statements are true.
Write the corresponding letters in answer boxes 18 to 22 in any order.
A. McCarthy claims people can become addicted to using cars.
B. The cost of using a car rose by over ten percent last year.
C. Most British people borrow money to help buy cars.
D. Many people need cars to drive in London occasionally.
E. Streetcar operates in over 20 cities in Britain.
F. Streetcar‟s cars must be left at specific locations.
G. Car sharing is becoming more popular with people who live and work near each other.
H. The government wants to encourage people to go to work on foot or by bicycle.

Questions 23-26
According to the information given in the text, choose the correct answer or answers from the
choices given.
23. The government has decided
A. not to follow protestors‟ suggestions.
B. to become more democratic.
C. to go ahead with charging drivers to use roads.
24. Cars are often
A. relatively cheap in Britain.
B. relatively expensive to operate in Britain.
C. sold second-hand in Britain.
25. Fuel costs
A. make up about 20% of the cost of running a car.
B. are related to the amount drivers pay for their cars.
C. depend on how far you drive.
26. Using public transport
A. will save money for British motorists, except in London.
B. and renting a car part of the time can save money.
C. costs Londoners about 1,700 pounds a year.

READING PASSAGE 3
Low-Cost Lamps Light Rural India
Until three months ago, life in this humble village without electricity would come to a halt after
sunset. Inside his mud-and-clay home, Ganpat Jadhav's three children used to study in the dim,
smoky glow of a kerosene lamp, when their monthly fuel quota of four litres dried up in just a
fortnight, they had to strain their eyes using the light from a cooking fire. That all changed with

pg. 132
JM English

the installation of low-cost, energy-efficient lamps that are powered entirely by the sun. The
lights were installed by the Grameen Surya Bijli Foundation (GSBF), an Indian non-
governmental organisation focused on bringing light to rural India. Some 100,000 Indian villages
do not yet have electricity. The GSBF lamps use LEDs - light emitting diodes - that are four
times more efficient than a normal bulb. After a $55 installation cost, solar energy lights the
lamp free of charge. LED lighting, like cell phones, is another example of a technology whose
low cost could allow the rural poor to leap into the 21st century.
As many as 1.5 billion people - nearly 80 million in India alone - light their houses using
kerosene as the primary lighting media. The fuel is dangerous, dirty, and - despite
being subsidised - consumes nearly four percent of a typical rural Indian household‟s budget. A
recent report by the Intermediate Technology Development Group suggests that indoor air
pollution from such lighting media results in 1.6 million deaths worldwide every year. LED
lamps, or more specifically white LEDs, are believed to produce nearly 200 times more useful
light than a kerosene lamp and almost 50 times the amount of useful light of a conventional bulb.
"This technology can light an entire rural village with less energy than that used by a single
conventional 100-watt light bulb,” says Dave Irvine-Halliday, a professor of electrical
engineering at the University of Calgary, Canada and the founder of Light up the World
Foundation (LUTW). Founded in 1997, LUTW has used LED technology to bring light to nearly
10,000 homes in remote and disadvantaged corners of some 27 countries like India, Nepal, Sri
Lanka, Bolivia, and the Philippines.
The technology, which is not yet widely known in India, faces some scepticism here. “LED
systems are revolutionising rural lighting, but this isn‟t a magic solution to the world‟s energy
problems,” says Ashok Jhunjhunwala, head of the electrical engineering department at the Indian
Institute of Technology, Madras. In a scenario in which nearly 60 percent of India‟s rural
population uses 180 million tons of biomass per year for cooking via primitive wood stoves -
which are smoky and provide only 10-15 percent efficiency in cooking -Jhunjhunwala
emphasises the need for a clean energy source, not just for lighting but for other domestic
purposes as well. The Indian government in April launched an ambitious project to bring
electricity to 112,000 rural villages in the next decade. However, the remote locations of the
village will make reaching this goal difficult. A. K. Lakhina, the chairman of India‟s Rural
Electrification Corporation, says the Indian government recognises the potential of LED lighting
powered by solar technology, but expressed reservations about its high costs. “If only LEDs
weren't imported but manufactured locally,” he says, “and in bulk.”
The lamps installed in nearly 300 homes by GSBF cost nearly half the price of other solar
lighting systems. Jasjeet Singh Chaddha, the founder of the NGO, currently imports his LEDs
from China. He wants to set up an LED manufacturing unit and a solar panel manufacturing unit
in India. If manufactured locally, the cost of his LED lamp could plummet to $22, as they will
not incur heavy import duties. “We need close to $5 million for this,” he says. Mr. Chaddha says
he has also asked the government to exempt the lamps from such duties, but to no avail. An
entrepreneur who made his money in plastics, Chaddha, has poured his own money into the
project, providing the initial installations free of charge. As he looks to make the project self-
sustainable, he recognises that it is only urban markets -which have also shown an avid interest
in LED lighting - that can pay. The rural markets in India cannot afford it, he says, until the
prices are brought down. The rural markets would be able to afford it, says Mr. Irvine-Halliday,
if they had access to microcredit. He says that in Tembisa, a shanty town in Johannesburg, he
found that almost 10,000 homes spent more than $60 each on candles and paraffin every year. As

pg. 133
JM English

calculations revealed, these families can afford to purchase a solid state lighting system in just
over a year of paying per week what they would normally spend on candles and paraffin - if they
have access to microcredit. LUTW is in the process of creating such a microcredit facility for
South Africa.
In villages near Khadakwadi, the newly installed LED lamps are a subject of envy, even for
those connected to the grid. Those connected to the grid have to face power cuts up to 6 or 7
hours a day. Constant energy shortages and blackouts are a common problem due to a lack of
power plants, transmission, and distribution losses caused by old technology and illegal stealing
of electricity from the grid. LED systems require far less maintenance, a longer life, and as
villagers jokingly say, “no electricity bills”. The lamps provided by GSBF have enough power to
provide just four hours of light a day. However, that is enough for people to get their work done
in the early hours of the night, and is more reliable than light generated off India‟s electrical grid.
Villagers are educated by GSBF officials to make the most of the new lamps. An official from
GSBF instructs Jadhav and his family to clean the lamp regularly. “Its luminosity and life will
diminish if you let the dust settle on it,” he warns them.

Questions 27-30
For each question, only ONE of the choices is correct.
Write the corresponding letter in the appropriate box on your answer sheet.
27. The GSBF lamps
A. provide light for 100,000 Indian villages.
B. are very expensive to install.
C. are powered by the sun.
28. More than half of India‟s population uses
A. kerosene as a cooking fuel.
B. biomass as a cooking fuel.
C. solar power as a cooking fuel.
29. In India, the GSBF lamps are too expensive for most people
A. in rural areas.
B. in urban areas.
C. in all areas.
30. The GSBF lamps
A. are not as reliable as electricity from the national power grid.
B. require skill to use.
C. only provide four hours of light a day.

