18-06-2025

7601CMD303034250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) Two vectors and lie in a plane, another vector lies outside this plane, then the resultant of
these three vectors i.e. :

(1) Can be zero

(2) Cannot be zero

(3) Lies in the plane containing &

(4) Lies in the plane containing &

2) In vector diagram shown in figure where ( ) is the resultant of vectors and .

If , then value of angle is

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 75°

3) How many minimum number of vectors in different planes can be added to give zero resultant?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

4) What is the maximum number of rectangular components into which a vector can be split in
space?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) Infinite

5) The vector sum of the forces of 10 newton and 6 newton can be :

(1) 2N
(2) 8N
(3) 18N
(4) 20N

6) Given that . This can be true when :

(1)
(2)

(3) Neither nor is a null vector

(4) is perpendicular to

7) Which of the following sets of concurrent forces may be in equilibrium?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

8) What happens, when we multiply a vector by (-2) ?

(1) Direction reverses and unit changes

(2) Direction reverses and magnitude is doubled
(3) Direction remains unchanged and unit changes.
(4) None of these

9) If the sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector, then the magnitude of their difference is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Vector makes angles & with the X, Y & Z axes respectively, then

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

11) The unit vector along is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The angle that the vector makes with y-axis is :

(1) tan-1(3/2)
(2) tan-1(2/3)
(3) sin-1(2/3)
(4) cos-1(3/2)

13) If is a unit vector along x-axis and , then what is ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) What is the angle between and the resultant of and ?

(1) 0°

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) If is perpendicular to the vector , then the value of a and b may be :

(1) 1, 0
(2) -2, 0
(3) 3, 0

(4)

16) If vectors and have magnitudes 5, 12 and 13 units and , the angle between
and is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A vector perpendicular to may be :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) Both (1) & (2)

18) If , then angle between and is :

(1) 0°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

19) The angle between vectors and is :

(1) 90°
(2) 180°
(3) 0°
(4) 60°

20) The angle between the two vectors and will be :

(1) Zero
(2) 180°
(3) 90°
(4) 45°

21) If a vector is perpendicular to the vector , then the value of is :

(1) -1
(2) 1/2
(3) -1/2
(4) 1
22) If and and A and B are the magnitudes of and , then which of the
following is not true?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) A = 5

23) If and , then the angle between and may be :

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

24) Which of the following vector identities is false?

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

25) Two vectors and are inclined to each other at angle . Which of the following is the unit
vector perpendicular to and ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) For a body, angular velocity and radius vector , then its velocity

is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) The angle between vectors and is :

(1) rad

(2)
rad

(3)
rad
(4) Zero

28) Two vectors and are such that . Then select incorrect alternative

(1) `
(2)
(3)
(4)

29) If and , then the scalar and vector products of and have the
magnitudes respectively as :

(1) 5,
(2) 4,
10,
(3)

(4) 10, 2

30) A unit radial vector makes angles of relative to the x-axis, relative to the y-
axis and relative to the z-axis. The vector can be written as :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

31) A particle is moving eastward with a velocity of 5 m/s. In 10 seconds, the velocity changes to 5
m/s northwards. The average acceleration in this time is :-

(1) zero

(2)
m/sec2 (towards north-west)
(3)
m/sec2 (towards north-east)
(4) m/sec2 (towards north-west)

32) A vector which has a magnitude of 8 is added to the vector which lies along x-axis. The
resultant of two vectors lies along y-axis and has magnitude twice that of P. The magnitude of is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33)

If = 2i + j – k, = i + 2j + 3k and = 6i – 2j – 6k, then the angle between and will

be

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

34) A person walks 80 m east, then turns right through angle 143o walks further 50 m and stops. His
position relative to the starting point is

(1) 50 m, 53o east of south

(2) 50 m, 53o south of east
(3) 30 m, 37o south of east
(4) 30 m, 53o south of east

35) Let and denote the velocity and acceleration respectively of a body in one-dimensional
motion

(1) must decrease when <0

(2) speed must increase when >0
(3) speed will increase when both < 0 and >0
(4) speed will decrease when < 0 and >0

36) A car moves form A to B with a uniform speed v1 and returns to A with a uniform speed v2. The
average speed for this round trip is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) A particle moves in straight line in same direction for 20 seconds with velocity 3 m/s and then
moves with velocity 4 m/s for another 20 sec and finally moves with velocity 5 m/s for next 20
seconds. What is the average velocity of the particle ?

(1) 3 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4) Zero

38) If the displacement of a particle varies with time as :

(1) velocity of the particle is inversely proportional to t

(2) velocity of particle varies linearly with t
(3) velocity of particle is proportional to
(4) initial velocity of the particle is zero

39) The velocity of a particle is v = 4t + 3. What is the average velocity of particle from t = 0 to t = 3
sec :-

(1) 3 ms–1
(2) 6 ms–1
(3) 9 ms–1
(4) 12 ms–1

40) A car starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration. The ratio of the distance covered in
the nth second to that covered in n seconds is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) If a train travelling at 72 km/hr is to be brought to rest in a distance of 200 m, then its
retardation should be :-
(1) 20 m/s2
(2) 2 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2
(4) 1 m/s2

42) A car is moving with speed 'v' can be stopped by applying breakes after at least 'x' m. If same car
is moving speed of 4v then it can be stopped by applying same breakes after at least 'y' m. Find the
ratio of x and y :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 8
(4) 1 : 16

43) A body starting from rest, accelerates at a constant rate a m/s2 for some time after which it
decelerates at a constant rate b m/s2 to come to rest finally. It the total time elapsed is t sec, the
maximum velocity attained by the body is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) A body moving with uniform acceleration crosses a distance 65 m in 5th sec and 105 m in 9th
second. How far it will go in 20 sec :-

(1) 2040 m
(2) 2004 m
(3) 2400 m
(4) 240 m

45) An engine of a vehicle starting from rest can produce a maximum acceleration of 4m/s2. Its
brakes can produce a maximum retardation of 6m/s2. The minimum time in which it can cover a
distance of 3km is:-

(1) 30 s
(2) 40 s
(3) 50 s
(4) 60 s

CHEMISTRY
1) de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of 100 mg moving with 662 m/s speed is (h = 6.62 × 10–34 Js)

(1) 10–34 m
(2) 10–33 m
(3) 10–32 m
(4) 10–31 m

2) Which of the following set belongs to lowest energy :-

(1) n = 2, ℓ = 0
(2) n = 3, ℓ = 0
(3) n = 4, ℓ = 1
(4) n = 3, ℓ = 2

3) Shortest wavelength possible in Balmer series of hydrogen atom is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Bohr radius for hydrogen atom is approximately 0.53 Å. The radius of orbit in first excited state is:

(1) 0.13 Å
(2) 1.06 Å
(3) 4.77 Å
(4) 2.12 Å

5) Wave function is plotted against the distance from nucleus : Which of the
following orbital is represented by this graph ?

