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CBSE EXAM 2025 20 Sets

Class : 12th
Sub : Political Science

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Disclaimer: These papers are based on the SQP released by CBSE and
published by a private organization just for the practice of the students.
CBSE has not released these papers and CBSE is not related to these papers
in any manner. Publisher of these papers clearly state that these paeprs
are only for practice of students and questions may not be come in main
exam.
Page 1 Sample Paper 01

Sample Paper 01
Class - 12th Exam - 2024 - 25
Political Science (028)
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and follow them:
1. This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. Question paper is divided into five sections A, B, C, D and E.
3. Section A questions number 1 to 12 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each question carries
1 mark.
4. Section B questions number 13 to 18 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries
2 marks. Write answer to each question in 50 to 60 words.
5. Section C questions number 19 to 23 are Long Answer Type-I question. Each question carries
4 marks. Write answer to each question in 100 to 120 words.
6. Section D questions number 24 to 26 are Passage, Cartoon and Map-based questions. Answer
each question accordingly.
7. Section E questions number 27 to 30 are Long Answer Type-II questions. Each question
carries 6 marks. Write answer to each question in 170 to 180 words.
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, note that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired
candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be
attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only

Section-A

1. The Soviet Union’s political structure was characterized by a single-party system.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the Soviet System?
(A) The Communist Party was the only legal political party in the Soviet Union.
(B) The Soviet economy was based on centralized planning and state ownership.
(C) Multiple political parties competed in free and fair elections.
(D) The government controlled all aspects of media and public discourse.

2. In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason(R).

Choose the appropriate answer from the options given below as the correct answer:
Assertion (A): The European Union facilitates the free movement of goods, services, and people
among its member states.
Reason (R): The Euro is the official currency of all European Union member countries.

Continue on next page.....

Page 2 Sample Paper 01 CBSE 12th Political Science

Options:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.

3. Match the terms given in column ‘A’ correctly with their meaning given in column ‘B’ and
choose the appropriate code as the correct answer:
Column A
1. Military in Pakistan 2. Democracy in Bangladesh
3. Monarchy in Nepal 4. Ethnic Conflict in Sri Lanka
Column B
(i) The role of the military has often disrupted democratic processes in this country.
(ii) Struggles and transitions towards stable democratic governance after periods of political
unrest.
(iii) A form of government that was replaced by a federal democratic republic in 2008.
(iv) Long-standing tensions between different ethnic groups impacting national unity.
Codes:
(A) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv) (B) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
(C) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii) (D) 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The United Nations is the only international organization responsible for
maintaining international peace and security.
Statement II: Other international organizations like NATO also contribute to maintaining
peace and security.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

5. Arrange the following security concepts in the order they were introduced:
I. Traditional Security
II. Human Security
III. Cooperative Security
IV. Comprehensive Security
Choose the correct option:
(A) I, II, III, IV (B) I, III, II, IV
(C) II, I, III, IV (D) I, II, IV, III
Page 3 Sample Paper 01

6. Identify and write the Incorrect pair:

(A) Montreal Protocol – Agreement to protect the ozone layer
(B) Kyoto Protocol – Agreement to reduce greenhouse gas emissions
(C) Paris Climate Agreement – Agreement to combat climate change
(D) Stockholm Convention – Agreement to promote fossil fuels

7. Which significant event symbolized the official beginning of India’s journey toward gaining
complete independence from British colonial rule?
(A) The Salt March initiated by Mahatma Gandhi to protest the British salt tax
(B) The Partition of Bengal, which divided the province into two separate parts
(C) The Partition of India, which led to the creation of two sovereign states, India and
Pakistan
(D) The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, where British forces fired on a peaceful gathering

8. The Congress Party’s dominance in the early decades of Indian democracy was largely attributed
to ____________.
(A) The support of industrialists and rural leaders
(B) Its role in the national freedom struggle
(C) Foreign influence and investment
(D) Policies focused solely on urban development

9. The Second Five Year Plan, influenced by P.C. Mahalanobis, aimed for ____________.
(A) Boosting agricultural productivity through modern methods
(B) Rapid industrialization with emphasis on heavy industries
(C) Increased trade liberalization and foreign investment
(D) Extensive focus on healthcare and education sectors

10. Who was the prominent Indian leader that held the dual role of Prime Minister and Foreign
Minister, shaping India’s early foreign policy?
(A) Lal Bahadur Shastri (B) Sardar Patel
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru (D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

11. The term “Aya Ram, Gaya Ram” emerged in Indian politics to describe ____________.
(A) Frequent political defections by elected representatives
(B) The swift change in public opinion
(C) Rapid economic fluctuations
(D) Leaders changing their political ideologies
Page 4 Sample Paper 01 CBSE 12th Political Science

12. Which party joined the Janata Party alliance after splitting from Congress, led by Jagjivan
Ram?
(A) Congress (Indira)
(B) Congress for Democracy
(C) Socialist Party
(D) Bharatiya Kranti Dal

Section-B

13. Name any two important specialized agencies of the United Nations that work in various fields
globally.

14. What are the two Directive Principles of State Policy relating to foreign affairs policy?

15. What were the significant factors and underlying reasons that contributed to the dominance of
the Congress Party in Indian politics until the year 1967?

16. What do you mean by the non-traditional notion of security?

17. Highlight any two features of Soviet System.

18. What were the impacts of the elections of 1989 on Indian politics?

Section-C

19. Mention the objectives of Nehru’s Foreign Policy. What was the strategy through which he
wanted to achieve them?

20. ‘Democracy is becoming the first choice of the people of South Asia’. Justify the statement.

21. What are the two kinds of movement that were going on in North-East India?

22. Why do some economists describe economic globalisation as recolonisation of the world?
Page 5 Sample Paper 01

23. “States have common but differentiated responsibilities towards environment”. Substantiate
statement giving suitable examples.

Section-D

24. Study the given cartoon and answer the questions that follow.

(i) Which two leaders were among those who won the 1977 elections?
(A) Morarji Desai and Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(B) Charan Singh and Raj Narain
(C) Jagjivan Ram and Charan Singh
(D) All of the above
(ii) What does MISA stand for?
(A) Maintenance of Internal Security Act
(B) Management of Internal Security Act
(C) Monitoring of Internal Security Act
(D) Maintenance of International Security Act
(iii) Why was the Congress voted out of power in 1977?
(A) Imposition of emergency
(B) 42nd Amendment of the Constitution
(C) Censorship of the press
(D) All of the above
(iv) What was a significant misuse of power during the emergency period?
(A) Misuse of preventive detention laws
(B) Introduction of the Right to Information Act
(C) Implementation of the Green Revolution
(D) Expansion of welfare schemes
Page 6 Sample Paper 01 CBSE 12th Political Science

25. Study the political outline map of the India given below in which five different states have been
marked as A, B, C and D. Identify correct states and name them. Consider about the Assembly
Election results of 1967.
S. No. State Alphabet
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(i) The state where Congress did not get majority but formed government with the help of
others.
(ii) The Mountaneous state where Congress got majority.
(iii) The Southern states where Congress got majority.
(iv) The North-Eastern states where Congress did not get the majority.

26. Study the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Nepal’s transition to democracy is not complete. At the moment, Nepal is undergoing a unique
moment in its history because it is moving towards the formation of a Constituent Assembly
that will write the Constitution for Nepal. Some sections in Nepal still think that a nominal
monarchy is necessary for Nepal to retain its link with the past. The Maoist groups have agreed
to suspend armed struggle. They want the Constitution to include the radical programmes
Page 7 Sample Paper 01

of social and economic restructuring. All the parties in the SPA may not agree with this
programme. The Maoists and some other political groups are also deeply suspicious of the
Indian Government and its role in the future of Nepal.
(i) How is Nepal is undergoing a unique movement in its history?
(A) As it is moving towards the formation of Constituent Assembly that will write the
constitution.
(B) As it is moving towards uncivilised protests and movement.
(C) Due to nominal monarchy in Nepal.
(D) None of the above
(ii) Why were some political parties suspicious in Nepal?
(A) Because they were deeply suspicious regarding the role of Indian Government in the
future of Nepal.
(B) Because they were against the democratic set-up.
(C) Because they were suspicious regarding the social restructuring.
(D) All of the above
(iii) In the above passage, SPA stands for_____.
(A) State Party Alliance
(B) Seven Party Alliance
(C) Six Party Alliance
(D) Static Party Alliance
(iv) In which year the king of Nepal dissmissed government and abolished the parliament?

Section-E

27. What were the effects of Emergency on the following aspects for our polity.
(i) Effects on civil liberties for citizens.
(ii) Impact on relationship between the Executive and Judiciary.
(iii) Functioning of Mass Media.
(iv) Working of Police and Bureaucracy.


O
Explain the idea of Socialism advocated by Ram Manohar Lohia.

28. What do you mean by global poverty? What are the ways which can help in reducing disparity
between the poor and the rich at the global level?


O
Distinguish between the internal and external notion of traditional security.
Page 8 Sample Paper 01 CBSE 12th Political Science

29. Give examples to show that most of former Soviet republics were prone to conflicts and tensions.


O
What was the Soviet System? Assess any four features of the Soviet system.

30. Define the process of Nation-Building. Discuss Nehru’s approach towards Nation-Building.


O
“The accommodation of regional demands and the formation of linguistic states were also seen
as more democratic”. Justify the statement with any three suitable arguments.

******
Page 1 Sample Paper 02

Sample Paper 02
Class - 12th Exam - 2024 - 25
Political Science (028)
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and follow them:
1. This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. Question paper is divided into five sections A, B, C, D and E.
3. Section A questions number 1 to 12 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each question carries
1 mark.
4. Section B questions number 13 to 18 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries
2 marks. Write answer to each question in 50 to 60 words.
5. Section C questions number 19 to 23 are Long Answer Type-I question. Each question carries
4 marks. Write answer to each question in 100 to 120 words.
6. Section D questions number 24 to 26 are Passage, Cartoon and Map-based questions. Answer
each question accordingly.
7. Section E questions number 27 to 30 are Long Answer Type-II questions. Each question
carries 6 marks. Write answer to each question in 170 to 180 words.
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, note that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired
candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be
attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only

Section-A

1. The European Union plays a significant role in regional integration and politics.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the European Union?
(A) The European Union facilitates free movement of goods, services, and people among
member states.
(B) The EU has its own currency, the Euro, adopted by all its member countries.
(C) The European Union operates through a system of supranational institutions and
intergovernmental-negotiated decisions.
(D) The EU has expanded to include countries from Eastern Europe after the Cold War.

2. Assertion (A): Military coups in Pakistan have disrupted the establishment of stable democratic
governance.
Reason (R): The military in Pakistan has always supported democratic institutions without
interference.


Continue on next page.....
Page 2 Sample Paper 02 CBSE 12th Political Science

Options:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.

3. Match the terms given in column ‘A’ correctly with their meaning given in column ‘B’ and
choose the appropriate code as the correct answer:
Column A
1. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
2. World Bank
3. World Trade Organization (WTO)
4. International Labour Organization (ILO)
Column B
(i) An organization that provides financial assistance and advice to member countries for
economic stability.
(ii) A global institution focused on reducing poverty and supporting development projects.
(iii) An organization that regulates international trade rules and resolves trade disputes.
(iv) An agency that sets international labor standards and promotes workers’ rights.
Codes:
(A) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv) (B) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
(C) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii) (D) 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Traditional security primarily deals with military threats to a nation.
Statement II: Non-traditional security issues like environmental degradation are included within
traditional security frameworks.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

5. Arrange the following environmental agreements in chronological order of their signing:

I. Montreal Protocol
II. Kyoto Protocol
III. Paris Climate Agreement
IV. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
Choose the correct option:
(A) IV, I, II, III (B) I, IV, II, III
(C) IV, II, I, III (D) I, II, IV, III
Page 3 Sample Paper 02

6. Identify and write the Incorrect pair:

(A) Globalisation – Integration of economies, cultures, and political systems
(B) Economic Liberalization – Process of reducing trade barriers and opening up economies
(C) Resistance to Globalisation – Always results in complete rejection of global integration
(D) Cultural Homogenization – Blending of diverse cultures into a uniform culture

7. The “Era of One-Party Dominance” in India mainly refers to the period from ____________.
(A) 1952 to 1962 (B) 1977 to 1984
(C) 1989 to 1996 (D) 1998 to 2004

8. The Bombay Plan, drafted by leading Indian industrialists in 1944, advocated for
____________.
(A) Complete economic independence from state intervention
(B) A mixed economy with state-led development in key sectors
(C) Capitalist policies without government interference
(D) Investment only in agriculture and rural development
(B) A mixed economy with state-led development in key sectors

9. India’s policy of non-alignment was challenged when it signed a 20-year Treaty of Peace and
Friendship with ____________ in 1971.
(A) China (B) The United States
(C) The United Kingdom (D) The Soviet Union

10. The Congress faced one of its most significant electoral challenges in the fourth general election
held in ____________.
(A) 1962 (B) 1965
(C) 1967 (D) 1971

11. The Allahabad High Court judgment of 1975 ruled that ____________.
(A) Indira Gandhi’s election to Parliament was invalid due to electoral malpractices
(B) Emergency was unconstitutional
(C) The Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended
(D) The Janata Party was banned

12. The Mizoram peace accord signed in 1986 between Rajiv Gandhi and Laldenga resulted in
____________.
(A) Full independence for Mizoram
(B) Mizoram becoming a full-fledged state of India with special powers
(C) Military control over Mizoram
(D) Merging Mizoram with neighboring states
Page 4 Sample Paper 02 CBSE 12th Political Science

Section-B

13. How is oil continued to be the most important resource in the global strategy? Explain with
an example.

14. Why is violence between two communities considered as a threat to democracy ?

15. Highlight the most important outcomes of the Rio Summit.

16. Name the two blocs in which the world got divided after the World War II.

17. How the definition of development cane vary for different sections?

18. Highlight any two consequences of ‘Shock Therapy’ ?

Section-C

19. What was ‘Operation Blue Star’ ? Why did it hurt the sentiments of the Sikh Community?

20. Was the Emergency necessary to protect Indian democracy from internal agitation? Give
arguments to support your answer.

21. Explain the economic relationship between India and China since the 1990s.

22. ‘The question of indigenous people brings the issue of environment, resources and politics
together’. Justify the statement.

23. What are the reasons behind the rise of international terrorism?

Section-D

24. Study the given picture and answer the questions that follow.


Continue on next page.....
Page 5 Sample Paper 02

(i) When was the Treaty of Maastricht signed?