Questions 31-35
Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for
each gap.
Another example of cheap technology helping poor people in the countryside is 31. …………
Kerosene lamps and conventional bulbs give off less 32. ………… than GSBF lamps.
It is unlikely that the Indian government will achieve its aim of connecting 112,000 villages to
electricity because many villages are 33. …………
GSBF lamps would be cheaper if it weren‟t for 34. …………
Users need to wipe 35. ………… from the LED in order to keep it working well.

pg. 134
JM English

Questions 36-40
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 36 - 40 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this
36. Ganpat Jadhav‟s monthly ration of kerosene was insufficient.
37. Kerosene causes many fires in homes in developing countries.
38. LED systems could solve the world‟s energy problems.
39. Chaddha has so far funded the GSBF lamp project himself.
40. Microcredit would help to get more people to use LED lamps.

pg. 135
JM English

TEST 18
READING PASSAGE 1
Secret of Thailand's Success?
A. It is a question officials here in Asia are being posed more and more: Why are
your economies so vibrant? Answers include young and swelling populations, decreased
debt, growing cities, emerging middle-class consumer sectors, evolving markets and, of
course, ( China‟s rise. Add this to that list: Women and their increasing role in Asia‟s
economies. The idea is that the more opportunities women have, the more vibrant economies
are and, consequently, the less need there is to amass a huge public debt to boost growth. It is
an idea bolstered by a new survey by MasterCard International Inc., which compares the
socio-economic level of women with men in Asia-Pacific nations. The gauge uses four key
indicators: participation in the labour force, college education, managerial positions, and
above-median income.
B. Which Asian nation is doing host when it comes to women‟s advancement? Thailand. It
scored 92.3 of a possible 100, and according to MasterCard‟s index, 100 equals gender
equality. The survey was based on interviews with 300 to 350 women in thirteen nations and
national statistics. Malaysia came in second with a score of 86.2, while China came in third
with 68.4. The average score in Asia was 67.7. At the bottom of the list is South Korea
(45.5), followed by Indonesia (52.5), and Japan (54.5). Perhaps it is a bizarre coincidence,
yet MasterCard‟s findings fit quite neatly with two important issues in Asia: economic
leadership and debt. Thailand, Malaysia, and China are three economies widely seen as the
future of Asia. Thailand‟s economic boom in recent years has prompted many leaders in the
region to look at its growth strategy. Malaysia, which has a female central bank governor, is
one of Asia‟s rising economic powers. China, of course, is the world‟s hottest economy, and
one that is shaking up trade patterns and business decisions everywhere.
C. Something all three economies have in common is an above-average level of female
participation. What the three worst ranked economies share are severe long-term
economic challenges of high levels of debt and a female workforce that is being neglected.
Research in economic history is very conclusive on the role of women in economic growth
and development, says Yuwa Hedrick-Wong, an economic adviser to MasterCard. The more
extensive women‟s participation at all areas of economic activities, the higher the probability
for stronger economic growth. That, Hedrick-Wong says, means societies and economies that
consistently fail to fully incorporate women‟s ability and talent in businesses, and the
workplace will suffer the consequences. Take Korea, which has been walking in place
economically in recent years. Immediately following the 1997— 1998 Asian financial crisis,
Korea became a regional role model as growth boomed and unemployment fell. Yet a
massive increase in household debt left consumers overexposed and growth slowed.
D. Maybe it is a just coincidence that Korea also ranks low on measures of gender
equality published by the United Nations. As of 2003, for example, it ranked below
Honduras, Paraguay, Mauritius, and Ukraine in terms of women‟s economic and political
empowerment. Utilising more of its female workforce would deepen Korea‟s labour pool
and increase potential growth rates in the economy. The same goes for Japan. The
reluctance of Asia‟s biggest economy to increase female participation and let more women
into the executive suite exacerbates its biggest long-term challenge: a declining birth rate.
In 2003, the number of children per Japanese woman fell to a record low of 1.29
versus about. 2 in the early 1970s. Preliminary government statistics suggest the rate

pg. 136
JM English

declined further in 2004. The trend is nothing short of a crisis for a highly indebted nation
of 126 million that has yet to figure out how to fund the national pension system down the
road. Yet Japan has been slow to realise that for many women, the decision to
delay childbirth is a form of rebellion against societal expectations to have children
and become housewives,
E. It may be 2005, yet having children is a career-ending decision for millions of bright, ambit
ions, and well-educated Japanese, Until corrected, Japan‟s birth rate will drop and economic
growth will lag, UN Secretary General Kofi Annan was absolutely right earlier this month
when he said no other policy is as likely to raise economic productivity than the
empowerment of women. Here, in Thailand, the government is getting some decent marks in
this regard, and the economy‟s 6 percent-plus growth rate may be a direct result. Thailand
still has a long way to go. Yet the Bank of Thailand‟s deputy governor, Tarisa Watanagase, is
a woman, as are seven of nine assistant governors. Then there‟s Jada Wattanasiritham, who
runs Siam Commercial Bank Plc, Thailand‟s fourth-biggest lender. How many female chief
executives can you name in Japan or Korea? Looked at broadly in Asia, MasterCard‟s survey
is on to something. It is that giving women more opportunities to contribute to an economy is
not just about fairness, but dollars and sense, too.

Questions 1-4
The text has 5 paragraphs (A - E).
Which paragraph contains each of the following pieces of information?
1. The fact that a woman runs one of Thailand‟s biggest banks
2. The number of countries included in the survey
3. The fact that Japan‟s birth rate is falling quickly
4. The criteria used to get a score for each country

Questions 5-8
Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for
each gap.
Higher consumption in the 5. ………… sector of the market is one reason that Asia‟s economies
are doing well.
The scores were decided through a combination of interviews and 6. …………
Higher 7. ………… has created an economic problem for Korea.
Japanese politicians have not yet decided how to get money for the 8. …………

Questions 9-13
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
In boxes 9 - 13 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this
9. Other countries are looking at the example of Thailand to see if its policies can help
their economies.
10. Higher female participation in an economy always leads to greater economic growth.

pg. 137
JM English

11. Female participation in the economy is lower in Japan than in most other
developed economies.
12. Most of the Bank of Thailand‟s assistant governors are female.
13. The writer considers 'fairness‟ to be a bad reason for giving women top jobs.

READING PASSAGE 2
Patients Are a Virtue
A. Despite conference jeers, job cuts, and a financial crisis, health secretary Patricia Hewitt may
find a reason to smile this week, as the NHS (British National Health Service) was named
one of the top places to work by students. Among engineering, science, and IT students, the
health service was ranked second in this year‟s Univer-sum UK graduate survey of ideal
employers, a leap of 54 places from last year. The annual survey, conducted in the UK since
1997, canvassed the opinions of more than 7,700 final and penultimate-year students
studying for degrees in business, engineering, science, IT, and the humanities, at 39
universities, between January and March this year.
B. Each student was presented with a list of 130 employers, nominated by students through a
separate process, from which they selected the five they considered to be ideal employers.
The Universum list is based on the frequency of an organisation being selected as an ideal
employer, following a weighting process. This year, government departments and public
sector organisations dominated the top spots, with the BBC ranked first among humanities,
engineering, science, and IT students, retaining its place from last year, and coming third for
those studying business. Among humanities students, the BBC was followed closely by the
Foreign and Commonwealth Office and the Civil Service fast stream. The Cabinet Office and
the Ministry of Defence were not far behind, ranked fifth and sixth respectively. As well as
the NHS, engineering, science, and IT students favoured the Environment Agency, which
leapt 83 places, from 86 in 2005 to number three this year. Meanwhile, business
students voted accountancy giants PricewaterhouseCoopers (PwC) as their favoured
employer, followed by HSBC.
C. At a London awards ceremony sponsored by the Guardian, Foluke Ajayi, head of
NHS careers at NHS employers, said its success this year reflected the reality of the
health service, which is the third largest employer in the world and the largest in Europe.
“We employ people in other clinical areas, such as health care. We employ IT
managers, engineers, architects,” she said, adding that the health service is no longer seen as
a “second choice” career. “People recognise that they can give something back to
the community, but still develop a worthwhile career.”
D. Sarah Churchman, director of student recruitment and diversity at PwC, said her company‟s
success is down to a good campus presence, its commitment to invest in its employees and,
with offices around the world, the chance to travel, something which just under half of the
students polled said was an important factor when it came to looking for work. One of the big
four accountancy firms, PwC is not into gimmicks, and it does not offer freebies but, said
Churchman, it does offer “a solid foundation” for anyone wanting a career in business. “We
sell our people skills, so we are interested in building skills. We‟re not selling something, we
invest in our people,” she added.
E. Further down the rankings, but still with reason to celebrate, was John Lewis, which matched
bumper sales this year with a leap from 111th place in 2005 to 26th among this year‟s
humanities students. Sky found itself in 12th place, up from 104th last year, and the

