1.

The ideal hypnotic should be absorbed rapidly so that its pharmacological effectcan occur, it
shoul be rapidly eliminated,and it should not be biotransformed to long acting metabolites to
avoid hangover effect. Which of the following should be an ideal hypnotic for a patient.
a. Triazolam
b. Temazepam
c. Diazepam
d. Chlorodiazepoide
e. Phenobarbitone
2. Monoclonal antibodies are used in pharmacotherapy of different conditions including
different malignancies. Which of the following monoclonal antibody is targeted against
TNF-Alpha and is used for rheumatoid arthritis.
a. Abciximab
b. Daclizumab
c. Infliximab
d. Muremonab
e. Retuximab
3. A patient has severe diabetic gastoparesis and gastroesophageal reflux and he needs relied of
his symptoms. Which drug would be most suitable for him.
a. Dronabinol
b. Loperamide
c. Pirenzepine
d. Metoclopramide
e. Ondensetron
4. An adolescent male is newly diagnosed with schizophrenia, which of the following agents
would have the best chance to improve his apathy and social withdrawal.
a. Chlorpromazine
b. Fluphenazine
c. Haloperidol
d. Resperidone
e. Thioridazine
5. Drugs which can control maimal electroshock seizures in animal models, are useful in which
type of epilepsy or movement disorders in human beings.
a. Grandmal epilepsy
b. Simple partial seizures
c. Absence seizures
d. Infantile spasms
e. Jeksonean epilepsy
6. Benzodiazepine differ from barbiturate in all of the following aspects except.
a. They have a steaper dose response curve
b. They have wider therapeutic index
c. They have lower abuse liability
 d. They don’t induce microsomal enzyme
e. Muscle relaxant effect is not blocked byflumazenil
7. You want to prescribe scopolamine, as a transdermal drug delivery system fro a patient who
will be leaving for an expensive cruise. Which finding willl rule-out prscribing the drug,
because it is likely to pose adverse effects or be truly contraindicated.
a. Angle-closure glaucoma
b. Sinus/Nodal Bradicardia
c. History of diarrhea from sellfish
d. Parkinson disease
8. Atropine is used as an antidote of anticholinesterase poisoning but it doesnot antagonize
which of the following features of anticholinasterase poisoning.
a. Hypotension
b. Central excitation
c. Muscle paralysis
d. Bronchoconstriction
e. Bradycardia
9. Anti-cholinergic drugs like atzopine is useful as pre-anaesthetic medication because it
decreases
a. Tone of the skeletal muscles
b. Response to painful stimuli
c. Respiratory secretions
d. Time to induce anaesthesia
10. Which of the following statement is unlikely to be true concerningduration of action of
benzodiazepine.
a. Long acting drugs include diazepam and flurazepam
b. Short acting drugs include alprazelam and diazepam
c. Intermediate acting drugs include quazepam and alprazelam
d. Effect of long acting drugs last for 1-3 days
e. Triazolam is short acting
11. Which of the following patiesnt characteristics is most compelling reason for avoiding the
use of celecoib in the treatment of arthritis.
a. History of alcohol abuse
b. History of gout
c. History of myocardial infarction
d. History of osteoporosis
e. History of peptic ulcer
12. The two state receptor theory is he only receptor theory that can be used to adequately eplain
the actionsof which of the following.
a. Reversible antagonist
b. Full agonist
c. Irreversible antagonist
 d. Partial agonist
e. Inverse agonist
13. A drug is being administered by constant intravenous infusion. Its plasma half life is 2 hours.
After how much time the concentration of this drug in plasma will reach 88 of the steady
state concentration
a. 2 hours
b. Hours
c. 5 hours
d. 6 hours
e. 10 hours
14. Phase 1 metabolic reactions involved in drug metabolism includes which of the following.
a. Hydroxylation
b. Sulphate conjugation
c. Methylation
d. Acetylation
e. Glucuronidation
15. Though bromocriptine act directly on dopamine receptors it is used in parkinson only as a
supplement to levodopa, because
a. It has low efficacy
b. It produces marked dyskenesia
c. Used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable effects
d. Its therapeutic effect take ling time to develop
16. The usual cardiovascular effect of levodopa is.
a. Bradycadia due to increased vagal tone
b. Rise in blood preasure due toincreased non adrenaline content of adrenergic nerve
endings
c. Fall in B.P due to increased sympathetic tone
d. Both A and B are correct
e. Bradycardia due to decreased vagal tone
17. If the dose response curve of a druf for producing different actions are widely seperated from
each other on the dose axis, the drug is highly.
a. Potent
b. Toxic
c. Effective
d. Selective
e. Non-selective
18. A sympathomimetic drug is administered to an eperimental animal and its heart rate is being
monitered. The maximum effect will be the measure of
a. Drug potency
b. Druf efficacy
c. Therapeutic index
 d. Quantal response
e. Receptor affinity
19. One of the following drug receptor families in volve formation of second messengers to
produce their pharmacological/clinical effects. Which drug receptor family it could be.
a. Ligand gated ion channel
b. G protein coupled receptors
c. Tyrosine kinase linked receptors
d. Intracellular receptors
e. Cytokine receptors
20. Enterohepatic recycling increases the bioavailability of drugs. Which of the following drugs
can interfere with E/H recycling and lead to therapeutic failure by decreasing the
bioavailability of the affected drug.
a. Broad spectrum antibiotics
b. Anti-tuberculer drugs
c. Anti-cancer drugs
d. Anti-retroviral drugs
e. Systemic anti-fungal drugs
21. A 63 years old patient in intensve care unit requires infusion of procainamide. Its half life is
2 hrs. the infusion began at 9 AM. What percentage of the steady state plasma conc. Will be
reaced at 3 pm on the same day.
a. 75%
b. 60%
c. 93%
d. 87%
e. 100%
22. A partial agonist can antagonize the effects of a full agonist because of which of the following
properties.
a. High affinity but low intrinsic activity
b. Low affinity but high intrinsic property
c. No affinity but low intrinsic property
d. High affinity but low intrinsic activity
e. Low affinity but low intrinsic property
23. A 62 year old man is being treated with gonorrhea with a third generation
cephalaosporia,ceftriazone. Ceftriazone is the drug of choice for gonorrhea rather then a first
or second generation cephalosporia because
a. It has shorter plasma half life
b. It is effective as a single dose
c. It has lower reactions
d. It is active against MRSA
e. It iswell absorbed orally
 24. A diabetic patient has cough, haemoptysis and a single shaking chill. His temperature is
101F and a chest –rat demonstrates lobar pneumonia. Gram staining reveals gram positive
diplococci. Correct therapy will be to administer which of the following
a. Gentamicin
b. Penicillin G
c. Ampicillin
d. Ciprofloxamin
e. Carbenicillin
25. A non volatile, highly solublei/v anaesthetic drug is metabolised at a rate of 15% per hour. On
I/V injection it produces general anaesthesia only for 10 min. which process Is responsible for its action so
quickly
a. Metabolism in liver
b. Plasma protein binding
c. Ecretion by kidney
d. Redistribution
e. Drug interaction
26. A 45 year old male underwent exploratoryleprotomy, afterwards he complained bloating
with constipation and difficulty in urination.which of the following will be prescribed in this
case
a. Pralidoxime
b. Atropine
c. Neostifmine
d. Dopamine
e. Adrenaline
27. Atropine is useful as antidot of choice in the treatment of organophosphate insectiside
poisoning and on exposure to war gases,because its
a. Reactivates acetylcholinesterase
b. Inhibits the N, M transmission
c. Inhibits all cholinergic receptors
d. Acts both centrally and peripherally
e. Has only peripheral actions
28. A 29 year old women says that her eyes will not stay open despite the fact that she is not
tired. On physical examination, her facial musculature weakens as she talks. Which of the
following drugs would be more useful in helping to make a diagnosis in this patient
a. Physostigmine
b. Neostigmine
c. Pyrydostigmine
d. Edrophonium
e. Tubocurarime
29. The two instances in which epinephrine is indicated as a life saving drug in medical
practicing emergencies are
 a. Anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest
b. Hypotension and respiratory arrest
c. Hypovolemia and myocardial infarction
d. Hypertension and parkinsonism
e. Hypoglycemia and hyperlipidaemia
30. Which of the following drug reduuces cholesterol synthesis in liver, increases epression of
LDL receptors on hepatocytes and has been found to reduce mortality due to coronary artery
disease
a. Simvastatin
b. Nicotinic acid
c. Gemtibrozil
d. Coletripol
e. Cholestyramine
31. The ratio between LD 0.1 and ED 99.9 is denoted as
a. Therapeutic index
b. Median lethal dose
c. Median effective dose
d. Therapeutic window
e. Margin of safety
32. Majority of drugs permeate across the biological membranes primarily by which of the
following process
a. Pssive diffusion
b. Ficilitated diffusion
c. Active transport
d. Pionocytosis
e. Aqueous diffusion
33. A 68 year old man is being treated with flutamide for advanced prostate cancer. In this
setting flutamide should be administered with a GnRH agonist because flutamide when used
alone, can cause
a. Increased LH secretions
b. Increased estrogen secretions
c. Increased TSH secretions
d. Increased progestin secretion
e. Decreased testosterone level
34. Which of the following condition is not worsened by estrogen therapy
a. Migraine
b. Cholelithiasis
c. Acne vulgaris
d. Endometriosis
e. Hot flashes
35. Which of the following drugs produce cardiovascular effects lik sympathetic drugs and acts
by inhibiting re-uptake of norepinephrine at adrenergic nerve terminals
a. Cocaine
b. Reserpine norepinephrine
c. Atropine
d. Isoproterenol
36. A 25 year old women is being treated with clomiphene citrate for fertility.Clomiphene acts
by which of the following mechanisms
a. Blocking estrogen effects on the uterus
b. Increasing FSH concentrations
c. Blocking progesterone
d. Decreasing LH concentrations in blood
e. Increasing progesterone release from ovary
37. A hypnotic drug that facilitates the inhibitory action of GABA, but it lacks muscle relaing
properties and has minimla effects onn sleep architecture. This drug is
a. Buspirone
b. Diazepam
c. Flurazepam
d. Phenobarbitone
e. Chloral hydrate
38. Which of the following is rd generation beta blocker, having in addition a vasodilator
activity and is useful in the treatment of chronic stable heart failure
a. Propranolol
b. Bisoprolol
c. Alprenolol
d. Oxprenolol
Recombinant human erythropoietin
39. Is indicated for the treatment of anaemia of which of the following types
a. Megablastic anaemia
b. Hemolytic anaemia
c. Thalassemia major
d. Anaemia in pts of CRF
e. Pernicious anaemia
40. A patient was given a neurolyptic drug which aggravated his underlying disease. What was
he more likely to be suffering from
a. Schizophrenia
b. Epilepsy
c. Bipolar disorder
d. Motion sickness
e. Organic psychosis
41. A patient is given an anti-hyperlipidemic agent that reduces circulating cholesterol levels by
binding to bile acids in the gut. Which one of the following it is
a. Clofibrate
b. Lovastatin
c. Gemfibrozil
d. Cholestyramine
e. Niacin
42. Mrs Arshad was under treatment for thyrotoxicosis meanwhile she missed her periods.
Pregnancy test was advised by her physician and it was positive. What is your choice to treat
thyrotoxicosis in this situation
a. Mathimazole
b. Propythiouracil
c. Carbimazole
d. Radioactive I
e. Lugol’s iodine
43. Thrombophlebitis and thromboembolic events have been associated with the use of oral
contraceptives which have an excess of
a. Estrogen
b. Progestin
c. Testosterone
d. Prostaglandins
e. Aldosterone
44. A patient who has liver cirrhosis due to chronic hepatitis C viral infection presents with
hepatic encephalopathy. Which one of the following drugs will be most suitable for the relief
of signs and symptoms of this condition and which has replaced neomycin
a. Diphenoxylate
b. Omeprazole
c. Lactulose
d. Loperamide
e. Ondansetron
45. A 45 year s old patient was taking prednisolone for the last 4 years. Now he has suffered
from fracture of fmur. How does glucocorticoid therapy cause osteoporosis
a. Increase excretion of Ca from the body
b. By decreasing bone formation
c. Stimulate the adrenocorticol axis
d. Decrease production of prostaglandins
e. Decrease collagen synthesis in the body
46. A 62 years old women is diagnosed with hypercalcemia related to a pyrathroid hormone.
Other than cancer therapy, a temporary treatment of her hypercalcemia could include
administeration of
a. Acetazolamide
 b. Furosemide
c. Hydrochlorthiazide
d. Amiloride
e. Triamterene
47. This antibiotic caused misreading of the messenger RNA and consequently causing
miscoding leading to insertion of wrong amino acid into the peptide chain leading to
formation of wrong protein. This drug is
a. Streptomycin
b. Erythromycin
c. Clindamycin
d. Arithromycin
e. Minicycline
48. Postural hypotension and reflex tachycardia can be a dangerous adverse effect with which of
the following α-blockers
a. Prazoxin
b. Trimazoxin
c. Doxazoin
d. Telazoline
e. Urapidil
49. Which of the following anti-muscarinic drug is used inbronchial asthma
a. Atropine
b. Hysoscine
c. Eucatropine
d. Ipratropium
e. Cyclopentolate
50. Which of the following has intrinsic activity greater than zero but less than one
a. Full agonist
b. Partial agonist
c. Inverse agonist
d. Competitive agonist
e. Irreversible agonist
51. The ration of the dose that produces toxicity in the half population to the dose that produces
a clinically desired or effective response in half population is called
a. Efficacy
b. Potency
c. Therapeutic inde
d. Quantal dose response
e. Graded dose response
52. A patient shows a qualitatively harmful response to a drug which is unpredictable,not related
with dose and is not related with immune system.it is thought to be because of genetic
predisposition. This is called
 a. Idiosyncrasy
b. Pharmacogenetics
c. Anaphylaxis
d. Tachyphylaxis
e. Tolerance
53. Which of the following factors wil determine the number od drug-receptor complexes
formed
a. Efficaacy of the druf
b. Receptor affininty of drug
c. Half life of the drug
d. Rate of renal excretion of the drug
e. Bioavailability of the drug
54. To calculate the loading dose of a drug, when the desired steady state concentration and
bioavailabiliyty are known, what would one need to know
a. Rate of drug clearance
b. Plasma half life of drug
c. Rate of drug infusion
d. Volume of distribution
e. Rate of drug metabolism
55. Which of the following drugs is cleared off the body by hoffman’s elimination
a. Atropine
b. Isoniazid
c. Digoxin
d. Warfarin
e. Atracurium
56. A chronic moker has been convinced to quit smoking. The drug which helps quitting and
reduce smoking is
a. Citalopram
b. Bupropium
c. Buspirone
d. Atomoxetine
e. Duloxetine
57. Which of the following drug has antiparkinsonian action of its own, augments and prolong
the action of levodopa and allows reduction of its dose by 25 percent.
a. Procyclidine
b. Selegiline
c. Amantadine
d. Pyridoine
e. Bromocriptine
58. Morphine is contraindicated in head injury, because of which of the following reasons
a. Doesnot relieve pain of head injury
 b. Causes severe nausea and constipation
c. Can cause malignant hyperthermia
d. Can rasie the intra-cranial pressure
59. A 30 years old student presented in medical OPD withhemolytic anaemia.history revealed
that he was taking anti malarial drugs. He is probably suffering from which inherited
disorder
a. Acatalasia
b. Malignant hyperthermia
c. Glucose 6-PD deficiency
d. Acute intermittent porphyria
e. Met-haemoglobinemia
60. Black water fever is the compilation of which of the following anti malarial drugs
a. Choroquine
b. Quinine
c. Primaquine
d. Artemether
61. A women with weight loss, heat intolerence, nervousness and esophathalamus recieves
propylthiouracil for her disease. Which serious advers effect has been associated with this
medication
a. Gastric bleeding
b. Thromboembolism
c. Agranulocytosis
d. Hepatic failure
e. Esophageal ulcer
62. A patient suffering from tuberculosis is on anti TB medication. One of these drugs induces
sypmtoms of a vitamin deficiency. This vitamin deficiency is also been with other drugs
such as cycloserine, penicillamine and hydrallazine. The effected vitamin is
a. Vitamin B5
b. Vitamin B6
c. Vitamin K
d. Vitamin C
e. Vitamin B
63. Patients taking this anti TB drug might be advised to test their vision by reading a small print
in the newspaper from time to time. This drug is
a. Ethambutol
b. Rifampicin
c. Pyrazinamide
d. Dapsone
e. Clofazimine
64. A patient has early stage congestive heart failure and atrial fibrillation. Which of the
following drugs is best to treat his both conditions.
 a. Digoxin
b. Virapamil
c. Nifedipine
d. Lignocaine
e. Propranolol
65. A 50 years old obese man complained to his physician of a sharp pain in his left calf.
Medical history indicated that 1 week ago he started an antibiotic treatment for acute
prostatitis. Further examination led to the diagnosis of achilles tendon rupture. Which of the
following drug most likely led to the patients problem
a. Ampcillin
b. Doxycycline
c. Ceftriaxone
d. Erythromycin
e. Ciprofloxacin
66. One of the following antibiotic lead to the management of abdominal absces due
tobacteroides fragilis, but there is high risk of antibiotic associatedpseudomembranous
colitis. Which one is it
a. Amikacin
b. Ethambutol
c. Isoniazid
d. Pyrazinamide
67. Many drugs effect vision in one way or the other. Which of the following drug is least likely
to cause any visual disturbance
a. Digoin
b. Voriconazole
c. Ethambutal
d. Chloroquine
e. Ketoconazole
68. Which of the following agents should be considered for prophylactic administeration in a
patient that is positive with HIV
a. Ganiciclovir
b. Fluconazole
c. Interferon-a
d. Pentamidine
e. Rubella vaccine
69. When administered prior to 5-FU, this agent enhances the activation of and the anti tumor
activity by increasing pools of phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate which is esssential for purine
and pyrimidine synthesis
a. Leucovorin
b. Oaliplatin
c. Metotrexate
 d. Cytrabine
e. Fluxuridine
70. A thirty years old woman is being on the birth control pill for the first time. She has a history
of migraine headache with aura.Therapy with which one of the following conntraceptives
formulations is contraindicated in this patient
a. Levonoorgestrel
b. Mefipristone
c. Norethindrone
d. Ethinyl estradiol
e. Ulipristal
