1.
The type of bond represented by the dotted line                in a schematic
   polynucleotide chain is :
      (A) A. Hydrogen bond                  (B)       PepB. Peptide bond
      (C) C. N-glycosidic linkage           (D)       PhoD. Phosphodiester bond
 2. The specific Bt toxin genes which protect the cotton plants against the cotton
 bollworms are :
      (A) Cry-I Ac and Cry-II Ab                  (B) Cry-I Ab and Cry-I Bc
      (C) Cry-II Ac and Cry-I Ac                  (D) CRY-II Ab and Cry-I Ab
3. Which one of the following transgenic animals is being used to test the safety
   of the polio vaccine?
      (A)Sheep              (B) Goat
       (C)    Pig              (D)   Mice
 4. The scientist who proposed that embryos of all vertebrates including humans
 develop a row of vestigial gill slits behind the head but it is a functional organ
 only in fish and replaced by lungs in all other vertebrates
       (A) Darwin                                 (B) Lamarck
       (C) Ernst Haeckel                          (D) Mendel
 5. Restriction Endonuclease        Hind II always cuts DNA molecules at a
 particular point by recognizing a specific sequence of :
                                                                                   (
                                                        (B)Four base pairs
        (A)Six base pairs
        (C)Seven base pairs                             (D)Three
                                                        base pairs
 6. Which one of the following bacteria were used by Stanley
    Cohen and Herbert Boyer to accomplish the construction of the
    first rDNA?
        (A)Agrobacterium tumefaciens           (B)Mycobacterium sp.
        (C)E. coli                             (D)Salmonella typhimurium
  7. Select the option that gives the correct identification of ovum, morula and
  blastocyst in a human female reproduction system as shown in the following
  diagram :
           (A) Ovum – B, Morula – D, Blastocyst – F
           (B) Ovum – A, Morula – B, Blastocyst – G
           (C) Ovum – A, Morula – E, Blastocyst – G
           (D) Ovum – B, Morula – D, Blastocyst – G
8. Which was the last of the 24 human chromosome to be completely sequenced?
     (A)Chromosome – 1                     (B)Chromosome – 11
     (C)Chromosome – 21                    (D)Chromosome – X
9. Study the following diagram of Transverse Section of a young anther of an
angiosperm :
       Select the option where parts ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ are correctly identified.
         (A) A – Connective, B – Endothecium, C – Pollen grain.
         (B) A – Endothecium, B – Connective, C – Pollen grain.
         (C) A – Pollen grain, B – Connective,     C – Endothecium.
         (D) A – Endothecium, B – Pollen grain,    C – Connective.
            10. Which of the following statements is true about DNA replication in
            eukaryotes?
            a) DNA replication occurs in the cytoplasm.
            b) DNA replication is conservative.
            c) DNA replication occurs in the S-phase of the cell cycle.
            d) DNA replication does not require RNA primers.
11. ELISA t.echnique is based on the principle of
          (A) DNA replication                     (B)antigen-antibody interaction
          (C) pathogen – antigen interaction      (D) antigen – protein interaction
 12.     In which of the following chromosomal disorders do the individuals have
         short stature, small head, furrowed tongue and partially open mouth?
   (A)
   (B)         s syndrome
   (C)               s syndrome
   (D) Edward’s syndrome
 13. The linking of the antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector
    of Salmonella typhimurium by Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer
    was made possible by the enzyme :
               (A)Taq polymerase                                   (B)   DNA ligase
            (C) Restriction endonuclease                           (D)   -galactosidase
  14.      The origin of life according to the early Greek philosophers was transfer of
  unit of life from outer space to the different planets in the form of :
                 (A)seeds            (B) spores
                (C)gemmules            (D)    gametes
For Questions two statements are given one labelled as Assertion (A) and the
other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the
codes (A), (B), (C) and (D) as given below.
         (A)   Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
         explanation of the Assertion (A).
         (B)     Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
         the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
         (C)     Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
         (D)     Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
15. Assertion (A): Gene flow increases genetic variations.
    Reason (R): The random introduction of new alleles into a recipient
                population and their removal from donor population
                affects allele frequency.
 16.     Assertion (A) : Virus-infected cells produce interferons.
         Reason (R) :Interferons can cause inflammation of virus-infected cells.
 17.      Assertion (A) : Specific enzymes are used to degrade the cell wall
       in organisms to isolate the DNA from the cell.
