ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL, AHMEDNAGAR

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION BANK

CLASS: IX
SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE CHAPTER:INDIA, SIZE AND LOCATION

1. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): The Indian landmass has a central location between the East and the West
Asia. The Trans Indian Ocean routes which connect the countries of Europe in the West and
the countries of East Asia provide a strategic central location to India.
Reason (R): In the beginning of 19th century India’s cotton exporting percentage had been
declined in the European country.
Options:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is correct but R is wrong
d) A is wrong but R is correct.

2. The sun rises earlier in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat. According to longitudinal
extend of the country, what time will the watch show in Gujarat if it is 6 PM in Arunachal
Pradesh?
a) 4 PM b) 5 PM c) 6 PM d) 7 PM
3. Match the following Capital with their State and choose the correct option.
State Capital

i) Jharkhand a) Dispur
ii) Dadra-Nagar Haveli b) Silvasa
iii) Andaman-Nicobar c) Ranchi
iv) Assam d) Port blair

a) i)- d), ii) – a), iii) – c), iv) – b). c) i)- c), ii) – b), iii) – d), iv) – a).
b) i)- a), ii) – b), iii) – d), iv) – c). d) i)- b), ii) – d), iii) – c), iv) – a).
4. The southernmost latitude of India including islands is ________.
5. What influences the duration of the day and night as one move from south to north?
a) Longitudinal extent b) Tropic of cancer
b) Tropic of Capricorn d) None of the above.
6. Find the incorrect statements:
A. The main land of India extends between latitudes 8.4’N to 37.6’E.
B. The land mass of India has an area of 3.28 billion square Km.
C. India is bounded by the young fold mountain in the northwest.
D. Since the opening of the Suez Canal in 1867, India’s distance from Europe has been
reduced by 7,000 Km.
a) Only C and A b) Only A,B and D c) Only C d) Only A
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7. Complete the following table with correct information.
India Size and Eastern most Tropic of Cancer Distance from the
Location longitude of India located on latitude North to South in Km.

A ----? B ----? C----?

8. Correct the following statement and rewrite :

India has a Ocean boundary about 15,200 Km and the total length of the coast line of the
mainland is 7,516.6Km.

9. Which time zone does India follow?

a) ISMT b) GMT c) ITCZ d) None of the above.
10. If you want to visit Lakshadweep during your winter holidays, which water body would you
have to cross?
a) Andaman Sea b) Nicobar Sea c) Baltic Sea d) none of the above.
11. As per the total length of coastal line, India has seventh Rank in the World.
a) True b) False
12. What commodity was taken from India to various parts of the world?
a) Spices b) Pulses c) Wheat d) Cotton
13.

As per the world map shown above, in which zone does India lies?
a) Tropical and Temperate zone c) Tropical and Sub-Tropical Zone
b) Sub-Tropical and Temperate Zone d) Temperate and Polar Zone.
14. What is the east-west extension of India in Kilometres?
a) 2,933 Kms b) 2,399 Kms c) 3,299 Kms d) 3,929 Kms.
15. India lies in the Eastern and Southern hemisphere.
a) True b) False.

**********************

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 ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL, AHMEDNAGAR
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION BANK
CLASS: IX
SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE CHAPTER:PHYSICAL FEATURE OF INDIA
1: Which of the following is responsible for the variation in the colour of soil in different parts of
India?
(a) Difference in rock formations (b) Weathering
(c) Erosion and deposition (d) Land use
2: Which of the following has not been a factor in the creation and modification of India’s relief
features?
(a) Geological formations (b) Population density
(c) Weathering (d) Erosion and deposition
3: Which of the following is a plausible theory presented by Earth scientists to explain the
formation of continents and oceans and the various landforms?
(a) Theory of Motion
(b) Theory of Plate Tectonics
(c) Theory of Evolution
(d) Theory of Relativity

4: According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ the earth’s crust is formed of how many major
plates?
(a) Three (b) Five (c) Seven (d) Ten
5: According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ the movement of the plates result in some
geological activity. Which
one of the following is not such a geological activity?
(a) Volcanic activity (b) Folding (c) Faulting (d) Glaciation
6: According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ when some plates come towards each other,
which of the following is formed?
(a) Convergent boundary (b) Divergent boundary
(c) Transform boundary (d) Colliding boundary

7: According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ when some plates move away from each other,
which of the following is formed?
(a) Convergent boundary (b) Divergent boundary
(c) Transform boundary (d) None of the above

8: According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ in the event of two plates coming together, which
of the following is
not possible?
(a) The plates may collide and crumble.

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 (b) The plates may move horizontally past each other.
(c) The plates may form divergent boundary.
(d) One plate may slide under the other.

9: According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ what have been the effects of the movement of
the plates?
(a) Change in position and size of continents. (b) Formation of ocean basins.
(c) Evolution of the present landforms and relief of India.
(d) All of the above.
10: A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as _.
(a) Coast (b) Island (c) Peninsula (d) None of the above
11: Which of the following divisions of India has the oldest landmass?
(a) The Himalayas (b) The Northern Plains
(c) The Peninsular Plateau (d) The Indian Desert

12: The Peninsular Plateau of India is part of which of the following landmass?
(a) Angaraland (b) Gondwanaland (c) Tethys (d) Eurasian Plate
13: Which of the following countries or continents was not a part of the ancient landmass of
Gondwanaland?
(a) India (b) Australia (c) Europe (d) South America

14: The northward drift of the Indo-Australian plate resulted in its collision with the much larger
Eurasian plate. Which of the following was the result of this collision?
(a) The Gondwanaland split into a number of plates.
(b) The continents of Europe and Asia were formed.
(c) Sedimentary rocks accumulated in the Tethys geosyncline were folded.
(d) India and Australia were formed.

15: Which of the following physiographic divisions of India was formed out of accumulations in the
Tethys
geosyncline?
(a) The Himalayas (b) The Northern Plains
(c) The Peninsular Plateau (d) The Indian Desert

16: The Himalayan uplift out of the Tethys Sea and subsidence of the northern flank of the
peninsular plateau resulted
in the formation of a large basin. Which of the following physical divisions of India was formed
due to filling up of
this depression?
(a) The Himalayas (b) The Northern Plains