(1) 1 s
(2) 2 s
(3) 2 p
(4) 3 s

6) Which of the following orbitals does not have any nodal plane ?
(1) 1 s
(2) 2 p
(3) 3 p
(4) 3 d

7) The orbital angular momentum of an electron in a d-orbital is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Which of the following is not possible ?

(1) n = 2, ℓ = 1, m = 0
(2) n = 2, ℓ = 0, m = –1
(3) n = 3, ℓ = 0, m = 0
(4) n = 3, ℓ = 1, m = –1

9) The triad of nuclei that is isotonic is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) In which of the following electronic transition of H-atom, photon of green light is emitted ?

(1) n2 = 2 → n1 = 1
(2) n2 = 4 → n1 = 1
(3) n2 = 4 → n1 = 2
(4) n2 = 5 → n1 = 3

11) Spectrum of which of the following atom or ion can not be explain by Bohr's model ?

(1) Li+
(2) He+
(3) Be+3
(4) H

12) EMR with maximum wavelength is

(1) UV
(2) Radiowave
(3) X-ray
(4) IR

13) The transition of electrons in H atom that will emit maximum energy is

(1) n3 → n2
(2) n4 → n3
(3) n5 → n4
(4) n6 → n5

14)

(1) b and c
(2) a, b, c, d
(3) Only b
(4) a and c

15) Which of the following sets of quantum number is correct for an electron in 4f-orbital ?

(1)
n = 4, l = 3, m = +4, s = +

(2)
n = 4, l = 4, m = –4, s = –

(3)
n = 4, l = 3, m = +1, s = +

(4)
n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, s = +

16) The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in the 4th Bohr orbits is (a0 is the radius of 1st Bohr
orbit of H atom) :

(1) 6πa0
(2) 4πa0
(3) 2πa0
(4) 8πa0

17) The orbital having two radial as well as two angular nodes is :

(1) 3p
(2) 4f
(3) 4d
(4) 5d

18) A certain orbital has no angular nodes and two radial nodes. The orbital is :

(1) 2s
(2) 3s
(3) 3p
(4) 2p

19) No. of photon of light having a wavelength 4000Å are necessary to provide 1.00 J of energy.

(1) 2.0 × 1018

(2) 4.0 × 1018
(3) 4.9 × 10–19
(4) 8.34 × 10–17

20) If the wavelength of certain radiation is 1000 Å what is its frequency ?

(1) 3.3 × 10–15 s–1

(2) 3 × 10–13 s–1
(3) 1 × 105 s–1
(4) 3 × 1015 s–1

21) Calculate the energy of a photon having wavelength of 3300Å [h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js] :-

(1) 2.8 × 10–19 J

(2) 6 × 10–19 J
(3) 3.3 × 10–19 J
(4) 6 × 10–21 J

22) Which of the following electromagnetic radiation possesses highest amount of energy :–

(1) X–rays
(2) Gamma ray
(3) Radio waves
(4) Cosmic rays
23) Most of α-particles went straight through gold foil in Rutherford's experiment , because:-

(1) Mass is uniformly distributed

(2) Nucleus is positively charged
(3) Most part of atom is empty
(4) α – particles are positively charged.

24) The uncertainty in the position of a moving bullet of mass 10 gm is 10–5 m. Calculate the
uncertainty in its velocity :-

(1) 5.2 × 10–28 m/sec

(2) 3 × 10–28 m/sec
(3) 5.2 × 10–22 m/sec
(4) 3 × 10–22 m/sec

25)

Which orbital is represented by the complete wave function :-

(1) 4d
(2) 3d
(3) 4p
(4) 4s

26) If ℓ = 3 then type and number of orbital is :–

(1) 3p, 3
(2) 4f, 14
(3) 5f, 7
(4) 3d, 5

27)

Which of the following configuration follows the Hund's rule :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Which orbital is represented by the complete wave function ψ310.

(1) 3px
(2)
(3) 3pz
(4) 3S

29) The manganese (Z = 25) has the outer configuration :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) If the electronic structure of oxygen atom is written as 1s2, 2s2 it would violate

(1) Hund’s rule

(2) Pauli’s exclusion principle
(3) Both Hund’s and Pauli’s principles
(4) None of these

31) The uncertainties in the velocities of two particles, A and B are 10 ms–1 and 4 ms–1 respectively.
The mass of B is five times to that of the mass of A. What is the ratio of uncertainties in their
positions :-

(1) 2
(2) 0.25
(3) 4
(4) None of these

32) Radial nodes associated with 4f. 3d and 5s orbitals are respectively:

(1) 0, 0, 4
(2) 2, 1, 0
(3) 1, 1, 0
(4) 1, 2, 2

33) The de Broglie wavelength of an electron moving in a circular orbit is λ. Then which of the
following value of radius is not possible

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

34) The following quantum no. are possible for how many orbitals n = 3, l = 2 , m = +2 ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Which one of the following set of quantum number is not possible for 4p electron :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) In which of the following transition will the wavelength be minimum.

(1) n = 6 to n = 4
(2) n = 4 to n = 2
(3) n = 3 to n = 1
(4) n = 2 to n = 1

37) The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and :-

(a) n = 4 , = 1
(b) n = 4 , = 0
(c) n = 3 , = 2
(d) n = 3 , = 1
Can be placed in order of increasing energy as:

(1) (a) < (c) < (b) < (d)

(2) (c) < (d) < (b) < (a)
(3) (d) < (b) < (c) < (a)
(4) (b) < (d) < (a) < (c)

38) An electron jumps from lower orbit to higher orbit when,

(1) Energy is released

(2) Energy is absorbed
(3) No change in energy
(4) It radiates energy

39) Wave length of de-Broglie wave associated with a particle of mass ‘m’ is related with its K.E. as–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) If the radius of first Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen is a0, then the radius of third Bohr’s orbit of
hydrogen would be ?

