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Day 2 167525510026

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
96 views39 pages

Day 2 167525510026

Uploaded by

sherin.babu666
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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RBI Assistant Prelims PDF Course 2023

Reasoning Ability Day -2 (Eng)

Reasoning Ability

Direction (1-5): Study the following information d) J


carefully and answer the questions given below. e) The one who sits second to the left of J
Seven persons - I, J, K, L, M, N and O are sitting
around a circular table facing the centre, but not 4. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true
necessarily in the same order. about J with respect to the final arrangement?
Only two persons sit between K and O(either a) J sits to the immediate right of K
from left or right). M sits second to the left of K. L b) J sits third to the left of L
sits to the immediate left of O. As many persons c) No one sits between J and M, when counted
sit between M and L as between L and I. J sits from the left of J
second to the left of I. N sits third to the right of J. e) Both a and b
1. If one of the neighbours of I is K, then who e) Both b and c
among the following person is the second
neighbour? 5. How many persons are sitting between M and
a) M I, when counted from the left of I?
b) N a) No one
c) J b) One
d) O c) Two
e) L d) Three
e) Four
2. Which of the following pair of persons are
immediate neighbours? Direction (6-10): Study the following information
a) J, O carefully and answer the questions given below.
b) K, N Ten persons are sitting in two parallel rows in
c) L, I such a way that there is an equal distance
d) M, J between adjacent persons. In row 1 A, B, C, D
e) O, K and E are seated and all of them are facing
south. In row 2 P, Q, R, S and T are seated and
3. Who among the following person sits second all of them are facing north. Each person in row 1
to the right of N? faces exactly one person in row 2
a) The one who sits immediate left of L S sits at one of the extreme ends. Only two
b) M persons sit between S and T. A faces T. As
c) K many persons sit to the left of A as to the left of

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Reasoning Ability Day -2 (Eng)

P. B sits to the immediate right of the one who c) P


faces P. C sits second to the left of B. E is an d) S
immediate neighbour of C. R sits second to the e) The one who faces A
left of Q, who does not face D.
6. What is the position of A from the right end? 10. Who among the following person sits at the
a) First extreme end of the row?
b) Second a) B
c) Third b) P
d) Fourth c) R
e) Fifth d) E
e) A
7. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false
with respect to the final arrangement? Direction (11-15): Study the following information
a) D and R are sitting diagonally opposite to each carefully and answer the questions given below.
other. Seven boxes viz., M, N, O, P, Q, R and S are
b) C sits at the extreme right end kept one above another in a single stack, but not
c) Only one person sits to the right of T necessarily in the same order.
d) All the given statements are true Box N is kept four boxes above M. As many
e) All the given statements are false boxes kept above N as below P. Only two boxes
are kept between P and O. Box R is kept two
8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain boxes below O. As many boxes kept between P
way based on the given arrangement and thus and R as between O and Q. Box S is kept below
form a group. Which one of the following does box Q.
not belong to the group? 11. If M and R interchanged in its positions in the
a) A-T same way Q and S did the same, then how many
b) B-Q boxes are kept between Q and R?
c) C-S a) None
d) E-R b) One
e) D-R c) Two
d) Three
9. Who among the following person sits to the e) More than three
immediate right of R?
a) The one who faces D 12. As many boxes kept between O and R as
b) Q between P and ___.

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RBI Assistant Prelims PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Ability Day -2 (Eng)

a) S lowermost floor is numbered as one and the floor


b) N immediately above it is numbered as two and so
c) Q on.
d) O Note-I: Each floor has two flats viz., Flat-P and
e) R Flat-Q, where Flat P is to the west of flat Q.
Note-II: Flat Q of floor 2 is immediately above
13. If all the boxes are arranged in alphabetical Flat Q of floor 1 and immediately below Flat Q of
order from bottom to top, then how many boxes floor 3 and so on. Similarly for flat P.
remain in the same position? D lives on an odd numbered floor and two floors
a) Three above G’s flat. B lives immediately above D but
b) None in different flats. As many floors above B as
c) One below C. H lives to the immediate northeast of A.
d) Two E lives to the south of H. F and E did not live on
e) More than three the same floor.
16. Which of the following combination is true?
14. How many boxes are kept between R and N? a) H-Floor 3, flat P
a) As many boxes kept above N b) A-Floor 1, flat Q
b) More than three c) E-Floor 2, Flat Q
c) One d) F-Floor 4, Flat Q
d) Three e) C-Floor 1, Flat P
e) As many boxes kept below M
17. Which of the following pair of persons live in
15. Which of the following box is kept three the same flat?
boxes below Q? a) F, H
a) P b) E, D
b) N c) A, B
c) S d) C, E
d) R e) G, H
e) O
18. Who among the following person lives two
Direction (16-20): Study the following information floors below F’s flat?
carefully and answer the questions given below. a) E
Eight persons viz., A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are b) H
living in a four storey building where the c) A

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Reasoning Ability Day -2 (Eng)

d) G 20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain


e) C way based on the given arrangement and thus
form a group. Which one of the following does
19. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not not belong to the group?
false with respect to the final arrangement? a) F
a) D and H live in the same flat b) G
b) No one lives to the east of F c) A
c) As many floors above A as below B d) B
d) All the given statements are true e) D
e) All the given statements are false

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Or Scan the QR Code to Get the Detailed Video Solutions

Answer Key with Explanation


Directions (1-5):
1. Answer: B
2. Answer: D
3. Answer: E
4. Answer: C
5. Answer: C
Final arrangement:
We have,
 Only two persons sit between K and
O(either from left or right).
 M sits second to the left of K.

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Reasoning Ability Day -2 (Eng)

From the above conditions, we have two 10. Answer: C


possibilities: Final arrangement:

Again we have,
We have,
 L sits to the immediate left of O.
 S sits at one of the extreme ends.
 As many persons sit between M and L as
 Only two persons sit between S and T.
between L and I.
 A faces T.
From the above conditions, we have two
possibilities:

Again we have,
 J sits second to the left of I. Again we have,
 N sits third to the right of J.  As many persons sit to the left of A as to
While applying the above conditions, case 2 gets the left of P.
eliminated, because can’t able to place N to the  B sits to the immediate right of the one
third right of J. Thus case 1 gives the final who faces P.
arrangement.  C sits second to the left of B.

Again we have,
 E is an immediate neighbour of C.
Directions (6-10):
 R sits second to the left of Q, who does
6. Answer: B
not face D.
7. Answer: E
While applying the above conditions, case 1 gets
8. Answer: D ( All the pairs of persons are facing
eliminated, because Q faces D. Thus, case 2
each other except the pair given in option d)
gives the final arrangement.
9. Answer: E

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RBI Assistant Prelims PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Ability Day -2 (Eng)

Directions (11-15):
11. Answer: A
12. Answer: B
13. Answer: C
14. Answer: E
15. Answer: D Again we have,
Final arrangement:  Only two boxes are kept between P and
O.
 Box R is kept two boxes below O.

