TOPIC

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

01 Mark (a) antipodal, zygote and endosperm
(b) zygote, nucellus and endosperm
1. ldentify the correct labellings in the figure of a () endosperm, nucellus and zygote
fertilised embryo sac of an angiosperm given below: (d) antipodals, synergids and integuments
A [CBSE 2024]
B 4. In the figure anatropous ovule is given below
choose the correct option for the characteristic
Primary endosperm distribution of cells within the typical embryo sac
cell (1'ÉC)
Milum

Fuucke
Micrugyle
AMucropyl° pole
Outer
Irnct ntgumc
D Nucelln
Enbeyo s
(a) A-zygote, B-degenerating synergids,
C-degenerating antipodals, D-PEN
(b) A-degenerating synergids, B-zygote, C-PEN, Chalaral pole
D-degenerating antipodals
(c) A-degenerating antipodals, B-PEN, Number Number Number of
C-degenerating synergids, D-zygote
(d) A-degenerating of cells at of cells at nucleis left in
synergids, B-zygote, chalazal end micropylar end central cell
C-degenerating antipodals, D-PEN
|CBSE Board 2024] A 3 2 3
2. Study the following diagram of Transverse Section 3 3 2
of a young anther of an angiosperm: 3 3
D 2 2 4

(CBSE 2022 SQP (Term-1)

5. In the given diagram of a transverse section of a
young anther. Choose the labellings showing the
correct placement of the wall layers from the table
Select the option where parts 'A, 'B' and 'C are given below :
correctly identified.
(a) A-Connective, B-Endothecium, C-Polen grain. (iii)
(b) A-Endothecium, B-Connective, C-Pollen grain. iü)
(c) A-Pollen grain, B-Connective, C-Endothecium. (iv)
(d) A-Endothecium, B-Pollen grain, C-Conncctive.
[CBSE 2024) (i)
3. In a fertilized ovule of an angiosperm, the cells in
which n, 2n and 3u conditions respectively occur
are:
 (i) (ii)
|Middle
iii) (iv) TOPIC 2
(a) Epidermis Endo
layers Tapetum thecium
Pollination and Double fertilisatiol
(b) Tapetum Endo Middle
Epidermis layers MCO! 1Mark
thecium
(c) Endo Middle 1. In which of the following plants are both male
thecium |Tapetum Epidermis and female flowers born on the same plant and
|layers
(d)
Middle Endo the mode of pollination can be geitonogamy or
layers Epidermis thecium |Tapetum xenogamy?
(a) Papaya (b) Date Palm
CBSE 2022 (Term-1) (c) Maize (d) Spinach
6. Given below isa diagrammatic [CBSE 2024]
representalion of a
mature embryo sac of a typical angiosperm plant.
Choose the option showing the correct labellings 2. In the dioecious aquatic plant shown, identify the
characteristics of the male flowers that reach the
for the parts W, X, Y andZ írom the table given
below. female flowers for pollination :
(X) Male. Pisúllate
flower lower

Water
level,

-(Z)
Staminate
(Y) flower

(W)
W Y

(3)Micropylar Antipodals Svneryids Central Sizc of the Colour ofCharacteristic feature

cnd cell
flower flower of pollen grain
(b) Chalazal Antipodals Centrl Synergids small
end cell
A
brightly Light weight and
coloured non-sticky
(c) Micropylar Synergids Central Antipodals B
end cell large colourless large and sticky
(d) Chalazal Central Antipodals C small white small, covered with
Synergids
end cell mucilage
D large colourless non-sticky

SQP 2022 (Term-1)

3. Abotanist studying viola (common pansy) noticed 5. Self-pollination is fully ensured if
that one of the two flower types withered and (A) the flower is bisexual.
developed no further due to some unfavorable (B) the style is longer than the filament.
condition, but the other flower type on the same (C) the flower is cleistogamous.
plant survived and it resulted in an assured seed (D) the time of pistil and another
maturity is
set. Which of the following will be correct ? different. [CBSE 2020 OD]
A. The flower type which survived is Cleistogamous
and it always exhibits autogamy
B. The flower type which Sur vived
and it always exhibits
Chasmogamous
geitonogamy.
C. The flower typewhich survived is Cleistogamous
and it exhibits both autogamy and geitonogamy.
D. The flower type which survived is
Chasmogamous and it never exhibits autogamy.
SOP 2022 (Term-1)
4. Given below is a figure of angiosperm plant
showing two different types of flowers 'X and "Y
and the possible type of pollination in them :

(X)

(Y

Select the correct option for the flower (X) and

flower (Y and the possible type of pollination
from the eiven table :

