CONTENTS

(A) POLITY & GOVERNANCE................................................1 ¾ Future Prospect - India and Poland

Defence Cooperation.......................................................29
Sub Classification of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes....1
‘2+2’ Dailogue between India and Japan ................................30
The State of Infrastructure in District Courts............................2
¾ Strengthening India-Japan Strategic Partnership
Article 311 of The Indian Constitution.......................................3 in the IndoPacific.............................................................30

¾ Drug issue in J&K..............................................................4 India - Vietnam Relations ..........................................................31

The WAQF (Amendment) Bill, 2024...........................................4 ASEAN-INDIA Trade in Goods Agreement ..........................32
Lateral Entry in The Indian Civil Services.................................6 India - Maldives Relations ........................................................33
¾ History of Lateral Entry in India.....................................6
India-Australia Maritime Security Dialogue .........................33
Guidelines to Enhance Safety & Equity in Newsrooms..........7 ¾ Indo-Pacific Ocean Initiative (IPOI)..............................34
The Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak Bill 2024...............................8 United Nations Framework Convention on International
The Delimitation Commission....................................................9 Tax Cooperation .........................................................................35

The Uniform Civil Code.............................................................10 Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity ................35

Senior Advocate of The Supreme Court of India....................11 United Nation Treaty on Cybercrime ......................................36

Aldermen to The Municipal Corporation of Delhi................12 ¾ Budapest Convention on Cybercrime...........................36

Sanction to Prosecute a Public Servant....................................13
(C) ECONOMY & AGRICULTURE.......................................37
The National Commission for Allied, Healthcare
Role of Bio-Economy in 21st Century .....................................37
Professions Act 2021...................................................................14
¾ Global BioIndia 2024.......................................................37
Drive to Popularise The Constitution of India.......................15
Women Entrepreneurship Program ........................................39
¾ Legal Literacy and Awareness.......................................15
Development of Exportoriented Horticulture Clusters.........41
The Competition Commission of India...................................16
Krishi-Decision Support System ..............................................42
Guidelines for Handling Public Grievances...........................17
¾ Application of Space Technology in Agriculture.........42
Ruling on SC/ST Protection Law..............................................17
National High Speed Road Corridor ......................................43
(B) INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS.....................................19
The Economic Survey (2023-24) on Foreign Direct
India-Bangladesh Relations.......................................................19 Investment ..................................................................................44

The Third Voice of Global South Summit 2024.......................21 Rise in Direct Tax Collections for Assessment Year 2024-25 ....46

United Nation Security Council................................................22 ¾ About Central Board of Direct Taxes............................46

India-Malaysia Relations ..........................................................24 Deceptive Dark Patterns ...........................................................47

75th Anniversary of The Geneva Conventions ......................25 The Oilfields (Regulation and Development)

Indian Diaspora in U.S.A. .........................................................27 Amendment Bill, 2024 ...............................................................48

Middle East Crisis ......................................................................27 Agriculture and Allied Sector ...................................................49

India - Poland Strategic Partnership .......................................29 Long Term Capital Gains Tax ...................................................50

 I
The Non-Debt Instrument Rules ..............................................51 Smart Laboratory on Clean Rivers ...........................................76

Regional Rural Banks ................................................................52 ¾ About Varuna River.........................................................76

The Banking Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024 ...........................53 (E) SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY............................................77

Revised NPAs Norms for Cooperative Banks ........................53 Private Sector Participation in Space .......................................77

Bio-Bitumen Mixing Policy .......................................................54 NSIL to Launch Nepal-Built Munal Satellite .........................79

Tantalum as Critical and Strategic Mineral ............................55 ¾ What is Space Diplomacy?.............................................79

Housing Finance Companies ...................................................56 Human Space Flight ..................................................................81

(D) ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY.................................57 National Quantum Mission ......................................................82

¾ About Quantum Computing.........................................82

The Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024..............57
Guidelines for Transportation of Live Human Organs ........83
Technology Driven Disaster Management .............................58
¾ The Transplantation of Human Organs & Tissues
¾ Role of technology in Disaster Management and
Act (THOTA), 1994..........................................................84
Risk Reduction.................................................................58

¾ India’s Technological Integration for Disaster Messenger Ribonucleic Acid (mRNA) Vaccine .....................84
Management:...................................................................60 The Case Study- Gene Editing Pesticides ...............................86
The Western Ghats Ecosensitive Area Notification................60 Bio-e3 (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment and
Sea Level Rise .............................................................................62 Employment) Policy ..................................................................87
Increase in Global Methane Emission .....................................63 Vigyan Dhara Scheme ...............................................................87
¾ Key Highlights of the Global Methane Tracker 2024..63 Genome Editing .........................................................................88
Atmospheric Rivers ...................................................................64 Kakrapar Atomic Power Station ..............................................89
Ground-Level Ozone Pollution ................................................65 ¾ Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited
(NPCIL) ............................................................................89
Guru Ghasidas Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve ..........................66
¾ Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB)...................89
New Ramsar Sites Notified .......................................................67
Liquid Water in the Martian Mid-Crust ..................................90
Glacial Lake Outburst Floods ...................................................68
Solar Paraboloid Technology ....................................................90
Thawing Permafrost in Arctic ..................................................69

¾ Minamata Convention on Mercury...............................70 (F) DEFENCE & SECURITY.....................................................91

Chemical Disaster in Andhra Pradesh ....................................70 Directed Energy Weapons .........................................................91

Gate of Tungabhadra Dam Collapsed .....................................71 A Joint Military Exercises in The South China Sea ................93

¾ How is Dam safety governed in India?........................72 ¾ UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)....95

Restoration of Banni Grasslands ..............................................73 Left Wing Extremism .................................................................95

Cloudbusts in Himachal Pradesh ............................................73 Tribo-Electric Nanogenerator (TENG) Technology ...............96

Biofortified Varieties of Crops ..................................................74 India - USA Defence Supply Pact ............................................97

¾ Lab-to-Land Programme................................................75 ¾ India - USA Defence Cooperation Milestones.............97