(c) The Peninsular Plateau (d) The Coastal Plains

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17: Geologically, which of the following physiographic divisions of India is supposed to be one of
the most stable land blocks?
(a) The Himalayas (b) The Northern Plains
(c) The Peninsular Plateau (d) The Indian Desert
18: From the point of view of geology, which of the following physiographic divisions of India is
considered to be an unstable zone?
(a) The Himalayan Mountains (b) The Peninsular Plateau
(c) The Indian Desert (d) The Islands
19: Which of the following are young-fold mountains?
(a) The Aravalis (b) The Nilgiris
(c) The Himalayas (d) The Sahyadri
20: Which of the following physical features forms a natural barrier to the north of India?
(a) Kunlun Mountains (b) Plateau of Tibet
(c) River Brahamaputra (d) The Himalayas
21: The Himalayas consist of three parallel ranges in its longitudinal extent. Which of the following
is the name of the northern-most range?
(a) The Himadri (b) The Himachal
(c) The Shivaliks (d) The Purvanchal
22: Which part of the Himalayas is perennially snowbound?
(a) Great Himalayas or Himadri (b) Lesser Himalayas or Himachal
(c) Shivaliks (d) Purvanchal
23: Which of the following is the highest peak in India?
(a) Mt. Everest (b) Kanchenjunga (c) Nanga Parbat (d) Nandadevi
24: Which of the following is not a mountain pass in the Great Himalayas?
(a) Bara Lapcha La and Shipkila (b) Nathula
(c) Khyber pass (d) Jojila and Lipu Lekh
25: What are Lesser Himalayas known as?
(a) Himadri (b) Himachal (c) Shivaliks (d) Purvanchal
26: Which of the following ranges are not part of the Lesser Himalayas or Himachal?
(a) Pir Panjal (b) Dhaula Dhar (c) Mahabharat (d) Kamet
27: In which division of the Himalayas are the famous valleys of Kashmir, Kangra and Kullu
located?
(a) The Himadri (b) The Himachal (c) The Shivaliks (d) The Duns
28: Which of the following ranges of the Himalayas are composed of unconsolidated sediments
brought down by rivers?
(a) The Pir Panjal range (b) The Karakoram range
(c) The Shivaliks (d) The Ladakh range

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29: The longitudinal valleys lying between lesser Himalayas and Shivaliks are known as .
(a) Kangra Valley (b) Patkai Bum (c) Passes (d) Duns
30: From west to east, the divisions of the Himalayas are demarcated by river valleys. The part of
the Himalayas lying between the Satluj and Kali rivers is known as .
(a) Punjab Himalayas (b) Kumaon Himalaya (c) Nepal Himalayas (d) Assam Himalayas
31: Which two hills are located in the south-east of Eastern Ghats ?
(a) Mizo Hills and Naga Hills (b) Javadi Hills and Shevroy Hills
(c) Patkoi Hills and Manipuri Hills (d) Mizo Hills and Patkoi Hills
32: which islands of India are called Coral Islands?
(a) Lakshdeep (b) Andman and Nikobar (c) both (d) None of these
33: A narrow gap in a mountain range providing access to the other side is :
(a) Mound (b) Pass (c) Strait (d) Valley
34: The wet and swampy belt of the Northern Region is known locally as :
(a) Bhabar (b) Terai (c) Doab (d) Bhangar

ANSWER
Q.1 (a) Q.2 (b) Q.3
(b) Q.4(c) Q.5(d) Q.6(a) Q.7(b) Q.8(c) Q.9(d) Q.10(c) Q.11(c) Q.12(b)Q.13(c)
Q.14(c) Q.15(a) Q.16(b Q.17(c) Q.18(a) Q.19. (c) Q.20 (d) Q.21 (a) Q.22 (a) Q.23
(b) Q.24 (c)Q.25(a) Q.26(d) Q.27(b) Q.28(c) Q.29(d) Q.30- (b)
Q.31(b) Q.32(a) Q.33(b) Q.34. (b)

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 ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL, AHMEDNAGAR
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION BANK
CLASS: IX
SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE CHAPTER:NATURAL VEGETATION AND WILDLIFE
1. Why are there great variations in the bio forms of India?
(a) Because of vast size

(b) Because of small size

(c) Because of landmass

(d) Because of water bodies

2. What is the rank of India in the world in respect of plant diversity?

(a) 10th
(b) 12th

(c) 5th
(d) 6th

3. At what rank does India stand in the world in respect of number of flowering plants?

(a) 10%
(b) 5%

(c) 6%
(d) 12%

4. Natural vegetation referring to a plant community which has grown naturally without
human aid and has been left undisturbed by humans for a long time, is termed as

(a) endemic vegetation

(b) virgin vegetation

(c) natural vegetation

(d) desert vegetation

5. Flora is referred to as
(a) species of animals

(b) species of plants

(c) both (a) and (b)

(d) none of these

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6. Why is there a difference in the duration of sunlight at different places?
(a) Due to difference in altitudes
(b) Due to difference in water bodies
(c) Due to difference in longitudes
(d) Due to difference in latitudes
7. What is the duration of south-west monsoon in India?
(a) October to November
(b) December to March
(c) June to September
(d) None of these
8. „All the plants and animals in an area are interdependent and interrelated to each
other in their physical environment.‟ What is the name given to this interrelationship and
interdependence?
(a) Physical environment,
(b) Ecosystem
(c) Biomes
(d) Food chain
9. What is the basis of identifying biomes on the earth?
(a) Animals
(b) Plants
(c) Fish
(d) Buffalo
10. What restricts the Tropical Evergreen Forests?
(a) Temperature
(b) Rainfall
(c) Airpressure
(d) Air current
11. Name the forests in which teak is the most dominant species.
(a) Tropical evergreen forests
(b) Tropical thorn forests and scrubs
(c) Tropical deciduous forests

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(d) Mangrove forests
12. In thorn forests and scrubs, why are leaves of trees mostly thick and small?
(a) To maximise evaporation
(b) To minimise evaporation
(c) To reduce moisture
(d) To do nothing
13. In which type of forests does Sundari tree belong?
(a) Tropical evergreen forests
(b) Tropical thorn forests and scrubs
(c) Tropical deciduous forests
(d) Mangrove forests
14. Name the animal which lives in swampy and marshy lands of Assam and West
Bengal.
(a) Elephants
(b) One horned Rhinoceros
(c) Nilgai
(d) Lion
15. Give an example of biosphere reserve of India.
(a) Corbett Park
(b) Kawal
(c) Pachmari
(d) Guindy
16. What have been set up to take care of natural heritage?
(a) Setting up of National Parks
(b) Setting up of Wildlife Sanctuaries
(c) Setting up of Zoological Gardens
(d) Setting up of all of these

Answers:
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (a)
6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (b)11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (c)16. (d)

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 ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL, AHMEDNAGAR
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION BANK
CLASS: IX
SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE CHAPTER: WHAT IS DEMOCRACY? WHY DEMOCRACY?