Flower-X Flower-Y

(a) Chasmogamous, Cleistogamous, cross

assured secd set pollination
(b) Cleistogamous self- Chasmogamous, ass
cross pollination ured seed set
(c)Chasmogamous, self/Cleistogamous, self
cross pollination pollination
(d) Cleistogamous self Chasmogamous,
pollination only cross polination only
(CBSE 2022 Term-1)
TOPIC 3
Post-Fertilisation Structure and Events
(i) Seed X is dicot and endospermic or
MCO 1 Mark albuminous.
(ü) Seed X is dicot and non-endospermic or non
1. Select the option that shows the correctly identi albuminous.
fied 'U, "X, Y and Z in a developing dicot embryo. (iii) Seed Y is monocot and endospermic or
albuminous.
X (iv) Seed Y is nonocot and non-endospermic or
non-albuminous.
Z
(a) (i), (ii) (b) (i), (ii)
(c) (), (iv) (d) (ii), (vi)
(CBSE 2022 SQr (Term-1)]
4. The coconut water from tender coconut is :
(a) Cellular endosperm
(a) X-Plunmule (21), Y-Suspensor (n), Z-Cotyledon (b) free nuclear endosperm
(2n), U-Radicle (2) (c both cellular and nuclear endosperm
(b) XPlumule (21), Y-Suspensor (n), Z-Radide (21), (d) free nuclear embryo
U-Cotylecdon (21) [CBSE 2022 SQP (Term-1)]
(c) X-Suspensor (2n), Y-Cotyledon (2n), Z-Radicle 5. The thalarmus contributes to the fruit formation in
(2n), Ü-Plumule (2n) (a) banana (b) orange
(d) X-Cotyledon (21), Y-Radicle (), Z-Plunule (n), (c) strawberry (d) guava
U-Suspensor (1) [CBSE 2023) [CBSE 2022 SQP (Term-1)
2. The ploidy of the apomicie embryo developed
from the integument cells and megaspore other
cell without reduction division respectively will
be:
(a) 2n and 2n (b) n and n
(c) 2n and n (d) 3n and 2n
|CBSE 2022 Term-1]
3. Which of the following statements are true related
to Seed X and Y ?

SEED X SEED Y

New Exam Pattern

Questions
MCQ 1 Mark 2. Each microspore develops into :
(a) three pollen grains
1. Among the terms listed below, those are not tech (b) two pollen grains
nically correct names for a floral where are: (c) four pollen grains
(i) Androecium (i) Carpel (d) one pollen grain
(iii) Corolla (iv) Sepals 3. Which is made up of sporopollenin?
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iv) (a) Intine (b) Exine
(c) (ü) and (iv) (d) i) and (ii) (c) Vegetative celi (d) Generative cell
4. ldentify the parts A to I in this figure. (b) Synergid, antipodal and polar nuclei.
B (c) Antipodal, synergid and primary endosperm
nucleus.
(d) Synergid, polar nuclei and zygote.
A 9. In an embryo sac, the cells that degenerate afte
fertilisation are:
(a) Synergids and primary endosperm cell.
(b) Synergids and antipodals.
(c) Antipodals and primary endosperm cell.
(d) Egg and antipodals.
10. In the embryos of a typical dicot and a grass, true
homologous structures are:
(a) Coleorhiza and coleoptile
(b) Coleptile and scutellum
(a) A: Ovary, B: Anther, C: Filanment; D : (c) Cotyledons and scutellum
Nectariferous area E: Filament, F: Stigma, G: (d) Hypocotyl and radicle.
Style, H :Ovule, I : Petal 11. Endosperm is consumed by developing embryo
(b) A:Anther, B:Ovule, C: Stigma, D: Anther, E: in:
Petal, F : Filament, G: Sepal, H: Nectariferous (a) maize (b) coconut
area, I :Ovary
(c) pea (d) bean
() A:Ovary, B :Ovule, C: Nectariferous area, D 12. Which of the following floral parts forms the
:Sepal, E : Filament, F:Petal, G: Anther, H pericarp after fertilisation?
Stigma, I : Style
(a) Nucellus (b) Outer integument
(d) A: Style, B: Stigma, C: Anther, D: Petal, E (d) Inner Integumnent
Filament, F: Sepal, G: Nectariferous area, H: (c) Ovary wall
Ovule, I:Ovary 13. The structure that, nourishes the developing em
5. What are the parts A and B in this figure ? bryos:
(a) Tapetum (b) Epidermis
(c) Endothecium (d) Middle layer
A 14. The pollination in Vallisneria takes place by:
(a) animals (b) water
(c) wind (d) insects
15. The below figure represents.
B

