EVALUATIVE EXAM

Total points 171/250

PHINMA LEVEL - 3

Email *

kees.hurbosa.swu@phinmaed.com

SURNAME: *

HURBODA

FIRST NAME: *

KEANNA ANNE

MIDDLE NAME: *

ESCUADRA
SCHOOL: *

PHINMA - SOUTHWESTERN

UNIVERSITY

1. Karenina, a newly hired nurse in *1/1

the community came and asks you
what is the most essential factor
that you have to established when
conducting clinic visit. Your best
response is that:

A. The most important factor is to

establish trust and conKdence

B. The most important factor to establish

is the frequency of clinic visit

C. The most important factor is to

establish that you are the nurse and
where they can go visit you

D. The most important factor is to

establish the location of the rhu and what
are the diseases that they have to consult
2. Ana asks you what is the *0/1
purpose of pre- consultation
conference. Your best response to
Anna is:

A. It is one method to provide health

education

B. It is one method to screen the patient

C. It is one method allow to patient to

have an appointment

D. All of the above

3. A sign that shows first come first *1/1

serve was situated outside of the
RHU and you are giving out
numebrs. Which of these clients
will you cater first then?

A. Ana, the Krst patient arrives in the RHU

at 730 in the morning and has been listed
as Patient 1

B. Claire, the patient who texted the

doctors secretary last night.

C. Sisa, the patient who is a friend of the

doctor

D. Nilo, a patient who is unconscious

who was hit by a running vehicle who
has just newly arrived.
4. Ana, came in the health center to *···/1
have her BP assessed for the first
time. She reports complains of
dizziness, headache and nausea.
Upon assessment her BP is
150/100Upon further assessment,
it reveals that she lacks sleep from
watch Miss Universe Philippines
and was very elated when Ms.
Iloilo City won the competition. .
She asked you if she is
hypertensive. What is your best
reponse?

A. No, because it is just due to her

excitement.

B. Yes, because her BP is above 120/100

which is prescribed by the WHO. Hence,
she is hypertensive.

C. No. She should have at least 2 or 3

baseline BP which had been taken at least
1 week apart.

D. Yes, because an elevation in the BP is

consider as hypertensive, regardless of
the number of readings
5. Patient A wants his BP taken *1/1
after his morning coffee. What is
the best thing that you have to
advise your patient?

A. After drinking hot coffee, you have to

wait for 5 minutes before taking your BP

B. After drinking hot coffee, you have

to wait for 30 minutes before taking
your BP

C. After drinking hot coffee, you have to

wait for 10 minutes before taking your BP

D. After drinking hot coffee, you have to

wait for 2 minutes before taking your BP
6. A mother in the community asks *1/1
you in one of your rounds if which
of the following is the advantage of
home visit over clinic visit. Your
best response is that, home visit:

A. Allows the nurse to conduct a Krst

hand appraisal of the needs of the
family

B. Allows the family to save money from

going to the RHU

C. Allows the nurse to go out of the RHU

so that she will get be bored

D. Allows the nurse to conduct an ocular

visit and established rapport with the
people in the RHU
7. When conducting a home visit *1/1
which of the following order should
you visit the following patient?
1. Ryan, a cancer patient
2. Baby G, born 48 hours ago
3. Rafaella, on her 29th of AOG
4. Dexter, a TB patient

A. 2, 3, 1, 4

B. 1, 3, 4, 2

C. 3, 2, 1, 4

D. 3, 2, 4, 1

8. Which of the following is the *0/1

most important principle in
conducting a home visit?

A. Make use of all available resources

B. Should be ]exible

C. It should involve the individual and

the family

D. It should have a purpose or objective

9. Mario asks you which of the *0/1
following is the most important
guidelines in the frequency of
HOME VISIT?

A. It based on the acceptance of the

family

B. It should abide by the policy of the RHU

C. Should consider if other health

agencies are involved

D. It should be base on the social needs of

the people in the community

10. What is the first thing that you *0/1

have to do when you conduct a
home visit?

A. State the purpose of the visit

B. Greet the client and introduce yourself

C. Place the bag in the table

D. Make an appoint for a return visit

11. Mrs. Tuna Pie, a CI in the one of *1/1
the colleges is conducting a graded
recitation. Assuming that you are
here student. The question is,
which of the following is true
definition of BAG technique?

A. A tool by which the nurse, during

her visit will enable her to perform a
nursing procedure with ease and
deftness

B. It is an essential and indispensable

equipment of the public health nurse
which she has to carry along during her
home visits.

C. It saves time and effort in the

performance of nursing procedure

D. It can be performed in a variety of ways

depending on the agency’s policy
12. Mrs. Tuna Pie, a CI in the one of *1/1
the colleges is conducting a graded
recitation. Assuming that you are
here student. The question is,
which of the following is true
definition of Public health bag?

A. A tool by which the nurse, during her

visit will enable her to perform a nursing
procedure with ease and deftness

B. It is an essential and indispensable

equipment of the public health nurse
which she has to carry along during
her home visits.

C. It saves time and effort in the

performance of nursing procedure

D. It can be performed in a variety of ways

depending on the agency’s policy
13. Mrs. Tuna Pie, a CI in the one of *0/1
the colleges is conducting a graded
recitation. Assuming that you are
here student. The question is,
which of the following is a priority
principle of BAG technique?

A. A tool by which the nurse, during her

visit will enable her to perform a nursing
procedure with ease and deftness

B. It is an essential and indispensable

equipment of the public health nurse
which she has to carry along during
her home visits.

C. It saves time and effort in the

performance of nursing procedure

D. It will minimize, if not prevent the

spread of any infection

14. Which of the following is not *0/1

found inside the public health bag?

A. Stethoscope

B. Alcohol lamp

C. Test tube

D. Vinegar
15. How do you arrange the content *0/1
of the public health bag?

A. One that is convenient to the user

B. It should be arranged base on the

policy of the institution

C. It should be arranged base on the

things that the family needs

D. It should be base on the checklist

provided by the rhu

16. Which of the following *1/1

statements is true regarding BAG
TECHNIQUE?

Consider all equipment of the patient

unsterile

You open the bag every time you get

something

The clean side must be in and the folded

part must be touching the table in paper
lining

When making a home visit, no need to

make an appointment
17. Which of the following is an *1/1
important procedure of the Public
Health Nurse during a home visit?

Protection of Public Health Nurse’s bag

Hand washing

Arrangement of contents of Public Health

Nurse’s bag

Cleaning the bag

18. Family assessment tools are *1/1

utilized to ensure that necessary
information will be obtained. Which
of the following tool displays
pertinent family information in a
family tree format to show family
members and their relationships:

Family APGAR

Genogram

Family medical history

Ecomap
19. The above tool, Genogram, will *0/1
enhance the nurse’s abilities to:

A. Developed family based assessment

B. To determine information relevant to

family issues

C. Make judgments and connect them to

family structure and history patterns for
planning interventions

D. All of these

20. Genogram includes map of the *1/1

family and the most important
factors such as the following:

A. Major or chronic illnesses

B. Family religion, education

C. History of incest/physical abused

D. All of these
21. It is a family assessment tool to *1/1
determine family relationships
among family members, between
facilities and communities:

A. Family socio economic status

B. Family community interactions

C. Family APGAR

D. Ecomap

22. This tool is useful in suggesting *1/1

areas to be assessed relative to
family functioning:

A. Genogram

B.Family history

C. Ecomap

D. Family APGAR (A-Adaptability, P-

Partnership,G-Growth,A-Affection,R-
Resolve)
23. An assessment question: “In *0/1
what way have that the family
members receive help or
assistance from friends and
community agencies? is an
example of what component of
family APGAR?

A. Adaptability

B. Partnership

C. Growth

D. Affection/resolve

24. An assessment question: “How *1/1

have family members responded
to emotional expressions such as
affection, love, sorrow, or anger?” It
is an example of what component
of family APGAR?

A. Adaptability

B. Partnership

C. Growth

D. Affection
25. Assessment is the most critical *···/1
phase of the process. There are
two levels of assessment. Which
of the following tools belong to
level l BUT ONE:

A. Family coping index

B. Family genogram

C. Ecomap

D. Family APGAR

26. Which of the following *1/1

assessment tools belong to level
11?