1. Which one of the following best signifies this Cartoon?

a) Malpractices in election
b) Monarchy form of government system.
c) Democracy in Mexico
d) None of the above
2. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason
(R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): In a democracy the final decision-making power must rest with those elected
by the people
Reason (R): In 2002 Genera Musharraf issued a Legal Framework Order, according to this
the President can dismiss the national and provincial assemblies.
Options:
e) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
f) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
g) A is correct but R is wrong
h) A is wrong but R is correct.
3. Correct the following statement and rewrite :
Estonia has made its citizenship rules in such a way that people belonging to German minority
find it difficult to get the right to vote.
4. Here is the two reactions on ‘Democracy’. Give an argument and an example to support any of
these positions.
Rohit:- Democracy provide us a platform to choose our leaders.
Saniya:- Leaders keep changing in a Democracy. This leads to instability.
5. Who appoints the President of China?
a) People b) UNO c) National People’s Congress d) Monarch.
6. Modern democracies involve a large number of people.
a) True b) False.

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7. Which of these is not a good argument in favour of democracy?
a) People feel free and equal in a democracy.
b) Democracies resolve conflict in a better way than others.
c) Democratic government is more accountable to the people.
d) Democracies are more prosperous than others.
8. Rajesh and Muzaffar read an article. It showed that no democracy has ever gone to war with
another democracy. Wars take place only when one of the two governments is non-
democratic. The article said that this was a great merit of democracy. After reading the essay,
Rajesh and Muzaffar had different reactions. Rajesh said that this was not a good argument
for democracy. It was just a matter of chance. It is possible that in future democracies may
have wars. Muzaffar said that it could not be a matter of chance. Democracies take decisions
in such a way that it reduces the chances of war.

Which of the two positions do you agree with above conversation and why?

9. Why does India have so much difference of opinions and interests?

a) Because people have right to expression.
b) Because people like to talk a lot.
c) Because of its wide social diversity.
d) None of the above.
10. __________ is the form of government in which all powers vested with an individual?
11. Write any two arguments against democracy.
12. Complete the following table with correct information.
Name of the party Every election won by How many members
ruled Zimbabwe since which party in Mexico in the parliament of
independence. china.

A ----? B ----? C----?

13. Which is the most common form of democracy in today’s world?

a) Presidential democracy c) Representative democracy
b) Direct democracy d) Participatory democracy.
14. Democracy is based on a fundamental principle of ________.
15.

Which one of the following option best signifies above cartoon?

a) Election of Iran c) Election of India
b) Election in Saudi Arabia d) Election of Iraq
11
 ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL, AHMEDNAGAR
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION BANK
CLASS: IX
SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE CHAPTER: CONSTITUTIONAL DESIGN
1. what did the black population want in the new Constitution?
(a) A black President
(b) Substantial social and economic rights
(c) Whites should be turned out of the country
(d) Apartheid for the whites
2. what did the white minority want from the new Constitution?
(a) Protect its privileges and property
(b) A separate country for themselves
(c) Reservation in legislature
(d) some special rights
3. During negotiations for making the Constitution, the whites agreed to
(a) The principle of majority rule
(b) One person one vote
(c) Accept some basic rights for the poor and the workers
(d) All the above
4. which of the following sentences is correct?
(a) All countries that have constitutions are necessarily democratic
(b) All countries that are democratic necessarily have constitutions
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above)
5. when did Motilal Nehru draft a Constitution for India?
(a) 1927 (b) 1926 (c) 1929 (d) 1928
6. Where was the 1931 session of Indian National Congress held?
(a) Nagpur (b) Karachi (c) Calcutta (d) Delhi
7. which of these features were accepted by all the Indian leaders much before they
satDown to make the Constitution?
(a) Universal adult franchise (b) Right to freedom
(c) Protection of the rights of minorities (d) All the above
8. According to which Act were the elections held to provincial legislatures in India in
1937?
(a) Government of India Act, 1935 (b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1909 (d) None of the above
9. which of these inspired our leaders while framing the Constitution?
(a) Ideals of the French Revolution (b) Parliamentary democracy in Britain
(c) Bill of Rights in US (d) All the above
10. which revolution in the world inspired the Indians to set up a socialist economy?
(a) French Revolution (b) Turkish Revolution
(c) Russian Revolution (d) American War of Independence
11. Name the body which framed the Constitution of India?
(a) General Assembly (b) Constituent Assembly
(c) Constitutional Assembly (d) People’s Assembly
12. when did the Assembly adopt the Constitution?
(a) 26 November, 1949 (b) 26 December, 1949 (c) 26 January, 1950 (d) 26 January, 1949
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13. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Abul Kalam Azad
14. How many amendments were considered before adopting the Constitution?
(a) Around 500 (b) Around 2000 (c) Around 1550 (d) Around 1000
15. Who said the following?
“I shall work for an India in which the poorest shall feel that it is their country .....
InWhich all communities shall live in perfect harmony?”
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Sarojini Naidu
16. Who among these leaders was a bitter critic of Mahatma Gandhi?
(a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (b) Sarojini Naidu (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
17. “The ambition of the greatest man of our generation has been to wipe every tear
from Every eye.” Who was Nehru referring to in his speech?
(a) Abdul Ghaffar Khan (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (d) Vallabhbhai Patel
18. The Constitution begins with a short statement of its basic values. What is it called?
(a) Preface (b) Preamble (c) Introduction (d) Article
19. Match these guiding values with their meanings.
(A) Sovereign (i) government will not favour any particular religion
(B) Republic (ii) People will have supreme right to make decisions without outsideInterference
(C) Fraternity (iii) Head of the state is an elected person
(D) Secular (IV) There should be a feeling of brotherhood among all the people (a) A-(iii), B-(i),
C-(ii), D-(IV) (b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(c) A-(i), B-(IV), C-(iii), D-(ii) (d) A-(IV), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
20. which of these countries is/are examples of a Republic?
(a) USA (b) India (c) South Africa (d) All the above
21. what kind of „Justice‟ does our Preamble provide?
(a) Economic Justice (b) Political Justice (C) Social Justice (d) All the above
22. which of these positions is correct in relation to the „Sovereign‟ status of India?
(a) USA can decide India’s foreign policy
(b) USSR can support the CPI (M) in setting up its government here
(c) The Indian government only can decide its internal and external policies
(d) Pakistan can control India’s Armed Forces
23. Who was the chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (c) B.R. Ambedkar (d) Mahatma Gandhi
24. which of the following days is celebrated to mark the enforcement of the
constitution?
(a) Republic Day (b) Independence Day (c) Gandhi Jayanti (d) Constitution Enforcement Day
25. The Indian constitution has borrowed from
(i) Ideas from French Revolution (ii) The British Constitution
(iii) The Bill of Rights of the US (IV) Israeli Constitution
(a) i, ii, iv (b) i, ii, iii, (c) ii, iii, iv (d) i, ii, iv
26. The Constituent Assembly met for how many days?
(a) 114 (b) 280 (c) 365 (d) 150
27. Who was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian constitution?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) C. Rajgopalachari (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
28. When did the Indian constitution come into force?
(a) 26th Nov, 1949 (b) 15th August, 1947 (c) 26th Jan, 1950 (d) 26th Jan, 1930