(1) 3×a0
(2) 6×a0
(3) 9×a0

(4)

41) Zeeman effect refers to the–

(1) Splitting of spectral lines in presence of external magnetic field

(2) Splitting of spectral lines in electric field
(3) Emission of electron from metals when light falls on it
(4) Scattering of a-particles by gold foil

42) In Bohr's stationary orbits :-

(1) Electrons do not move

(2) Electrons move emitting radiations
(3) Energy of electron remains constant

(4)
Angular momentum of the electron is

43) The quantum number which is not obtained from the solution of Schrodinger equation is

(1) n
(2) ℓ
(3) ms
(4) mℓ

44) Which two orbitals are located along the axes, not between the axes?
(1)
(2) dxy,pz
(3) dyz, px
(4)

45) Assertion : Half-filled and fully-filled degenerate orbitals are more stable.
Reason : Extra stability of half-filled and fully filled degenerate orbitals is due to the symmetrical
distribution of electrons and exchange energy.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

BIOLOGY

1) Theodore Schwann, a German Zoologist, studied different types of animal cells and reported that
cells had a thin outer layer which is today known as the :-

(1) Cell wall

(2) Plasma membrane
(3) Tonoplast
(4) Nuclear envelope

2) Choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence.

(2) Anything less than a complete structure of cell does not ensure independent living.
(3) Anton von Leuwenhoek first saw and described a live cell.
(4) All organisms are composed of a single cell.

3) In plant cells, vacuole can occupies upto what % of volume of cell ?

(1) 10%
(2) 30%
(3) 50%
(4) 90%

4) Major component of common layer between two plant cells :-

(1) Ca pectate
(2) Mg pectate
(3) Hemicellulose
(4) Pectin
5) The lateral movement of protein within the overall bilayer is provided by :-

(1) Water
(2) Protein
(3) Lipids
(4) Oligosaccharide

6) Which cell wall layer diminishes as cell matures ?

(1) Secondary wall

(2) Both primary and secondary wall
(3) Primary wall
(4) Tertiary wall

7) Cell wall and middle lamella may by traversed by :-

(1) Lysosome
(2) Central vacuole
(3) Plasmodesmata
(4) Ribosome

8) Which of the following is absent in cell wall of algae ?

(1) Cellulose
(2) MgCO3
(3) Mannans
(4) CaCO3

9) Statement-I : Cell membrane show fluidity.

Statement-II : Fluidity is due to presence of proteins.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statements are incorrect.

10) Match the following column–I with column–II and choose the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

A Aleuroplast i Photosynthesis

B Elaioplast ii Storage of starch

C Chloroplast iii Storage of protein

D Amyloplast iv Storage of fat

(1) A–iii, B–ii, C–i, D–iv
(2) A–iv, B–iii, C–i, D–ii
(3) A–iii, B–iv, C–i, D–ii
(4) A–iv, B–iii, C–ii, D–i

11) The given diagram shows the sectional view of a chloroplast. In which of the following all the
four parts labelled as A,B,C,D are correctly identified ?

A B C D

1 Cytoplasm Thylakoid Stroma Granum

Stroma
2 Stroma Cristae Thylakoid
lamella

Stroma
3 Stroma Thylakoid Granum
lamella

Stroma
4 Cytoplasm Granum Thylakoid
lamella
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Which cell organelle connects nuclear envelope with cell membrane ?

(1) Lysosome
(2) Golgi body
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Mitochondrion

13) Starch storing plastid is known as :-

(1) Leucoplast
(2) Aleuroplast
(3) Amyloplast
(4) Elaioplast

14) Given below the diagrammatic sketch of mitochondria. Identify the parts labelled A,B,C and D
select the right option about it.

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

Inter
Inner
(1) Matrix Cristae membrane
membrane
space

Inter
Inner
(2) Matrix Cristae membrane
membrane
space

Inter
Inner
(3) Matrix Cristae membrane
membrane
space

Inter
Inner
(4) membrane Cristae Matrix
membrane
space
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Cholesterol is the starting point for synthesis of steroid hormones which include the male and
female sex hormones. Those hormones are synthesized by :-

(1) Golgi body

(2) SER
(3) RER
(4) Plastid

16) Starting from the outside of a cell and moving towards the inside of a cell, which of the following
components of a 'typical plant cell' are organised correctly ?

(1) Plasma membrane → primary cell wall → secondary cell wall → Middle lamella → cytoplasm
(2) Cytoplasm → plasma membrane → Middle lamella → secondary cell wall → primary cell wall
(3) Plasma membrane → cytoplasm → secondary cell wall → primary cell wall → middle lamella
(4) Middle lamella → primary cell wall → secondary cell wall → plasma membrane → cytoplasm

17) Site for protein/peptide synthesis is :-

(1) RER
(2) Lysosome
(3) Ribosome
(4) Both (1) and (3)

18) Fill in the balnks :

A face of Golgi complex receive vesicles from endoplasmic reticulum while B face of Golgi complex
releases vesicles.

(1) A – Cis B – Trans

(2) A – Trans B – Cis
(3) A – Maturing face B – forming face
(4) Both (2) & (3)

19) Cells which are actively involved in protein synthesis have :-

(1) Well-developed SER

(2) Well-developed RER
(3) Well-developed Lysosome
(4) Well-developed Plastids

20) Cells are vary in their

(1) Shape
(2) Activities
(3) Size
(4) All of these

21)

Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III :-

Column-I Column-II Column-III

White blood Long and

A (i) a
cells Narrow

Mesophyll
B (ii) b Amoeboid
cells

Red blood Round and

C (iii) c
cells Oval
 Columnar
Round and
D (iv) epithelium d
Biconcave
cells

(1) A -ii-d, B-iii-b, C-i-d, D-iv-a

(2) A -iv-a, B-i-d, C-iii-b, D-ii-c
(3) A -iv-a, B-iii-d, C-i-b, D-ii-c
(4) A -iv-d, B-i-c, C-ii-a, D-iii-b

22) Which cell organelle has structure like piles of coin ?

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Ribosome
(3) Chloroplast
(4) Cilia

23) Polyribosome is :-

(1) one 80s ribosomes + many t-RNA

(2) many 70s ribosomes + one t-RNA
(3) many 70s ribosomes + one m-RNA
(4) one 80s ribosomes + many r-RNA

24) Select the correct statements :

A – Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence.
B – Cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of all unicellular organisms
C – All cells arise from pre-existing cells
D – The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in all type of cells.

(1) Statement A, C and D are wrong.