We have,
 Box N is kept four boxes above M.
 As many boxes kept above N as below P.
From the above conditions, we have two Again we have,
possibilities:  As many boxes kept between P and R as
between O and Q.
 Box S is kept below box Q.
While applying the above conditions, case 1 gets
eliminated, because box S should be kept below
box Q. Thus, case 2 gives the final arrangement.

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RBI Assistant Prelims PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Ability Day -2 (Eng)

From the above conditions, we have two


possibilities:

Again we have,
 As many floors above B as below C.
 H lives to the immediate northeast of A.

Directions (16-20):
16. Answer: C
17. Answer: D
18. Answer: C
19. Answer: E Again we have,
20. Answer: D (All the persons are living in the  E lives to the south of H.
same flat except option d)  F and E did not live on the same floor.
Final arrangement: While applying the above conditions, case 2 gets
eliminated, because E and F should not live on
the same floor. Thus, case 1 gives the final
arrangement.

We have,
 D lives on an odd numbered floor and two
floors above G’s flat.
 B lives immediately above D but in
different flats.

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Reasoning Ability Day -2 (Eng)

Score Booster

Directions (1-5): In the given questions, the 5. Statements:


relationship between different elements is shown P>U≤Y=T≤R≥W<D
in the statements followed by some conclusions. Conclusions:
Find the conclusion which is definitely true. I. U<R
II. R=U
a) Only conclusion I is true
b) Only conclusion II is true
Direction (6-10): Study the following information
c) Both conclusions I and II are true
carefully and answer the questions given below.
d) Either conclusion I or II is true
394 752 618 274
e) Neither conclusion I nor II is true
831
1. Statements:
6. If the given numbers are arranged in
M<V≥B>C; F≥V=D<G
descending order from left to right, then which of
Conclusions:
the following number is second from the right
I. M<G
end?
II. F≥C
a) 394
b) 752
2. Statements:
c) 618
P≤U=Y>T; Q<W≥Y<R
d) 274
Conclusions:
e) 831
I. Q<T
II. R>P
7. If all the digits within the number are added,
3. Statements:
then which of the following number gives the
P≤U>R≥D; M>U≤F=B
resultant as a prime number?
Conclusions:
a) 394
I. B≥P
b) 752
II. D<M
c) 618
d) 274
4. Statements:
e) 831
K≤H>G; F>G=J; P<A≤J
Conclusions:
8. If all the digits are arranged in ascending
I. P<K
order within the number from the left end, then
II. K<A

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RBI Assistant Prelims PDF Course 2023
Reasoning Ability Day -2 (Eng)

which of the following number is the third than W and S but not as much as M. The cow
highest? which gives the second highest quantity of milk
a) 394 gives 25 litres and cow R gives 10 litres of milk.
b) 752 11. How many cows give more milk than cow
c) 618 W?
d) 274 a) Two
e) 831 b) Three
c) Four
9. What is the product of the digits which are the d) Five
highest digit of the highest number and the e) Can’t be determined.
middle digit of the second lowest number?
a) 62 12. If at least one cow gives less quantity of milk
b) 72 than cow S, then which of the following cow
c) 75 gives the least quantity of milk?
d) 80 a) K
e) 82 b) W
c) R
10. What is the sum of the numbers which are d) Either R or W
the fourth lowest and third highest numbers of e) Can’t be determined.
the given series?
a) 1330 13. If the difference between the milk given by
b) 1380 cow P and R is 13 litres and the sum of milk
c) 1370 given by L and S is 32 litres, then what is the
d) 1360 sum of milk given by cow P and cow S?
e) 1350 a) 23 litres
b) 28 litres
Direction (11-13): Study the following information c) 30 litres
carefully and answer the questions given below. d) 34 litres
Seven cows- W, K, L, S, P, R and M give e) Can’t be determined
different quantities of milk per day. K gives the
fourth highest quantity of milk. P gives more milk Direction (14-15): Study the following information
than K but less milk than L, which does not give carefully and answer the questions given below.
the highest quantity of milk. R gives more milk

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Reasoning Ability Day -2 (Eng)

Six persons-A, B, C, D, E and F are earning “Enjoy Pongal with sugarcane” is coded as “kd
different profits from their business. rv as zc”
The profit earned by F is more than D but less “Eating Sweet sugarcane festival” is coded as
than C, who doesn’t earn the highest profit. The “yu zc qm if”
profit earned by A is more than to B and F but (Note: All the given codes are two letter codes
less than C. The profit earned by D is more than only)
B but less than E. The one who earned the third 16. What is the code for the phrase “Well
highest profit earned Rs.70000. festival” in the given code language?
14. Who among the following person earns the a) qm eb
least profit? b) wx if
a) E c) qm wx
b) D d) rv eb
c) B e) zc qm
d) F
e) A 17. What is the word for the code “yu” in the
given code language?
15. If the sum of the profit earned by E and A is a) Eating
Rs.160000, then what may be the profit earned b) Sweet
by C? c) Festival
a) Rs.90000 d) Sugarcane
b) Rs.81000 e) Can’t be determined
c) Rs.95000
d) Rs.65000 18. What is the code for the word “Celebrated” in
e) Rs.63000 the given code language?
a) qm
Direction (16-20): Study the following information b) eb
carefully and answer the questions given below. c) wx
In a certain code language, d) rv
“Well celebrated Pongal festival” is coded as “qm e) None of these
wx eb rv”
“People enjoy and celebrated” is coded as 19. If “people eating” is coded as “if op”, then
“eb op kd gh” what is the phrase for the code “gh yu” in the
given code language?

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Reasoning Ability Day -2 (Eng)

a) Pongal and 20. What is the code for the phrase “Pongal
b) And celebrated sweet” in the given code language?
c) Sweet people a) rv yu
d) and sweet b) rv wx
e) Enjoy sweet c) rv if
d) gh kd
e) Either (a) or (c)
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Answer Key with Explanation


1. Answer: A 5. Answer: D
I. M<G -> M<V=D<G -> True I. U<R -> U≤Y=T≤R -> False
II. F≥C -> F≥V≥B>C -> False II. R=U -> U≤Y=T≤R -> False
By combining I and II, we get either I or II is true
2. Answer: B
I. Q<T -> Q<W≥Y>T -> False Direction (6-10):
II. R>P -> P≤U=Y<R -> True 6. Answer: A
Given series: 394 752 618
3. Answer: C 274 831
I. B≥P -> P≤U≤F=B -> True Required series:831 752 618
II. D<M -> M>U>R≥D -> True 394 274