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29. Who prepared the draft of a constitution for India in 1928?
(a) Motilal Nehru (b) B. R. Ambedkar (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
30. When was the Constitution of India adopted?
(a) 26th Nov, 1949 (b) 26th Jan, 1949 (c) 26th Jan, 1950 (d) 26th Nov, 1950
31. Drafting Committee was chaired by:
(a) Gandhiji (b) Pt. J.L. Nehru (c) Baldev Singh (d) Dr B.R. Ambedkar

KEY OF MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS [1 MARK]

1(a) 2 (b) 3 (d) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (d) 7 (b) 8 (c) 9 (a) 10(b)
11 (a) 12(d) 13(b) 14 (d) 15 (b) 16 (d) 17 (a) 18(d) 19 (c) 20 (b)
21(a) 22 (c) 23 (b) 24 (a) 25 (c) 26 (b) 27 (b) 28 (b) 29 (d)30 (d)
31(c) 32 (b) 33(a) 34(b) i, ii, iii, 35 (a) 36.(a) 37(c) 38 (a) 39 (a) 40(d)

ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL, AHMEDNAGAR

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION BANK
CLASS: IX
SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE CHAPTER: ELECTROL POLITICS

Q.1. Who led the „Nyaya Yudh‟?

(a) Chaudhary Charan Singh (b) Chaudhary Devi Lal

(c) Ajit Singh (d) None of these

Q.2.What was the promise Devi Lal made to the farmers and small businessmen?
(a) He would waive the loans of farmers and small businessmen

(b) He would lessen the rate of interest on their loans

(c) He would modernise agriculture

(d) He would provide free seeds and pesticides to them

Q.3.Which of these is not a feature of Indian democracy?

(a) India has the largest number of voters in the world

(b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful

(c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote

(d) ) In India, the losing parties refuse to accept the electoral verdict

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Q.4Which of these is not a condition of a democratic election?

(a) Everyone is allowed to vote (b) There are political parties to contest elections
(c) The candidate not preferred by people gets elected (d) Elections are held at regular intervals

Q.5.What is meant by the term „constituency‟?

(a) Place where the copy of constitution is kept

(b) A particular area from where voters elect a representative to the Lok Sabha / Vidhan Sabha
(c) A body of voters

(d) None of the above

Q.6.Which of the options below is the demerits of the electoral competition?

(a) Creates a sense of factionalism (b) Parties use dirty tricks to win elections
(c) Parties respect each other (d) both (a) and (b)

Q.7In India, elections for which of these bodies are held after every fiv e years?
(a) Rajya Sabha (b) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha (c) Vidhan Parishad (d) Only Lok Sabha

Q.8. Elections held after the term of 5 years of Lok Sabha are called-

(a) Mid-term elections (b) General elections (c) By-elections (d) Special elections
Q.9.What is an election held for only one
constituency to fill the vacancy caused due to the death or resignation of a member
called?

(a) By-election (b) Mid-term election (c) General election (d) None of these
Q.10. Into how many constituencies is the country divided for Lok Sabha elections?

(a) 544 (b) 543 (c) 560 (d) 535

Q.11. Constituencies called „wards‟ are made for the election to

(a) Parliament (b) State Legislative Assembly

(c) State Legislative Council (d) Panchayats and municipal bodies

Q.12. How many seats are reserved in Lok Sabha for the Scheduled Tribes?
(a) 40 (b) 41 (c) 51 (d) 71

Q.13. Which of these is not a part of the district and local level bodies?

(a) Panchayats (b) Municipalities (c) Corporations (d) Lok Sabha

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Q.14.Which of the options given below is applicable to the principle of Universal Adult
Franchise?
(a) Only rich and educated can vote (b) Only men can vote

(c) All citizens aged 18 and above can vote (d) only employed people can vote
Q.15. for voting, the voter has to show which of these as identity proof?

(a) Ration card (b) Driving license (c) Election Photo Identity Card
(d) None of these

Q.16.What is the minimum age required to contest an election to Lok Sabha?

(a) 20 years (b) 18 years (c) 25 years (d) 30 years

Q.17.What is the details the candidates have to give in the legal declaration before
contesting the elections?

(a) Serious criminal cases pending against them

(b) Details of assets and liabilities of the candidate and his or her family

(c) Educational qualification of the candidate (d) All the above

Q.18.What is a set of norms and guidelines, which is to be followed by political parties

and contesting candidates during the election time, called?

(a) Discipline Roll (b) Code of Conduct (c) Conduct rules (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q.19 Name the body which conducts the elections in India

(a) Supreme Court (b) Parliament (c) Cabinet (d) Election Commission
Q.20. How is the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) chosen?

(a) Appointed by the President (b) Elected by the people

(c) Elected by the MPs (d) Elected by MPs and MLAs

Q.21. When on election duty, under whose control does the government officers work?
(a) Central Government (b) Election Commission (c) District Magistrate (d) District Court

Q.22.In India, who votes in a larger proportion in the elections?

(a) Poor and illiterate (b) Rich and privileged (c) Educated people (d) Women

Q.23.What does the term „incumbent‟ mean?

(a) The current holder of a political office (b) The candidate contesting the election
(c) The outgoing candidate of the dissolved House (d) None of the above

16
Q.24.An electoral malpractice in which a person assumes the identity of another for
unlawful Purpose is
(a) Incumbent (b) Rigging (c) Impersonation (d) Turnact

Q.25.The Election Commission is:

(a) An elected body (b) An appointed body (c) An independent body (d) both (b) and (c)

Q.26.Which of the following is not allowed while carrying out election campaign?
(a) Giving money to voters to cast vote for candidates (b) Using TV channels

(c) Door to door canvassing (d) Contacting voters on phone

Q.27.Which of the following statement is incorrect?

(a) All citizens above the age of 21 can vote in an election

(b) Every citizen has the right to vote regardless of caste religion or gender

(c) Some criminals and persons with unsound mind can be denied the right to vote in rare situations
d) It is the responsibility of the government to get the names of all eligible voters put in the voters
list

Q.28 „„Save Democracy‟‟ slogan was given by which of the following political party in
1977 Lok Sabha elections?

(a) Congress Party (b) Janata Party (c) Telugu Desam Party (d) Left Front
Q.29.What is the age of a person who can contest election for the Lok Sabha in India?

(a) 25 years (b) 30 years (c) 35 years (d) 40 years

Q.30. In our country, elections are conducted by an independent and powerful body
which is known as
(a) Election Commission (b) Parliament (c) Judiciary (d) Lok Sabha

Q.31. Voter‟s List is also known as:

(a) Election Number (b) Voter Identity Card (c) Electoral Roll (d) None of these

Q.32.What is the tenure of the Lok Sabha?

(a) 9 years (b) 4 years (c) 5 years (d) 6 years

Q.33.Which of the following statements is against the democratic process of elections?

