08-12-2024

1001CMD303029240047 MD

PHYSICS

1) Find Current in Resistance 15Ω as shown in figure -

(1) 2 Amp form P to Q

(2) 2 Amp from to Q to P
(3) 4 Amp from Q to P
(4) 4 Amp from P to Q

2) A galvanometer of resistance 10Ω has ig current flowing through it. Find the shunt required so
that deflection of galvanometer becomes 30% of its maximum value :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 5 Ω

3) A current sensitivity of a galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular deflection
per unit voltage) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the galvanometer is :

(1) 250 Ω
(2) 40 Ω
(3) 500 Ω
(4) 25 Ω

4) Find current in the circuit if power dissipated in R is maximum

(1) 1 A
(2) 0.25 A
(3) 0.5 A
(4) 0.125 A
5) Two bulbs marked 100 W, 220 V and 200 W, 220 V are connected in series and the combination is
now connected across a 220 V main supply. Total power dissipated in the circuit is

(1) 80 W
(2) 40 W
(3) 33.5 W
(4) 66.67 W

6) The potential difference across the terminals of a battery is 50 V when 11 A current is drawn. The
potential difference is 60 V when 1 A current is drawn. The internal resistance of the battery is

(1) 1 Ω
(2) 2 Ω
(3) 4 Ω
(4) 5 Ω

7) The Galvanometer G reads zero. If the battery A has negligible internal resistance the value of

resistance 'X' will be :–

(1) 200Ω
(2) 50Ω
(3) 500Ω
(4) 100Ω

8) Six identical cells each of emf E & internal resistance r, are joined in series to form closed circuit
Only one cell A is joined with reverse polarity. Then the terminal potential difference across cell (A)
is :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Three resistances of values 2 ohm, 3 ohm and 6 ohm be connected to give an effective resistance
of 4 ohm is :–

(1) 6 ohm and 2 ohm in parallel with 3 ohm in series.

(2) 6 ohm and 3 ohm in parallel with 2 ohm in series.
(3) 2 ohm and 3 ohm in series with 6 ohm in parallel.
(4) 6 ohm and 2 ohm in series with 3 ohm in parallel.

10)

If we have n identical cell of emf ε & internal resitance r than -

Column - I Column - II

(A) Net emf of n cell in series (p) ε

Net emf of n cell in

(B) (q) nr
parallel

Net internal resistance of

(C) (r) r/n
n cell in series

Net internal resistance of

(D) (s) nε
n cell in parallel
(1) (A) → (s); (B) → (p); (C) → (q); (D) → (r)
(2) (A) → (p); (B) → (s); (C) → (q); (D) → (r)
(3) (A) → (r); (B) → (p); (C) → (s); (D) → (q)
(4) (A) → (p); (B) → (q); (C) → (s); (D) → (r)

11) Current density at an area is A/m2. The current through the

area is :-

(1) 0A
(2) 2A
(3) 9A
(4) 6A

12) A 150 m long metal wire connects point A and B. The electrical potential at Point B is 50V less
than at point A. If the conductivity of the metal is 60 × 106 mho/m then magnitude of the current
density in the wire is equal to :-

(1) 11 × 10–4 A/m2

(2) 5.5 × 10–3 A/m2
(3) 4 × 107 A/m2
(4) 20 × 106 A/m2

13) For a galvanometer of resistance 80Ω, to calculate its figure of merit, following experimental
data is obtained. Calculate its figure of merit (in A/div.) (approx.) :

EMF of cells in
S. No. volts Resistance from RB R(Ω) Deflection θ(div)
E(V)

1 2 5000 10

2 4 10000 10
(1) 2 × 10–5
(2) 5 × 10–4
(3) 2 × 10–4
(4) 4 × 10–5

14) 100 wires of unequal resistances are connected in parallel then net resistance is x. Now one wire
is removed then net resistance becomes y, resistance of removed wire will be -

(1) xy

(2)

(3)

(4) None

15) The resistance of a bulb filaments is 100Ω at a temperature of 100ºC. If its temperature
coefficient of resistance be 0.005/ºC, its resistance will become 200 Ω at a temperature of :-

(1) 200ºC
(2) 300ºC
(3) 400ºC
(4) 500ºC

16) Two square metal plates A and B are of the same thickness and of same material. The side of B is
twice that of A. These are connected as shown in series. If the resistances of A and B are denoted by

RA and RB, then is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) If a wire is stretched so that its length is 40% more than its initial length. The percentage
increase in the resistance of the wire is :

(1) 80%
(2) 96%
(3) 100%
(4) 40%

18) Find charge on 2μF and energy stored in 4μF.

(1) 50 μC, 40 μJ
(2) 50 μC, 50 μJ
(3) 10 μC, 40 μJ
(4) None

19) The work done by battery in charging fully both the capacitor is :

(1)
CV2

(2)
CV2

(3)
CV2
(4) CV2

20) Find potential at A and B in the given circuit -

(1) 40 V, 0 V
(2) 50 V, 0 V
(3) 20 V, –20 V
(4) 40 V, –10 V

21) Calculate final charge on 1μF capacitor :-

(1) 6 μC
(2) 2 μC
(3) 7.5 μC
(4) 2.5 μC

22) Voltage variation shown with distance between capacitor plates then ratio of dielectric

constants =?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A parallel plate capacitor charged by a battery, first battery is removed and then the dielectric
slab between the plates is removed, match the following list

List-A List-B

(1) Capacitance (A) Will increase

Stored
(2) (B) will decrease
energy

will remain
(3) Charge (C)
constant

(4) Electric field

(1) (1)→B, (2)→A, (3)→C, (4)→A
(2) (1)→A, (2)→A, (3)→C, (4)→B
(3) (1)→C, (2)→B, (3)→A, (4)→C
(4) (1)→A, (2)→B, (3)→C, (4)→A

24) For an R-C discharging circuit, current decay is shown. Then

[If τ = time constant]

(1) t0 <τ
(2) t0 >τ
(3) t0 = τ
(4) None

25) If galvanometer resistance is 1Ω then select correct statement/statements ?