Gross Environmental Product Index .......................................75 NAVAL Nuclear Propulsion Agreement ................................98

II 
Exercise TARANG Shakti .........................................................98 Pradhan Mantri Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana ....................121

Exercise MITRA Shakti .............................................................99 ¾ Advantages of Grid-Connected Rooftop Solar

System.............................................................................121
Exercise PARVAT PRAHAR .....................................................99
Jal Jeevan Mission ....................................................................121
(G) SOCIAL ISSUES...............................................................101
Namami Gange Mission 2.0 ...................................................122
Case Study- Water Tanker Economy .....................................101
Mission Karmayogi .................................................................123
¾ Water Tank Economy & Sustainability.......................102 Unified Pension Scheme .........................................................123
Case Study - Care Ecosystem .................................................103 ¾ Old Pension Scheme (OPS)..........................................124

Public Health Emergency of International Concern ...........104 ¾ National Pension Scheme (NPS).................................124

Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups ..................................105 Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana ..........................................124

¾ Juanga tribe of India......................................................106 ¾ Financial Inclusion Index.............................................125

Violation of Human Rights .....................................................107 Namo Drone Didi Scheme ......................................................125

Traditional Medicine Centre ..................................................108 New India Literacy Programme .............................................125

Model Guidelines for Foster Care .........................................109 ¾ State of Illiteracy in India.............................................126

¾ Nurturing Futures: The Benefits of Foster Care Amrit Bharat Station Scheme .................................................126
for Everyone...................................................................109
Lakhpati Didi Yojana ...............................................................127
Healthcare Workers .................................................................110
(J) REPORTS ............................................................................129
Minimum Marriage Age for Girls .........................................110
Digital Public Infrastructure ...................................................129
(H) HISTROY & CULTURE ..................................................112
National Clean Air Programme .............................................130
Kartarpur Sahib Corridor .......................................................112
Impact of Climate Change on Marginal Farmers Report ...131
¾ India-Pakistan Cultural Ties........................................112
IMF Working Paper .................................................................132
Ratna Bhandar of Puri Jagannath Temple ............................113
India’s Energy Storage Landscape’ Report ......................... 133
Humayun’s Tomb World Heritage Site Museum ................114
Report on Currency & Finance ...............................................134
¾ About Humayun's Tomb..............................................115
State of The World’s Forest Report ........................................134
Classical Languages in India ..................................................115
Report on Rosewood Tree Species .........................................135
Underwater Structures in The Indian Ocean .......................116
¾ Convention on International Trade in
¾ National Centre for Polar and Ocean
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora...........135
Research (NCPOR)........................................................117
Annual Survey of Unincorporated Enterprises in India ....136
National Culture Fund ............................................................117
Signal Spotlight Report ...........................................................136
(I) GOVERNMENT SCHEMES ............................................119
(K) PERSONALITIES IN NEWS .........................................137
Pradhan Mantri Ji-Van Yojana ................................................119
Sri Aurobindo Ghose ...............................................................137
¾ Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme ...............119
Lokmanya Tilak .......................................................................137
Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urjasuraksha Evam Utthaan
Mahabhiyan ..............................................................................119 Shivaram Rajguru ....................................................................138

 III
Yamini Krishnamurthy ...........................................................139 (O) ARTICLE FROM ECONOMIC & POLITICAL
Raghoji Bhangre .......................................................................139 WEEKLY............................................................................. 149

Ram Narain Agarwal ..............................................................140 Violence against Women in India ..........................................149

¾ Integrated Guided Missile Development Judicial Discipline and Judicial Authority ...........................150
Programme (IGMDP) ...................................................140
(P) QUICK REVISION ...........................................................151
Sree Narayana Guru ................................................................141
Important Days in August ......................................................151
(L) ARTICLE FROM YOJANA ( AUGUST 2024 ) .............142
Obituaries in News ..................................................................153
Cellular Jail – The Saga of Resistance ...................................142
Awards and Prizes ...................................................................153
Untold Stories of Freedom Struggle from Northeast India. ..143
Important Summits in News ..................................................154
(M) ARTICLE FROM KURUKSHETRA ............................145
Important Terms in News .......................................................155
E-Learning: From Classrooms to Screens: Future of
Learning with Digital Education ...........................................145 (Q) AUGUST-DAILY MCQS FROM THE HINDU &
INDIAN EXPRESS...........................................................156
(N) ARTICLE FROM DOWN TO EARTH .........................147

Minimum Support Price .........................................................147 Daily MCQs Practice ...............................................................156

Different Consensus on Climate Change ..............................147 Answer Key ..............................................................................167

¾ How Climate Change is impacting India’s Youth....148 Daily Mains Answer Writing Practice ..................................168