(a) Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections

(b) Elections must be held regularly immediately after the term is over

(c) The right to vote should be given to the selected people only
(d) Elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner
17
Q.34.Which state has the largest vidhan sabha in the country?

(a) Maharashtra (b) U.P. (Uttar Pradesh) (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) West Bengal
Q.35. Reserved Constituencies ensures

(a) Right to equality (b) Proper representation to all religious groups

(c) Proper representation to the weaker sections of society (d) None of these

Q.36.Which of the following has the largest Lok Sabha constituency in India?
(a) Maharashtra (b) U.P. (c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Bihar

Q.37. Who has given the slogan „Garibi Hatao‟?

(a) Indira Gandhi (b) Rajiv Gandhi (c) Sonia Gandhi (d) Pt. Nehru

Q.38. The number of Lok Sabha constituencies at present is

(a) 541 (b) 546 (c) 543 (d) 540

Q.39. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?

(a) The Chief Justice of India (b)The Prime Minister of India

(c) The President of India (d) The people of India

KEY M.C.Q.
1 (b)2 (a)3 (d)4 (c)5 (b)6 (d)7 (b)8 (b)9 (a)10 (b)11 (d)12 (b)13(d)14 (c)15 (d)16 (c)17 (d)18
(b)19 (d) 20 (a)21(b)22 (a)23 (a)24 (c)25 (d)26 (a)27 (a)28 (b)29 (a)30 (a)31 (c)32 (c)33(c)34
(b)35 (c)36 (b) 37 (a)38 (c) 39 (c)

ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL, AHMEDNAGAR

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION BANK
CLASS: IX
SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE CHAPTER: WORKING OF INSTITUTION
Q.1. When was the Second Backward Class Commission appointed?
(a) 1989 (b) 1979
(c) 1999 (d) 2001

Q.2 what is meant by „Office Memorandum‟?

(a) Order issued by the Government of India (b) Memoirs of the leaders of the past
(c) Important defence documents (d) none of the above

18
Q.3What do the Civil Servants do?
(a) They take important policy decisions (b) They implement the ministers’ decisions
(c) They settle the disputes (d) none of the above

Q.4.Why did people react strongly to the Mandal Commission Report?

(a) It left out many backward communities (b) It affected thousands of job opportunities
(c) Some high castes wanted to be included in it (d) Both (a) and (c)

Q.5.What is „Parliament‟?
(a) Assembly of elected representatives at the national level
(b) A body consisting of appointed ministers
(c) Body comprising judges
(d) Assembly of only appointed members

Q.6.Which of these is correct so far as powers of the Parliament are concerned, apart
from Making laws?
(a) Exercising control over the government
(b) Controlling finance of the country
(c) Serving as the highest forum of discussion and debate
(d) All the above

Q.7. Apart from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, who else constitutes the Parliament?
(a) Prime Minister (b) Chief Minister (c) Governor (d) President

Q.8.What happens if there is a difference of opinion between Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
over an ordinary bill?
(a) The President decides the matter
(b) The will of Rajya Sabha prevails
(c) There is a joint sitting of the two Houses
(d) the bill is cancelled

Q.9.For how long can the Rajya Sabha delay a Money Bill?
(a) 15 days (b) 1 month (c) 3 months (d) 14 days

Q.10.Which of these disputes can the Supreme Court take?

(a) Between citizens of the country (b) Between citizens and the government
(c) Between two or more state governments (d) All the above

Q.11. Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts?
(a) President, according to his own wishes
(b) President, on the advice of the PM
(c) President on the advice of the PM in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
(d) None of the above

Q.12. Who is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha?

(a) Speaker (b) Vice President (c) President (d) Prime Minister

19
Q.13. Two features of Indian judicial system are:
(a) Independent Judiciary (b) Integrated Judiciary
(c) Dependent Judiciary (d) Both (a) and (b)

Q.14. How can a judge of the Supreme Court be removed?

(a) By the Supreme Court itself (b) By the Parliament through impeachment
(c) By the President alone (d) By the Police

Q.15.Which of the following institutions can make changes to the existing law of the
country?
(a) The Supreme Court (b) The President
(c) The Prime Minister (d) The Parliament

Q.16.What does the Supreme Court say over the Parliament‟s power of amendment of
the Constitution?
(a) Parliament can amend the entire Constitution
(b) Parliament can amend only the basic structure of the Constitution
(c) Parliament cannot amend the basic structure of the Constitution
(d) None of the above

Q.17.Which body acts as the guardian of Fundamental Rights?

(a) District Courts (b) Supreme Court (c) Election Commission (d) Legislature

Q.18.What is a Public Interest Litigation?

(a) Filing a case in the court in the interest of the public
(b) Reviewing of Supreme Court judgements
(c) Procedure of removal of a judge
(d) None of the above

Q. 19. Why does the political executive have more powers than the permanent
executive?
(a) Because hardly any expertise is required in taking policy decisions
(b) Because political executive consists of the direct representatives of the people
(c) Political leaders are more educated
(d) None of the above

Q.20. Who holds the most important and powerful position in the government?
(a) President (b) Vice President (c) Prime Minister (d) Speaker

Q.21.Whom does the President appoint as the Prime Minister?

(a) Anyone he likes (b) Leader of the majority party
(c) MP who has secured the largest number of votes (d) None of the above

Q.22.What is the tenure of office of the Prime Minister?

(a) 5 years (b) 6 years (c) As long as he wants (d) He does not have a fixed tenure

20
Q.23.What is the government formed by an alliance of two or more political parties
called?
(a) Cooperation government (b) Coalition government
(c) Consensus government (d) Cooperative government

Q.24.Which organ of the government has the power to interpret the Constitution?
(a) Supreme Court (b) District Court (c) High Court (d) Both (a) and (c)

Q.25.Which of these options is/are correct regarding the powers of the Prime Minister?
(a) He chairs the Cabinet meetings
(b) He distributes work to the different departments
(c) He can dismiss ministers
(d) All the above

Q.26.What is the position of the President?

(a) Nominal head of the state (b) Real head of the state
(c) Hereditary head of the state (d) None of the above

Q.27.Which of the following statements is not true?