4. Answer: E 7. Answer: D
I. P<K -> K≤H>G=J≥A>P -> False Given series: 394 752 618
II. K<A -> K≤H>G=J≥A -> False 274 831

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Reasoning Ability Day -2 (Eng)

Required series:16 14 15  R gives more milk than W and S but not


13 12 as much as M.
M>R>W/S
8. Answer: D  The cow which gives the second highest
Given series: 394 752 618 quantity of milk gives 25 litres and cow R
274 831 gives 10 litres of milk.
Required series:349 257 168
247 138

Directions (14-15):
9. Answer: B
14. Answer: C
Given series: 394 752 618
15. Answer: B
274 831
 The profit earned by F is more than D but
Required series:394 752 618
less than C, who doesn’t earn the highest
274 831 ->8*9=72
profit.
_>C>F>D
10. Answer: C
 The profit earned by A is more than to B
Given series: 394 752 618
and F but less than C.
274 831
C>A>F/ B
Required numbers: 618+752= 1370
 The profit earned by D is more than B but
less than E.
Directions (11-13):
E>D>B
11. Answer: E
 The one who earned the third highest
12. Answer: B
profit earned Rs.70000.
13. Answer: C
 K gives the fourth highest quantity of milk.
_>_>_>K>_>_>_
Directions (16-20):
 P gives more milk than K but less milk 16. Answer: C
than L, which does not give the highest 17. Answer: E
quantity of milk. 18. Answer: B
_>L>P>K>_>_>_ 19. Answer: D
20. Answer: E

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Reasoning Ability Day -2 (Eng)

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RBI Assistant Prelims PDF Course 2023
Quantitative Aptitude Day -2 (Eng)

Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (1-5): Study the following information C.400


carefully and answer the questions. D.210
The given table chart shows the number of veg E.None of these
burgers ordered in four different restaurants i.e.
L, M, N and O on Monday and also given the 3. The total number of veg burgers ordered in
percentage of the number of non-veg burgers restaurants M and O together is how much
ordered in four different restaurants on Monday. more/less than the number of non-veg burgers
Note: The total number of burgers ordered = The ordered in restaurant O?
number of veg burgers ordered + The number of A.300 more
non-veg burgers ordered B.100 less
C.150 more
D.210 less
E.None of these

4. Find the ratio of the number of non-veg


burgers ordered in restaurant L to the number of
1. The number of non-veg burgers ordered in veg burgers ordered in restaurant M?
restaurant N is what percentage of the total A.3:2
number of burgers ordered in restaurant M? B.17:5
A.30% C.5:4
B.25% D.9:7
C.10% E.None of these
D.45%
E.None of these 5. In restaurant N, the number of veg burgers
ordered on Tuesday is 20% less than that on
2. If the total number of burgers ordered in Monday and the ratio of the number of non-veg
restaurant P is 140 more than that of restaurant burgers ordered on Monday to Tuesday is 3:4.
O and the ratio of the number of veg to non-veg Find the total number of burgers ordered in
burgers ordered in restaurant P is 5:3, then find restaurant N on Tuesday?
the number of non-veg burgers ordered in A.360
restaurant P? B.500
A.250 C.480
B.320

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -2 (Eng)

D.650
E.None of these

Directions (6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions.
The given line graph shows the total production of cars in five different companies i.e. A, B, C, D and E
and also given the demand for cars in five different companies.

6. Out of the total demands of cars in A and C, E.None of these


20% of the cars are in blue color and 70% of the
cars are in red color respectively. Find the total 8. Find the ratio of the total demand of cars in E
number of cars which are in blue color in A and to the production of cars in C?
C together?(Consider the demands of cars are in A.5:7
blue and red color only) B.4:3
A.1100 C.2:1
B.1200 D.9:8
C.1300 E.None of these
D.1400
E.None of these 9. If the total demands of cars in F is double the
total demand of cars in D, then find the total
7. The total demands of cars in B is what demands of cars in F is what percentage more
percentage of the production of cars in E? than the total production of cars in B?
A.18% A.10%
B.25% B.70%
C.32% C.30%
D.10% D.50%

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -2 (Eng)

E.None of these E.None of these

10. Find the difference between the total demand 12. If the average number of orange, yellow and
of cars in A and the total production for cars in blue shirts sold by shop A is 140 and the ratio of
D? the total number of blue shirts sold by shop A to
A.1000 B is 6:5, then find the total number of blue shirts
B.500 sold by shop B?
C.2500 A.180
D.1500 B.150
E.None of these C.110
D.170
Directions (11-15): Read the following E.None of these
information carefully and answer the questions.
The given information shows the total number of 13. Find the ratio of the total number of orange
shirts (orange, green and yellow) sold by shops shirts sold by shop B to the total number of
A and B. yellow shirts sold by shop A?
Shop A: The ratio of the total number of orange A.5:2
to green shirts sold is 4:7 and the ratio of the B.3:1
total number of yellow to orange shirts sold is C.7:6
1:2. The difference between the total number of D.8:9
green and yellow shirts sold is 200. E.None of these
Shop B: The average number of orange, green
and yellow shirts sold is 140. The total number of 14. The total number of green shirts sold by shop
green shirts sold is 40% less than the total B is what percentage more/less than the total
number of orange shirts sold and the total number of yellow shirts sold by the same shop?
number of orange shirts sold is double the total A.30% more
number of yellow shirts sold. B.15% less
11. Find the difference between the total number C.20% more
of green shirts sold by shop A and the total D.45% less
number of yellow shirts sold by shop B? E.None of these
A.170
B.150 15. If the total number of green and orange shirts
C.100 sold by shop C is 15% more and 25% less than
D.180 the number of orange shirts sold by shop B, then

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -2 (Eng)

find the sum of the total number of orange and can complete the work in 10 days and they get
green shirts sold by shop C? total wages of Rs.7800, then find the difference
A.250 between the wages of A and C.
B.380 A.Rs.3200
C.440 B.Rs.4100
D.270 C.Rs.1300
E.None of these D.Rs.2500
E.None of these
16. The ratio of the present age of X to Y is 8:9.
After 5 years, the ratio of X to Y will be 9:10. Find 19. A boat covers a certain distance upstream in
the age of X before 3 years. 9 hours and the boat covers the same distance
A.35 years downstream in 6 hours. If the speed of the
B.33 years stream is 4 km/hr, then find the distance covered
C.37 years by the boat in still water in 6 hours.
D.36 years A.360 km
E.None of the above B.120 km
C.240 km
17. A car covers one-third of the distance at the D.180 km
speed of 60 km/hr and the remaining distance at E.None of these
the speed of 80 km/hr. Find the average speed
of the car, if the total distance covered by the car 20. Circumference of semicircle is 36 cm; radius
is 360 km? of semicircle and breadth of rectangle is same.
A.75 km/hr Find the length of rectangle is its area is 168
B.66 km/hr cm2. Use π = 22/7.
C.72 km/hr A.24
D.63 km/hr B.16
E.None of these C.18
D.36
18. A and B can complete the work in 30 days E.None of these
and 20 days respectively. If A, B and C together