A.Family copping index

B. Typology of nursing problems

C. Family APGAR

D. Both A and B
27. Family coping capacity is rated *0/1
for 1-5 as to the nine categories.
What is the purpose of scaling the
coping capacity of the family?

A. To identify strength of the family in

coping with problems

B. To place the family in relation to their

ability to cope with 9 areas in 3 months

C. To develop family baseline for planning

D. To note changes in family coping

capacity

28. After gathering essential data *0/1

of family problems and needs, what
is the next step that the community
health nurse should do?

A. Gather data for analysis and validation

B. Make an action plan

C. Formulate a typology of nursing

problem

D. Develop monitoring and evaluation

tools
29. Which of the following is a type *1/1
of nursing problem: it is a situation
of condition which interferes with
the promotion or maintenance of
health and recovery from illness or
injury?

A. Health problem

B. Nursing problem

C. Health threats

D. Health deKcit

30. Is a situation or condition which *1/1

interferes with the promotion
and/or maintenance of heath and
recovery from illness or injury and
which is subject to change through
a nursing intervention:

A. Health problem

B. Nursing problem

C. Health threats

D. Health deKcit
31. The family experiences stages *1/1
when a family member is ill, the
nurse therefore has corresponding
roles corresponding to each family
needs. When a member of the
family is diagnosed with certain
illness, what is/are the role(s) of
the nurse?

A. Support system

B. Educator

C. Assessor of family systems

D. All of these

32. When a family member is *0/1

under treatment, what is/are the
role(s)of the nurse BUT ONE;

A. Support for comfort measures

B.Counselor

C. Resource person

D. Supporter for emotions

33. Which of the following goals *0/1
receive the highest priority?

A. Goals related to the family

B. Goals of the organization

C. Goals of the service provider

D. All of these

34. In choosing appropriate action *1/1

with the family, the nurse must
consider the essential components
of the plan which include the
following:

A. All of these

B. Problem deKnition

C. Goals and objectives of care

D. Plan of intervention and for evaluation

35. Which of the following is the *1/1
cornerstone of an effective
planning?

A. Plan developed by the nurse in behalf

of the family

B. Plan as prioritized DOH program

C. Mutual goal setting by the client

and the family

D. Plan developed by the patient

36. In planning, family health *1/1

problems are rank in order to set
priorities. When the nature and
magnitude of future problems that
can be minimized or totally
prevented if intervention is done is
what criteria?

A. Nature of the problem

B. ModiKability of the problem

C. Preventive potential

D. Salience
37. The probability of success in *1/1
minimizing alleviating or totally
eradicating the problems through a
nursing intervention is what criteria
for setting priorities?

A. Nature of the problem

B. ModiKability of the problem

C. Preventive potential

D. Salience

38. Implementation intervention of *1/1

family based nursing assessment
by the PHN includes the following:

A. Direct care if the family cannot

B. Remove barriers to needed services

C. Improving the capacity of the family

D. All of these
39. Evaluation of health care *0/1
rendered to the client includes three
approaches. Which of the following
approach refer to whether the care
that was given was competent or
preferred:

A. Structure

B. Process

C. Outcome

D. End of project

40. It refers to materials, *1/1

equipment, qualification of staff
and organizational set up is what
evaluation approach?

A. Structure

B. Process

C. Outcome

D. End of project
41. When the PHN decides in *1/1
behalf of the client and the family in
case of an emergency, she is doing
which of the following PHC role?

A. Facilitative

B. Supplemental

C. Developmental

D. Clinician

42. Making arrangements for the *1/1

social workers to evaluate the
family for possible aid is a

A. developmental intervention

B. supplemental intervention

C. facilitative intervention

D. complemental intervention
43. Teaching post-partum mothers *0/1
on the care of the newborn are:

A. developmental intervention

B. supplemental intervention

C. facilitative intervention.

D. complemental intervention

44. Which of the following primary *1/1

health care role of the nurse when
she/he makes referrals, removes
barriers in health care, explains
procedures to clients?

A. Supplementary

B. Clinician

C. Supervisory

D. Facilitative
45.When the nurse teaches, *0/1
motivates and guides clients
regarding health practices she is
performing which of the following
primary health care role?

A. Developmental

B. Facilitative

C. Supplemental

D. Supportive

46. A patient has denial of the *0/1

existence emphysema. Choose the
appropriate Family Nursing
Problem which the situations
described would lead to:

A. Inability to recognize the presence

of the problem

B. Inability ot make decisions with respect

to taking appropriate health action

C. Inability to provide adequate nursing

care to the sick, disabled, dependent or at
risk member of the family

D. Inability to provide a home environment

conducive to health maintenance
47. Lack of parenting skills is *0/1
manifested by the mother who has
3 children suffering from
malnutrition. Choose the
appropriate Family Nursing
Problem which the situations
described would lead to:

A. Inability to recognize the presence of

the problem

B. Inability to make decisions with respect

to taking appropriate health action

C. Inability to provide adequate nursing

care to the sick, disabled, dependent or at
risk member of the family

D. Inability to provide a home

environment conducive to health
maintenance
48. Lack of knowledge regarding *0/1
proper toilet construction. Choose
the appropriate Family Nursing
Problem which the situations
described would lead to:

A. Inability to recognize the presence

of the problem

B. Inability to make decisions with respect

to taking appropriate health action

C. Inability to provide adequate nursing

care to the sick, disabled, dependent or at
risk member of the family

D. Inability to provide a home environment

conducive to health maintenance
49. Lack of financial resources, *1/1
such as fare for a pregnant woman
to get to a nearby facility for pre –
natal check – up. Choose the
appropriate Family Nursing
Problem which the situations
described would lead to:

A. Inability to recognize the presence of

the problem

B. Inability to make decisions with respect

to taking appropriate health action

C. Inability to provide adequate

nursing care to the sick, disabled,
dependent or at risk member of the
family

D. Inability to provide a home environment

conducive to health maintenance
50. Ana and Marites were twins. *0/1
The nurse notices that a role
conflict exists between the two of
them. Choose the appropriate
Family Nursing Problem which the
situations described would lead to:

A. Inability to recognize the presence of

the problem

B. Inability to make decisions with

respect to taking appropriate health
action

C. Inability to provide adequate nursing

care to the sick, disabled, dependent or at
risk member of the family

D. Inability to provide a home environment

conducive to health maintenance

51. Head banging is common to an *1/1

autistic child, A relevant diagnosis
would be

a. potential for activity intolerance

b. potential for injury

c. impaired physical mobility

d. potential impaired skin integrity

52. Typical changes in the *1/1
environment, an autistic child
would manifest one of the
following

a. clinging behavior

b. temper tantrums

c. destructive behavior

d. masturbates

53. According to Freud super ego is *0/1

develop during:

a. infant

b. toddler

c. pre-schooler

d. adolescence
54. In the pubescent boys, the *0/1
pubic hair star to grow at

a. base of penis

b. base of scrotum

c. base of glans penis

d. penile shaft

55. At what day does complete *0/1

bath should be done

a. after delivery

b. 3 days postpartum

c. 7 days postpartum

d. During the day umbilical cord had

slough off
56. The specific age where sense *0/1
of humor developed:

a. 4 years old

b. 5 years old

c. 10 years old

d. 15 years old

57. This is an appropriate topic to *1/1

start when teaching sexuality to
adolescence

a. dating issues

b. menstruation and wet dreams

c. family planning

d. sexually transmitted disease

58. The nurse gives the mother *0/1
home instruction regarding digoxin
administration. Correct instruction
includes:

a. gives full glass of water

b. drug should be given before meals

c. sign of toxicity is tachycardia

d. normal blood therapeutic level is 0.9-

3meq/l

59. The characteristic stool of *1/1

client with intussusception

a. currant jelly

b. ribbon like stol

c. steatorrhea

d. blood]ect
60. The brain reaches its adult size *0/1
at what age

a. 3 years old

b. 4 years old

c. 6 years old

d. 5 years old

61. Foramen ovale shunts blood * 1/1

a. from left atrium to right atrium

b. from right atrium to left atrium

c. from left ventricle to right ventricle

d. from right ventricle to left ventricle

62. A child delivered at 30 weeks *1/1
gestation, is considered as:

a. full term

b. pre term

c. post term

d. none of the above

63. small for gestational age *1/1

newborn are those delivered at
term who weights less than

a. 2,500grams

b. 1500 grams

c. 3,000 grams

d. 4,300 grams
64. If the child is resistant to brush *1/1
his teeth, which of the following
fruits should be given?