(a) The Judiciary safeguards the laws
(b) The Legislature implements the laws
(c) The political executives are more powerful than the permanent executives
(d) The permanent executives comprises the civil servants

Q.28.The Council of Ministers at the centre is responsible to

(a) The President (b) the Prime Minister (c) The Rajya Sabha (d) the Lok Sabha

Q.29.The president of India is elected by

(a) Direct Election by citizens ... 18 years of age
(b) Indirect Election by the Electoral College
(c) The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers
(d) None of the above

Q.30. President of India is

(a) Head of the Government (b) Head of the State (c) Head of the parliament (d) None of the above

Q.31.The judges of Supreme Court are appointed by

(a) President (b) Prime Minister (c) Chief Justice (d) Law Minister

ANSWER KEY
1 (b) 2 (a) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5 (a) 6 (d) 7 (d) 8 (c) 9 (d 10 (d)
11(c) 12 (a) 13 (d) 14 (b) 15 (d) 16 (c) 17 (b) 18 (a) 19 (b) 20 (c)
21 (b) 22 (d) 23 (b) 24 (a) 25 (d) 26 (a) 27 (b) 28 (d) 29 (b) 30 (b) 31 (a)

21
 ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL, AHMEDNAGAR
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION BANK
CLASS: IX
SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE CHAPTER: FRENCH REVOLUTION
1. A broken chain symbolized
a) Chains used to fetter slaves b) Strength lies in unity c) Royal power d) Act of becoming free

2. Which of the following was the main objective of the constitution of 1791?
a) To limit the power of the King alone

b) Do away with feudal privileges

c) Give equal rights to women

d) established a constitutional monarchy.

3. Identify the statement which is wrong with reference to Robespierre.

a) He banned the use of white flour

b) He rationed meat and bread

c) He exempted his party men from punishment

d) He converted churches into barracks or offices.

4. The reason of increased demand for food grains in France during 1715 to 1789.

a) Rapid industrialization of agriculture land

b) Big famines for many years

c) Heavy export of food grains from France to England

d) High rise in population during these years.

5. What did Bastille symbolize?

a)Benevolence of the king b) Despotic power of the king

c) Armed might of France d) Prestige and power.

6. The population of France in 1789.

a) 123 million b) 225 million c) 28 million d) 30 million

7. What is Bastille?

a) Fort b) palace c) jail d) none of these

22
8. Basic right set forth in Olympe de Gouges declaration.

a) Women is born free and remains equal to main in rights.

b) The goal of all political association is the preservation of the natural rights of man and woman.

c) The sources of all sovereignty reside in the nation, which is nothing but the union of woman and
man.

d) All of the above

9) What was Tithe?

a) Farmer b) Tax c) Artist d) None of these

10. ‘Two treatises of government” was written by…….

a) Rousseau b) John Lock c) Montesquieu d) None of these

11. Which of the following refer to the political body representing the three estates of pre -
revolutionary France?
a) Parliament of France b) National Assembly c) Estates General d) Estates Committee.

12. The National Assembly of France voted in April 1792, to declare war against.

a) Britain b) Prussia and Austria c) Italy and Germany d) Russia and Prussia
13. Reason for the Subsistence Crisis caused in France.

a) The wages of people were low

b) There was widespread unemployment

c) Increase in population led to rapid increase in the demand of food grains.

d) The government imposed various taxes.

14. The Bastille was hated by all in France because.

a) It stood for the despotic power of the King

b) It was a fortress prison

c) Prison in charge tortured the inmates

d) It housed dreaded criminal.

15. On what charges was Louis XVI guillotined?

a) Cruelty b) Treason c) Absolute rule d) Misgovernance.

***********************************
23
 ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL, AHMEDNAGAR
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION BANK
CLASS: IX
SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE CHAPTER: Socialism in Europe and the Russian
revolution
1. Which of these statements is/are correct about Europe after the French
Revolution?
(a) Suddenly it seemed possible to change the aristocratic society of the 18th century.
(b) However not everyone wanted a complete transformation of society.
(c) Some wanted gradual shift, while others wanted complete change of society.
(d) All the above
2. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the Socialists till 1914?
(a) They helped various associations to win seats in the parliaments in Europe
(b) Socialists, supported by strong figures in parliamentary politics, shaped and influenced
legislation
(c) They succeeded in forming a government in Europe
(d) Governments continued to be run by conservatives, liberals and radicals
3. Which of the following statements is not correct about the „radicals‟?
(a) They supported women’s right to vote
(b) They opposed the privileges of great landowners
(c) They were completely against the existence of private property
(d) They wanted a government based on the majority of a country’s population
4. Why did the Tsar dismiss the first Duma within 75 days of its election?
(a) Because it was incapable of taking good decisions
(b)Because the Tsar did not want anyone to question his authority
(c) The term of first Duma was of 75 days only
(d) None of the above
5. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(a) By 1916, railway lines in Russia began to break down
(b) There were labour shortages and small workshops producing essentials were shut down
(c) Large supplies of grain were sent to feed the army
(d) All the above
6. When did the Tsar abdicate the throne?
(a) 28 February, 1917 (b) 2 March, 1917 (c) 10 April, 1917 (d) 15 May, 1918
7. Which of these demands is/are referred to as Lenin‟s 'April Theses'?
a) World War I should be brought to an end
(b) Land should be transferred to the peasants
(c) Banks should be nationalized
(d) All the above
8. In the Russian Civil War the Bolsheviks and the socialist revolutionaries were
represented by which of the following colours?
(a) Whites and Reds
(b) Greens and Whites
(c) Reds and Greens
(d) None of these
9. Who led the procession of workers to the event „Bloody Sunday‟ in Russia?
(a) Lenin (b) Stalin (c) Kerenski (d) Father Gapon
24
10. On 27th February 1917, soldiers and striking workers gathered to form a council
called
(a)Soviet Council (b) Petrograd Soviet (c) Moscow Union (d) Russian Council
11. Which among the following groups was against any kind of political or social
change?
(a) Nationalists
(b) conservatives
(c) liberals
(d)radicals
12. The people who wanted to put an immediate end to the existing governments in
Europe (In 1815) were called:
(a) Nationalists (b) liberals (c) revolutionaries (d) radicals
13. How can you say that the „liberals‟ were not „democrats‟?
(a) They did not believe in universal adult franchise
(b) They felt that only men of property should have a right to vote
(c) Women should not have right to vote
(d) All the above
14. By the mid-19th century in Europe, the idea which attracted widespread attention
on the restructuring of society was
(a) Capitalism (b) Socialism (c) Dictatorship (d) None
15. What were the demands made by the workers in St. Petersburg who went on a
strike?
(a) Reduction of working time to eight hours (b) Increase in wages
(c) Improvement in working conditions (d) All the above

ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL, AHMEDNAGAR

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION BANK
CLASS: IX
SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE CHAPTER: NAZISM AND RISE OF HITLER