(a) A:Generative cell, B: Vegetative cell

(b) A: Tapetal cell, B:Generative cell
(c) A: Vegetative cell, B: Cenerative cell
(d) A: Homogenous cell, B : Tapetal cell
6. An embryo sac has :
(a) 4 diploid nuclei (b) 2 diploid nucdei
(c) 4 haploid nuclei (d) 8 haploid nuclei (a) Self-pollinated flowers
7. Which one of the cell in an embryo-sac produce (b) Cross-pollinated flowers
endosperm after double fertilisation?
(a) Synergids cell (b) Antipodal cell (c) Chasmogamous
(c) Central cell (d) Egs (d) None of these
8. In fertilised embryo-sac, the haploid, and triploid
structures are: 16. Refer to the given diagram of the embryo of an
(a) Synergid, zygote and primary endosperm angiospermous plant with parts labelled P Qand
nucleus. R. Select the correct statements regarding this.
 P
(a) Calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium
(b) Calyx, corolla, gynoecium and androecium
(c) Gynoecium, androecium, corolla and calyx
(d) Androecium, gynoecium, corolla and calyx
21. A dicotyledonous plant bears flowers but never
produces fruits and seeds. The most probable
cause for the above situation is :
(a) Plant is dioecious and bears only pistillate
flowers
(b) Plant is dioecious and bears both pistillate and
staminate flowers
R
(c) Plant is monoecious
4) Part P supplies nutrition to the developing (d) Plant is dioecious and bears only staminate
embryo. flowers.
is to an anther.
(i) Part 'Q is the protective sheath of radicle and 22. Embryo sac is to ovule as
root cap. (a) Stamen (b) Filament
(iü) Part 'R is the protective sheath of shoot apex (c) Pollern grain (d) Androecium
and leaf primordia. 23. The outermost and innermost wall layers of
(iv) The embryo shown in the diagram is present in microsporangium in an anther are respectively :
members of family Poaceae. (a) Endothecium and tapetum
(a) (iv) only (b) Epidermis and endodermis
(b) (ii) and (ii) only (c) Epidermis and middle layer
(c) (i) and (iv) only (d) Epidermis and tapetum
(d) (i), (ii), (üi) and (iv) 24. During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in :
I7. The following figure represents. (a) Endothecium
(b) Microspore mother cell
(c) Microspore tetrads
(d) Pollen grains
25. From among the sets of terms given below, identify
those that are associated with the gynoecium.
(a) Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta
(b) Thalamus, pistil, style, ovule
(c) Ovule, ovary, embryo sac, tapetum
(d) Ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac
26. Choose the correct statement from the following:
(a) Cleistogamous flowers always exhibit autogamy.
(b) Chasmogamous flowers always exhibit
(a) Globular embryo geitonogamy.
(b) Heart-shaped embryo (c) Cleistogamous flowers exhibit both autogamy
and geitonogamy.
(c) Zygote (d) Chasmogamous flowersnever exhibit autogamy.
(d) Syngamy
27. A particular species of plant produces light, non
19. The endosperm of the seeds develops from the:
(a) triploid nucleus (b) haploid nucleus sticky pollen in large numbers and i's stigmas are
long and feathery. These modifications facilitate
(c) tetraploid nucleus (d) diploid nucleus pollination by :
19. Each pollen tube has : (a) Insects (b) Water
(a) one generative nucleus and two tube nucleus (c) Wind (d) Animals
(b) two generative nucdeus and one tube nucleus 28. In an embryo sac, the cells that degenerate after
(c) one generative nucleus and one tube nucleus fertilisation are :
(d) two generative nucleus and two tube nucleus (a) Synergids and primary endosperm cell
20. In a typical complete, bisexual and hypogynous (6) Synergids and antipodals
flower the arrangement of floral whorls on the (c) Antipodals and primary endosperm cell
thalamus from the outermost to the innermost is : (d) Egg and antipodals
29. k lanning for an artificial hybridisation 9. Assertion (A) : Entomophilous flowers are large
FTEMe involving divecious plants, which of colourful, fragrant and rich in nectar.
he tollowing steps would not be relevant
1 Fgging of female flower Reason (R) : t helps in attracting the pollinatir
: Dusting of pollen on stigma agent.
Emasculation 10. Assertion (A): Perisperm is a haploid tissue.
d)Collection of pollen
Reason (R) : Perisperm is the remains of nucellus
&R 1Mark which surround the embryo in certain seeds.
For questions (1 to 10) given below there are two
statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Choose the correct answer out of following
choices.
Codes:
(a) If both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are
true and Reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b) If both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are rue,
but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) If Assertion (A) is true, reason (R) is false.
(d) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are false.
1. Assertion (A) : Meiosis is the cell division which
occurs in the sexually reproducing organisms.
Reason (R): Meiotic cell division results into two
cells having exactly same genetic makeup.
2. Assertion (A):Cross-pollination results in healthy
and stronger offspring.
Reason (R): Due to phenomenon of hybrid vigour.
3. Assertion (A) : Flowers are the structures related to
sexual reproduction in flowering plants.
Reason (R) : Various embryological processes of
plants occur in a flower.
4. Assertion (A) : Pollen grain of angiosperms is
considered as a male gametophyte.
Reason (R) : Pollen grain contains stigma, style and
Ovary.
5. Assertion (A) : Non-albuminous seeds have no
residual endosperm.
Reason (R): The endosperm is completely comained
during embryo development.
6. Assertion (A) : Insects visit flowers to gather honey.
Reason (R) : Attraction ef flowers prevents the
insects from damaging other parts of the plant.
7. Assertion (A): Cleistogamous flowers can produce
seeds without pollinations.
Reason (R): Cleistogamous flowers have no chance
of cross pollination and they are invariably autoga
mous.

8. Assertion (A) : Geitonogamous flowering plants

are cross-pollinated plants.
Reason (R) : In geitonogamous flowering plants,
the pollen is transferred to the stigma of another
flower of another plant.
 PREVIOUS
Years' CBSE Board Questions