a. Pears

b. Apple

c. Papaya

d. Guyabano

65. Which of the following fruit is *1/1

given to asthmatic client

a. apple

b. pears

c. papaya

d. guyabano
66. The immunoglobulin present on *0/1
breast milk

a. G

b. A

c. E

d.D

67. Baby boy Alvin has persistent *0/1

vomiting, The mother tells you that
aside from being persistent, she
vomits forcibly. Pyloric stenosis is
diagnose, which of the following
physical assessment would you
consider very important?

a. presence of vomiting

b. peristaltic wave

c. dehydration

d. crakle
68. Baby boy roy a post cheiloplasty *0/1
and uranoplasty is transferred to
the ward…which of the following is
appropriate restrain for the client.

a. mummy restrain

b. elbow retrain

c. hand restrain

d. jacket restrain

69. A nurse admits a child to the *0/1

hospital with a diagnosis of pyloric
stenosis. On admission
assessment, which data would the
nurse expect to obtain when
asking the mother about the child’s
symptoms?

a. Vomiting large amounts of bile

b. Watery diarrhea

c. Increased urine output

d. Projectile vomiting
70. A clinic nurse reviews the *1/1
record of a 3-week-old infant and
notes that the physician has
documented a diagnosis of
suspected Hirschsprung’s disease.
The nurse reviews the assessment
findings documented in the record,
knowing that which symptom most
likely led the mother to seek health
care for the infant?

a. Diarrhea

b. Projectile vomiting

c. Regurgitation of feedings

d. Foul-smelling ribbon-like stools

71. Baby Louise, born with a *0/1

myelomeningocele with
accompanying hydrocephalus. She
should be placed in which of the
following positions?

a. Trendelenburg’s

b. On her back

c. With her legs abducted

d. On her abdomen
72. A 4 y/o with TOF is seen in *1/1
squatting position near his bed.
The nurse should

a. Administer oxygen

b. Take no action if he looks

comfortable but continue to observe
him

c. Pick him up and place him in

Trendelenburg’sposiyion in bed

d. Have him stand up and walk around the

room

73. A nurse provides home care *1/1

instructions to the parents of a
child with celiac disease. The nurse
teaches the parents to include
which of the following food items
in the child’s diet?

a. Rice

b. Rye toast

c. Oatmeal

d. Wheat bread
74. A nurse is gathering supplies in *1/1
preparation to administer a tepid
bath to a child with a fever. The
nurse understands that which of
the following items would not be
needed for the bath?

a. Washcloths and towels

b. A bottle of alcohol

c. Toys

d. Lightweight pajamas

75. The nurse is aware that children *1/1

born with a missing chromosome
are most likely to have:

a. Cretinism

b. Phenylketonuria

c. Down syndrome

d. Turner’s syndrome
76. A nurse admits a child to the *1/1
hospital with a diagnosis of pyloric
stenosis. On admission
assessment, which data would the
nurse expect to obtain when
asking the mother about the child’s
symptoms?

a. Vomiting large amounts of bile

b. Watery diarrhea

c. Increased urine output

d. Projectile vomiting

77. A 3-year-old child is *1/1

hospitalized because of persistent
vomiting. A nurse monitors the
child closely for:

a. Diarrhea

b. Metabolic acidosis

c. Metabolic alkalosis

d. Hyperactive bowel sounds

78. A nurse provides home care *1/1
instructions to the parents of a
child with celiac disease. The
nurse teaches the parents to
include which of the following food
items in the child’s diet?

a. Rice

b. Rye toast

c. Oatmeal

d. Wheat bread

79. A sweat test is performed on a *1/1

child with a suspected diagnosis of
cystic fibrosis. (CF). The nurse
reviews the test results and
determines that which of the
following is a positive result for
CF?

a. Chloride level of 20 mEq/L

b. Chloride level of 30 mEq/L

c. Chloride level of 40 mEq/L

d. Chloride level of 70 mEq/L

80. Christopher, 2 months-old, is *1/1
suspected of having coarctation of
the aorta. The cardinal sign of this
defect is

a. clubbing of the digits and circumoral

cyanosis

b. pedal edema and portal congestion

c. systolic ejection murmur

d. upper extremity hypertension

81. An infant’s intestines are sterile *1/1

at birth, therefore lacking the
bacteria necessary for the
synthesis of

a. Prothrombin

b. Bile salts

c. Intrinsic factor

d. Bilirubin
82. On April 16 at 3:45pm, a 34 *1/1
week 1550gm female infant is
delivered to Dina. The infant
demonstrates nasal flaring,
intercostals retractions, expiratory
grunt, and slight cyanosis. An
umbilical catheter is inserted with
IV infusion of 5% Dextrose and
water 30cc to run over a ten hour
period. Blood gases and electrolyte
studies are ordered immediately.
The premature baby is placed in a
heated isolette because:

a. The premature infant has a small body

surface for her weight

b. Heat increases ]ow of oxygen to

extremities

c. Temperature control mechanism is

immature

d. Heat within the isolette facilitates

drainage of mucus
83. The premature infant has a *1/1
difficulty in concentrating urine and
may have large amounts of fluid
lost. The nurse caring for Dina’s
baby would:

a. Force ]uid every half hour

b. Observe color and amounts of urine

and check its speciKc gravity

c. Administer only high protein ]uids

d. Warm ]uids before administering them

84. A newborn develops *0/1

cephalhematoma. The nurse
should plan to explain to the
mother that:

a. The swelling may cross the suture line

b. The soft sac will bulge when the

infant cries

c. It will resolve spontaneously in 3-6

weeks

d. This condition is unusual with vaginal

delivery
85. A lumbar puncture is performed *1/1
on a child suspected of having
bacterial meningitis. Cerebrospinal
fluid is obtained for analysis. A
nurse reviews the results of the
CSF analysis and determines that
which of the following results
would verify the diagnosis?

a.cloudy CSF, decreased protein, and

decreased glucose

b. cloudy CSF, elevated protein, and

decreased glucose

c. clear CSF, elevated protein, and

decreased glucose

d.clear CSF, decreased pressure and

elevated protein
86. A home care nurse provides *0/1
instructions to the mother of an
infant with cleft palate regarding
feeding. Which statement if made
by the mother indicates a need for
further instructions?

a. “I will use a nipple with a small hole to

prevent choking.”

b. “I will stimulate sucking by rubbing the

nipple on the lower lip.”

c. “I will allow the infant time to swallow.”

d. “I will allow the infant to rest

frequently to provide time for
swallowing what has been placed in
the mouth.”
87. A nurse is caring for a newborn *0/1
infant with a suspected diagnosis
of imperforate anus. The nurse
monitors the infant, knowing that
which of the following is not a
clinical manifestation associated
with this disorder?

a. The presence of stool in the urine

b. Failure to pass a rectal thermometer

c. Failure to pass meconium in the Krst 24

hours after birth

d. The passage of currant jelly-like stools

88. A nurse is gathering supplies in *1/1

preparation to administer a tepid
bath to a child with a fever. The
nurse understands that which of
the following items would not be
needed for the bath?

a. Washcloths and towels

b. A bottle of alcohol

c. Toys

d. Lightweight pajamas
89. A clinic nurse is assessing a *0/1
child for dehydration. The nurse
determines that the child is
moderately dehydrated if which
symptom is noted on assessment?

a. Flat fontanels

b. Moist mucous membranes

c. Pale skin color

d. Oliguria

90. A nurse interviews the parents *1/1

of a child recently diagnosed with
glumerulonephritis. The nurse
understands that which information
collected during the assessment is
most often associated with the
diagnosis of glumerulonephritis?