1. Which of the following statements is false about soldiers in the World War I?
(a) The soldiers, in reality, led miserable lives in trenches, survived with feeding on the copra’s
(b) They faced poisonous gas and enemy shelling and loss of comrades
(c) All soldiers were ready to die for their country’s honour and personal glory
(d) Aggressive propaganda glorified war
2. The following statements are about Hitler‟s early life. Which of them is incorrect?
(a) Hitler was born in 1889 in Austria and spent his youth in poverty
(b) He joined the army during World War I and earned accolades for bravery
(c) He was totally unaffected by German defeat in the war and only thought of improving his career
(d) In 1919 he joined a small group called the German Workers' Party, which later was known as the
Nazi Party.
3. Which of the following was a special surveillance and security force created by Hitler?
(a) Regular police force in green uniform and storm troopers
25
(b) Gestapo (secret state police), the SS (the protection squads)
(c) Criminal police (SD), the security service
(d) Both (b) and (c)
4. What was Hitler‟s historic blunder and why?
(a) Attack on Soviet Union in 1941 was a historic blunder by Hitler
(b) He exposed his western front to British aerial bombing
(c) The Soviet Red Army inflicted a crushing and humiliating defeat on Germany atStalingrad
(d) All the above
5. Which of the following countries led the Allied Powers in the Second World War?
(a) UK and France (b) USSR and USA (c) Germany and Austria (d) Both (a) and (b)
6. What was the most important result of the Spartacus League uprising in Germany in
1918-19?
(a) The Weimar Republic crushed the rebellion
(b) The Spartacists founded the Communist Party of Germany
(c) The Weimar government accepted the demands of the Spartacus League
(d) Both (a) and (b)
7. Who were called the „November criminals‟?
(a) The Opponents of Weimar Republic (b) The Emperor who abdicated, and his men
(c) The supporters of Weimar Republic (d) none of the above
8. Which of the following statements is true about the economic crisis in Germany in
1923?
(a) The value of ‘Mark’ (German currency) collapsed (b) Prices of goods soared high
(c) Weimer Republic brought economic prosperity (d) Both (a) and (b)
9. What was the slogan coined by Hitler when he followed his aggressive foreign policy?
(a) Messenger from God (b) Conquer the world
(c) One people, one empire, and one leader (d) we are Aryans, the real rulers
10. Which incident persuaded the USA to join the war?
(a) Hitler’s attack on Eastern Europe (b) Hitler’s policy of genocide of the Jews
(c) Helplessness of England and France (d) Japan’s attack on the US base at Pearl Harbour
11. What was Hitler‟s ideology of „lebensraum‟ or living space?
(a) Multi-storeyed buildings should be built in Germany to increase the living space
(b) The world must be occupied enabling the material resources and power of the German nation.
(c) New territories had to be acquired for settlement
(d) Both (b) and (c)
12. According to the Nazis, which people were to be regarded as desirable?
(a) Pure and healthy Nordic Aryans (b) German soldiers who helped in territorial expansion
(c) German police of different types (d) All those who were willing to consider Hitler as God
13. Which nations were the Axis powers during World War II?

(a) UK, France, USA, USSR (b) UK, France, Japan

(c) Germany, Italy, Japan (d) Germany, France, UK

14. Which of the given parties came to be known as Nazi Party?

(a) German Workers Party (b) Socialist Democratic Party

(c) National Socialist German Workers Party (d) Socialist Party

26
15. Which of the following was not a feature of the new Nazi style of politics?

(a) Massive rallies

(b) Ritualised applause

(c) Red banners with Swastika

(d) Not so powerful speeches of Hitler

ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL, AHMEDNAGAR

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION BANK
CLASS: IX
SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE CHAPTER: PASTROLIST IN THE MODERN WORLD

1. By October Dhangars harvested their bajra and started on their move to the west. Why were
they welcomed by the Konkani peasant’s?
a) They married off their children in each other’s communities
b) The Dhangars brought bajra for them.
c) Dhangars flocks manured their fields and fed on the stubble.
d) None of the above
2. Which of the following is not true about Maasai tribe?
a) Maasai believed that tilling the land for crop farming is a crime against nature.
b) Colonists signed a pact with Maasai tribe allowing their cattle in Maasai Mara
c) The Maasai cattle herders live primarily in Kenya and Tanzania.
d) They were restricted to prone drought area by the colonists.

3. In mid-19th century, various forest acts were being enacted in different provinces.
Through these acts ,some forest which produced commercially valuable trees were called
as
a) Protected forest b) Reserve forest c) Sanctuary d) None of the above.
4. These measures led to a serious shortage of pastures.
a) Grazing land were taken over and turned into cultivated field.
b) Available area of pastureland declined.
c) Shepherds and cattle herders could no longer freely pasture their cattle.
d) All of the above.
5. Protected forest were

a) Forest which produced commercially valuable timber

b) Access to these forests was prohibited

27
 c) Pastoralists were granted grazing rights in these forests without preconditions

d) Customary rights were granted to pastoralists subject to severe restrictions on their

movements

6. Find the Odd one Out

a) British officials were suspicious of nomadic people

b) To colonial officers all grazing land appeared unprotected

c) Nomadic population was easy to identify and control

d) Nomadic were classified as criminal tribes.

7. Which of the following was nit a reason for Maasai loss of grazing lands?

a) Imperial powers scramble for colonies

b) White settlements

c) Cultivated fields were converted into pasture lands

d) Game reserves’

8) Match the following

State Community

i) Gujjar Bakarwals a) Kurumas

ii) Maru b) Himachal Pradesh
iii) Karnataka c) Jammu and Kashmir
iv) Gaddi shepherds d) Rajasthan

a) i)-c, ii) -d, iii)-a, iv)-b. c) i) –d, ii)-a, iii)-b, iv)-c.

b) i)-b, ii)-d, iii)-a, iv)-c. d) i)-b, ii)-a, iii) –d, iv) –c.

9) Which one of the following is true regarding annual movement of Dhangar?

a) They stay in the central plateau during the mansoons

b) After the monsoon over they move towards Konkan area.

c) With the onset of monsoon they leave the Konkan.

d) All of the above.

10) Which of the following statement refers to Bugyal?

a) Hilly region in the Aravali.

b) Costal region.

c) Vast meadows in the high mountains.

28
 d) Large cultivated area in the plains.

11) Correct the statement

After 1947, the camel and sheep herding Rakia’s, for instance, could move into Sindh and graze their
sheep’s on the bank of the Indus.
12

Which one of the following options signifies above picture?

a) Maldhari herders c) Maasai community
b) Raikas d)Dhangars

13) The Serengeti National Park was created over ____ Khus of Maasai grazing land.
a) 12510 b) 14760 c) 15890 d) 18010
14) In India, 'Reserved' forests were composed of ____ trees.
a) Sal and Deodar b) Mango c) Sandal wood d) Neem and Teak

15) Which one of the following is an African pastoral community?

a) Gollas b) Kurumas c) Raikas d) Maasai

29
 ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL, AHMEDNAGAR
WORKSHEET (2020-2021)

GRADE: IX SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE(ECO)

CHAPTER : 1) THE STORY OF VILLAGE PALAMPUR

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

1) Every production is organised by combining land, labour, physical and human capital,
which are known as ____.

a). Investment
b). Profit
c). Factors of production
d). Dead capital

2) The main feature of the Green Revolution in India was ____.

a) Introduction of high-yield varieties

b) Natural manuring
c) Marketing facilities
d) Animal rearing
3) The most convenient way of growing more crops on a piece of land is __

a). Multiple cropping

b). Using more manure
c) Shifting cultivation
d) Intensive agriculture

4) The concept of White Revolution is associated with:

(a) food crops

(b) milk

(c) cotton

(d) pesticides

30
5) Which of the following transformed the system of irrigation in Palampur?