(A) 1990
(B) 1991
(C) 1992
(D) 1993
(ii) What does the circle of stars on the European Union flag symbolize?
(A) Unity and harmony among the EU nations
(B) Economic strength of Europe
(C) Power of European monarchies
(D) Freedom of individual nations
(iii) What does the cartoon depicting the Titanic symbolize in the context of the European
Union?
(A) The success of the EU’s initiative
(B) The failure of drafting a common constitution
(C) The expansion of the EU
(D) The strengthening of EU nations
(iv) In which year did the cartoon about the European Union and the Titanic appear?
(A) 2001 (B) 2002
(C) 2003 (D) 2004

25. In the given outline map of South Asia, four countries have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and
(D). Identify them on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in
your answer book with their respective serial number of the information used and the alphabet
concerned as per the following format:
(i) The country has experienced civilian as well as military rule both.
(ii) Democracy was restored in this country in 2006.
(iii) This country is still a monarchy.
(iv) This country is a part of India’s ‘Look East Policy via Myanmar.’
Page 6 Sample Paper 02 CBSE 12th Political Science

Sr. no. of the Alphabet Concerned Name of the Country

Information used
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

26. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
In recent years there has been demand to reform the UN. Two basic kinds of reforms face the
UN: reform of the organisation’s structures and processes; and a review of the issues that fall
within the jurisdiction of the organisation. The biggest discussion has been on the functioning
of the Security Council. Related to this has been the demand for an increase in the UN Security
Council’s permanent and non-permanent membership so that the realities of contemporary
world politics are better reflected in the structure of the organisation. On 1 January 1997, Kofi
Annan started a process to see how to reform the UN.
(i) Which is not TRUE about the proposed reforms in the UN?
(A) The UN should be replaced by some other international body.
(B) The structures and processes of the UN need to be reformed.
(C) What all issues of UN come under the gambit of the UN.
(D) Almost all agree that the UN requires certain reforms.
(ii) The major demand for reform has been around the ________.
(A) Secretariat
(B) Trusteeship Council
(C) Security Council
(D) General Assembly
(iii) What are the two main types of reforms that the United Nations has been facing in recent
years, and what significant demand has been made regarding the Security Council?
Page 7 Sample Paper 02

Section-E

27. Enlist any six consequences of disintegration of the Soviet Union.

O
Why are India’s relations with Russia considered an important aspect of India’s foreign policy?
Explain.

28. Give an analysis of the events that took place in Tibet. How it affected the relationship between
India and China?


O
Analyse the events that took place during the India-Pakistan war of 1965 and aftermath of the
war.

29. Write a note on the 16th Lok Sabha election held in 2014.


O
‘Coalition Governments proved to be a boon for democracy in India.’ Support this statement
with any two suitable arguments.

30. Why was the year 1967 considered as landmark year in India’s political and electoral history?


O
Analyse any three factors which were responsible for Indira Gandhi’s achieving a thumping
majority in 1971 Lok Sabha elections.

******
Page 1 Sample Paper 03

Sample Paper 03
Class - 12th Exam - 2024 - 25
Political Science (028)
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and follow them:
1. This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. Question paper is divided into five sections A, B, C, D and E.
3. Section A questions number 1 to 12 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each question carries
1 mark.
4. Section B questions number 13 to 18 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries
2 marks. Write answer to each question in 50 to 60 words.
5. Section C questions number 19 to 23 are Long Answer Type-I question. Each question carries
4 marks. Write answer to each question in 100 to 120 words.
6. Section D questions number 24 to 26 are Passage, Cartoon and Map-based questions. Answer
each question accordingly.
7. Section E questions number 27 to 30 are Long Answer Type-II questions. Each question
carries 6 marks. Write answer to each question in 170 to 180 words.
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, note that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired
candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be
attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only

Section-A

1. Pakistan has experienced periods of military rule that have impacted its democratic institutions.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about Military and Democracy in Pakistan?
(A) Pakistan has had multiple military coups since its independence.
(B) Military influence has often hindered the development of stable democratic governance in
Pakistan.
(C) Pakistan has never experienced periods of military rule.
(D) Civil-military relations in Pakistan have been a significant factor in its political landscape.

2. Assertion (A): The United Nations is the only international organization responsible for
maintaining international peace and security.
Reason (R): Other international organizations, like NATO, also contribute to maintaining
peace and security.


Continue on next page.....
Page 2 Sample Paper 03 CBSE 12th Political Science

Options:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.

3. Match the terms given in column ‘A’ correctly with their meaning given in column ‘B’ and
choose the appropriate code as the correct answer:
Column A
1. Traditional Security
2. Non-Traditional Security
3. Cooperative Security
4. India’s Security Strategy
Column B
(i) Focuses on military threats and defense against external aggression.
(ii) Encompasses issues like terrorism, human rights, and environmental threats.
(iii) Emphasizes collaboration among nations to ensure mutual safety and prevent conflicts.
(iv) A comprehensive approach addressing both external and internal security challenges of
India.
Codes:
(A) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv) (B) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
(C) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii) (D) 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Global commons include areas like the atmosphere and oceans, which are not
owned by any single country.
Statement II: The management of global commons can be effectively achieved through unilateral
actions by individual nations.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

5. Arrange the following events related to India’s economic liberalization in chronological order:
I. Introduction of New Industrial Policy
II. Reduction of Import Tariffs
III. Establishment of the Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB)
IV. Implementation of Goods and Services Tax (GST)


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Page 3 Sample Paper 03

Choose the correct option:

(A) I, II, III, IV (B) II, I, IV, III
(C) I, III, II, IV (D) I, II, IV, III

6. Identify and write the Incorrect pair:

(A) Mikhail Gorbachev – Introduced policies of Perestroika and Glasnost
(B) Boris Yeltsin – First President of the Russian Federation
(C) Vladimir Putin – Leader who initiated Perestroika
(D) Nikita Khrushchev – Soviet leader during the Cuban Missile Crisis

7. The concept of planning for India’s economic development was greatly influenced by which of
the following models?
(A) American liberal-capitalist model (B) Gandhian economic model
(C) Soviet socialist model (D) British colonial economic model

8. The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM), co-founded by India, aimed to ____________.

(A) Support one of the superpowers during the Cold War
(B) Avoid joining military alliances with either bloc
(C) Establish military bases around the world
(D) Isolate itself from international politics

9. The term “non-Congressism” was coined by which socialist leader?

(A) Charan Singh (B) Ram Manohar Lohia
(C) Jayaprakash Narayan (D) C. Rajagopalachari

10. The Shah Commission was appointed by the Janata Party government in 1977 to investigate
____________.
(A) The reasons for India’s war with Pakistan
(B) Violations during the Emergency
(C) Corruption in Congress
(D) Financial irregularities in the public sector

11. In the 1985 Assam Accord, the Indian government agreed to ____________.
(A) Ban all student unions in Assam
(B) Conduct a referendum on Assam’s independence
(C) Identify and deport illegal immigrants who entered after the Bangladesh war
(D) Form a separate state of Assam for Assamese people
Page 4 Sample Paper 03 CBSE 12th Political Science

12. The Babri Masjid was demolished in December 1992 during which event organized by Hindu
groups?
(A) Rath Yatra (B) Karseva
(C) Ram Leela (D) Chauri Chaura March

Section-B

13. Highlight any one major distinction between the Soviet economy and the capitalist economy.

14. When and why did the Communist Party of India go through a major split ?

15. What does defection mean in Indian politics?

16. How the large foreign reserves can be beneficial for a country?

17. How globalisation affects investments in a country?

18. Who was J. C. Kumarappa?

Section-C

19. Why can the UN not serve as a balance against the US dominance? Explain.

20. Analyse any four factors responsible for the downfall of the Janata Government in 1979.

21. How did the crisis in the East Pakistan affect India?

22. Discuss the political history that led to the formation of the European Union in 1992.

23. Many people think that a two-party system is required for successful democracy. Drawing from
India’s experience of last 30 years, write an essay on what advantages the present party system
in India has.
Page 5 Sample Paper 03

Section-D

24. Study the picture and answer the following questions given below.

(i) In which year and where was the Earth Summit on environmental issues held?
(A) 1990, New York
(B) 1991, London
(C) 1992, Rio de Janeiro
(D) 1993, Tokyo
(ii) What does the picture above depict?
(A) Urban deforestation
(B) A dense rainforest being felled
(C) An industrial site polluting the environment
(D) A desert ecosystem
(iii) Which of the following are considered global commons?
(A) Earth’s atmosphere and outer space
(B) Ocean floors and the Antarctic region
(C) Both a and b
(D) None of the above
(iv) Why is world politics important for protecting global commons?
(A) To enforce rules and regulations for conservation
(B) To allow individual countries to claim these areas
(C) To develop industries in these areas
(D) To distribute global commons among countries
Page 6 Sample Paper 03 CBSE 12th Political Science

25. In the given political outline map of India, four states have been shown as (A), (B), (C) and
(D). Identify them on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in
your answer-book with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned
alphabet as per the following format:
(i) The State that resisted its merger with the Union of India.
(ii) The State which was carved out of Assam in 1972.
(iii) The State where the Communist Party of India formed its Government in 1957.
(iv) The State which was formed in 1966.
Sr. no. of the Information used Concerned alphabet Name of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

26. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
This phase of elected democracy lasted till 1999 when the army stepped in again and General
Pervez Musharraf removed Prime Minister Nawaz Sharif. In 2001, General Musharraf got
himself elected as the President of Pakistan. Pakistan continued to be ruled by the army,
though the army rulers have held some elections to give their rule a democratic image. Since
Page 7 Sample Paper 03

2008, democratically elected leaders have been ruling Pakistan.

(i) Which year did General Pervez Musharraf remove the democratically elected government?
(A) 1999
(B) 1998
(C) 1996
(D) 1997
(ii) In _____ General Pervez Musharraf became the President of Pakistan.
(A) 1998
(B) 2000
(C) 1999
(D) 2001
(iii) What action did General Pervez Musharraf’s administration take to show the world that
they were following democracy?

Section-E

27. Analyse India’s stand on environmental issues.

O
In which way resource geopolitics had led the way for ‘Neocolonialism’ ?

28. “Regional aspiration, regional imbalance and regionalism are a hindrance in the way of national
unity of India”. Do you agree with the statement?


O
“Jammu and Kashmir is one of the living examples of plural society and politics.” Justify the
statement with suitable arguments.

29. Examine any six consequences of disintegration of the Soviet Union.

O
Describe the factors that make most of the former Soviet Republics prone to conflicts and
threats.

30. What are the differences in the threats that people in the Third World face and those living in
the First World face?


O
Is terrorism a traditional or non-traditional threat to security? Explain.


******
Page 1 Sample Paper 04

Sample Paper 04
Class - 12th Exam - 2024 - 25
Political Science (028)
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and follow them:
1. This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. Question paper is divided into five sections A, B, C, D and E.
3. Section A questions number 1 to 12 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each question carries
1 mark.
4. Section B questions number 13 to 18 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries
2 marks. Write answer to each question in 50 to 60 words.
5. Section C questions number 19 to 23 are Long Answer Type-I question. Each question carries
4 marks. Write answer to each question in 100 to 120 words.
6. Section D questions number 24 to 26 are Passage, Cartoon and Map-based questions. Answer
each question accordingly.
7. Section E questions number 27 to 30 are Long Answer Type-II questions. Each question
carries 6 marks. Write answer to each question in 170 to 180 words.
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, note that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired
candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be
attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only

Section-A

1. International Organizations play a crucial role in global governance and cooperation. Which of
the following statements is NOT correct about International Organisations?
(A) International Organizations facilitate cooperation between countries on various global
issues.
(B) The United Nations is the only international organization that exists.
(C) International Organizations can include both governmental and non-governmental entities.
(D) Organizations like the IMF and World Bank are key players in the global economic
landscape.

2. Assertion (A): Traditional security primarily deals with military threats to a nation.
Reason (R): Non-traditional security issues like environmental degradation are included within
traditional security frameworks.

Continue on next page.....

Page 2 Sample Paper 04 CBSE 12th Political Science

Options:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.

3. Match the terms given in column ‘A’ correctly with their meaning given in column ‘B’ and
choose the appropriate code as the correct answer:
Column A
1. Global Commons
2. Common but Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR)
3. Resource Geopolitics
4. Rights of Indigenous Peoples
Column B
(i) Areas like the atmosphere and oceans that are not owned by any single nation.
(ii) A principle acknowledging different capabilities and responsibilities of countries in
environmental conservation.
(iii) The strategic importance and competition over natural resources on a global scale.
(iv) Legal and moral rights of native communities to their ancestral lands and cultures.
Codes:
(A) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv) (B) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
(C) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii) (D) 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Globalisation involves the integration of economies, cultures, and political systems
across the world.
Statement II: Globalisation has led to the complete isolation of national economies from each
other.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

5. Arrange the following events in chronological order of their occurrence:

I. Introduction of Perestroika
II. Fall of the Berlin Wall
III. Dissolution of the Soviet Union
IV. Implementation of Shock Therapy in Russia


Continue on next page.....
Page 3 Sample Paper 04

Choose the correct option:

(A) I, II, III, IV (B) II, I, IV, III
(C) I, II, IV, III (D) I, IV, II, III

6. Identify and write the Incorrect pair:

(A) European Union – Consists of 27 European countries
(B) ASEAN – Association of South Asian Nations
(C) NATO – North Atlantic Treaty Organization
(D) BRICS – Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa

7. What was the primary goal of India’s foreign policy in the early years after independence?
(A) To become a member of the Western bloc
(B) To gain economic aid from colonial powers
(C) To maintain territorial integrity, sovereignty, and promote economic development
(D) To join military alliances to counter regional threats

8. After the sudden death of Lal Bahadur Shastri, which two leaders contended for the position
of Prime Minister?
(A) K. Kamraj and Morarji Desai (B) Morarji Desai and Indira Gandhi
(C) Indira Gandhi and Atulya Ghosh (D) S.K. Patil and K. Kamraj

9. What was the primary slogan of Indira Gandhi during the 1971 elections, which was questioned
due to the economic crisis in the early 1970s?
(A) Jai Hind (B) Vande Mataram
(C) Garibi Hatao (D) Bharat Mata Ki Jai

10. The Assam Movement (1979-1985) was largely fueled by concerns over ____________.
(A) Economic development in rural areas
(B) Large-scale immigration from Bangladesh
(C) Agricultural land reforms
(D) Partition of Assam from Meghalaya

11. Which Prime Minister’s assassination in 1991 led to the appointment of P.V. Narasimha Rao
as Congress leader?
(A) Indira Gandhi (B) Rajiv Gandhi
(C) Lal Bahadur Shastri (D) Morarji Desai
Page 4 Sample Paper 04 CBSE 12th Political Science

12. Which language group became the first to successfully advocate for state reorganization based
on linguistic lines in post-independence India?
(A) The Bengali-speaking population seeking recognition of their language
(B) The Punjabi-speaking communities who sought a state reflecting their identity
(C) The Telugu-speaking population in Andhra Pradesh advocating for linguistic statehood
(D) The Tamil-speaking people of the southern region, striving for state reorganization

Section-B

13. What was the reason behind newspapers being censored during Emergency?

14. What are the two issues that dominate the politics of North-East India.

15. What do you understand by decentralised planning?

16. What is ‘Two-Nation theory’ ?

17. Explain any of the two principles of Nehru’s Foreign Policy.

18. What is non-Congressism?

Section-C

19. What is International Labour Organisation? Mention its objectives.

20. What are two positive and two negative effects of globalisation? Explain.

21. Describe any four consequences of Bangladesh War of 1971.

22. Briefly discuss the relations between India and Israel.

23. Who was Jayaprakash Narayan and what did he advocate?

Page 5 Sample Paper 04

Section-D

24. Observe the picture given below and answer the following questions.

(i) In which year did the bipolar structure of world politics end?
(A) 1989 (B) 1990
(C) 1991 (D) 1992

(ii) Which two associations of nations emerged in Europe and Asia?