(1) No current flows in (G)

(2) 0.2 A current flows in (G)
(3) Potential difference across 4µf is 1 volt
(4) Potential difference across 5µf is 1.2 volt

(1) 1,2,3
(2) 2,3,4
(3) 1 only
(4) All

26) A slab of material of dielectric constant K has the same area A as the plates of a parallel

plate capacitor, and has thickness , where d is the separation of the plates. The
capacitance when the slab is inserted between the plates is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
27) The graph shows the variation of voltage V across the plates of two capacitors A and B versus
increase of charge Q stored in them. Which of the capacitors has higher capacitance ?

(1) capacitor A
(2) capacitor B
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of these

28) In a parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates, each plate has an area of 6 × 10–3 m2
and the distance between the plates is 3 mm.If this capacitor is connected to a 100V supply, what is
the charge on each plate of the capacitor ?

(1) 1.77 × 10–9 C

(2) 2.77 × 10–9 C
(3) 1 × 10–8 C
(4) 4.7 × 10–6 C

29) A 600 pF capacitor is charged by a 200V supply, Then, it is disconnected from the supply and is
connected to another uncharged 600 pF capacitor. How much electrostatic energy is lost in the
process ?

(1) 12 × 10–6 J
(2) 8 × 10–6 J
(3) 6 × 10–6 J
(4) 4 × 10–6 J

30) Two similar spheres having +q and -q charge are kept at a certain distance. The force acts
between the two if F. If in the middle of two spheres, another similar sphere having +q charge is
kept, then it experience a force in magnitude and direction as:-

(1) zero, having no direction

(2) 8F, towards +q charge
(3) 8F, towards -q charge
(4) 4F, towards +q charge

31) Two charges 9e and 3e are placed at a separation r. The distance of the point where the electric
field intensity will be zero, is :–

(1)
from 9e charge
(2)
from 9e charge

(3)
from 3e charge

(4)
from 3e charge

32) Charges Q1 and Q2 are at points A and B of a right angle triangle OAB (see figure). The resultant
electric field at point O is perpendicular to the hypotenuse, then Q1/Q2 is equal to :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) A charge 'q' is placed at one corner of a cube as shown in figure. The flux of electrostatic field

through the shaded area is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) An oil drop of radius 2 mm with a density 3g cm–3 is held stationary under a constant electric
field 3.55 × 105 V m–1 in the Millikan's oil drop experiment. What is the number of excess electrons
that the oil drop will possess ? (consider g = 9.81 m/s2)

(1) 48.8 × 1011

(2) 1.73 × 1010
(3) 17.3 × 1010
(4) 1.73 × 1012

35) A solid metal sphere of radius R having charge q is enclosed inside the concentric conducting
spherical shell of inner radius a and outer radius b as shown in figure. The approximate variation

electric field as a function of distance r from centre O is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Four charges 2C, – 3C, –4C and 5C respectively are placed at the four corners of a square. Which
of the following statements is true for the point of intersection of the diagonals ?

(1) E = 0, V = 0
(2) E ≠ 0, V = 0
(3) E = 0, V ≠ 0
(4) E ≠ 0, V ≠ 0
37) Four equal point charges Q each are placed in the xy plane at (0, 2), (4, 2), (4, –2) and (0, –2).
The work required to put a fifth charge Q at the origin of the coordinate system will be:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Concentric metallic hollow spheres of radii R and 4R hold charges Q1 and Q2 respectively. Given
that surface charge densities of the concentric spheres are equal, the potential difference V(R) –
V(4R) is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) A two point charges 4q and –q are fixed on the x-axis at x = and x = , respectively. If a third
point charge 'q' is taken from the origin to x = d along the semicircle as shown in the figure, the

energy of the charge will :

increase by
(1)

increase by
(2)

decrease by
(3)

decrease by
(4)
40)

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : An electric dipole is placed at the centre of a hollow sphere. The flux of electric field
through the sphere is zero but the electric field is not zero anywhere in the sphere.
Statement II : If R is the radius of a solid metallic sphere and Q be the total charge on it. The
electric field at any point on the spherical surface of radius r (< R) is zero but the electric flux
passing through this closed spherical surface of radius r is not zero.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

41) Three concentric shell of radius R, 2R, 3R are placed as shown in figure. Find electric field at

point P.

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) When a body is earth connected, electrons from the earth flow into the body. This means the
body is .....

(1) Unchanged
(2) Charged positively
(3) Charged negatively
(4) an insulator

43) Two point charges + 3μC and +8μC repel each other with a force of 40 N. If a charge of –5μC is
added to each of them, then the force between them will become :-

(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 30 N
(4) 40 N

44) Which of the following is not a unit of charge ?

(1) Faraday
(2) Stat coulomb
(3) Coulomb
(4) Ampere/second

45) Consider the charge configuration and spherical Gaussian surface as shown in the figure. When
calculating the flux of the electric field over the spherical surface, the electric field will be due to :

(1) Charge q2
(2) Only the positive charges
(3) All the charges
(4) Charge +q1 and –q1

CHEMISTRY

1) The correct graph regarding first order reaction is–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

2) For a first-order reaction A → B, the reaction rate at reactant concentration of 0.01 M is found to
be 2.0 × 10–5 mol L–1s–1. The half-life period of the reaction is :-

(1) 220 s
(2) 30 s
(3) 300 s
(4) 347 s

3) At 300 K the half-life of a sample of a gaseous compound initially at 1 atm is 100 sec. When the
pressure is 0.5 atm the half-life is 50 sec. The order of reaction is :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

4) In a zero - order reaction, for every 10 degree rise of temperature, the rate is doubled. If the
temperature is increased from 25°C to 75°C, the rate of the reaction will become :-

(1) 32 times
(2) 64 times
(3) 128 times
(4) 256 times

5) In the Arrhenius plot of ln k vs , a linear plot is obtained with a slope of –2 × 104. Then energy of
activation of the reaction (in kJ mol–1) is (R value is 8.3 JK–1 mol–1) :

(1) 83
(2) 166
(3) 249
(4) 332

6) An endothermic reaction A → B have an activation energy 15 kcal/mol and the ΔH is 5 kcal/mol.