a. Streptococcal throat infection 2

weeks prior to diagnosis

b. Child fell off a bike onto the handlebars

c. Nausea and vomiting for the last 24

hours

d. Urticaria and itching for 1 week prior to

diagnosis
91. A nurse is assigned to care for *1/1
child suspected of having
glumerulonephritis. The nurse
reviews the child’s record and
notes that which finding is
associated with the diagnosis of
glumerulonephritis?

a. Low blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

b. Hypotension

c. Low urinary gravity

d. Red-brown urine
92. A nurse is developing a plan of *1/1
care for a 7- year-old child
diagnosed with acute
glumerulonephritis. The nurse
includes which priority intervention
in the plan of care?

a. Encourage limited activity and

provide safety measures

b. Catheterize the child to strictly monitor

intake and output

c. Force oral ]uids to prevent hypovolemic

shock

d. Encourage classmates to visit and to

keep the child informed of school event
93. A mother brings her 2-week-old *1/1
infant to a clinic for treatment
following a diagnosis of clubfoot
made at the time of birth. Which of
the following statements, if made
by the mother, indicates a need for
further education regarding this
disorder?

a. “I need to bring my infant back to

the clinic in 1 month for a new cast.”

b. “Treatment needs to be started as soon

as possible.”

c. “I need to come to the clinic every week

with my infant for the casting.”

d. “I realize my infant will require follow-up

care until full grown.”

94. When performing a physical *1/1

assessment of a newborn with
Down syndrome, the nurse should
carefully evaluate the infant’s:

a. Heart sounds

b. Anterior fontanel

c. Pupillary reaction

d. Lower extremities
95. A 12-year-old is diagnosed as *1/1
having idiopathic scoliosis.
Because proper exercise and
avoidance of fatigue are essential
components of care, the nurse is
aware that the most therapeutic
sport for this child would be:

a. Golf

b. Bowling

c. Swimming

d. Badminton

96. A 3-month-old infant has been *0/1

diagnosed as having congenital
hypothyroidism. If care is not
instituted until after early infancy,
the child will probably have:

a. Myxedema

b. Thyrotoxicosis

c. Some mental retardation

d. Abnormal deep tendon re]exes

97. A 6-year-old has received *0/1
partial-thickness burns of the face
and chest in a house fire. For the
first 24 hours after hospitalization,
the nurse should primarily observe
this child for:

a. Wound sepsis

b. Separation anxiety

c. Pulmonary distress

d. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance

98. An infant is diagnosed a having *1/1

pyloric stenosis. When palpating
this infant’s abdomen, the nurse
would expect to find:

a. An impacted and distended colon

b. Marked tenderness around the

umbilicus

c. An olive-sized mass in the right

upper quadrant

d. Rhythmic peristaltic waves in the lower

abdomen
99. A test that is done on all *1/1
neonates to detect PKU is:

a. Phenistix test

b. Guthrie blood test

c. Ferric chloride urine test

d. Clinitest serum phosphopyruvic acid

100. The cardiac defects *1/1

associated with tetralogy of Fallot
include:

a. Right ventricular hypertrophy, atrial and

ventricular defects, and mitral valve
stenosis

b. Origin of the aorta from the right

ventricle and of the pulmonary artery from
the left ventricle

c. Right ventricular hypertrophy,

ventricular septal defect, stenosis of
pulmonary artery, and overriding aorta

d. Abnormal connection between the

pulmonary artery and the aorta, right
ventricular hypertrophy, and atrial septal
defects
101. Described as the relative *0/1
measure of the amount of drug
required to produce a specified
level of response compared with
other drugs that produce the same
effect via the same receptor
mechanism.

a. Onset of drug

b. Peak of drug effect

c. Potency of drug

d. Eicacy of administered dose

102. The ability of the drug to elicit *0/1

pharmacologic response is called:

a. Potency

b. Eicacy

c. Therapeutic index

d. Absorptive capacity
103. A pharmacokinetic process *1/1
that involves transportation of
administered drugs across one or
more biologic membranes to reach
the blood stream.

a. Absorption

b. Distribution

c. Metabolism

d. Excretion

104. A process that can move *1/1

drugs against a concentration
gradient as in protein-mediated
transport system which is known to
be “energy-dependent”.

a. Diffusion

b. Osmosis

c. Active transport

d. Facilitated diffusion
105. Movement of substance down *1/1
a concentration gradient which is
carrier-mediated, specific, and
saturable but doesn’t require
energy.

a. Diffusion

b. Osmosis

c. Active transport

d. Facilitated diffusion

106. Drug absorptive capacity may *0/1

depend on its route of
administration. Which of the
following is the most common and
most convenient for
administration?

a. Oral

b. Rectal

c. IV

d. Transdermal
107. Which of the following is the *1/1
primary site of drug absorption?

a. Stomach

b. Large intestine

c. Small intestine

d. Liver

108. The fraction of drug *1/1

administered by means of any
route that reaches the blood stream
unaltered which is 1 for intravenous
administration is:

a. Bioavailability

b. Potency

c. Clearance

d. Peak plasma concentration

109. A process that influences drug *0/1
absorption by metabolism or by
secretion after absorption of drug
from intestine is known as:

a. CYP 450 enzyme

b. Metabolism

c. First-pass effect

d. Distribution

110. All but one are factors that *1/1

may alter absorption from the
stomach or small intestine.

a. Intestinal motility

b. GI blood ]ow

c. Stomach acid

d. Cutaneous thickness
111. The major routes for *1/1
parenteral administration are the
following except:

a. Intravenous

b. Intramuscular

c. Subcutaneous

d. Intradermal

112. All but one are routes of *1/1

administration that minimize first-
pass metabolism?

a. Sublingual

b. Rectal

c. Intravenous

d. None of the above

113. A route of administration that *1/1
may sometimes produce systemic
effects but most of the time used
widely when a local effect is
desired or to minimize systemic
effects.

a. Rectal

b. Oral

c. Inhalation

d. Topical

114. The initial rate of distribution *1/1

of a drug depends heavily on:

a. Blood ]ow

b. Excreting capacity of kidneys

c. Metabolizing capacity of liver

d. Intestinal absorption
115. Rate of drug elimination from *0/1
the body is constant and does not
depend on plasma concentration is
called:

a. First order elimination

b. Zero-order kinetics

c. Zero-order distribution

d. None of the above

116. Which of the following is true *1/1

regarding “clearance”?

a. Is a measure of the capacity of the

body to remove a drug.

b. Drugs with “high” clearance are rapidly

removed from the body.

c. Is the proportionality constant that

relates the rate of drug elimination to the
plasma concentration of drug.

d. All are correct

117. The following are correct *1/1
about the general description of
biotransformation properties
except:

a. Most drugs undergo biotransformation

or metabolism after they enter the body.

b. Liver is the major site

c. SpeciKc drugs may undergo

biotransformation primarily or extensively
in other tissues.

d. Usually terminates the

pharmacologic action of the drug via
absorption

118. All but one are included in the *1/1

phase 1 of
metabolism/biotransformation.

a. Reduction

b. Acetylation

c. Oxidation

d. Hydrolysis
119. Glucuronyl transferase is a set *1/1
of enzymes with unique but
overlapping specificities that
involve in what phase of reaction?

a. Phase I

b. Phase II

c. Phase II

d. Phase IV

120. Drugs taken orally pass across *1/1

membranes of GI tract into the liver
via what structure/ vessel before
entering the general circulation?

a. Renal artery

b. Mesenteric arteries

c. Portal vein

d. Hepatic capillaries
121. Any route maybe important for *1/1
a given drug, but what is the major
site of excretion for most drugs?

a. Kidneys

b. Intestine

c. Liver

d. Blood vessels

122. Which of the following is not *0/1

true about elimination of drugs?

a. Some drugs are secreted by the liver

cells into the bile

b. Drugs may be reabsorbed from the

intestine

c. Routes of excretion may include urine,

feces, saliva, sweat, and tears

d. None of the above

123. All but one are true statements *1/1
regarding the choice of appropriate
antibacterial agents

a. The drug of choice is usually the most

active drug against the pathogen

b. The drug of choice is usually the least

toxic of several alternative drugs

c. Drug selected for use may either be

bactericidal (inhibits growth) or
bacteriortatic (causing death) to
microorganisms.

d. Drug of choice is related to the

mechanism of drug action such as
inhibiting protein synthesis and bacterial
cell wall biosynthesis.