(a) Tubewells

(b) Persian wheel

(c) Rainwater harvesting

(d) None of these

6) The activities such as small manufacturing, transport, shopkeeping are referred to as:
(a) Non-economic activities
(b) Non-farming activities
(c) Non-traditional activities
(d) Non-market activities
7) Where do most of the small farmers borrow money to arrange for the capital in
Palampur?
(a) Banks
(b) Co-operative Societies
(c) Village money lenders
(d) Friends and relatives

8) Money in hand is an example of:

(a) Human capital

(b) Fixed capital
(c) Working capital
(d) Physical capital

9) A farmer who works on a piece of 1 hectare of land is treated as:

(a) Medium farmer

(b) small farmer
(c) large farmer
(d) none of the above

10) Scope of farming activity is limited in Palampur due to:

(a) Fixed amount of land

(b) lack of irrigation
(c) lack of labour
(d) none of the above

31
11) Which one among the following is not fixed capital?

(a) Machines
(b) Buildings
(c) Tools
(d) Raw materials

12) Which one among the following is a non-farm activity?

(a) Multiple croppping

(b) Crop rotation
(c) Dairy farming
(d) Modern farming

13) Working capital stands for :

(a) Tools, machines and buildings

(b) raw materials and money in hand
(c) total share capital
(d) fixed deposits in financial institutions

14) Multiple Cropping refers to :

(a) Cultivation of wheat and rice

(b) cultivation of two crops in alternate rows
(c) cultivating more than one crop on the same field each year
(d) cultivating crops and rearing animals on the same farm

15) Finance raised to operate a business is the :

(a) labour
(b) enterprise
(c) land
(d) capital

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 ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL, AHMEDNAGAR
WORKSHEET (2020-2021)

GRADE: IX SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE(ECO)

CHAPTER : 2) People as a resource

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1) People as a resource refers to the

(a) educational skills (b) productive skills

(c) health skills (d) none of the above

2) If a person cannot find jobs during some months of the year, which type of employme nt is this
called?
(a) Structural unemployment (b) Cyclical unemployment
(c) Seasonal unemployment (d) None of these

3) Forestry and dairy are related to which?

(a) Primary Sector (b) Tertiary Sector
(c) Secondary Sector (d) None of the above

4) From the following in which fields is disguised unemployment found?

(a) Industries (b) Agriculture
(c) Mining (d) Fisherise

5) What is the aim of Sarva Siksha Abhiyan?

(a) To provide elementary education to women
(b) To provide elementary education to the rural poor
(c) To provide elementary education to all children in the age group 6-14 years
(d) To provide elementary education to the urban poor

6) The scheme for the establishment of residential schools to impart education to talented
children from rural areas is

(a) Kendriya Vidyalayas (b) Navodaya Vidyalayas

(c) Sarvodaya Vidyalayas (d) None of the aboves

7) One who can read and write in any language with understanding is termed as:

(a) Student (b) Adult

(c) Child (d) Literate
8) Quality of population depends upon:
a) Literacy rate. b) Health
c) Skill d) All of the above
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9) PHC stands for:
a) Public Health club. b) Private Health club
c) Primary health centre d) None of these
10) The number of females per thousand males refers to:
a) Sex ratio. b) Literacy rate
c) Mortality rate d) Birth rate
11) Educated unemployment is because of:
a) Slow industrial growth. b) Improper education system
c) Both a & b d) none of these
12) Number of deaths per 1000 people in a year is called:
a) Death rate. b) Birth rate
c) Decrease rate d) population decrease
13) Self consumption is:
a) Non-production activity
b) Non-market activity
c) Non economic activity
d) None of the above
14) Strike the odd one out:
a) Education
b) Medical care
c) Training
d) Computers
15) Mid day meal scheme is introduced to improve the:
a) Quality of education
b) Improve nutritional status
c) Income of school
d) None of these

ARMY PUBLIC SCHOOL, AHMEDNAGAR

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION BANK
CLASS: IX
SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE CHAPTER: POVERTY AS A CHALLENGE
1. Which of the following is not a valid reason for the poverty alleviation programme
in India?
(a) Lack of proper implementation (b) Lack of right targeting
(c) Corruption at the highest level (d) Overlapping of schemes
2. The calorie requirement is higher in the rural areas because:
(a) they do not enjoy as much as people in the urban areas.
(b) food items are expensive.
(c) they are engaged in mental work.
(d) people are engaged in physical labour.
3. Which one are not the major causes of income inequality in India?
(a) Unequal distribution of land (b) Lack of fertile land
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 (c) Gap between rich and the poor (d) Increase in population
4. Which one of the social groups is vulnerable to poverty?
(a) Scheduled caste (b) Urban casual labour (c) Rural agricultural households (d) All the above
5. For how many days MNREGA provides employment?
(a) 70 (b) 80 (c) 90 (d) 100
6. Which of the following programmes was launched in the year 2000?
(a) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (b) Prime Minister Rojgar Yojana
(c) Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojna (d) Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana
7. When was National Rural Employment Guarantee Act passed?
(a) September 2005 (b) August 2004 (c) May 2009 (d) None of these
8. What are accepted average calories required in India in urban areas?
(a) 2100 (b) 2400 (c) 2800 (d) 2500
9. Which of the following is responsible for high poverty rates?
(a) Huge income inequalities (b) Unequal distribution of land
(c) Lack of effective implementation of land reforms (d) All the above
10. Which state has focused more on human resource development?
(a) Gujarat (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Maharashtra (d) Kerala
11. Which organization carries out survey for determining the poverty line?
(a) NSSO (b) CSO (c) Planning Commission (d) None of the above
12. NFWP is stand for:
(a) National Federation for Work and Progress (b) National Forest for Wildlife Protection
(c) National Food and Wheat Processing (d) National Food for Work Programme
13. Which of the following is not a valid reason for the poverty alleviation programme
in India?
(a) Lack of proper implementation (b) Lack of right targeting
(c) Corruption at the highest level (d) Overlapping of schemes
14. Which industry suffered the most during colonial period?
(a) Jute (b) Textile (c) Indigo (d) All the above
15. Which scheme was started in 1993 to create self-employment opportunities for
educated unemployed youth in rural areas and small towns?
(a) Prime Minister Rojgar Yojana (b) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(c) Rural Employment Generation Programme (d) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana

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