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Quantitative Aptitude Day -2 (Eng)

Click Here to Get the Detailed Video Solution for the above given Questions-Will Update Soon
Or Scan the QR Code to Get the Detailed Video Solutions

Answer Key with Explanation


Directions (1-5): The total number of burgers ordered in
Restaurant: L restaurant P = 420 + 140 = 560
The number of non-veg burgers ordered = 980 * The number of non-veg burgers ordered in
51/(100 – 51) = 980 * 51/49 = 1020 restaurant P = 560 * 3/(5 + 3) = 560 * 3/8 = 210
The total number of burgers ordered = 980 +
1020 = 2000 3. Answer: A
Restaurant: M The total number of veg burgers ordered in
The number of non-veg burgers ordered = 300 * restaurants M and O together = 300 + 210 = 510
40/(100 – 40) = 300 * 40/60 = 200 Required difference = 510 – 210 = 300 more
The total number of burgers ordered = 300 + 200
= 500 4. Answer: B
Restaurant: N Required ratio = 1020:300 = 17:5
The number of non-veg burgers ordered = 350 *
30/(100 – 30) = 350 * 30/70 = 150 5. Answer: C
The total number of burgers ordered = 350 + 150 The number of veg burgers ordered in restaurant
= 500 N on Tuesday = 350 * 80/100 = 280
Restaurant: O The number of non-veg burgers ordered in
The number of non-veg burgers ordered = 210 * restaurant N on Tuesday = 150 * 4/3 = 200
50/(100 – 50) = 210 * 50/50 = 210 The total number of burgers ordered in
The total number of burgers ordered = 210 + 210 restaurant N on Tuesday = 280 + 200 = 480
= 420
6. Answer: C
The number of cars in blue color in A = 2000 *
20/100 = 400
The number of cars in blue color in C = 3000 *
(100- 70)/100 = 3000 * 30/100 = 900
1. Answer: A
The total number of cars in blue color in A and C
Required percentage = 150/500 * 100 = 30%
together = 400 + 900 = 1300

2. Answer: D

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7. Answer: B Let the total number of green shirts sold = a


Required percentage = 1000/4000 * 100 = 25% And the total number of orange shirts sold =
a*100/60 = 5a/3
8. Answer: A And the total number of yellow shirts sold =
Required ratio = 2500:3500 = 5:7 5a/3*1/2 = 5a/6
a +5a/3+5a/6 = 420
9. Answer: D 6a+10a+5a = 2520
The total production of cars in F = 1500 * 2 = 21a = 2520
3000 a = 120
Required percentage = (3000 – 2000)/2000 * The total number of orange shirts sold = 5*120/3
100 = 1000/2000 * 100 = 50% = 200
The total number of green shirts sold = 120
10. Answer: B The total number of yellow shirts sold = 5*120/6
Required difference = 2500 – 2000 = 500 = 100

Directions (11-15):
Shop A:
Let the total number of orange shirts sold = 4x
And the total number of green shirts sold = 7x
And the total number of yellow shirts sold =
4x*1/2 = 2x 11. Answer: D
7x-2x = 200 Required difference = 280 – 100 = 180
5x = 200
x = 40 12. Answer: B
The total number of orange shirts sold = 4*40 = The total number of orange, yellow and blue
160 shirts sold by shop A = 140*3 = 420
The total number of green shirts sold = 7*40 = The total number of blue shirts sold by shop A =
280 420-(160+80) = 420-240 = 180
The total number of yellow shirts sold = 2*40 = The total number of blue shirts sold by shop B =
80 180*5/6 = 150
Shop B:
The total number of orange, green and yellow 13. Answer: A
shirts sold = 140*3 = 420 Required ratio = 200:80 = 5:2

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14. Answer: C The time taken by the car to cover 240 km =


Required percentage = (120-100)/100 * 100 = 240/80 = 3 hours
20% more The average speed of the car = 360/(3 + 2) =
360/5 = 72 km/hr
15. Answer: B
The total number of green shirts sold by shop C 18. Answer: C
= 200*115/100 = 230 1/30 + 1/20 + 1/C = 1/10
The total number of orange shirts sold by shop C 1/C = 6/60 – 2/60 – 3/60
= 200*75/100 = 150 1/C = 1/60
Required sum = 230 + 150 = 380 C = 60
The ratio of the wages of A, B and C =
16. Answer: C 1/30:1/20:1/60 = 2:3:1
Let the present age of X and Y be 8x ad 9x The difference between the wages of A and C =
respectively. 7800 * (2 – 1)/(2 + 3 + 1) = 7800 * 1/6 = Rs.1300
(8x+5)/(9x+5) =9/10
80x+50 =81x+45 19. Answer: B
X=5 The ratio of the downstream to the upstream
The Present age of X =40 years. speed of the boat = 9:6 = 3:2
Age of X before 3 years =40-3 =37 years (3x – 2x)/2 = 4
x=8
17. Answer: C The speed of the boat in still water = (3 * 8 + 2 *
The distance covered by the car at the speed of 8)/2 = (24 + 16)/2 = 40/2 = 20 km/hr
60 km/hr = 360/3 = 120 km Required distance = 20 * 6 = 120 km
The time taken by the car to cover 120 km =
120/60 = 2 hours 20. Answer: A
The distance covered by the car at the speed of
80 km/hr = 360 – 120 = 240 km

Score Booster
Directions (1-5): What value should come in the B.7
place of (?) in the C.8
following questions? D.13
1) (2197)1/3 + 44 – (512)1/3 = (?)2 E. None of these
A.9

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2) (480 ÷ 4) – 5 * 12 + √784 =? C.42


A.86 D.51
B.80 E.58
C.88
D.90 7)17, ?, 47, 67, 77, 97
E.92 A.20
B.27
3) (1170 ÷ 6) – 12 * 6 + 9 * √9= ? C.30
A.120 D.37
B.140 E.40
C.180
D.110 8)4, 3, 6, 19, 78, ?
E.150 A.291
B.365
4) (943 ÷ 23) * (18/41) * ? = 612 C.297
A.31 D.393
B.34 E.329
C.37
D.39 9)2, 10, 40, ?, 240, 240
E.36 A.120
B.160
5) 3249/18 * 1/5 of 75 – 133= ? C.200
A.154.8 D.140
B.510.5 E.240
C.302
D.405 10)21, ?, 46, 141, 568, 2845
E. None of these A.22
B.29
Directions (6-10): What value should come in the C.31
place of (?) in the following number series? D.40
6)31, 40, 22, 49, 13, ? E.41
A.26
B.22