IV 
 SECTION

A POLITY & GOVERNANCE

on the basis of the practice of untouchability, and after

SUB CLASSIFICATION OF the 1911 Census, they became a constitutional category in
SCHEDULED CASTES AND the Government of India Act, 1935. This continued in the
SCHEDULED TRIBES Constitution of India and Presidential Orders on the basis
of the 1931 Census listing.
Why in News: Recently, the Supreme Court of India has
allowed states to sub-classify Scheduled Castes(SCs)/ Significance of Sub-classification of SCs and STs
Scheduled Tribes for quotas to provide substantive equality. • 
Addressing Intra-Group Inequities: Within the broad
categories of SCs and STs, there are often significant disparities
Key Details
in socio-economic status. Subclassification allows for more
• A seven-judge bench, in a 6:1 order, overruled a 2005 equitable distribution of benefits by ensuring that the most
five-judge bench verdict in the E.V. Chinnaiah case that disadvantaged sub-groups within these categories receive
outlawed the Andhra Pradesh government’s notification appropriate support.
to sub-categorise SC/STs in the state. • Enhanced Representation: Targeted reservation can improve
¾ The Supreme Court had in 2005 said it was contrary representation of marginalized sub-groups within SCs and
to Article 341 of the Constitution, which confers the STs in education, employment, and political institutions. This
right to prepare a list of SC/STs to the President. helps ensure that all segments within these communities have
a voice and access to opportunities.
• The Supreme Court through its recent judgement has
introduced two concepts • Promoting Social Justice: By focusing on the needs of the
most underprivileged sub-groups, subclassification aligns
¾ First, the Scheduled Castes are not a homogenous with the principles of social justice, aiming to uplift those who
group and can therefore be classified into groups for are historically and systematically deprived of opportunities.
the purpose of reservations.
• Tailored Policy Interventions: Subclassification enables the
¾ Second, that SCs and STs can be equated to ‘other design of more specific and effective policy interventions that
backward classes’ by imposing the creamy layer can address the unique challenges faced by different sub-
principle based on economic criteria. groups within SCs and STs, leading to better outcomes in terms
of education, employment, and socio-economic development.
Why did state governments want to sub-classify SCs and
STs? • Reducing Internal Competition: It can reduce competition
within the broader SC and ST categories, where more
• Article 341 of the Constitution allows the President, advanced sub-groups might otherwise dominate the benefits
through a public notification, to list as SC “castes, races of reservation, leaving the most marginalized without
or tribes” that suffered from the historical injustice of adequate access to resources.
untouchability.
• 
Judicial and Constitutional Validation: Ensuring that
¾ SC groups are jointly accorded 15% reservation in subclassification is based on quantifiable and demonstrable
education and public employment. data of backwardness helps maintain the constitutionality
• Despite reservation, some castes are grossly of reservation policies and withstands judicial scrutiny,
underrepresented compared to other dominant SCs and thereby safeguarding the legal validity of affirmative action
measures.
STs.
• In 1975, the Punjab government issued a circular providing Conclusion
half of reservation exclusively to the Balmiki and Mazhabi
The issue arises when the demands for 'expertise' and 'merit'
Sikh communities within 25% SC reservation.
are positioned against the principles of “social justice” and
• Similarly in 2000, the Andhra Pradesh government passed “equality.” However, these concepts should not be viewed as
the Andhra Pradesh Scheduled Castes (Rationalisation conflicting; rather, they are aligned and mutually reinforcing.
of Reservations) Act 2000, which granted legal status As the Supreme Court emphasized in its recent judgment
to sub-categorisation among SCs in Andhra Pradesh on subquotas for SCs and STs, the false dichotomy between
(undivided). merit and reservation must be challenged in India marked by
• Note: During pre-Independence era SCs were listed solely deep inequalities. Merit should be understood in the context

POLITY & GOVERNANCE  1

of promoting equality and inclusivity — the real conflict lies • Lack of fire safety : Around 39% of judicial officers
between the privileged and the underprivileged, not between reported the absence of fire safety equipment within their
merit and distributive justice. courtroom premises.
• Lack of other basic facilities
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
¾ 29.3% of judicial officers do not have an Ahlmad
Prelims MCQ room, essential for court clerks, which affects the
efficiency of proceedings.
Q. Consider the following statements ¾ 36.3% of judicial officers agreeing that their courtrooms
1. Right to reservation is a fundamental right. lack adequate seating and essential furnishings.
¾ Only 14.6% of male support staff and 10.7% of female
2. Reservation is justified on the basis the equality support staff have common rooms, while 73.7% of all
before law. support staff do not have attached toilets.
Which of the following statements is/are correct? ¾ 41% of support staff reported the absence of computer
units with multifunctional printers.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
¾ About 44.5% of judicial officers use their personal
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 vehicles for official duties due to the lack of
Answer : b government-provided vehicles.
¾ Approximately 50.4% of judicial officers responded that
they reside in government-provided accommodations.
Descriptive Question

Q. Discuss the significance of the Supreme Court’s recent Central Scheme for Judicial Infrastructure
ruling on the sub-classification of Scheduled Castes • The Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) for Development
and Scheduled Tribes for reservation purposes. How of Infrastructure Facilities for Districts and Subordinate
does this ruling address the socio-economic disparities Judiciary was set up in 1993-94.
within these communities, and what are the potential
challenges in implementing such sub-classification? Planned and operated by the Department of Justice
� 
[15 marks] [250 words] under the Union Ministry of Law and Justice, the scheme
mandated the provision of financial assistance by the
Centre to the States and Union Territories (UTs) for the
construction of court halls and residential units for judicial
THE STATE OF INFRASTRUCTURE officers and judges of the district and subordinate courts.
IN DISTRICT COURTS � From its inception in 1993, up to 2020, the Centre allotted
INR 7,460 crores to the States and UTs. The Government of
Why in News: Recently a report was published by the India has already extended the scheme for five more years
Ministry of Law and Justice on the state of infrastructure in (2021-26) with a financial commitment of INR 5,357 crores.
district courts across India. Reasons for Poor Judicial Infrastructure
The study, conducted across 20 district courts from 10 States • Despite the quantum of central funds being made available in
— covering two districts each from the North, South, West, recent years, the infrastructure gaps at the district and lower
Central, and East regions, including the northeastern zones levels of the judiciary remain a matter of grave concern due to
of India following reasons:
� Erratic Fiancing: The yearly funding averaged INR 69.18
Key Findings of the Report
crores per year for all states and UTs.
• Overcrowding of the Courtrooms: Courtrooms are
� The non-utilisation of funds by the states: In 2019-20, for
heavily burdened with case files and archived documents, example, as much as 91 percent of CSS funds were unused.
leading to a lack of space for people inside. As a result, The CSS requires states to match 40 percent of the grant
advocates, litigators, and parties have to stand in the from the central government, however most states have
courtroom due to limited space inside. routinely failed to fulfil this commitment. As a result, the
• Inadequate IT infrastructure: Only 45% of judicial allocated funds either go unspent or they lapse.
officers surveyed reported having electronic display � Diversion of funds: Many studies have also found that
facilities, while 20% indicated that installations are still certain states have diverted funds meant for judicial
in progress. infrastructure to other projects.
¾ Around 32.7% of judicial officers reported that their � P
 oor coordination among multiple authorities: A 2019
district court complexes lack video conferencing it was noted that poor coordination among the key state
facilities, indicating significant gaps in technological departments—in particular, the Finance, Law, Home,
resources available for judicial proceedings. District Collector, Public Works—was the reason why the