pg. 138
JM English

Environment Agency also proved popular among this student group, rising from 138th in
2005 to 7th this year. Among the business fraternity, shell saw a reversal of fortunes, rising to
30th place after last year‟s 76thposition. There were a few dramatic drops in the rankings. The
Bank of England fell from 14th in 2005 to 27th this year among humanities students, although
it retained its mid-table position among those studying business. British Airways also saw a
slight dip, as did McKinsey & Co, which dropped from 11th to 22ndamong business
undergraduates.
F. Perhaps more surprisingly, this year was the first appearance in the rankings of Teach First, a
small charity launched three years ago that aims to create the “leaders of the future” by
encouraging top graduates who would not normally consider a career in teaching to commit
to work in “challenging” secondary schools for at least two years. The organisation came
straight in at number eight among humanities students and was voted 22nd by those studying
engineering, science, and IT. James Darley, director of graduate recruitment at Teach First,
said he was “bowled over” by the news. “We were not expecting this. We‟re a registered
charity, only able to physically go to 15 universities.”
G. The scheme, based on one run in the US, has the backing of more than 80
businesses, including Deloitte and HSBC. During their two years, candidates undertake
leadership training and emerge from the programme with a range of skills and
experiences. “We hope in the long term they will be our ambassadors, as we call them, in
politics, industry, charities, who will have done it and continue to support the
educationally disadvantaged,” adds Darley. This year, 260 graduates are expected to take up
the Teach First challenge in schools in London and Manchester, More are expected over the
coming years, as the scheme expands to Birmingham and three other cities by 2008. Of the
first set of recruits to complete the programme, half have gone on to work for “some amazing
companies”, while the other half have chosen to stay on in their schools for a further year -
20% in leadership roles.
H. While more than half of students were concerned about achieving a good work life balance, a
third said they wanted a job that would challenge them. Although male Students tended to
focus more on the practical aspects of work, such as “building a sound financial base”,
women, particularly those studying for humanities degrees, had a more idealistic outlook,
saying making a contribution to society was a key career goal. Almost half of all students
said that paid overtime was a key part of any company compensation package, However,
business students said that the most important compensation, apart from salary, was
performance-related bonuses, while important considerations for humanities students were
retirement plans. Working overseas also scored highly among those surveyed this year, with
45% of business students, and 44% of humanities students, listing it as a priority. Ethical
considerations and corporate social responsibilities were also mentioned, with a large
percentage of humanities and engineering, science and IT students saying it was a key
consideration when it came to choosing an employer.

Questions 14-17
The text has 8 paragraphs (A - H).
Which paragraph does each of the following headings best fit?
14. Most popular employers for different students
15. Students‟ expectations
16. Give and develop with the NHS

pg. 139
JM English

17. Reason for the NHS to be happy

Questions 18-22
According to the text, FIVE of the following statements are true.
Write the corresponding letters in answer boxes 18 to 22 in any order.
A. In the survey, students could only rate employers on a given list.
B. The Environment Agency rose the most places in this year‟s survey.
C. The NHS offers a variety of careers outside health care.
D. British Airways fell in popularity amongst business students.
E. James Darley was surprised by his organisation‟s performance in the survey.
F. Most Teach First teachers continue in a teaching career after two years.
G. Most students want to achieve a good work/life balance.
H. Most business students were concerned about working for an ethical company.

Questions 23-24
According to the information given in the text, choose the correct answer or answers from the
choices given.
23. The survey covered students
A. from all British universities.
B. studying a variety of subjects.
C. who were in their last year of studies only.
24. The BBC
A. was first choice in most categories.
B. was unpopular with business students.
C. employs more graduates than most other organisations and companies.

Questions 25-26
According to the information given in the text, choose the correct answer or answers from the
choices given.
Sarah Churchman says PwC did well in the survey because it
A. often goes to universities to meet students.
B. provides many scholarships for students.
C. offers many opportunities to travel.

READING PASSAGE 3
Rise of the Robots
If you are into technology, you are living in wonderful times. Things are developing in leaps and
bounds, especially gadgets. Let us look at the technology that is set to break through.
CELESTRON SKYSCOUT
Backyard stargazing goes seriously hi-tech with the Celestron SkyScout, which was judged to be
the Best of Innovations at the New York Consumer Electronics Show press preview event in
November. It is not difficult to see why. The SkyScout is a hand-held viewing device that is
capable of finding and identifying more than 6,000 celestial objects visible to the naked eye, thus
transforming the night sky into your own personal planetarium. Using GPS technology and a
substantial celestial database, the camcorder-sized SkyScout enables stargazers to point the

pg. 140
JM English

device at any visible object in the sky, press a button, and then listen to a commentary. For the
truly celestially challenged, if you want to view a star or planet but do not have a clue which bit
of the heavens to look in, do not despair; the SkyScout‟s "locate” feature will guide you to it
using illuminated arrows in the viewfinder.
NOKIA N91
This amazing mobile jukebox is due out early in 2006. Nokia‟s N91 looks set to be in a class of
its own as a multimedia mobile phone. It will play music, take photos, surf the web and
download videos, store contact details, and generally organise your life. The robust little phone,
resplendent in its stainless steel case, is the first Nokia to be equipped with a hard drive (4Gb),
which means that it can store up to 3,000 songs. The N91, which has a hi-fi quality headset and
remote control, supports a wide range of digital music formats, including MP3, Real, WAV, and
WMA. It uses wireless technology to allow users to find and buy music from the operator‟s
music store. You can also drag and drop music from your PC to the N91 and manage and share
playlists. If you can find the time, you can get on the blower, too.
SEIKO SPECTRUM E-PAPER WATCH
The Seiko Spectrum is no ordinary wristwatch. At first glance, it is an attractive and futuristic
bracelet-style watch. Look closer, however, and you will notice that its display is unlike any you
have seen before. Rather than the usual LCD screen, the display is made of “e-paper” - from the
electronic paper pioneers E Ink Corp - and shows a constantly changing mosaic pattern along
with the time. Because e-paper is so flexible and thin, it allows the display to curve round the
wrist along with the watch band - something conventional liquid-crystal displays cannot do, as
they have to be flat. Seiko says the e-paper display not only produces far better contrast than an
LCD screen, but requires no power to retain an image, so the batteries last longer. Seiko is
releasing only 500 of the watches next month, priced at about £1,250 - so you'd better lose no
time.
HIGH-DEFINITION TV
HDTV, already available in the United States, Japan, and Australia, will hit the UK in 2006.
When you watch a programme filmed in the HD format, you will see a much sharper, clearer and
more vibrant image. This is due partly to the way a programme is filmed, but also to the high-
definition TV set itself, which uses either 720 or 1,080 visible rows of pixels (depending on
which format the individual HDTV uses) to display images, compared to the 576 rows of pixels
used in current sets.
ELECTROLUX TRILOBITE 2.0 ROBOT VACUUM CLEANER
Next time you are expecting visitors, do not bother to vacuum first - wait until they arrive, and
then entertain them with this little gadget. The Electrolux Trilobite 2.0 is a robotic vacuum
cleaner that navigates its way around your floors using ultrasound, just like a bat. It pings out
ultrasound vibrations at surfaces to create a map of the room, which it remembers for future
cleaning assignments. The Trilobite has no problem avoiding collision with things placed on the
floor. Special magnetic strips are placed in doorways, near stairs and other openings. These act
as a wall, keeping the Trilobite in the room. You can also programme it to glide round when
you‟re at work or after you've gone to bed. When Electrolux introduced the original Trilobite in
2001, it was voted among the 100 most innovative designs (though whether the judges were
dedicated couch potatoes, and thus biased, we were not aide to discover). The name comes from
the hard-shelled sea creature from the Paleozoic era (between 250 million and 560 million years
ago) that roamed the ocean floor feeding on particles and small animals.
HONDA ASIMO ROBOT

pg. 141
JM English

Need an extra pair of hands around the office? Look no further; this mouth, the Honda Motor
Company showcased its second-generation humanoid robot, Asimo. The machine has come a
long way since its first incarnation five years ago. The 1.3 metre-tall droid is now capable of
performing a variety of office tasks, including reception duties, serving drinks and acting as an
information guide, as well as making deliveries. Using multiple sensors, Asimo has the ability to
recognise the surrounding environment and interact with people using integrated circuit tags. It
can walk and run at a fair pace, and push a cart. Honda plans to start using Asimo‟s receptionist
functions at its Wako Building in Japan early in 2006, and it is hoped it will become available for
leasing afterwards. It could soon be pushing a cart at an office near you.