(A) NATO and SAARC
(B) European Union and ASEAN
(C) Warsaw Pact and SEATO
(D) None of the above

(iii) In which year did the revolution in China take place, marking the beginning of Communist
China?
(A) 1945
(B) 1947
(C) 1949
(D) 1950

(iv) What does the slogan “The Socialist Road is the Broadest of All” signify?
(A) The adoption of a capitalist economy
(B) The guiding ideology of China’s early phase after the revolution
(C) The rejection of socialism in favour of communism
(D) The prioritization of foreign trade
Page 6 Sample Paper 04 CBSE 12th Political Science

25. In the given outline map of world, four countries have been marked as A, B, C and D. Identify
these on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in your answer
book along with the respective serial numbers of the information used and the concerned
alphabets as per the format that follows.
Sr. No. of the Information Used Concerned Alphabet Name of the Countries
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(i) The country Iraq invaded in August 1990.
(ii) The country in the Presidentship of Saddam Hussein.
(iii) The country referred to as a Hegemonic Power.
(iv) The Operation Infinite Reach was launched against this country.

26. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow. America extended
massive financial help for reviving Europe’s economy under what was called the ‘Marshall Plan’.
The US also created a new Collective Security structure under NATO. Under the Marshall
Plan, the Organisation for European Economic Cooperation (OEEC) was established in 1948
to channel aid to the West European States. It became a forum where the Western European
States began to cooperate on trade and economic issues. The Council of Europe, established in
1949, was another step forward in political cooperation. The process of economic integration of
European capitalist countries proceeded step by step leading to the formation of the European
Economic Community (EEC) in 1957.
(i) The financial help was extended by America for reviving______economy.
(A) African (B) European
(C) Asian (D) American
(ii) What was the collective security structure created by the US?
(A) NATO (B) SEATO
(C) CENTO (D) Any other
(iii) How did the Marshall Plan contribute to the economic and political integration of Western
Europe?
Page 7 Sample Paper 04

Section-E

27. What were the two Secessionist Movements of the North-East India?


O
Explain three main causes behind the unrest in the state of Jammu and Kashmir.

28. Explain the role of opposition parties in India.

O
What were the reasons behind the dominance of Congress party in the first three general
elections of India?

29. “Coalition government is good or bad for the Indian democracy”. Explain three points in
support of your answer.


O
Analyse the era of Multi-Party system in India after 1989.

30. What role India played in the Afro-Asian Unity? Explain.

O
Analyse the India-Russia relations in detail.

******
Page 1 Sample Paper 05

Sample Paper 05
Class - 12th Exam - 2024 - 25
Political Science (028)
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and follow them:
1. This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. Question paper is divided into five sections A, B, C, D and E.
3. Section A questions number 1 to 12 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each question carries
1 mark.
4. Section B questions number 13 to 18 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries
2 marks. Write answer to each question in 50 to 60 words.
5. Section C questions number 19 to 23 are Long Answer Type-I question. Each question carries
4 marks. Write answer to each question in 100 to 120 words.
6. Section D questions number 24 to 26 are Passage, Cartoon and Map-based questions. Answer
each question accordingly.
7. Section E questions number 27 to 30 are Long Answer Type-II questions. Each question
carries 6 marks. Write answer to each question in 170 to 180 words.
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, note that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired
candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be
attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only

Section-A

1. Security in the contemporary world encompasses both traditional and non-traditional aspects.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the Meaning and Type of Security?
(A) Traditional security focuses solely on military threats to a nation.
(B) Non-traditional security includes issues like human rights and environmental threats.
(C) Security now includes both external and internal dimensions.
(D) Traditional security has expanded to incorporate economic and social factors.

2. Assertion (A): Global commons include areas like the atmosphere and oceans, which are not
owned by any single country.
Reason (R): The management of global commons requires international cooperation among
nations.

Continue on next page.....

Page 2 Sample Paper 05 CBSE 12th Political Science

Options:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.

3. Match the terms given in column ‘A’ correctly with their meaning given in column ‘B’ and
choose the appropriate code as the correct answer:
Column A
1. Globalisation
2. Economic Liberalization
3. Resistance to Globalisation
4. Cultural Homogenization
Column B
(i) The process of reducing trade barriers and opening up economies to foreign investment.
(ii) The increasing interconnectedness and interdependence of global economies, cultures, and
political systems.
(iii) Opposition to the process of global integration due to various social, economic, and cultural
concerns.
(iv) The blending of diverse cultures into a single, uniform culture.
Codes:
(A) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iii), 4-(iv) (B) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
(C) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii) (D) 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Soviet Union was established in 1922 after the Russian Revolution.
Statement II: The Soviet system was characterized by a multi-party political structure.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

5. Arrange the following organizations and initiatives in chronological order of their establishment:
I. Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
II. European Union (EU)
III. Belt and Road Initiative
IV. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)
Choose the correct option:
(A) I, II, IV, III (B) II, I, III, IV
(C) I, II, III, IV (D) I, II, IV, III
Page 3 Sample Paper 05

6. Identify and write the Incorrect pair:

(A) Pakistan – Experienced multiple military coups
(B) Bangladesh – Struggled with establishing stable democracy
(C) Nepal – Remained a monarchy till present
(D) Sri Lanka – Faced ethnic conflicts impacting democracy

7. The slogan “Jai Jawan Jai Kisan” symbolized India’s focus on ____________.
(A) Youth empowerment and education
(B) Military strength and agricultural productivity
(C) Industrialization and foreign policy
(D) Women’s rights and urban development

8. The “Total Revolution” movement, which played a role in opposing the Emergency, was led by
____________.
(A) George Fernandes
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) Jayaprakash Narayan
(D) D.K. Barooah

9. Operation Blue Star, conducted in 1984, aimed to ____________.

(A) Prevent foreign invasions
(B) Provide economic relief to farmers
(C) Remove militants from the Golden Temple in Amritsar
(D) Merge Punjab with Haryana

10. The BJP adopted which ideological concept as part of its political platform after 1986?
(A) Secularism
(B) Hindutva
(C) Gandhian Socialism
(D) Marxism

11. Who among the following leaders played a pivotal role in integrating the princely states into
the Union of India following independence?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi, known for his philosophy of non-violence and satyagraha
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru, who served as India’s first Prime Minister and emphasized unity
(C) B.R. Ambedkar, the principal architect of the Indian Constitution
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, the Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister of India
Page 4 Sample Paper 05 CBSE 12th Political Science

12. The Socialist Party separated from the Congress in 1948 due to _________.
(A) Political rivalry with Nehru
(B) Disagreements on caste policies
(C) A policy change preventing dual membership
(D) Regional language issues

Section-B

13. Mention any two measures to have good relations with Pakistan.

14. What prompted nationwide Satyagraha against Congress?

15. Identify any two outcomes of the Partition of India into India and Pakistan.

16. Differentiate between ‘one-party dominance’ and ‘one party system’.

17. What are the two models of development and which of the models were adopted by India?

18. What was the purpose of Operation Desert Storm’ ?

Section-C

19. Analyse the consequences of the Chinese invasion of 1962 in hampering India’s image at home
and abroad.

20. What is UNICEF? Mention any four functions performed by it?

21. What are the major problems of ecological issues?

22. What is the difference between refugees and migrants?

23. Enlist any four features of the Congress Party.

Page 5 Sample Paper 05

Section-D

24. Study the picture given below carefully and answer the following questions.

(i) What does the picture depict?

(A) War and destruction
(B) Peace being at stake
(C) Growth and development
(D) Celebration of peace
(ii) How is regionalism defined?
(A) A theory emphasizing global unity
(B) A theory emphasizing regional characteristics and local issues
(C) A practice of ignoring local issues for national interests
(D) A focus on international trade
(iii) What does the arrow hitting the pigeon symbolize?
(A) An attack on communication systems
(B) A threat to peace
(C) Destruction of nature
(D) A warning to nations
(iv) What is the white pigeon a symbol of in the picture?
(A) War
(B) Freedom
(C) Peace
(D) Prosperity

25. In the give outline political map of India four states have been marked as A, B, C and D.
Identify these states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names
in your answer book with their respective serial number of the information used and the
concerned alphabets as per format that follows.


Continue on next page.....
Page 6 Sample Paper 05 CBSE 12th Political Science

S.No. of the Information Used Alphabet Concerned Name of the States

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(i) The state to which Minister for Communications in the first ministry of free India belonged.
(ii) The state to which the former Prime Minister Morarji Desai was related.
(iii) The state to which S. Nijalingappa belonged.
(iv) The state related to former Congress President K. Kamraj.

26. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
Globalisation does not always reduce state capacity. The primacy of the state continues to be
unchallenged basis of political community. The old jealousies and rivalries between countries
have not ceased to matter in world politics. The state continues to discharge its essential
functions (law and order, national security) and consciously withdraws from certain domains
from which it wishes to. States continue to be important. Indeed, in some respects state
capacity has received a boost as a consequence of globalisation, with enhanced technologies
available at the disposal of the state to collect information about its citizens.


Continue on next page.....
Page 7 Sample Paper 05

(i) Globalisation has given boost to the state capacity because______.

(A) state has become more market centric in approach which is beneficial for the people
(B) state has increased its welfare capacity through globalisation
(C) it has made available advance technology to state to rule its people better
(D) None of the above
(ii) The primacy of the state continues to be unchallenged basis of______.
(A) international interests
(B) security threats
(C) welfarism
(D) political community
(iii) How do enhanced technologies enable the state to rule better?

Section-E

27. “Peace and Prosperity of countries lay in the establishment and strengthening of regional
economic organisations”. Critically analyse the statement.


O
What is Godhra riots? What were its outcomes?

28. How Bangladesh was formed as an independent nation?

O
What are the efforts which has been taken by India and Pakistan towards peace and cooperation
between both the nation?

29. Analyse the philosophy of Integral Humanism advocated by Pandit Deendayal Upadhayaya.


O
What was the major outcome of 1977 Lok Sabha elections? Explain.

30. Define the term Unipolarity. What were the outcomes of a unipolar world after 1991 that
benefitted USA?


O
What was the Gulf War of 1990?

******
Page 1 Sample Paper 06

Sample Paper 06
Class - 12th Exam - 2024 - 25
Political Science (028)
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and follow them:
1. This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. Question paper is divided into five sections A, B, C, D and E.
3. Section A questions number 1 to 12 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each question carries
1 mark.
4. Section B questions number 13 to 18 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries
2 marks. Write answer to each question in 50 to 60 words.
5. Section C questions number 19 to 23 are Long Answer Type-I question. Each question carries
4 marks. Write answer to each question in 100 to 120 words.
6. Section D questions number 24 to 26 are Passage, Cartoon and Map-based questions. Answer
each question accordingly.
7. Section E questions number 27 to 30 are Long Answer Type-II questions. Each question
carries 6 marks. Write answer to each question in 170 to 180 words.
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, note that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired
candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be
attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only

Section-A

1. Global commons refer to natural resources that are accessible to all countries. Which of the
following statements is NOT correct about Global Commons?
(A) The atmosphere and oceans are considered global commons.
(B) Global commons are owned and managed by individual countries exclusively.
(C) Preservation of global commons requires international cooperation.
(D) Global commons are essential for sustaining life and biodiversity on Earth.

2. Assertion (A): Globalisation involves the integration of economies, cultures, and political
systems across the world.
Reason (R): Globalisation has led to the complete isolation of national economies from each
other.

Continue on next page.....

Page 2 Sample Paper 06 CBSE 12th Political Science

Options:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.

3. Match the terms given in column ‘A’ correctly with their meaning given in column ‘B’ and
choose the appropriate code as the correct answer:
Column A
1. Perestroika
2. Glasnost
3. Mikhail Gorbachev
4. Bipolar World
Column B
(i) Policy of political openness and transparency.
(ii) Policy of economic restructuring.
(iii) Last leader of the Soviet Union who introduced significant reforms.
(iv) A world dominated by two superpowers.
Codes:
(A) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iii), 4-(iv) (B) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
(C) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii) (D) 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The European Union promotes economic integration and political cooperation
among its member states.
Statement II: All European Union member states have adopted the Euro as their official
currency.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

5. Arrange the following transitions in Nepal in chronological order:

I. Establishment of the Federal Democratic Republic
II. Abolition of the Monarchy
III. Comprehensive Peace Agreement
IV. First Constituent Assembly elections
Choose the correct option:
(A) II, III, IV, I (B) III, II, IV, I
(C) II, IV, III, I (D) II, III, I, IV
Page 3 Sample Paper 06

6. Identify and write the Incorrect pair:

(A) IMF – International Monetary Fund
(B) ILO – International Labour Organization
(C) WTO – World Technology Organization
(D) UN – United Nations

7. The state of Emergency declared in India in 1975 was primarily justified by the government on
the grounds of ____________.
(A) External aggression
(B) Internal disturbances
(C) Economic crisis
(D) National health crisis

8. The ‘Anandpur Sahib Resolution’ passed by the Akali Dal in 1973 primarily focused on
____________.
(A) A demand for secession from India
(B) Asserting Sikh identity and demanding regional autonomy
(C) Protests against agricultural policies
(D) Hindu-Muslim unity in Punjab

9. Who was the Finance Minister responsible for implementing the New Economic Policy in 1991?
(A) V. P. Singh (B) Manmohan Singh
(C) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (D) P. V. Narasimha Rao

10. Which region in India witnessed a significant movement demanding the formation of a separate
state based on linguistic identity after independence?
(A) The state of Gujarat, where local leaders advocated for linguistic identity
(B) The Telugu-speaking region of Andhra Pradesh, which was part of the Madras province
(C) The Punjabi-speaking areas within the existing boundaries of Punjab
(D) The Malayalam-speaking regions within the state of Kerala

11. One key reason the Congress maintained dominance in the first three elections was due to
____________.
(A) The lack of strong opposition parties
(B) Their focus on urban-only policies
(C) Exclusive support from industrialists
(D) Policies favoring only upper-class citizens
Page 4 Sample Paper 06 CBSE 12th Political Science

12. The main focus of the First Five Year Plan was addressing the ____________ that
resulted from Partition.
(A) Energy crisis (B) Poverty in urban areas
(C) Agrarian distress and food shortages (D) Rise of private industry

Section-B

13. Mention any two reasons due to which Janata Party won the election of 1977.

14. Explain any two common features relevant to the countries of South Asia.

15. List any two differences between the Socialist and Communist Parties.

16. What is Preventive Detention? How it was used during Emergency?

17. What is meant by environment? Suggest any two steps for the environmental improvement.

18. Mention any two economic consequences of globalisation.

Section-C
19. The phrase Aaya Ram Gaya Ram’ signifies which concept? Explain its impact on the Indian
political system.

20. What was the task of the States Reorganisation Commission? What was its most salient
recommendation?

21. How was the Planning Commission of India set-up? Mention its scope of work.

22. Why was Congress considered as an ideological coalition? Explain the various ideologies that
were present within the Congress.

23. Do you agree with the argument that globalisation leads to cultural homogenisation?
Page 5 Sample Paper 06

Section-D
24. Study the given cartoon and answer the questions that follow.

(i) What does the cartoon represent?