(2) Statement A, B and D are wrong
(3) Statement A, B, C and D are correct
(4) Statement A, B, C and D are wrong

25) Fluid nature of membrane is able to explain

(1) cell growth, cell division

(2) formation of intercellular junctions
(3) secretion and endocytosis
(4) All of the above

26) A cell organelle 'X' is divided into two types on the basis of a cell organelle 'Y', that helps in the
protein synthesis. Identify 'X' and 'Y' respectively:
(1) Golgi complex and ribosome
(2) ER and mitochondria
(3) ER and ribosome
(4) Lysosome and ER

27) Read the following statement carefully.

(a) Binary fission
(b) double stranded circular DNA
(c) presence of chlorophyll pigments
(d) 70-s type of ribosomes
How many of the given statements shows prokaryotic nature of chloroplast?

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Three

28) Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Lysosome is single membrane bound structure having hydrolytic enzymes can digest food
(2) The concentration of ions in plant cells is higher in the vacuole than in the cytoplasm
(3) The vacuole is bound by a pair of membranes called tonoplast
(4) The enzymes of lysosome are active at acidic pH

29)

Stroma of the chloroplast have enzymes for synthesis of :

(1) Carbohydrates
(2) Proteins
(3) Vitamins
(4) Both carbohydrates and proteins

30) (a) Golgi complex is secretory cell organalles.

(b) Lysosome is the part of endomembrane system.
(c) Mitochondria is associated with light reaction.
(d) Ribosome synthesize RNA.
In given statements which of the following are incorrect

(1) a and d
(2) b and d
(3) b and c
(4) c and d

31) Important site for glycolipid and glycoprotein synthesis is

(1) ER
(2) Golgi bodies
(3) Plasma Membrane
(4) Cell wall

32) The correct order of size among following :-

(1) Eukaryotic cell > PPLO > Viruses > Bacteria

(2) Eukaryotic cell > Bacteria > PPLO > Viruses
(3) Eukaryotic cell > PPLO > Bacteria > Viruses
(4) Eukaryotic cell > Viruses > PPLO > Bacteria

33) The number of mitochondria per cell depends upon the

(1) Physiological activity of the cell

(2) Types of cell
(3) Shape of cell
(4) Size of cell

34) ATP synthesis occur in :

(1) Mitochondria
(2) Chloroplast
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Leucoplasts

35) Match the Column I with Column II and choose correct option.

Column-I Column-II
A Golgi body i. Protein synthesis
B Mitochondria ii. Suicidal bag
C Ribosome iii. ATP production
Glycolipid and
D Lysosome iv.
glycoprotein formation
(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-iv, D-i
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii

36) How many of the given features are associated with mitochondria ?
Granum, Thylakoids, Cristae, Double membrane, 70 S ribosome, RuBisCO

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five
37) Given below are two statements :
Statement-I : The electron microscope studies showed that the cell membrane is composed of lipids
that are arranged in a bilayer.
Statement-II : Lipids are arranged within the membrane with the polar head towards the outer
sides and the hydrophobic tails towards the inner part.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from options given below.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

38) Which of the following is correct option ?

(1) The ribosome of chloroplast is larger than the cytoplasmic ribosome

The inner membrane of chloroplast is relatively less premeable in comparison to the outer
(2)
membrane
(3) The space limited by the inner membrane of chloroplast is called intermembrane space
(4) The lumen of thylakoid contain ribosome

39) Identify the components labelled A, B, C and D in the diagram below from the list (i) to (viii)

given along with (i) Cristae of mitochondria

(ii) Inner membrane of mitochondria
(iii) Cytoplasm
(iv) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(v) Rough endoplasmic reticulum
(vi) Mitochondrial matrix
(vii) Cell vacuole
(viii) Nucleus

A B C D

(1) (v) (iv) (viii) (iii)

(2) (i) (iv) (viii) (vi)

(3) (vi) (v) (iv) (vii)

(4) (v) (i) (iii) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

40) (I) The vacuoles are bounded by single membrane called _____(A)_____.
(II) The concentration of ions is _____(B)_____ in the vacuole than in the cytoplasm.

(1) A-Plasma membrane; B-Lower

(2) A-Tonoplast; B-Lower
(3) A-Tonoplast; B-Higher
(4) A-Tonoplast; B-Equal

41) Assertion : In plant cells, the concentration of ions is higher in vacuole than in the cytoplasm.
Reason : In plant cells, the tonoplast transports the ions against the concentration gradient into the
vacuole.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

42) The organelle considered as the site of aerobic respiration :-

(1) Produce cellular energy in the form of ATP hence called “protein factory of cell”
(2) Outer membrane forms number of infoldings known as cristae
(3) Divide by fission
(4) Matrix possesses single, circular and single stranded DNA molecule.

43) Omnis cellula-e-cellula was given by

(1) Robert Brown

(2) Rudolf Virchow
(3) Schleiden
(4) Robert hooke

44) Chloroplast contains

A) Thylakoids
B) 70S ribosomes
C) 80S ribosomes
D) Double stranded linear DNA molecules.

(1) A and B only

(2) B and C only
(3) A, B and D only
(4) All
45) The Leucoplasts are the

(1) Coloured plastids of varied shapes and sizes with stored Pigments
(2) Colourless plastids of varied shapes and sizes with stored nutrients
(3) Green plastids of Spherical shapes and Specific sizes with stored nutrients
(4) Coloured plastids of Spherical shapes and Specific sizes with stored Pigments

46) Which is a correct match for the animal and its common name :

(1) Obelia – Jelly fish

(2) Taenia – Tapeworm
(3) Neries – Earthworm
(4) Pila – Pearl oyster

47) Which is not a character of cartilaginous fishes?

(1) 2- Chambered heart

(2) Paired fins
(3) Air or swim bladder
(4) Gills without operculum

48) Consider the following statements:

Aurelia typically has
A. A radially symmetrical body
B. A gastrovascular body
C. Both a polyp and medusoid form.

(1) A, B and C are correct

(2) B and C are correct
(3) A and B are correct
(4) A and C are correct

49) How many animals are characterised by incomplete digestive tract or by absence of digestive
tract
A. Nereis
B. Pleurobranchia
C. Meandrina
D. Taenia
E. Fasciola
F. Physalia
G. Ascaris
H. Echinus

(1) Five
(2) Six
(3) Seven
(4) All of these
50) Metameric segmentation is present in :-

(1) Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca

(2) Arthropoda, Mollusca, Echinoderms
(3) Aschelminthes, Arthropoda, Echinoderms
(4) Annelida, Arthropoda, Chordata

51) Which one is correct about Porifera :-

(1) Unisexual
(2) Internal fertilisation with indirect development
(3) Internal fertilisation with direct development
(4) External fertilisation with indirect development

52) Metagenesis means :-

(1) Polyp produce medusae asexually and medusae produce polyp sexually
(2) Polyp produce medusae sexually and medusae produce polyp sexually
(3) Polyp produce medusae asexually and medusae produce polyp asexually.
(4) Both (1) & (2)

53) Mark the correct option with respect to the figure given above.