71. A 50 years old woman is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes myellitis. She is put on antidiabetic
therapy. The drugs prescribed is to be given to the patient 15 minutes before a meal, ut no
more than 0 minutes. Which one it could be
a. Glipizide
b. Miglitol
c. Pioglitazone
d. Metformin
e. Acarbose
72. A patient who has a history of getting sik at high altitudes is planning a trip with his friends
to murree. Which drug should she take for prophylaxis
a. Ethacrynic acid
b. Spironolactone
c. Indapamide
d. Acetazolamide
e. Chlorthalidone
73. A 50 years old male presents with hypertension and atrial flatter. Which of the following
drugs will help improve bot his hypertension and atrial flatter.
a. Nifedipine
b. Quinidine
c. Digoin
d. Verapamil
e. Lignocaine
74. SIADH, manifested by dillusional hyponatremia leading to water intoxication hs been
associated with certain drugs. Which of the following oral hypoglacemic agents is associated
with SIADH.
a. Glipizide
b. Ciglitazone
c. Telazamide
d. Chlorpropamide
e. Acetohexamide
 75. Insulin is used for the control of glucose metabolism in the body and regulation of blood
glucose levels. Which of these is not an insulin target tissue
a. Fat
b. Liver
c. Brain
d. Muscle
e. Blood
76. A woman is at risk of pre term labor. Which of the folloowing will you administer to fetal
lung maturation
a. Betamethasone
b. Mifepristone
c. Temoxifen
d. Prednisolone
e. Sprinolactone
77. A patient is receiving an oral hypoglycemic agent that increases the secretion of insulin and
has the longest duration of action. Which of the following drugs it could be
a. Repaglinide
b. Metformin
c. Toibutamide
d. Chlorpropamide
e. Rosiglitazone
78. Which of the following drug is useful in tyoe 2 diabetes, it increses the effect of incrfetins
and acts as a dipeptyl peptidase-4 inhibitor
a. Exenatide
b. Liraglutide
c. Vildagliptin
d. Canagliflozin
e. Pioglitazone
79. When given to a man a drug causes bradycardia, increased gut mortility and papillary
constriction. The drug could be
a. Histamine
b. Neostigmine
c. Adrenaline
d. Atropine
e. Propanolol
80. Aluminium and calcium salts inhibit the intestinal absorption of which of the following
antibacterial
a. Isoniazid
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Erythromycin
d. Tetracycline
 e. Penicillin-V
81. To treat an upper respiratory infection due to streptoccoccus pneumoniae in a pregnant
woman with a known history of penicillin allergy, most of the following drugs are
contraindicated. Which one can be used
a. Chloramphenocol
b. Azithromycin
c. Tetracycline
d. Metronidazole
e. Ciprofloxacin
82. A patient is noted to have paroxymal episodes of hypertension, tremors weakness and
sweating. Urinary catecholamine and their metabolites are elevated and the CT scan of the
abdomen detects a mass within the adrenal gland. If the tumor is deemed inoperable
pharmacotherapy of the above disorder may include which of the following drugs.
a. Alpha Methyldopa
b. Sod nitroprusside
c. Levobunolol
d. Phenoxybenzamine
e. Propranolol
83. Which of the following blocks both K+ chennels involved in cardiac repolarization and beta
drenergic receptors and is a useful antiarrhytmic
a. Quinidine
b. Propanolol
c. Sotalol
d. Metaprolol
e. Propanolol
84. Pyridostigmine differs from Neostigmine in that
a. It is more potent after oral administration
b. It is quaternary ammonium compund
c. It produces less muscarinic side effects
d. It has no direct action on non receptors
e. It exerts very powerful actions on CNS
85. Anti muscarinic drugs are useful in some GIT and bladder dysfunction.wich of the following
drugs is most likely to be indicated in overactive bladder and nocturnal emuresis
a. Hyoscine
b. Atropine
c. Methanetheline
d. Pirenzepine
e. Oxybutynin
86. A 24 year old man is brought to a room of emergency by his group of friends who said that
he suddenly became restless, confused and incordinated after taking some pills. Physical
examination reveals increased body temperature, tachycardia, cutaneous fluids and widely
 dilated pupils unresponsive to the light. The patient complains of dryness of mouth. He
probably ingested which of the following drugs
a. Physostigmine
b. Ambenonium
c. Propranolol
d. Belladona extract
e. Pyridostigmine
87. Which one of the following drugs is most likely to cause equilibrium and auditory damage
a. Amikacin
b. Ethambutol
c. Isoniazid
d. Pyrazinamide
e. Rifampicin
88. Acetyl choline is able to bind to the nicotine and muscarinic receptors. Which of the
following pairs of statement correctly defines the nature of receptors
a. Nicotinic. Ionotropic muscarinic innotropic
b. Nicotinic. Ionotropic muscarinic metabotropic
c. Nicotinic. Metabotropic muscarinic ionotropic
d. Nicotinic metabotropic muscarinic metabotropic
e. Nicotinic ionotropic muscarinic kinase linked
89. Patient suffering from mild hypertension is prescribed a drug which decreases BP by
blocking the enzymatic activity of renin. Which one of the following drugs it can be
a. Analapril
b. Irbesartan
c. Carvedilol
d. Verapamil
e. Aliskiren
90. Increased sympathetic activity directly by stimulating beta 1 receptors and directly by
reducing angiotensin 2 brings harmful trophic remodelling changes in myocardium. Which
of the following drugs can more effectively prevent these trophic changes induced by
angiotensin 2.
a. Valsartan
b. Captopril
c. Verapamil
d. Carvedilol
e. Metaprolol
91. The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agent in the
treatment of tuberculosis
a. To prevent development of resistance
b. To obtain an absolute bactericidal effect
c. To broaden the spectrum of activity
 d. To reduce adverse effects of drugs
e. To prevent relapse of tuberculosis
92. Which of the following is a vasodilator and can be used to treat a patient with both
congestive heart failure and coronary artery vasospasm
a. Verapamil
b. Captopril
c. Nifedipine
d. Propranolol
e. Digoxin
93. When digoxin is used in a patient with congestive heart failure, it works by exerting a
positive effect on which of the following parameters
a. Stroke volume
b. Perippheral resistance
c. Heart rate
d. Blood pressure
e. Venous return
94. Which of the following drug is an antiemetic used primarily for chemotherapy induced
vomiting
a. Mineral oil
b. Misoprostol
c. Omeprazole
d. Aprepitant
e. Sucralfae
95. A patient is using drug against gout. After using the drug, is urine shows high levels of uric
acid whereas serum uric acid was decreased. The drug is most likely to be
a. Probenecid
b. Allupurinol
c. Rasburicase
d. Furosemide
e. Colchicine
96. A 56 year old woman with an intact uterus is being treated with hormone replacement
therapy with a product that contains and estrogen / progestin combination. The progestin is
added to
a. Decrease the risk of endometrial cancer
b. Decrease the incidence of breast cancer
c. Increase effectiveness for vasomotor sypmtoms
d. Decrease the risk of coronary heart disease
e. Decrease the risk of cognitive impairment
97. A 63 year old man suffering from a small celll carcinoma of lungs was hospitalized for his
first cycle of chemotherapy. Which of the following three drug regimes would be best to
prevent nausea and vomiting in this patient
 a. Ranitidine, diazepam,dexamethasone
b. Scopolamine, dexamethasone, ondasetron
c. Ondasetron, aprepitant, deamethasone
d. Aprepitant,scopolamine, loperamide
e. Prochlorperazine, ranitidine,loperamide
98. A 65 year old woman suffering from chronic heartburn was routinely taking a large amount
ofantacid preperation containing aluminiun hydroxide. Lab exams of this patient would most
likely show the following results
a. Hyperglycemia
b. Hypercalcemia
c. Hypermatremia
d. Hypokalemia
e. Hypophosphatemia
99. A 60 year old man suffering from recurrent heartburn routinely toook large quantities of
different antacid preperations. Which of the following had the highest rish of alkalosis in this
patient
a. NaHCO3
b. CaCO3
c. Al(OH)3
d. Mg(OH)2
e. Ca(OH)2
100. Paclitaxel and the other taanes havve a central role in therapy of ovarin, breast, lung,GI,
head and neck cancers. The cytotoxic effect of the taxanes in tumor cells is the result of
a. Inhibition of microtubule formation
b. Inhibition of microtubule assembly
c. Enhancement of microtubule disassembly
d. Inhibition of enzyme topoisomerase 1
e. Inhibition of enzyme topoisomerase 2
101. Which of the following drug is useful in cataplexy associated with norcolepsy
a. Imipramine
b. Dulexetine
c. Venlafaxine
d. Trazodone
e. Modafinil
102. SSRIs are preferred over tricyclic antidepressents because of
a. More efficacy
b. Most cost effectiveness
c. Better side effects profile
d. Lack of sexual dysfunction
e. More potency
 103. A 46 year old woman complained of burning urination and bladder pain. Her medical
history was significant for recurrent urinary tract infections and a congenital long QT
syndrome detected during a routine visit one year ago. Which of the following antibiotics
would be contraindicated for this patient
a. Ceftazidime
b. Imipenem
c. Amoxillin-clavulanate
d. Piperacillin
e. Ciprofloxacin
104. A 55 year old man with benign prostatic hypertrphy is being treated with finastride. It
acts by blocking the coversion of
a. Testosterone to estadiol
b. Testosterone to dihydrotesterone
c. Cortisol to cortisone
d. Cholesterol to pregnenolone
e. Progesterone to androstenidione
105. An overdose toxicity, leading to hepatic damage and hepatic cellular necrosis of which of
the following drugs maybe treated with N-acetylcysteine if given in a timely manner
a. Phenylbutazone
b. Naproxen
c. Acetaminophen
d. Indomethacin
e. Aspirin
106. A 62 year old man is being treated with testosterone for for hypogonadiam of old age. A
likely side effect would be
a. Hepatotoxicity
b. Dementia
c. Gynecomastia
d. Optic neuritis
e. Peripheral neuropathy
107. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is being treated with ibuprofen but joint pain and
stiffness are increasing. His physician prescribes another drug to be used with ibuprofen that
may slow the progression of disease. Unfortunately, side effects developed including
dizziness, blurrred vision. Ocular examination reveals corneal deposits and slightretinal
pigmentation. Which is the drug most recently likely to be prescribed.
a. Auranofin
b. Methotrexate
c. Ethanercept
d. Hydroxychloroquine
e. Cyclophosphamide
108. Genetic differences in hepatic N-acetylaiton must be considered when beginning
treatment with which drug?
a. Morphine
b. Phenobarbited
c. Aspirin
d. Isoniazid
e. Probenecid
109. In the presence of a competitive antagonist, the dose-response curve of an agonist
is shifted to:
a. The right with no loss of efficacy
b. The right with a loss of efficacy
c. The left with no loss of efficacy
d. The left with a loss of efficacy
e. Neither to the right nor to the left
109. The two state receptor theory is the only receptor theory that can be used to
adequately explain the actions of which of the following?
a. Competitive, reversible antagonist
b. Full agonists
c. Competitive, irreversible antagonists
d. Partial agonists
e. Inverse Agonist
110. Graded and quantel dose response curves are useful for drug evaluation in animal
models/ experimental animals. Which of the following statements best describes quantal
dose response curves?
a. More precisely quantifies the concentrationof drug
b. Optional for studies on the intact human subjects
c. Determines the maximal efficacy of the drug
d. Determines the statistical variation in response to drug
e. Used to determine the therapeutic index of a drug
111. Which of the following provides information about the variation in the
effectiveness of a drug within the population studied?
a. Potency of the drug
b. Graded dose response curve
c. Maximal efficacy of the drug
d. Quantal dose response curve
112. A patient is administered an anticholinergic drug that follows first order kinetics
and has a half-life of 08 hours. A peak serum level obtained after a single I.V bolus dose
of 200 mg is 16 μg/ml. After 16 hours, the serum level is expected to be:
a. 06μg/ml
 b. 08μg/ml
c. 50μg/ml
d. 04μg/ml
e. 02μg/ml
113. To calculate the loading dose of a drug, when the desired steady state
concentration is known, what would one need to know?
a. Rate of clearance
b. Plasma half-Life
c. Rate of Infusion
d. Vol of distribution
e. Bio-availability
114. Which of the following parameter is calculated as the ratio of the area under the
curve (AUC) obtained by oral administration and the AUC after intravenous
administration of the same drug?
a. Absorption
b. Bioavailability
c. Hepatic clearance
d. Elimination rate
e. Extraction ratio
115. Acetyl choline is able to bind to nicotinic and muscarinic receptors. Which of the
following pairs of statement correctly defines the nature of these receptors?
a. Nicotinic: ionotropic. Muscarinic: ionotropic
b. Nicotinic: ionotropic. Muscarinic: metabotropic
c. Nicotinic: metabotropic. Muscarinic: ionotropic
d. Nicotinic: metabotropic. Muscarinic: metabotropic
e. Nicotinic ionotropc. Muscarinic Kinase linked
116. When digoxin is used in a patient with congestive heart failure, it works by
exerting a positive effect on:
a. Stroke volume
b. Peripheral resistance
c. Heart rate
d. Blood pressure
e. Venous return
117. Adrenaline is a life saving drug in the treatment of anaphylaxis. Reversal of
histamine induced bronchospasm and vasodilation by adrenaline is due to:
a. Physiological antagonism
b. Pharmacological antagonism
c. Chemical antagonism
d. Competitive antagonism
e. None Competitive antagonism
118. The maximum effect (E max) achieved by a drug is a measure of its:
 a. Potency
b. Efficacy
c. Therapeutic Index
d. Quantal Response
e. Receptor Affinity
119. A patient is administered a skeletal muscle relaxant that acts directly on the
contractile mechanism of the muscle fibers. Which of the following drugs could it be?
a. Gallamine
b. Dantrolene
c. Pancuronium
d. Baclofen
e. Succinylcholine
120. Following subcutaneous injection of a drug into a healthy adult, dilatation of the
pupil and a rise in systolic blood pressure are produced.The drug could be:
a. Acting by blocking ganglia
b. Stimulating β-receptors throughout the body
c. Atropine
d. Adrenaline
e. Propranolol
121. When given to a man, a drug causes bradycardia, increased gut motility and
pupillary constriction. The drug could be:
a. Histamine
b. Neostigmine
c. Adrenaline
d. Atropine
e. Propranolol
122. Which of the following drugs acts by inhibiting re-uptake of norepinephrine at
adrenergic nerve terminals?
a. Cocaine
b. Reserpine
c. Norepinephrine
d. Atropine
Isoproterenol
123. A 52 year old patient came in medical OPD of RIHS with complaints difficulty in
urination and increased frequency of micturition specially during night.He was diagnosed
as a case of enlarged prostate. Which of the following medication will be prescribed for
symptomatic relief to the patient?
a. Doxazosin
b. Propranolol
c. Phentolamine
d. Tolazolin
 e. Tamsulosin
124. The “First dose effect” occurring due to parazosin can be minimized by taking
which of the following measures?
a. Adjusting the first dose to one third of normal dose
b. Adjusting the first dose to one fourth of normal dose
c. By giving the 1st dose of the drug at bed time
d. By taking all of the above three measures
e. By pre drug Councelling of the concerned patient
125. Which of the following anti-muscarinic drug is a tertiary amine & is preferred for
use in the treatment of drug induced parkinsonism?
a. Hyoscine
b. Atropine
c. Orphenadrine
d. Aclidinium
e. Salifenacin
126. A 30 year old patient came to OPD with complaints of dry mouth, blurring of
vision & lack of tears. Physician diagnosed it as Sjogren syndrome. Which is drug of
choice for treatment:
a. Pilocarpine
b. Acetylcholine
c. Carbachol
d. Physostigmine
e. Donepezil
127. Pyridostigmine differs from neostigmine in that:
a. It is more potent after oral administration
b. It is quaternary ammonium compound
c. It produces less muscarinic side effects
d. It has no direct action on Nm receptors
e. It exerts very powerful actions on CNS
128. Atropine does not antagonize which of the following features of
anticholinesterase poisoning:
a. Hypotension
b. Central excitation
c. Muscle paralysis
d. Bronchoconstriction
e. Bradycardia
129. Initial bradycardia caused by intravenous injection of atropine is believed to be
caused by:
a. Stimulation of vagal centre inmedulla
b. Stimulation of vagal parasympathetic ganglia
c. Blockade of M2 receptors on SA nodal cells
 d. Stimulation of M2 autoreceptors on vagal nerve endings
e. Blockade of muscarinic receptors in the AV node
130. Your quadriplegic patient (lesion C-1) is being treated with pilocarpine for
glaucoma. He suddenly complains of generalised body flushing and perspiration. You
explain that the symptoms are caused by:
a. Release of adrenaline from the medulla
b. A central effect of pilocarpine
c. Pilocarpine acting on sympathetic ganglia
d. Pilocarpine acting on sensory nerves
e. Pilocarpine acting on muscarinic receptors
131. One of the following drugs if given before Adrenaline, would convert the effects
of Adrenalin on blood pressure to those produced by isoprenaline alone ie; will lead to
vasomotor reversal. Which one it could be?
a. Amphetamine
b. Cocaine
c. Terazosin
d. Propranolol
e. Atropine
132. A child has swallowed the contents of two bottles of a nasal decongestant whose
primary ingredient is a potent alpha adrenoceptors agonist drug. The signs of alpha
activation that may occur in this child include:
a. Bronchodilatation
b. Cardio acceleration
c. Pupillary dilation
d. Vasodilation
e. Diaphoresis
133. All the following drugs are used topically in the treatment of chronic wide-angle
glaucoma. Which one reduces intraocular pressure by decreasing the formation of the
aqueous humor:
a. Timolol
b. Echothiophate
c. Pilocarpine
d. Neostigmine
e. Physostigmine
134. A patient is noted to have paroxysmal episodes of hypertension, tremors,
weakness and sweating. Urinary catecholamine and their metabolites are elevated and a
CT scan of the abdomen detects a mass within the adrenal gland. If the tumor is deemed
inoperable, pharmacotherapy of the above disorder may include which of the following
drugs?
a. Clonidine
b. Reserpine
 c. Methyldopa
d. Phenoxybenzamine
e. Propranolol
135. A 60 year-old patient who is known to have glaucoma is scheduled for
cholecystectomy. Which neuromuscular blocking agent is contraindicated?
a. Tubocurarine
b. Pancuronium
c. Succinylcholine
d. Vecuronium
e. Atracurium
136. In addition to slow intravenous infusion, which of the following route of
administration allow for titration of dose of a drug with the response:
a. Sublingual
b. Transdermal
c. Inhalation
d. Nasal insuffilation
e. Rectal
137. A new drug was tested in an invitro system. It was found that only one enantiomer
of racemic pair bind substranully to a specific receptor, where as the other enantiomer
showed a negligible binding. Which of the following best defines this properly:
a. Intrinsic activity
b. Affinity
c. Stereo selectively
d. Potency
e. Maximal efficacy
138. If the dose response curve of a drug for producing different action are widely
separated on does axis the drug is:
a. High potent
b. High efficacious
c. High toxic
d. High selectivity
139. A 60 year old man with history of forgetfulness, diagnosed to be suffering from
Alzeihmer,s disease, is prescribed a drug, which shows modest improvement in his
symptoms. The drug is likely to be;
a. Levodopa
b. Amphetamine
c. Rivastigmine.
d. Pilocarpine
e. Neostigmine
140. Post operative vomiting is uncommon with this intravenous agent, patients are
able to ambulate sooner and this is commonly recommended for day care surgery:
 a. Enfeurane
b. Ketamine
c. Morphine
d. Propofol
e. Remifentamil
141. Select the general anesthetic that is particularly suitable for out patient surgery,
because of quick recovery and short-lived post anaesthetic psychomotor impairment:
a. Ether
b. Halothane
c. Erflurane
d. Desflurane
e. Ketamine
142. The general anaesthetic having significant cardio-depressant property is:
a. Halothane
b. Erflurane
c. Ether
d. Nitrous oxide
e. Ketamine
143. One of the following general anaesthetic having the most marked uterine relaxant
action:
a. Propofol
b. Halothane
c. Nitrous oxide
d. Ether
e. Enflurane
144. If ketamine is used as the sole anaesthetic in the attempted reduction of a
dislocated shoulder joint, its action will include:
a. Analgesia
b. Bradycardia
c. Hypotension
d. Muscle rigidity
e. Respiratory depression
145. A six year old child is posted for elective urology surgery under general
anaesthesia. He refuses to allow the anaesthesiologist on I/V access. The best inhalational
agent of choice for induction of anaesthesia is:
a. Sevoflurane
b. Methoxy flurane
c. Desflurane
d. Isoflurane
e. Ether
 146. One of the following intravenous anaesthetic agents is useful to produce sedation
prior to anaesthesia and is also helpful in reducing the amount of inhalational anaesthetic:
a. Ultra-short acting barbiturates
b. Benzodiazepines
c. Opioid analgesic
d. Propofol
e. All of the above
147. Which of the following nerve fibers are most sensitive to the action of local
anesthetics?
a. Resting fibers
b. Rapidly firing fibers
c. Fibers with high conduction velocity
d. Urnyelimated fibers
e. Fibers of large diameter
148. One of the following local anesthetic causes irreversible cardiac arrest if it is
given intravenously. Which one it could be?
a. Lidocaine
b. Procaine
c. Bupivacaine
d. Ropivacaine
e. Mepivacaine
149. A 30 years old lady is to undergo surgery under intravenous regional anesthesia
for her left trigger finger. Which one of the following should not be used for this patient?
a. Lidocaine
b. Procaine
c. Bupivacaine
d. Ropivacaine
e. Mepivacaine
150. A child requires multiple minor surgical procedure in the nasopharynx. The most
suitable drug having local anesthetic activity, that reduce bleeding in mucous membrane
is?
a. Bupivacaine
b. Cocaine
c. Lidocaine
d. Procaine
e. Tetracaine
151. The agent of choice to reverse status epilepticus induced by local anesthetic over
dose is?
a. Phenobarbital
b. Epinephrine
c. Oxygen
 d. Diazepam
e. Phenytoin
152. Morphine is contraindicated in head injury because:
a. It doesnot relieve the pain of the head injury
b. It causes constipation
c. It can cause malignant hyperthermia
d. It is liable to cause addiction
e. It can raise the intra-cranial pressure
153. Analgesic which acts through opioids as well as spinal monoaminergic
mechanism:
a. Tramadol
b. Ethoeptazine
c. Dextropropoxyphene
d. Aspirin
e. Alfentanil
154. Opioid analgesic preferred over aspirin like analgesic in the following condition:
a. Acute gout
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Toothache
d. Burns
e. Neuralgias
155. Induction or inhibiting drug metabolizing enzyme system effects which of the
following drug/ analgesics response?
a. Codeine
b. Fentanyl
c. Meperidine
d. Methadone
e. Tramadol
156. What action of morphine is in completely reversed by naloxone?
a. Analgesia
b. Sedation
c. Respiratory depression
d. Miosis
e. CT2 stimulation
157. Opioid analgesic preferred for long term opioid blockage therapy of post addicts:
a. Nalorphine
b. Naloxone
c. Naltrexone
d. Nalbuphine
e. Pethidine
158. Parkinson’s syndrome, acutedystonic raction tardive dyskinesia, antimuscarinic
effects orthostatic hypotension & glactorrhea are possibleadverse effects of:
a. Haloperidol
b. Clozapine
c. Chlorpromazine
d. Risperidone
e. Ziprasidone
159. The “malignant neuroleptic syndrome” produced by chlorpromazine like drug is
characterized by the following except:
a. Emotional quitening
b. Paucity of movements
c. Ataxia
d. Indifference to external uses
e. Postural hypo 1. The ideal hypnotic should be absorbed rapidly so that its
pharmacological effectcan occur, it shoul be rapidly eliminated,and it should not be
biotransformed to long acting metabolites to avoid hangover effect. Which of the
following should be an ideal hypnotic for a patient.
a. Triazolam
b. Temazepam
c. Diazepam
d. Chlorodiazepoide
e. Phenobarbitone
2. Monoclonal antibodies are used in pharmacotherapy of different conditions
including different malignancies. Which of the following monoclonal antibody is
targeted against TNF-Alpha and is used for rheumatoid arthritis.
a. Abciximab
b. Daclizumab
c. Infliximab
d. Muremonab
e. Retuximab
3. A patient has severe diabetic gastoparesis and gastroesophageal reflux and he
needs relied of his symptoms. Which drug would be most suitable for him.
a. Dronabinol
b. Loperamide
c. Pirenzepine
d. Metoclopramide
e. Ondensetron
4. An adolescent male is newly diagnosed with schizophrenia, which of the
following agents would have the best chance to improve his apathy and social
withdrawal.
a. Chlorpromazine
 b. Fluphenazine
c. Haloperidol
d. Resperidone
e. Thioridazine
5. Drugs which can control maimal electroshock seizures in animal models, are
useful in which type of epilepsy or movement disorders in human beings.
a. Grandmal epilepsy
b. Simple partial seizures
c. Absence seizures
d. Infantile spasms
e. Jeksonean epilepsy
6. Benzodiazepine differ from barbiturate in all of the following aspects except.
a. They have a steaper dose response curve
b. They have wider therapeutic index
c. They have lower abuse liability
d. They don’t induce microsomal enzyme
e. Muscle relaxant effect is not blocked byflumazenil
7. You want to prescribe scopolamine, as a transdermal drug delivery system fro a
patient who will be leaving for an expensive cruise. Which finding willl rule-out
prscribing the drug, because it is likely to pose adverse effects or be truly
contraindicated.
a. Angle-closure glaucoma
b. Sinus/Nodal Bradicardia
c. History of diarrhea from sellfish
d. Parkinson disease
8. Atropine is used as an antidote of anticholinesterase poisoning but it doesnot
antagonize which of the following features of anticholinasterase poisoning.
a. Hypotension
b. Central excitation
c. Muscle paralysis
d. Bronchoconstriction
e. Bradycardia
9. Anti-cholinergic drugs like atzopine is useful as pre-anaesthetic medication
because it decreases
a. Tone of the skeletal muscles
b. Response to painful stimuli
c. Respiratory secretions
d. Time to induce anaesthesia
10. Which of the following statement is unlikely to be true concerningduration of
action of benzodiazepine.
a. Long acting drugs include diazepam and flurazepam
 b. Short acting drugs include alprazelam and diazepam
c. Intermediate acting drugs include quazepam and alprazelam
d. Effect of long acting drugs last for 1-3 days
e. Triazolam is short acting
11. Which of the following patiesnt characteristics is most compelling reason for
avoiding the use of celecoib in the treatment of arthritis.
a. History of alcohol abuse
b. History of gout
c. History of myocardial infarction
d. History of osteoporosis
e. History of peptic ulcer
12. The two state receptor theory is he only receptor theory that can be used to
adequately eplain the actionsof which of the following.
a. Reversible antagonist
b. Full agonist
c. Irreversible antagonist
d. Partial agonist
e. Inverse agonist
13. A drug is being administered by constant intravenous infusion. Its plasma half life
is 2 hours. After how much time the concentration of this drug in plasma will reach 88 of
the steady state concentration
a. 2 hours
b. Hours
c. 5 hours
d. 6 hours
e. 10 hours
14. Phase 1 metabolic reactions involved in drug metabolism includes which of the
following.
a. Hydroxylation
b. Sulphate conjugation
c. Methylation
d. Acetylation
e. Glucuronidation
15. Though bromocriptine act directly on dopamine receptors it is used in parkinson
only as a supplement to levodopa, because
a. It has low efficacy
b. It produces marked dyskenesia
c. Used alone, its effective doses produce intolerable effects
d. Its therapeutic effect take ling time to develop
16. The usual cardiovascular effect of levodopa is.
a. Bradycadia due to increased vagal tone
b. Rise in blood preasure due toincreased non adrenaline content of adrenergic nerve
endings
c. Fall in B.P due to increased sympathetic tone
d. Both A and B are correct
e. Bradycardia due to decreased vagal tone
17. If the dose response curve of a druf for producing different actions are widely
seperated from each other on the dose axis, the drug is highly.
a. Potent
b. Toxic
c. Effective
d. Selective
e. Non-selective
18. A sympathomimetic drug is administered to an eperimental animal and its heart
rate is being monitered. The maximum effect will be the measure of
a. Drug potency
b. Druf efficacy
c. Therapeutic index
d. Quantal response
e. Receptor affinity
19. One of the following drug receptor families in volve formation of second
messengers to produce their pharmacological/clinical effects. Which drug receptor family
it could be.
a. Ligand gated ion channel
b. G protein coupled receptors
c. Tyrosine kinase linked receptors
d. Intracellular receptors
e. Cytokine receptors
20. Enterohepatic recycling increases the bioavailability of drugs. Which of the
following drugs can interfere with E/H recycling and lead to therapeutic failure by
decreasing the bioavailability of the affected drug.
a. Broad spectrum antibiotics
b. Anti-tuberculer drugs
c. Anti-cancer drugs
d. Anti-retroviral drugs
e. Systemic anti-fungal drugs
21. A 63 years old patient in intensve care unit requires infusion of procainamide. Its
half life is 2 hrs. the infusion began at 9 AM. What percentage of the steady state plasma
conc. Will be reaced at 3 pm on the same day.
a. 75%
b. 60%
c. 93%
 d. 87%
e. 100%
22. A partial agonist can antagonize the effects of a full agonist because of which of
the following properties.
a. High affinity but low intrinsic activity
b. Low affinity but high intrinsic property
c. No affinity but low intrinsic property
d. High affinity but low intrinsic activity
e. Low affinity but low intrinsic property
23. A 62 year old man is being treated with gonorrhea with a third generation
cephalaosporia,ceftriazone. Ceftriazone is the drug of choice for gonorrhea rather then a
first or second generation cephalosporia because
a. It has shorter plasma half life
b. It is effective as a single dose
c. It has lower reactions
d. It is active against MRSA
e. It iswell absorbed orally
24. A diabetic patient has cough, haemoptysis and a single shaking chill. His
temperature is 101F and a chest –rat demonstrates lobar pneumonia. Gram staining
reveals gram positive diplococci. Correct therapy will be to administer which of the
following
a. Gentamicin
b. Penicillin G
c. Ampicillin
d. Ciprofloxamin
e. Carbenicillin
25. A non volatile, highly solublei/v anaesthetic drug is metabolised at a rate of 15%
per hour. On I/V injection it produces general anaesthesia only for 10 min. which process
Is responsible for its action so quickly
a. Metabolism in liver
b. Plasma protein binding
c. Ecretion by kidney
d. Redistribution
e. Drug interaction
26. A 45 year old male underwent exploratoryleprotomy, afterwards he complained
bloating with constipation and difficulty in urination.which of the following will be
prescribed in this case
a. Pralidoxime
b. Atropine
c. Neostifmine
d. Dopamine
 e. Adrenaline
27. Atropine is useful as antidot of choice in the treatment of organophosphate
insectiside poisoning and on exposure to war gases,because its
a. Reactivates acetylcholinesterase
b. Inhibits the N, M transmission
c. Inhibits all cholinergic receptors
d. Acts both centrally and peripherally
e. Has only peripheral actions
28. A 29 year old women says that her eyes will not stay open despite the fact that she
is not tired. On physical examination, her facial musculature weakens as she talks. Which
of the following drugs would be more useful in helping to make a diagnosis in this
patient
a. Physostigmine
b. Neostigmine
c. Pyrydostigmine
d. Edrophonium
e. Tubocurarime
29. The two instances in which epinephrine is indicated as a life saving drug in
medical practicing emergencies are
a. Anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest
b. Hypotension and respiratory arrest
c. Hypovolemia and myocardial infarction
d. Hypertension and parkinsonism
e. Hypoglycemia and hyperlipidaemia
30. Which of the following drug reduuces cholesterol synthesis in liver, increases
epression of LDL receptors on hepatocytes and has been found to reduce mortality due to
coronary artery disease
a. Simvastatin
b. Nicotinic acid
c. Gemtibrozil
d. Coletripol
e. Cholestyramine
31. The ratio between LD 0.1 and ED 99.9 is denoted as
a. Therapeutic index
b. Median lethal dose
c. Median effective dose
d. Therapeutic window
e. Margin of safety
32. Majority of drugs permeate across the biological membranes primarily by which
of the following process
a. Pssive diffusion
 b. Ficilitated diffusion
c. Active transport
d. Pionocytosis
e. Aqueous diffusion
33. A 68 year old man is being treated with flutamide for advanced prostate cancer. In
this setting flutamide should be administered with a GnRH agonist because flutamide
when used alone, can cause
a. Increased LH secretions
b. Increased estrogen secretions
c. Increased TSH secretions
d. Increased progestin secretion
e. Decreased testosterone level
34. Which of the following condition is not worsened by estrogen therapy
a. Migraine
b. Cholelithiasis
c. Acne vulgaris
d. Endometriosis
e. Hot flashes
35. Which of the following drugs produce cardiovascular effects lik sympathetic
drugs and acts by inhibiting re-uptake of norepinephrine at adrenergic nerve terminals
a. Cocaine
b. Reserpine norepinephrine
c. Atropine
d. Isoproterenol
36. A 25 year old women is being treated with clomiphene citrate for
fertility.Clomiphene acts by which of the following mechanisms
a. Blocking estrogen effects on the uterus
b. Increasing FSH concentrations
c. Blocking progesterone
d. Decreasing LH concentrations in blood
e. Increasing progesterone release from ovary
37. A hypnotic drug that facilitates the inhibitory action of GABA, but it lacks muscle
relaing properties and has minimla effects onn sleep architecture. This drug is
a. Buspirone
b. Diazepam
c. Flurazepam
d. Phenobarbitone
e. Chloral hydrate
38. Which of the following is rd generation beta blocker, having in addition a
vasodilator activity and is useful in the treatment of chronic stable heart failure
a. Propranolol
 b. Bisoprolol
c. Alprenolol
d. Oxprenolol
Recombinant human erythropoietin
39. Is indicated for the treatment of anaemia of which of the following types
a. Megablastic anaemia
b. Hemolytic anaemia
c. Thalassemia major
d. Anaemia in pts of CRF
e. Pernicious anaemia
40. A patient was given a neurolyptic drug which aggravated his underlying disease.
What was he more likely to be suffering from
a. Schizophrenia
b. Epilepsy
c. Bipolar disorder
d. Motion sickness
e. Organic psychosis
41. A patient is given an anti-hyperlipidemic agent that reduces circulating
cholesterol levels by binding to bile acids in the gut. Which one of the following it is
a. Clofibrate
b. Lovastatin
c. Gemfibrozil
d. Cholestyramine
e. Niacin
42. Mrs Arshad was under treatment for thyrotoxicosis meanwhile she missed her
periods. Pregnancy test was advised by her physician and it was positive. What is your
choice to treat thyrotoxicosis in this situation
a. Mathimazole
b. Propythiouracil
c. Carbimazole
d. Radioactive I
e. Lugol’s iodine
43. Thrombophlebitis and thromboembolic events have been associated with the use
of oral contraceptives which have an excess of
a. Estrogen
b. Progestin
c. Testosterone
d. Prostaglandins
e. Aldosterone
44. A patient who has liver cirrhosis due to chronic hepatitis C viral infection presents
with hepatic encephalopathy. Which one of the following drugs will be most suitable for
the relief of signs and symptoms of this condition and which has replaced neomycin
a. Diphenoxylate
b. Omeprazole
c. Lactulose
d. Loperamide
e. Ondansetron
45. A 45 year s old patient was taking prednisolone for the last 4 years. Now he has
suffered from fracture of fmur. How does glucocorticoid therapy cause osteoporosis
a. Increase excretion of Ca from the body
b. By decreasing bone formation
c. Stimulate the adrenocorticol axis
d. Decrease production of prostaglandins
e. Decrease collagen synthesis in the body
46. A 62 years old women is diagnosed with hypercalcemia related to a pyrathroid
hormone. Other than cancer therapy, a temporary treatment of her hypercalcemia could
include administeration of
a. Acetazolamide
b. Furosemide
c. Hydrochlorthiazide
d. Amiloride
e. Triamterene
47. This antibiotic caused misreading of the messenger RNA and consequently
causing miscoding leading to insertion of wrong amino acid into the peptide chain
leading to formation of wrong protein. This drug is
a. Streptomycin
b. Erythromycin
c. Clindamycin
d. Arithromycin
e. Minicycline
48. Postural hypotension and reflex tachycardia can be a dangerous adverse effect
with which of the following α-blockers
a. Prazoxin
b. Trimazoxin
c. Doxazoin
d. Telazoline
e. Urapidil
49. Which of the following anti-muscarinic drug is used inbronchial asthma
a. Atropine
b. Hysoscine
 c. Eucatropine
d. Ipratropium
e. Cyclopentolate
50. Which of the following has intrinsic activity greater than zero but less than one
a. Full agonist
b. Partial agonist
c. Inverse agonist
d. Competitive agonist
e. Irreversible agonist