2 POLITY & GOVERNANCE

 • Exception to the above
allocated money for the District Courts were ending up
unspent. ¾ Conviction on criminal Charges: Article 311 (2) (a) -
where a person is dismissed or removed or reduced
� Communication gaps between the Centre and states: The
Vidhi report highlights this, leading to inefficiencies. in rank on the ground of conduct which has led to his
conviction on a criminal charge.
Way Forward
¾ Dismissal Without Inquiry Due to Impracticability:
• 
National Judicial Infrastructure Corporation (NJIC): Article 311 (2) (b) - where the authority empowered to
Proposed by CJI in 2021 to address court infrastructure issues,
dismiss or remove a person or to reduce him in rank is
monitor land allotment delays, and fund management, but
satisfied that for some reason, to be recorded by that
faces concerns over federalism and centralization.
authority in writing, it is not reasonably practicable to
• 
Decentralisation of Funds: Issues in coordination, rigid
hold such inquiry.
guidelines, and unspent funds highlight the need for
flexibility and decentralization. ¾ Security Reasons: Article 311 (2) (c) - where the
• 
Standard Protocols and Rules by National Courts President or the Governor, as the case may be, is
Management Systems Committee: It includes features like satisfied that in the interest of the security of the State
accessible navigation, ease of reaching the court, waiting it is not expedient to hold such inquiry. The amended
areas, barrier-free access, case displays, security, amenities, Article 311(2)(c) requires no departmental inquiry
and toilets. Additionally, there should be efforts to modernize except for a police or an official report to terminate
existing courtrooms by equipping them with better technology the services.
to improve overall efficiency and accessibility.
Special Task Force for Screening
• Constitutional Mandate: Article 38(1) of the Constitution
requires that the state should strive to secure and protect “a • In 2021, to screen the cases of employees suspected of
social order in which justice, social, economic and political, involvement in activities requiring action under the
shall inform all the institutions of the national life. The provision of the Constitution, the Jammu and Kashmir
Supreme Court, in numerous judgments, has highlighted government had constituted a Special Task Force.
these constitutional goals of justice: fair, affordable, and quick.
Thus as a part of non-negotiable sovereign function, both • This Special Task Force is headed by the Additional
centre and states have to address the fundamental aspects of Director General of Jammu and Kashmir Police as
judicial efficiency. its chairman, and having members representing the
Departments of Home, Law, Justice, and Parliamentary
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE Affairs.

Descriptive Question • The Special Task Force was tasked with compiling a record
of such employees wherever necessary, and referring it to
Q. The state of judicial infrastructure in India, particularly
a committee constituted by the government.
at the district and lower court levels, has been a
persistent concern despite the allocation of central Appeal against the Government Order
funds. Critically analyze the reasons for these
infrastructural gaps and suggest ways to address them, • The available remedy to terminated employees is
considering both the financial and administrative to challenge the government’s decision in the State
challenges. [15 marks] [250 words] Administrative Tribunal, Centre Administrative Tribunal,
High Court and Supreme Court.

The Doctrine of Pleasure

ARTICLE 311 OF THE INDIAN
CONSTITUTION The Doctrine of Pleasure, originally derived from British
common law, allows the Crown and by extension in the
Why in News: The Jammu and Kashmir Lieutenant-
Indian context, the President or the Governor, to terminate the
Governor recently invoked Article 311 of the Constitution
services of a civil servant without prior notice. This doctrine
and terminated the services of six government employees.
is prominently featured in Articles 310 and 311 of the Indian
Key Details Constitution, balancing the interests of the state with the
rights of government employees. However, the application
• Article 311 of the Constitution deals with ‘dismissal,
of this doctrine is not absolute.
removal or reduction in rank of persons employed in civil
capacities under the Union or a State’. Article 311 introduces critical safeguards that modify this
• Under Article 311(2), no civil servant can be “dismissed doctrine by providing certain protections to civil servants. It
or removed or reduced in rank except after an inquiry in specifies that no civil servant can be dismissed, removed or
which he has been informed of the charges and given a demoted without an inquiry wherein the accused has been
reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of those informed of the charges against them and given a reasonable
charges’’. opportunity to defend themselves. This ensures that the

POLITY & GOVERNANCE  3

process remains fair and that the power is not used arbitrarily.
• 
Parenting styles do impact the approach of children.
This clause enforces the principles of natural justice in the Government also counsel the parents on parenting styles.
administrative processes, ensuring fairness and transparency There are higher chances of youth from broken families taking
in disciplinary actions. up drugs as a coping mechanism

Case Study: Drug issue in J&K Firm Action Against Drug Peddlers

• According to the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, • Police have identified 14 locations as drug hot spots in the city
an estimated 10 lakh residents in a population of 1.25 crore (or and carried out 85 raids at these places besides increasing the
8%) were drug addicts in J&K in 2019-20. presence of manpower.