(1) Bilateral symmetry - Fasciola, Ascaris

(2) Radial symmetry - Asterias, Pila
(3) Asymmetry - Ascidia, Salpa
(4) Radial symmetry - Echinus, Obelia

54) Read the following statements from A-D :-

(A) Animals are ectoparasites on few fishes (B) Circular mouth without jaw (C) In their body scales
and paired fins are absent
(D) Circulatory system closed type
These statements are correct for which class?

(1) Chondricthyes
(2) Osteicthyes
(3) Cyclostomata
(4) Amphibia

55) In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are not
correctly matched, whereas the remaining three are correct ?
 Genus Name Two characters Phylum

(a) Pore bearing

(1) Sycon Porifera
(b) Canal system

(a) Jointed appendages

(2) Periplaneta Arthropoda
(b) Chitinuous exoskeleton

(a) Body segmented

(3) Pila Mollusca
(b) Mouth with Radula

(a) Spiny skinned

(4) Asterias Echinodermata
(b) Water vascular system
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

56) Read the following (A-D) four statements :-

(A) Mouth is located ventrally
(B) Notochord is absent throughout the life
(C) Gill slits are absent
(D) Cycloid scale is absent
How many of the above statements are correct for Chondrichthyes ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

57) Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement-1 : All triploblastic animals are eucoelomates.
Statement-2 : Diploblastic animals have a false coelom.

(1) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

(2) Statements 1 is not correct but statement 2 is correct.
(3) Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
(4) Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

58) Read the following features :-

(i) Commonly known as "Round worm"
(ii) Animals are bilateral symmetrical and triploblastic
(iii) Exclusively parasite on animals
(iv) Pseudocoelomate animals having organ-system level of body organisation
(v) Body shows segmentation
(vi) Alimentary canal complete with well developed muscular pharynx
(vii) Animals are bisexual and shows sexual dimorphism
(viii) Fertilization internal and direct or indirect development.
Out of these how many features are not exhibited by members of Aschelminthes ?​​
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

59) Which of the following is/are similarity between Periplanata and Pheretima?
(A) Open blood vascular system
(B) Nephridia for excretion
(C) Dioecious
(D) Double ventral nerve cord
(E) Belongs to largest phylum

(1) Only B
(2) B, C and E
(3) Only D
(4) A, C and D

60) Find out incorrect match from column I, II and III :-

S.No Column-I Column-II Column-III

Scales
1 Petromyzon
absent

Air bladder
absent but
2 Pristis
operculum is
present

Air bladder
and
3 Hippocampus operculum
both are
present

Skin is
scaleless,
and
4 Rana
tympanum
represents
the ear
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

61) During course of evolution, which of the following (A–E) characterstics appeared first in phylum
annelida?
(A) Bilateral symmetry
(B) Complete digestive tract
(C) Eucoelom / coelom
(D) Metamerism
(E) Closed circulatory system

(1) B and C only

(2) A, C and D
(3) C, D and E
(4) A, B, C and E

62) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

i. Nerve cord ii. Notochord

iii. Post anal tail iv. Gill slits

(1) a–iii, b–ii, c–iv, d–i

(2) a–iii, b–ii, c–i, d–iv
(3) a–iii, b–i, c–iv, d–ii
(4) a–ii, b–i, c–iv, d–iii

63) Which one of the following phyla is correctly matched with its two general characteristics ?

(1) Arthropoda : Body divided into head, thorax and abdomen and respiration by lung
(2) Hemichordata : Body is composed of a long proboscis, a collar and a short trunk.
(3) Echinodermata : radial symmetry and direct development
(4) Mollusca : Normally oviparous and body is divided into head, muscular foot & visceral hump

64) Match column-I with column-II and select correct option about them :-

Column-I Column-II

A. Cucumaria i. Sea lilly

B. Echinus ii. Sea cucumber

C. Antedon iii. Brittle star

D. Ophiura iv. Sea urchin

(1) A-iii B-iv C-i D-ii
(2) A-ii B-iv C-i D-iii
(3) A-ii B-iii C-iv D-i
(4) A-iv B-i C-ii D-iii
65) Different types of excretory structures and animals are given below. Match them appropriately
and mark the correct answer from among those given below :-

Excretory organ Animals

A. Protonephridia (i) Prawn

B. Nephridia (ii) Cockroach

C. Malpighian tubules (iii) Earthworm

D. Green gland (iv) Flatworm

(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(4) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii

66) Match column-I with column-II and select correct option about them :–

Column-I Column-II

A. Pristis i. Sting ray

B. Exocoetus ii. Magur

C. Trygon iii. Saw fish

D. Clarias iv. Flying fish

(1) A-iii B-iv C-i D-ii
(2) A-i B-ii C-iii D-iv
(3) A-ii B-iii C-iv D-i
(4) A-iv B-i C-ii D-iii

67) Which of the following groups of phylum show common body plan and symmetry ?

(1) Annelida and ctenophora

(2) Coelenterata and flat worms
(3) Annelida and arthropoda
(4) Echinodermata and cnidaria

68) Select the incorrect statement from the following:

(1) Cyclostomates have an elongated body bearing 6-15 pairs of gill slits
(2) All chordates are vertebrates
(3) Bony fishes have four pairs of gills with operculum
(4) Amphibians are poikilotherms.
69) Select the correct statement about the above animals

(1) In animal (i) and (ii) excretory organs are similar.

(2) In animal (iii) circulation is open type
(3) In animal (iv) adult is with bilateral symmetry
(4) In animal (iv) fertilisation is external

70) Statement-I :- Cnidoblasts are present on the tentacles and on the body of cnidarians.
Statement-II :- Cnidoblasts are used for anchorage, defence and capture of the prey.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

71)

An important characteristic that hemichordata share with chordates is

(1) Absence of notochord

(2) Ventral tubular never cord
(3) Pharynx with gills slits
(4) Pharynx without gill slits

72) Mark the incorrect statement :-

Petromyzon - Marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water and after spawning, within a few
(1)
days, they die
(2) Pristis - Teeth are modified placoid scales which are forwardly directed
(3) Catla - Air bladder is present which regulates buoyancy
Rana - Alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tracts open into a common chamber called
(4)
cloaca

73) Which of the following is suitable to Aschelminthes?