124.Penicillinas-resistant penicillins *1/1

are used predominantly for
penicillinase-producing
staphylococcal infections. Which of
the following does not belong to
the group?

a. Methicillin

b. Oxacillin

c. Dicloxacillin

d. Pen-G
125. This compound is structurally *1/1
related to peniciilin, but has no
antimicrobial properties of its own.
It is usually administered with
penicillins to increase potency.

a. Ampicillin

b. Clavulanic Acid

c. Pen-V

d. Amoxicillin

126. Congestive heart failure *1/1

results when the output of the heart
is insufficient to supply adequate
levels of oxygen for the body. All
but one are attributed to the
components of CHF?

a. Impaired contractility

b. Circulatory congestion

c. Decreased cardiac output

d. Increased contractility
127. Which of the following *1/1
antihypertensive drugs are
indicated in all patients with left
ventricular dysfunction?

a. Beta Blockers

b. Calcium Channel Blockers

c. Alpha blockers

d. ACE inhibitors

128. Several parameters regulate *1/1

the release of renin include the
following except:

a. Increased arterial pressure

b. Decreased sodium delivery to the

cortex

c. Increased sodium at the distal tubule

d. None of the above

129. Renin cleaves the protein *1/1
angiotensinogen and releases the
decapeptide called angiotensin I.
Angiotensin I is converted
enzymatically in to angiotensin II
mostly in the:

a. Liver

b. Lungs

c. Kidneys

d. Blood vessels

130. Which of the following *1/1

electrolytes are significantly
conserved in activating the RAAS?

a. Potassium

b. Bicarbonate

c. Chloride

d. Sodium
131. All are functions of *1/1
angiotensin II except:

a. Vasoconstriction

b. Stimulates thirst

c. Promotes potassium retention

d. Promotes Na+ and Hydrogen exchange

132. Which of the following is true *1/1

about the mechanism of ACE
inhibitors causing cough as a side
effect?

a. Increase breakdown of bradykinin

b. Increase production of bradykinin

c. Diminish breakdown of bradykinin

d. Diminish production of bradykinin

133. The following are prototype *0/1
drugs of ACE inhibitors except:

a. Enalapril

b. Captinopril

c. Lisinopril

d. Fisinopril

134. All but one are adverse effect *1/1

of ACE inhibitors:

a. Dry cough

b. Hypotension

c. Angioedema

d. Hypertension
135. ARBs are as effective as ACE *1/1
inhibitors in reducing blood
pressure in are available in
combination with HCT for patients
refractory to monotherapy. Which
of the following effects may occur
with ARBs therapy?

a. Dizziness

b. Increase LOC

c. Hypertension

d. All of the above

136. Clinical trials suggest it is *1/1

about as effective as ACE inhibitors
or ARBS for reducing blood
pressure. This small molecule is a
“direct inhibitor” of renin.

a. Enalapril

b. Valsartan

c. Aliskiren

d. Alaxan
137. Digoxin which is traded as *1/1
Lanoxin is used for the treatment of
CHF and certain arrhythmias is
classified as:

a. Renin inhibitors

b. Cardiac glycosides

c. Angiotensin Receptor Blocker

d. Cardiac aminoglycosides

138. The main mechanism of *1/1

action of cardiac glycosides
(Digoxin) is:

a. Promotes Na+/H+ exchange

b. Inhibit Na+/K+ ATPase

c. Promotes Na+/K+ ATPase

d. Inhibit Na+/H+ exchange

139. Which of the following is not *1/1
true regarding the pharmacologic
properties of digoxin?

a. Distributes to most body tissues and

accumulates in cardiac tissue.

b. The dose of digoxin must be

individualized.

c. It can be given orally or intravenously

d. Digoxin is eliminated by the

hepatobiliary route

140.The first manifestation of *0/1

digoxin overdose is frequently:

a. Fatigue or ]ulike symptom

b. Anorexia

c. Nausea and vomiting

d. Diarrhea
141. Toxicity is primarily managed *1/1
by discontinuing the drug and by
administering:

a. Magnesium sulfate

b. Calcium gluconate

c. Digoxin immune FAB

d. None of the above

142. Which of the following is a *0/1

metabolic precursor of the
epinephrine?

a. Norepinephrine

b. Dopamine

c. L-dopa

d. Tyrosine
143. Which of the following is a *0/1
metabolic precursor of the
Norepinephrine?

a. Norepinephrine

b. Dopamine

c. L-dopa

d. Tyrosine

144.Which of the following is a *0/1

metabolic precursor of the
dopamine?

a. Norepinephrine

b. Dopamine

c. L-dopa

d. Tyrosine
145. Which of the following is a *0/1
metabolic precursor of the L-dopa?

a. Norepinephrine

b. Dopamine

c. L-dopa

d. Tyrosine

146. Diuretics increase urine *1/1

production by acting on the
kidneys. Most agents affect water
balance indirectly by altering
electrolyte reabsorption or
secretion. Diuresis is associated
with:

a. Increase sodium excretion which

results in a concomitant loss of water and
reduction in intracellular volume.

b. Increase sodium excretion which

results in a concomitant loss of water
and reduction in extracellular volume.

c. Increase sodium excretion which

results in a concomitant reabsorption of
extracellular water.

d. Increase sodium excretion which

results in a concomitant reabsorption of
intracellular water
147. Which of the following are *1/1
possible side effects of diuretics?

a. Hypokalemia

b. Hyponatremia

c. Hypochloremia

d. All of the above

148. All but one are true regarding *1/1

the mechanism of action of
Thiazide diuretics:

a. Thiazides are absorbed from the GI

tract.

b. Produce dieresis within 1-2 hours

c. Inhibits active reabsorption of NaCl in

the DCT

d. Promotes carbonic anhydrase

149. Thiazide diuretics are the *0/1
preferred class of diuretics for the
treatment of:

a. Chronic hypertension

b. Hypertensive emergency

c. Acute hypertension

d. Essential hypertension

150. The caobonic anhydrase *0/1

inhibitors primary site of action is:

a. PCT

b. LOH

c. DCT

d. Collecting ducts

d. None of the above

151. When there is already a *1/1
neurologic damage, the nurse
understands that

a. Do initial neurologic assessment

b. Tracheotomy may be done

c. The client is dying

D. The client is now in convalescent stage

152. The nurse caring to a boy with *1/1

total paralytic polio should
routinely check the client’s bed for
what reason?

a. To avoid pressure ulcer

b. To check for presence of urine in the

bed

c. To assess the clients ability to move in

the bed

d. To avoid complications such as

paralytic ileus
153. The source of infection for *1/1
mumps virus is

a. Contaminated feces

b. Secretion of the mouth and nose

c. Contaminated water

d. Direct contact with the skin

154. Mumps virus can cause * 1/1

a. In]ammation of the lymph nodes in the

neck

b. Swelling of the throat

c. Orchitis

d. Pharyngitis
155. A mother came to the nurse *1/1
and asked if she could give which
of the following food to her
daughter with Mumps?

a. Virgin Cola, to relieve her thirst

b. Cold Choco drink to provide her energy

and vitamins

c. Her favorite plain cookies to relieve her

hunger

d. Plain cereal food, just make sure it’s

not hot

156. A male client complains of *1/1

inflammation of his scrotum. The
nurse can advise the following
except?

a. Bed rest

b. Use sling to support the scrotum

c. Adhesive strips

d. Supporter
157. Hallmark of the disease *1/1
Koplik's spots may appear

a. Bluish gray specks surrounded by a

red halo

b. Greenish gray speck surrounded by a

blue halo

c. Whitish gray speck surrounded by a

pink halo

d. Reddish –violet-gray speck surrounded

by a baby blue pink halo measles was
found to have untreated TB.