Questions 27-30
For each question, only ONE of the choices is correct.
Write the corresponding letter in the appropriate box on your answer sheet.
27. The Celestron SkyScout can
A. tell you information about the stars.
B. tell you where in the world you are.
C. find objects in the sky that are not normally visible.
28. The Seiko Spectrum e-paper watch
A. cannot be bent.
B. can be used for surfing the Internet.
C. is being produced as a limited edition.
29. The Electrolux Trilobite 2.0 robot vacuum cleaner
A. asks permission before moving from room to room.
B. uses lasers to help it avoid objects.
C. is programmable.
30. The Honda Asimo robot
A. has two pairs of hands.
B. uses lasers to help it recognise its surroundings.
C. can run.

Questions 31-35
Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for
each gap.
The SkyScout uses GPS and 31. ………… to help you find a star.
The Seiko Spectrum does not need batteries to power the 32. …………
HDTV uses more 33. ………… than conventional TV.
The Trilobite 2.0 could be used to 34. ………… guests.
Asimo first appeared 35. …………

Questions 36-40
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?
In boxes 36 - 40 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this

pg. 142
JM English

36. The Nokia N91 is strong.

37. E-paper can be torn easily.
38. HDTV is filmed differently to conventional TV.
39. The Trilobite 2.0 looks just like the original design.
40. Asimo is available for export.

pg. 143
JM English

TEST 19
READING PASSAGE 1
Alternative Energy Sources
A. There are many reasons why we are looking towards alternative energy sources. With many
countries signing the Kyoto Treaty, efforts to reduce pollutants and greenhouse gases are a
primary focus in today‟s culture. Alternative, or renewable, energy sources show significant
promise in helping to reduce the amount of toxins that are byproducts of energy use. Not
only do they protect against harmful by-products, but using alternative energy helps to
preserve many of the natural resources that we currently use as sources of energy. To
understand how alternative energy use can help preserve the delicate ecological balance of
the planet, and help us conserve the non-renewable energy sources like fossil fuels, it is
important to know what types of alternative energy are out there.
B. Alternative energy sources are resources that are constantly replaced and are usually less
polluting. They are not the result of the burning of fossil fuels or splitting of atoms. The use
of renewable energy is contributing to our energy supply. Some alternative energy sources
are: biomass energy, geothermal energy, hydroelectric power, solar power, wind power, fuel
cells, ocean thermal energy conversion, tidal energy, and wave energy.
C. Biomass is renewable energy that is produced from organic matter. Biomass fuels include
wood, forest and mill residues, animal waste, grains, agricultural crops, and aquatic plants.
These materials are used as fuel to heat water for steam or processed into liquids and gases,
which can be burned to do the same thing. With more use of biomass at lower production
costs and better technology, the United States could generate as much as four-and-a-half
times more biopower by 2020. It is estimated that biomass will have the largest increase
among renewable energy sources, rising by 80 percent and reaching 65.7 billion KW in 2020.
D. Geothermal energy uses heat from within the earth. Wells are drilled into geothermal
reservoirs to bring the hot water or steam to the surface. The steam then drives a turbine-
generator to generate electricity in geothermal plants. In some places this heat is used directly
to heat homes and greenhouses, or to provide process heat for businesses or industries.
Reykjavik, Iceland, is heated by geothermal energy. Most geothermal resources are
concentrated in the western part of the United States. Geothermal heat pumps use shallow
ground energy to heat and cool homes, and this technique can be employed almost anywhere.
With technological improvements much more power could lie generated from hydrothermal
resources. Scientists have been experimenting by pumping water into the hot dry rock that is
3-6 miles below the earth‟s surface for use in geothermal power plants.
E. Hydroelectric (hydropower) energy employs the force of falling water to drive turbine-
generators to produce electricity. Hydropower produces more electricity than any other
alternative energy source. It has been estimated that hydroelectric power will decline from
389 billion KW in the US in 1999 to 298 billion KW in 2020. This decline is expected
because most of the best sites for hydropower have already been developed and because of
concerns about the adverse impact that large-scale hydroelectric facilities may have on the
environment.
F. Solar energy is generated without a turbine or electromagnet. Special panels of photovoltaic
cells capture light from the sun and convert it directly into electricity. The electricity is stored
in a battery. Solar energy can also be used to directly heat water for domestic use (solar
thermal technology). The domestic photovoltaic (PV) industry could provide up to 15% of
new US peak electricity capacity that is expected to be required in 2020.

pg. 144
JM English

G. Wind energy can be used to produce electricity. As wind passes through the blades of a
windmill, the blades spin. The shaft that is attached to the blades turns and powers a pump or
turns a generator to produce electricity. Electricity is then stored in batteries. The speed of
the wind and the size of the blades determine how much energy can be produced. Wind
energy is more efficient in windier parts of the country. Most wind power is produced from
wind farms — large groups of turbines located in consistently windy locations. Wind, used as
a fuel, is free and non-polluting and produces no emissions or chemical wastes. Wind-
powered electricity is gaining in popularity.
H. Fuel cells are electrochemical devices that produce electricity through a chemical reaction.
Fuel cells are rechargeable, contain no moving parts, are clean, and produce no noise.
Scientists are exploring ways that they could be used as a power source for nearly exhaust-
free automobiles and how they can be used as electricity-generating plants. The high cost of
manufacturing fuel cells has prevented the mass use of this valuable energy source.
I. Ocean sources; Oceans, which cover more than 70% of the earth, contain both thermal
energy from the sun‟s heat and mechanical energy from the tides and waves. Ocean thermal
energy conversion (OTEC) converts solar radiation to electric power. OTEC power plants
use the difference in temperature between warm surface waters heated by the sun and colder
waters found at ocean depths to generate electricity. The power of tides can also be harnessed
to produce electricity. Tidal energy works by harnessing the power of changing tides but it
needs large tidal differences. The tidal process utilises the natural motion of the tides to fill
reservoirs, which are then slowly discharged through electricity-producing turbines. Wave
energy conversion extracts energy from surface waves, from pressure fluctuations below the
water surface, or from the full wave. Wave energy also uses the interaction of winds with the
ocean surface. This technology is still in the exploratory phase in the United States.

Questions 1-2
The writer mentions a number of facts relating to alternative power sources.
Which TWO of the following facts are mentioned?
A. International co-operation has yet to result in the largescale implementation and effective
use of alternative power sources.
B. One alternative energy source in particular will have a great impact in the years to come.
C. A side-effect of one of these forms of energy is the production of chemical waste.
D. Expense is the main factor that is an obstacle to developing one of these forms of energy
E. Approximately one in five US homes will be using one of these forms of energy within
twenty years.
F. One attraction of these forms of energy in general is the relatively low production costs.

Questions 3-4
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.
3. Geothermal energy is produced by
A. heating the air below the surface of the ground.
B. employing the force of falling water.
C. extracting water or steam from beneath the earth‟s surface.
D. using the earth‟s natural electricity.
4. Which form of alternative energy does not involve the use of turbines?
A. wind energy

pg. 145
JM English

B. geothermal energy
C. tidal energy
D. fuel cell energy

Questions 5-8
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
In spaces 5-8 below, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this
5. Wind power is the most efficient form of alternative energy.
6. Wave energy can be derived from a number of sources.
7. Alternative energy sources serve several purposes.
8. Fossil fuels are needed in at least one of these alternative energy sources.