(1) Triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical, acoelomates

(2) Triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical, schizocoelomates
(3) Triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical, enterocoelomates
(4) Triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical, pseudo coelomates

74) The correct classification of myxine is :

(1) Chordata → Craniata → Agnatha → Cyclostomata

(2) Chordata → Acraniata → Protochordata → Cephalochordata
(3) Chordata → Cephalochordata → Cyclostomata
(4) Chordata → Craniata → Vertebrata → Ostracodermi

75) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :-
Column I Column II
a. Tusk shell i. Chaetopleura
b. Squid ii. Dentalium
c. Chiton iii. Aplysia
d. Sea-hare iv. Loligo

(1) a–iii, b–iv, c–ii, d–i

(2) a–ii, b–iv, c–i, d–iii
(3) a–iii, b–ii, c–iv, d–i
(4) a–ii, b–iv, c–iii, d–i

76)

Assertion (A) : In Ascidia metamorphosis is retrogressive type

Reason (R) :- In urochordates larva is chordate like where as adult is non-chordate like

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) Both (A) & (R) are incorrect.

77) Match the column I & II

Column I Column II

(a) Clasper (i) Torpedo

(b) Electric organ (ii) Hippocampus

(c) Air bladder (iii) Scoliodon

(d) Brood pouch (iv) Anabas

(1) a - iii, b - ii, c - i, d - iv
(2) a - i, b - iii, c - iv, d - ii
(3) a - ii, b - iv, c - i, d - iii
(4) a - iii, b - i, c - iv, d - ii

78) In pleurobrachia fertilization is ________ & development is ________

(1) External, Direct
(2) Internal, Direct
(3) External, Indirect
(4) Internal, Indirect

79) Consider the statements and mark them as true/ false

a) All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates
b) In the members of class cyclostomata paired fins & scales are absent
c) Teeth of cartilaginous fishes are modified placoid scales
d) In Carcharodon gills are present in gill chamber covered with operculum

(1) a - T, b - T, c - F, d - T
(2) a - F, b - T, c - T, d - T
(3) a - T, b - F, c - T, d - F
(4) a - T, b - T, c - T, d - F

80) Which of the following is correct match about class and their examples ?

(1) Cyclostomes : Petromyzon, Myxine, Branchiostoma

(2) Chondrichthyes : Torpedo, Trygon, Exocoetus
(3) Osteicthyes : Pterophylum, Betta, Clarius
(4) Amphibia : Bufo, Icthyophis, Hippocampus

81) Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its one characteristics feature and
the taxon?

Animals Features Phylum

(a) Herdmania Notochord in larval tail Urochordata

(b) Amphioxus Notochord persists through out life Chordata

(c) Myxine Circular & suctorial mouth Cyclostomata

(d) Hyla Cutaneous respiration in water Amphibia

(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) d

82) Identify the phyla A & B with the following set of features

Feature Phylum - A Phylum - B

(a) Tube within tube body plan Absent Present

(b) Regeneration High Less

(c) Hermaphroditism Present Absent

(d) Larval stages Many Present/ Absent

(1) Mollusca & Annelida
(2) Aschelminthes & Arthropoda
(3) Echinodermata & Annelida
(4) Platyhelminthes & Arthropoda

83) All of the following types of cells are specialized to perform a certain function except

(1) Choanocyte & cnidocyte

(2) Archeocyte & interstitial cells
(3) Colloblast & statocyst
(4) Flame cell & Cnidocyte

84) Which of the following pairs includes organisms with open circulatory system

(1) Nereis, Pheretima, Hirudinaria

(2) Balanoglossus, Asterias, Pila
(3) Octopus, Hirudinaria, Bombyx
(4) Sepia, Octopus, Hirudinaria

85) Select the incorrect matching and choose the correct option.
(a) Pennatula - Sea pen
(b) Gorgonia - Sea anemone
(c) Aplysia - Sea hare
(d) Pleurobrachia - Sea Fan

(1) a & b are incorrect

(2) b & d are incorrect
(3) b & c are incorrect
(4) a & d are incorrect

86) Select the false pairing

Animal Scientific name Taxon & characteristics

Porifera, skeleton is made up of

(a) Bath sponge Euspongia
spongin fibres

Cnidaria, Digestion is both

(b) Brain coral Meandrina
extracellular and intracellular

(c) Devil fish Aplysia Mollusca, unsegmented body

Echinodermata, Endoskeleton of
(d) Brittle star Ophiura
calcareous ossicle
(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) d
87) Find the incorrect matching pair

(1) Economically useful insect - Apis, Bombyx

(2) Economically harmful insect/ vector - Laccifer, Aedes
(3) Living fossils - Limulus
(4) Gregarious pest - Locusta

88) Assertion - Aschelminthes are commonly called round worm.

Reason - They are circular in cross section

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) Both (A) & (R) are incorrect.

89) Assertion - Over two thirds of all named species on earth are arthropods.
Reason - Arthropods are the second largest animal phylum.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) Both (A) & (R) are incorrect.

90) Statement - I : In chordates gut is ventral to nerve cord.

Statement - II : In non- chordates nerve cord is ventral to gut.

(1) Statement I is incorrect & statement II is correct.

(2) Statement I is correct & statement II is incorrect.
(3) Both I & II incorrect
(4) Both I & II correct
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 3 2 2 2 3 2 2 2 3 2 2 1 4 3 4 1 4 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 1 2 2 1 1 1 3 2 2 2 4 1 4 4 2 2 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 4 1 3 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 2 4 4 1 1 2 4 3 1 2 1 1 3 4 4 2 1 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 4 3 1 1 3 1 3 2 1 1 1 3 1 3 3 3 2 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 3 3 4 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 4 4 1 3 3 3 2 2 3 3 3 3 1 2 4 4 1 2 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 3 3 3 4 3 4 3 4 4 2 2 1 3 2 2 1 2 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 2 1 2 2 3 3 1 4 2 1 4 3 3 3 4 2 3 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 4 2 2 1 3 2 4 3 3 2 4 1 2 1 4 3 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 2 2 2 3 2 1 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Cannot be zero.