Q14: Which one of the following is an absolute contraindication for the use of the
oxytocic
agent Ergotamine?
a Bronchial asthma
b. Cardiac arrhythmias.
c.Hypertension.
d. Migraine.
e Psychosis.

Q15: Which one of the following sulfonamides is used in treatment of ulcerative colitis

a Sulfacetamide.
b. Sulfadiazine
c. Sulfamethoxazole. d. Sulfasalazine

e. Sulfisoxazole

Scanned with C 4/14

Q16: An S-year-old child presented with brownish discolored and deformed anterior
teeth. History of having received an antibiotic about 4 years earlier was obtained. W e

antibiotic could have been responsible for the condition?

a Cefotaxime.
 A Chloramphenicol. Erythromycin

d. Gentamicin. Tetracycline

Q17: Which of the following is the adverse effect of anabolic steroids in adult males?

a Balding

b. Depression

Dry skin

d. Enlargement of testicles

e Law blood pressure.

Q18: Which one of the following Aminoglycoside has the highest ototoxicity?

a. Amikacin. b Gentamycin

e. Netilmycin

d. Paromomycin. c. Streptomycin

Q19: A 1-month old baby was given an antibiotic for meningitis, Suddenly baby
developed vomiting, flaccidity, hypothermia, gray colour, shock & collapse.

following antibioties was responsible for such adverse effects?

a. Chloramphenicol.

b. Clindamycin. e. Demeclocycline.

d. Erythromycin. e. Roxithromycin.

Q20. For a patient with history of COPD with recurrent lower respiratory tract infection,
which one of the following fluoroquinolones should be the physician's first choice?

a Lomefloxacin b. Moxifloxacin.
 e. Ofloxacin. d. Pefloxacin

e Trovafloxacin.
24- Furosemide act by inhibiting which one of the following in renal tubular cells?

a Aldosterone receptors

h. Na Cl symporter

N'H'antiporter d Na K ATPase

e. Na K'2CI cotransporter 29. Which of the following is the most commonly prescribed
diuretic in hepatic ascites:

Acetazolamide b. Ethacrynic acid

Hydrochlorothiazide Indapamide

Spironolactone e

30- A 35 year old man experienced an episode of chest pain after exercise. He also
experienced sweating and light headedness. He reported at an ER of ANTH where he
was detained and a drug was given sublingually. This drug relieved his chest pain but
caused him one of another effect. What can this side affect be?

a Bradycardia

b Fever Headache

d. Skin tash

Vomiting

31-Nitrates alleviate pain of angina pectoris by which mechanisms

a Increase the end diastolic volume

b. Increase preload and afterload

e Exert negative chronotropic effect

 a. Decrease redistribution of coronary blood

Vasodilation of epicardial coronary arteries

32. Which one of the following is the drug of choice for hypertensive crises?

Na nitroprusside

b. a Methyldopa e. Chlorothiazide

d. Perindopril Propranalol

33- Which one of the following diuretics must be given parenterally because it is not
absorbed when given orally?

a Osmotic

Loop

Thiazides. Potassium-sparing

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Xanthine
48 Variation in sensitivity of a population of individuals to increase the doses of a drug is
bem

determined by:

a. Efficacy

b. Potency

therapeutic index

d. sraded dose response curve

e quantal dose response curve

49. Combination of Acid (HCl) with base (NaHCO3y in biological system explains:
 a Physical antagonism

b. Physiological antagonism c. Drug-receptor antagonism

d. Synergie antagonism

e Chemical antagonism

50. Regarding drug's characteristics tachyphylaxis means a increased sensitivity of drug

receptors due to repeated administration of drug

b. any drug hypersensitivity in human body C. decreased response of drug when used for
prolong time

d. altered response of drug due to genetic make-up of patient

e rapid development of tolerance 51. Regarding first and zero-order kineties

a When a drug is weck base in nature, it must follow zero order kinetics

b. Now these terms are obsolete from the subject of PHARMACOLOGY

c. When drug has to be metabolized in GIT, it must follow first order kinetics

d. All drugs which are in tablet form are eliminated by zero order kinetics e. Commonly
used drugs are metabolized by first order kinetics 52. A girl of 17 admitted in ward for
fracture of her lower end of fibula, plastered and discharged

after 3 days. During her stay, House officer developed some liking and requested to he
his Facebook friend which she accepted gladiy. Home office may be charged with

a Assault.

Battery

c. Infamous conduct.

d. Malpractice.

Medical negligence
53. A young lady was admined in hospital allegedly being poisoned by her in law. The
offense of PPC

will be tried under section a 337).

b 302

304.

d. 324 325
54. Which one of the

competitively?

a Rivaroxaban b. Phytonadione

Tranexamic acid d. Idelvion

Aprotinin

55. Which one of the following best explains the (parenteral) intra muscular route for
administration of adrenaline for the management of a patient in

anaphylactic reaction? a. Oral adrenaline has delayed onset of action

b. W adrenaline can cause arrhythmias Subcutaneous adrenaline is not effective

d. VM adrenaline has most rapid onset of action e. Sublingual adrenaline is metabolized

COMT

56. A young girl was brought to hospital emergency soon after ingesting about 150cc of
copper sulfate solution. Which one of the following is suggested for

stomach wash?

a. Activated charcoal

b. Magnesium sulfate c. Potassium ferrocyanite

d. Potassium permanganate e. Strong tannins.

 57. During routine eye examination a semilunar ring was observed function of cornea
with sclera at 12 o'clock position. Which one of the following is the most probable
causative agent?

a Antimony b. Arsenic.

Copper d. Lead.

e. Mercury.

58. Many farmers in rural areas consumed wheat seeds strictly meant for cultivation and
developed mental disorientation, tremors, dysarthria and visual field defects. Which one
of the following was probable causative

substance?

a Antimony. b. Arsenic.

following agents inhibits plasminogen activation

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с Copper

d. Lead

e. Mercury
49 Which one of the following drugs is used for treatment of malaria but not

for chemoprophylaxis? Chloroquine

b. Primaquine Quinine

d Atovaquone

e Mefloquine

50. If a drug is active against the pre-erythrocytic stage of malarial parasite, I

will be useful as which one of the following group of drugs? a. Suppressive prophylactic
 b. Causal prophylactic

Technical curative

d. Radical curative e. Eradication therapy

51A 45-year-old patient developed severe thrombocytopenia due to unfractionated

heparin so which one of the following is the best alternative

anticoagulant?

a Lepirudin b. Abcoimab

Urokinase

d. Rivaroxaban e Phytonadione

52. Which is the drug of choice for lowing VLDL levels in patients at risk of pancreatitis
with elevated LDL and VLDL levels and significantly low HDL

levels?

Fibric acids

Ezetimibe

Statins

d. Niacin

e Cholestyramine

53. To which one of the following heparin must bind to in order to exert its

anticoagulant effect

a GP ib/la b. Thrombin

receptor.

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 Antithrombin all d. von Willebrand factor.

e. Factor VII 54. Which one of the following agents inhibits plasminogen activation
47. Which anti-platelet drugs action lasts for 5-7 days because platelets cannot generate
fresh thromboxane synthetase and their turnover time is 5-7 days?

a Abciximab

Aspirin

e. Dipyridamole d. Clopidogrel

e. Ticlopidine

48. A patient recovering from pulmonary embolus is under treatment with warfarin.
learns that she is now pregnant. The most appropriate step would be to,

# Continue warfarin Therapy

b. Stop warfarin and begin abciximab Stop warfarin and start aspirin

Stop warfarin and start heparin

Stop warfarin and start streptokinase 49. A patient is receiving heparin in a continuous
infusion. The doctor orders the nurse to

monitor the patient for which one of the following most likely adverse effects?

Hypotension b. Tachycardia

c. Ecchymosis d. Tinnitus

e. Vomiting

50. Which of the following is the basis of fibrinolytic effect of streptokinase? a.

Decreased concentration of fibrin degradation products

Increased concentration of plasmin

e. Decreased concentration of plasminogen

 d. Increased concentration of thromboxane A2

e: increased concentration of protacyclin 51. Blood levels of which of the following

clotting factors decline most rapidly after starting

Warfarin therapy?

a. I

b. il

VII

dix

e. X 52. Which one of the following is a direct thrombin inhibitor?

. Fondaparinux b. Lepirudin

c LMWH

A Dabigatran

e. Warfarin

She

53, Which of the following drug bind to bile acids in the Gl tract? e Cholestyramine

b. Nicotinic acid

e. Gemfibrozil . Probucol

e. Atorvastatin

54. If the patient has a history at gout, which of the following lipid lowering drugs is
mast likely to exacerbate this condition? a. Colestipol

b. Gemfibrozil e Lovastatin
 de Niacin

e. Simvastatin

55. Chemoprophylaxis for travelers to geographic regions where chloroquine-resistant P

falciparum is endemic is best provided by

a. Atovaquone

E Mefloquine

e Primaquine d. Pyrimethamine

Quinine
53. Which of the following drug bind to bile acids in the GI tract?

Cholestyramine b. Nicotinic acid

Gemfibrozil d. Probucol

e. Atorvastatin

54. If the patient has a history of gout, which of the following lipid lowering drugs is
most likely to exacerbate this condition? a Colestipol

b. Gemfibrozil e Lovastatin

de Niacin

e Simvastatin

55. Chemoprophylaxis for travelers to geographic regions where chloroquinc-resistant P

falciparum is endemic is best provided by

a Atovaquone

* Mefloquine e. Primaquine

d. Pyrimethamine
 e. Quinine 56. Which one of the following anti-malarial is safe in pregnancy

4 Primaquine

b. Chloroquine e. Quinine

d. Pyrimethamine e Artemisinin

57. What is the mechanism of Vincristine as an anti-neoplastic agent?

a. Antagonism of Folic acid

b. Cause cross-linking of DNA strands

c. Inhibition of topoisomerase

de Block the formation of the mitotic spindle

e. Inhibit protein synthesis 58. Which of the following statements is true regarding oral
Iron therapy of Microcytic

Anemia?

a is effective in patients diagnosed with Crohn's disease

the most effective treatment in 3 trimester of pregnancy

c. is as effective as parenteral therapy in building iron stores

d. Results in best absorption of iran when given in ferric form c. Can result in increased
efficacy when given in loading dose

59. Which of the given statements signifies folic acid therapy?

# Deficiency of folic acid causes severe peripheral neuropathies b. Treatment with folic
acid is specified for microcytic hypochromic anemia

e Inadequate intake leads to deficiency in liver stores within days

 d. Folic acid increases the production of erythropoietin in kidneys the prophylactic
antenatal treatment to prevent neural tube defects 60. Which of the following is the First
choice tissue schizonticidal agent?

Quinidine

h Primaquine

Piperaquine

d. Mefloquine

e. Amodiaquine
20 Which among the following is an adverse effect of Nitroglycerine

a Diaeresis

Hypertension e. Reflex bradycardia

d. Sunday disa

* Tolerance 21-A 4 years old gentleman has recently been prescribed motherapy for mild
hypertension. He complaints of persistent dry cough. Which of the following drugs mom
kely he be taking for hypertension Atenolol

b Captopril E Nifedipine

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d. Propranolol

22-Postural hypotension is the common adverse effect of which of the following drugs

which of the following mechanism

e. Prazosin

ACE inhibitors

b. Alpha receptor blockers

 e. Arteriolar dilators d. Ii receptor blockers

Non selective blockers

Minoxidil reduces the blood pressure through a Closure of L-type calcium channels

23-

b. Opening of NaCl channels

Closure of T-type calcium channels d. Opening of potassium channels

Closure of chloride channels

24- Which one of the following is the drug of choice for treating digitalis ináuced

anhythmias?

Phenytoin

b. Lignocaine e. Quinidine

Amiodaron Adenosine

25-A 45-year-old woman with a long history of alcohol abuse in being treated for
cinboni associated ascites Her internist decided to give her Amiloride. What common
side effect

should be monitored in this patient?

a Hypernatremia b. Hyperchloremia

Hyperphosphatemia

d. Hypermagnesemia e. Hyperkalemia

26- Which of the following anti-athythmic drugs act by inhibiting slow calcium channels
in

the SA and AV nodes

 Adenosine b. Dillazem

C. Flecainide

d. Quinidine e Sotalol

27. Which one of the following anti-arrhythmics has antimalarial properties as well?

a Phenytoin

b. Lignocaine

e. Quinidine
[0:17 pm, 28/01/2021] Taimoor Ahmed: 32- Which one of the following is the drug of
choice for hypertensive crises?

a. Na nitroprusside h a Methyldopa

. Chlorothiazide

d. Perindopril e Propanalo

33. Which one of the following diuretics must be given parenterally because it is not
absorbed when given orally?

Osmotic

b Loop Thiazide

d. Potassium-sparing

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e Xanthine

14-A 45-year-old man with a history of medication controlled hypertension re to your

office with complaints of a painful, swollen big toe on the left. You suspea gout and
check his urie acid levels, which are elevated. From lumine the list of the medications the
patient is taking you realize that one of medications may be the cause of his current
symptoms. Which medication high that be?
 Acetazolamide

b…
[0:17 pm, 28/01/2021] Taimoor Ahmed: 12/A 45 yr old woman was suffering from
Rheumatoid Arthritis presented with Deafness. On History taking & Clinical
Examination she was diagnosed that her deatness was due to prolong use of Anti-
Rheumatic Agent. Which of the following may be responsible for this adverse effect. ?

a. Methotrexate

b. Chloroquine c. Infliximab

d. Auranolin d Penicillamine

3/13

13)Aspirin is contraindicated in Children suffering from influenza or similar Viral

infection because of increased risk of which of the following condition 77

a. Grey Baby Syndrome

b. Gastric bleeding c. Thrombocytopenia

d. Fancony syndrome B. Reye's Syndrome

14)A 14 Yr old Surgeon has developed Symmetric early morning stiffness in her hands.
She wishes to take NSAID to relieve these symptoms & wants to avoid Gi side effects.
Which one of

the following drugs is most appropriate?

a. Aspirin b. Acetaminophen

c. Ibuprofen

d. Mecillinam e. Rofecoxib

15)Which of the Following drugs is used for the Treatment of Neurocysticercosis? a.