Reproductive Health : Problems and Strategies

Q1Mark A&R 1Mark
1. The periodic abstinence by a couple for family Direction Codes :
(a) If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct
planning should be from:
(a) Day 5 to 10 of menstrual cycle explanation of (A).
(b) If both A and R are true, but (R) is not the
(b) Day 13 to 15 of menstrual cycle
(c) Day 10 to 17 of menstrual cycle correct explanation of (A).
(d) Day 16 to 20 of menstrual cycle (c) If (A) is true, but (R) is false.
[CBSE 2024]
(d) If (A) is false, but (R) is true.
2. Study the table given below:
(e) If both (A) and (R) are false.
Contraceptive/ Mode of Action 1. Assertion (A) : Through Reproductive and Child
Contraceptive Method Health (RCH) programmes in India, we could bring
The pill Prevent sperm reaching down the popülation growth rate.
Reason (R) : A rapid increase in MMR and IMR
cervix
were the reasons, along with other reasons for this.
Condom Prevent implantation
Inhibits ovulation
[CBSE 2024]
Vasectomy 2. Assertion (A) : Determining the sex of an unborn
Copper-T IV. Semen contains no
child followed by MIP is an illegal practice.
sperm Reason (R) : Amniocentesis is a practise to test the
presence of genetic disorders also. [CBSE 2023]*
Select the option where contraceptive/
contraceptive method are correctly matched with 3. Assertion (A): Vasectomyisasterilisation procedure
advised for females as a terminal method.
their mode of action.
Reason (R) : In vasectomy, a small part of the vas
(a) A-II, B-II, C-I, D-IV defences is removed or ied by blocking gamete
(b) A-II, B-II, C-I, D-IV transport therefore preventing conception.
(c) A-II, B-I, C-IV,D-I [CBSE 2022 Term-I]
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I [CBSE 2024] 4. Assertion (A) : Saheli, an oral contraceptive for
3. Given below are four contraceptive methods and
their modes of action. Select the correct match. females, contains a steroidal preparation.
Reason (R) : It is 'once a week' pill with very few
Methods Mode of action
side. [CBSE SOP 2021-22]
A Condom 1. Ovum not able to reach 5. Assertion (A): Lactational amenorrhea is the natural
Fallopian tube
method of contraception.
3. Vasectomy 2. Prevents ovulation
Reason (R):It increases the phagocytosis of sperm.
Pill 3. Prevents sperm reaching
the cervix [CBSE SQP 2021-22]
D. Tubectomy 4. Semen contains no sperms 6. Assertion (A) : Through Reproductive and Child
A D Health (RCH) programmes in India, we could bring
(a) 1 2 3 down the population groyth rate.
(b) 2 3 4 1 Reason (R) : A rapid increase in MMR and IMR
(c) 3 4 2
(d) 4 1 3 2
were the reasons, along with other reasons for this.
[CBSE SQP 2023] [CBSE SQP 2021-22]
4. The mode of action of the copper ions in an IUD is
to:
(a) increase the movement of sperms.
(b) decreases the movement of the sperms.
(c) make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
(d) make the cervix hostile to the sperms.
TOPIC 2
Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs) and Infertility
MCQ 1 Mark
1. Observe the schematic representalion of assisted 4. A female undergoing IVF treatment has blocked
reproductive technology given beiow: fallopian tubes. The technique by which the
embryo with more than 8 blastomeres will be
transferred into the female for further developmen
Injertion Needle is:
(a) ZIFT (b) GIFT
(c) IUT (d) ICSI
Sperm being injected [CBSE 2022 SQP (Term-1)]
lding lool into the cytoplas1n
of the cgg using a fine 5. Listed below are all reproductive tract infections
needle except. [CBSE 2022 (Term-1)]
(a) Genital herpes (b) Filariasis
ldentify the most appropriate technique depicted (c) Trichomoniasis (d) Syphilis
in the above diagram. 6. A spccialized procedure to form an embryo in the
(a) IUT (b) IUI laboratory in which sperm is directly, injected into
(c) ICSI (d) ZIFT [CBSE 2024) the ovum is :
2. Given below are Colunn A with a list of certain (a) IUT (b) IUT
Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART) and in (c) ICSI (d) ZIFT
Column B thc procedures foilowed during ART: |CBSE 2022 SQP (Term-1)]
Column A Column B 7. In the above case if the husband is found to have
sperm count of less than 20 million/mL and the
*No. Names of ART S.No. Procedures
wife is diagnosed with blockage in the oviduct, the
GIFT (i) Transfer OvuIn couple would be advised for :
a donor into () ZIFT (i) Al
the fallopian tube of (iüi) IVF (iv) ICSI
another female. (a) (i) and (iii) (b) (1) and (ii)
ICSI (ii) Iransfer of semen (c) (iü) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
from the donor into [CBSE 2022 (Term-1))
the vagina of te
lenale.
8. A procedure that finds use in testing for genetic
disorders, but is also miused for foeticide is
ZIFT (iii) Injecting sperms (a) lactational amenorrhea
directly into the (b) amniocentesis
OVWM
(c) artificial insemination
JUI (iv) Iansfer of early (d) parturition [CBSE SQP 2020]
embryos into the
iallopian tube. A&R 1 Mark
Choose the option where AKT correctly matches
with the procedure. 1. Assertion (A) : Very often pesons suffering from
(a) (4)-(), (B)-(), (C-(), (D)-((v) Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STD) do not go for
(b) (A)-(iv). (B}-(0). (C)- (in), (D-(i) timely detection and proper treatment.
(c) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iü), (C)-0), (D)-()
Reason (R) : Absence or less significant symptoms
(d) (A-(), (B)-(i). (C)-(iv), M)-(ii) [CBSE 2023]
3. An infertile couple was adviscd to undergo in in the early stages of STDs and the social stigma
iitro Fertilisation by he doctur. Oul of the options attached to the disease.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
given below, select the correct stage for transfer to
is the correct explanation of Assertion.
the Fallopian tube for successful results. (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason
(a) Zygote only
is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) Zygote or early embryo upto 8 blastomers (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(c) EmbrvOs with more than 8 blastomeres (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
(d) Blastocyst stage [CBSE SQP 2023|
 New Exam Pattern
Questions
MCQ 1Mark (a) Ovum into fallopian Tube
(b) Zygote in the fallopian Tube
1. The method of directly injecting a sperm into (c) Zygote in the uterus
ovum in assisted by reproductive technology is (d) Embryo with 16 blastomeues into the fallopian
called tube.
(a) GIFT (b) ZIFT 8. Which of the following is nota sexually transmitted
(c) ICSI disease?
(d) ET [NCERT]
2. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally (a) TuberCulosis (b) Gonorrhea
conceive due to the: (c) Syphilis (d) AIDS
(a) Suppression of gornadotropins 9. The family planning programme was initiated in :
(a) 1950 (b) 1952
(b) Hypersecretion of gonadotropins (c) 1951. (d) 1953
(c) Suppression of gametic transport
10. Which of the following barrier method is not
(d) Suppression of fertilisation. .NCERT] inserted into the female reproductive tract?
3. Emergency contraceptives are effective used (a) Condoms (b) Cervical caps
within :
(c) Vaults (d) Diaphragms
(a) 72 hrs of coitus 11. The surgical method in males is :
(b) 72 hrs of ovulation (a) contraceptives (b) vasectomy
(c) 72 hrs of menstruation (c) tubectomy (d) chemicals
(d) 72 hrs of implantation. [NCERT] 12. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the
4. Which out of these options is correct to statement (a) third trimester (b) first trimester
X and Y given below. (c) second trimester (d) none of the above
13. The IUD method is
Statement X: Some STD's in females mayremain
undetected for longer timne. (a) diaphragm (b) oral pills
(a) Statement Xis correct and Y is the correct option (c) tubectomy (d) Copper T
of X 14. Statutory raising of marriageable age of the male is
(a) 25 (b) 24
(b) Statement X is correct
(c) Statement Y is correct (c) 21 (d) 22
15. Which of the following hormone releasing IUDs?
(d) Both statement X and Y are correct
(a) Cu 7 (b) LNG-20
5. What does the figure below depicts in particular. (c) Cu T (d) Multiload 375
16. Sterilisation techniques are generally full proof
methods of contraception with least side effects.
Yet, this is the last option for the couples because
i. It is almost irreversible.
ii. Of the misconception that it will reduce sexual
urge/drive.
iü. It is a surgical procedure.
iv. Of lack of sufficient facilities in many
(a) Ovarian cancer (b) Uterine cancer parts of
(c) Tubectomy (d) Vasectomy
the country.
Choose the correct option:
6. Apart from the pills of progestogen alone or in (a) i and iü
combination with Oestogen which other means (b) ii and ii
(c) ii and iv (d) i, ü, ii and iv
can be used for contraception ? 17. A national level approach to build up A
(a) Implants (b) Injections reproductively healthy society was taken up in our
(c) Syrups (d) botha and b country in
7. IVF method of assisted reproductive technology (a) 1950s (b) 1960s
involues of the transfer (c) 1980s (d) 1990s (NCERT]
18. Choose the right one among the slatements yiven Codes :
below : (a) Lf buth Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are
(a) TUDs are generally inserted by the user hersclf true and Reasun is the correct explanation ot
(b) IUD, ncreases phagocytosis reaction n the assertion.
uterus (b) IS both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(c) IUDs suppress gametogenesis.
but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(d) IUDs unce inserted need not be replaced. (c) 1f Assertion (A) is true, reason (R) is false.
.NCERT] (d) 1f both assertion (A) and reason (R) are false.
19. if for some reason, the vasa efferentia in the human 1. Assertion (A) : Amnivcentesis is often tnisused.
repreductive system get blocked, the gametes will Reason (R):Amniocentesis is meant fordetermining
ut be transported from. the geneic disorders in the foetus, but it is being
(a) ep1didyrnis to Vasa deferens used to delermine the sex of the foetus, to kill thé
(b) Ovary to uterus normal fenale foetus.
(c) Vagina to uterus 2. Assertion (A) : Over population has become a
(d) Testes to epididynis serious problem in the developing countries.
20. Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a Reason (R) : It does not exhaust natural resources
population will: cause unemploymnent and pollution.
(a) Cause rapid increase in growth rate 3. Assertion (A): Barrier methods prevents physical
(b) Result in decline in growth rate meeting of sperms and ova.
(c) Not cause significant change in growth rate Reason (R) : This prevents conception.
(d) Result in an cxplosive population. 4. Assertion (A) : Lactational amenorrhoea (absenc
21. The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive of menstruation) is a temporary contraceptive
method.
method is: Reason (R) : It is based on the fact that ovulation
(a) Ovarecetony (b) Hysterectomy
(c) Vasectomy (d) Castration and theretore the cycle do not occur during the
period ot intense lactation following parturition.
22. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by 5. Assertion (A): Abortions could happern
the females. Chuose the correct option from the spontaneousiy to0.
statements given below: Reason (R) : Oral pilis are very popular
i. They are introduced into the uterus. contraceptives among th¹ educated urban women
i. They are placed to cover the cervical region. 6. Assertion (A): Use of condom is a safeguard
iii. They act as physical barriers for sperm entry. against AIDS and sexual diseases besides checking
iv. They act as sper1nicidal agents. pregnancy.
(a) iand ii (b) i and iii
(d) ii & iv
Reason (R) : Certain contraceptives are planted
(c) iiand iii under the skin of the upper arm to preven:
23. Choose the correct statement regarding the ZIFT pregnancy
procedure : 7. Assertion (A) : Mother should be blamed for the
(a) Ova collected from a female donor are birth of the girls in the family.
transterred to the fallopian tube to facilitale Reason (R) : Father is not responsible for the sex o
zygote formation. the child.
(b) Zygote is collected from afemale donor and
transferred to the fallopian tube.
(c) Zygote is collected from a female donor and
transferred to the uterus.
(d) Ova collected from a female donor and
transferred to the uterus.