2)

Conceptual

3)

Conceptual

4)

Conceptual

5)

Conceptual

6)

Conceptual

7)

Conceptual

8)

Direction reverses and magnitude is doubled

9)

Conceptual

10)

Conceptual

11)
Conceptual

12)

tan-1(2/3)

13)

Conceptual

14)

Conceptual

15)

Conceptual

16)

17)

Conceptual

18)

Conceptual

19)

Conceptual

20)

Conceptual

21)

Conceptual

22)

Conceptual
23)

Conceptual

24)

25)

26)

27)

Conceptual

28)

Conceptual

29)

Conceptual

30)

Conceptual

31)
Initial velocity, m/s (east-wards)
Final velocity, m/s (north-wards)
∴ change in velocity

m/s
Δt = 10 sec

∴
= m/sec2 (towards north-west)

32)

According to question

P2 + (2P)2 = 82
5P2 = 64

P= =

33)

⇒ θ = 90°

34) AC = 40 m
CB = 30 m
OC = OA – AC = 40 m

= 50 m

, 53° east of south

35)

In retardation and both are in opposite direction.

36) 1. Question Explanation:

A car travels from point A to point B with a uniform speed of v1 and then returns from point B
to A with a uniform speed of v2 We need to find the average speed for the round trip.
2. Concept Based:
The average speed for a round trip where the car covers the same distance both ways but at
different speeds is calculated using the formula for average speed in the case of unequal
speeds:

Average Speed =
This formula is derived from the harmonic mean of the two speeds.

3. Formula Used:
The formula for average speed when the distances for the two parts of the trip are the same
but the speeds are different is:

Average Speed =

4. Calculation:
Let the distance between A and B be d.

Time taken to travel from A to B: t1 =

Time taken to travel from B to A: t2 =

The total distance traveled in the round trip is 2d, and the total time taken is t1 + t2 =
The average speed is:

Average Speed =
Simplifying:

Average Speed =

Answer: Option 3
The average speed for the round trip is:

37)

= 4 m/s

38) Concept: Velocity is the time derivative of displacement:

Formula :

ν=
Calculation/Explanation :
Given:

Squaring both sides:

Differentiating w.r.t. t:

Since ν = 2t + 6, velocity is a linear function of t.

Final Answer: Option (2): Velocity of the particle varies linearly with t.

39)

(V) = =

40)

41) u = 72 km/hr = 20 m/s

v=0
s = 20 m
v2 = u2 + 2as
0 = 400 + 2a × 200
a = –1m/s2, so retardation = 1 m/s2

42)

S= ⇒ S ∝ V2
x : y = 1 : 16

43)

at1 = b(t – t1)

44)

∵ Snth = u +

∴ 65 = u +

∴u+ ............(1)
 and u + ............(2)
from equation (1) and equation (2) :
u = 20 m/s & a = 10 m/s2

∴ S20 = 20 × 20 + × (20)2 = 2400 m

45)
vo = 4t1, ...(1), 0 – Vo = –6 t2 ...(2)
by eq. (1) & (2) 2t1 = 3t2

and t1 + t2 = t ...(3) t1 =

t2 =
If t is minimum then vehicle accelerates first and the deaccelerate
displacement = area of v–t curve

3 km =

⇒ 3000 m =

⇒ 3000 = or t2 = 2500
t = 50 second

CHEMISTRY

46)

10–32 m

47)

(n + ℓ) rule

48)
49)

50) Number of nodes in 3s orbital = n–1–1 = 3–0–1 = 2

Hence, the given graph belongs to 3s orbital.

51) Number of nodal plan = ℓ

∴ 1s orbital (ℓ = 0) will have no nodal plane.

52) Orbital angular momentum =

53) When ℓ = 0, ‘m’ will also be equal to zero.

54)

Same no. of neutrons.

55) NCERT-2021, PART-1, Pg#46

56) NCERT-2021, PART-1, Pg#49

57)

Radiowave

58) n3 → n2

59)

b and c

60) For 4 f, n = 4, l = 3, m = –3, –2, –1, 0, +1, +2, +3

s= or

61)
8πa0

62)

Conceptual

63)

Conceptual

64) Explanation : find value of No. of photon (n).

Given data : λ = 4000 Å, E = 1J
Concept :

E=
h = 6.626 × 10-34 JS
C = 3 × 108 ms-1 (1Å = 10-10 m)
Calculation :

1=

n=
= 201.22 × 1016
= 2.01 × 1018
Final Answer : 2.0 x 1018
Correct Option : 1

65)

3 × 1015 s–1

66)

6 × 10–19 J

67)

Cosmic rays

68)

Most part of atom is empty

69)
 m = 0.01 kg, Δx = 10–5 m h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js

70)

Asking About :- Name of orbital

Concept :- Schrodinger's equation & wave function.
Soln / Explanation :- Given Data
wave function we know wave function
By compare
n=4
?=2
m=0
Conclusion :- by given Data
Nave of orbital → 4dz2
Correct Ans → option (1)

71) A. Question Explanation:

We are asked to determine the type and number of orbitals for a given value of the angular
momentum quantum number (1).

B. Given Data: l = 3

C. Concept : Quantum number. C.

D. Analysis:
The angular momentum quantum number (1) determines the shape of an orbital and the
subshell it belongs to. The relationship between l and the subshell type is as follows:

A. l = 0 : s subshell
B. l = 1 : p subshell
C. l = 2 : d subshell
D. l = 3 : f subshell

The number of orbitals in a subshell is given by the formula 2l + 1

E. Mathematical Calculation:
For l = 3 the subshell is f. Number of orbitals = 2(3) + 1 = 7

F. Final Answer:
The type of orbital is f and the number of orbitals is 7.

72) Asking About :- Electronic configuration.

Concept :- Hand's Rule
Soln / Explanation :- Hand's Rule : electrons fill singly into orbitals of the same energy before
paining up.

Conclusion :- Option
is correct According hunds Rule.
Correct Ans.(1)

73)

Conceptual

74)

75)

Hund’s rule

76)

Conceptual

77)

Conceptual

78)

Conceptual

79)

Conceptual

80)

81)

n = 3 to n = 1

82)

(d) < (b) < (c) < (a)

83)
 Energy is absorbed

84)

85)

Conceptual

86)

Splitting of spectral lines in presence of external magnetic field

87)

Energy of electron remains constant

88)

Conceptual

89)

90)

Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 126

92) NCERT-XI Pg. # 125 IInd and IIIrd para

93) NCERT XI (E), Pg. # 134

94) Module-1 Pg. # 168

95) NCERT-XI Pg#94

96) NCERT (XIth), Pg. # 94

97) NCERT (XIth), Pg. # 132

98) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 132

99) Module Pg. # 170

100) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 135, Para–3

101)

NCERT XI pg.# 136

102)

NCERT Pg # 95,96

103)

Asking About :-
The type of plastid that specializes in storing starch.