Pyrantol pamoate

b. Praziquantel
 Piperazine

d. Diethyl Carbamazine

e. Ivermectin

16) Piperazine is indicated only for which of the following anti-helminthic infection??

a. Hyatid cyst b. Filariasis

c. Trichuriasis

d. Ascarianis a. Schistosomiasis

17)Which of the Following is the adverse effect of Metronidazole? a. Anorexia

b. Disulfam like reaction c. Fishy taste

do. Haemorrhoids

e Insomnia

18)Which of the following clinical condition can be treated with metronidazole?

Ascariasis

b. Cholera

c. Dental abscesa

d. Malaria e. UTI
24- Furosemide act by inhibiting which one of the following in renal tubular cells?

a Aldosterone receptors

h. Na Cl symporter

N'H'antiporter d Na K ATPase
e. Na K'2CI cotransporter 29. Which of the following is the most commonly prescribed
diuretic in hepatic ascites:

Acetazolamide b. Ethacrynic acid

Hydrochlorothiazide Indapamide

Spironolactone e

30- A 35 year old man experienced an episode of chest pain after exercise. He also
experienced sweating and light headedness. He reported at an ER of ANTH where he
was detained and a drug was given sublingually. This drug relieved his chest pain but
caused him one of another effect. What can this side affect be?

a Bradycardia

b Fever Headache

d. Skin tash

Vomiting

31-Nitrates alleviate pain of angina pectoris by which mechanisms

a Increase the end diastolic volume

b. Increase preload and afterload

e Exert negative chronotropic effect

a. Decrease redistribution of coronary blood

Vasodilation of epicardial coronary arteries

32. Which one of the following is the drug of choice for hypertensive crises?

Na nitroprusside

b. a Methyldopa e. Chlorothiazide

d. Perindopril Propranalol
 33- Which one of the following diuretics must be given parenterally because it is not
absorbed when given orally?

a Osmotic

Loop

Thiazides. Potassium-sparing
[6:58 am, 28/01/2021] Taimoor Ahmed:
[0:17 pm, 28/01/2021] Taimoor Ahmed: QI: To protect the normal cells from toxicity of
Methotrexate, which of the following

should be administered?

Folinic Acid

b MESNA. N-acetylcysteine

d. Pyridoxine e Sodium bicarbonate.

Q2: Which of the following cephalosporins has good activity against anaerobes?

a. Cefaclor. Cefazolin.

Cefoxitin

Ceftriaxone e Cephradine

Q3: Which one of the following third generation cephalosporin has a good activity agains

Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

a. Cefixime.

b. Cefotaxime Ceftazidime

d. Ceftizoxime e. Ceftriaxone.

Q4: A 35 years old male developed antibiotic induced pseudomembranous enterocolitis

dus to Clostridium difficile for which he was treated with Metronidazole but it proves
 ineffective. Now his physician prescribed him which one of the following oral
antibiotics?

a Amoxicillin. b. Chloramphenicol.

c. Clindamycin.

d. Doxycycline. e. Vancomycin.

1/14

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Q5: Inhibition of which one of the following is the mechanism of action of clavulanic

a Beta lactamase.

b. DNA polymerase e. Monoamine oxidases.

Topoisomerase. e. Transpeptidases.

06: Which one of the following antivirals is used to treat cytomepalovirus

immunocompromised patient?

Amantadine b. Ganciclovir.

c. Interferon. d. Ritonavi
4 Dopamine, Potassium channel opener Pollum channel blocker, alpha blocker By
thecham Dunkinata in the treatment of CCF

Detection fraction AN Increase end d e volume

Negative tropie effect d. Positive chronotropic effect

Shorten AV nodal refractory period

1. Which one of the folle change in serum electrolytes can agrevate Digoxin

toxicity

A Hypokalemia b. Hypermagnesemia
 e Hypocalcemia di. Hypernatremia

Hypophosphatemi

19A 38 year male while exercising, experienced a sudden severe chest pain last evening.
He

wes takem te a nearty emergency. Which of the following drug was advised to be kept

under his tongue to alleviate the condition

a Aspirin Amlodipine

Captopril d. Dopamine

e Isosorbide trinitrate 20- Which among the following in an adverse effect of

Nitroglycerine?

a Druresis

Hypertension

Reflex bradycardia

it. Sunday diseane e. Tolerance

Q14: Which one of the following is an absolute contraindication for the use of the
oxytocic

agent Ergotamine? a Bronchial asthma

b. Cardiac arrhythmias.

Hypertension. e d. Migraine.

e Psychosis.

Q15: Which one of the following sulfonamides is used in treatment of ulcerative colitis

a Sulfacetamide. b. Sulfadiazine
 e. Sulfamethoxazole. d. Sulfasalazine

e. Sulfisoxazole

Scanned with C 4/14

Q16: An S-year-old child presented with brownish discolored and deformed anterior
teeth. History of having received an antibiotic about 4 years earlier was obtained. W e

antibiotic could have been responsible for the condition?

a Cefotaxime.

A Chloramphenicol. Erythromycin

d. Gentamicin. Tetracycline

Q17: Which of the following is the adverse effect of anabolic steroids in adult males?

a Balding

b. Depression

Dry skin

d. Enlargement of testicles

e Law blood pressure.

Q18: Which one of the following Aminoglycoside has the highest ototoxicity?

a. Amikacin. b Gentamycin

e. Netilmycin

d. Paromomycin. c. Streptomycin

Q19: A 1-month old baby was given an antibiotic for meningitis, Suddenly baby
developed vomiting, flaccidity, hypothermia, gray colour, shock & collapse.

following antibioties was responsible for such adverse effects?

 a. Chloramphenicol.

b. Clindamycin. e. Demeclocycline.

d. Erythromycin. e. Roxithromycin.

Q20. For a patient with history of COPD with recurrent lower respiratory tract infection,
which one of the following fluoroquinolones should be the physician's first choice?

a Lomefloxacin b. Moxifloxacin.

e. Ofloxacin. d. Pefloxacin

e Trovafloxacin.
24- Furosemide act by inhibiting which one of the following in renal tubular cells?

a Aldosterone receptors

h. Na Cl symporter

N'H'antiporter d Na K ATPase

e. Na K'2CI cotransporter 29. Which of the following is the most commonly prescribed
diuretic in hepatic ascites:

Acetazolamide b. Ethacrynic acid

Hydrochlorothiazide Indapamide

Spironolactone e

30- A 35 year old man experienced an episode of chest pain after exercise. He also
experienced sweating and light headedness. He reported at an ER of ANTH where he
was detained and a drug was given sublingually. This drug relieved his chest pain but
caused him one of another effect. What can this side affect be?

a Bradycardia

b Fever Headache
 d. Skin tash

Vomiting

31-Nitrates alleviate pain of angina pectoris by which mechanisms

a Increase the end diastolic volume

b. Increase preload and afterload

e Exert negative chronotropic effect

a. Decrease redistribution of coronary blood

Vasodilation of epicardial coronary arteries

32. Which one of the following is the drug of choice for hypertensive crises?

Na nitroprusside

b. a Methyldopa e. Chlorothiazide

d. Perindopril Propranalol

33- Which one of the following diuretics must be given parenterally because it is not
absorbed when given orally?

a Osmotic

Loop

Thiazides. Potassium-sparing

Scanned with CamScanner

Xanthine
7) Aprepitant is useful in prevention of chemotherapy induced nausea & Vomiting by
inhibiting which one of the following receptors?

a. Neurokinin
 b. Serotonin-3 c. Muscarinic

d. Dopamine-2

e. Corticosteroid

B]Which one of the following drugs has a prophylactic role during acute Gouty attack?

a. Allopurinol b. Colchicine

C. Febuxostat d. Pagioticase

e. Prednisolone

9)

10) Indomethin i given in 3rd Trimester of Pregnancy develop which of the following

complication?

a. Preterm Onset of labour

b. Intrauterine growth retardation

c. Acute hemorrhagic cystitis

d. Fatty Liver Disease e. Premature dosure of patent ductus arteriosus

11)Which of the following DMARDS is Tumor Necrosis Factor? a Sulphasalazine

b. Penicillamine

c. Adalimumab

d. Rituximab

e. Methotrexate
QS: Inhibition of which one of the following is the mechanism of action of elavulei

a Beta lactamase.
 b. DNA polymerase. e. Monoamine oxidases.

d. Topoisomerase. Transpeptidases.

Q6: Which one of the following antivirals used to treat cytomegalovirus infection in

immunocompromised patient? Amantadine.

b. Ganciclovir

c. Interferon. Ritonavir

C. Zidovudine.

Q7: Which one of the following drugs can be used as an empirical therapy for patient of

viral encephalitis?

Acyclovir b. Ganciclovir

c. Interferon.

d. Ribavirin. e. Ritonavir.

Q8: Clomiphene citrate induces ovulation in a case of infertility through which of the

following molecular mechanisms? Agonist estrogen receptors.

b Agonist at progesterone receptor

c. Antagonist at estrogen receptor d Antagonist at progesterone receptor.

e. Mixed agonist antagonist at estrogen receptors

42. Genetic variation of individual may affect pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic

characteristics of drug. Due to genetic defects:

a. drug's response is always lost b. drug's half life always decrease

c. it may cause no effect of drug at all

 d. drug's vague response may lead to toxicity even some times to lethality e. drug's
plasma half life always increases

43. Regarding pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic features of drug, which one of the

following statement is true?

a. Small increase in dose of acidic drugs can cause lethality b. Every drug acting on
parasympathetic system cause malignant hyperthermia if patient

lesser concentration of phosphate dehydrogenase enzyme c. Few drugs exhibit vague

response in some individuals. These responses are known as

idiosyncratic responses d. Nature of platelets determine nature of idiosyncratic response

of any drug

e. Blood group of any individual predicts vague response of drugs due to genetic
variation

44. ED50 and LD50 are determined by: a. Quantal dose response curves

b. area under the curve c. sigmoid dose-response curve

d. Kaplan-Meier curves e. linear dose-response curves

45. Drug tolerance may be managed by: a. increasing frequency of same dose of drug

b. increasing dose of drug c. administration of charcoal

d. administration of drug specific antidote e. decreasing dose of the drug

46. Which one of the following explains exact safety margin of the drug?

a. Therapeutic index

b. Tachyphylaxis

c. Tolerance

d. Iatrogenic effect
 e. Therapeutic window

47. Shifting of dose-response curve from upward to down word explains:

a. exact safety margin of the drug

b. lesser effects of drug in biological system c. high amount of drug response in

biological system

d. tachyphylaxis

e, tolerance
42. Genetic variation of individual may affect pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic

characteristics of drug. Due to genetic defects:

a. drug's response is always lost b. drug's half life always decrease

c. it may cause no effect of drug at all

d. drug's vague response may lead to toxicity even some times to lethality e. drug's
plasma half life always increases

43. Regarding pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic features of drug, which one of the

following statement is true?

a. Small increase in dose of acidic drugs can cause lethality b. Every drug acting on
parasympathetic system cause malignant hyperthermia if patient

lesser concentration of phosphate dehydrogenase enzyme c. Few drugs exhibit vague

response in some individuals. These responses are known as

idiosyncratic responses d. Nature of platelets determine nature of idiosyncratic response

of any drug

e. Blood group of any individual predicts vague response of drugs due to genetic
variation

44. ED50 and LD50 are determined by: a. Quantal dose response curves
 b. area under the curve c. sigmoid dose-response curve

d. Kaplan-Meier curves e. linear dose-response curves

45. Drug tolerance may be managed by: a. increasing frequency of same dose of drug

b. increasing dose of drug c. administration of charcoal

d. administration of drug specific antidote e. decreasing dose of the drug

46. Which one of the following explains exact safety margin of the drug?

a. Therapeutic index

b. Tachyphylaxis

c. Tolerance

d. Iatrogenic effect

e. Therapeutic window

47. Shifting of dose-response curve from upward to down word explains:

a. exact safety margin of the drug

b. lesser effects of drug in biological system c. high amount of drug response in

biological system

d. tachyphylaxis

e, tolerance
7) Aprepitant is useful in prevention of chemotherapy induced nausea & Vomiting by
inhibiting which one of the following receptors?

a. Neurokinin

b. Serotonin-3 c. Muscarinic

d. Dopamine-2
 e. Corticosteroid

B]Which one of the following drugs has a prophylactic role during acute Gouty attack?

a. Allopurinol b. Colchicine

C. Febuxostat d. Pagioticase

e. Prednisolone

9)

10) Indomethin i given in 3rd Trimester of Pregnancy develop which of the following

complication?

a. Preterm Onset of labour

b. Intrauterine growth retardation

c. Acute hemorrhagic cystitis

d. Fatty Liver Disease e. Premature dosure of patent ductus arteriosus

11)Which of the following DMARDS is Tumor Necrosis Factor? a Sulphasalazine

b. Penicillamine

c. Adalimumab

d. Rituximab

e. Methotrexate
28 Name of a drug given the manitou icallet

Chemical ae

* Appeed Poprietary nam

ae
 No popeetary

29. Stuty of effe nd patem of use of drugs in the community is known

There Mar

Pharmacy

a. Pharmacoepidemiology Phamanrigilane

M. The chemical increde a l vegetable preparations

mponsile for their biological t y, called as active principles. Which of the

following active principles in derived from plant and biologically very active.

intensely bitter and alkaline in actie

L Fas h Resias

Alkaloids 4 Glycosides

E Volatile oil

31. Main disadvantage of subcutaneous injection de

A Can act depot therapy

h Drugs hare slow and constant bodo

e. Print pan effect can be avoided

a. Limited number of drugs can be administered

Self injection is posible

32. Pora drug to be readily absorbed from Gi tract, it mut have the following

character mainly

2 Lipophilic with linle hydrophilic nature

 lariat si Mainly hygienic winde triptych nature 4 Ply iphone

e Purity hypophora

which of the fedlewing drug dmt be considered the genetic differences in ep Neylation f
dups when starting ain't with?

* Topamine Amiard

w Api 4.

Diazepam

The unition of drug is deserited being heavily dependent on phone 3 m edier . Which of
the following is a phase traction

* பெca

Dealkylation 4. Hydroxylation

Methylation

*. Which of the following is an inhibitor of hepatic CYP-450 enzyme involved in hepatic

metabolism of most of the drugs

Phenyi b. Cum eine

Azithromycin

d. Rifumpin Erythromycin

36. A 35-year old male in presented in hospital and diamond with dengue fever and
advised tablet paracetamol for fever complete bed rest. On follow up

patient's lab investigations shows derunge of his liver enzymes. Patient most

possibly received a toxic dose of paracetamol. Which of the following

metabolic enzymes is responsible for this toxicity?

 b. Acetyl-CoA Glutathione reductase

Sulfotransferase CYP-450 oxidase

and the cun a ngudung playa pew tongfang

Beauty வாடிக y

Bnd drug ha ser ha-fe od drug can ily be mabiland

Bound drugs difficult for tom girls Bound drug and ally c tan y sile dfes

aug Watch af de folkwing tacsr can increase bioavailability o ml jem lhe up eg

. Fit pass effect

Delay in gase emptying me Duca caring alabsarpon of dug e lahibinon of liver mensonal
enzymes

39. Reai scrtn traction met lilly no be sensitive to drug kenizatie stae

4 Ghana mas b. Para

E. Renal blood flow

4. Tubular ecrecon

Corte dependence

Which of the ingerties of a panial agoniat ca atagomise che effecti of a full agonist?

a Low affinity and ao rise activity

No affinity and low intrinsic activity E High affinity and no intrinsic activity

4 Low affinity and high inninsie activity e High afflairy and low intrinsic activity

41. Find the come statement garding "ifficacy of a drug

 out of drug necessary to produce a desirable effect

kis measured a dose is in a dos response curve is ahility of a drug to produce a maximal
response

More poeni drug always has greater efficacy 4

37.