A&R 1 Mark
For questions (1 to 7) given below there are two
statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Choose the correct answer out of following
choices.
PREVIOUS
Years' CBSE Board Questions
OPIC
Reproductive System
ICO1Mark W
(a) Epididymis Prostate
X
Glans penis Bulbou
1. Given below are the structural details of a human rethral
gland
mammary gland. gland
(i) The glandular tissue in the breast has 15-20 (b) Bulbou
clusters of cells called alveoli. Prostate
rethral Glans penis Epididymis
(ii) The milk is stored in the lumen of alveoli. gland
gland
(iii)The alveoli join to form the mammary ducts. (c) Vas Seminal Prostate
(iv)Mammary ampulla is connected to lactiferous vesicle
Urethra
gland
deferens
ducts.
Choose the option that gives the correct detail of (d) Bulbou
Rete testis rethral |Epididymis Glans penis
human mammary gland.
(a) () and (ü) gland
(CBSE 2021-22 Term-1]
(b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i) and (iv) 4. Androgens are synthesised by
[CBSE 2023] (a) Sertoli cells
(d)(i) and (iü)
2. The accessory ducts in the human male reproduc (b) Leydig cells
tive system consists of :
(c) Seminal vesicles
(d) bulbourethral gland [CBSE 2020 SQP]
a) Epididymis, Prostrate, Rete testis
5. Assertion : Interstitial spaces outside the seminifer
b) Rete testis, Vasa efferentia, Seminal vesicles ous tubule have blood vessels and sertoli cells.
c) Vasa efferentia, Bulbourethral, Epididymis Reason: Sertoli cells provides nutrition to the germ
d) Rete testis, epididymis, Vas deferens. cells.
[CBSE 2022 SQP Term-1] (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
is a diagrammatic view of the human is the correct explanation of Assertion
1 Given below (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason
nale reproductive system.
is not the correct explanation of Assertion
() Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
[CBSE 2021-22 Term-1}