(A) The democratic governance of Pakistan
(B) The dual role of Pervez Musharraf as President and Army General
(C) The separation of military and political power
(D) The dominance of civilian leadership
(ii) What does the equation in the cartoon signify?
(A) The balance of power between the judiciary and the military
(B) The dominance of one person militarily rather than only as President
(C) The separation of civilian and military authority
(D) The promotion of democratic practices
(iii) What is the system of governance being practiced in Pakistan?
(A) Unitary military dictatorship
(B) Federal parliamentary democratic republic
(C) Presidential system with limited federalism
(D) Constitutional monarchy
(iv) What is the constitutional name of the Government of Pakistan?
(A) Republic of Pakistan
(B) Islamic Republic of Pakistan
(C) People’s Republic of Pakistan
(D) Federal Republic of Pakistan

25. In the political outline map of India given below, four states have marked as A, B, C and D.
Identify these states on the basis of information given below and write their correct names
in your answer book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the
concerned alphabet in the map as per the following format.


Continue on next page.....
Page 6 Sample Paper 06 CBSE 12th Political Science

Sr. No. of the Information Used Concerned alphabet Name of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(i) The state where a violent incident took place at Godhara in 2002.
(ii) The state which was earlier known as Madras.
(iii) The state which has the maximum number of seats in India in its Legislative Assembly.
(iv) The state to which former Chief Minister Laldenga belonged.

26. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
The declaration on the disintegration of the USSR and the formation of the Commonwealth of
Independent States (CIS) came as a surprise to the other republics, especially to the Central
Asian ones. The exclusion of these republics was an issue that was quickly solved by making
them founding members of the CIS. Russia was now accepted as the successor state of the
Soviet Union. It inherited the Soviet seat in the UN Security Council. Russia accepted all the
international treaties and commitments of the Soviet Union.
(i) Which of the states given below are not the member states of CIS?
(A) Armenia (B) Belarus
(C) Moldova (D) Lithuania
Page 7 Sample Paper 06

(ii) The Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS) was established in

(A) December, 1991
(B) December, 1990
(C) December, 1994
(D) December, 1993
(iii) What kind of role was played by the successor of Soviet Union in the International
Politics?

Section-E

27. What were the major complaints related to the UN Security Council were reflected in the
resolution passed by the UN General Assembly in 1992? Describe any three criterias that have
been proposed for new permanent members of the Security Council.


O
UN has failed in preventing wars and related miseries, nations prefer its continuation. What
makes the UN a essential organisation?

28. Highlight any four issues of cooperation as well as confrontation between India and Bangladesh.


O
India and Pakistan involved in certain issues but now the two countries are well on their way
to a friendly relationship. Discuss.

29. Why could democracy not take roots in Pakistan despite the fact the both the countries India
and Pakistan share a common past?


O
What is the conflict between India and Sri Lanka relations? Explain the efforts taken by both
the countries towards maintaining peace and cooperation in the region.

30. Alliance politics has influenced the Indian political system in recent days. Elaborate and
mention atleast four points to support your argument.


O
How did the Emergency of 1975 benefit the Indian democratic set-up?

******
Page 1 Sample Paper 07

Sample Paper 07
Class - 12th Exam - 2024 - 25
Political Science (028)
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and follow them:
1. This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. Question paper is divided into five sections A, B, C, D and E.
3. Section A questions number 1 to 12 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each question carries
1 mark.
4. Section B questions number 13 to 18 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries
2 marks. Write answer to each question in 50 to 60 words.
5. Section C questions number 19 to 23 are Long Answer Type-I question. Each question carries
4 marks. Write answer to each question in 100 to 120 words.
6. Section D questions number 24 to 26 are Passage, Cartoon and Map-based questions. Answer
each question accordingly.
7. Section E questions number 27 to 30 are Long Answer Type-II questions. Each question
carries 6 marks. Write answer to each question in 170 to 180 words.
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, note that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired
candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be
attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only

Section-A
1. Globalisation refers to the increasing interconnectedness of the world. Which of the following
statements is NOT correct about the Concept of Globalisation?
(A) Globalisation involves the integration of economies, cultures, and political systems.
(B) Advances in technology have significantly facilitated the process of globalisation.
(C) Globalisation has led to the isolation of national economies from each other.
(D) The movement of goods, services, and people across borders is a key feature of globalisation.

2. Assertion (A): The Soviet Union was a single-party state controlled by the Communist Party.
Reason (R): The Communist Party allowed multiple parties to compete for power within the
Soviet political system.
Options:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
Page 2 Sample Paper 07 CBSE 12th Political Science

3. Match the terms given in column ‘A’ correctly with their meaning given in column ‘B’ and
choose the appropriate code as the correct answer:
Column A
1. European Union
2. ASEAN
3. Belt and Road Initiative
4. Rise of China
Column B
(i) A regional organization promoting economic and political cooperation in Southeast Asia.
(ii) A comprehensive infrastructure and economic project initiated by China to enhance global
trade connectivity.
(iii) A political and economic union of 27 European countries facilitating free movement and
a common market.
(iv) The increasing economic and geopolitical influence of China on the global stage.
Codes:
(A) 1-(iii), 2-(i), 3-(ii), 4-(iv)
(B) 1-(i), 2-(iii), 3-(iv), 4-(ii)
(C) 1-(ii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(iii)
(D) 1-(iv), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(i)

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Military coups in Pakistan have disrupted the establishment of stable democratic
governance.
Statement II: The military in Pakistan has always supported democratic institutions without
interference.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

5. Arrange the following United Nations principal organs in the order of their establishment:
I. General Assembly
II. Security Council
III. International Court of Justice
IV. Economic and Social Council
Choose the correct option:
(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) I, II, IV, III
(C) II, I, III, IV
(D) I, IV, II, III
Page 3 Sample Paper 07

6. Identify and write the Incorrect pair:

(A) Traditional Security – Focuses on military threats
(B) Non-Traditional Security – Includes issues like terrorism and environmental threats
(C) Human Security – Only pertains to economic stability
(D) Cooperative Security – Emphasizes collaboration among nations to ensure mutual safety

7. The Dravidian movement initially aimed for a separate Dravida Nadu but ultimately focused
on regional pride and achieved political power through ____________.
(A) Armed struggle
(B) Electoral platform and democratic means
(C) National-level alliances
(D) Economic policies

8. The implementation of the Mandal Commission’s recommendations in 1990 led to

____________.
(A) Reservations for Scheduled Tribes only
(B) Large-scale protests over OBC reservations
(C) Support from all political groups
(D) An immediate decline in caste-based politics

9. Which of the following princely states initially expressed a desire to remain independent rather
than joining either India or Pakistan after independence?
(A) The princely state of Junagadh, located in present-day Gujarat
(B) The northeastern state of Manipur, with its unique cultural identity
(C) Hyderabad, a wealthy state ruled by a Nizam who sought independence
(D) The disputed region of Kashmir, known for its scenic beauty and strategic importance

10. In which year did the Communist Party of India form the first democratically elected Communist
government in the state of Kerala?
(A) 1947 (B) 1952
(C) 1957 (D) 1962

11. During the early years after independence, India’s development model was often viewed as a
balance between ____________.
(A) Western capitalism and Soviet communism
(B) Import substitution and export orientation
(C) Nationalization and liberalization
(D) Capitalism and socialism
Page 4 Sample Paper 07 CBSE 12th Political Science

12. What was one key reason for the strain in Indo-China relations during the 1950s and 1960s?
(A) China’s support for India’s nuclear program
(B) India’s asylum to the Dalai Lama and Tibetan refugees
(C) India’s alliance with NATO
(D) China’s advocacy for India’s independence

Section-B
13. Highlight any two threats to a country’s security as per the traditional notion of security.

14. What does defection stand for in Indian politics? Highlight any two demerits of this practice.

15. Why did the Soviet Union disintegrate? Highlight any two arguments in support of your answer.

16. How the era of multi-party system led to the era of coalition at the centre?

17. Why were the states reorganised on linguistic basis in India in 1956?

18. Does globalisation leads to cultural homogenisation or cultural heterogenisation or both? Justify.

Section-C
19. Highlight any two sources of threats being faced by the third world countries.

20. How the movement for secession in the Mizo Hills area gained popular support? How was this
problem resolved?

21. Elaborate the change in the electoral performance of the Congress party and BJP, from the
year 1984 to 2004.

22. What is globalisation? What is the difference between globalisation and internationalisations?

23. What are the four reasons behind the formation of ASEAN?
Page 5 Sample Paper 07

Section-D

24. Study the given cartoon and answer the questions that follow.

(i) Who is the person holding the placard that says ‘Save Democracy’ ?
(A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Jayaprakash Narayan
(C) Morarji Desai
(D) Charan Singh

(ii) To which political party does the group of five persons belong?
(A) Congress Party
(B) Janata Party
(C) Bharatiya Jana Sangh
(D) Communist Party

(iii) What is the intention of the person sitting on ‘Dharna,’ according to the group of five?
(A) To grab power and create chaos
(B) To oppose democracy
(C) To promote economic reforms
(D) To support monarchy

(iv) What does the placard ‘Save Democracy’ signify in this context?
(A) Support for monarchy
(B) Protest against authoritarianism
(C) Call for economic reforms
(D) Promotion of a single-party system

Continue on next page.....

Page 6 Sample Paper 07 CBSE 12th Political Science

25. In the given outline map of South Asia, five countries have been marked as A, B, C and D.
Identify them on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names in
your answer book with their respective serial number of the information used and the alphabet
concerned as per the following format.
Sr. No. of the Information Used Alphabet Concerned Name of the Country
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(i) The country has experienced both civilian as well as military rule.
(ii) Democracy was restored in this country in 2006.
(iii) This country is still a monarchy.
(iv) This country is a part of India’s ‘Look East Policy via Myanmar’.

26. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.
What does independence consist of? It consists fundamentally and basically of foreign relations.
That is the test of independence. All else is local autonomy. Once foreign relations go out of
your hands into the charge of somebody else, to that extent and in that measure you are not
independent.
(i) In the above passage, the statement was made at which place?
(A) In the Constituent Assembly of India
(B) In the Press Conference at his residence
(C) In the public meeting at Rashtrapati Bhawan
(D) None of the above
Page 7 Sample Paper 07

(ii) In which year, Jawaharlal Nehru made this statement?

(A) 1947
(B) 1949
(C) 1955
(D) 1958
(iii) What is the fundamental aspect of independence, and how does losing control over it
affect a nation’s independence?

Section-E

27. Elaborate about Soviet System. Mention any of the four features of the Soviet System.


O
If the Soviet Union had not disintegrated and the world had remained bipolar, how would that
situation have affected the world politics?

28. Describe any two developments witnessed by India after 1990.

O
Analyse the formation and objectives of NITI Aayog in present context.

29. Reforming the UN means restructuring of the Security Council. Suggest measures to reform
UNSC.


O
Explain the establishment and objective of UNESCO, UNICEF and ILO in detail.

30. What are the three democratic upsurges that emerged in the post independence history of
India? Explain.


O
Analyse the circumstances that you think were responsible for the declaration of emergency in
1975.

******
Page 1 Sample Paper 08

Sample Paper 08
Class - 12th Exam - 2024 - 25
Political Science (028)
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and follow them:
1. This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. Question paper is divided into five sections A, B, C, D and E.
3. Section A questions number 1 to 12 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each question carries
1 mark.
4. Section B questions number 13 to 18 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries
2 marks. Write answer to each question in 50 to 60 words.
5. Section C questions number 19 to 23 are Long Answer Type-I question. Each question carries
4 marks. Write answer to each question in 100 to 120 words.
6. Section D questions number 24 to 26 are Passage, Cartoon and Map-based questions. Answer
each question accordingly.
7. Section E questions number 27 to 30 are Long Answer Type-II questions. Each question
carries 6 marks. Write answer to each question in 170 to 180 words.
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, note that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired
candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be
attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only

Section-A

1. Mikhail Gorbachev introduced significant reforms in the Soviet Union during the 1980s.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about Gorbachev and the disintegration?
(A) Gorbachev launched policies like Perestroika and Glasnost to restructure the Soviet
system.
(B) Gorbachev’s reforms led to increased transparency and freedom of expression.
(C) The disintegration of the Soviet Union occurred despite strong central control.
(D) Gorbachev successfully maintained the unity of the Soviet Republics through his policies.

2. Assertion (A): Gorbachev’s policies of Perestroika and Glasnost were intended to reform the
Soviet economic and political systems.
Reason (R): These policies successfully prevented the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

Continue on next page.....

Page 2 Sample Paper 08 CBSE 12th Political Science

Options:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.

3. Match the terms given in column ‘A’ correctly with their meaning given in column ‘B’ and
choose the appropriate code as the correct answer:
Column A
1. SAARC
2. India-Pakistan Conflicts
3. Peace and Cooperation in South Asia
4. US and China in South Asia
Column B
(i) A regional organization aimed at promoting economic and regional integration among
South Asian countries.
(ii) Ongoing disputes primarily over Kashmir and other territorial issues.
(iii) Initiatives focused on reducing tensions and fostering collaborative development in the
region.
(iv) Major global powers influencing the political dynamics and security in South Asia.
Codes:
(A) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv) (B) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
(C) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii) (D) 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is a key agency within the United
Nations system.
Statement II: The IMF primarily focuses on providing humanitarian aid to developing countries.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

5. Arrange the following sources of security threats in chronological order based on their emergence:
I. Nuclear Proliferation II. Cybersecurity Threats
III. Environmental Degradation IV. Terrorism
Choose the correct option:
(A) I, IV, III, II (B) IV, I, III, II
(C) I, III, IV, II (D) IV, III, I, II
Page 3 Sample Paper 08

6. Identify and write the Incorrect pair:

(A) Chipko Movement – Environmental movement in India
(B) Green Revolution – Movement focused on agricultural productivity
(C) Swachh Bharat Mission – Environmental movement aimed at cleanliness
(D) National Green Tribunal – Organization opposing environmental conservation

7. The defeat of which party in the 1989 elections marked the end of its dominance in Indian
politics?
(A) Bharatiya Janata Party
(B) Janata Dal
(C) Indian National Congress
(D) Communist Party of India

8. Who is famously known for delivering the iconic “Tryst with Destiny” speech on the night
before India officially gained independence?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi, the prominent leader of the non-violent independence movement
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru, who would become the first Prime Minister of independent India
(C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, often regarded as the Iron Man of India
(D) Subhas Chandra Bose, leader of the Indian National Army

9. The election method used in India, known as the “first-past-the-post” system, tends to favor
____________.
(A) Proportional representation for each party
(B) The party with the highest percentage of overall votes
(C) The formation of coalition governments
(D) Regions with minority representation

10. One of the primary objectives of the Planning Commission was to ensure ____________.
(A) State control over all private enterprises
(B) Distribution of resources for the common good
(C) Removal of all trade barriers
(D) Equal wages for all citizens

11. Which international organization’s principles are reflected in Article 51 of the Indian Constitution,
aiming for international peace and security?
(A) The United Nations (B) The European Union
(C) The League of Nations (D) The Non-Aligned Movement
Page 4 Sample Paper 08 CBSE 12th Political Science

12. Indira Gandhi’s slogan “Garibi Hatao” was aimed at addressing issues related to
____________.
(A) Foreign policy and military strength
(B) Poverty eradication and social justice
(C) Industrialization and private sector growth
(D) Trade liberalization and foreign investment

Section-B
13. What is the moderate view of economic globalisation?