• According to IMHANS-K, heroin was the most common opioid • If any police personnel is found involved in drug peddling,
among 84.33% of the respondents surveyed in 2019-2020. strict action will be taken against such persons as per the
prevalent laws.
� Heroin is a costly drug and poses a financial burden for
addicts. The monthly average expense incurred by a heroin • 
The police are also keeping surveillance on former Over
user is ₹88,183.58. Ground Workers of terrorists to ensure that they are not
recycled and get involved in narco-terrorism.
• According to an IMHANS study, 1.67% of drug abusers in
Kashmir are women, with 16% married. Women, especially • Police are trying to bust the forward and backward linkages
those working outside J&K or under peer pressure, are often and attaching properties of notorious drug peddlers.
hooked on opioids. Many female drug abusers also face Rehabilitation
personality disorders and abuse, including sexual exploitation
and drug peddling. • Police has recently opened a state-of-the-art drug rehabilitation
centre which is equipped with all facilities and a qualified staff.
Factors Responsible for Drug Menace in J&K
• Poor Mental Health: Substance use and poor mental health EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
have a bidirectional impact hence poor mental health leads to
substance use. Prelims MCQ
• Virtual World: Addiction to social media is acting as a
Q. Which one of the following statements about dismissal
force multiplier. Many teengaers and youngster are getting
or removal of persons employed in civil capacities
influenced by social media start experimenting with drugs
under the Union or State (Article 311) is not correct?
without knowing the consequences.
• Push from Pakistan: Pakistan is pushing drugs to generate (a) 
Protection under Article 311 is not available to
funds for terrorism activities. The constant infiltration of military personnel.
drugs by Pakistan via the Valley’s Kupwara and Baramulla (b) The employees of statutory corporations such as
districts, less-used other drugs such as brown sugar, cocaine, the LIC, ONGC are not entitled to the protection of
and marijuana are also readily available within the Valley and Article 311.
even in parts of Jammu.
(c) 
The provisions of Article 311 are applicable to
• Collapse of traditional culture: Pakistan’s nefarious attack permanent civil servants only and not to temporary
on the Valley’s cultural core has rendered this traditional servants.
mechanism of social control ineffective.
(d) Suspension of government servant from service
Fight Against Drug Menace is neither dismissal nor removal and is not within
Creating Awareness Among People the scope of protection of Article 311.
Answer : c
• Religious centres and educational institutions are assuming a
new role in Kashmir by doubling up as counselling and testing
centres to curb the fast-spreading menace of drugs.
• Government of India has focused to prevention and organise THE WAQF (AMENDMENT) BILL,
people-centric initiatives. Government is putting thrust on 2024
engaging women to make de-addiction a community-centric
initiative. Why in News: The ruling Union Government has recently
• Preventive screening of youth is proving to be the key in referred the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024, to a Joint
creating a deterrence. Committee of Parliament.
� The J&K Police Public School (JKPPS), Bemina, in Srinagar Key Details
has become the first school in the Valley to implement a drug
policy, to conduct random screening of students annually.
• The Joint Parliamentary Committee on the Waqf
(Amendment) Bill 2024 has 31-member headed by
• In another community-centric initiative, youth clubs are being Member of Parliament Jagdambika Pal. Out of 31 total
formulated in south Kashmir’s Anantnag district to promote
membership, 21 members of the committee are from the
the culture of entertainment as well as conversation among
Lok Sabha and 10 members from the Rajya Sabha.
youth after school and college hours.
• The Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024, is intended to overcome

4 POLITY & GOVERNANCE

 the shortcomings and enhance the efficiency of the
• Survey Commissioner: The Waqf law provides for the
administration and management of the waqf properties. appointment of a survey commissioner who maintains a
• The Bill has provisions for renaming the Waqf Act, list of all Waqf properties by making local investigations,
1995, as the Unified Waqf Management, Empowerment, summoning witnesses, and requisitioning public documents.
Efficiency, and Development Act, 1995. • Management of a Waqf property: It is managed by a mutawalli
(caretaker), who acts as a superviser. Waqf properties are
What are the Proposed Key Amendment? managed in a way that is similar to how properties under
Trusts are managed under the Indian Trusts Act, 1882.
• No person shall create a Waqf unless he is the lawful
• Waqf Tribunal to resolve dispute: Any dispute related to Waqf
owner of the property and competent to transfer or
properties will be decided by a Waqf Tribunal. The Tribunal
dedicate such property. is constituted by the state government, and comprises three
¾ This provision appears to address the assumption members — a chairperson who is a state judicial officer not
that land that does not belong to an individual is not below the rank of a District, Sessions or Civil Judge, Class
I; an officer from the state civil services; and a person with
given as Waqf. knowledge of Muslim law and jurisprudence.
• Government property identified or declared as Waqf • 
The law also has provisions for the constitution and
property, before or after the commencement of this Act, appointment of Waqf Boards, Waqf Councils, Chief Executive
shall not be deemed to be a Waqf property. Officers for Waqf Boards in the states. The CEOs and
parliamentarians who are part of the Waqf Boards must be
• It also empowers the government to decide if a property from the Muslim community.
given as Waqf is government land. If any question arises as
About Waqf Boards
to whether any such property is a Government property, the
same shall be referred to the Collector having jurisdiction • A Waqf Board is a body under the state government, which
works as a custodian for Waqf properties across the state.
who shall make such inquiry as he deems fit, and determine
• A Waqf Board is headed by a chairperson, and has one or two
whether such property is a Government property or not
nominees from the state government, Muslim legislators and
and submit his report to the State Government. parliamentarians, Muslim members of the state Bar Council,
¾ This provision essentially means that the Collector recognised scholars of Islamic theology, and mutawallis of
— and not the Waqf Tribunal — will make this Waqfs with an annual income of Rs 1 lakh and above.
determination in case of a dispute. • In most states, there are separate Waqf Boards for the Shia and
Sunni communities.
• The proposed Bill would also give the central government
• 
Almost all prominent mosques in the country are Waqf
the power to direct the audit of any Waqf at any time by properties and are under the Waqf Board of the state.
an auditor appointed by the Comptroller and Auditor- Power of Waqf Boards
General of India, or by any officer designated by the • It has power to administer the property and take measures for
Central Government for that purpose. the recovery of lost properties of any Waqf.