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Directions (11-15): What approximate value B.15


should come in the place of (?) in the following C.25
questions. D.30
11) (21.09) * (9.99) + (31.98)2 = ? E.35
A.1234
B.1238 Directions (16-20): In each of the following
C.1228 number series, one number is wrong. Find out
D.1220 the wrong number.
E.1216 16)4, 16, 112, 450, 7168, 157696
A.7168
12)399.95 ÷ 4.92 + ? ÷ 6.27 = 29.98 * 2.99 B.450
A.60 C.112
B.75 D. 157696
C.80 E. None of these
D.65
E.55 17) 7, 28, 42, 53, 59, 62
A.42
13)420.02 ÷ 2.91 + 448.08 ÷ 3.98 = ? B.59
A.252 C.62
B.285 D.53
C.290 E. None of these
D.295
E.300 18)87360, 21840, 4368, 728, 105, 13
A.13
14)125.82 + 81.91 – 32.79 =? * 12.13 B.4368
A.5 C.105
B.15 D.21840
C.25 E. None of these
D.30
E.35 19) 157, 170, 179, 194, 208, 218
A.179
15)17.14 * 2.78 – 15.31 * 2.42 = 12.12 * ? B.218
A.2 C.170

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D.194 D. x< y
E. None of these E. x ≤ y

20) 56, 75, 52, 79, 50, 83, 44 23)


A.75 I) 2x + 12y - 36 = 0
B.79 II) 3x + 4y - 19 = 0
C.83 A. x> y
D.50 B. x ≥ y
E. None of these C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
D. x< y
Directions (21-25): Following question contains E. x ≤ y
two equations as I and II. You have to solve both
equations and determine the relationship 24)
between them and give an answer as, I) x2 – 10x + 25 = 0
21) II) y2 + 5y – 50 = 0
I) x2-10x+24 = 0 A. x> y
II) y2-15y+54 = 0 B. x ≥ y
A. x> y C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
B. x ≥ y D. x< y
C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined. E. x ≤ y
D. x< y
E. x ≤ y 25)
I) x2 – 38x + 240 = 0
22) II) y2 = 900
I) x2 = x + 182 A. x> y
II)-28y = (y2 + 195) B. x ≥ y
A. x> y C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined.
B. x ≥ y D. x< y
C. x = y or relationship can’t be determined. E. x ≤ y
Click Here to Get the Detailed Video Solution for the above given Questions-Will Update Soon
Or Scan the QR Code to Get the Detailed Video Solutions

Answer Key with Explanation

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1) Answer: B 7) Answer: D
(2197)1/3 + 44 – (512)1/3 = (?)2 17 + 10 * 2 = 37
(?)2= 13 + 44 – 8 37 + 5 * 2 = 47
49 = (?)2 47 + 10 * 2 = 67
?= 7 67 + 5 * 2 = 77
77 + 10 * 2 = 97
2) Answer: C
(480 ÷ 4) – 5 * 12 + √784 =? 8) Answer: D
120 – 60 + 28 =? 4 * 1 + (-1) = 3
? = 88 3*2+0=6
6 * 3 + 1 = 19
3) Answer: E 19 * 4 + 2 = 78
(1170 ÷ 6) – 12 * 6 + 9 * √9 = ? 78 * 5 + 3 = 393
195 – 72 + 27 = ?
? = 150 9) Answer: A
2 * 5 = 10
4) Answer: B 10 * 4 = 40
(943 ÷ 23) * (18/41) * ? = 612 40 * 3 = 120
(41 * 18)/41 * ? = 612 120 * 2 = 240
? = 34
10) Answer: A
5) Answer: B 21 * 1 + 1 = 22
3249/18 * 1/5 of 75 – 133= ? 22 * 2 + 2 = 46
=> (180.5) * 15 – 133 46 * 3 + 3 = 141
=> 510.5 141 * 4 + 4 = 568
568 * 5 + 5 = 2845
6) Answer: E
31 + 9 = 40 11) Answer: A
40 – 18 = 22 (21.09) * (9.99) + (31.98)2 = ?
22 + 27 = 49 210 + 1024 = ?
49 – 36 = 13 ? = 1234
13 + 45 = 58
12) Answer: A

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399.95 ÷ 4.92 + ? ÷ 6.27 = 29.98 * 2.99


80 + ?/6 = 90 18) Answer: C
? = 60 87360/4 = 21840
21840/5 = 4368
13) Answer: A 4368/6 = 728
420.02 ÷ 2.91 + 448.08 ÷ 3.98 = ? 728/7 = 104
140 + 112 = ? 104/8 = 13
? = 252 19) Answer: A
157+ (1+5+7) =170
14) Answer: B 170+ (1+7+0) =178
125.82 + 81.91 – 32.79 =? * 12.13 178+ (1+7+8) =194
=> 126 + 82 – 33 =? * 12 194+ (1+9+4) =208
=> 15 208+ (2+0+8) =218

15) Answer: A 20) Answer: D


17.14 * 2.78 – 15.31 * 2.42 = 12.12 * ? 56 + 19 = 75
=> (17 * 3) – (15 * 2) = 12 * ? 75 – 23 = 52
=> 21/12 52 + 27 = 79
=> 2 79 – 31 = 48
48 + 35 = 83
16) Answer: B 83 – 39 = 44
4*(0+4) =16
16*(1+6) =112 21) Answer: E
112*(1+1+2) =448 x2-10x+24=0
448*(4+4+8) =7168 x2-6x-4x+24=0
7168*(7+1+6+8) =157696 x(x-6)-4(x-6)=0
x=6,4
17) Answer: A y2-6y-9y+54=0
7+ (3.5*6) =28 y(y-6)-9(y-6)=0
28+ (3*5) =43 y=6,9
43+ (2.5*4) =53 Hence, x ≤ y
53+ (2*3) =59
59+ (1.5*2) =62 22) Answer: B

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x2 = x + 182 x2 – 10x + 25 = 0
x2 – x – 182 = 0 x2 – 5x – 5x + 25 = 0
x2 – 14x + 13x – 182 = 0 x(x – 5) – 5(x – 5) = 0
x(x – 14) + 13(x – 14) = 0 (x – 5)(x – 5) = 0
(x + 13)(x – 14) = 0 x = 5, 5
x = 14, -13 y2 + 5y – 50 = 0
-28y = (y2 + 195) y2 + 10y – 5y – 50 = 0
y2 + 28y + 195 = 0 y(y + 10) – 5(y + 10) = 0
y2 + 13y + 15y + 195 = 0 (y – 5)(y + 10) = 0
y(y + 13) + 15(y + 13) = 0 y = 5, -10
(y + 15)(y + 13) = 0 x≥y
y = -15, -13
x≥y 25) Answer: C
x2 – 38x + 240 = 0
23) Answer: A x2 – 30x – 8x + 240 = 0
2x + 12y - 36 = 0------(1) x(x – 30) – 8(x – 30) = 0
3x + 4y - 19 = 0 -----(2) (x – 8)(x – 30) = 0
From (1) and (2) x = 8, 30
x=3 y2 = 900
y = 2.5 y = -30, 30
x>y Relationship between x and y cannot be
established.
24) Answer: B