158. A client that will be receiving a *0/1

vaccine for measles was found to
have untreated TB. The nurse
should

a. Refer the new case to the doctor

b. Assess the severity of the TB

c. Do not give the vaccine

d. Give the vaccine and anti TB drugs

after
159. To facilitate absorption of the *0/1
vaccine, the nurse can instruct the
mother to

a. Massage the site

b. Not to massage the site

c. Apply warm compress

d. Apply cold compress

160. Children with measles should *1/1

be kept from school, for how many
days?

a. 4 days before the rash appear

b. 4 days after the rash appear – 5days

c. 4 days after the Koplik's spots

disappear

d. 4 days before the incubation period

161. The reservoir of C. Diptheriae *1/1
is

a. Humans

b. Cats

c. Cows

d. Birds

162. The causative agent of *1/1

diphtheria is

a. Corynebacterium diptheriae

b. Colorbacterium diptheriae

c. Cornubacterium diptehriae

d. Corynabacteriam diptheriae
163. The pathogneumonic sign of *1/1
diphtheria is

a. Pseudomembrane in the tongue

b. Pseudomembrahne in the throat

c. Pseudomembrane in the skin

d. Pseudomembrane under the tongue

164. To prevent spread of disease, *1/1

the nurse should

a. Instill strict isolation

b. Administer drugs immediately

c. It does not need isolation

d. There should be a reverse isolation

165. The nurse should make sure *1/1
the availability of the following
machine to clients with diphtheria

a. Suction machine

b. ECG machine

c. nebulizer

d. Pulse oximeter

166. Whooping cough is usually *0/1

transmitted with

A. Inoculation to skin

B. Drinking contaminated water

C. Inhalation of contaminated droplets

D. Direct skin contact

167. A client suspected pertussis is *0/1
highly communicable during

A. The appearance of Krst symptom

B. During the catarrhal stage

C. During the paroxysmal stage

D. During the convalescent stage

168. The following are possible *1/1

complications of whooping cough.

1. Nosebleed

2. Conjunctival hemorrhage

3. Rectal prolapsed

4. Detached retina

A. 1 and 2

B. 1 and 4

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
169. What findings can clinically *1/1
confirms a pertussis?

A. Signs and symptoms during

paroxysmal stage

B. Swab and sputum exam

C. Fluorescent antibody screening

D. WBC count

170. The meal plan for the child *1/1

should be?

A. Soft diet :Cold ice cream as tolerated

B. DAT :Favorite cookies

C. Therapeutic biscuits with vitamins

D. Small frequent feedings

171. What machine that must be *1/1
readily available at the bedside of
the patient?

A. ECG

B. EEG

C. Suction machine

D. Mechanical ventilator

172. The nurse instructed the *1/1

visitors not to cuddle and let the
child play always. The visitor asked
why, the nurse best reply?

A. So that you will not be infected too

B. So that the child can rest

C. So that the child will not be prone to

other infections

D. So that you will not harbor the

microorganism when you cuddle him
173. As a nurse, you should bear in *0/1
mind that pneumonias can be
classified according to the
following classifications, except?

A. Cause

B. Location

C. Severity

D. Type
174. The nurse in the community is *1/1
assessing a man, suspected for
pneumonia. The following are the
cardinal signs of pneumonia. Select
all that apply.

1. Coughing

2. Sputum production

3. Pleuritic chest pain

4. Chills

5. Fever

a. 1, 2 and 4

b. 1, 3, 4 and 5

c. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

d. 1, 2,3 and 4
175. Eating has always been a *1/1
problem to clients with severe
pneumonia. As a nurse, you can
advise mothers to prepare what
type of food?

A. Rich in vitamins only

B. High calorie, high protein

C. Any foods as long as it can be tolerated

D. Since it is severe, the client should be in

NG tube.

176. The nurse who is in care of an *1/1

elderly in NG tube feeding, has
always been careful in checking
the patency of the NG tube, this is
mainly to prevent what type of
pneumonia?

A. Bacterial pneumonia

B. Protozoan pneumonia

C. Viral pneumonia

D. Aspiration pneumonia
177. The most common agent of *1/1
pneumonia secondary to
immunosuppresion such as AIDS
is

A. Pneumocystis cariini

B. Klebsiella

C. Streptococcus

D. Chicken pox virus

*1/1

178. Which of the following

symptoms that occurs in
pneumonia that is considered as
the pathogneumonic sign?

A. Rusty sputum

B. Colored urine

C. Chest pain upon breathing

D. High Temperatire
179. The immunochromatographic *1/1
test for filariasis can be done
during

A. The acute stage of infection

B. Chronic stage of infection

C. Can be done at night time also

D. Can be done at day time

180. A client noticed that her urine *1/1

turns white. This is known as

A. Severe proteinuria – or albuminuria

B. Chyluria

C. Severe presence of parasite in the urine

D. Presence of lymph tissues in the urine

181. A client with positive *1/1
microfilariae in the blood can be
given with

A. Hetrazan

B. Praziquantel

C. Ampcillin

D. None

182. Select all that apply in *1/1

preventing filariasis.

1. Use of mosquito nets

2. Wearing jackets and socks

3. Planting neem tree

4. Health education

A. 1 and 2

B. 2 and 3

C. 1 , 2 and 3

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
183. During your rounds in the *1/1
community. You reminded the
community that malaria-infected
mosquito usually bite around?

A. 9pm to 3 am

B. 9am to 3pm

C. Day biting only

D. No speciKc time of biting

184. What should the nurse ask *1/1

importantly to a client suspected
with malaria?

A. What did you do last night?

B. Where did you sleep last night?

C. What were the places you recently

visited?

D. What were you wearing while you were

sleeping?
185. A student asked the public *0/1
nurse is malaria can be
transmitted through using same
injectable needles among drug
addicts. What is the nurse best
reply?

A. No, it cannot be transmitted

B. Yes, if the client is infected with malaria

C. No, the parasite needs the mosquito in

order to survive outside the host

D. It has not yet been proved that malaria

can be transmitted through injection

186. The nurse on duty asked a *1/1

mother since when the child
suspected with dengue to have a
sudden fever. The mother answered
2 days ago. The nurse identifies
this as

A. The client is on febrile stage

B. The client is now on toxic stage

C. The client is on recovery stage

D. The client is on prodromal stage

187. The nurse on duty in BHC *0/1
found out that a 16- year-old boy is
having fever, profuse vomiting with
blood and severe abdominal
bleeding. The nurse should be
alarmed because?

A. Death may occur at this stage

B. The child is having severe

abdominal pain

C. The child is entering the invasive stage

of dengue fever

D. Convalescent stage is now signaled by

the vomiting.

188. A student nurse asked the *1/1

midwife if immunity against
dengue virus is possible, the
midwife’s best reply is

A. No it is not possible

B. Yes it is possible

C. No this virus is different

D. Maybe
189. An admitted client is admitted *0/1
due to dengue. The initial
diagnosis is moderate Dengue
fever. This means that

A. The nurse will expect severe

hemorrhage

B. The client will experience on and off

fever

C. The client will manifest lesser

hemorrhage

D. The client will have sudden fever

followed by a sudden drop of
temperature.

190. The mother asked the nurse *0/1

on who are most susceptible to
dengue, is it males or females?
The nurse can say

A. Both gender are affected

B. Males are more affected

C. Females are more affected

D. Children between 5-9 are more

affected.
191. It is noted that since the *0/1
causative agent of dengue is virus,
a student ask if when to administer
the vaccine? The nurse will
reinforce by saying

A. Administer the vaccine immediately

upon admission

B. Vaccine can be given after the

conKrmatory test of dengue

C. Vaccine shall be given within 72

hours after the initial infection

D. We cannot give vaccines.

192. When doing your information *0/1

drive about bacillary dysentery, you
should inform the public on which
of the following information?
EXCEPT

A. That is also as Shigellosis

B. Transmission occurs by eating

contaminated food

C. House]y as the major vector

D. It has an incubation period of 1- 4 days.

193. When a mother came to the *1/1
BHC and told the nurse that his
son might be suffering with
dysentery, the nurse should ask
which of the following questions
would increase the suspicion of
dysentery?

A. What is the color of the stool?

B. Did he had a recent travel?

C. What was his latest food eaten?

D. Does he have any mosquito bites?

194. The following are possible *1/1

pharmacologic treatments that can
be given to clients with dysentery,
except?