The activation energy of the reaction B → A is :-

(1) 20 kcal/mol
(2) 15 kcal/mol
(3) 10 kcal/mol
(4) Zero

7) For an elementary reaction 2P + Q → R. The differential rate equation is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

8) The rate constant for a first order decomposition reaction is given by :-

log k = 10 – . Then, what will be activation energy in kcal/mol ?

(1) 4.60
(2) 17.6
(3) 3.2
(4) 9.8

9) Assertion : On increasing temperature, rate of reaction increases.

Reason : On increasing temperature no. of activated molecules increases.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

10) Rate of formation of SO3 in the following reaction 2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3 is 100 gm/min. Rate of
disappearance of O2 is:

(1) 50 gm/min
(2) 200 gm/min
(3) 40 gm/min
(4) 20 gm/min

11) For a hypothetical reaction

A2 + B2 ⇌ 2AB
Mechanism
A2 ⇌ A + A (fast)
A + B2 → AB + B (Slow)
A + B → AB (Fast)
The order of the reaction will be ?

(1) 2
(2) 0
(3) 1.5
(4) 1

12) For the reaction A + B → C, starting with different initial concentration of A and B, initial rate of
reaction were determined graphically in four experiments
 [A]0/M [B]0/M
S.No. Rate/(M sec–1)
(initial conc.) (initial conc.)

1 1.6 × 10–3 5 × 10–2 10–3

2 3.2 × 10–3 5 × 10–2 4 × 10–3

3 1.6 × 10–3 10–1 2 × 10–3

4 3.2 × 10–3 10–1 8 × 10–3

Rate law for reaction from above data is :-

(1) r = k[A]2[B]2
(2) r = k[A]2[B]
(3) r = k[A] [B]2
(4) r = k[A] [B]

13)

How many of the following are correct in given statements?

(a) Catalyst provides an alternative pathway to reaction mechanism.
(b) Catalyst raises the activation energy.
(c) Catalyst alters enthalpy change (ΔH) of reaction.
(d) Order of overall reaction is same as molecularity of the slowest step (Provided reaction has no
intermediate in slow step)
(e) Molecularity of slowest step is never zero or non-integer
(f) For elementary reaction molecularity of reaction is less than it's order of reaction.

(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3

14) The ratio of weights of hydrogen gas liberated and magnesium deposited by passing the same
amount of electricity from aqueous H2SO4 and fused MgSO4 are :

(1) 1 : 8
(2) 1 : 12
(3) 1 : 16
(4) None

15) If is 1.69 V and is 1.40 V, then will be :-

(1) 0.19 V
(2) 2.945 V
(3) 1.255 V
(4) None of these

16) The cell reaction of following cell will be spontaneous if

Pt|H2 (P1 atm)|H+ (1M)|| |H+ (1M) |H2 (P2 atm)|Pt

(1) P1 = P2
(2) P1 > P2
(3) P1< P2
(4) P2 = 1 atm

17) If a spoon of copper metal is placed in a solution of ferrous sulphate :-

(1) Cu will precipitate out

(2) Iron will precipitate
(3) Cu and Fe will precipitate
(4) No reaction will take place

18) What will be standard cell potential of galvanic cell with the following reaction ?

2Cr(s) + 3Cd2+(aq) → + 3Cd(s)

[Given : = –0.74 V and

= – 0.40 V]

(1) 0.74 V
(2) 1.14 V
(3) 0.34 V
(4) –0.34 V

19) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

If and ,

2+
(1) Cu ions can be reduced by H2(g)
(2) Sn can be oxidized by H+
2+
(3) Sn ions can be reduced by H2
(4) Sn can be oxidized by Cu2+

20) For the galvanic cell is 0.46 V. Hence Ecell is :-

(1) 0.460 V
(2) 0.519 V
(3) 0.401 V
(4) 0.430 V

21) The ionic conductance of H+ and SO42– are 350 and 80 Scm2eq–1, hence eq. conductance (S
cm2eq–1) and molar conductance (Scm2mol–1) of H2SO4 will be :-

(1) 430, 430

(2) 860, 430
(3) 215, 430
(4) 430, 860

22) Specific conductance of NaCl is maximum for which of the following solution :-

(1) 0.001 N
(2) 0.01 N
(3) 0.1 N
(4) 1.0 N

23)

Which of the following statement is wrong ?

(1) Specific conductance is the conductance of 1 cm3 electrolyte solution

(2) Specific conductance increases while equivalent conductance decreases on increasing dilution.
The maximum value of equivalent conductance for weak electrolyte can not be determined by
(3)
extrapolation of curve in between and (concentration)1/2.
(4) The conductivity of metal is due to mobility of electrons.

24) The equivalent conductivity of 0.1 N CH3COOH at 25°C is 80 ohm–1cm2eq–1 and at infinite dilution
is 400 ohm–1cm2eq–1. The degree of dissociation of CH3COOH is :-

(1) 1
(2) 0.2
(3) 0.1
(4) 0.5

25) Ksp of BaSO4 is 1 × 10–10 M2. If the limiting ionic conductances of Ba2+ and ions are 64 and
80 ohm–1cm2 mol–1 respectively then its specific conductance is :-

(1) 1.44 × 10–8 ohm–1cm–1

(2) 144 × 10–8 ohm–1cm–1
(3) 1.44 × 108 ohm–1cm–1
(4) 144 × 108 ohm–1cm–1

26) Match the following process with quantity of charge required

Column-
Column-I
II

Electrolysis of H2O to give

(A) (P) 3F
5.6L O2 at STP

Conversion of 0.5 mole Cr2O72–

(B) (Q) 4F
into Cr3+
 (C) Reduction of 18g Al3+ into Al (R) 1F

(D) Electrolysis of 2L, 1M CuSO4 (S) 2F

solution to give Cu
(1) A → Q, B → P, C → S, D → R
(2) A → S, B → R, C → Q, D → P
(3) A → R, B → P, C → S, D → Q
(4) A → P, B → S, C → R, D → Q

27) Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding lead storage battery :-

(1) It is a type of secondary battery.