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English Language

Directions (1-5): The following sentences carry b) When my grandmother went furniture
words that have been highlighted. One of these shopping, she had no interest in the
words might not be correct as it would not match contemporary pieces.
with the other words. Choose the same as your c) Romania badly needs aid to modernise its
answer. outmoded industries.
1) d) These archaic practicesare advocated by
a) He accuses them of trying to dismantle the people of limited outlook.
country's legal system. e) All are correct
b) The old factory was demolished to make way
for a new parking lot. 4)
c) His country desperately needs Western aid to a) I never saw such a glaring example of
restore its ailing economy. misrepresentation.
d) During the war, our soldiers will annihilate the b) He shielded his eyes against the dazzling
enemy and secure our land. declining sun.
e) All are correct c) The nightclub was shut down for selling
alcohol to a minor.
2) d) There's a striking contrast between what he
a) He pondered the question before he does and what he says he does.
answered. e) It was obvious that things were not working
b) She stood and quietly contemplated the scene out.
that lay before her.
c) The jury deliberated for two days before 5)
reaching a verdict. a) There should be no discrimination on the
d) He kept up his energy with drafts of mulled grounds of colour.
port. b) There is no clear and unbiased information
e) Some students completely disregard the rules available for consumers.
of the school. c) A teacher giving good grades to his favourite
students is one example of unfairness.
3) d) She denied showing favouritism to any of her
a) Products and whole businesses can become students.
obsolete as tomorrow leaves them behind. e) All are correct

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Directions (6-10): The sentences given in each a) Commencing


question carry blanks in which words from the b) Hosting
options below them can be filled. You must read c) Organisation
the same carefully and choose the most d) Conducted
appropriate option as your answer. e) Planning
6) Named BharOS, it represents an important
_________ in India’s technological evolution. 10) Data from Wetlands International shows
a) Impression India __________ nearly two of five wetlands in
b) Milestone the last 30 years.
c) Decision a) has lost
d) Reform b) surpasses
e) None of these c) will recover
d) is upfront
7) _________ in both the work done by the e) left behind
contractors and its municipal oversight were
glaring. Directions (11-15): There is a table given below
a) Lapses in each question in which the first column carries
b) Negligence a sentence with a blank and words that can fill
c) Loopholes those blanks in the second column. You must
d) Mistakes choose an option that carries the correct pair of
e) All of these sentence and words in the options.
11)
8) China in 2022 _________ a decline in Sentences Words
population by 8.5 lakh, the first annual decline in A. Sections of government I. Brought
six decades. personnel vote ________
a) Specified postal ballots.
b) Indicating B. The last two months of II. Through
c) Accomplished 2022 _______ India’s cyber
d) Recorded vulnerabilities into sharp
e) Producing relief.
C. And when they do, the III. Equally
9) Odisha government deserves full credit for heartbreak or the “blame” on
________ the Hockey World Cup for the second the two sides rarely weighs
time in a row.

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English Language Day -2 (Eng)

_________ on the measuring for historians alone.


scale. B. Because only a public II. concern
a) C-II, A-III that feels invested in
b) A-II, B-I, C-III record-keeping puts
c) A-I, B-III, C-II pressure on government to
d) A-III, B-II, C-I _________ it.
e) None matches C. The mustard hybrid, III. developed
DMH-11, was ________ by
12) a team from Delhi
Sentences Words University.
A. India’s healthcare system I. riddled with a) B-I
yesterday went through a mock b) A-II
drill to ________ a scenario c) All (a), (b) and (d)
where Covid cases surge. d) C-III
e) None matches
B. NAI is the central repository of II. put paid
government’s non-classified 14)
records but it is _________ big Sentences Words
gaps. A. Clipping women’s wings in I. Regressive
the name of protecting them
C. But an institutional culture of III. cope with is a defining feature of
secrecy has __________ to this __________ social views.
potential.
B. Volodymyr Zelensky II. During
a) B-III, A-II asked for continued
b) A-I, C-III, American support _________
c) Only C-II his in-person speech to the
d) A-III, B-I, C-II US Congress.
e) None matches C. As a wave of infections III. Stocking
sweep China, some of the
13) _________ are familiar.
Sentences Words
A. This is not of ________ I. improve a) C-III, B-I

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b) A-II, B-III c) accounts for environmental


c) Only C-II d) degradation, is the risk faced by
d) A-I, B-II e) India on account for climate change.
e) Both (c) and (d)
17)
15) a) A law ministry presentation
Sentences Words b) that showed 79% of high court
A. The Covid ________ in I. Spot c) judges appointed between 2018
China, US and Japan has d) and 2022 was upper castes is
prompted Centre to ask states e) unsurprising, but also unacceptable.
to step up vigil.
B. It was a match, as pundits II. outbreak 18)
and people concurred, truly a) Amid protests in Uttarakhand’s
_________ of the occasion. b) Joshimath over deepening cracks in
c) houses, the district administration has
C. Few had expected the III. Worthy d) halted road and power plant construction
Atlas Lions to earn a ________ e) works in the town vicinity.
in the knockout stage, let
alone the final four. 19)
a) A-II, B-III, C-I a) In his avatar as a Bharat Yatri –
b) B-II, C-III b) he does not have to worry about
c) A-III, B-I, C-II c) Congress’s organisational challenges –
d) B-III, C-I d) Rahul Gandhi has put through a new
e) None matches e) formulation for opposition unity.

Directions (16-20): The questions carry 20)


sentences that have been divided into five parts a) We meet some new years
out of which one might be erroneous. You must b) effervescently but 2023 has us feeling
read the same carefully and choose the option c) edgy, like too much is hanging in the
that carries the part with the error.(Easy level) d) balance and we shouldn’t jinx the silver
16) linings.
a) The overarching case for e) No Error
b) estimating green GDP, which

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Or Scan the QR Code to Get the Detailed Video Solutions

Answer Key with Explanation


1) Answer: C The words in sentences (b), (c) and (d) are also
The words in all the sentences except the third similar and hence, the correct answer should be
one are same. option (e).
Dismantle means to destroy or to take a certain
thing to pieces. The word demolished is also 4) Answer: C
used in the same sense (especially when talking The word glaring means clear and very easy to
about buildings). Annihilate means the same as see. The sentences that use similar words are
the above two. the second, fourth and the fifth ones.
Restore means to protect or reconstruct or put The word minor can be used in varied contexts.
something in its previous condition. It denotes people who are below 18 years of age
This makes the word in option (c) inappropriate. or even something that is too small and
unnoticeable.
2) Answer: E This makes the word in (c) the inappropriate
The word pondered means to think about word.
something very carefully for a long time.
Contemplated, deliberated, and mulled also 5) Answer: B
mean the same. The word discrimination means treating one
The word disregard means to ignore or take no person or group worse than others. The same is
notice of something; treat something as meant by words like unfairness and favouritism.
unimportant. The only word that is different is unbiased which
This makes the word in (e) different from the means not having any bias or discrimination for
others and hence, that is the correct answer. anyone.
This means that the most appropriate answer is
3) Answer: E option (b).
The words given in all the sentences are similar
and therefore, no word goes against the other. Directions (6-10):
The word obsolete means outdated. Something 6) Answer: B
that is not in fashion in or no longer useful
because something better has been invented.