About Waqf Properties • 

It has also power to sanction any transfer of immovable
property of a Waqf by way of sale, gift, mortgage, exchange, or
• A Waqf is personal property given by Muslims for a specific lease. However, the sanction shall not be given unless at least
purpose — religious, charitable, or for private purposes. two thirds of the members of the Waqf Board vote in favour of
• While the beneficiaries of the property can be different, the such a transaction.
ownership of the property is implied to be with God.
How is a Waqf formed?
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
• A Waqf can be formed through a deed or instrument or orally,
or a property can be deemed to be Waqf if it has been used for
Prelims MCQ
religious or charitable purposes for a long period of time. Q. Which of the following statements correctly describes
• Once a property is declared as Waqf, its character changes the concept of Waqf?
forever, and cannot be reversed.
(a) 
A Waqf is personal property given by Muslims
Governance of Waqfs in India to a specific individual for their private use and
Before Independence: Since 1913, India has had a legal regime enjoyment.
for the governance of Waqfs, when the Muslim Waqf Validating
Act came into force. The Mussalman Wakf Act, 1923 followed by (b) The ownership of a Waqf property is retained by
the Wakf Act, 1954, which improved upon the earlier legislation. the individual who has donated it, and it can be
The 1954 Act established a supervisory body and provided transferred or sold.
clearer guidelines. (c) A Waqf is personal property given by Muslims for
Post-Independence:
specific purposes such as religious, charitable, or
private uses, with the ownership implied to be with
• After Independence, the Central Waqf Act, 1954, was enacted, God.
which was ultimately replaced by the Waqf Act, 1995.
(d) A Waqf property can only be used for commercial
• 
In 2013, the law was amended to prescribe imprisonment
purposes and cannot be dedicated to religious or
of up to two years for encroachment on Waqf property, and
to explicitly prohibit the sale, gift, exchange, mortgage, or charitable activities. Answer : c
transfer of Waqf property.

POLITY & GOVERNANCE  5

 Descriptive Question History of Lateral Entry in India
Q. Analyze the key provisions of the Waqf (Amendment) • First time it was the government of Jawaharlal Nehru which
Bill, 2024, and their implications for the administration made dozens of appointments from the “open market” based
and management of Waqf properties in India. [10 on candidates’ competence and expertise in various fields.
marks] [150 words] • Post-Independence, the country needed officers to help frame
policies and to implement them on the ground. Not many
qualified officers were available, as the last batch of ICS was
LATERAL ENTRY IN THE INDIAN recruited in 1943, and the first batch of the IAS came only in 1948.
CIVIL SERVICES • The special recruitment was designed to select the best brains
in India and from Indians living abroad to deploy in the
Why in News: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) service of the newly independent nation.
has recently canceled the advertisement of lateral entry in the
• To address the shortage of officers, especially those with
bureaucracy following the directions from the Department of
specialised skills, special recruitment drives were undertaken
Personnel and Training. in 1948-49 and again in 1956.
Key Details • Some reports suggest that the idea was mooted by the Second
• The Union Minister for the Department of Personnel and Administrative Reforms Commission in 2005.
Training had noted that • The NITI Aayog had in 2017 recommended the induction of
¾ The ruling government is of the firm belief that the officials at middle and senior management levels in the central
process of lateral entry must be aligned with the government as ‘lateral entrants.
principles of equity and social justice enshrined in the
• The ’lateral entry’ into certain posts in the Union government
Constitution, particularly concerning the provisions came into being in 2018.
of reservation.
¾ Reservation in public employment is a cornerstone • In the first round in 2018, as many as 6,077 applications for
of the government’s social justice framework, aimed joint secretary-level posts were advertised. After a selection
process by the UPSC, nine individuals were recommended for
at addressing historical injustices and promoting
appointment to nine different ministries/departments in 2019.
inclusivity.
• The next round was advertised in 2021 followed by two more
¾ It is important that the constitutional mandate
rounds in May 2023.
towards social justice is upheld so that deserving
candidates from marginalized communities get their • Presently, 57 officers recruited as lateral entrants are posted in
rightful representation in government services. positions in central government ministries and departments.

¾ Since lateral entry positions have been treated as Advantage of Lateral Entry
specialized and designated as single-cadre posts, • Innovation: Private sector known for innovation and
there has been no provision for reservation in these government comes across various issues to solve the citizens
appointments, and this aspect needs to be reviewed problem. Lateral entry can infuse fresh ideas and innovative
and reformed after ensuring social justice. thinking into the government, which might otherwise be
bound by traditional bureaucratic approaches.
Nilekani is credited with building Aadhaar, India’s
� 
mammoth identity card scheme, while chairman of the
Unique Identification Authority of India.
• Bring Specialization: They can help fill the gaps of expertise
and specialisation for specific durations, for well-defined
objectives. There are many area which require specialisation
for example cyber security, finance, science and technology
etc.
� Rajesh Kotecha who was former Vice-Chancellor of Gujarat
Ayurved University, an expert in Ayurveda, appointed as
the Secretary of the Ministry of AYUSH, brought specialized
knowledge and expertise that helped in promoting
traditional Indian medicine systems on a global platform.
• Improve Efficiency of the Administartion: It can bring in
much-needed fresh ideas and energy. Professionals from the
private sector are often accustomed to working in results-
oriented environments with strict deadlines. Their entry into
the civil service can help streamline processes, reduce red
tape, and improve the overall efficiency of the administration.

6 POLITY & GOVERNANCE

 Key Details
� The appointment of Amitabh Kant as the CEO of NITI
Aayog, with his background in tourism and experience • The guidelines was released on Independence Day, cover
in steering large-scale projects like the ‘Incredible India’ a wide range of issues including work hours, salaries,
campaign. leave policies, harassment, and discrimination.
• Availability of Diverse pool of talent: Lateral entry allows • It aims to address critical issues such as poor working
the government to tap into a broader and more diverse pool of conditions and unfair newsroom practices.
talent that might not be available through the traditional UPSC
• To ensure enhanced safety and equity for journalists,
route. This diversity includes individuals with specialized
reinforcing the importance of protecting their rights as
skills, global exposure, and experience in various fields.
both individuals and professionals.
• 
Encouraging Healthy Competition: Lateral entry can
encourage healthy competition among traditional civil
servants, pushing them to upskill and adapt to new challenges.
• Flexible Hiring: It allows the government to bring in talent on
a need basis, especially for time-bound projects or to address
immediate challenges.
Disadvantages of Lateral Entry
• Complex and Complicated Governance: The Joint Secretary
acts as the central hub in the Hub & Spoke Model, connecting
and coordinating various parts of the government like she
has to works with state governments to ensure policies
are implemented uniformly; parliamentary committees &
parliament; role of other government agencies and Institutions;
ground reality of the field etc. For an outsider, it is an uphill
task to understand all such things simultaneously.
• 
Violation of Social Justice Principle: Lateral entry into
the civil service does not include reservations or quotas for
marginalized groups. This can be seen as a violation of the
social justice principle, as it bypasses the established affirmative
action policies designed to ensure equal opportunities for
underrepresented communities.
• Conflict of Interest: Professionals entering the civil service
from the private sector or other fields might have prior
affiliations or financial interests that could influence their
decision-making in government roles.
• 
Unwelcoming Attitude from Traditional Bureaucracy:
Lateral entry may face an unwelcoming attitude from
traditional bureaucrats, who might perceive it as a threat to
their positions, authority, and expertise. This unease can arise
from concerns about job security, disruptions to established
hierarchies, and challenges to the conventional processes
within the civil service.

EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE

Descriptive Question Highlights of the Guidelines
• Adherence to legally sanctioned work hours: According
Q. Discuss the concept of lateral entry into the bureaucracy
in India. Critically analyze the advantages and to the Occupational Safety, Health and Working
disadvantages of this approach. [15 marks] [250 words] Conditions Code, 2020, journalists should work no more
than 144 hours over four consecutive weeks, with at least
one day off each week. Any work beyond this limit should
GUIDELINES TO ENHANCE SAFETY be recognised as overtime, the document suggests.

& EQUITY IN NEWSROOMS • Fair and regular salaries: Media organisations are
expected to provide compensation that reflects the
professional nature of journalism, considering the
Why in News: Recently Women journalists’ group NWMI
education, skills, and experience required for the role.
(The Network of Women in Media, India) released guidelines
to enhance safety and equity in newsrooms. ¾ Salaries should be benchmarked against comparable
industries and adjusted for cost of living and inflation.

POLITY & GOVERNANCE  7

 Transparency in job postings regarding financial
compensation is also mandated. THE BHARATIYA VAYUYAN
• Paid Leave: Employees should receive a minimum VIDHEYAK BILL 2024
of 30 days of paid leave annually, encompassing Why in News: Recently Lok Sabha has passed the Bharatiya
various types such as earned, casual, sick, and festival Vayuyan Vidheyak Bill to replace the 90-year-old Aircraft Act
leave. The guidelines also cover health-related leave, 1934.
including mental health and menstrual leave, and ensure
compliance with legal provisions for maternity, paternity, Reasons to Bring the New Bill
and childcare leave. • It seeks to remove redundancies and improve the ease of
• Performance appraisals: It should follow clear and doing business and manufacturing in the aviation space.
transparent processes, with proper documentation and
• The earlier amendments had created a lot of ambiguity
defined criteria to prevent arbitrary decisions regarding
and contradictions in terms of the functioning of internal
appraisals, promotions, and salary increases. Employees
organisations like the Directorate General of Civil
should have access to reports on average salary hikes to
Aviation (DGCA) and Bureau of Civil Aviation Security
promote transparency.
(BCAS).
• Grievance Redressal Mechanisms: It must address
• The bill includes provisions to regulate the design and
complaints of toxic behaviour within newsrooms,
manufacturing of aircraft to support the Aatmanirbhar
ensuring confidentiality and involving neutral fact-finding
Bharat initiative for self-reliance.
processes. Management should enforce a zero-tolerance
policy for such behaviour and take disciplinary action ¾ As according to ICRA Indian air passenger traffic will
against violators, regardless of their position or popularity. grow at the rate of 8 to 13% for the fiscal year 2024,
reaching between 150 to 155 million.
• Committees to address sexual harassment: Setting up of
legally mandated Internal Committees with representation ¾ The Bill’s role in fostering growth in the helicopter
from across departments as well as an impartial external industry, noting that India currently operates around
member without personal or professional connections to 250 helicopters.
the organisation or its management. • The bill is also expected to strike a balanced approach
• Addressing Staffing Shortages: Acknowledgement of the where there is a level playing field for the airlines and the
fact that inadequate staffing is an institutional problem people are not exploited with higher airfares.
and that vacancies must be filled as quickly as possible
so that the burden of extra work is not shifted onto other Though the Bill seeks to replace the Aircraft Act, 1934 but
employees for long periods. retains the regulatory structure and most of the provisions
under the 1934 Act in addition to new provisions:
• Comprehensive Healthcare for Journalists: Ensure paid Important Features of the Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak Bill 2024
healthcare coverage for journalists, including freelancers,
• The bill has an updated definition of aircraft that covers
injured on assignment. This should cover mental health
comprehensive coverage of all flying machines. The new
issues arising from trauma experienced during events
definition is: ‘Any machine capable of deriving support in the
like conflicts or disasters, as well as psychological atmosphere from air reactions, excluding reactions against the
distress from workplace toxicity, including harassment or Earth’s surface.
bullying.
• It sets up three authorities:
Conclusion
Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) for
� 
Despite constitutional mandates promoting equality, women performing regulatory functions and overseeing safety.
continue to face significant challenges. Addressing these � Bureau of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS) for overseeing
issues is crucial not only for achieving true equality but also security.
for harnessing the full potential of women in the workforce.
� Aircraft Accidents Investigation Bureau for investigation of
By creating an inclusive environment, empowering women
aircraft accidents.
to contribute equally, and removing systemic barriers, we can
drive economic growth and foster a more just and prosperous • 
It will empower above regulatory bodies to regulate and
society for all. oversee the aviation sector, ensuring stricter compliance and
enhanced safety standards. Thus, the Bill aims to align India’s
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE policies to be at par with international standards.
Descriptive Question • 
The bill regulates activities related to aircrafts including
manufacturing, possession, use, operation, trade.
Q. Discuss the challenges faced by women professionals
in media organisations. How does the new � To give impetus to Atamnibharbharat, the bill aims to set
guidelines will help in overcoming such challenges? up final assembly line for the design and manufacturing of
[15 marks] [250 words] aircraft in India.