          Reason (R) :Fungal cell wall is degraded by the enzyme cellulase.
         18. Lactobacillus that sets milk into curd is categorized as:
                 a. Cyanobacteria                  c.       Chemosynthetic bacteria
                 b. Archaebacteria                  d.      Heterotrophic bacteria
         19. Select the DNA sequence that would code for the following polypeptide
             sequence:
              Polypeptide :      Alanine       Arginine     Lysine      Phenylalanine
               a. CGT GCT TTC AAA                        c. CGU GCU UUC AAA
               b. CGT GCT TTC TTT                        d. CGU GCU UUC TTT
         20. In which of the following conditions/diseases is there a substantial
             increase in the activity of mast cells observed in the human bod ?
                 a. Typhoid
                 b. Allergy
                 c. Ascariasis
                 d. AIDS
  21. In a fertilized ovule of an angiosperm, the cells in which n, 2n and 3n
      conditions respectively occur are :
(A) antipodal, zygote and endosperm (B) zygote, nucellus and endosperm
(C)endosperm, nucellus and zygote       (D) antipodals, synergids and integuments
  22. Study the table given below :
               Contraceptive/                               Mode of Action
           Contraceptive Method
         A.   The pill                        I.     Prevent sperm reaching cervix
         B.   Condom                          II.    Prevent implantation
         C.   Vasectomy                       III.   Inhibits ovulation
         D.   Copper-T                        IV.    Semen contains no sperm
      Select the option where contraceptive/contraceptive method are correctly
      matched with their mode of action.
(A) A – III, B – II, C – I, D – IV                    (B) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV
(C)   A – III, B – I, C – IV, D – II                  (D) A – IV, B – III, C – II, D –I
      23. . Identify the category of genetic disorder depicted in the pedigree chart
      given below:
      (A)X-Linked recessive             (B)        X-Linked dominant
      (C)Autosomal recessive            (D)        Autosomal dominant
      24. Which of the options has correct identification of ‘P’, ‘Q’ and ‘R’ in the
          illustration of ‘Central Dogma’ given below ?
(A)   P – Replication, Q – rRNA, R – Transcription
(B)   P – Translation, Q – mRNA, R – Transcription
(C)   P – Replication, Q – mRNA, R – Translation
(D) P – Transcription, Q – mRNA, R – Translation
25. Who proposed the mutation theory in favour of organic evolution ?
      (A)Weisman                            (B)Louis Pasteur
      (C)Darwin                             (D)Hugo de Vries
26. A Snapdragon plant bearing pink colour flowers is crossed with a
    Snapdragon plant bearing white colour flowers. Their F1 progeny will
    show :
       a. 25% Red : 50% Pink : 25% White
      b. 50% Red : 50% White
      c. 50% Pink : 50% White
      d. 25% Pink : 50% Red : 25% White
  27. Which one of the following represents the correct
     annealing of primers to the DNA to be amplified in the
     PCR ?
28. A woman with normal vision has a colour blind father. She marries a man
with normal vision. The percentage chance of their progeny being colour blind
is :
         (A)     25%                           (B)     50%
         (C)     75%                           (D)     100%
29. The vector for dengue fever is :
             (A) Female Aedes mosquito         (B)Female          Anopheles
                 mosquito
             (C)Male Aedes mosquito            (D)Female Culex mosquito
30. An angiosperm embryo sac is located within the :
            (A) Placenta           (B)Megasporangium
             (C) Nucellus           (D)Ovary
31. In a transcription unit   the terminator is located towards the :
(A) 3 end of the template strand    (C) 5 end of the template strand
(C)5 end of the coding strand       (D) 3 end of the coding strand
For Questions two statements are given one labelled as Assertion (A)
and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these
questions from the codes (A), (B), (C) and (D) as given below.
32. Assertion (A) : RNA is unstable and can mutate at a faster rate.
    Reason (R) :      The presence of 2-OH group in every
   nucleotide of RNA makes it labile and easily degradable.
33. Assertion (A) : The chronic use of alcohol by a person leads to
    cirrhosis.
   Reason (R) : Alcohol addiction at times becomes the cause
   of mental and financial distress to the entire family of the
   addicted person.
34. Assertion (A) :     The stirrer facilitates the even mixing of
   oxygen availability in a bioreactor.
  Reason (R) :Stirred-tank bioreactors generally have a flat
base.