VSA 1 Mark
1. Name the gland that contributes to human seminal
plasma. |CBSE 2022 SQP}

SA 2 Marks
Z 1. List the four different human male accessory
Identify the correct labelling for W, X, Y and [CBSE 2020]
hoose the correct option from the table below. ducts.
TOPIC 2
Gametogenesis
MCO 1 Mark
1. Select the uption that has the correct sequence of
events of human female reproductive cyele:
(Ö)) Secretion of FSH
(ü) Ovulation
(in)Growth of curpus luteum
(iv)Growth of follicle and oogenesis
(v) Sudden increase in LH
Options:
(a) -iii-v-iv-ii
(b) -iv-y-ii-ii
(c) iv-i-v-i-ii
(d) v-i-iü-ivi (CBSE 2024]
2. The correct sequence of hormone secretion from
beginning of menstruation is:
I(CBSE 2022 SQP Term-1)])
(a) FSH. progesterone, estrogen.
(b) estrogen, FSH, progesterone.
(c) FSH, estrogen. progesterone.
(d) estrogen, progesterone, PSH.
3. The nature of meiotic division during oogenesis in
a human female is [CBSE 2021-22 Term-1]
(a) equal cell division
(b) suspended cell division
(c) continuous cell division
(d) rapid cell division

TOPIC3
Fertilisation, Pregnancy and Embryonic development
MCQ 1 Mark
1. Penetration of the sperm in the ovum is followed (a) Ovum-B, Morula-D, Blastocyst-F
by [CBSE 2021-22 SQP (Term-1)] (b) Ovum-A, Morula-B, Blastocyst-G
(a) formation of first polar body (c) Ovum-A, Morula-E, Blastocyst-G
(b) completion of meiosis-II (d) Ovum-B, Morula-D, Blastocyst-G
(c) first meiosis 3. Which of the following statements are correct with
(d) dissolution of zona pellucida respect to hormones secreted by placenta ?
() Placenta secretes relaxin during later stage of
2. Select the option that gives the correct identifca pregnancy.
tion of ovum, morula and blastocyst in a human (ü) Placenta secretes high amount of FSH during
female reproduction systenm as shown in the fol pregnancy.
lowing diagram (üi) Placenta secretes relaxin during intitial stage
Sperme Elastornres of pregnancy.
(iv) Placenta secretes hCG and hPL during preg
nancy. (CBSE 2022 SOP (Tern-1)]
(a) () and (iv) b) (), (ü) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ü), (üi) and (iv)
4. Figure A shows the front view of the human fe
male reproductive syslem and Figure B shows the
(e)
development of a fertilized human egg cell

Hlstocyt
Implantation
Fig. A:

Inner
Ccll
Mass
Spcm Tiophoectodem
Fig. B:

Unfertilued Egg Fertilized Eyxg Morula

Oocyte Blastosy st
Zygote (34 days) (5 days)
 Identify the correct stage of development of hu (iv) Urea
man embryo (Figure B) that takes place at the site (a) (i) and (iü) (b) (i) and (iv)
X, Yand Z respectively in the human female repro (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) () and (iv)
ductive system (Figure A). (CBSE 2022 SQP (Term-1))
Choose the correct option from the table below : 8. The given figure shows the different stages of hu
X Y man embryo:
(a) Morula Fertilized Blastocyst
(b)| Unfertilized Fertilized
Morula
egg
(e) Fertilized Unfertilized
Blastocy st
|(d) Fertilized (Y (Z (X) (W)
Morula Blastocyst
ldentify the correct labellings for W, X, Y and Z
(CBSE 2022 SQP (Term-1)) and choose the correct option from the table be
5. Pentration of the sperm in the ovum is followed low:
by: W Y
(a) formation of first polar body. Blastocyst Morula Fetilisation
(b) formation of first polar body.
(a)Cleavage
(6) Blastocyst Morula CleavageFetilisation
(c) completion of meiosis II. (c) Morula Cleavage Blastocyst Fetilisation
(d) dissolution of zona pellucida.
[CBSE 2022 SQr (Term-1)] () Morula Blastocyst|Cleavage Fetilisation
[CBSE 2022 SQP (Term-1)]
6. During human embryonic development the exter
nal gential organs are well developed in the foetus 9. The source of gonadotropin LH and its corre
sponding function is :
by the end of:
(a) 6 weeks of pregnancy (a) Anterior pituitary, ovulation
(b) 12 weeks of pregancy (b) Anterior pituitary, Graafian follicle formation
(c) 18 weeks of pregnancy (c) Hypothalamus, Ovulation
(d) 24 weeks of pregnancy (d) Hypothalamus, Graafian follicle formation
[CBSE 2022 SQP (Term-1)]
[CBSE 2022 SQP (Term-1)]
10. During parturition, a pregnant woman is having
7. Concentration of which of the following substanc prolonged labour pains and child birth has to be
es will decrease in the maternal blood as it flows fastened. It is advisable to administer a hormone
from embryo to placenta through the umbilical that can
cord ?
Placental villi (a) increase the metabolic rate
(b) release glucose in the blood
(c) stimulate the ovary
(d) activate smooth muscles
Covity of
uterus ICBSE 2021-22 SQP (Term-1)
(bilical
cord
Yolk sac
A&R 1Mark
with its
vessels Embryo
For questions 1 to 2 in each of questions given
below there two statements marked as Assertion
(A)and Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out
of following choices.
Codes:
Plug of mucus
in cervix
(a) If both (A) and(R) are true and (R) is correct
eplanation of (A).
(i) Oxygen (b) If both A and R are true, but (R) is not the
(i) Amino Acids correct explanation of (A).
tii) Carbon dioxide (c) If (A) is true, but (R) is false.
 (R) is true.
d) li (A) is false, but
are false.
(e Ifboth (A) and (R) complex
1. Assertion (A) : Parturition is induced by a
neuro-endocrine meachanism.
end of period, the
Reason (R): At the releasps n which causes
m. rernal pituitary
tuteine contractions.
CBSE 2022 (Tern-1)
gets
inner cell mass of blastocyst
2. Assertion (A): Theendometrium
attached to the during embryonic
deveioped in humans.
blastocyst gets
Reason (R): The blastomeres in the mass.
arranged into trophoblast and inner cell
(CBSE 2022 SQP (Term-1)]

New Exam Pattern

Questions
uterine contractions during
(b) causes strong
31 Mark parturition.

labelled as (c) is secreted by anterior pituitary.