A. Antibiotics can be given to manage the

infection

B. Antidiarrheals to stop the profuse

diarrhea causing dehydration

C. Iv infusions of NSS to replace lost

]uids

D. Possible administration of co-

trimoxazole
195. As a nurse, you can encourage *1/1
the S.O of the client with dysentery
to do which of the following
actions?

A. Cut the S.O’s long nails

B. Give the stool when he is not busy

C. Encourage the client to ambulate

around the hospital

D. Offer clients all types of food as long as

tolerated

196. The client complains of *1/1

spasms in his rectum. This is
known as

A. Tenesmus

B. Shigellosis

C. Diarrhea

D. Coryza
197. The primary treatment to *1/1
control ascariasis is

A. Mebendazole

B. Ampiccilin

C. Dapsone

D. Praziquantel

198. A pregnant mother was very *1/1

worried since she knows that she
cannot take anti helminths. The
nurse can inform the client that?

A. She has to wait after pregnancy to

control the infection

B. She should bear the consequences

C. She can take other medications

D. There is no other way of controlling the

infection
199. The most common mode of *1/1
transmission of hookworm
infection is?

A. Ingesting contaminated water only

B. Direct contact, barefoot

C. Airborne, infected droplets

D. Vector borne

200. These parasites (hookworms) *1/1

gain entry in the GI by?

A. Swallowing

B. Direct invasion in the GI

C. Blood circulation

D. Direct penetration from the skin

201. A client is admitted to the *0/1
labor and delivery unit in active
labor. During examination, the
nurse notes a papular lesion on the
perineum. Which initial action is
most appropriate?

a. Document the Knding

b. Report the Knding to the doctor

c. Prepare the client for a C-section

d. Continue primary care as prescribed

201. A client with a diagnosis of *0/1

HPV is at risk for which of the
following?

a. Hodgkin's lymphoma

b. Cervical cancer

c. Multiple myeloma

d. Ovarian cancer
203. During the initial interview, the *1/1
client reports that she has a lesion
on the perineum. Further
investigation reveals a small blister
on the vulva that is painful to touch.
The nurse is aware that the most
likely source of the lesion is:

a. Syphilis

b. Herpes

c. Gonorrhea

d. Condylomata

204. A 15-year-old primigravida is *1/1

admitted with a tentative diagnosis
of HELLP syndrome. Which
laboratory finding is associated
with HELLP syndrome?

a. Elevated blood glucose

b. Elevated platelet count

c. Elevated creatinine clearance

d. Elevated hepatic enzymes

205. Which observation in the *1/1
newborn of a diabetic mother
would require immediate nursing
intervention?

a. Crying

b. Wakefulness

c. Jitteriness

d. Yawning

206. The nurse caring for a client *1/1

receiving intravenous magnesium
sulfate must closely observe for
side effects associated with drug
therapy. An expected side effect of
magnesium sulfate is:

a. Decreased urinary output

b. Hypersomnolence

c. Absence of knee jerk re]ex

d. Decreased respiratory rate

207. A gravida III para 0 is admitted *1/1
to the labor and delivery unit. The
doctor performs an amniotomy.
Which observation would the nurse
be expected to make after the
amniotomy?

a. Fetal heart tones 160bpm

b. A moderate amount of straw-

colored ]uid

c. A small amount of greenish ]uid

d. A small segment of the umbilical cord

208. The client is having fetal heart *0/1

rates of 90–110bpm during the
contractions. The first action the
nurse should take is:

a. Reposition the monitor

b. Turn the client to her left side

c. Ask the client to ambulate

d. Prepare the client for delivery

209. In evaluating the effectiveness *1/1
of IV Pitocin for a client with
secondary dystocia, the nurse
should expect:

a. A painless delivery

b. Cervical effacement

c. Infrequent contractions

d. Progressive cervical dilation

210. A vaginal exam reveals a *1/1

footling breech presentation. The
nurse should take which of the
following actions at this time?

a. Anticipate the need for a Caesarean

section

b. Apply the fetal heart monitor

c. Place the client in Genu Pectoral

position

d. Perform an ultrasound exam

211. As the client reaches 8cm *1/1
dilation, the nurse notes late
decelerations on the fetal monitor.
The FHR baseline is 165–175bpm
with variability of 0–2bpm. What is
the most likely explanation of this
pattern?

a. The baby is asleep.

b. The umbilical cord is compressed.

c. There is a vagal response.

d. There is uteroplacental
insuiciency.

212. The nurse notes variable *1/1

decelerations on the fetal monitor
strip. The most appropriate initial
action would be to:

a. Notify her doctor

b. Start an IV of pitocin

c. Reposition the client

d. Prepare patient for an UTZ to make the

Knding more accurate
213. Which of the following is a *1/1
characteristic of a reassuring fetal
heart rate pattern?

a. A fetal heart rate of 170–180bpm

b. A baseline variability of 25–35bpm

c. Ominous periodic changes

d. Acceleration of FHR with fetal

movements

214. The doctor suspects that the *1/1

client has an ectopic pregnancy.
Which symptom is consistent with
a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy?

a. Painless vaginal bleeding

b. Abdominal cramping

c. Throbbing pain in the upper quadrant

d. Sudden, stabbing pain in the lower

quadrant
215. The client with hyperemesis *1/1
gravidarum is at risk for developing:

a. Respiratory alkalosis without

dehydration

b. Metabolic acidosis with dehydration

c. Respiratory acidosis without

dehydration

d. Metabolic alkalosis with

dehydration

216. The nurse is caring for a *0/1

neonate whose mother is diabetic.
The nurse will expect the neonate
to be:

a. Hypoglycemic, small for gestational

age

b. Hyperglycemic, large for gestational

age

c. Hypoglycemic, large for gestational age

d. Hyperglycemic, small for

gestational age
217. The nurse is discussing *1/1
breastfeeding with a postpartum
client. Breastfeeding is
contraindicated in the postpartum
client with:

a. Diabetes

b. Positive HIV

c. Hypertension

d. Thyroid disease

218. A client telephones the *0/1

emergency room stating that she
thinks that she is in labor. The
nurse should tell the client that
labor has probably begun when:

a. Her contractions are 2 minutes

apart.

b. She has back pain and a bloody

discharge.

c. She experiences abdominal pain and

frequent urination.

d. Her contractions are 5 minutes apart.

219. The nurse is teaching a group *1/1
of prenatal clients about the effects
of cigarette smoke on fetal
development. Which characteristic
is associated with babies born to
mothers who smoked during
pregnancy?

a. Low birth weight

b. Large for gestational age

c. Preterm birth, but appropriate size for

gestation

d. Growth retardation in weight and length

220. The physician has ordered an *1/1

injection of RhoGam for the
postpartum client whose blood
type is A negative but whose baby
is O positive. To provide
postpartum prophylaxis, RhoGam
should be administered:

a. Within 72 hours of delivery

b. Within 1 week of delivery

c. Within 2 weeks of delivery

d. Within 1 month of delivery

221. For the client who is using oral *0/1
contraceptives, the nurse informs
the client about the need to take
the pill at the same time each day
to accomplish which of the
following?

a. Decrease the incidence of nausea

b. Maintain hormonal levels

c. Reduce side effects

d. Prevent drug interactions

222. When teaching a client about *1/1

contraception. Which of the
following would the nurse include
as the most effective method for
preventing sexually transmitted
infections?

a. Spermicides

b. Diaphragm

c. Condoms

d. Vasectomy
223. When preparing a woman who *0/1
is 2 days postpartum for discharge,
recommendations for which of the
following contraceptive methods
would be avoided?

a. Diaphragm

b. Female condom

c. Oral contraceptives

d. Rhythm method

224. For which of the following *1/1

clients would the nurse expect that
an intrauterine device would not be
recommended?

a. Woman over age 35

b. Nulliparous woman

c. Promiscuous young adult

d. Postpartum client
225. A client in her third trimester *1/1
tells the nurse, “I’m constipated all
the time!” Which of the following
should the nurse recommend?