Questions 9-13
Complete the sentences.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
By using alternative energy sources, we can cut the 9. ……….. that are produced by current
power sources.
In addition to fossil fuels and atom splitting, we presently use 10. ……….. as part of our power
source.
Renewable energy called biomass is produced from 11. ……….. .
The renewable energy that comes from within the earth is called 12. ……….. .
One of the reasons that fuel cells are not widely used is the 13. ……….. of manufacturing.

READING PASSAGE 2
Colour Blindness
Colour blindness results from an absence or malfunction of certain colour-sensitive cells in the
retina. The retina is a neuro-membrane lining the inside back of the eye, behind the lens. The
retina contains both rod cells (active in low light or night vision but which cannot distinguish
colour) and cone cells (active in normal daylight, sensitive to colour). Cone cells, also called
photoreceptors, are concentrated mostly in the central part of the retina, in an area called the
macula. Cone cells provide clear, sharp colour vision. The cones contain light-sensitive pigments
that are sensitive to the range of wavelengths. There are three different types of cones with one
sensitive to short wavelengths, or the colour blue, one sensitive to medium wavelengths, or the
colour green, and the other sensitive to higher wavelengths, or the colour red. All of these cells
send information about colour to the brain via the optic nerve which connects to the1 retina at a
point very close to the macula. Normal persons, referred to as trichromats, are able to match all
colours of the spectrum by using a combination of these three fundamental colour sensitivities.
Hence, the huge variety of colours we perceive stems from the cone cells' response to different
compositions of wavelengths of light.
There are many types of colour blindness. When there are deficiencies in the cones, either at
birth or acquired in other ways, the cones are not able to distinguish the particular wavelengths
and thus, that colour range is seen differently. Those with defective colour vision have a

pg. 146
JM English

deficiency or absence in one or more of the pigments. People with a deficiency in one of the
pigments (the most common type of colour vision problem) are called anomalous trichromats.
When one of the cone pigments is absent and colour is reduced to two dimensions, dichromacy
occurs. These individuals normally know they have a colour vision problem and it can affect
their lives on a daily basis. They see no perceptible difference between red, orange, yellow, and
green. All these colours that seem so different to the normal viewer appear to them to be the
same colour. Missing the cones responsible for green and red hues can also affect the sensitivity
to brightness.
Most cases of colour blindness, about 99%, are inherited, resulting from partial or complete loss
of function in one or more of the different cone systems and affect both eyes without worsening
over time. The most common are red-green hereditary (genetic) photoreceptor disorders
collectively referred to as "red-green colour blindness". It affects 8% of all males of European
origin and 0.4% of all females. The gene for this is carried in the X chromosome. Since males
have an X-Y pairing and females have X-X, colour blindness can occur much more easily in
males and is typically passed to them by their mothers. In other words, females may be carriers
of colour blindness, but males are more commonly affected. People with this disorder cannot
identify red or green by itself but can if among a coloured group. Other forms of colour blindness
are much more rare. They include problems in discriminating blues from yellows. Both colours
are seen as white or grey. This disorder occurs with equal frequency in men and women and
usually accompanies certain other physical disorders, such as liver disease or diabetes.
The rarest form of all is total colour blindness, monochromacy, where one can only see grey or
shades of black, grey and white as in a black-and-white film or photograph. Monochromacy
occurs when two or all three of the cone pigments are missing and colour and lightness vision is
reduced to one dimension. Another term for total colour blindness is achromatopsia, the inability
to see colour.
Inherited colour vision problems cannot be treated or corrected. Some acquired colour vision
problems can be treated with surgery, such as the removal of a cataract, depending on the cause.
Certain types of tinted filters and contact lenses may also help an individual to distinguish
different colours better. Additionally, computer software has been developed to assist those with
visual colour difficulties and those with mild colour deficiencies to learn to associate colours
with certain objects and are usually able to identify colour in the same way as everyone else. One
frequent problem encountered is with traffic lights, and worst of all, warning lights: colour-blind
people always know the position of the colours on the traffic light - in most situations; red on
top, yellow in the centre, green on the bottom. But warning lights present an entirely different
problem. In this situation there is only one light; no top or bottom, no right or left, just one light
that is either red or yellow.
Colour vision problems can have a significant impact on a person's life, learning abilities and
career choices. On an everyday basis, there are some annoyances and frustrations: not being able
to differentiate between green or ripe tomatoes when preparing food, for example, or buying
clothes that to the 'normal' eye seem positively garish. However, people with colour vision
problems usually learn to compensate for their inability to see colours. Although there is little or
no treatment for colour blindness, most colour deficient persons compensate well for their defect
and may even discover instances in which they can discern details and images that would escape
normal-sighted persons. At one time the US Army found that colour-blind persons can spot
camouflage colours in cases where those with normal colour vision are typically fooled.

pg. 147
JM English

Questions 14-20
Complete each sentence with the correct ending A - K from the box below.
Write the correct letter A - K in spaces 14-20 below.
14. Colour blindness can be caused by a birth defect, or …………….
15. Surprisingly, some people who are colour blind …………….
16. People with hereditary colour blindness …………….
17. Because of our genetic make-up, colour blindness …………….
18. Red-green genetic photoreceptor disorders mean that people …………….
19. People with monochromacy …………….
20. The inability to see certain lights …………….

A. can see better at night than during the day.

B. cannot be treated by surgery.
C. can affect men much more easily than women.
D. can affect their sensitivity to bright lights.
E. can see no color at all, other than shades of black, grey and white.
F. can see things that people with normal vision cannot.
G. can have very dangerous consequences for color-blind people.
H. can be acquired or inherited
I. can mean having to wear contact lenses.
J. Cannot distinguish certain colors if they stand alone.
K. can match all colors of the spectrum

Questions 21-23
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.
21. What causes colour blindness?
A. the absence of rod cells
B. the malfunction of rod cells
C. the malfunction of cone cells
D. the retina‟s inability to detect light
22. Which group of people are the least common?
A. people who cannot detect blues from yellows
B. anomalous trichromats
C. people with dichromacy
D. people with achromatopsia
23. What would colour-blind people consider an everyday nuisance?
A. not being able to identify the colour of warning lights
B. not being able to tell an apple from a tomato
C. not being able to cook
D. not being able to buy matching clothes

Questions 24-26
Complete the diagram below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

pg. 148
JM English

READING PASSAGE 3
A. Population growth sentencing millions to hydrological povertyAt a time when drought in the
United States, Ethiopia, and Afghanistan is in the news, it is easy to forget that far more
serious water shortages are emerging as the demand for water in many countries simply
outruns the supply. Water tables are now falling on every continent; literally scores of
countries are facing water shortages as the tables fall and wells go dry. We live in a water-
challenged world, one that is becoming more so each year as 80 million additional people
stake their claims to the Earth‟s water resources. Unfortunately, nearly all the projected 3
billion people to be added over the next half century will be born in countries that are already
experiencing water shortages. Even now, many in these countries lack enough water to drink,
to satisfy cleanliness needs, and to produce food.
B. By 2050, India is projected to have added 519 million people and China 211 million.
Pakistan is projected to have added nearly 200 million, going from 151 million at present to
348 million. Egypt, Iran, and Mexico are slated to increase their populations by more than
half by 2050. In these and other water-short countries, population growth is sentencing
millions of people to hydro-logical poverty, a local form of poverty that is difficult to escape.
C. Even with today's 6 billion people, the world has a huge water deficit. Using data on over-
pumping for China, India, Saudi Arabia, North Africa, and the United States, Sandra Postel,
author of Pillar of Sand: Can the Irrigation Miracle Last? reports the annual depletion of
aquifer to be at 160 billion cubic meters or 160 billion tons. Using the rule of thumb that it
takes 1,000 tons of water to produce 1 ton of grain, this 160-billion-ton water deficit is equal
to 160 million tons of grain or one-half the US grain harvest.
D. Average world grain consumption is just over 300 kilograms per person per annum - one
third of a ton per person per year - and grain reserves directly or indirectly feed 480 million
people globally. Stated otherwise, 480 million of the world's 6 billion people are being fed
with grain produced with the unsustainable use of water.
E. Over-pumping is a new phenomenon, one largely confined to the last half century. Only
since the development of powerful diesel- and electrically-driven pumps have we had the