(2) Anode is of lead and cathode is a grid of lead packed with lead dioxide.
Cell reaction during charging is
(3)
Pb(s) + PbO2(s) + 2H2SO4(aq.) → 2PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(ℓ)
(4) 38% solution of sulphuric acid is used as an electrolyte.

28) The amount of heat released when 20 ml of 0.5 N NaOH is mixed with 100 ml, 0.1 M HCl is x kJ.
The heat of neutralization is :-

(1) – x

(2)
–
(3) – 10 x
(4) – 100 x

29) The enthalpy of solution of CuSO4.5H2O(s) and CuSO4(s) are respectively –11.7 and –65.5 kJ/mol.
The hydration enthalpy of anhydrous CuSO4 will be :-

(1) 53.8 kJ/mol

(2) –9.8 kJ/mol
(3) –77.2 kJ/mol
(4) –53.8 kJ/mol

30) KMnO4 reacts with ferrous ammonium sulphate according to the equation MnO4– + 5Fe2+ + 8H+
→ Mn2+ + 5Fe3+ + 4H2O, here 10 mL of 0.1 M KMnO4 is equivalent to :

(1) 20 mL of 0.1 M FeSO4

(2) 30 mL of 0.1 M FeSO4
(3) 40 mL of 0.1 M FeSO4
(4) 50 mL of 0.1 M FeSO4

31) The volume of 0.1 M oxalic acid that can be completely oxidised by 20 ml of 0.025M KMnO4 in
acidic medium :
(1) 125 ml
(2) 25 ml
(3) 12.5 ml
(4) 37.5 ml

32) Suitable indicator for the acid-base titration of HCOOH against KOH is.

(1) Methyl orange

(2) Methyl red
(3) Phenolphthalein
(4) Thymol Blue

33) On reaction of I– with H2O2 ; H2O2 acts as -

(1) An oxidising agent

(2) A reducing agent
(3) Both oxidising as well as reducing agent
(4) Catalyst

34) Maximum elevation in boiling point will be observed in which of the following solution :-

(1) 0.1 M CaCl2

(2) 0.1 M NaCl
(3) 0.1 M CH3COONa
(4) 0.1 M Urea

35) The vapour pressure of pure benzene at a certain temperature is 640 mm of Hg. A non volatile
non electrolyte solute having 2.175 g is added to 39.0 g of benzene. The vapour pressure of the
solution is 600 mm of Hg. The molecular weight of solute is :-

(1) 40.38
(2) 50.12
(3) 52.75
(4) 65.25

36) Assertion : For an ideal solution, ΔHmix is zero.

Reason : In an ideal solution A-B interaction are less than A-A & B-B interactions.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

37) Statement-I : Air present in oxygen cylinder of scuba divers is diluted with helium.
Statement-II : Helium has lower kH value than nitrogen.
(1) Statement I & II both are correct
(2) Statement I & II both are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

38) Two pure liquids A and B have vapour pressure in the ratio 1 : 5 at a certain temperature.
Assume A and B form an ideal solution and the ratio of mole fractions of A to B in the vapour phase
is 4 : 5. Then the mole fraction of B in the solution at the same temperature is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) What will be the molality of a solution of glucose in water which is 10% w/W ?

(1) 0.01 m
(2) 0.617 m
(3) 0.668 m
(4) 1.623 m

40) Calculate normality of 2.1% (w/V) H2SO4 solution ?

(1) 2.14 N
(2) 4.28 N
(3) 0.428 N
(4) 0.214 N

41) The volume strength of 1.5 N H2O2 solution is :

(1) 8.4 V
(2) 4.8 V
(3) 5.2 V
(4) 8.8 V

42) Relative decrease in vapour pressure of aqueous solution of NaCl is 0.182. Then number of
moles of NaCl present in 180g of H2O is :-

(1) 2.2 mol

(2) 1.11 mol
(3) 3.2 mol
(4) 4.2 mol
43) The molal elevation constant of water = 0.52 K kg mol–1. The boiling point of 1.0 molal aqueous
KCl solution (assuming complete dissociation of KCl), should be :-

(1) 100.52°C
(2) 101.04°C
(3) 99.48°C
(4) 98.96°C

44) Of the following 0.10m aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the largest freezing point
depression?

(1) KCl
(2) C6H12O6
(3) Al2(SO4)3
(4) K2SO4

45) A 0.2 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid HX is 20% ionized. The freezing point of the solution
is (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1 for water) :

(1) –0.45°C
(2) –0.9°C
(3) –0.31°C
(4) –0.53°C

BIOLOGY

1) Development of fruit without fertilisation is known as -

(1) Parthenogenesis
(2) Parthenocarpy
(3) Apospory
(4) Diplospory

2) The outer covering of endosperm in maize grain separates the embryo by a __A__ layer called
__B__ :-

A B

(1) Lipid Aleurone layer

(2) Proteinous Aleurone layer

(3) Proteinous Scutellum

(4) Lipid Scutellum

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) Alternate phyllotaxy - Mustard

(2) Opposite phyllotaxy - Sunflower
(3) Whorled phyllotaxy - Guava
(4) Reticulate Venation - Monocot plants

4) Syncarpous gynoecium condition is found in -

(1) Lotus
(2) Mustard
(3) Tomato
(4) Both (2) and (3)

5) Polyadelphons androecium is found in :-

(1) Pea
(2) Lily
(3) Citrus
(4) China rose

6) Which of the following is an asymmetrical flower ?

(1) Canna
(2) Golmohr
(3) Datura
(4) Pisum

7) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) When stamens are attached to the petals, they are epipetalous as in brinjal.
(2) The stamens united into more than two bundles as in china rose.
There may be variation in the length of stamen filament within a flower, as in Salvia and
(3)
mustard.
(4) When stamens are attached to the perianth they are epiphyllous.

8) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as assertion A and the other is labelled as reason
R.
Assertion : A flower is defined as modified shoot where in the shoot apical meristem changes to
floral meristem.
Reason : Node of the shoot gets condensed to produce different floral appendages laterally at
successive internode instead of leaves.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

9) In china rose, aestivation is -

(1) Vexillary
(2) Imbricate
(3) Valvate
(4) Twisted

10) The roots develops from other than the radicle in Monstera, are called-

(1) Tap roots

(2) Prop roots
(3) Adventitious roots
(4) Pneumatophores

11) In endodermis of dicot roots, deposition of __________ forms casparian strips :

(1) Lignin
(2) Suberin
(3) Algin
(4) Resin

12) Root hairs are -

(1) Multicellular, elongated

(2) Unicellular elongated
(3) Originates from epidermis
(4) Both 2 and 3 are correct

13) The T.S. of plant part showed tetrarch, radial and exarch xylem with endodermis and pericycle.
The plant part is identified as :-

(1) Monocot Root

(2) Dicot Root
(3) Dicot Stem
(4) Monocot stem

14) __________ is also called as fundamental tissue system:

(1) Ground tissue system

(2) Vascular tissue system
(3) Epidermol tissue system
(4) All of these

15) Stomatal apparatus include:

(1) Stomatal aperature

(2) Guard cell
(3) Subsidiary cell
(4) All of these

16) Endarch and exarch protoxylem are found respectively in :

(1) Dicot root and monocot root

(2) Dicot stem and dicot root
(3) Dicot leaf and monocot leaf
(4) Dicot leaf and monocot stem

17) In dicot stem the large number of vascular bundles are arranged in _______ :

(1) Ring
(2) Scattered
(3) Group
(4) (1) & (2) both

18) Read carefully the statements about root and identify the incorrect statement :

(1) The anatomy of the monocot root is similar to the dicot root in many respect.
(2) Monocot roots show secondary growth generally
(3) In dicot root thick walled parenchymatous cells are called pericycle
(4) Casparian strips are present in endodermis.

19) Read carefully the given statements and find out the incorrect statement with respect to
dicotyledonous leaf :

(1) The epidermis covers both the upper surface (Adaxial) and lower surface (abaxial)
(2) The adaxial surface generally bears more stomata than the abaxial surface.
(3) Mesophyll is divided into palisade parenchyma and the spongy parenchyma.
(4) Leaf has conspicuous cuticle on both of the surface.

20) Polyarch condition with large and well developed pith is present in :-

(1) Dicot stem

(2) Monocot stem
(3) Dicot root
(4) Monocot root

21) Meiosis can be observed in :-

(1) Spore mother cells
(2) Microspores
(3) Megaspores
(4) Tapetal cells

22) In which of the following plants floral reward is providing safe places to lay eggs?

(1) Amorphophallus
(2) Yucca
(3) Grasses
(4) Both 1 & 2

23) What is the ploidy of the cell of Dyad of megaspore?

(1) Haploid
(2) Diploid
(3) Triploid
(4) Polyploid

24) Which structure guides the entry of pollen tube in embryo sac?

(1) Egg apparatus

(2) Integument
(3) Antipodal cell
(4) Filiform apparatus

25) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(1) In majority of flowering plants, the development of female gametophyte is monosporic.

In mature embryo sac, polar nuclei are situated below the egg apparatus in the large central
(2)
cell.
(3) In embryo sac, at the micropylar end, three cells are called antipodals
(4) The typical angiosperm embryo sac is 7-celled and 8-nucleated

26) In water lily and water hyacinth pollination take place by .................

(1) Insects
(2) Bats
(3) Wind
(4) (1) and (3) Both

27) What is the percentage of angiosperm that shed pollen at 3 celled stage?

(1) Over 60%

(2) Less than 40%
(3) All Angiosperms
(4) Few Angiosperm

28) Statement-I : Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils because of the presence of
sporopollenin.
Statement-II : Generative cell is large and floats in the cytoplasm of the vegetative cell.

(1) Both are correct

(2) Both are incorrect
(3) Only statement-II is correct
(4) Only Statement-I is correct

29) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is known
(1)
as geitonogamy.
(2) Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed set even in the absence of pollinators.
(3) Chasmogamous flowers are found in Viola, Oxalis, and Commelina
Majority of plants use abiotic agents for pollination and only a small proportion of plants use
(4)
biotic agents for pollination.

30) Assertion : Papaya and date palm are Dioecious plants.

Reason : Male and female flowers are present on different plants in papaya and date palm and
flowers are unisexual.

(1) Assertion and Reason both are correct and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct Reason is incorrect
(3) Assertion is incorrect Reason is correct
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.

31) Match the Column-I with Column-II.

Column-I Column-II

A Funicle i. Mass of cell within ovule with food

B Hilum ii. Basal part of ovule

C Integument iii. One or two protective layers of ovule

D Chalaza iv. Region where body of ovule fuses with the funicle

E Nucellus v. Stalk with which ovule is attached

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv, E-v
(2) A-v, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii, E-i
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii, E-v
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-v, D-ii, E-iv

32) Given below are two statements.

Statement-I : In flowering plants, following the double fertilization embryo development precedes
endosperm development.
Statement-II : Endosperm tissue in angiosperm is triploid in nature.

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

33) Which of the following pair of plant contain swollen placenta with superior oblique ovary?

(1) Petunia, Mustard

(2) Belladona, Pea
(3) Potato, Tomato
(4) Tobacco, Lily

34) Pea, Canna, mustard, gulmohar, datura,

How many of the above plants have zygomorphic flowers ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Given below are two statements-

Statement-I : The corolla is the outermost whorl of the flower.
Statement-II : Corolla may be tubular, bell-shaped, funnel-shaped or wheel-shaped.
Choose the correct answer :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

36) Match Column I and Column II with Column III.

Sunflower,
(A) Marginal (I) (1)
Marigold

Dianthus,
(B) Axile (II) (2)
Primrose

Mustard,
(C) Parietal (III) (3)
Argemone
 Free China rose,
(D) (IV) (4)
central Tomato

(E) Basal (V) (5) Pea, Bean

(1) A-V, 5; B-II, 4; C-I, 3; D-III, 2; E-IV, 1

(2) A-I, 5; B-II, 4; C-III, 3; D-IV, 2; E-V, 1
(3) A-V, 1; B-II, 4; C-I, 2; D-III, 3; E-IV, 5
(4) A-V, 1; B-III, 2; C-II, 4; D-I, 5; E-IV, 3

37) Which amongst the following is/are part of stomatal apparats ?