14. What are the cultural consequences of globalisation?

15. How did the US perceived India’s decision of leading the Non-Aligned movement?

16. What is a mixed economy?

17. Highlight any one major distinction between the Soviet economy and the capitalist economy.

18. What were Jaya Prakash’s view about ‘India’s Communitarian Socialism’.

Section-C
19. What reasons did the Government give for declaring a National Emergency in 1975?

20. What is meant by alliance building as a component of traditional security policy? What are its
advantages?

21. Mention some of the recent agreements between India and Pakistan. Can we be sure that the
two countries are well on their way to a friendly relationship?

22. Highlight some important features and functions of European Union ?

23. State the problem of Goa?

Page 5 Sample Paper 08

Section-D

24. Study the given picture and answer the questions that follow.

(i) What does the given picture represent?

(A) Celebration of independence
(B) People leaving their homes during partition
(C) A religious procession
(D) A military parade
(ii) What were the consequences of partition?
(A) Communal riots and massacres
(B) Division of communities and displacement of people
(C) Both a and b
(D) None of the above
(iii) Why did partition happen?
(A) Due to political competition between Congress and the Muslim League
(B) Due to the British role in encouraging division
(C) Both a and b
(D) Lack of regional governance
(iv) What role did the British play in the partition of India?
(A) They mediated peace between Congress and the Muslim League
(B) They encouraged division for their political advantage
(C) They remained neutral throughout the process
(D) They supported a unified India

25. In the given outline political map of India, four states have been marked as A, B, C and D.
Identify these states on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names
in your answer book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the
concerned alphabets in the map as per the following format.
(i) The Princely State which resisted its merger with Union of India.
(ii) The state which was carved out of Punjab in 1966.
Page 6 Sample Paper 08 CBSE 12th Political Science

(iii) The state which was created in December 1952.

(iv) The 22nd State of the Indian Union.
Sr. no of the Information used Concerned alphabet Name of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

26. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
No region exists in a vacuum. It is influenced by outside powers and events no matter how much
it may try to insulate itself from non-regional powers. China and the US remain key players
in South Asian politics. Sino-Indian relations have improved significantly in the last ten years,
but China’s strategic partnership with Pakistan remains a major irritant. The demands of
development and globalisation have brought the two Asian giants closer, and their economic ties
have multiplied rapidly since 1991. American involvement in South Asia has rapidly increased
after the Cold War. The US has had good relations with both India and Pakistan since the end
of the Cold War and increasingly works as a moderator in India-Pakistan relations. Economic
reforms and liberal economic policies in both countries have greatly increased the depth of
American participation in the region. The large South Asian diasporas in the US and the huge
Page 7 Sample Paper 08

size of the population and markets of the region also give America an added stake in the future
of the regional security and peace.
(i) Which of these nations have a great influence in South Asian politics?
(A) The USA
(B) China
(C) South Africa
(D) Both (A) and (B)
(ii) Which of the following is a threat for India?
(A) Proximity between the USA and Pakistan
(B) Proximity between Pakistan and China
(C) Proximity between Sri Lanka and Pakistan
(D) None of the above
(iv) Why South Asian nations can be good partners for the USA?

Section-E

27. How Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru shaped the foreign policy of India?


O
Does India’s foreign policy reflect her desire to be an important regional power? Argue your
case with the Bangladesh war of 1971 as an example.

28. Highlight any three positive and three negative features each of the Soviet system in the Soviet
Union.


O
Analyse the factors responsible for the disintegration of the USSR with special reference to
Perestroika and Glasnost.

29. Mention some important steps taken for the restoration of dominance of the Congress Party
after the split in 1969.


O
Analyse any four factors that led the Congress Party to a spectacular win in 1971 elections.

30. “The regional parties have started playing an important role in the Indian politics.” Comment.


O
Trace the emergence of BJP as a significant force in post-Emergency politics.


******
Page 1 Sample Paper 09

Sample Paper 09
Class - 12th Exam - 2024 - 25
Political Science (028)
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and follow them:
1. This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. Question paper is divided into five sections A, B, C, D and E.
3. Section A questions number 1 to 12 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each question carries
1 mark.
4. Section B questions number 13 to 18 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries
2 marks. Write answer to each question in 50 to 60 words.
5. Section C questions number 19 to 23 are Long Answer Type-I question. Each question carries
4 marks. Write answer to each question in 100 to 120 words.
6. Section D questions number 24 to 26 are Passage, Cartoon and Map-based questions. Answer
each question accordingly.
7. Section E questions number 27 to 30 are Long Answer Type-II questions. Each question
carries 6 marks. Write answer to each question in 170 to 180 words.
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, note that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired
candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be
attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only

Section-A
1. ASEAN serves as a pivotal organization in Southeast Asia. Which of the following statements
is NOT correct about the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)?
(A) ASEAN promotes economic growth, social progress, and cultural development in the
region.
(B) ASEAN members have completely abolished all trade barriers among themselves.
(C) ASEAN plays a role in regional security and political cooperation.
(D) ASEAN engages in dialogue partnerships with countries outside Southeast Asia.

2. Assertion (A): Nepal transitioned from a monarchy to a federal democratic republic in 2008.
Reason (R): This transition was achieved without any internal conflict or resistance.
Options:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
Page 2 Sample Paper 09 CBSE 12th Political Science

3. Match the terms given in column ‘A’ correctly with their meaning given in column ‘B’ and
choose the appropriate code as the correct answer:
Column A
1. Principal Organs of UN
2. Reform of the UN
3. NGO
4. Human Rights Watch
Column B
(i) A major part of the United Nations structure responsible for maintaining international
peace and security.
(ii) Efforts to modify the UN’s structures and processes to better address contemporary global
challenges.
(iii) Non-governmental organizations that advocate for various social, environmental, and
political causes.
(iv) An NGO focused specifically on monitoring and protecting human rights worldwide.
Codes:
(A) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
(B) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
(C) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
(D) 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Non-traditional security threats include issues such as human rights violations and
health epidemics.
Statement II: These threats have become less important in the contemporary security agenda
compared to traditional military threats.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

5. Arrange the following environmental movements and initiatives in chronological order:

I. Chipko Movement
II. Green Revolution
III. National Green Tribunal (NGT) establishment
IV. Swachh Bharat Mission
Choose the correct option:
(A) II, I, III, IV (B) I, II, III, IV
(C) II, I, IV, III (D) I, II, IV, III
Page 3 Sample Paper 09

6. Identify and write the Incorrect pair:

(A) Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) – Investment by foreign entities into a country’s businesses
(B) Information Technology Sector – Benefited significantly from globalisation in India
(C) Make in India – Campaign to discourage foreign investment
(D) NAFTA – North American Free Trade Agreement promoting trade between USA, Canada,
and Mexico

7. What was one of the three most pressing challenges faced by the newly independent India
immediately after 1947?
(A) Building and maintaining strong international relations with foreign countries
(B) Managing population growth and implementing effective birth control programs
(C) Establishing and strengthening a sense of nationhood and unity among diverse groups
(D) Initiating and developing a national space exploration program

8. Which leader served as the first Chief Election Commissioner of India and oversaw the
organization of the country’s first general election?
(A) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) Sukumar Sen
(D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

9. The Planning Commission was established in ____________ to formulate and oversee

economic development in India.
(A) 1947 (B) 1950
(C) 1955 (D) 1962

10. In the 1962 Sino-Indian War, India was forced to seek military assistance from ____________.
(A) The United States and the United Kingdom
(B) The Soviet Union and China
(C) Pakistan and Nepal
(D) France and Germany

11. The Congress Party’s internal group, known as the “Syndicate,” was led by which prominent
Congress leader?
(A) K. Kamraj
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Atulya Ghosh
Page 4 Sample Paper 09 CBSE 12th Political Science

12. During the Emergency, the government imposed press censorship, which included
____________.
(A) Banning all political articles
(B) Allowing only state-approved news to be published
(C) Completely banning all newspapers
(D) Requiring pre-approval for editorials only

Section-B
13. What is Anandpur Sahib Resolution?

14. Name any two functions of the General Assembly of the UN.

15. Who was Potti Sriramulu? What was the outcome of his indefinite fast?

16. How were the economic concerns of free India different from the economic concerns of colonial
government?

17. Explain the major difference of ideology between that of the Congress and the Bhartiya Jana
Sangh.

18. State any two objectives of the UN.

Section-C
19. Discuss the relations between India and Israel.

20. Which steps must be adopted to conserve the natural resources?

21. Explain any four features of the Communist Party of India.

22. Explain any four effects of globalisation on the economy of a country.

23. What are the non-traditional notions to security?

Page 5 Sample Paper 09

Section-D

24. Study the picture and answer the following questions given below.

(i) In which year and where was the Earth Summit on environmental issues held?
(A) 1990, London
(B) 1991, Tokyo
(C) 1992, Rio de Janeiro
(D) 1993, New York

(ii) What does the picture depict?

(A) Industrial development
(B) Deforestation of rainforests and mangroves
(C) Urbanization of forests
(D) Conservation of biodiversity

(iii) What are considered global commons?

(A) Earth’s atmosphere, ocean floor, outer space, and the Antarctic region
(B) Rivers and lakes within a country
(C) National parks and wildlife sanctuaries
(D) Farmlands and agricultural zones

(iv) Why are global commons important in global politics?

(A) They are resources every country owns individually
(B) They require collective international cooperation for conservation
(C) They are only accessible to developed nations
(D) They are exclusively used for economic purposes
Page 6 Sample Paper 09 CBSE 12th Political Science

25. In the give outline political map of India four states have been marked as A, B, C and D.
Identify these states on the basis of the information given below. Mark the following with
respect to alphabets.
S.No. of the Information Used Alphabet Concerned Name of States
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(i) Mark the state where Mahatma Gandhi was born.
(ii) Sarojini Naidu become the first Governor of the state.
(iii) State from which Jayaprakash Narayan belongs?
(iv) State where first non-Congress Government was formed.

26. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
The Assam movement from 1979 to 1985 is the best example of such movement against ‘outsiders’.
The Assamese suspected that there were huge numbers of illegal Bengali Muslim setters from
Bangladesh. They felt that unless these foreign nationals are detected and deported, they
would reduce the indigenous Assamese into a minority. There were other economic issues too.
Page 7 Sample Paper 09

There was widespread poverty and unemployment in Assam despite the existence of natural
resources like oil, tea and coal. It was felt that these were drained out of the state without any
commensurate benefit to the people.
(i) The Assam Movement was led by the group named_______.
(A) All Assam Sabha Unit (B) All Assam Sabha Union
(C) All India Students Union (D) All Assam Students Union
(ii) Why did the Assamese seek the detection and deportation of the outsiders?
(A) They felt that these foreign nationals would reduce the indigenous Assamese to
minority.
(B) As huge number of Bengali Muslims was a cause of concern for Assamese.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
(iii) What were the main reasons behind the Assam movement from 1979 to 1985, and what
concerns did the Assamese people have about their state?

Section-E

27. Why is Emergency one of the most controversial phase in Indian politics?


O
Mention any three major political developments which happened in India after the Emergency
in 1977.

28. Examine the basis of projection of China to overtake the US as the largest economy of world
by 2040.


O
What the basis of projection of China to overtake the US as the world’s largest economy by
2040?

29. Examine the common issues of South Asian countries.

O
Elucidate the ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka and mention any two consequences of it.

30. Mention any three pros and three cons of Soviet system in the Soviet Union.


O
Why did Soviet Union disintegrate. Give any six reasons behind it.


******
Page 1 Sample Paper 10

Sample Paper 10
Class - 12th Exam - 2024 - 25
Political Science (028)
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and follow them:
1. This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. Question paper is divided into five sections A, B, C, D and E.
3. Section A questions number 1 to 12 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each question carries
1 mark.
4. Section B questions number 13 to 18 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries
2 marks. Write answer to each question in 50 to 60 words.
5. Section C questions number 19 to 23 are Long Answer Type-I question. Each question carries
4 marks. Write answer to each question in 100 to 120 words.
6. Section D questions number 24 to 26 are Passage, Cartoon and Map-based questions. Answer
each question accordingly.
7. Section E questions number 27 to 30 are Long Answer Type-II questions. Each question
carries 6 marks. Write answer to each question in 170 to 180 words.
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, note that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired
candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be
attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only

Section-A

1. Nepal transitioned from a monarchy to a federal democratic republic in recent history. Which
of the following statements is NOT correct about Monarchy and Democracy in Nepal?
(A) Nepal abolished its monarchy and declared itself a federal democratic republic in 2008.
(B) The transition to democracy in Nepal was marked by a decade-long civil conflict.
(C) The Nepalese monarchy played a central role in the country’s democratic transition
without any conflict.
(D) The new constitution of Nepal emphasizes federalism and secularism.

2. Assertion (A): The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is a key agency within the United
Nations system.
Reason (R): The IMF primarily focuses on providing humanitarian aid to developing countries.

Continue on next page.....

Page 2 Sample Paper 10 CBSE 12th Political Science

Options:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.

3. Match the terms given in column ‘A’ correctly with their meaning given in column ‘B’ and
choose the appropriate code as the correct answer:
Column A
1. External Security
2. Internal Security
3. Human Security
4. Cybersecurity
Column B
(i) Protection against threats originating outside the nation’s borders.
(ii) Protection against threats within the nation, such as terrorism and insurgency.
(iii) Ensuring the safety of individuals from various threats affecting their well-being.
(iv) Protecting information systems and data from digital attacks and breaches.
Codes:
(A) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
(B) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
(C) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
(D) 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The principle of Common but Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR) acknowledges
that all countries have the same level of responsibility in addressing environmental issues.
Statement II: CBDR allows developed countries to take the lead in addressing environmental
issues due to their historical contributions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

5. Arrange the following in chronological order based on their association with globalisation:
I. Formation of the World Trade Organization (WTO)
II. Launch of the Internet
III. Establishment of NAFTA
IV. Creation of the International Criminal Court (ICC)
Page 3 Sample Paper 10

Choose the correct option:

(A) II, I, III, IV
(B) I, II, III, IV
(C) I, III, II, IV
(D) II, I, IV, III

6. Identify and write the Incorrect pair:

(A) Shock Therapy – Rapid economic liberalization in post-Soviet states
(B) Glasnost – Policy of political openness introduced by Gorbachev
(C) New Economic Policy – Introduced by Lenin in 1921
(D) Brezhnev Doctrine – Policy to maintain the Soviet sphere of influence in Eastern Europe

7. The first general elections in India were a landmark event because they marked the implementation
of ____________.
(A) Democratic socialism (B) Direct presidential election
(C) Universal adult franchise (D) Party-based voting

8. The First Five Year Plan primarily focused on ____________.

(A) Rapid industrialization and urban development
(B) Developing the agricultural sector and building large dams
(C) Privatization of industries to encourage entrepreneurship
(D) Expanding the IT sector and infrastructure in urban areas

9. Which 1955 conference marked the height of India’s engagement with newly independent Asian
and African nations?
(A) Delhi Conference (B) Bandung Conference
(C) New York Summit (D) Belgrade Conference

10. Which political alliance was formed by major non-Congress parties in the 1971 election, opposing
Indira Gandhi’s Congress?
(A) Grand Alliance (B) United Democratic Front
(C) Nationalist Coalition (D) People’s Alliance

11. The slogan “Indira is India, India is Indira” was coined by ____________.
(A) Jayaprakash Narayan
(B) Raj Narain
(C) D.K. Barooah
(D) Morarji Desai
Page 4 Sample Paper 10 CBSE 12th Political Science

12. Sikkim became a full-fledged state of India in ____________ after a referendum supported
by its people.
(A) 1947
(B) 1963
(C) 1975
(D) 1987

Section-B

13. Which are the two forms of co-operative security as per its traditional notion?

14. What is meant by unipolarity and bipolarity?

15. What is meant by ‘coalition’ ? During which period did this type of government gain popularity
for the first time at the centre in India?