a. Daily enemas

b. Laxatives

c. Increased Kber intake

d. Decreased ]uid intake

226. The client tells the nurse that *1/1

her last menstrual period started on
January 14 and ended on January
20. Using Nagele’s rule, the nurse
determines her EDD to be which of
the following?

a. September 27

b. October 21

c. November 7

d. December 27
227. When taking an obstetrical *0/1
history on a pregnant client who
states, “I had a son born at 38
weeks gestation, a daughter born at
30 weeks gestation and I lost a
baby at about 8 weeks,” the nurse
should record her obstetrical
history as which of the following?

a. G2 T2 P0 A0 L2

b. G3 T1 P1 A0 L2

c. G3 T2 P0 A0 L2

d. G4 T1 P1 A1 L2

228. When preparing to listen to the *1/1

fetal heart rate at 12 weeks’
gestation, the nurse would use
which of the following?

a. Stethoscope placed midline at the

umbilicus

b. Doppler placed midline at the

suprapubic region

c. Fetoscope placed midway between the

umbilicus and the xiphoid process

d. External electronic fetal monitor placed

at the umbilicus
229. When developing a plan of *0/1
care for a client newly diagnosed
with gestational diabetes, which of
the following instructions would be
the priority?

a. Dietary intake

b. Medication

c. Exercise

d. Glucose monitoring

230. A client at 24 weeks gestation *1/1

has gained 6 pounds in 4 weeks.
Which of the following would be the
priority when assessing the client?

a. Glucosuria

b. Depression

c. Hand/face edema

d. Dietary intake
231. A client 12 weeks’ pregnant *1/1
come to the emergency department
with abdominal cramping and
moderate vaginal bleeding.
Speculum examination reveals 2 to
3 cms cervical dilation. The nurse
would document these findings as
which of the following?

a. Threatened abortion

b. Imminent abortion

c. Complete abortion

d. Missed abortion

232. Which of the following would *1/1

be the priority nursing diagnosis for
a client with an ectopic pregnancy?

a. Risk for infection

b. Pain

c. Knowledge DeKcit

d. Anticipatory Grieving
233. Before assessing the *1/1
postpartum client’s uterus for
firmness and position in relation to
the umbilicus and midline, which of
the following should the nurse do
first?

a. Assess the vital signs

b. Administer analgesia

c. Ambulate her in the hall

d. Assist her to urinate

234. Which of the following should *1/1

the nurse do when a primipara who
is lactating tells the nurse that she
has sore nipples?

a. Tell her to breastfeed more

frequently

b. Administer a narcotic before breast

feeding

c. Encourage her to wear a nursing

brassiere

d. Use soap and water to clean the

nipples
235. The nurse assesses the vital *0/1
signs of a client, 4 hours’
postpartum that are as follows: BP
90/60; temperature 100.4ºF; pulse
100 weak, thready; R 20 per minute.
Which of the following should the
nurse do first?

a. Report the temperature to the physician

b. Recheck the blood pressure with

another cuff

c. Assess the uterus for Krmness and

position

d. Determine the amount of lochia

236. The nurse assesses the *1/1
postpartum vaginal discharge
(lochia) on four clients. Which of
the following assessments would
warrant notification of the
physician?

a. A dark red discharge on a 2-day

postpartum client

b. A pink to brownish discharge on a client

who is 5 days postpartum

c. Almost colorless to creamy discharge

on a client 2 weeks after delivery

d. A bright red discharge 5 days after

delivery

237. A postpartum client has a *1/1

temperature of 101.4ºF, with a
uterus that is tender when palpated,
remains unusually large, and not
descending as normally expected.
Which of the following should the
nurse assess next?

a. Lochia

b. Breasts

c. Incision

d. Urine
238. Which of the following is the *1/1
priority focus of nursing practice
with the current early postpartum
discharge?

a. Promoting comfort and restoration of

health

b. Exploring the emotional status of the

family

c. Facilitating safe and effective self-

and newborn care

d. Teaching about the importance of

family planning

239. Which of the following actions *1/1

would be least effective in
maintaining a neutral thermal
environment for the newborn?

a. Placing infant under radiant warmer

after bathing

b. Covering the scale with a warmed

blanket prior to weighing

c. Placing crib close to nursery

window for family viewing

d. Covering the infant’s head with a knit

stockinette
240. A client is having hyperemesis *1/1
gravidarum. All of the following are
recommended nursing
management to a pregnant woman,
except:

a. Small frequent feedings

b. Carbonated beverages after eating

c. Low sodium crackers before arising in

the morning

d. Increase protein intake at night

241. In the 12th week of gestation, *1/1

pt. Dani completely expels the
products of conception. Because
the client is Rh negative, the nurse
must:

A. Administer RhoGAM within 72

hours.

B. Not give RhoGAM since it is not used

with the birth of a stillborn.

C. Make certain that the client does not

receive RhoGAM, since the gestation was
only 12 weeks.

D. Make certain she receives RhoGAM on

her Krst clinic visit.
242. Milz is admitted in active labor *0/1
has only progressed from 2 cm to 3
cm in 8 hours. She is diagnosed as
having hypotonic dystocia and is
given oxytocin (Pitocin) to augment
her contractions. The most
important aspect of nursing at this
time is:

A. Monitoring the FHR

B. Timing and recording the length of

contractions.

C. Checking the perineum for bulging.

D. Preparing for an emergency cesarean

delivery.
243. Aling Anabelle is experiencing *1/1
stomach and right shoulder pain.
She is diagnosed with severe
preeclampsia. She was ordered
with magnesium sulfate. Which of
the following would you note as the
first sign of an excessive blood
magnesium level:

A. Distrurbance in sensorium

B. Development of cardiac dysrhyhmia

C. Increase in respiratory rate

D. Disappearance of the knee-jerk

re]ex
244. Dora is admitted to the *1/1
hospital with vaginal staining but
no pain. The client’s history reveals
amenorrhea for the last 2 months,
and pregnancy confirmation by her
physician after her first missed
period. She is admitted for
observation with a possible
diagnosis of:

A. Missed abortion

B. Ectopic pregnancy

C. Inevitable abortion

D. Threatened abortion
245. You discovered a loop of the *0/1
umbilical cord protruding through
the vagina when preparing to
perform a vaginal examination.
Your most appropriate intervention
is to:

a. Call the physician immediately

b. Place a moist clean towel over the

cord to prevent drying

c. Immediately turn the client on her side

and listen to the fetal heart rate.

d. Perform the vaginal examination and

apply upward digital pressure to the
presenting part while having the mother
assume a knee-chest position.

246. A mother is crying at baby’s *0/1

bedside. The most therapeutic
response by the nurse is:

a. “Don’t worry. Everything will be Kne.”

b. “Why are you upset?”

c. “Would you like me to call the hospital

chaplain?”

d. “This must be hard for you.”

247. Which of the following *1/1
additional assessment findings
would be most suspicious and lead
the nurse to suspect postpartum
“blues” in a client who is anxious
and crying?

a. Loss of appetite, constipation,

abdominal pain

b. Despondency, loss of appetite,

diiculty sleeping

c. Increased appetite, urinary retention,

diarrhea

d. Poor concentration, constipation,

diarrhea
248. The nurse assesses the vital *0/1
signs of the client, 4 hours’
postpartum that are as follows: BP
90/60; temperature 100.4°F; pulse
100 weak, thready; R 20 per minute.
Which of the following should the
nurse do first?

a. Report the temperature to the physician

b. Recheck the blood pressure with

another cuff

c. Assess the uterus for Krmness and

position

d. Determine the amount of lochia

249. It is most important for the *0/1

nurse to have which drug readily
available when the client is being
treated with heparin therapy for
thrombophlebitis?

a. Calcium gluconate

b. Protamine sulfate

c. Aquamephyton

d. Ferrous sulfate
 250. After 4 hours of active labor, *1/1
the nurse notes that the
contractions of a primigravid client
are not strong enough to dilate the
cervix. Which of the following
would the nurse anticipate?

a. Obtaining an order to begin IV

oxytocin

b. Administering a light sedative to allow

the patient to rest for several hours

c. Preparing for cesarean section for

failure to progress

d. Increasing the encouragement to the

patient when pushing begins.

This form was created inside of TopRank Review Academy.

Report Abuse

Forms