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The sentence talks about technological evolution event so that it can be conducted in a smooth
under which BharOS would be an important manner.
achievement or a turning point. The word commencing is generally used to
The word milestone would fit the best as it demonstrate the start of a business. (c) and (d)
denotes an achievement or a turning point. The are grammatically incorrect and (e) is
word hence, correctly fits the blank. contextually incorrect.
The other words are contextually misfit and can So, the correct answer is option (b).
be eliminated.
Therefore, the best would be to mark option (b) 10) Answer: A
as the answer. The sentence wishes to convey that the two out
of every five wetlands have been lost in the past
7) Answer: E 30 years. We need a word/phrase that would fit
The words given in all the options are same in in the past tense of the sentence. The first option
meaning and all of these grammatically and would fit the best both contextually and
contextually fit the given sentence. grammatically.
So, the correct answer should be option (e). The second option is in the first form which
makes no sense. The third option is in the future
8) Answer: D tense which does not go well with (last 30 years)
The word that should fit in the sentence given as it denotes past. Options (d) and (e) are
above should be in the third form as the blank is irrelevant and can be discarded.
preceded by has which indicates that the Therefore, the best would be to mark option (a)
sentence should be in the present perfect tense. as the answer.
This helps us cancel options (b) and (e).
The words in options other than (d) can be Directions (11-15):
eliminated for being out of context. 11) Answer: B
Therefore, the best would be to mark option (d) Only through fits the first sentence as it refers to
as the answer. the usage of ballots for voting so, the personnel
vote (via) ie; (through) ballots.
9) Answer: B ‘weighs equally’ on the measuring scale will
The word hosting fits the best in the sentence make sense so, this means III should fit in C.
above as we generally use this word for sports The word brought fits the best in the second
events or important events being held. The Host sentence.
is the country or the city that takes charge of the

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This makes the combinations in the second ideology given in the first option so, A-I forms the
option the most appropriate answer for the correct sequence.
above question. During his speech will make the best sense as
per the context which makes the word in II fit for
12) Answer: D the second sentence.
Let us understand the phrases given in the The third sentence does not take the word in III
second column first: so, it can be left out.
Riddled with  to be full of or pervaded by This makes option (d) the most appropriate
something undesirable answer.
Put paid  stopped abruptly or destroyed
Cope with  to deal successfully with a difficult 15) Answer: A
matter or situation ‘Covid outbreak’ is the most obvious link which
Sentence in A talks about dealing with the covid connects sentence A with the word in II. The
situation so, III is the most obvious choice for the word in B should be worthy as it will be the only
same. The sentence in B should correctly take II. choice left after filling the third sentence with the
And the remaining two also match well. word spot.
Therefore, the correct answer is option (d). Thus, the best would be to mark option (a) as
the answer.
13) Answer: C
The most obvious pairing can be found in C and Directions (16-20):
III as the hybrid variety can be developed only 16) Answer: E
and no other option that has been given. The correct phrase that should be used in the
The first sentence can correctly fit the word fifth part is ‘on account of’ which means because
concern as it means to be curious about of.
something. The word for should be replaced by of for the
The remaining sentence and the word also sentence to be correct.
correctly complete each other so, the correct So, the correct answer is option (e).
answer should be option (c).
17) Answer: D
14) Answer: D The subject for which the verb was in the fourth
Regressive means becoming or making part has been used is plural (the court judges).
something less advanced. This word defines the This makes a subject-verb mismatch. So, the
best would be to change the same to were.

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The correct answer hence, is option (d). The phrase put through means subject someone
to an unpleasant or demanding experience…
18) Answer: E This phrase does not fit in the context of the
The sentence seems correct but when we read sentence so, it can be eliminated and replaced
the same carefully, we find that ‘town vicinity’ is by put forward which means propose or submit a
an incorrect usage. plan, proposal, or theory for consideration.
The correct usage needs an apostrophe to Therefore, the best would be to mark option (d)
clarify that it talks about the vicinity of the town. as the answer.
This means the correct usage should be town’s
vicinity. 20) Answer: E
The correct answer should hence, be option (e). The sentence given above is correct as given
and carries no error so, it is best to mark option
19) Answer: D (e) as the answer.

Score Booster
Directions (1-7): The passage given below has in the dark and given very limited information on
certain words or phrases highlighted. There are it. It happened as those who governed the nation
questions that follow the passage. Read the for decades after independence prioritised their
same carefully and mark the most appropriate selfish politics. For decades, the culture and
options as your answers.(Moderate level) capability of people were ignored, even though
The tribal society’s contribution to the freedom they comprise around 10% of India’s population.
struggle is being proudly honoured now. “Today, Their issues, education and health meant
India is celebrating its 1st ‘Janjatiya Gaurav nothing for them.”
Divas’. For the first time after Independence, the We must also remember notable historian and
art and culture of tribal society and its Padma Vibhushan Babasaheb Purandare. His
contribution towards freedom struggle and contribution in taking the history of Chhatrapati
nation-building is being proudly remembered and Shivaji Maharaj to common people is priceless.”
honoured,” said Modi at the Janjatiya Gaurav Modi reached Bhopal in the afternoon to
Diwas Mahasammelan in Bhopal. He added, inaugurate the Habibganj railway station, which
“When we discuss tribal society’s contribution to has been renamed after Rani Kamlapati, the first
nation-building, some people get surprised. They Gond queen of Bhopal. Modi is scheduled to
can’t believe that the tribal society had a big role address a rally at Jamboree Maidan and then
in strengthening India’s culture. It’s because the inaugurate the station. Chief Minister Shivraj
nation was either never told about it or was kept Singh Chouhan has himself supervised