(1) A, B, C and D
(2) B, C and D
(3) B and C only
(4) Only D

38) Read column I and II identify their correct match :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Dicot stem (i) Sclerenchymatous hypodermis

(B) Monocot stem (ii) Collenchymatous hypodermis

(C) Dicot root (iii) Conjoint closed vascular tissue

(D) Dicot leaves (iv) Radial vascular tissue

(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

39) Select the incorrect statement from the following.

(1) The meristem which occurs between mature tissue is known as intercalary meristem.
(2) Apical meristems & intercalary meristem are primary meristems.
(3) Parenchyma & xylem are simple & complex tissue respectively.
 The newly formed cells become structurally & functionally specialised and have ability to divide
(4)
such cells are know has permanent tissue or mature cells.

40) Given below are two statements-

Statement-I : The tissue between upper & lower epidermis of leaf is known as mesophyll.
Statement-II : In grasses, certain adaxial epidermal cells along the veins modify themselves into
large empty colorless cells. These are called as bulliform cells.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is false
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is true.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.

41) Statement-I : Seeds generate new genetic combinations leading to variations.

Statement-II : Seeds are the product of sexual reproduction.

(1) Statement I & II both are correct.

(2) Statement I & II both are incorrect.
(3) Only statement I is correct.
(4) Only statement II is correct.

42) Which of the following sequence of development of embryo sac is correct?

(1) Nucellus → Megaspore → Megaspore Mother cell → Embryo sac

(2) Nucellus → Megaspore mother cell → Megaspore → Embryo sac
(3) Nucellus → Megasporangiom → Megaspore → Embryo sac
(4) Nucellus → Microgametophyte → Megaspore → Embryo sac

43) Which of following statements is incorrect ?

Generally, monocotyledonous seeds are endospermic but some as in orchids are non-
(1)
endospermic.
(2) The egg apparatus consists of one synergid and one egg cell
(3) Fruit is the characteristic of flowering plants
(4) Only a small proportion of plants use abiotic agents in pollination

44) The primary endosperm cell becomes ______ and zygote becomes________.

(1) Embryo, endosperm

(2) Embryo, integument
(3) Integument, embryo
(4) Endosperm, embryo

45) Perisperm is -

(1) Outer part of embryo sac

(2) Remains of Endosperm
(3) Remains of nucellus
(4) Degenerated synergids

46) Read the following statements

(a) The oviducts, uterus and vagina constitute the female accessory ducts.
(b) Each ovary is covered by a thin epithelium which encloses the ovarian stroma.
(c) The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into the rete testis through vasa efferentia.
(d) In testis, the immature male germ cells produce sperms.
(e) Secretion of epididymis, vas deference, seminal vesicle and prostate are essential for maturation
and motility of sperms.
Choose the option having all correct statements.

(1) a,b,c
(2) a,d,e
(3) b,c,e
(4) c,d,e

47) Match the list - I with list-II.

List-I List-II

(A) Uterus (i) Finger like projections

(B) Clitoris (ii) Inverted pear shaped

(C) Fimbriae (iii) Highly coiled

(D) Seminiferous tubules (iv) Tiny finger like structure

(1) A (ii), B (i), C (iv), D (iii)
(2) A (ii), B (iii), C (iv), D (i)
(3) A (ii), B (i), C (iii), D (iv)
(4) A (ii), B (iv), C (i), D (iii)

48) Assertion : The Leydig cells are present outside the seminiferous tubules.
Reason : Leydig cells synthesise and secrete testicular hormones called androgens.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

49) Match the events given in list-I that takes place in the ovary and uterus with the phases of
menstrual cycle given in list-II.

List-I List-II

A Regeneration of endometrium I. Menstrual phase

B. Rupture of Graafian follicle II. Proliferative phase

 C. Development of corpus luteum III. Secretory phase

D. Disintegration of endometrium IV. Ovulatory phase

Choose the correct answer from the option given below.

(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

50) Meiosis-I of primary oocyte which takes place during oogenesis in human females is:

(1) Reductional division with unequal cytokinesis

(2) Equational division with unequal cytokinesis
(3) Reductional division with equal cytokinesis
(4) Equational division with equal cytokinesis

51) Which of the following is not a haploid structure ?

(1) Secondary spermatocyte

(2) Spermatid
(3) Spermatogonium
(4) Sperm

52) Identify the correct option (A), (B), (C) and (D) with respect to spermatogenesis.

(1) LH, Interstitial cells, Androgens, Spermiogenesis

(2) LH, Sertoli cells, Estrogen, Spermiogenesis
(3) ICSH, Sertoli cells, Androgens, Spermiogenesis
(4) ICSH, Sertoli cells, Inhibin, Spermiogenesis

53) Given below are two statements.

Statement-I : The uterus opens into vagina through the narrow cervix.
Statement-II : Cervical canal along with vagina forms the birth canal.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are ture.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
(3) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true.

54) After implantation, chorionic villi and uterine tissue become interdigitated with each other to
form :

(1) Chorion and amnion

(2) Umbilical cord
(3) Placenta
(4) Yolk sac

55) Newly formed cell by clevage is called :

(1) Blastopore
(2) Blastomere
(3) Blastula
(4) Blastocyst

56) Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) Progesterone is essential for maintenance of the endometrium.

(2) No more oogonia are formed and added after birth.
(3) The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa by the process called spermiogenesis.
(4) In the presence of fertilisation, the corpus luteum starts degenerating.

57) Find out the correct match.

(1) Testis-Secondary sex organ

(2) Penis - Insemination
(3) Sertoli cell - Secretes progesterone
(4) Leydig cell - Secretes FSH

58) Vas deferens receives a duct from __ B __ and opens into urethra as the ejaculatory duct.
Fill in the blank (B) with suitable option.