16. The first general election was a difficult task for Election Commission. Give two reasons for
the same.

17. In recent years India has paid adequate attention to ASEAN. Give two points to justify the
statement.

18. South Asia stands for diversity in every sense and yet constitutes one geo-political space. Do
you agree with the statement? Give two reasons for your answer.

Section-C

19. What were the reasons for the rise of political violence in the North-Eastern part of India?

20. Mention any two functions of Security Council. Give two reasons why Veto power of the
permanent members of Security Council cannot be abolished.

21. The Emergency affected the party system in India, elaborate your answer with examples.
Page 5 Sample Paper 10

22. “Economic globalisation is recolonisation of the world”. Substantiate the statement.

23. What was the major areas of focus of the First Five Year Plan? How was the Second Plan
different form the First Plan?

Section-D

24. Study the given cartoon and answer the questions that follow.

(i) What does the cartoon represent?

(A) US’s investment in education and healthcare
(B) US’s massive expenditure on defence and lack of funding for peace-related issues
(C) US’s focus on economic growth
(D) US’s commitment to peace-building efforts
(ii) What message does this cartoon convey?
(A) Countries prioritize peace over military spending
(B) Countries are more willing to invest in military than in peace efforts
(C) Countries are equally balancing military and peace expenditures
(D) Countries neglect military spending entirely
(iii) How is this situation different from India?
(A) India spends only on defense
(B) India spends on both defense and peaceful initiatives, with a focus on peaceful
solutions first
(C) India neglects peace-related initiatives entirely
(D) India avoids defense expenditure
Page 6 Sample Paper 10 CBSE 12th Political Science

(iv) What does the cartoon imply about global priorities?

(A) Equal focus on peace and defense
(B) Neglect of peace efforts in favor of military expenditures
(C) Preference for economic development over defense
(D) Promotion of international peace treaties

25. In the given map of India four states have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify these
states on the basis of the information given below and writer their correct names in respective
serial number. Information given about the Lok Sabha election results 1977.
Sr. No. State Alphabet
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(i) The state where India National Congress (INC) was in majority.
(ii) The state were Janata Party was in majority.
(iii) The state where other parties were in majority.
(iv) The state where left parties were in majority.
Page 7 Sample Paper 10

26. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
We have a Muslim minority who are so large in number that they cannot, even if they want,
go anywhere else. That is a basic fact about which there can be no argument. Whatever the
provocation from Pakistan and whatever the indignities and horrors inflicted on non-Muslims
there, we have got to deal with this minority in a civilised manner. We must give them security
and the rights of citizens in a democratic state. If we fail to do so, we shall have a festering sore
which will eventually poison the whole body politic and probably destroy it. Jawaharlal Nehru,
letter to Chief Ministers, 15th October, 1947.
(i) The speaker of the given passage was_____.
(A) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(D) Mohammad Iqbal
(ii) Why Jawaharlal Nehru wanted to deal with the Muslim minority in a civilised way?
(A) Because Muslim minority were in large number in India.
(B) Because it is their right to go anywhere i.e. to go Pakistan or stay in India.
(C) Because in a democratic set-up everyone should be given an equal opportunity.
(D) All of the above
(iii) What stance does Jawaharlal Nehru advocate for dealing with the Muslim minority in
India, as expressed in his letter to the Chief Ministers dated 15th October 1947, and what
consequences does he foresee if this approach is not followed?

Section-E

27. What does ASEAN stand for? What are the main objectives of ASEAN?


O
Differentiate between European Union and SAARC as new centres of power.

28. What were the consequences of the partition of India in 1947.

O
Why did Jawaharlal Nehru try to keep India, a secular country? Do you think whether the
reasons were ethical and sentimental? Give reasons for the same.

29. Explain the second phase of Indian politics towards a multi-party coalition system with reference
to general elections of 1967.


O
Explain the philosophy of Integral Humanism given by Pandic Deendayal Upadhyaya.
Page 8 Sample Paper 10 CBSE 12th Political Science

30. Highlight the developments in India’s nuclear programme.

O
Elaborate upon the formation of successive governments formed after the 1989 elections.

******
Page 1 Sample Paper 11

Sample Paper 11
Class - 12th Exam - 2024 - 25
Political Science (028)
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and follow them:
1. This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. Question paper is divided into five sections A, B, C, D and E.
3. Section A questions number 1 to 12 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each question carries
1 mark.
4. Section B questions number 13 to 18 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries
2 marks. Write answer to each question in 50 to 60 words.
5. Section C questions number 19 to 23 are Long Answer Type-I question. Each question carries
4 marks. Write answer to each question in 100 to 120 words.
6. Section D questions number 24 to 26 are Passage, Cartoon and Map-based questions. Answer
each question accordingly.
7. Section E questions number 27 to 30 are Long Answer Type-II questions. Each question
carries 6 marks. Write answer to each question in 170 to 180 words.
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, note that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired
candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be
attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only

Section-A
1. The United Nations has evolved significantly since its inception post-World War II.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the Evolution of the UN?
(A) The UN was established in 1945 to promote peace and prevent future conflicts.
(B) The Security Council is one of the principal organs of the UN responsible for maintaining
international peace.
(C) The UN has remained unchanged in its structure and functions since its creation.
(D) Over the years, the UN has expanded its role to include a wide range of global issues
beyond peacekeeping.

2. Assertion (A): Non-traditional security threats include issues such as human rights violations
and health epidemics.
Reason (R): These threats have become less important in the contemporary security agenda
compared to traditional military threats.


Continue on next page.....
Page 2 Sample Paper 11 CBSE 12th Political Science

Options:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.

3. Match the terms given in column ‘A’ correctly with their meaning given in column ‘B’ and
choose the appropriate code as the correct answer:
Column A
1. Environmental Movements
2. Sustainable Development
3. Global Environmental Issues
4. Conservation of Resources
Column B
(i) Efforts and campaigns aimed at protecting the environment and promoting ecological
balance.
(ii) Development that meets present needs without compromising the ability of future
generations to meet their own needs.
(iii) Challenges like climate change, deforestation, and pollution that affect the entire planet.
(iv) Preserving natural resources to prevent depletion and ensure their availability for future
use.
Codes:
(A) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv) (B) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
(C) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii) (D) 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Resistance to globalisation often arises due to concerns over cultural homogenization
and economic disparities.
Statement II: Resistance to globalisation always results in the complete rejection of global
integration.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

5. Arrange the following entities in the order of their formation post the disintegration of the
Soviet Union:
I. Central Asian States II. Balkan States
III. Russia IV. Baltic States


Continue on next page.....
Page 3 Sample Paper 11

Choose the correct option:

(A) I, II, III, IV
(B) III, I, II, IV
(C) III, II, I, IV
(D) I, III, II, IV

6. Identify and write the Incorrect pair:

(A) Japan – Largest economy in Asia
(B) South Korea – Emerging technological power
(C) China – Initiator of the Belt and Road Initiative
(D) Germany – Leading member of the European Union

7. The economic strategy introduced in the Second Five Year Plan was mainly aimed at
__________.
(A) Modernizing the agricultural sector
(B) Achieving self-sufficiency in industrial production
(C) Reducing government intervention in the economy
(D) Developing transportation and road networks

8. India’s role in supporting the liberation of Bangladesh in 1971 led to a war with
____________.
(A) China (B) The United Kingdom
(C) Pakistan (D) Afghanistan

9. The defeat of Congress in the 1967 election marked the beginning of __________ in
Indian politics.
(A) Single-party dominance
(B) Coalition politics
(C) Absolute monarchy
(D) Military rule

10. One of the main amendments passed during the Emergency was the Forty-Second Amendment,
which ____________.
(A) Enhanced judicial independence
(B) Extended the tenure of Parliament from five to six years
(C) Lowered the voting age to 18
(D) Banned opposition parties
Page 4 Sample Paper 11 CBSE 12th Political Science

11. The Indian Constitution’s Sixth Schedule allows tribal communities in the North-East to
____________.
(A) Form independent states
(B) Abolish local governments
(C) Govern according to their customary laws and practices
(D) Exclude migrants from other parts of India

12. In the 1996 elections, which party emerged as the largest party but could not form a stable
government?
(A) Congress (B) Janata Dal
(C) Bahujan Samaj Party (D) Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)

Section-B

13. Define cultural homogenisation. Give an example to show that its consequences are not negative.

14. What were the main reasons behind the split of Congress in 1969?

15. What are the most important outcomes of the Rio Summit?

16. ‘Emergency’ and the period around it known as the period of Constitutional crisis. Explain the
statement.

17. What is the one major distinction between the Soviet economy and the capitalist economy?

18. What had been Afro-Asian unity?

Section-C

19. Explain any two effects of globalisation on the culture of a country.

20. ‘Coalition governments proved to be a boon for democracy in India.’ Support this statement
with the help of most suitable arguments.
Page 5 Sample Paper 11

21. Describe the two reasons that led to National Jubilation (triumph) in India after the 1971 war
with Pakistan.

22. What are the objectives of military alliances? Give an example of a functioning military alliance
with its specific objectives.

23. The Assam Movement from 1979 to 1985 is the best example of the movements against
‘outsiders’. Support the statement with suitable arguments.

Section-D

24. Observe the cartoon given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.

(i) Who is the person in the center of the cartoon?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Muhammad Ali Jinnah
(D) Sardar Patel
(ii) What does the cartoon refer to?
(A) India’s Independence
(B) Formation of linguistic states
(C) Events of the partition
(D) Abolition of princely states
(iii) How did India accommodate the demand of regional groups?
(A) By creating separate nations
(B) By forming linguistic states
(C) By enforcing uniform policies
(D) By neglecting their demands
Page 6 Sample Paper 11 CBSE 12th Political Science

(iv) What were some consequences of the partition?

(A) Peaceful migration
(B) Strengthening of regional unity
(C) Communal riots and violence
(D) Complete abolition of poverty

25. In the given political outline map of South Asia, four countries have been marked as A, B, C
and D. Identify them on the basis of the information given below and write their correct names
along with their respective serial number of the information used and the concerned alphabets
as per the following format.
Sr. No. of the Information Used Alphabet Concerned Name of the Country
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(i) An important country but it is not considered to be a part of South Asia.
(ii) The country has a successful Democratic System.
(iii) This country has had both Civilian and Military rulers.
(iv) This country had Constitutional Monarchy.

26. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Two developments strained this relationship. China annexed Tibet in 1950 and thus, removed
a historical buffer between the two countries. Initially, the Government of India did not oppose
this openly. But as more information came in about the suppression of Tibetan culture, the
Indian Government grew uneasy. The Tibetan spiritual leader, the Dalai Lama, sought and
obtained political asylum in India in 1959.


Continue on next page.....
Page 7 Sample Paper 11

China alleged that the Government of India was allowing anti-China activities to take place
within India.
(i) In the above passage ‘historical buffer’ means______.
(A) a country which prevents conflicts
(B) a country lying between two rival or potentially hostile powers
(C) an agreement between the countries
(D) None of the above

(ii) Why didn’t Government of India oppose the annexation of Tibet by China?
(A) Due to the Panchsheel Agreement signed between India and China.
(B) As it believed that it is the internal matter of China.
(C) China assured India that Tibet will be given greater autonomy.
(D) Both (A) and (C)

(iii) Explain the developments that strained the relationship between India and China after
1950, and how did these events lead to tensions between the two countries?

Section-E

27. Mention the limitations of USSR that led to its disintegration.

O
What do you mean by Arab Spring? Mention any four causes of Arab Spring.

28. Explain any four challenges faced by India at the time of independence.


O
What were the reasons and effects of accepting the demands for separate states on linguistic
claims?

29. Trace the emergence of BJP as a significant force in Indian politics since 1980’s.


O
Since 1989, coalition politics has shifted the focus of political parties from ideological difference
to power sharing arrangement within the sphere of consensus. Explain with example.

30. What is meant by SAARC? Describe the main objectives of SAARC.

O
Mention the factors responsible for the rise of the Chinese economy.


******
Page 1 Sample Paper 12

Sample Paper 12
Class - 12th Exam - 2024 - 25
Political Science (028)
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and follow them:
1. This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. Question paper is divided into five sections A, B, C, D and E.
3. Section A questions number 1 to 12 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each question carries
1 mark.
4. Section B questions number 13 to 18 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries
2 marks. Write answer to each question in 50 to 60 words.
5. Section C questions number 19 to 23 are Long Answer Type-I question. Each question carries
4 marks. Write answer to each question in 100 to 120 words.
6. Section D questions number 24 to 26 are Passage, Cartoon and Map-based questions. Answer
each question accordingly.
7. Section E questions number 27 to 30 are Long Answer Type-II questions. Each question
carries 6 marks. Write answer to each question in 170 to 180 words.
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, note that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired
candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be
attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only

Section-A

1. New sources of threats have emerged in the modern security landscape. Which of the following
statements is NOT correct about New Sources of Threats?
(A) Terrorism has become a significant security concern globally.
(B) Migration and epidemics are considered non-traditional security threats.
(C) Cybersecurity is irrelevant in the context of contemporary security threats.
(D) Human rights violations can lead to internal security challenges.

2. Assertion (A): The principle of Common but Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR)

acknowledges that all countries have the same level of responsibility in addressing environmental
issues.
Reason (R): CBDR allows developed countries to take the lead in addressing environmental
issues due to their historical contributions.


Continue on next page.....
Page 2 Sample Paper 12 CBSE 12th Political Science

Options:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.