Meatumentf percy in ponakan elfiky Me

41 Which Of the lung dng p aulad ia e himat of secnd

Nuar recep

wndana n loe ligand gated channel

d. O couple Troti K ind

43 A patie in taking high dosage of drug And dng Ahlg beth And dup have the echo of
types of ual infinity when wypru Thas probably be the

wo drup tave ditlercut

Facies

h eci

4 Alfinitica Therapeutic aide

44. The rtio between Lethal Dne LD) ad Etive De D) a adid

* Mugiu of salary

Median lethal dose

Therapeutic index d. Therapeutic window

Median effective done

45. What is true for a gaded dose compose curve

 It is tell m e therapeutic iades

Helps to LDSO of a drug

It is useful for Yes No tots Drawn from responders for a food mapitade of effect

Produced from action of a drug on single animal or te

46. Gradual decrease in response to a drug upon repeated administration

Individual who was initially maponaive to a low dene is termed as:

. Antagonism
42. Genetic variation of individual may affect pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic

characteristics of drug. Due to genetic defects:

a. drug's response is always lost b. drug's half life always decrease

c. it may cause no effect of drug at all

d. drug's vague response may lead to toxicity even some times to lethality e. drug's
plasma half life always increases

43. Regarding pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic features of drug, which one of the

following statement is true?

a. Small increase in dose of acidic drugs can cause lethality b. Every drug acting on
parasympathetic system cause malignant hyperthermia if patient

lesser concentration of phosphate dehydrogenase enzyme c. Few drugs exhibit vague

response in some individuals. These responses are known as

idiosyncratic responses d. Nature of platelets determine nature of idiosyncratic response

of any drug

e. Blood group of any individual predicts vague response of drugs due to genetic
variation
 44. ED50 and LD50 are determined by: a. Quantal dose response curves

b. area under the curve c. sigmoid dose-response curve

d. Kaplan-Meier curves e. linear dose-response curves

45. Drug tolerance may be managed by: a. increasing frequency of same dose of drug

b. increasing dose of drug c. administration of charcoal

d. administration of drug specific antidote e. decreasing dose of the drug

46. Which one of the following explains exact safety margin of the drug?

a. Therapeutic index

b. Tachyphylaxis

c. Tolerance

d. Iatrogenic effect

e. Therapeutic window

47. Shifting of dose-response curve from upward to down word explains:

a. exact safety margin of the drug

b. lesser effects of drug in biological system c. high amount of drug response in

biological system

d. tachyphylaxis

e, tolerance
51. The ration of the dose that produces toxicity in the half population to the dose that
produces a clinically desired or effective response in half population is called
a. Efficacy
b. Potency
c. Therapeutic inde
d. Quantal dose response
e. Graded dose response
 52. A patient shows a qualitatively harmful response to a drug which is
unpredictable,not related with dose and is not related with immune system.it is thought to
be because of genetic predisposition. This is called
a. Idiosyncrasy
b. Pharmacogenetics
c. Anaphylaxis
d. Tachyphylaxis
e. Tolerance
53. Which of the following factors wil determine the number od drug-receptor
complexes formed
a. Efficaacy of the druf
b. Receptor affininty of drug
c. Half life of the drug
d. Rate of renal excretion of the drug
e. Bioavailability of the drug
54. To calculate the loading dose of a drug, when the desired steady state
concentration and bioavailabiliyty are known, what would one need to know
a. Rate of drug clearance
b. Plasma half life of drug
c. Rate of drug infusion
d. Volume of distribution
e. Rate of drug metabolism
55. Which of the following drugs is cleared off the body by hoffman’s elimination
a. Atropine
b. Isoniazid
c. Digoxin
d. Warfarin
e. Atracurium
56. A chronic moker has been convinced to quit smoking. The drug which helps
quitting and reduce smoking is
a. Citalopram
b. Bupropium
c. Buspirone
d. Atomoxetine
e. Duloxetine
57. Which of the following drug has antiparkinsonian action of its own, augments and
prolong the action of levodopa and allows reduction of its dose by 25 percent.
a. Procyclidine
b. Selegiline
c. Amantadine
d. Pyridoine
 e. Bromocriptine
58. Morphine is contraindicated in head injury, because of which of the following
reasons
a. Doesnot relieve pain of head injury
b. Causes severe nausea and constipation
c. Can cause malignant hyperthermia
d. Can rasie the intra-cranial pressure
59. A 30 years old student presented in medical OPD withhemolytic anaemia.history
revealed that he was taking anti malarial drugs. He is probably suffering from which
inherited disorder
a. Acatalasia
b. Malignant hyperthermia
c. Glucose 6-PD deficiency
d. Acute intermittent porphyria
e. Met-haemoglobinemia
60. Black water fever is the compilation of which of the following anti malarial drugs
a. Choroquine
b. Quinine
c. Primaquine
d. Artemether
61. A women with weight loss, heat intolerence, nervousness and esophathalamus
recieves propylthiouracil for her disease. Which serious advers effect has been associated
with this medication
a. Gastric bleeding
b. Thromboembolism
c. Agranulocytosis
d. Hepatic failure
e. Esophageal ulcer
62. A patient suffering from tuberculosis is on anti TB medication. One of these drugs
induces sypmtoms of a vitamin deficiency. This vitamin deficiency is also been with
other drugs such as cycloserine, penicillamine and hydrallazine. The effected vitamin is
a. Vitamin B5
b. Vitamin B6
c. Vitamin K
d. Vitamin C
e. Vitamin B
63. Patients taking this anti TB drug might be advised to test their vision by reading a
small print in the newspaper from time to time. This drug is
a. Ethambutol
b. Rifampicin
c. Pyrazinamide
 d. Dapsone
e. Clofazimine
64. A patient has early stage congestive heart failure and atrial fibrillation. Which of
the following drugs is best to treat his both conditions.
a. Digoxin
b. Virapamil
c. Nifedipine
d. Lignocaine
e. Propranolol
65. A 50 years old obese man complained to his physician of a sharp pain in his left
calf. Medical history indicated that 1 week ago he started an antibiotic treatment for
acute prostatitis. Further examination led to the diagnosis of achilles tendon rupture.
Which of the following drug most likely led to the patients problem
a. Ampcillin
b. Doxycycline
c. Ceftriaxone
d. Erythromycin
e. Ciprofloxacin
66. One of the following antibiotic lead to the management of abdominal absces due
tobacteroides fragilis, but there is high risk of antibiotic associatedpseudomembranous
colitis. Which one is it
a. Amikacin
b. Ethambutol
c. Isoniazid
d. Pyrazinamide
67. Many drugs effect vision in one way or the other. Which of the following drug is
least likely to cause any visual disturbance
a. Digoin
b. Voriconazole
c. Ethambutal
d. Chloroquine
e. Ketoconazole
68. Which of the following agents should be considered for prophylactic
administeration in a patient that is positive with HIV
a. Ganiciclovir
b. Fluconazole
c. Interferon-a
d. Pentamidine
e. Rubella vaccine
 69. When administered prior to 5-FU, this agent enhances the activation of and the
anti tumor activity by increasing pools of phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate which is
esssential for purine and pyrimidine synthesis
a. Leucovorin
b. Oaliplatin
c. Metotrexate
d. Cytrabine
e. Fluxuridine
70. A thirty years old woman is being on the birth control pill for the first time. She
has a history of migraine headache with aura.Therapy with which one of the following
conntraceptives formulations is contraindicated in this patient
a. Levonoorgestrel
b. Mefipristone
c. Norethindrone
d. Ethinyl estradiol
e. Ulipristal
71. A 50 years old woman is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes myellitis. She is put on
antidiabetic therapy. The drugs prescribed is to be given to the patient 15 minutes before
a meal, ut no more than 0 minutes. Which one it could be
a. Glipizide
b. Miglitol
c. Pioglitazone
d. Metformin
e. Acarbose
72. A patient who has a history of getting sik at high altitudes is planning a trip with
his friends to murree. Which drug should she take for prophylaxis
a. Ethacrynic acid
b. Spironolactone
c. Indapamide
d. Acetazolamide
e. Chlorthalidone
73. A 50 years old male presents with hypertension and atrial flatter. Which of the
following drugs will help improve bot his hypertension and atrial flatter.
a. Nifedipine
b. Quinidine
c. Digoin
d. Verapamil
e. Lignocaine
74. SIADH, manifested by dillusional hyponatremia leading to water intoxication hs
been associated with certain drugs. Which of the following oral hypoglacemic agents is
associated with SIADH.
 a. Glipizide
b. Ciglitazone
c. Telazamide
d. Chlorpropamide
e. Acetohexamide
75. Insulin is used for the control of glucose metabolism in the body and regulation of
blood glucose levels. Which of these is not an insulin target tissue
a. Fat
b. Liver
c. Brain
d. Muscle
e. Blood
76. A woman is at risk of pre term labor. Which of the folloowing will you administer
to fetal lung maturation
a. Betamethasone
b. Mifepristone
c. Temoxifen
d. Prednisolone
e. Sprinolactone
77. A patient is receiving an oral hypoglycemic agent that increases the secretion of
insulin and has the longest duration of action. Which of the following drugs it could be
a. Repaglinide
b. Metformin
c. Toibutamide
d. Chlorpropamide
e. Rosiglitazone
78. Which of the following drug is useful in tyoe 2 diabetes, it increses the effect of
incrfetins and acts as a dipeptyl peptidase-4 inhibitor
a. Exenatide
b. Liraglutide
c. Vildagliptin
d. Canagliflozin
e. Pioglitazone
79. When given to a man a drug causes bradycardia, increased gut mortility and
papillary constriction. The drug could be
a. Histamine
b. Neostigmine
c. Adrenaline
d. Atropine
e. Propanolol
 80. Aluminium and calcium salts inhibit the intestinal absorption of which of the
following antibacterial
a. Isoniazid
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Erythromycin
d. Tetracycline
e. Penicillin-V
81. To treat an upper respiratory infection due to streptoccoccus pneumoniae in a
pregnant woman with a known history of penicillin allergy, most of the following drugs
are contraindicated. Which one can be used
a. Chloramphenocol
b. Azithromycin
c. Tetracycline
d. Metronidazole
e. Ciprofloxacin
82. A patient is noted to have paroxymal episodes of hypertension, tremors weakness
and sweating. Urinary catecholamine and their metabolites are elevated and the CT scan
of the abdomen detects a mass within the adrenal gland. If the tumor is deemed
inoperable pharmacotherapy of the above disorder may include which of the following
drugs.
a. Alpha Methyldopa
b. Sod nitroprusside
c. Levobunolol
d. Phenoxybenzamine
e. Propranolol
83. Which of the following blocks both K+ chennels involved in cardiac
repolarization and beta drenergic receptors and is a useful antiarrhytmic
a. Quinidine
b. Propanolol
c. Sotalol
d. Metaprolol
e. Propanolol
84. Pyridostigmine differs from Neostigmine in that
a. It is more potent after oral administration
b. It is quaternary ammonium compund
c. It produces less muscarinic side effects
d. It has no direct action on non receptors
e. It exerts very powerful actions on CNS
85. Anti muscarinic drugs are useful in some GIT and bladder dysfunction.wich of
the following drugs is most likely to be indicated in overactive bladder and nocturnal
emuresis
 a. Hyoscine
b. Atropine
c. Methanetheline
d. Pirenzepine
e. Oxybutynin
86. A 24 year old man is brought to a room of emergency by his group of friends
who said that he suddenly became restless, confused and incordinated after taking some
pills. Physical examination reveals increased body temperature, tachycardia, cutaneous
fluids and widely dilated pupils unresponsive to the light. The patient complains of
dryness of mouth. He probably ingested which of the following drugs
a. Physostigmine
b. Ambenonium
c. Propranolol
d. Belladona extract
e. Pyridostigmine
87. Which one of the following drugs is most likely to cause equilibrium and auditory
damage
a. Amikacin
b. Ethambutol
c. Isoniazid
d. Pyrazinamide
e. Rifampicin
88. Acetyl choline is able to bind to the nicotine and muscarinic receptors. Which of
the following pairs of statement correctly defines the nature of receptors
a. Nicotinic. Ionotropic muscarinic innotropic
b. Nicotinic. Ionotropic muscarinic metabotropic
c. Nicotinic. Metabotropic muscarinic ionotropic
d. Nicotinic metabotropic muscarinic metabotropic
e. Nicotinic ionotropic muscarinic kinase linked
89. Patient suffering from mild hypertension is prescribed a drug which decreases BP
by blocking the enzymatic activity of renin. Which one of the following drugs it can be
a. Analapril
b. Irbesartan
c. Carvedilol
d. Verapamil
e. Aliskiren
90. Increased sympathetic activity directly by stimulating beta 1 receptors and
directly by reducing angiotensin 2 brings harmful trophic remodelling changes in
myocardium. Which of the following drugs can more effectively prevent these trophic
changes induced by angiotensin 2.
a. Valsartan
 b. Captopril
c. Verapamil
d. Carvedilol
e. Metaprolol
91. The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agent in
the treatment of tuberculosis
a. To prevent development of resistance
b. To obtain an absolute bactericidal effect
c. To broaden the spectrum of activity
d. To reduce adverse effects of drugs
e. To prevent relapse of tuberculosis
92. Which of the following is a vasodilator and can be used to treat a patient with
both congestive heart failure and coronary artery vasospasm
a. Verapamil
b. Captopril
c. Nifedipine
d. Propranolol
e. Digoxin
93. When digoxin is used in a patient with congestive heart failure, it works by
exerting a positive effect on which of the following parameters
a. Stroke volume
b. Perippheral resistance
c. Heart rate
d. Blood pressure
e. Venous return
94. Which of the following drug is an antiemetic used primarily for chemotherapy
induced vomiting
a. Mineral oil
b. Misoprostol
c. Omeprazole
d. Aprepitant
e. Sucralfae
95. A patient is using drug against gout. After using the drug, is urine shows high
levels of uric acid whereas serum uric acid was decreased. The drug is most likely to be
a. Probenecid
b. Allupurinol
c. Rasburicase
d. Furosemide
e. Colchicine
 96. A 56 year old woman with an intact uterus is being treated with hormone
replacement therapy with a product that contains and estrogen / progestin combination.
The progestin is added to
a. Decrease the risk of endometrial cancer
b. Decrease the incidence of breast cancer
c. Increase effectiveness for vasomotor sypmtoms
d. Decrease the risk of coronary heart disease
e. Decrease the risk of cognitive impairment
97. A 63 year old man suffering from a small celll carcinoma of lungs was
hospitalized for his first cycle of chemotherapy. Which of the following three drug
regimes would be best to prevent nausea and vomiting in this patient
a. Ranitidine, diazepam,dexamethasone
b. Scopolamine, dexamethasone, ondasetron
c. Ondasetron, aprepitant, deamethasone
d. Aprepitant,scopolamine, loperamide
e. Prochlorperazine, ranitidine,loperamide
98. A 65 year old woman suffering from chronic heartburn was routinely taking a
large amount ofantacid preperation containing aluminiun hydroxide. Lab exams of this
patient would most likely show the following results
a. Hyperglycemia
b. Hypercalcemia
c. Hypermatremia
d. Hypokalemia
e. Hypophosphatemia
99. A 60 year old man suffering from recurrent heartburn routinely toook large
quantities of different antacid preperations. Which of the following had the highest rish
of alkalosis in this patient
a. NaHCO3
b. CaCO3
c. Al(OH)3
d. Mg(OH)2
e. Ca(OH)2
100. Paclitaxel and the other taanes havve a central role in therapy of ovarin, breast,
lung,GI, head and neck cancers. The cytotoxic effect of the taxanes in tumor cells is the
result of
a. Inhibition of microtubule formation
b. Inhibition of microtubule assembly
c. Enhancement of microtubule disassembly
d. Inhibition of enzyme topoisomerase 1
e. Inhibition of enzyme topoisomerase 2
101. Which of the following drug is useful in cataplexy associated with norcolepsy
 a. Imipramine
b. Dulexetine
c. Venlafaxine
d. Trazodone
e. Modafinil
102. SSRIs are preferred over tricyclic antidepressents because of
a. More efficacy
b. Most cost effectiveness
c. Better side effects profile
d. Lack of sexual dysfunction
e. More potency
103. A 46 year old woman complained of burning urination and bladder pain. Her
medical history was significant for recurrent urinary tract infections and a congenital
long QT syndrome detected during a routine visit one year ago. Which of the following
antibiotics would be contraindicated for this patient
a. Ceftazidime
b. Imipenem
c. Amoxillin-clavulanate
d. Piperacillin
e. Ciprofloxacin
104. A 55 year old man with benign prostatic hypertrphy is being treated with
finastride. It acts by blocking the coversion of
a. Testosterone to estadiol
b. Testosterone to dihydrotesterone
c. Cortisol to cortisone
d. Cholesterol to pregnenolone
e. Progesterone to androstenidione
105. An overdose toxicity, leading to hepatic damage and hepatic cellular necrosis of
which of the following drugs maybe treated with N-acetylcysteine if given in a timely
manner
a. Phenylbutazone
b. Naproxen
c. Acetaminophen
d. Indomethacin
e. Aspirin
106. A 62 year old man is being treated with testosterone for for hypogonadiam of old
age. A likely side effect would be
a. Hepatotoxicity
b. Dementia
c. Gynecomastia
d. Optic neuritis
 e. Peripheral neuropathy
107. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis is being treated with ibuprofen but joint pain
and stiffness are increasing. His physician prescribes another drug to be used with
ibuprofen that may slow the progression of disease. Unfortunately, side effects developed
including dizziness, blurrred vision. Ocular examination reveals corneal deposits and
slightretinal pigmentation. Which is the drug most recently likely to be prescribed.
a. Auranofin
b. Methotrexate
c. Ethanercept
d. Hydroxychloroquine
e. Cyclophosphamide