(1) B = Seminal vesicle

(2) B = Bulbourethral gland
(3) B = Bartholin gland
(4) B = Prostate gland

59) The structure which opens into epididymis is:

(1) Vas efferens

(2) Vas deferens
(3) Ejaculatory duct
(4) Urethra

60) Which of the following hormones is responsible for the labor pain during child birth ?

(1) Relaxin
(2) Oxytocin
(3) Prolactin
(4) Progesterone

61) The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into-

(1) 20-25 mammary lobes

(2) 15-20 mammary lobes
(3) 30-40 mammary lobes
(4) 10-15 mammary lobes

62) The ______ are folds of fleshy tissue which extends down from ______ and surrounds the vaginal
opening.
Fill in the blanks with suitable option

(1) Labia majora, Mons pubis

(2) Labia minora, Labia majora
(3) Hymen, Mons pubis
(4) Labia minora, Mons pubis

63) Assertion : The scrotum helps in maintaining the low temperature of the testes.
Reason : Low temperature (2-2.5°C) is necessary for spermatogenesis.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is wrong
(4) Both Assertion and Reason correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

64) Primary oocyte surrounded by a layer of granulosa cells is called :-

(1) Secondary follicle

(2) Tertiary follice
(3) Mature Graafian follicle
(4) Primary follicle

65) Which of the following is not the other name of follicular phase of menstrual cycle?

(1) Proliferative phase

(2) Preovulatory phase
(3) Oestrogenic phase
(4) Secretory phase
66) Which part of sperm in given diagram is responsible for production of energy for facilitation of

sperm motility?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

67) Leydig cells bear receptor for :

(1) LH only
(2) FSH only
(3) Both LH and FSH
(4) Testosterone

68) The figure below shows section of ovary. Identify the structure which is essential for

maintenance of the endometrium.

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

69) How many of the following structures are present only in female?
Vas deferens, Ejaculatory duct, Uterus, Bartholin gland, Seminal vesicle, Cervix

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

70) Which accessory sex gland is unpaired in male human being?

(1) Seminal vesicle

(2) Bulbourethal gland
(3) Bartholin gland
(4) Prostate gland

71) It is diagrammatic sectional view of male reproductive system. In it identify common path for the

semen and urine.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

72) Vasa efferentia are present between :

(1) Epididymis and urethra

(2) Testicular lobule and rete testis
(3) Rete testis and testis
(4) Rete testis and epididymis

73) Which of the following membranes prevents desiccation of the embryo and functions as a shock
absorber ?

(1) Amnion
(2) Chorion
(3) Yolk sac
(4) Allantois

74) Release of secondary oocyte from Graafian follicle is called as:

(1) Oogenesis
(2) Abortion
(3) Fertilization
(4) Ovulation

75) Which of the following is not a male sex accessory duct?

(1) Rete testis

(2) Epididymis
(3) Vas-deferens
(4) Ureter

76) Which of the following hormones is produced in women not only during pregnancy ?

(1) Relaxin
(2) HCG
(3) HPL
(4) Progesterone

77) Which of the following is not a natural contraceptive method?

(1) Periodic abstinence

(2) Coitus interruptus
(3) Lactational amenorrhea
(4) M.T.P.

78) Which of the following STIs are not completely curable?

(1) Trichomoniasis, Gonorrhoea, Syphilis

(2) Chalamydiasis, Genital warts, Syphilis
(3) Hepatitis-B, Genital herpes, HIV
(4) Hepatitis-B, Genital warts, HIV

79) The medical termination of pregnancy (amendment) act, 2017 was enacted by the government of
India with the intension of :

(1) Reducing the incidence of illegal abortion and consequent maternal mortality and morbidity
(2) Increasing number of couples with small families
(3) Better detection and cure of STD
Increasing number of medically assisted deliveries and better post natal care leading to
(4)
decreased maternal and infant mortality rates.

80) In ZIFT, early embryo with up to __A__ blastomeres could be transferred into __B__. Fill in the
blanks with suitable option.

(1) A-8, B-Fallopian tube

(2) A-16, B-Fallopian tube
(3) A-8, B-Uterus
(4) A-16, B-Uterus

81) Assertion :- A child born through in-vivo fertilisation is called a test tube baby.
Reason :- In IVF, zygote is formed under simulated condition in the laboratory.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

82) Infertility cases either due to inability of the male partner to inseminate the female or due to
very low sperm counts in the ejaculates, could be corrected by :

(1) ZIFT
(2) GIFT
(3) IUI
(4) IUT

83) A contraceptive method, in which the male partner withdraws his penis from the vagina just
before ejaculation so as to avoid insemination, is called :

(1) Rhythm method

(2) Periodic abstinence
(3) Withdrawal
(4) Lactational amenorrhea

84) Which of the following is a copper releasing IUD ?

(1) Lippes loop

(2) Multiload 375
(3) Progestasert
(4) LNG-20

85) In tubectomy, a small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through a small incision in
the :

(1) Abdomen
(2) Uterus
(3) Ovary
(4) Scrotum

86) Which of the following IUDs make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile
to the sperms ?

(1) Hormonal IUDs

(2) Copper IUDs
(3) Non medicated IUDs
(4) Multiload 375

87) Which of the following is the first country in the world to initiate action plans and programmes
at a national level to attain total reproductive health as a social goal ?

(1) China
(2) India
(3) South Africa
(4) America

88) Which of the following contraceptive methods is highly effective but with very poor reversibility
?

(1) IUDs
(2) Implants
(3) Lactational amenorrhea
(4) Tubectomy

89) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

A. In vitro fertilisation I MTP

B. In vivo fertilisation II ZIFT

Surgical contraceptive
C. III GIFT
method

D. Induced abortion IV Vasectomy

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

90) Which of the following is a new oral contraceptive for the females containing a non-steroidal
preparation?