pg. 149
JM English

capacity to pull water out of aquifer faster than it is replaced by precipitation. Some 70
percent of the water consumed worldwide, including both that diverted from rivers and that
pumped from underground, is used for irrigation, while some 20 percent is used by industry,
and 10 percent for residential purposes. In the increasingly intense competition for water
among sectors, agriculture almost always loses. The 1,000 tons of water used in India to
produce 1 ton of wheat worth perhaps $200 can also be used to expand industrial output by
easily $10,000, or 50 times as much. This ratio helps explain why, in the American West, the
sale of irrigation water rights by farmers to cities is an almost daily occurrence.
F. In addition to population growth, urbanisation and industrialisation also expand the demand
for water. As developing country villagers, traditionally reliant on the village well, move to
urban high-rise apartment buildings with indoor plumbing, their residential water use can
easily triple. Industrialisation takes even more water than urbanisation. Rising affluence in
itself generates additional demand for water. As people move up the food chain, consuming
more beef, pork, poultry, eggs, and dairy products, they use more grain. A US diet rich in
livestock products requires 800 kilograms of grain per person a year, whereas diets in India,
dominated by a starchy food staple such as rice, typically need only 200 kilograms. Using
four times as much grain per person means using four times as much water.
G. Once a localised phenomenon, water scarcity is now crossing national borders via the
international grain trade. The world's fastest growing grain import market is North Africa and
the Middle East; an area that includes Morocco, Algeria, Tunisia, Libya, Egypt, and Iran.
Virtually every country in this region is simultaneously experiencing water shortages and
rapid population growth.
H. As the demand for water in the region's cities and industries increases, it is typically satisfied
by diverting water from irrigation. The loss in food production capacity is then offset by
importing grain from abroad. Since 1 ton of grain represents 1,000 tons of water, this
becomes the most efficient way to import water.
I. Last year, Iran imported 7 million tons of wheat, eclipsing Japan to become the world's
leading wheat importer. This year, Egypt is also projected to move ahead of Japan. Iran and
Egypt have nearly 70 million people each. Both populations are increasing by more than a
million a year and both are pressing the limits of their water supplies.
J. The water required to produce the grain and other foodstuffs imported into North Africa and
the Middle East last year was roughly equal to the annual flow of the Nile River. Stated
otherwise, the fast-growing water deficit of this region is equal to another Nile flowing into
the region in the form of imported grain.
K. It is now often said that future wars in the region will more likely be fought over water than
oil. Perhaps, but given the difficulty in winning a water war, the competition for water seems
more likely to take place in world grain markets. The countries that will "win" in this
competition will be those that are financially strongest, not those that are militarily strongest.
The world water deficit grows larger with each year, making it potentially more difficult to
manage. If we decided abruptly to stabilise water tables everywhere by simply pumping less
water, the world grain harvest would fall by some 160 million tons, or 8 percent, and grain
prices would go off the chart. If the deficit continues to widen, the eventual adjustment will
be even greater.
L. Unless governments in water-short countries act quickly to stabilise their populations and to
raise water productivity, their water shortages may soon become food shortages. The risk is
that the growing number of water-short countries, including population giants China and

pg. 150
JM English

India, with rising grain-import needs will overwhelm the exportable supply in food surplus
countries, such as the United States, Canada, and Australia. This in turn could destabilise
world grain markets. Another risk of delay in dealing with the deficit is that some low-
income, water-short countries will not be able to afford to import needed grain, trapping
millions of their people in hydrological poverty; thirsty and hungry, unable to escape.
M. Although there are still some opportunities for developing new water resources, restoring the
balance between water use and developing a sustainable supply will depend primarily on
demand-side initiatives, such as stabilising population and raising water productivity.
Governments can no longer separate population policy from the supply of water. And just as
the world turned to raising land productivity a half century ago when the frontiers of
agricultural settlement disappeared, so it must now turn to raising water productivity. The
first step toward this goal is to eliminate the water subsidies that foster inefficiency. The
second step is to raise the price of water to reflect its cost. Shifting to more water-efficient
technologies, more water-efficient crops, and more water-efficient forms of animal protein
offers a huge potential for raising water productivity. These shifts will move faster if the
price of water more closely reflects its real value.

Questions 27-32
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?
In spaces 27-32 below, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this

27. Vegetarians drink less water than meat eaters.

28. A typical Indian diet requires less grain than a typical USA diet.
29. Growing grain uses more water than raising beef.
30. People that move from the country to the city may increase their water consumption
considerably.
31. Future conflicts will be fought as much over food as they will over oil.
32. Egypt and Japan also import 7 million tons of oil annually.

Questions 33-36
Reading Passage 3 has 13 paragraphs A - M.
Which paragraph contains information about the following threats to water supplies?
Write the correct letter A - M in spaces 33-36 below.
33. The volume of water that is needed for irrigation in grain production.
34. Over-pumping our underground water supplies.
35. Population growth will be responsible for a new type of water-related poverty.
36. Industrialisation demands greater water supplies.

Questions 37-40
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.
37. Our water supply is running low because
A. grain is now exported globally.

pg. 151
JM English

B. the world‟s population is increasing rapidly.

C. more people are moving to cities.
D. people waste water foolishly.
38. People who have a high-meat diet cause more water to be used because
A. it takes more grain to feed livestock than it does a human.
B. the industrial processes to produce meat require a lot of water.
C. livestock drink a lot of water.
D. packaging of meat products goes through an intensive washing process.
39. What would reduce the use of water without adversely affecting the food supply?
A. growing fewer crops
B. increasing water subsidies
C. diverting water from irrigation
D. falling population levels
40. If there is a water war, who will win?
A. the driest countries
B. the richest countries
C. the countries that are more forceful
D. the countries that have the biggest population

pg. 152
JM English

TEST 20
READING PASSAGE 1
Controlling Deathwatch Beetles
All of the organisms that damage timber in buildings are part of the natural process that takes
dead wood to the forest floor, decomposes it into humus, and recycles the nutrients released back
into trees. Each stage in this process requires the correct environment and if we replicate this in
our buildings then the organisms belonging to that part of the cycle will invade. A poorly
maintained roof is, after all, just an extension of the forest floor to a fungus.
The first fact to remember about deathwatch beetles in your building is that they have probably
been there for centuries and will continue long after you have gone. Beetle damage in oak
timbers is a slow process and if we make it slower by good maintenance then the beetle
population may eventually decline to extinction. The second fact is that natural predation will
help you. Spiders are a significant predator and will help to keep the beetle population under
control. They will speed up the decline of a beetle population in a well-maintained building.
The beetles fly to light and some form of light trap may help to deplete a population. The place
in which it is used must be dark, so that there is no competing light source, and the air
temperature must rise above about 17°C during the emergence season (April to June) so that the
beetles will fly. Beetle holes do not disappear when the beetles have gone so it is sometimes
necessary to confirm active infestation if remedial works are planned. This is generally easy with
beetle damage in sapwood because the holes will look clean and have sharp edges, usually with
bore dust trickling from them. Infestation deep within modified heartwood is more difficult to
detect, particularly because the beetles will not necessarily bite their own emergence holes if
plenty of other holes are available. This problem may be overcome by clogging the suspected
holes with furniture polish or by covering a group of holes tightly with paper or card. Any
emerging beetles will make a hole that should be visible, so that the extent and magnitude of the
problem can be assessed. Unnecessary pesticide treatments must be avoided.
Sometimes a building cannot be dried enough to eradicate the beetles or a localised population
will have built up unnoticed. A few scattered beetles in a building need not cause much concern,
but dozens of beetles below a beam-end might indicate the need for some form of treatment if
the infested timber is accessible. Insecticides formulated as a paste can be effective - either
applied to the surface or caulked into pre-drilled holes - but the formulations may only be
obtainable by a remedial company.
Surface spray treatments are generally ineffective because they barely penetrate the surface of
the timber and the beetles‟ natural behaviour does not bring it into much contact with the
insecticide. Contact insecticides might also kill the natural predators.
Heat treatments for entire buildings are available and the continental experience is that they are
effective. They are also likely to be expensive but they may be the only way to eradicate a heavy
and widespread infestation without causing considerable structural degradation of the building.
Two other beetles are worth a mention.
The first is the House Longhorn Beetle (Hylotrupes bajulus). This is a large insect that produces
oval emergence holes that are packed with little cylindrical pellets. The beetles restrict their
activities to the sapwood of 20th century softwood, although there is now some evidence that
they will attack older softwood. The beetle larvae can cause considerable damage but infestation
has generally been restricted to the southwest of London, possibly because they need a high
temperature before the beetles will fly. Old damage is, however, frequently found elsewhere,