tension

160. An adolescent male is newly diagnosed with schizophrenia, which of the

following agents would have the best chance to improve his apathy and social
withdrawal?
a. Chlorpromazine
b. Fluphenazine
c. Haloperidol
d. Risperidone
e. Thioridazine
161. Naltrexone is a long-acting opioid antagonist which decreases alcohol dependence
in alcohols. It is not used in combination with disulfiram as it may cause:
a. Opioid withdrawal
b. Nephron toxicity
c. Hepatotoxicity
d. Block analgesic effect
e. Decrease effect of disulfiram
 162. A 65 year old man has cardiac risk factors of hypertension and is on aspirin.
Echocardiography shows reduced ejection fraction at 50%. Which of the following
medications may reduce the risk of future cardiovascular events?
a. Isosorbide Mononitrate
b. Frasemide
c. Ramipril
d. Clopidogrel
e. Verapamil
163. A 30 year old woman being treated for hypertension has the sudden onset of fever
& malaise. On examination she has a temperature of 101 F and is normotensive. She has
a malar rash, swelling and tenderness of her wrists and knees and a friction rub at the left
lower sternal border. The drug most likely to have produced these effects is:
a. Caplopril
b. Hydralazine
c. Minoxidii
d. Sodium Nitroprusside
e. Propranolol
164. Prazosin is a useful selective -1 blocker for treatment of mild to moderate
hypertension, but should be prescribed with precautions to an ambulant patient because
it may cause :
a. Sexual dysfunction
b. Diarrhea
c. Nasal stuffiness
d. 1st dose Phenomenon
e. Reflex tachycardia
165. A patient has early stage congestive heart failure & atrial fibrillation. Which of
the following drugs is best to treat his both conditions?
a. Digoxin
b. Verapamil
c. Nifedipine
d. Lignocaine
e. Propranolol
166. A women in the 28th week of pregnancy has developed pregnancy induced
hypertension with a blood pressure of 150/100 mm of Hg. Select the most appropriate
antihypertensive drug for her:
a. Furosemide
b. Methyl dopa
c. Labetalol
d. Clonidine
e. Captopril
 167. A patient of congestive heart failure was being treated with furosemide and
digoxin. He developed urinary tract infection. Which of the following antimicrobials
should be avoided:
a. Ampicillin
b. Norfloxacin
c. Co-trimoxazole
d. Gentamicin
e. Ciprofloxacin
168. While planning for surgery in a patient of angle closure glaucoma, Which of the
following can be used topically to lower the inraoccular pressure before surgery:
a. Furosemide
b. Dorzolamide
c. Mannitol
d. Indapamide
e. Spironolactone
169. A 68 year old patient in CCU suddenly develops right sided weakness and sluring
of speech. CT scan confirms left sided hemorrhagic stroke. Prior to this patient was
admitted for management of MI, and received thrombolytic therapy. Which of the
following is most likely cause of hemorrhage?
a. Aspirin
b. Clopidogrel
c. Streptokinase
d. LMWH
e. Warfarin
170. A patient underwent percutaneous angiography, which of the following
medication he is likely to receive?
a. Alteplase
b. Abciximab
c. Aminocaproic acid
d. Vitamin K
e. Reteplase
171. Which of the following antiplatelet drug acts by blocking ADP receptors?
a. Clopidogral
b. Aspirin
c. Prostacyclin
d. Abciximab
e. Warfarin
172. You have recently put a patient on warfarin therapy. Which lab test will be
required for monitoring of this patient to prevent warfarin toxicity?
a. aPTT
b. PT
 c. PT & INR
d. Bleeding time
e. No test required

173. Abciximab is an antiplatelet drug, it acts on which of following receptor?

a. GP IIb/III a receptor
b. ADP receptor
c. Ca++ receptor
d. Serotonin receptor
e. Endothelial receptors
174. A patient was being treated with an anticoagulant, now he presented in OPD with
painful toe of his right foot. On examination his toe is swollen, tender with blue
discoloration. Which is the most probable drug he was receiving?
a. LMWH
b. Warfarin
c. UF heparin
d. Tirofiban
e. Clopidogrel
175. One of the following drug can be displaced by the fibrates, increasing the levels
of the drug in the blood and risk of its toxicity is increased:
a. Aspirin
b. Tetracycline
c. Warfarin
d. Ezetimibe
e. Heparin
176. Anticoagulation effect of warfarin is exerted by:
a. It inhibits antithrombin III
b. Increase degradation of clothing factors
c. Inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase
d. Activates plasminogen plasmin system
e. Block GP IIb/IIIa receptors on platelets

177. The following drug given concurrently can enhance toxicity of digoxin:
a. Phenobarbitone
b. Metoclopramide
c. Quinidine
d. Magnesium hydroxide
e. Rifampicin
178. The diuretic preferred in a patient suffering from circhosis for the treatment of
circhotic ascites is:
 a. Dorzolamide
b. Furosemide
c. Hydrochlorothiazide
d. Spironolactone
e. Any of the above
179. One of the following pharmacological action is not associated with loop diuretics:
a. Hypokalemia
b. Hypomagnesemia
c. Hypocalcemia
d. Hypouricemia
e. Hyponatremia
180. Beta-blockers are used for mild hypertension.They decrease BP, by which of the
following mechanisms?
a. By decreasing sympathetic outflow
b. By vasodilation & decreasing TPR
c. By decreasing cardiac output
d. By depressing baroreceptor reflex
e. By decreasing release of rennin
181. To terminate an attackof PSVT the duty doctor on cardiac bay of HFH
administered rapid I /V bolus of a drug.The most likely drug given to this patient is
a. Propranalol
b. Adenosine
c. Lignocaine
d. Procainamide
e. Amiodarone
182. A sixty year-old woman, who has smoked since she was 16 years old, complains
of shortness of breath, flutter in her chest, and a heart rate of 160 with an irregularly
irregular heart rhythm. You conclude that she has atrial fibrillation - induced congestive
heart failure. You decide to initiate monotherapy using:
a. Propranolol
b. Verapamil
c. Quinidine
d. Digoxin
e. Adenosine
183. A hypertensive patient develops diabetes. Which of the following
antihypertensive drugs is to be used with extra caution and advice to the patient?
a) Prazosin
b) Guanethedine
c) Methyldopa
d) Propanolol
e) Captopril
 184. A patient is suffering from repeated episodes of variant angina. Which of the
following drugs is considered to be most effective in relieving and preventing these
ischemic episodes?
a) Propranolol
b) Nitroglycerine
c) Nicorandil
d) Lisinopril
e) Verapamil
185. A patient is having resistant ventricular arrhythmia that has failed to respond to
treatment. Finally he is treated with a drug that causes corneal micro-deposits and a half-
life of months. Most likely the drug is:
a. Bretylium
b. Quinidine
c. Flecainide
d. Amiodarone
e. Procainamide
186. A patient receiving an antihypertensive drug developes depression&
extrapyramidal symptoms due to adverse effect of that drug. Which of the following
drugs could it be?
a. Propranolol
b. Methyldopa
c. Diazoxide
d. Guanethidine
e. Clonidine
187. The most useful diuretic in the treatment of recurrent calcium stones is:
a. Furosemide
b. Spironolactone
c. Hydrochlorothiazide
d. Acetazolamide
e. Mannitol
a. Acetazolamide
188. All of the following drugs increase myocardial contractility but only one drug
increases the efficiency of Myocardium. Which one it could be?
a. Adrenaline
b. Dobutamine
c. Digoxin
d. Isoprenaline
e. Ephedrine
189. Sodium nitroprusside is used for treatment of hypertensive emergencies &
urgencies, but it has the risk of cyanide toxicity if the rate of infusion is more than 1.5
mcg/kg/min. This toxicity can be prevented by administration of which of the following
drugs?
a) Amyl Nitrite
b) Sodium Nitrite
c) Nitroglycerine
d) Sodium Thiosulphate
190. A hypertensive male of 40 years is prescribed Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor to
control his BP. Which of the following expected adverse effect wil be explained to the
patient?
a) Dry irritating cough
b) Hypotension
c) Reflex tachycardia
d) Impairment of taste sensation
e) Renal damage
191. Increased sympathetic activity directly by stimulating beta-1 receptors and
indirectly by increasing angiotensin-ii brings harmful trophic and remodeling changes in
myocardium. Which of the following drugs can effectively prevent these trophic changes
induced by Angiotensin-ii?
a) Valsartan
b) Captopril
c) Verapamil
d) Carvedilol
e) Metoprolol
192. After a road side accident a patient had severe head injury. He was rushed to
emergency department where it was found that patient is comatose and there are signs of
raised intracranial pressure. He is administered a diuretic drug by fast i/v infusion.
Which of the following drugs it could be?
a) Hydrochlorothiazide
b) Acetazolamide
c) Mannitol
d) Spironolactone
e) Amiloride
193. A patient who has a history of getting sick at high altitudes is planning a trip with
his friends to Murree. Which drug should he take for prophylaxis?
a) Ethacrynic acid
b) Spironolactone
c) Indapamide
d) Acetazolamide
e) Chlorthalidone
194. A 58-year man with CCF requires therapy with hydrochlorothiazide. His monthly
serum chemistry profile shows persistent hypokalemia. The most appropriate next step is
to add which of the following diuretics to his regimen?
a. Acetazolamide
b. Amiloride
c. Frusemide
d. Mannitol
e. Metolazone
195. A patient is given an anti-hyperlipidemic agent that reduces circulating
cholesterol levels by binding to bile acids in the gut. Which one of the following is it?
a. Clofibrate
b. Lovastatin
c. Gemfibrozil
d. Cholestyramine
e. Niacin
196. Which of the following is unlikely to be a Low Molecular Wt Heparin?
a. Enoxaparin
b. Dalteparin
c. Tinzaparin
d. Danaproid
e. Fondaperinux
197. The therapeutic rationale for using sublingual nitroglycerin in the treatment of
angina is based upon which principle?
a) Nitrates increase heart rate, and increase cardiac oxygen demand
b) Nitrates decrease heart rate and decrease cardiac oxygen demand
c) Nitrates increase preload and decrease cardiac oxygen demand
d) Nitrates decrease preload and decrease cardiac oxygen demand
e) Nitrates decrease preload but increase cardiac oxygen demand
198. Heparin overdose is treated with which of the following?
a. Heparan sulphate
b. Dextran
c. Protamine SO4
d. Vitamin K
e. Warfarin
199. Aspirin prolongs bleeding time by synthesizing which of the following:
a. Clotting factors VIII & IX
b. Prostacyclin in vascular endothelium
c. Cyclic AMP in platelets
d. Factor II, VII, IX & X
Thromboxane A2 in platelet
 200. A patient is on antiplatelet therapy for last 6 months. Without taking history
which of these conditions is least likely for this patient to have:
a. Secondary prophylaxis of MI
b. Unstable angina pectoris
c. Disseminated i/vascular coag
d. Stroke prevention in TIA
e. Prophylaxis of stable angina
201. A 65 years old male is prescribed HMG Co-A reductase inhibitor. What is a rare
but characteristic adverse effect he is likely to develop?
a. Oncolysis
b. Myopathy
c. Alopecia
d. Ocular syndrome
e. Neutropenia
202. A patient has severe diabetic gastroparesis and gastroesophageal reflux and he
needs r relief of his symptoms. Which drug would be most suitable for him?
a. Dronabinol
b. Loperamide
c. Pirenzepine
d. Metoclopramide
e. Ondansetron
203. A patient who has liver cirrhosis due to chronic hepatitis C viral infection presents
with hepatic encephalopathy. Which one of the following drugs would be most suitable
for the relief of signs and symptoms of this condition & which has replaced Neomycin
a. Diphenoxylate
b. Omeprazole
c. Lactulose
d. Loperamide
e. Ondansetron
204. A 35 year old female treated for bronchial asthma develops skeletal muscle
tremors and tachycardia that are drug-induced. Which one of the following drugs was he
administered?
a. Albuterol
b. Beclomethasone
c. Cromolyn
d. Ipratropium
e. Montelukast
205. A patient with status asthmaticus presents to the emergency department. He has
severe respiratory acidosis and hypoxia. Beta 2 agonists have failed to improve his
condition. Which one of the following drugs is most likely added to improve the acute
symptoms
 a. Inhaled cromolyn sodium
b. Add parenteral antihistamine
c. Add parenteral corticosteroid
d. Switch to Aminophylline
e. Switch to isoprenaline
206. A woman presented to OPD with pain in calf for past 6 hours, you advise
doppler ultrasound of lower leg which confirms deep venous thrombosis. Which of the
following will you prescribe considering patient is 30 week pregnant?
a. Tirofiban
b. Warfarin
c. Clopidogrel
d. Enoxaparin
e. Aminocarproic acid
207. A patient receiving unfractionated heparin has recently developed
thrombocytopenia. Which of following should he receive now for anticoagulation?
a. Lepirudin
b. Enoxaparin
c. Vitamin K
d. Aspirin
e. Streptokinase
208. A 70 years old recently suffered an ischemic stroke. To prevent recurrence he will
most likely receive for a prolonged period?
a. Ateplase
b. Streptokinase
c. Enoxaparin
d. Lepirudin
e. Aspirin
209. Clopidogrel, an ADP receptor antagonist is now preferred over ticlopidine
because:
a. Less likely to cause leukopenia
b. Slower onset of action
c. Higher dose is necessary
d. Less likely to cause resistance
e. Its effect is not dose dependent
210. Which one of following increase cAMP in platelets and inhibit their aggregation
by altering levels of TxA2 or prostacyclin.
a. Aspirin
b. Sulfinoyrazone
c. Dipyridamole
d. Abciximab
e. Warfarin
 211. The drug required in a patient of megaloblastic anemia is:
a. Folic acid
b. Iron sulphate
c. Erythropoietir
d. Vitamin B12
e. Folic acid
212. Recombinant human erythropoietin is indicated for:
a. Megablastic anemia
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Anemia in patient of thalassemia
d. Anemia in chronic renal failure paitent
e. Peruicious anemia
213. Choose the anti ulcer drug that inhibits gastric acid secretion, stimulates gastric
mucus and bicarbonate secretion and has cyto-protective action on gastric mucosa:
a. Misoprostol
b. Sucralfate
c. Carbenoxolone
d. Bismuth subcitrate
e. Esomeprazole
214. A 61 year old chain smoker develops lung cancer for which he is given anti-
cancer drugs. He is having severe nauseating feeling and vomiting. Which one of the
following drugs would be most suitable for these bothersome adverse effects?
a. Metoclopramide
b. Meclizine
c. Ondansetron
d. Atropine
e. Chlorpromazine
215. As a gastroenterologist, a pt of atrial fibrillation taking warfarin comes to you
with symptoms of dyspepsia with burning pain in epigastrium. You prescribe an anti-
ulcer drug. After a few hours you receive a call from his cardiologist that the pt has been
admitted for warfarin toxicity. Which anti-ulcer drug did you negligibly prescribed to
him?
a. Omeprazole
b. Pirenzepine
c. Cimetidine
d. Famotidine
e. Sucralfate
216. Which one of the following combinations would be most effective in the
treatment of peptic ulcer?
a. Antacid plus bismuth plus Ranitidine
b. Bismuth plus Tetracycline plus Metoclopramide
 c. Metronidazole plus clarithromycin plus omeprazole
d. Bismuth plus omeprazole plus Ranitidine
e. Antacid plus H2 Receptor Blocker plus Sucralfate
217. Drugs which can control maximal electro shock seizures in animal models, are
useful in which type of epilepsy or movement disorders in human beings:
a. Genaralized Tonic clonic seizures
b. Simple partial seizures
c. Absence seizures
d. Infantile spasms
e. Parkinsonism
218. Which of the following drug is useful in cataplexy associated with norcolepsy:
a. Imipramine
b. Duloxetine
c. Venlafaxine
d. Trazodone
e. Modafinil
219. School Phobias and attention deficit hyper kinetic disorders (ADHD) in children
can be treated with which of the following drugs?
a. Imipramine & Amitriptylline
b. Doxipin & Clonidine
c. Isocarboxazid & Nialamide
d. Dexamphetamine & Clozapine
e. Atomoxetine & Dexamphetamine
210. Neuropathic pain like fibromyalgia does not respond to ordinary analgesic drugs.
It can respond to which of the following:
a. Duloxetine
b. Moclobemide
c. Phenelzine
d. Nortiptylline
e. Nafazodone
211. SSRIs are preferred over tricyclic antidepressants because of:
a. More efficacy
b. Most cost effectiveness
c. Better side effects profile
d. Lack of sexual dysfunction
e. More potency
212. Which of the following drugs have a broad spectrum of activity & are useful in
premenstrual dysphoric disorders, Autism, premature ejaculation, compulsive bying &
a cluster of anxiety disorders:
a. Bupropion & Nafazodone
b. Venlafaxine & Amoxapine
 c. Clomipramine & Desipramine
d. Maprotiline & Bupropion
e. Fluxotine & Sertraline
213. Serotonin syndrome is a life threatening interaction as a consequence of co-
administration of which of the following:
a. SSRIs & MAOIs
b. TCAs & MAOIs
c. SNRIs + MAOIs
d. Mitrazepine & TCAs
e. Mitrazepine & 5HT2 Blockers