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preparations at Jamboree Ground, where five a) Tribals’ contributions have been recognized
mandals have been set up to house more than 2 and celebrated since ages
lakh people. According to officials, nearly 7,000 b) There are about 1.2 crore tribals in the country
vehicles will ferry people from tribal communities c) The preparations at the Jamboree ground
to participate in Monday’s Janjatiya Gaurav were supervised by the PM himself
Diwas, to be observed on the birth anniversary of d) The tribals comprise 10% of India’s complete
tribal icon Birsa Munda. population
The new name, intended to honour the bravery e) All statements are true
and legacy of Rani Kamlapati, was announced
by Chief Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan ahead 2) The changed name of which station was
of Modi’s visit to Bhopal on Janjatiya Gaurav announced by the CM before the PM reached for
Diwas or Tribal Pride Day. the program?
According to historians from Bhopal, the station a) Bhopal
was named Habibganj after Habibullah, the b) Rani Laxmibai
grandson of Nawab Shahjahan Begum. “In those c) Habibganj
days, a measure of land was given to royals as d) Rani Kamlapati
their ‘dugh kharch’. The village was settled in e) None of the above
Shahpura, the land that was given to Habibullah.
When a railway line was built through the area in 3) Why is it surprising for people to discover the
1874-76, a small station came up. In 1969 the tribal contributions to our culture?
family of Habibullah gave land and Rs 15 lakh to a) Tribals only contribute 10% of the population
develop the station. Hence, it came to be known and that’s not something big
as Habibganj after Habibullah himself,” historian b) Their contributions have never been talked
Rizwanuddin Ansari said. However, the decision about or have rather been given very less
to rename the station, developed at a cost of Rs information
440 crore on a PPP model, reflects an attempt c) The tribal culture has been ignored for
by the BJP to regain some of the ground that it centuries to prevent them from getting in the
lost among tribal and Scheduled Caste voters in mainstream
the Assembly elections of 2018. The Gonds, who d) Both (a) and (c)
number more than 1.2 crore, are India’s largest e) None of these
tribal group.
1) Which of the given statements is true
according to the passage?

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4) Which of the given options will be the best c) The tribals and the SC votes are a deciding
antonym to the word ‘comprise’ as used in the factor and this was one of the demands made by
passage? them
a) Include d) Both (a) and (c)
b) Release e) None of the above
c) Exclude
d) Adjust Directions (8-12): The following passages given
e) None of the above below have five blanks each in them. In the
options, words that can fill the blanks have been
5) When was the first tribal pride day celebrated given. Choose the words that can help fill the
as per the passage? blanks in and make the paragraph
a) 1969 meaningful.(Moderate level)
b) 1874 Fitch Ratings has cut India’s economic growth
c) 1876 forecast to 8.7 per cent for the current fiscal but
d) 2018 raised GDP growth projection for FY23 to 10 per
e) Not mentioned in the passage cent, saying the second COVID-19 wave
delayed rather than ______(A) the economic
6) Choose the option that is closest in meaning recovery.
to the word ‘notable’ as used in the passage In its APAC Sovereign Credit Overview, Fitch
a) Outsmart Ratings said India’s ‘BBB-/Negative’ sovereign
b) Obscure rating “balances a still-strong medium-term
c) Insignificant growth outlook and external ________(B)from
d) Remarkable solid foreign- reserve buffers, against high public
e) Both (a) and (c) debt, a weak financial sector and some
________(C) structural factors”. The ‘Negative’
7) What is the intent behind renaming the station outlook, it said, reflects uncertainty over the debt
as discussed in the passage? trajectory following the sharp deterioration in
a) Such freebies can help the administration India’s public finances due to the pandemic
earn a good name among the people shock.
b) The government wants to gain the trust of the Fitch said it has further lowered India’s GDP
people that it saw had lost ground during the forecast for the fiscal year ending March 2022
2018 polls (FY22) to 8.7 percent from 10 per cent in June
as a result of the severe second virus wave. It

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had in June cut the growth forecast from 12.8 10) The word that fills the blank labelled (C) from
per cent. the options is?
The ________(D) for 2021-22 fiscal compares to a) Linger
a __________(E) of 7.3 per cent recorded in the b) Struggled
last financial year and a 4 per cent growth in c) Lagging
2019-20. d) Looming
8) Which word would fit in the blank labelled (A) e) None of the above
to complete the paragraph?
a) Demonstrate 11) Which of the following words would best
b) Derail complete the blank (D)?
c) Debase a) Calculations
d) Curb b) Computation
e) None of the above c) Forecasting
d) None fits
9) Which option would best replace the blank e) Projections
(B)?
a) Resilience 12) Which word would fill in the blank (E) as per
b) Flexible the context of the passage?
c) Rigid a) Limitation
d) Sacrosanct b) Expansion
e) None of the above c) Contraction
d) Enclosure
e) None of the above
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Answer Key with Explanation


1) Answer: D fourth statement is correct and hence, option (d)
The opposite of the first statement is mentioned. is correct.
The second statement is misconstrued as 1.2
Gondals have been mentioned and not the 2) Answer: D
complete tribe. (c) is incorrect as the CM The given options are all mentioned in the
supervised the preparations and not the PM. The passage but the basic information given is about

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the Habibganj railway station that has been So, option (e) is correct.
renamed as Rani Kamlapati to honour her
legacy. 6) Answer: D
So, option (d) is correct. The word notable as used means worthy of
attention or renowned. This meaning is similar in
3) Answer: B meaning to the word remarkable in option (d)
Refer to the lines given below to understand the and hence is the correct answer.
answer to this question. So, option (d) is correct.
“When we discuss tribal society’s contribution to
nation-building, some people get surprised. They 7) Answer: B
can’t believe that the tribal society had a big role The reason mentioned in the passage clearly
in strengthening India’s culture. It’s because the says that the BJP has tried to gain its lost ground
nation was either never told about it or was kept through the move.
in the dark and given very limited information on So, the best option is (b).
it.
This reading will help you eliminate all other Directions (8-12):
options except (b). 8) Answer: B
The sentence talks about economic recovery
4) Answer: C going off track.
The sentence where ‘comprise’ has been used The word that explains this the best is ‘derail’.
means that the tribals form or are a 10% part of Other options must be ruled out.
the overall population. So, option (a) include will
be a similar word so that is ruled out. 9) Answer: A
Release and Adjust do not make any sense here Resilience is the ability to bounce back after
so, they can be eliminated as well. shocks and hits. The best word that fits in
So, the required antonym is ‘exclude’ and option accordingly is (a).
(c) is correct.
10) Answer: C
5) Answer: E ‘Lagging’ is the best word of all the given
The passage has discussed developments that options. Because, the reforms being talked
were made on all these days in the passage but about in the paragraph are falling behind in the
nothing specific about the first tribal pride day race and unable to keep up with the other
date or year has been discussed. factors.

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So, option (c) is correct. 12) Answer: C


The lines before the blank are discussing a cut in
11) Answer: E the estimations. So, a negative word is needed
The best word that fits in the discussion of the to fit the blank.
estimates being made will be ‘projections.’ Therefore, ‘contraction’ fits the blank the best!
There are other similar words to projections but
they do not fit in grammatically and hence can
be eliminated.

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