1. In the given figure, the function of part glands
(d) stimulates growth of mammary the follow
'A' is statement forn
4. Choose the incorrect [NCERTj
ing.
internal fertilisation
(a) In birds and mamrnals
takes place.
and nutrients.
(b) Colostrum contains antibodies
Polyspermy is preventcd by the chemica!
(c) changes in the egg surface.
(a Gets atlached to endonelrium
(b) draws nuiritive material trom
mothers body (d) In the human female implantation occurs
ic) Differentiates as embryo almost seven days after fertilisation.
(d) Undergocs autolysis 5. Match between the folliowing representing parts
during of the sperm and their functions and choose the
2. What happens to the leutinising hormore
midof menstrual cycie. correct option.
(a) Ovulation stops Column A Column B
(b) Corpus luteum remakes A. Head i. Enzymes
(c) Rupture of Graafian follicle B. Middle piece ii. Sperm mtility
(d) Disintegnation of endometriu1n C. AcroSme iii. Energy
3. En human adult females, oxytocin:
D. Tail iv. Genetic material
(a) stimulates piluitary to secrete vasopressin.
 Options: 11. Testes are located outside the abdominal cavi
(a) A-ii, B-iy, C-i, D-iüi ty within a sac called sCrotal sac or scrotum. The
(b) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii particular temperature is required for proper func
(c) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-ii
tioning of testes and for spermatogenesis. At what
temperature scrotum keeps the testes?
(d) A-ii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv (a) 20°C higher than the body temperature.
6. In Ovary which structure transforIns into corpus
luteum. (b) 2°C lower than the body temperature.
(a) Primary follicle (c) 4°C higher than the body temperature.
(b) Secondary follice (d) 4°C high lower than the body temperature.
(c) Tertiary follicle 12. Choose the incorrect statement from the following:
(d) Follicular cells of empty graafian follicle (a) In birds and mammals internal fertili_ation takes
7. Both Vaccine and and Colostrum produces anti place
body. Identify the name of the type of imiunity (b) Colostrum contains antibodies and nutrients
produced by these (c) Polyspermy is prevented by the chemical
(a) Active immunity changes in the egg surface
(b) Active immunity and passive immunity (d) In the human female implantation occurs
respectively
almost seven days after fertilisation.
(c) Passive immunity 13. Identify the wrong statement from the following :
(d) None of these (a) High levels of oestrogen triggers the ovulatory
3. Follicular Throc surge.
(6-15 day) (b) Oogonial cells starts to proliferate and give rise
to functional ova in regular cycles from puberty
onwards.
(c) Sperms released from seminiferous tubules are
Mensuration
Luteal Phase poorly motile/ non-motile.
(16-28 day) (d) Progesterone level is high during the post
(1-5 day)
ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle.
14. Spot the odd one out from the following structures
In which of the above mentioned phases does the with reference to the male reproductive system:
egg travel to the fallopian tube ? (a) Rete testis (b) Epididynmis
(a) Menstrual phase (c) Vasa efferentia (d) Isthmus
(b) End of menstrual phase 15. Mature Graffian follicle is generally present in the
(c) End of proliferative phase ovary of a healthy human female around: [NCERT]
(d) Luteal phase (a) 5 -8 day of menstrual cycle
9. Identify the wrong statement from the following. (b) 11-17 day of menstrual cycle
[NCERT] (c) 18 23 day of menstrual cycle
(a) High levels of oestrogen triggers the ovulatory (d) 24-28 day of menstrual cycle
(b) Oogonial cels start to proliferate and give rise 16. The immature male germ cell undergo division to
phase to functional ova in regular cycles from produce sperms by the process of spermatogenesis.
puberty onwards. Choose the correct one with reference to above.
(c) Sperm released from seminiferous tubules are (a) Spermatogonia have 46 chromosomes and
poorly motile/non-notile. always undergo meiotic cell division.
(d) Progesterone level is high during the post (b) Primary spermatocytes divide by mitotic cell
division.
ovulatory phase of menstrual cycle.
10. The membranous cover of the ovum at ovulation (c) Secondary spermatocytes have 23 chromosomes
is: and undergo second meiotic division.
(a) corona radiata (a) Spermatozoa are transformed into spermatids.
17. Which is considered as a vital connection between
(b) zona radiata
mother and foetus?
(c) zona pellucida (a) Placenta (b) Uterus
(d) chorion (c) Anniotic fluid (d) Embryo sac
18. The function of oxytocin in females is to : (c) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(a) stimulate the growth of manmary glands (d) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(b) stimulate the pituitary to secrete vasopressin.
(c) help in contraction during parturition. 28. Identify the odd one from the following,
(d) to secrete anterior pituitary. (a) Labia minora
(b) Fimbriae
19. The mammary glands are modified :
() Infundibulum
(a) cutaneous ylands (b) scent glands (d) Isthmus
(c) sebaceous glands (d) sweat glands 29. Seminal plasma, the fuid part of semen, is
20. Acrosome of sperm is modified: contributed by:
(a) golgi complex () Seminal vesicle
(ü) Prostate
(b) mitochondria (iü)Urethra
(c) lysosome (iv)Bulbo-urethral gland
(d) endoplas1nic reticulum (a) (i) and (ii)
21. Which of the following hormones is necessary for (b) (), (ü) and (iv)
the disintegration of corpus luteum? (c) (ü), (ii) and (iv)
(d) (1) and (iv)
(a) Progesterone (b) LIH 30. The vas deferens receives duct from the seminal
(c) LH (d) FSH vesicle and opens into urethra as:
22. The embryo at 16-celled stage is known as : (a) epididymis
(a) gastrula (b) blastula (b) ejaculatory duct
(c) blastomere (d) nnorula (c) efferent ductule
23. Which is/are formed in gastrulation? (d) ureter
(a) Ectoderm and endoderm 31. Corpus luteum is formed by :
(b) Ectoderm (a) luteinising cells
(c) Ectoderm, endoderm and mesodern b) germinal epithelial cells
(c) Graañan follicle
(d)Endoderm (d) ruptured Graafian follicle
24. The sperm ysine are released from:
(a) corona radiata (b) acrosome
A&R 1 Mark
(c) sperm nucleus (d)egg membranes
For questions 1 to 12 in each of questions given
25. Oestrogen is secreted by : below there two statements marked as Assertion
(a) Graafian follicle (b)corpus luteum (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct answer out
(c) primary follicle (d) anterior pituitary of following choices.
26. Acrosome is filled with (a) If both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct
(a) Lipids explanation of (A).
(b) If both A and R are true, but (R) is not the
(b) Vasopressin
(c) Degradative enzymes correct explanation of (A).
(d)Oxygenated blood (c) If (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) If (A) is false, but (R) is true.
27. Malch the following and choose the correct (e) If both (A) and (R) are false.
options. 1. Assertion (A) : Vigrous contraction of the uterus at
Column A Column B he end of causes expulsion.
A. Trophotblast i. Enbedding of blastocyst
in the endometrium
Reason (R : pregnalatory reflex betweenthe
uterine contraction and oxytocin results in weaken
ing contractions.
B. Cleavage ii. Groupof cells that would 2. Assertion (A) : Testicular lobules are the conpart
differentiate as embryo ments present in the testes.
C. Inner cell masS iii. Outer layer of blastocvst Reason (R) : These lobules are involved in the pro
attached to the cess of fertilisation.
endometrium 3. Assertion (A): In the testes, spermatogenesis
iv Mitotic division of zygote occurs in the seminiferous tubules and testosterone
D Implantation
Options: secretion takes place in the Sertoli cells.
Reason (R) : Testosterone brings growth and
a) A-ii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv maturation of primary sex organs and also
b) A-ii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i development of accessory sex characters.
 4. Assertion (A):In human male, testes are extra
abdominal and lie in scrotal sacs.
Reason (R): Scrotum protects the testes.
5. Assertion (A): Urethra in human male act as a
urinogenital canal.
Reason (R) : Urethra carries only urine while
sperms are carried by vasa deferens only.
6. Assertion (A) :The embryo with 8-16 blastomers is
called morula.
Reason (R) :The morula continues to divide and
transforms into trophoblast.
7. Assertion (A) : Testis is located in the scrotum,
outside of coelom.
Reason (R): Avaginal coelom partly surrounds the
testis in the scrotum.
8. Assertion (A): Testis originates in the abdomen but
later descend into the scrotum under the influence
of testosterone.
Reason (R) : The interstitial (Leydig's cells) of the
testes secrete male sex hormone, inhibin
9. Assertion (A) : Menarche is the stoppage of
menstrual flow and other events.
Reason (R) : The average age of menarche is 12-13
years.
10. Assertion (A) : The mammary glands secrete milk
for the nourish1ment of the young ones.
Reason (R): These are modified sweat glands.
11. Assertion (A): Endometrium is a mucosal tissue
made up of two layers.
Reason (R) : It is an inner lining of the uterus. Each
month it thickens and renew itself, preparing for
pregnancy.
12. Assertion (A): The fusion of sperm and ovum to
form zygote is calied fertilisation.
Reason (R) : It occurs at ampullary-isth1nic junction
of the fallopian tube.