3. Match the terms given in column ‘A’ correctly with their meaning given in column ‘B’ and
choose the appropriate code as the correct answer:
Column A
1. Economic Liberalization
2. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
3. Information Technology Sector
4. Resistance Movements
Column B
(i) Initiatives aimed at reducing government intervention in the economy to encourage private
enterprise.
(ii) Investments made by foreign entities into a country’s businesses and infrastructure.
(iii) A key sector in India that has thrived due to globalisation and contributes significantly to
economic growth.
(iv) Groups and organizations opposing aspects of globalisation, often advocating for local
control and protectionism.
Codes:
(A) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv) (B) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
(C) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii) (D) 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Gorbachev’s policies of Perestroika and Glasnost were aimed at restructuring the
Soviet economy and increasing political transparency.
Statement II: These policies successfully prevented the disintegration of the Soviet Union.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

5. Arrange the following countries in the order of their recognition as emerging economic powers:
I. South Korea
II. Japan
III. China
IV. India
Page 3 Sample Paper 12

Choose the correct option:

(A) II, I, III, IV (B) I, II, IV, III
(C) II, I, IV, III (D) I, II, III, IV

6. Identify and write the Incorrect pair:

(A) SAARC – South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation
(B) India-Pakistan Conflicts – Primarily over Kashmir
(C) India’s Neighbours – Include countries like Bhutan and Nepal
(D) Peace and Cooperation – Not a focus area in South Asia

7. The Indus Waters Treaty between India and Pakistan, signed in 1960, was mediated by
____________.
(A) The Soviet Union (B) The World Bank
(C) The United Nations (D) The United States

8. The Congress Party faction supporting Indira Gandhi after the 1969 split came to be known
as ____________.
(A) Congress (Syndicate) (B) Congress (Requisitionists)
(C) Congress (Organisation) (D) Congress (R)

9. The period following the Emergency and the 1977 election led to the formation of the first non-
Congress government headed by ____________.
(A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Jagjivan Ram
(C) Morarji Desai
(D) Charan Singh

10. One outcome of the Assam Movement was the establishment of the ____________.
(A) Bharatiya Janata Party in Assam
(B) All Assam Students Union (AASU) as a political party
(C) Asom Gana Parishad as a regional political party
(D) Sikkimese political alliance with Bengal

11. The ‘Indira Sawhney case’ related to which major policy issue?
(A) Economic liberalization
(B) Right to Education
(C) Reservation for OBCs in government jobs
(D) Anti-defection law
Page 4 Sample Paper 12 CBSE 12th Political Science

12. In which year was the language-based reorganization of Indian states officially implemented,
leading to the formation of linguistic states?
(A) 1956, after the States Reorganisation Act was passed
(B) 1960, following further public demand for linguistic representation
(C) 1963, after multiple states were reorganized across the country
(D) 1972, coinciding with new developments in northeastern India

Section-B

13. How was the U.S. benefited by the Soviet disintegration?

14. According to the guidelines of the Second Five Year Plan, how did the government try to
protect the domestic industries?

15. Name some groups which are a part of the WSF (World Social Forum)?

16. What is the relationship between traditional security and cooperation?

17. Name the two departments of defence that were established aftermath of the wars of 1962 and
1965.

18. How was the U.S. benefited by the Soviet disintegration?

Section-C

19. What is BJP system? When did it started?

20. Mention the features of Kyoto Protocol.

21. Give examples to show that most of the former Soviet Republics are prone to conflicts and
tensions.

22. What were some of the resistance that Nehru faced in India for his Non-Alignment policies?
Page 5 Sample Paper 12

23. The Shah Commission was appointed in 1977 by the Janata Party Government. Why was it
appointed and what were its findings?

Section-D

24. Make a careful study of the image given below and answer the questions that follows.

(i) Identify the personalities in the image.

(A) Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Mountbatten
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru and Hari Singh
(C) Sardar Patel and Sheikh Abdullah
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru and Dr. Ambedkar

(ii) Which agreement was signed between the two?

(A) Poona Pact
(B) Instrument of Accession
(C) Shimla Agreement
(D) Panchsheel Agreement

(iii) Which article of the Indian Constitution provided special provisions to Jammu and
Kashmir?
(A) Article 350
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 370
(D) Article 372

(iv) What special powers were conferred to Jammu and Kashmir under Article 370?
(A) The power to have its own Constitution
(B) Complete applicability of the Indian Constitution
(C) Abolition of state governance
(D) No special provisions were granted
Page 6 Sample Paper 12 CBSE 12th Political Science

25. In the given outline political map of the world, four countries have been marked as (A), (B),
(C) and (D). Identify these countries on the basis of the information given below and write their
correct names in your answer book along with the respective serial numbers of the information
used and the concerned alphabets as per the format that follows:
(i) A country that did a nuclear test in the year 1998.
(ii) A communist nation during the Cold War.
(iii) A capitalist country that dropped an atomic bomb on Japan.
(iv) A communist nation initially under Mao Zedong.
Sr. no. of the Information used Alphabet Concerned Name of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

26. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
A new chapter of peace and cooperation might evolve in South Asia if all the countries in the
region allow free trade across the borders. This is the spirit behind the idea of the SAFTA. The
Agreement was signed in 2004 and came into effect on 1 January 2006. The SAFTA aims at
lowering trade tariffs. But some of our neighbours fear that the SAFTA is a way for India to
‘invade’ their markets and to influence their societies and politics through commercial ventures
and a commercial presence in their countries. India thinks that there are real economic benefits
for all SAARC nations from the SAFTA and that a region that trades more freely will be able
to cooperate better on political issues. Some critics think that the SAFTA is not worth for India
as it already has bilateral agreements with Bhutan, Nepal and Sri Lanka.
(i) What is the full form of SAFTA?
(A) South America Free Trade Agreement
(B) South Africa Free Trade Agreement
(C) South Asian Free Trade Agreement
(D) None of the above


Continue on next page.....
Page 7 Sample Paper 12

(ii) Why SAFTA was signed?

(A) To allow free trade among the South American nations.
(B) To increase the political interference of the nations in South Asia.
(C) To allow free trade among the South Asian nations.
(D) None of the above.
(iii) What is the purpose of SAFTA, and why do some nations have concerns about it?

Section-E

27. What is Agenda 21? What is meant by ‘common, but differentiated responsibilities’ ?


O
Describe how water scarcity across the world can lead to ‘water wars’.

28. Describe these obstacles that delayed the merger of Jammu and Kashmir with India.


O
Describe the areas of tension that arose on different occasions after independence. Which
political aspirations were the causes of those tensions?

29. Trace the evolution of the United Nations since its establishment in 1945. How does it function
with the help of its various structures and agencies?


O
How far did the UN perform its role successfully in maintaining peace in the world? Explain.

30. Critically evaluate the impact of the changing role of the state in the developing countries in
the light of globalisation.


O
How has globalisation impacted on India and how is India in turn impacting on globalisation?

******
Page 1 Sample Paper 13

Sample Paper 13
Class - 12th Exam - 2024 - 25
Political Science (028)
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and follow them:
1. This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. Question paper is divided into five sections A, B, C, D and E.
3. Section A questions number 1 to 12 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each question carries
1 mark.
4. Section B questions number 13 to 18 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries
2 marks. Write answer to each question in 50 to 60 words.
5. Section C questions number 19 to 23 are Long Answer Type-I question. Each question carries
4 marks. Write answer to each question in 100 to 120 words.
6. Section D questions number 24 to 26 are Passage, Cartoon and Map-based questions. Answer
each question accordingly.
7. Section E questions number 27 to 30 are Long Answer Type-II questions. Each question
carries 6 marks. Write answer to each question in 170 to 180 words.
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, note that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired
candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be
attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only

Section-A
1. Common but Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR) is a principle in international environmental
law.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about Common but Differentiated
Responsibilities?
(A) CBDR recognizes that all countries share responsibility for addressing environmental
degradation.
(B) CBDR allows developed countries to take the lead in environmental conservation.
(C) Developing countries have no obligations under the CBDR principle.
(D) CBDR acknowledges the varying capabilities and contributions of different countries.

2. Assertion (A): Resistance to globalisation often arises due to concerns over cultural
homogenization and economic disparities.
Reason (R): Resistance to globalisation always results in the complete rejection of global
integration.


Continue on next page.....
Page 2 Sample Paper 13 CBSE 12th Political Science

Options:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.

3. Match the terms given in column ‘A’ correctly with their meaning given in column ‘B’ and
choose the appropriate code as the correct answer:
Column A
1. Shock Therapy
2. Disintegration of Soviet Union
3. Central Asian States
4. Russia’s Post-Soviet Relations
Column B
(i) Rapid economic liberalization policies implemented in former Soviet states.
(ii) The process through which the Soviet Union was dissolved into independent nations.
(iii) New political entities emerging after the collapse of the Soviet Union.
(iv) Russia’s diplomatic and economic interactions with former Soviet republics.
Codes:
(A) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv) (B) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
(C) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii) (D) 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: ASEAN stands for the Association of South Asian Nations.
Statement II: ASEAN aims to promote economic, political, and security cooperation among
Southeast Asian countries.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

5. Arrange the following conflicts between India and Pakistan in chronological order based on
their occurrence:
I. Kargil War
II. Indo-Pakistani War of 1971
III. First Kashmir War
IV. Siachen Conflict
Choose the correct option:
(A) III, II, IV, I (B) III, IV, II, I
(C) II, III, I, IV (D) IV, III, II, I
Page 3 Sample Paper 13

6. Identify and write the Incorrect pair:

(A) General Assembly – Principal organ of the United Nations
(B) Security Council – Principal organ responsible for maintaining peace and security
(C) UNESCO – United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
(D) NATO – Principal organ of the United Nations

7. The 1969 Presidential election saw a split in the Congress Party, primarily over the support for
which two candidates?
(A) V.V. Giri and Zakir Hussain (B) V.V. Giri and Sanjeeva Reddy
(C) S. Radhakrishnan and Zakir Hussain (D) V.V. Giri and Atulya Ghosh

8. The Railway Strike of 1974, which added to the tension before the Emergency, was led by
____________.
(A) Atal Bihari Vajpayee (B) Charan Singh
(C) Morarji Desai (D) George Fernandes

9. The 1985 Rajiv Gandhi-Longowal Accord in Punjab agreed to address which primary issue?
(A) The promotion of Hindi as a national language
(B) Water sharing disputes between Punjab and neighboring states
(C) Armed support for Sikhs overseas
(D) Complete independence of Punjab from India

10. The 1985 Shah Bano case raised issues regarding ____________.
(A) Secularism and minority rights (B) Federalism and state autonomy
(C) Economic policy changes (D) Environmental protection laws

11. What was the purpose of the Standstill Agreement signed by the princely state of Hyderabad
with India in the post-independence period?
(A) To establish economic cooperation and trade agreements between Hyderabad and India
(B) To maintain the existing political situation without any major changes
(C) To create a mutual defense alliance in case of foreign threats
(D) To encourage cultural exchanges between Hyderabad and neighboring states

12. The Bharatiya Jana Sangh, which later evolved into the Bharatiya Janata Party, initially drew
support from ____________.
(A) Rural communities in the southern states
(B) Industrial leaders across the nation
(C) Urban areas in the Hindi-speaking regions
(D) The Communist factions within Congress
Page 4 Sample Paper 13 CBSE 12th Political Science

Section-B

13. What was the major foundation of the foreign relations of India which is laid even in the
Directive Principles of State Policy?

14. Identify one similarity and one difference between the crisis in Punjab and Assam during the
1980s.

15. Discuss some of the limitations of the land reforms in India.

16. What do you know about Demolitions in Turkman Gate area, Delhi.

17. Explain the meaning of garage sale in the context of shock therapy.

18. “Jammu and Kashmir comprises of some social and political regions.” Support the statement
with any two examples from any two regions.

Section-C

19. Explain how global poverty is a source of insecurity?

20. Evaluate any three consequences of the emergency imposed in 1975.

21. Highlight any five steps as decided by the member states in 2005, to make the United Nations
more relevant in the changing context.

22. “Welfare State is getting replaced by market.” Analyse the reason for this change.

23. Suggest any two steps to be taken by the government to check pollution and save environment.

Continue on next page.....

Page 5 Sample Paper 13

Section-D

24. Study the given cartoon and answer the questions that follow.

(i) The division symbolized by the picture was between:

(A) Democratic and Communist
(B) Capitalist and Communist
(C) Socialist and Communist
(D) Democratic and Capitalist
(ii) When did the USSR disintegrate?
(A) 26th December, 1990
(B) 25th December, 1991
(C) 26th December, 1991
(D) 1st January, 1992
(iii) Who was the President of the USSR at the time of its disintegration?
(A) Vladimir Putin
(B) Boris Yeltsin
(C) Mikhail Gorbachev
(D) Nikita Khrushchev
(iv) What was the year in which Mikhail Gorbachev became the leader of the USSR?
(A) 1980
(B) 1983
(C) 1985
(D) 1987
Page 6 Sample Paper 13 CBSE 12th Political Science

25. In the given political outline map of India, four states have been marked as (A), (B), (C) and
(D). Identify these states on the basis of information given below and write their correct names
in your answer book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the
concerned alphabet given in the map as per the following format.
(i) The state from which Haryana was carved out.
(ii) The state which was created in 1963.
(iii) The state from which Jharkhand was carved out.
(iv) The state which was formed by separating Telugu speaking areas from Madras (now Tamil
Nadu).
Sr. no. of the Information used Concerned alphabet Name of the State
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)

26. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
The 1967 election was a landmark election. The results jolted the Congress at both the national
and state levels. Many contemporary political observers described the election results as a
‘political earthquake’. The Congress did manage to get a majority in the Lok Sabha, but with
Page 7 Sample Paper 13

its lowest tally of seats and share of votes since 1952. Half of the ministers of Indira Gandhi’s
Cabinet were defeated. The political stalwarts who lost in their constituencies included Kamaraj
in Tamil Nadu, S.K. Patil in Maharashtra, Atulya Ghosh in West Bengal and K. B. Sahay in
Bihar.
(i) 1967 election results are called as ______.
(A) Start of coalition politics
(B) Political earthquake
(C) End of congress rule
(D) All of the above
(ii) Congress managed a victory in 1967 elections, its seat tally was _______.
(A) Lowest ever (B) Same as earlier
(C) Highest ever (D) None of these
(iii) Why is the 1967 election considered a landmark election in Indian politics, and what were
its major outcomes?

Section-E

27. Describe any three important events that led to the split in the Congress Party in 1969.


O
Analyse any four factors that led the Congress Party to a spectacular win in 1971 elections.

28. Does India’s foreign policy reflect her desire to be an important regional power? Argue your
case with the Bangladesh war of 1971 as an example.


O
Analyse any two major developments after 1980 that led to a cycle of violence in Punjab.

29. How the relationship between the India and China has evolved from the 1950s to the present
times?


O
Name all the members of the ASEAN. What purpose is served by the body?

30. Describe the main features of the Soviet system.

O
Examine the role of Gorbachev to reform the Soviet system.

******
Page 1 Sample Paper 14

Sample Paper 14
Class - 12th Exam - 2024 - 25
Political Science (028)
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and follow them:
1. This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. Question paper is divided into five sections A, B, C, D and E.
3. Section A questions number 1 to 12 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each question carries
1 mark.
4. Section B questions number 13 to 18 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries
2 marks. Write answer to each question in 50 to 60 words.
5. Section C questions number 19 to 23 are Long Answer Type-I question. Each question carries
4 marks. Write answer to each question in 100 to 120 words.
6. Section D questions number 24 to 26 are Passage, Cartoon and Map-based questions. Answer
each question accordingly.
7. Section E questions number 27 to 30 are Long Answer Type-II questions. Each question
carries 6 marks. Write answer to each question in 170 to 180 words.
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, note that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired
candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be
attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only

Section-A
1. Resistance to globalisation has emerged in various forms across different societies. Which of the
following statements is NOT correct about Resistance to Globalisation?
(A) Resistance movements often arise due to concerns over cultural homogenization.
(B) Economic inequalities resulting from globalisation can fuel resistance.
(C) Resistance to globalisation always leads to the complete rejection of global integration.
(D) Some resistance focuses on protecting local industries and jobs from global competition.

