Pharmacology
The following may affect the selection of the route of administration except
c. Severity of condition
b. Site of infection
e. All of the above
d. Physicochemical properties of drugs
a. Period from the starting of symptom presentation
Ponder on the statements and choose the best answer
b. Only a localized effect is achieved from the rectally administered drugs
d. Systemic effects can be actualized from drugs administered rectally
a. Only Suppositories are administered through this route
c. Drugs are only administered rectally when patients cannot take drugs by mouth
e. Suppositories should be removed after some minutes
The following is an example of a Pure drug
a. Cinchona powder
d. Cinchona bark
b. Quinidine powder
e. Quinine bitter tonic
c. Quinine injection
Which of the following depends on the greater circulation of blood within the region
for the rapid drug absorption
e. Intramuscular
c. Intra-articular
a. Subcutaneous
d. Intradermal
b. Intrathecal
The following statement is not true about oral route
a. Easy to administer
b. Relatively safer
d. Absorption of drugs can vary widely
c. Economical
e. Adverse effects are rare but to be severe when present
The following are CYP450 inhibitors Except
e. Phenobarbitone
a. Erythromycin
c. Griseofulvin
d. Ciprofloxacin
b. Cimetidine
Which of the following statements is correct regarding bioavailability?
c. Drugs administered via I.V and IM routes have equal bioavailability
b. Orally administered drugs have no variation in bioavailability
d. Pharmaceutical and biological factors affect bioavailability
e. The surface area in the stomach is at par with that of the small intestines
a. This is the amount of drug that reaches the systemic circulation in its active form
The following drugs inhibit p – glycoprotein EXCEPT
b. Atenolol
a. Amlodipine
c. Erythromycin
d. Ciprofloxacin
e. Diazepam
In which of the following will the drug be likely to have low distribution?
a. Liver
d. Brain
e. Heart
b. Skeletal muscle
c. Kidneys
The following affects drug distribution Except
d. PH
b. Blood flow
e. Drug formulation
c. Molecular size
a. Lipid solubility and plasma protein binding
Antagonists have the following
d. Affinity alone
a. More receptor displacement ability compared to agonists
e. Exhibition of both receptor affinity and efficacy depending on the drug concentration
c. Both affinity and Efficacy
b. Efficacy only
The following effects can be caused by agonists EXCEPT
a. Desensitization
d. Stimulation of receptor to trigger a signal transduction
c. Super sensitivity
e. Counter the effect of antagonists with increased concentration
b. Receptor down regulation
Read the following statement and choose the best choice
b. Orphan receptors do not have any significance in therapeutics
a. All drugs need binding sites to actualize their pharmacological activity
d. The receptor affinity does not affect drug potency
c. A competitive inhibitor is a ligand that binds to a different active catalytic site as the
endogenous substrate
e. Pharmacological action can be actualized even without signal transduction
Drug potency is largely determined by the following
c. Formulation of drugs
d. Receptor affinity
e. Time of exposure of the receptor to the drug
a. Absorption surface area
b. Efficacy
Regarding agonists and antagonists, which of the following is true?
a. Partial agonists cannot act as antagonists in the presence of full antagonists
b. Inverse agonists are agonists do not reduce signal transduction
d. Effects of competitive antagonists are surmountable by the increased dose of agonists
c. Noncompetitive antagonists do not irreversibly block the receptors
e. Antagonists have both the efficacy and potency
Pilocarpine falls under the following class of drugs
a. Cholinesterase inhibitors
c. cholinergic antagonists
d. Neuromuscular blockers
b. Direct acting cholinergic agonists
e. Nicotinic receptor agonists
Establishing the diagnosis of vasospastic angina can be enhanced by administering
the following drug
c. Bethanechol
e. Hyoscyamine
b. Acetylcholine
d. Muscarine
a. Edrophonium
Physostigmine is used in the following conditions EXCEPT
a. Reversal of muscle relaxation post surgery
e. Myasthenia crisis
d. Urinary incontinence
b. As an antidote to atropine
c. Myasthenia gravis
Carbachol can be used in the following EXCEPT
c. Cataract surgery
d. Iridectomy
a. Open angle glaucoma
b. Urinary retention
e. Enhanced miosis in ophthalmic surgery
Differentiation between of myasthenia crisis and cholinergic crisis can be enhanced
by administering the following drug
a. Neostigmine
c. Physostigmine
e. Pyridostigmine
d. Edrophonium
b. Donepezil
The following only activates muscarinic receptors
d. Muscarine
c. Carbachol
a. Bethanechol
e. Varenicline
b. Acetylcholine
Muscarinic side effects occurring after administration of cholinesterase inhibitors in
the treatment of myasthenia gravis can be treated using
d. Only glycopyrrolate
a. Scopolamine and atropine
c. Atropine and glycopyrolate
e. Ipratropium bromide
b. Glycopyrorate and hyoscyamine
Patients with overactive bladder can be treated with following group of drugs
b. Cholinergic antagonists
e. Neuromuscular blockers
a. Cholinesterase inhibitors
c. 5 - phosphodiesterase inhibitors
d. Cholinergic agonists
Which of the following is true about Atropine?