(1) Saheli
(2) Implant
(3) LNG-20
(4) Progestasert
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 1 3 4 1 4 2 2 1 3 4 4 2 2 3 2 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 1 2 2 4 1 1 3 3 2 3 2 2 1 2 2 1 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 2 1 4 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 4 1 1 2 3 4 1 1 4 3 2 4 2 3 2 4 3 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 4 2 2 2 3 3 4 4 4 3 3 1 1 4 3 3 1 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 2 2 3 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 1 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 2 4 2 1 4 2 1 2 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 1 4 3 4 2 4 4 1 2 3 3 2 4 1 2 1 4 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 2 4 3 2 4 2 3 1 3 3 1 3 2 4 2 1 1 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 1 3 4 4 2 1 3 2 4 3 4 1 4 4 4 4 3 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 3 3 2 1 1 2 4 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Relative potential Method.

2) i = ig ×
iG = (ig – i)S

ig

3ig =
⇒ 30 = 7S

S=

3) = 5 div/mA

Where C = releasing torque

So, VS =

20 =

R=
R = 250 Ω

4) Pmax ⇒ r = R

5)

When supplied voltage is equal to rated voltage then in series combination, power is given by
6)

V = ε – Ir
50 = ε – Ir = ε – 11r ...(1)
60 = ε – Ir = ε – 1r ...(2)
On solving (1) & (2)
(60 – 50) = (–1 + 11)r
10 = 10r
∴ r=1Ω

7)
As I2 = 0
So, VBC = 4V and 400Ω
becomes in series with X
VAB = 20 – 4 = 16 V

Across X :

8)
Total emf. = 6E – 2E = 4E
Total resistance = 6r

∴ VA = E + Ir

9)
10)

Theory based

11)

=2+3+4
I = 9A

12)

J = 20 × 106 A/m2

13) Figure of merit K =

K1 = = 3.9 × 10–5

K2 = = 3.9 × 10–5

K= = 3.9 × 10–5
⇒

14) .... (1) .... (2)

15)

Dividing

Solving t = 300°C
16) For A : L = ℓ ; A = ℓt

.......(I)
For B : L = 2ℓ ; A = 2ℓt

....(II)

17)

Li = ℓ ; Lf = ℓ + ...........(I)
Volume remains constant

.........(II)

= [(1.4)2 – 1] × 100
= 96%

18)
q1 = 2 × 25 = 50 μC
Potential of 4μF = 5V

19)
W.D by battery
=

=
20)

Apply K.V.L from D to A

VA = 20 V
Apply K.V.L from D to B

VB = – 20V

22) slope of v – x = tan θ

E1 ∝ tanθ1 ⇒

E2 ∝ tanθ2 ⇒

23) Q = const. (Battery removed) ;

C → decreases ; ↑ U =

E = field increases.

24)

∴ 55 is 25% of 220
Clearly t0 will Be more than τ.
Because at τ time current reaches to 37% of maximum value.

25) Capacitor → open ; I = = 0.2 A

Apply KVL to find Potential difference

26)
Where

27)

From the given graphs, find the voltages, VA and VB, on capacitor A and B corresponding to
charge Q on each of the capacitors. Clearly,

and or
Since, VB > VA, CA > CB i.e., the capacitor A has the higher capacitance.

28)
C = 1.77 × 10–11 F
When the capacitor is connected to a 100 V supply, charge on each plate of the capacitor
q = CV = 1.77 × 10–11 × 100
q = 1.77 × 10–9 C

29) Given, capacitance of capacitor C1 = 600 pF

= 600 × 10–12 F and supply voltage V1 = 200 V
C2 = 600 pF = 600 × 10–12 F and V2 = 0

Loss in energy (E) =

⇒
= 6 × 10–6 J
Thus, the 6 × 10–6 J amount of electrostatic energy is lost in the sharing of charges.

30)

......(1)

New

.........(II)
∴ From (I) and (II)
FC = 8F N towards –q

31)

x= r=
From 9e charge

32)
E2 = electric field due to Q2

From diagram

33)

flux through cube =

flux through surfaces ABEH, ADGH, ABCD will be zero

ϕ (EFGH) = ϕ (DCFG) = ϕ (EBCF) =

34)
qE = Mg

neE =
n × 1.6 × 10–19 × 3.55 × 105

= 3 × 103 × × π × (2 × 10–3)3 × 9.81

n = 173 × 10(3 – 9 – 5 + 19)
n = 1.73 × 1010

35)

r < R, E = 0

, E=0

36)

VO = +
VO = 0, EO ≠ 0

37)
Potential at origin=
(Potential at ∞ = 0)

= KQ

∴ Work required to put a fifth charge Q at origin is equal to

38)

39)

Potential of –q is same as initial and final point of the path therefore potential due to 4q will
only change and as potential is decreasing the energy will decrease
Decrease in potential energy = q (Vi – Vf)
Decrease in potential energy

40)

Flux of through sphere is zero

But ⇒ for small section ds only

Statement-2
 As change encloses within gaussian surface is equal to zero.

Option(2) statement-1 correct statement-2 false.

41)

As outer sphere is earthed, the charge on its outer surface is zero.

So, the E.F. out side it will be zero

42)

When a positively charged body connected to earth, electrons flows from earth to body and
body becomes neutral.

43) New charges will be –2μC and +3μC.

In first case;

In second case ; F =

∴
or F = –10 N

44)

Theory based

45) Electric field is due to all charges that are present inside and outside the Gaussian surface

CHEMISTRY

49)
2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 25 = 32 times

50)
In k = ℓnA – Ea/RT
For ln k vs 1/T
ln A = intercept
–Ea/R = Slope = –2 × 104 K
Ea = R × 2 × 104 K = 8.3 × 2 × 104 J mol–1
= 16.6 × 104 J mol–1 or 166 KJ mol–1

51)
ΔH = Ea – Eb
5 = 15 – Eb
Eb = 15 – 5 = 10 kJ mol–1

52) 2P + Q → R
differential rate equation

62)

Copper is less reactive than Fe

68)

Theory Based

70)
S = 10–5

74)
–65.5 = ΔH + (–11.7)
ΔH = –53.8 kJ/mol

76) Eq. KMnO4 = Eq. C2O4

.025 × 5 × 20 = 0.1 × 2 × V
V = 12.5 ml

77) pH range for titration is 6 to 11.

78)

83)
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