pg. 153
JM English

thus indicating a wider distribution in the past, and infested timber is sometimes imported. This
is an insect that might become more widespread because of climate change.
The second is the Lyctus or powderpost beetle. There are several species that are rather difficult
to tell apart. These beetles live in the sapwood of oak. The beetles breed rapidly so that many
cylindrical beetles may be present and the round emergence holes resemble those of the furniture
beetle. This is, and has always been, a pest of newly-installed oak. Timbers with an exploded
sapwood surface are frequently found in old buildings and the damage will have occurred during
the first few decades after the timbers were installed. Our main interest with these beetles is that
they seem to have become more common of late. Beetle infestation within a few months of a
new oak construction will be Lyctus beetles in the sapwood and not furniture beetles. The
problem can be avoided by using oak with minimal sapwood content. The beetle infestation will
cease after a few years but spray treatment may be necessary if an infestation is heavy.

Questions 1-4
Complete each sentence with the correct ending A - H below.
Write the correct ending A - H in spaces 1-4 below.
1. One species of the beetle population may spread
2. You can detect the presence of beetles
3. You may kill household spiders
4. Beetles will disappear at a faster rate
A. If the building is kept in good condition.
B. If you clog the suspected holes with furniture polish, paper or card.
C. If the temperature rises to above about 17oC during the emergence season.
D. If you use a contact insecticide
E. If it was installed a few decades earlier
F. if changes in weather patterns continue.
G. If the use of surface treatments is avoided.
H. If the wood has a low sapwood concentration.

Questions 5-9
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?
In spaces 5 - 9 below, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this
5. Infestation by beetles deep within modified heart wood can be identified by the type of hole
visible.
6. Clogging a hole with furniture polish or paper will trap the beetle inside permanently.
7. Paste insecticides are less effective than any other kind.
8. Surface spray treatments are sometimes effective for the House Longhorn Beetle
9. Heat treatments lend to cause less damage than other treatments.

Questions 10-13
Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

pg. 154
JM English

10. The point the writer makes about deathwatch beetles is that
A. they must be eliminated quickly.
B. only natural predation will keep them under control.
C. with good maintenance it may be possible to eliminate them.
D. they are here to stay and do great damage.
11. One way to trap deathwatch beetles is to attract them to
A. daylight.
B. a totally dark environment.
C. a constantly warm environment.
D. a light trap in a dark place.
12. Surface spray treatments are not effective because
A. the beetles are immune to them.
B. they do not reach the beetles.
C. they react poorly to wooden surfaces.
D. they attract other harmful creatures.
13. Damage by the House Longhorn Beetle is sometimes found further afield than London
because
A. temperatures have increased.
B. the timber was not local timber.
C. there was no effective treatment previously.
D. the type of timber has changed.

READING PASSAGE 2
Therapeutic Jurisprudence: An Overview
Therapeutic jurisprudence is the study of the role of the law as a therapeutic agent. It examines
the law's impact on emotional life and on psychological well-being, and the therapeutic and
antithera-peutic consequences of the law. It is most applicable to the fields of mental health law,
criminal law, juvenile law and family law.
The general aim of therapeutic jurisprudence is the humanising of the law and addressing the
human, emotional and psychological side of the legal process. It promotes the perspective that
the law is a social force that produces behaviours and consequences. Therapeutic jurisprudence
strives to have laws made or applied in a more therapeutic way so long as other values, such as
justice and due process, can be fully respected. It is important to recognise that therapeutic
jurisprudence does not itself suggest that therapeutic goals should trump other goals. It does not
support paternalism or coercion by any means. It is simply a way of looking at the law in a richer
way, and then bringing to the table some areas and issues that previously have gone unnoticed.
Therapeutic jurisprudence simply suggests that we think about the therapeutic consequences of
law and see if they can be factored into the processes of law-making, lawyering, and judging.
The law can be divided into the following categories: (1) legal rules, (2) legal procedures, such
as hearings and trials and (3) the roles of legal actors - the behaviour of judges, lawyers, and of
therapists acting in a legal context. Much of what legal actors do has an impact on the
psychological well-being or emotional life of persons affected by the law, for example, in the
dialogues that judges have with defendants or that lawyers have with clients. Therefore,
therapeutic jurisprudence is especially applicable to this third category.
Therapeutic jurisprudence is a relatively new phenomenon. In the early days of law, attitudes
were very different and efforts were focused primarily on what was wrong with various sorts of

pg. 155
JM English

testimony. While there were good reasons for that early emphasis, an exclusive focus on what is
wrong, rather than also looking at what is right and how these aspects could be further
developed, is seriously shortsighted. Therapeutic jurisprudence focuses attention on this
previously under-appreciated aspect, encouraging us to look very hard for promising
developments, and to borrow from the behavioural science literature, even when this literature
has nothing obviously to do with the law. It encourages people to think creatively about how
promising developments from other fields might be brought into the legal system.
Recently, as a result of this multidisciplinary approach, certain kinds of rehabilitative
programmes have begun to emerge that look rather promising. One type of cognitive behavioural
treatment encourages offenders to prepare relapse prevention plans which require them to think
through the chain of events that lead to criminality. These reasoning and rehabilitation-type
programmes teach offenders cognitive self-change, to stop and think and figure out
consequences, to anticipate high-risk situations, and to learn to avoid or cope with them. These
programmes, so far, seem to be reasonably successful.
From a therapeutic jurisprudence standpoint, the question is how these programmes might be
brought into the law. In one obvious sense, these problem-solving, reasoning and rehabilitation-
type programmes can be made widely available in correctional and community settings. A way
of linking them even more to the law, of course, would be to make them part of the legal process
itself. The suggestion here is that if a judge or parole board becomes familiar with these
techniques and is about to consider someone for probation, the judge might say, I'm going to
consider you but I want you to come up with a preliminary relapse prevention plan that we will
use as a basis for discussion. I want you to figure out why I should grant you probation and why
I should be comfortable that you're going to succeed. In order for me to feel comfortable, I need
to know what you regard -to be high-risk situations and how you're going to avoid them or cope
with them.'
If that approach is followed, courts will be promoting cognitive self-change as part and parcel of
the sentencing process itself. The process may operate this way; an offender would make a
statement like 'I realise I mess up on Friday nights; therefore, I propose that I will stay at home
on Friday nights.' Suddenly, it is not a judge imposing something on the offender. It's something
that the offender has come up with him or herself, so he or she should think it is fair. If a person
has a voice in his rehabilitation, then he is more likely to feel a commitment to it, and with that
commitment, presumably, compliance will increase dramatically.