2. Assertion (A): Shock Therapy involved rapid economic liberalization in post-Soviet states.
Reason (R): Shock Therapy led to the immediate stabilization of the economies of post-Soviet
states.
Options:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
Page 2 Sample Paper 14 CBSE 12th Political Science

3. Match the terms given in column ‘A’ correctly with their meaning given in column ‘B’ and
choose the appropriate code as the correct answer:
Column A
1. Japan as an Emerging Power
2. South Korea as an Emerging Power
3. Alternative Centres of Power
4. Economic Rise of China
Column B
(i) A nation in East Asia experiencing rapid economic growth and increasing global influence.
(ii) Countries or regions that provide significant economic and political influence apart from
traditional superpowers.
(iii) A leading Asian economy known for its technological advancements and strong industrial
base.
(iv) A country in East Asia with a booming economy and significant contributions to global
technology and manufacturing.
Codes:
(A) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(i)
(B) 1-(ii), 2-(iii), 3-(i), 4-(iv)
(C) 1-(iv), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(i)
(D) 1-(i), 2-(iv), 3-(ii), 4-(iii)

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Nepal became a federal democratic republic in 2008 after abolishing its monarchy.
Statement II: The transition from monarchy to republic in Nepal occurred without any internal
conflict.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

5. Arrange the following key UN agencies in chronological order based on their founding:
I. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
II. World Bank
III. World Trade Organization (WTO)
IV. International Labour Organization (ILO)
Choose the correct option:
(A) IV, I, II, III
(B) IV, II, I, III
(C) IV, I, III, II
(D) IV, II, III, I
Page 3 Sample Paper 14

6. Identify and write the Incorrect pair:

(A) Terrorism – Considered a non-traditional security threat
(B) Cybersecurity – Emerging threat in contemporary security agenda
(C) Health Epidemics – Non-traditional security issue
(D) Nuclear Proliferation – Non-traditional security threat

7. The conflict between the government and the judiciary reached a peak with which landmark
case?
(A) Golaknath Case (B) Minerva Mills Case
(C) Kesavananda Bharati Case (D) Maneka Gandhi Case

8. What was one of the major factors contributing to the conflict in Jammu and Kashmir after
its accession to India?
(A) Lack of economic resources
(B) Foreign investment issues
(C) Dispute over Article 370 and demands for autonomy
(D) Desire to join a South Asian federation

9. The Congress-led coalition government formed in 2004 was known as ____________.

(A) National Front
(B) National Democratic Alliance
(C) United Front
(D) United Progressive Alliance

10. The integration of which princely state into India was successfully resolved through a public
plebiscite, allowing citizens to express their preference?
(A) Hyderabad, following prolonged negotiations and military intervention
(B) Junagadh, where a plebiscite confirmed the people’s desire to join India
(C) Kashmir, which remains a disputed territory to this day
(D) Manipur, which became part of India following agreements with local leaders

11. The Congress was able to function as both a ruling and opposition party due to
____________.
(A) Lack of a formal opposition structure
(B) A unique coalition-like structure with internal factions
(C) Its exclusive focus on economic development
(D) The absence of other major political parties
Page 4 Sample Paper 14 CBSE 12th Political Science

12. Which term best describes the economic system India followed immediately after independence,
characterized by state-led initiatives with private sector collaboration?
(A) Socialist capitalism
(B) Mixed economy
(C) Planned liberalism
(D) Open-market socialism

Section-B
13. Describe any two objectives of Planning in India.

14. What were the goals on which everyone agreed on the eve of independence?

15. Describe any two social causes that led to Arab Spring.

16. List any two differences between the Socialist and Communist party.

17. What had been government’s approach towards the integration of Princely States?

18. Write any two characteristics of Mixed Economy Model?

Section-C
19. State the democratic transition in Nepal. How was it viewed by the other parties or organisation
in Nepal?

20. Compare the European Union with ASEAN.

21. Discuss the views against the Emergency given by the critics.

22. Mention the difference between the Capitalist and the Socialist Models of development.

23. Explain any four features of the ideology of the Bharatiya Jana Sangh.
Page 5 Sample Paper 14

Section-D

24. Study the given cartoon and answer the questions that follow.

(i) Identify any two leaders who won the 1977 elections:
(A) Indira Gandhi and Sanjay Gandhi
(B) Morarji Desai and Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(C) Charan Singh and K.B. Sahay
(D) Jagjivan Ram and Raj Narain

(ii) What is MISA?

(A) Military Internal Security Act
(B) Maintenance of International Security Act
(C) Maintenance of Internal Security Act
(D) Ministry of Internal Security Affairs

(iii) Why was the Congress voted out of power in 1977 ?

(A) Economic reforms and increased foreign aid
(B) Imposition of emergency and misuse of laws
(C) Failure in conducting elections
(D) Increase in agricultural productivity

(iv) Who became the first non-Congress Prime Minister of India after the 1977 elections?
(A) Charan Singh
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) Raj Narain
(D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

25. In the given political outline map of India, four states have been shown as A, B, C and D.
Identify them on the basis of information given below and write their correct names in your
answer book with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned
alphabets as per the following format.

Continue on next page.....

Page 6 Sample Paper 14 CBSE 12th Political Science

S. No. of the Information Used Alphabet Concerned Name of the Country

(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(i) Place where Congress Session of 1920 took place.
(ii) State which was known as North-East Frontier agency.
(iii) State where Potti Sriramulu, a Congress leader went on an indefinite fast that led to his
death.
(iv) State which was earlier known as Madras Presidency.

26. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the questions that follow.
By 2011, the UN had 193 member states. These included almost all independent states. In the
UN General Assembly, all members have one vote each. In the UN Security Council, there are
five permanent members. These are: the United States, Russia, the United Kingdom, France
and China.
These states were selected as permanent members as they were the most powerful immediately
after the Second World War and they constituted the victory in the war.


Continue on next page.....
Page 7 Sample Paper 14

(i) How many votes are given to each member of the General Assembly?
(A) One
(B) Zero
(C) Two
(D) None
(ii) Which among the following state joined the UN before 2011 ?
(A) South Sudan
(B) Japan
(C) Vietnam
(D) Iraq
(iii) Why only some states are part of permanent membership in the UN Security Council?

Section - E

27. Define climate change and discuss any three global initiatives on climate change in detail.


O
What is Kyoto Protocol? What is the importance of Kyoto Protocol? Is India a signatory to
this?

28. Discuss the relationship between India and USA in the changing world order.


O
Analyse India’s role in the Non-Aligned Movement.

29. “Political parties are no longer aligned on ideological grounds in the new era of coalition
politics”. Explain.


O
Write about the establishment of Mandal Commission? Write any four recommendations of the
commission.

30. “The regional parties have started playing an important role in the Indian political system”.
Reflect on the given statement.


O
Name any three provisions of Article 370 which gives a special status to the state of Jammu and
Kashmir. Analyse the two opposite reactions provoked by this special status among the people.

******
Page 1 Sample Paper 15

Sample Paper 15
Class - 12th Exam - 2024 - 25
Political Science (028)
Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 80
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and follow them:
1. This question paper contains 30 questions. All questions are compulsory.
2. Question paper is divided into five sections A, B, C, D and E.
3. Section A questions number 1 to 12 are Multiple Choice type questions. Each question carries
1 mark.
4. Section B questions number 13 to 18 are Short Answer type questions. Each question carries
2 marks. Write answer to each question in 50 to 60 words.
5. Section C questions number 19 to 23 are Long Answer Type-I question. Each question carries
4 marks. Write answer to each question in 100 to 120 words.
6. Section D questions number 24 to 26 are Passage, Cartoon and Map-based questions. Answer
each question accordingly.
7. Section E questions number 27 to 30 are Long Answer Type-II questions. Each question
carries 6 marks. Write answer to each question in 170 to 180 words.
8. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.
9. In addition to this, note that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired
candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be
attempted by Visually Impaired candidates only

Section-A
1. The breakup of the Soviet Union had profound impacts on global politics.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the Causes and Consequences of
disintegration of the Soviet Union?
(A) Economic stagnation and political unrest contributed to the Soviet collapse.
(B) The disintegration led to the emergence of 15 independent republics.
(C) The end of the Soviet Union resulted in the immediate stabilization of Eastern Europe.
(D) The power vacuum post-disintegration influenced global geopolitical dynamics.

2. Assertion (A): ASEAN stands for the Association of Southeast Asian Nations.
Reason (R): ASEAN members have completely abolished all trade barriers among themselves.
Options:
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, but R is false.
(D) A is false, but R is true.
Page 2 Sample Paper 15 CBSE 12th Political Science

3. Match the terms given in column ‘A’ correctly with their meaning given in column ‘B’ and
choose the appropriate code as the correct answer:
Column A
1. Peace and Cooperation
2. India and its Neighbours
3. Monarchy in Nepal
4. Democracy in Pakistan
Column B
(i) Efforts to maintain harmonious relations and collaborative efforts among South Asian
countries.
(ii) India’s diplomatic, economic, and strategic relationships with neighboring countries like
Bangladesh, Nepal, etc.
(iii) The historical form of government that Nepal transitioned from to become a democratic
republic.
(iv) The challenges faced in establishing stable democratic governance amidst military influence.
Codes:
(A) 1-(i), 2-(ii), 3-(iii), 4-(iv)
(B) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii)
(C) 1-(iii), 2-(iv), 3-(i), 4-(ii)
(D) 1-(iv), 2-(iii), 3-(ii), 4-(i)

4. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The United Nations has undergone significant reforms to enhance its efficiency
post-Cold War.
Statement II: All proposed reforms to the United Nations have been successfully implemented.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true

5. Arrange the following components of India’s security strategy in the order they were emphasized:
I. Nuclear Deterrence
II. Economic Security
III. Cybersecurity
IV. Counter-Terrorism
Choose the correct option:
(A) I, II, IV, III
(B) II, I, IV, III
(C) I, IV, II, III
(D) II, I, III, IV
Page 3 Sample Paper 15

6. Identify and write the Incorrect pair:

(A) Global Commons – Areas like atmosphere and oceans
(B) Rights of Indigenous Peoples – Legal and moral rights to ancestral lands
(C) Common but Differentiated Responsibilities – All countries have the same responsibilities
(D) Resource Geopolitics – Strategic importance and competition over natural resources

7. The movement for Punjabi suba, a separate Punjabi-speaking state, was led by __________.
(A) All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam
(B) Shiromani Akali Dal
(C) Asom Gana Parishad
(D) Mizo National Front

8. Which alliance formed in 1998 led to Atal Bihari Vajpayee becoming the Prime Minister?
(A) National Front
(B) United Front
(C) National Democratic Alliance (NDA)
(D) United Progressive Alliance (UPA)

9. In which year did the princely state of Manipur hold its first elections, marking an important
step toward democratic governance?
(A) 1947, soon after the British announced their departure
(B) 1948, marking the beginning of political self-governance for Manipur
(C) 1949, around the time of Manipur’s official merger with India
(D) 1950, setting an example of democratic participation in the Northeast

10. During the “Era of One-Party Dominance,” opposition parties in India primarily served to
____________.
(A) Provide a balanced representation in government
(B) Support the Congress in policy-making
(C) Prevent authoritarian tendencies in the Congress
(D) Seek foreign alliances for development

11. The First Five Year Plan included large-scale investments in __________, which were
seen as essential for India’s agrarian economy.
(A) Heavy machinery
(B) Dams and irrigation projects
(C) Transportation networks
(D) Export industries
Page 4 Sample Paper 15 CBSE 12th Political Science

12. What was the primary goal of India’s foreign policy in the early years after independence?
(A) To become a member of the Western bloc
(B) To gain economic aid from colonial powers
(C) To maintain territorial integrity, sovereignty, and promote economic development
(D) To join military alliances to counter regional threats

Section-B

13. When was the reorganisation of North-East India completed and how?

14. What is economic planning and its importance in the Indian context?

15. What do you mean by alliance politics?

16. Explain the term Environmental Movement or activism.

17. What is the relationship between traditional security and co-operation?

18. In your opinion, how far is India justified in choosing the policy of non-alignment?

Section-C

19. What is WTO? When was it set up and what are its functions?

20. Explain the term ‘Privy Purse’ ? What was the reason behind it being abolished in 1970 by
Indira Gandhi?

21. How can the Euro pose a danger to the US dollar?

22. How has globalisation enhanced the position of a state?

23. Explain any three lessons learnt from the Emergency of 1975.
Page 5 Sample Paper 15

Section-D

24. Observe the picture given below and answer the following questions.

(i) In which year did the bipolar structure of world politics end?
(A) 1989
(B) 1990
(C) 1991
(D) 1992

(ii) Name two associations of nations that emerged in Europe and Asia:
(A) NATO and ASEAN
(B) European Union and SAARC
(C) European Union and ASEAN
(D) G20 and SCO

(iii) What is indicated by the first picture?

(A) The end of Cold War
(B) The history of Red China or Communist China
(C) The rise of Soviet economy
(D) The foundation of European Union

(iv) When did the Chinese revolution take place?

(A) 1945
(B) 1947
(C) 1949
(D) 1950
Page 6 Sample Paper 15 CBSE 12th Political Science

25. In the given outline political map of world, four countries have been marked as A, B, C and D.
Identify these on the basis of the information given below and write the correct names in your
answer book along with the respective serial number of the information used and the concerned
alphabets as per format that follows.
S.No. of the Information Used Concerned Alphabet Name of the Countries
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(i) To which country the UN Secretary General Dag Hammarskjold-Annan belonged?
(ii) To which country the UN Secretary General Kurt Waldheim belonged?
(iii) To which country the UN Secretary General Bourtoros Boutros-Ghali belonged?
(iv) To which country the UN Secretary General Kofi Annan belonged?

26. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow.
The interim government took a firm stance against the possible division of India into smaller
principalities of different sizes. The Muslim League opposed the Indian National Congress
and took the view that the states should be free to adopt any course they liked. Sardar Patel,
India’s Deputy Prime Minister and the Home Minister during the crucial period, immediately
after Independence, played a historic role in negotiating with the rulers of Princely States in
bringing most of them into the Indian Union.
(i) Which government has been referred to as the interim government?
(A) Regional Parties Government
(B) State Government
(C) Indian National Congress Government
(D) None of these
Page 7 Sample Paper 15

(ii) How the leader played a historic role in the integration of states?
(A) By not trying to control through army rule
(B) By skill-fully negotiating
(C) By forcefully convincing
(D) None of the above
(iii) Why did the Muslim League oppose the Indian National Congress?

Section-E

27. Was the declaration of emergency in 1975 necessary? Support your answer with three suitable
arguments.


O
What are the three democratic upsurges that emerged in the post independence history of
India? Explain.

28. Analyse the First Gulf War. Why was it called a computer war and a video game war?


O
Explain any six outcomes of the disintegration of the Soviet Union.

29. Describe any six issues of consensus to show that in the midst fo severe competitions and
conflicts a consensus has appeared among most political parties.


O
Analyse the rise and fall of any two coalition governments from the year 1989 to 2004.

30. Explain the contribution of Jawaharlal Nehru in formulating the Foreign Policy of India.


O
Discuss the strained relationship between India and China which led to the Chinese invasion
of 1962?

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