Concept :-
Understanding the different types of plastids and their functions in plant cells.

Solution or Explanation :
Plastids are a diverse group of organelles fount in plant and algal cells.
Amyloplasts are specifically adapted for storing starch granules.
They are commonly found in storage tissues like roots and tubers.

Answer : 3. Amyloplast

104)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 97

105) NCERT XI, Pg. # 133, Para 05

106) NCERT XI, (Eng.), Page # 130

107) NCERT XI, Pg. # 133, Para-04

108) NCERT Pg. # 133, Para # 8.5.3.2

 109) NCERT XI, Pg.# 133

110) NCERT Pg # 140E

111) NCERT-XI, Pg.# 127(H/E), para-8.3, Fig.8.1

112) NCERT, Page No. # 136

113)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 91

114)

NCERT XI Pg. # 125, 126

115)

The correct answer is:

4. All of the above
Explanation:
The fluid nature of the cell membrane refers to the ability of the lipid bilayer to allow
movement of lipids and proteins within the membrane. This flexibility is crucial for several
cellular processes, including:
1. Cell growth and division:

A. The fluidity of the membrane allows it to expand and reorganize during cell growth and
division, enabling ·the formation of new membranes during cell division.

2. Formation of intercellular junctions:

A. The fluidity of the membrane allows cells to interact and form junctions like tight junctions,
gap junctions, or desmosomes, which are essential for cell-to-cell communication and
adhesion.

3. Secretion and endocytosis:

A. Membrane fluidity facilitates processes like vesicle formation (for secretion) and vesicle fusion
with the membrane (for endocytosis), allowing the cell to take in or release substances.

Thus, the fluid nature of the membrane is key to all of these processes.

116)

NCERT XI#133

117)

XI NCERT Pg. # 97, 98

 118)

XI-NCERT, Eng. page – 134 (lysosome and vacuoles topics)

XI-NCERT, िहदी पे ज – 134 (लयनकाय एवं रसधानी टाॅ िपक)

119)

NCERT XI, Pg. No. 135 # 8.5.5

120) NCERT XI, Page # 134

121) NCERT page 134

122)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 89

123) Physiological activity of the cell

124)

NCERT XI, Pg # 135

125)

XIth NCERT OLD, Pg. 133 -134, 134 - 135, 136, 138-139

126)

Correct Answer: 2 — Three

Explanation:

Correct features in mitochondria:

A. Cristae

B. Double membrane

70S ribosome

127) NCERT#131

128)

NCERT, Pg. # 98
129)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 95

130) (A) Tonoplast ➔ The vacuole is surrounded by a single membrane called the
tonoplast.
(B) Higher ion concentration ➔ The vacuole maintains a higher concentration of ions than
the cytoplasm, helping in osmoregulation and storage.

131)

NCERT XI Eng. Pg. # 134

िहदी पे ज नं . # 134

132) NCERT XI Pg # 135

133) NCERT Page 87.

134) NCERT Page 98.

135) NCERT 11th Class (Chapter-8) Page No. 135

136) Pg. No. 51 NCERT 2022 - 2023 Edition

137) NCERT (XI) Pg# 56 Para: 4.2.11.2

138)

A and B are correct

139)

Five

140)

Annelida, Arthropoda, Chordata

141)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 49

142)
 NCERT (XI) Pg. # 50

143)

Radial symmetry - Echinus, Obelia

144)

Cyclostomata

145) NCERT (XIth) (E) Pg. # 49,53,54

146)

New NCERT - XI, Pg. # 47

A) Mouth is located ventrally:

A. True. Chondrichthyes, like sharks and rays, have their mouths positioned on the underside of
their bodies (ventrally).

B) Notochord is absent throughout the life:

A. False. Chondrichthyes do possess a notochord, which is a flexible rod-shaped structure that

provides support. While it is replaced by cartilage in most vertebrates, it remains present in
Chondrichthyes.

C) Gill slits are absent:

A. False. Chondrichthyes are characterized by the presence of gill slits, which are openings on
the sides of their head used for respiration.

D) Cycloid scale is absent:

A. True. Cycloid scales are a type of fish scale found in bony fishes (Osteichthyes) and not in
Chondrichthyes. Chondrichthyes have placoid scales, which are small, tooth-like structures.

Therefore, out of the four statements, only two are correct for Chondrichthyes: (A) Mouth is
located ventrally and (D) Cycloid scale is absent.
So, the answer to the question "How many of the.above statements are correct for Chondrichthyes?"
is Option 3: Two.

147)

Pg. No. 47, 48 NCERT 2022 - 2023 Edition

148)

Conceptual
 149)

Only D

150)

NCERT XI Pg. # 47,48

Fig 4.18, 4.19(b), 4.20(b), 4.21(b)

151)

C, D and E

152)

a–iii, b–i, c–iv, d–ii

153)

Mollusca : Normally oviparous and body is divided into head, muscular foot & visceral hump

154)

A-ii B-iv C-i D-iii

155)

A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

156) NCERT Pg. # 57, Para-4.2.11.2, 4.2.11.3

157)

Annelida and arthropoda

158)

All chordates are vertebrates

159)

In animal (iv) fertilisation is external

160) NCERT, Pg # 40
 161)

Pharynx with gills slits

162) NCERT XI Pg. # 56, 57

163)

Triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical, pseudo coelomates

164)

Chordata → Craniata → Agnatha → Cyclostomata

165)

Pg. No. 54 NCERT 2022 - 2023 Edition

166)

Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

167) a - iii, b - i, c - iv, d - ii

168) External, Indirect.

169) a - T, b - T, c - T, d - F

170) Osteicthyes : Pterophylum, Betta, Clarius

171)

Amphioxus Notochord persists through out life Chordata

172) Platyhelminthes & Arthropoda

173) Archeocyte & interstitial cells

174) Balanoglossus, Asterias, Pila

175) b & d are incorrect

 176)

c Devil fish Aplysia Mollusca, unsegmented body

177) Economically harmful insect/ vector - Laccifer, Aedes

178) Statement I is incorrect & statement II is correct.

179) Both (A) & (R) are incorrect.

180) Both I & II correct