Questions 14-20
Complete the notes below.
Choose NO MORE THAN ONE WORD from the passage for each answer.
NOTES: Therapeutic Jurisprudence
Therapeutic Jurisprudence: study of the law as a therapeutic 14. ……….. and the
therapeutic and 15. ……….. consequences of the law.
Goal:
The 16. ……….. of the law, but NOT at the expense of 17. ……….. and due process
Applicable to:
especially applicable to the role of legal 18. ……….. such as judges and lawyers
Therapeutic jurisprudence = new attitude
1. It asks people to seek out 19. ……….. developments, not problems.

pg. 156
JM English

2. It urges people to think 20. ……….. and borrow from other fields.

Questions 21-23
Complete the sentences.
Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.
One aspect of cognitive behavioural treatment includes the preparation of 21. ……….. by
offenders.
The treatment requires offenders to consider the 22. ……….. that lead to a crime being
committed.
Treatment programmes encourage offenders to recognise 23. ……….. before they happen, and
know what to do in case they do happen.

Questions 24-26
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 2?
In spaces 24-26 below, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this
24. The use of rehabilitative programmes has been proved to greatly reduce the chance of a
criminal re-offending.
25. Therapeutic jurisprudence aims to make cognitive behavioural treatment a part of the legal
process itself.
26. Offenders might be encouraged by judges to take part in deciding what their punishment
should be.

READING PASSAGE 3
Sleep
WHY WE SLEEP
As the field of sleep research is still relatively new, scientists have yet to determine exactly why
people sleep. However, they do know that humans must sleep and, in fact, people can survive
longer without food than without sleep. And people are not alone in this need. All mammals,
reptiles and birds sleep.
Scientists have proposed the following theories on why humans require sleep:
• Sleep may be a way of recharging the brain. The brain has a chance to shut down and repair
neurons and to exercise important neuronal connections that might otherwise deteriorate due to
lack of activity.
• Sleep gives the brain an opportunity to reorganise data to help find a solution to problems,
process newly-learned information and organise and archive memories.
• Sleep lowers a person's metabolic rate and energy consumption.
• The cardiovascular system also gets a break during sleep. Researchers have found that people
with normal or high blood pressure experience a 20 to 30% reduction in blood pressure and 10 to
20% reduction in heart rate.
• During sleep, the body has a chance to replace chemicals and repair muscles, other tissues and
aging or dead cells.

pg. 157
JM English

• In children and teenagers, growth hormones are released during deep sleep.
When a person falls asleep and wakes up is largely determined by his or her circadian rhythm, a
day-night cycle of about 24 hours. Circadian rhythms greatly influence the timing, amount and
quality of sleep.
For many small mammals such as rodents, sleep has other particular benefits, as it provides the
only real opportunity for physical rest, and confines the animal to the thermal insulation of a
nest. In these respects, sleep conserves much energy in such mammals, particularly as sleep can
also develop into a torpor, whereby the metabolic rate drops significantly for a few hours during
the sleep period. On the other hand, humans can usually rest and relax quite adequately during
wakefulness, and there is only a modest further energy saving to be gained by sleeping. We do
not enter torpor, and the fall in metabolic rate for a human adult sleeping compared to lying
resting but awake is only about 5-10%.
A sizeable portion of the workforce are shift workers who work and sleep against their bodies'
natural sleep-wake cycle. While a person's circadian rhythm cannot be ignored or reprogrammed,
the cycle can be altered by the timing of things such as naps, exercise, bedtime, travel to a
different time zone and exposure to light. The more stable and consistent the cycle is, the better
the person sleeps. Disruption of circadian rhythms has even been found to cause mania in people
with bipolar disorder.
The 'seven deadly sins' formulated by the medieval monks included Sloth. The Bible in Proverbs
6:9 includes the line: 'How long will you sleep, O sluggard? When will you arise out of your
sleep?' But a more nuanced understanding of sloth sees it as a disinclination to labour or work.
This isn't the same as the desire for healthy sleep. On the contrary, a person can't do work
without rest periods and no one can operate at top performance without adequate sleep. The
puritan work ethic can be adhered to and respect still paid to the sleep needs of healthy humans.
It is wrong to see sleep as a shameful activity.
Usually sleepers pass through five stages: 1, 2, 3, 4 and REM (rapid eye movement) sleep. These
stages progress cyclically from 1 through REM then begin again. A complete sleep cycle takes
an average of 90 to 110 minutes. The first sleep cycles each night have relatively short REM
sleeps and long periods of deep sleep but later in the night, REM periods lengthen and deep sleep
time decreases. Stage 1 is light sleep where you drift in and out of sleep and can be awakened
easily. In this stage, the eyes move slowly and muscle activity slows. During this stage, many
people experience sudden muscle contractions preceded by a sensation of falling. In stage 2, eye
movement stops and brain waves become slower with only an occasional burst of rapid brain
waves. When a person enters stage 3, extremely slow brain waves called delta waves are
interspersed with smaller, faster waves. In stage 4, the brain produces delta waves almost
exclusively. Stages 3 and 4 are referred to as deep sleep, and it is very difficult to wake someone
from them. In deep sleep, there is no eye movement or muscle activity. This is when some
children experience bedwetting, sleepwalking or night terrors.
In the REM period, breathing becomes more rapid, irregular and shallow, eyes jerk rapidly and
limb muscles are temporarily paralysed. Brain waves during this stage increase to levels
experienced when a person is awake. Also, heart rate increases, blood pressure rises and the body
loses some of the ability to regulate its temperature. This is the time when most dreams occur,
and, if awoken during REM sleep, a person can remember their dreams. Most people experience
three to five intervals of REM sleep each night. Infants spend almost 50% of their time in REM
sleep. Adults spend nearly half of sleep time in stage 2, about 20% in REM and the other 30% is
divided between the other three stages. Older adults spend progressively less time in REM sleep.

pg. 158
JM English

As sleep research is still a relatively young field, scientists did not discover REM sleep until
1953, when new machines were developed to monitor brain activity. Before this discovery it was
believed that most brain activity ceased during sleep. Since then, scientists have also disproved
the idea that deprivation of REM sleep can lead to insanity and have found that lack of REM
sleep can alleviate clinical depression although they do not know why. Recent theories link REM
sleep to learning and memory.

Questions 27-30
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.
27. Among other functions, sleep serves to
A. help the adult body develop physically.
B. push daily problems from our minds.
C. accelerate the learning process significantly.
D. re-energise parts of the brain.
28. „Torpor‟ can be described as
A. a very deep sleep.
B. a long state of hibernation.
C. the sleep all non-human mammals experience.
D. a light sleep.
29. Unlike small mammals, humans
A. don‟t sleep to conserve energy.
B. don‟t sleep properly.
C. save only a small amount of energy by sleeping.
D. show no decrease in their metabolic rate when they sleep.
30. In stage 3 deep sleep
A. the eyes move slowly and there‟s little muscle activity.
B. there is an alternation of delta waves and small fast waves.
C. there is an occasional burst of rapid brain waves.
D. there are no small fast waves.

Questions 31-35
Complete the flow-chart below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
The Stages of Sleep
The individual drifts in and out of consciousness and can be woken up easily as they are only
in a 31. ……….. . Eye movement is slow and there is reduced muscle activity.

the speed of 32. ……….. activity slows and all movement of the eyes tends to stop.

Brain activity is dominated by delta waves, with a scattering of 33. ……….. also in evidence.

pg. 159
JM English

In a state of 34. ……….. , the brain emits delta waves almost exclusively. It is hard to wake
the individual.

A period of rapid eye movement follows, during winch 35. ……….. patterns are not consistent
and limb muscles enter a temporary state of paralysis.

Questions 36-40
Complete the summary.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Sleep is so essential to a person that he can actually go longer without food than with out
sleep. During sleep, the brain has the chance to close down and do some repair work on
neuronal connections which could otherwise 36. ……….. in a state of inactivity. Sleep also
gives the brain the opportunity to organise data, especially newly-learned information.
During this rest period, the 37. ……….. drops and energy consumption goes down. At the
same time, the cardiovascular system has a much-needed rest. While they go into a deep sleep,
humans don't fall into 38. ……….. , unlike some small animals such as rodents. A 39.
……….. of 24 hours is described as a person's 40. ……….. , and this greatly influences a
person's amout of sleep, and the type of sleep he gets.

pg. 160