215. This is a gaseous general anesthetic that is a halogenated ether with little negative
effect on cardiovascular function:
a) Halothane
b) Isoflurane
c) Nitrous oxide
d) Tubocurarine
e) Ketamine
216. A 65-year-old male who complains of anxiety and depression since his recent
retirement and the recent death of his wife. He is currently taking an anticoagulant
medication (warfarin), which is extensively metabolized by P450 enzymes. What is the
best drug to prescribe for his current symptoms?
a) Alprazolam
b) Zolpidem
c) Pentobarbital
d) Baclofen
e) Triazolam
217. A full term primigravida is requesting for painless delivery. You would give her
a. I/V Thiopental
b. Spinal Anesthesia
c. Bier’s Block
d. Epidural Anesthesia
e. Nitrous Oxide
218. Which of the following is a short acting non-barbiturate anaesthetic that produces
dissociative anesthesia?
a. Halothane
b. Nitrous Oxide
c. Ketamine
d. Fentanyl
e. Thiopentone
 219. A patient is taking a neuroleptic drug that does not cause tardive dyskinesia, but
produces an alteration in the peripheral white cell count. Which of the following is it
most likely to be?
a. Clozapine
b. Haloperidol
c. Chlorpromazine
d. Imipramine
e. Resperidone
220. Your epileptic patient, who has grand-mal seizures, now seems to have an
occasional absence seizure and wants them controlled. You prescribe:
a. Carbamazepine
b. Valproate
c. Phenobarbitone
d. Phenytoin
e. Vigabatrin
221. Which one of the following drugs has established clinical uses that include
attention deficit hyperkinetic disorder, enuresis, and chronic pain?
a. Bupropion
b. Fluvoxamine
c. Imipramine
d. Phenelzine
e. Selegiline
222. A 65-year-old man has episodes of sudden repeated lightening bursts of pain
involving the upper part of the left side of his face. The pain is excruciating, with each
burst lasting a few seconds. Which one of the following is the drug of choice for the
above condition?
a. Phenobarbitone
b. Phenytoin
c. Carbamazepine
d. Opioid analgesic
e. NSAID
223. A 50-year-old patient with Parkinsonism presents with swollen feet. They are red,
tender and very painful. These symptoms would abate within a few days if the patient
stops taking:
a. Amantadine
b. Benztropine
c. Bromocriptine
d. Levodopa
e. Selegiline
224. Which one of the following patient characteristics is the most compelling reason
for avoiding the use of celecoxib in the treatment of arthritis?
 a. History of alcohol abuse
b. History of gout
c. History of myocardial infarction
d. History of osteoporosis
e. History of peptic ulcer
225. A patient develops muscle rigidity and hyperpyrexia after being administered a
general anesthetic and a muscle relaxant intraoperatively. Which one of the following
General Anesthetics was he most likely administered?
a. Halothane
b. Nitrous Oxide
c. Isoflurane
d. Ketamine
e. Fentanyl
226. Minimal cardiovascular and respiratory depression is the unique property of
which one of the following anesthetic
a) Ketamine
b) Midazolam
c) Fentanyl
d) Thiopental
e) Etomidate
227. A chronic smoker has been convinced to quit smoking. The drug which helps
quitting & reduce craving is
a. Citalopram
b. Bupropion
c. Buspirone
d. Atomoxetine
e. Duloxetine
228. You are on a picnic and you suddenly develop diarrhea. If you stop at a nearby
drug store for an over-the-counter opioid with anti-diarrheal action, you will be asking
for:
a. Diphenoxylate
b. Codeine
c. Dextromethorphan
d. Morphine
e. Nalbuphine
229. A patient often develops symptoms ranging from acute abdominal pain to seizures
due to a defect in the physiological system in his body to metabolize heme. After being
given a drug for another concomitant disease he develops the above symptoms again.
Which of the following drugs was he given
a. Valproric acid
b. Ethosuximide
 c. Gabapentin
d. Phenobarbitone
e. Carbamazepine
230. A patient has taken some medicine for suicidal intension. Person is in coma,
respiration is shallow; blood pressure is low and pupils are dilated. Which of the
following drug would confirm the diagnosis and further planning of treatment
a. Flumazenil
b. Lorazepam
c. Naloxone
d. Dopamine
e. Disulfiram
231. Shabbana of 30 years age was a diagnosed case of major depressive disorder was
on amitriptyline. She was brought to ER after ingesting 40 times the normal daily
therapeutic dose of amitriptyline. Which of the following signs & symptoms is unlikely
to be observed?
a. Acidosis
b. Coma and shock
c. Hot dry skin
d. Hypotension
e. Pinpoint pupils
232. The usual cardiovascular effects of levodopa is:
a. Bradycardia due to increased vagal tone
b. Rise in blood pressure due to increased non aclrenaline content of adrenergic
nerve endings
c. Fall in B.P due to decreased sympathetic tone
d. Both A & B are correct
e. Bradycardia due to decrease vagal tone
233. Select the drug that antagonises diazepam action non competively:
a. Adenosine
b. Flumazenil
c. Bicuculline
d. Valproic acid
e. Baclofen
234. A 55-year-old female who is taking Propranolol for the management of
cardiovascular disease experiences an acute asthmatic attack. Which of the following
would you prescribe to attenuate this asthmatic attack?
a) Cromolyn Sodium
b) Salbutamol
c) Beclomethasone
d) Ipratropium Bromide
e) A leukotriene receptor agonist
235. A 60 year old man presents with a swollen painful first metatarsophalangeal joint
that is warm to the touch. His serum uric acid level is 12 mg/dl under the microscope, an
aspirate from the joint is seen to contain needle-shaped negative birefringent
crystals.which of the following is unlikely to be useful but rather harmful in this patient?
a. Naproxen
b. Sulindac
c. Allopurinol
d. Probenecid
e. Aspirin in low doses
236. Which of the following effects might be observed in a patient who is accidentally
given an overdose of histamine while being tested for achlorhydria?
a. Severe localized blanching of the skin
b. Bronchoconstriction
c. Relaxation of GIT smooth muscle
d. Gastric acid suppression
e. Decrease in Blood Pressure
237. Which of the following enzymes is responsible for ultimate formation of uric
acid, which contributes to hyperuricemia and the pathophysiology of chronic and acute
gout?
a. 5-lipoxygenase
b. Cyclooxygenase I
c. Cyclooxygenase II
d. Phospholipase
e. Xanthine oxidase
236. A 50 year old women with a history of peptic ulcer disease is suffering from early
stages of Rheumatoid arthritis. She may be better managed with:
a. Penicillamine
b. Methotrexate
c. Omeprazole
d. Celecoxib
e. Indomethacin
239. The analgesic action of aspirin can be best described as:
a. Inhibiting phagocytosis process
b. Promoting synthesis of PGE2
c. Decreasing synthesis of PGE2
d. Inhibiting release of mediators in hypothalamus
e. None of the above
240. A patient presents to ER with acute acitomenaphen poisoning can be best treated
with the following antidote:
a. Activated charcoal
b. N-acetylcysteine
 c. Milk of magnesia
d. Protamine sulfate
e. Vitamin K
241. Morphine is contraindicated in head injury because:
a. It doesnot relieve the pain of the head injury
b. It causes constipation
c. It can cause malignant hyperthermia
d. It is liable to cause addiction
e. It can raise the intra-cranial pressure
242. Analgesic which acts through opioids as well as spinal monoaminergic
mechanism:
a. Tramadol
b. Ethoeptazine
c. Dextropropoxyphene
d. Aspirin
e. Alfentanil
243. Which of the following agents should be considered for prophylactic
administration in a patient Who is positive for HIV ?
a. Ganciclovir
b. Abacavir
c. Human interferon
d. Pentamidine
e. Rubella Vaccine
244. This antibiotic causes a false reading of the messenger and consequently a false
protein may be produced. The drug is:
a. Streptomycin
b. Erythromycin
c. Clindamycin
d. Azithromycin
e. Minocycline
245. The most important reason for using a combination of chemotherapeutic agents in
the treatment of tuberculosis is:
a. To prevent development of resistance
b. To obtain an absolute bactericidal effect
c. To broaden the spectrum of activity
d. To reduce adverse effects of the drugs
e. To prevent the relapse of tuberculosis
246. Which of the following drugs is suitable for treatment of malaria during
pregnancy.
a. Quinine
b. Chloroquine
 c. Pyrimethamine
d. Primaquine
e. Artesunate
247. In addition to amebiasis, metronidazole is used for.
a. Round worm infestation
b. Hook worm infestation
c. Kala-azar fever
d. Giardiasis
e. Anaerobic infections
248. A child of 6 year old presents to you in OPD with teeth discoloration. The parents
give history of antibiotic use which was prescribed by a quack. Which antibiotic is likely
to be cause of this discoloration?
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Tetracycline
d. Ampicillin
e. Erythromycin
249. Administration with dairy products or other drugs and food products that contain
calcium, magnesium, and aluminum, reduce the absorption of which of the following
drugs?
a. Netilmicin
b. Tetracycline
c. Clindamycin
d. Spectinomycin
e. Tobramycin
250. A diabetic patient presents with cough, haemoptysis, and a single shaking chill.
His temperature is 101F, and a chest x-ray demonstrates lobar pneumonia. Gram staining
reveals gram positive diplococci. Correct therapy would be to administer which of the
following?
a. Gentamicin
b. Penicillin G
c. Ampicillin
d. Ciprofloxacin
e. Carbenicillin
251. Mr. Naseer 70 years old man complains of cough for the last 2 days. His
temperature was 103O F. physical examination reveals rales in his right lungs and X-ray
examination shows increased density in the right middle lobe. A sputum smear show
gram positive cocci. Sputum culture shows penicillinase producing staphylococcus.
Which of the following antibiotic would be best to administer?
a. Ampicillin
b. Carbencillin
 c. Mezlocillin
d. Oxacillin
e. Ticarcillin
252. A six months old child was brought to emergency department with history of
ingestion of some drug. That drug was prescribed to his father for treatment of certain
infection. The child presented with vomiting and diarrhea with green stools. He was
lethargic with an ashen color. Other signs and symptoms include hypothermia,
hypotension and abdominal distension. The drug most likely to be the cause of this
problem is:
b. Doxycycline
c. Ampicillin
d. Clindamycin
e. Chloramphenicol
f. Erythromycin
253. Fluoroquinolone are extremely well tolerated. In some patients they may cause
tendinitis. One of the fluoroquinolones has restricted used because it is associated with
acute hepatitis and hepatic failure. Which one of the following drug is most likely to
have this adverse effect?
a. Ofloxacin
b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Trovafloxacin
d. Enoxacin
e. Moxifloxacin
254. Which of the fluoroquinolones prolong the QTc interval. These agents should be
avoided or used with caution in patient with known prolong QTc interval. Which one of
the following drugs is least likely to have this adverse effects ?
a. Gatifloxacin
b. Levofloxacin
c. Sparfloxacin
d. Ciprofloxacin
e. Moxifloxacin
255. A man developed bleeding that required a reduction in her warfarin dose while
being treated for a gallbladder infection. Which antibiotic was most likely responsible for
this drug interaction?
a. Aztreonam
b. Ertapenem
c. Cefotetan
d. Cefotaxime
e. Piperacillin-trazobactam
256. A 37 year old male is having repeated episodes of fever with chills with blood
smear positive for malarial parasite (Plasmodium Vivax) since last one year. He was
given chloroquine each time & the fever used to subside. Which of the following drugs
should be followed by chloroquine this time to prevent these relapses?
a. Artemether
b. Mefloquine
c. Malarone
d. Primaquine
e. Halofantrine
257. There has been a severe outbreak of epidemic of influenza virus in your city. A
drug is administered prophylactically to most of the population that inhibits viral
penetration and uncoating. Which one of the following drugs was administered?
a. Acylovir
b. Ganciclovir
c. Amantadine
d. Saquinavir
e. Zidovudine
258. A 48-year-old white female complains of progressive weakness, lethargy, and
cold intolerance. She also complains of weight gain, coarsening of her facial features,
hair loss, and increasing hoarseness in her voice. T3 and T4 are low, and thyroid-
stimulating hormone (TSH) is high. What drug treatment is most appropriate?
a. Potassium Iodide
b. Liotrix
c. Levothyroxine
d. Tri-iodotyrosine
e. Methimazole
259. Which of the following is unlikely to be a complications of over treatment with
thyroxine?
a. Atrial fibrillation
b. Angina pectoris
c. Congestive heart failure
d. Cardiac arrhythmias
e. Accelerated atheroselerosis
260. A 12 year old boy frequently experiences severe asthma attacks and becomes
cyanosed, dyspnoeic and breathless. Which one of the following can prevent these
attacks?
a. Ipratropium
b. Cromolyn Sodium
c. Epinephrine
d. Ephedrine
e. Atropine
 261. Aminophylline when used intravenously in acute attack of bronchial asthma or
status asthmaticus, it should be well diluted and given very slowly to minimize the risk
of:-
a. Convulsions
b. Ventricular fibrillation
c. Increased acid secretion
d. CNS stimulation
e. Excessive vasodilatation
262. Zileuton is useful in the treatment of asthma because it:
a. Inhibits prostaglandin biosynthesis
b. Inhibits leukotriene synthesis
c. Inhibits leukotriene receptors
d. Inhibits 12-lipoxygenase
263. Insulin secretagogues are used for the treatment of type-2 diabetes.
Sulphonylureas is one suh group pf drugs but they are sulphonamide derivatives and are
contraindicated in sulpha allergic patients. Which of the following drugs can be used in
patients with sulfonamide hypersensitivity:
a. Repaglinide
b. Glyburide
c. Tolbutamide
d. Chlorpropamide
e. Glimiperide
264. A 55 years obese lady is reluctant to start oral treatment for her newly diagnosed
disease “ DM” as she herd that these drugs may induce weight gain. The doctor prefers
the following drug for this lady and re-assures her that this drug does not induce weight
gain:
a. Glimipiride
b. Tolbutamide
c. Repaglinide
d. Metformin
e. Pioglitazone

265. Mrs Arshad was under treatment for thyrotoxicosis meanwhile she missed her
periods, pregnancy test was advised by her physician, the test was positive. What is your
choice to treat thyrotoxicosis in this situation.
a. Thyroio-Desiccated
b. Propythiouracil
c. Liothyroxine
d. Liothyroxine
e. Liotrix
266. Mrs. H. Clinton is prescribed zafirlukast for her long term asthma control.
Mechanism of anti-asthmatic action of this drug is:
a. Increased release of corticosteroids from adrenal cortex
b. Augmentation of effect of beta-2 agonists
c. Inhibition of 5-lipo-oxygcnase
d. Blockade of Leukotrienereceptors
e. Stabilization of cell by opening of potassium channels
267. 5. A 50 year old female is diagnosed with type II diabetes mellitus. She is put on
antidiabetic therapy. The drugs prescribed is to be given to the patient 15 minutes before
a meal? but no more than 30 minutes. Which one it could be?
a. Glipizide
b. Meglitinide
c. Pioglitazone
d. Metformin
e. Acarbose
268. Which of the following drugs increase uptake of glucose in muscle and decrease
glucose production in the liver?
a. Meglitinides
b. Thiazolodinediones
c. Sulphonylureas
d. Incretin analogues
e. Biguanides
269. Insulin is used for the control of glucose metabolism in the body and regulation of
blood glucose levels. Which of these is not an insulin target tissue?
a. Fat
b. Liver
c. Brain
d. Muscle
e. Blood
270. A 60 years old diabetic patient has a history of alcoholism. Metformin should be
given with caution in such patient because it increase the risk of:
a. Disulfiram like reaction
b. Excessive weight gain
c. Hypoglycemia
a. Lactic acidosis
e. Serious hepatoxicity
271. A woman is at risk of pre-term labor. Which of the following will you administer
to accelerate fetal lung maturation?
a. Betamethasone
b. Mifepristone
c. Temoxifen
 d. Predinosone
e. Sprinolactone
272. A 45 years old patient was taking predinosolone for the last 4 years. Now he has
suffered from fracture of femur. How does glucocorticoid therapy cause osteoporosis:
a. Increase excretion of Ca++
b. By decreasing the bone formation
c. Stimulate hypothalamo pituitary adrenal axis
d. Decrease production of prostaglandins
e. Decrease collagen synthesis in the body

273. A 45 year old female patient complains of hot flushes feelings of weakness and
increased appetite. On examination she is tachycardic and has prominent pulse pressure.
Anti-TSH antibodies are positive. Which of the following would be most appropriate
treatment for this patient?
a. Methimazole
b. Liotrix
c. Thyrotropin
d. Dessicated thyroid
e. Radioactive iodine