e. It can complicate asthma and other pulmonary obstructive diseases
c. May result in bronchoconstriction
a. Causes bradycardia
d. Enhances salivation
b. Facilitate the opthalmoscopic examination of the retina
A 16 year old girl walks into your consulting room complaining of severe intestinal
spasms which tends to be worse when having menses. She says she has taken
most of the common pain killers on the market but seem not to give her the optimal
relief.
Which of the following drug would help in her problem?
b. Oxybutinin
a. Hyoscyamine
d. Scopolamine
c. Pirenzepine
e. Nicotine
Atropine can be used for all the following EXCEPT
a. Sinus tachycardia
d. Urinary bladder spasms
e. Organophosphate poisoning
b. Opthalmoscopic examination
c. Muscarinic effects caused by cholinesterase inhibitors in patients with myasthenia gravis
Option 1
Hypotension caused by excessive doses of vasodilator drugs can be treated using
e. Isoproterenol
d. Epinephrine
b. Norepinephrine
a. Clonidine
c. Midodrine
Option 1
The first treatment of choice of cardiogenic shock is
b. Dopamine
a. Norepinephrine
d. I.V fluids
e. Dobutamine
c. Epinephrine
Midodrine is known for its treatment for the following condition
e. Pulmonary hypotension
d. Diabetic autonomic neuropathy
b. Hypertension
c. Cardiac stimulant
Option 6
a. Orthostatic hypotension
The following is used as an adjunct to anesthesia during surgical procedures
b. Clonidine
a. Midodrine
c. Cocaine
d. Tyramine
e. Norepinephrine
The following are used as nasal decongestants EXCEPT
a. Oxymetazoline
d. Phenylephrine
c. Pseudoephedrine
e. Ephedrine
b. Epinephrine
Phaecromocytoma is treated by the following
d. Carvedilol
e. Clonidine
a. Phentolamine
c. Propranolol
b. Acebutolol
The following can easily penetrate the blood brain barrier
e. Atenolol
a. Nadolol
c. Pindolol
d. Metoprolol
b. Propranolol
The following are cardio selective EXCEPT
e. Acebutolol
a. Metoprolol
c. Pindolol
b. Esmolol
d. Atenolol
What recommendation would you give for a benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
b) Prazosin
c) Doxazosin
a) Silodosin
d) Terazosin
e) Pseudoephedrine
Regulation of norepinephrine release can be achieved through the stimulation of the
following receptors
a. B2
c. Alpha 2
b. Alpha 1
e. B3
d. B1
Secretion of renin from the juxtaglomerular cell can be increased by the stimulation
of the following receptor
e. B3
Alpha 2
a. Alpha 1
b. B2
d. B1
A woman presents with contractions at 36 weeks gestation. As an intern, you realize
this situation needs to be controlled and contained to prevent complications.
Which drug would you recommend for her?
e. Clonidine
c. Prazosin
b. Propranolol
a. Terbutaline
d. Pindolol
In the management of myocardial ischaemia, which of the following drug has anti-
apoptotic effect and enhanced reduction in the infarct size and scavenging
properties?
a. Bisoprolol
d. Metoprolol
b. Betaxolol
c. Carvedilol
e. Atenolol
Which of the following are safe to be taken by hypertensive patients
e. Cocaine
c. Xylometazoline
d. Oxymetazoline
b. Clonidine
a. Pseudoephedrine
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