8 POLITY & GOVERNANCE

 � It provides a system of support for the advancement of THE DELIMITATION COMMISSION
maintenance, repair, and overhaul (MRO) services and
establish a stable environment for the MRO industry. Why in News: The Supreme Court of India recently held that
• It covers provisions in the area of air routes like prohibiting/ orders passed by the Delimitation Commission are not out of
restricting flight movement over certain sensitive areas. purview of judicial review.
• The bill empowers the central government to make Rules on Key Details
several matters. These include: • The Supreme Court of India in its Kishorchandra
� Regulation of specified activities related to aircrafts and Chhanganlal Rathod vs Union of India 2024 judgement
matters related to licencing, certification, and inspection, has set aside observations of the Gujarat High Court that
� Regulation of air transport services, and there is bar on exercising power of judicial review in
delimitation matters.
Implementation of Convention relating to International
� 
Civil Aviation of 1944. ¾ Earlier Gujarat High Court held that the order of
delimitation of constituencies, issued in the exercise
� It adds that the central government may make Rules on
radio telephone operator certificate and licences under the of statutory powers under the Delimitation Act, is
International Telecommunication Convention. entirely insusceptible to the powers of judicial review
exercisable under Article 226 of the Constitution.
• The bill also specifies Rules for cancellation of pilot-licences in
case of dangerous flying. • The apex court observed that though Article 329
undeniably restricts the scope of judicial scrutiny, if judicial
• The bill has provision to establish an efficient online grievance
intervention is deemed completely barred, citizens would
redressal mechanism to manage passenger complaints and
ensure timely resolutions.
not have any forum to plead their grievances, leaving
them solely at the mercy of the Delimitation Commission.
• The bill allows the central government to impose penalties for
contravention of Rules. It empowers the central government ¾ As a constitutional court and guardian of public
to appoint an officer for adjudication of penalties. This officer interest, endorsing the view of the Gujarat High Court
must be of the rank of the Deputy Secretary to Government of would be contrary to the Supreme Court’s duties and
India or above. the principle of separation of powers.
� Further it adds an additional level of appeal. The appeal ¾ If the order made by Delimitation Commission is
against the decisions of the First Appellate Officer will lie found to be manifestly arbitrary and irreconcilable
before the Second Appellate Officer. The Second Appellate to the constitutional values, the Court can grant the
Officer must be an officer of a higher rank than the First appropriate remedy to rectify the situation.
Appellate Officer.
• The Supreme Court of India had also mentioned that
• The Bill adds that appeals against an order of DGCA or BCAS a three-judge bench decision in Dravida Munnetra
will lie before the central government. No further appeals will Kazhagam v. State of T.N. where the Court was called
be allowed against the central government’s orders. upon to interpret Articles 243O (Panchayat Election)
and 243ZG (Municiple Corporation Election) of the
Constitution, which mirror Article 329. The Court
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
observed, “Rejecting the contention that these provisions
Prelims MCQ place a complete bar on judicial intervention, it was noted
that a constitutional Court can intervene for facilitating
Q. With reference to the Bharatiya Vayuyan Vidheyak Bill the elections or when a case for mala fide or arbitrary
2024, consider the following statements: exercise of power is made out.”
1. It empowers the central government to make rules About Delimitation
for the investigation of any air accident or incident. • Delimitation means the process of fixing the number of seats
and boundaries of territorial constituencies in each State for
2. The Bill introduces new taxes on aviation fuel. the Lok Sabha and Legislative assemblies.
3. The Bill, through its provisions, aims to support • 
It also includes determining the seats to be reserved for
Make in India initiative. Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST) in these
houses.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
• Article 82 and 170 of the Constitution provide that the number
of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative assemblies
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only
as well as its division into territorial constituencies shall be
readjusted after each Census.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only • This ‘delimitation process’ is performed by the ‘Delimitation
Answer : d Commission’ that is set up under an act of Parliament. Such an
exercise was carried out in 1952, 1972 and 2002.

POLITY & GOVERNANCE  9

 Present Situation in India
• However, it has been frozen as per the 1971 Census in order
to encourage population control measures so that States • Currently, Indian personal law is fairly complex, with
with higher population growth do not end up having higher each religion adhering to its own specific laws. Separate
number of seats. laws govern Hindus including Sikhs, Jains and Buddhist,
• This was done through the 42nd Amendment Act till the year Muslims, Christians, and followers of other religions.
2000 and was extended by the 84th Amendment Act till 2026. • At the same time, Indian laws do follow a uniform code
Hence, the population based on which the number of seats is in civil matters like Indian Contract Act, Civil Procedure
allocated refers to the population as per the 1971 Census. Code, Sale of Goods Act, Transfer of Property Act,
• This number will be re-adjusted based on the first Census after Partnership Act, Evidence Act etc.
2026. • However, States have made hundreds of amendments
• The boundaries of territorial constituencies were readjusted and therefore in certain matters, there is diversity even
(without changing the number of seats) and seats for SC and under these secular civil laws.
ST were determined as per the 2001 Census and will again be
carried out after 2026. Arguments in Favour of the Uniform Civil Code
• A common law unites people by avoiding animosity due
to preferential treatment to certain communities by law.
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
• It would ensure equality before the law for all Indians, as
Prelims MCQ promised in Article 14 of the Constitution.
• It will help in streamline the process of registration
Q. With reference to the Delimitation process in India,
consider the following statements: of marriages, a transparent system of divorce which
upholds the dignity of women, a right to maintenance
1. The Delimitation process includes fixing the number and alimony to the spouse and children in case of
of seats and boundaries of territorial constituencies
separation and divorce, a civil process for divorce, a right
in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.
to remarry, an equal right to inheritance for all children
2. The number of seats for Scheduled Castes (SC) and in parental property, whether inherited or self-acquired,
Scheduled Tribes (ST) is determined during the right to adoption and rights of adopted children being the
Delimitation process.
same as biological children.
3. The Delimitation of constituencies has been frozen • It reduces complexities, contradictions and legal
based on the 1971 Census, and this freeze has been
ambiguities.
extended by the 84th Amendment Act till 2026.
• Loopholes in personal can’t be exploited.
4. The population figures from the 2001 Census will be
used for re-adjusting the number of seats after 2026. ¾ For example, polygamy is illegal in India but it is
allowed under Islamic personal law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Arguments Against the Uniform Civil Code
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only (b) 1, 2, and 4 only • It would destroy the essential fabric of India, which is
a mosaic of 22 official languages, 398 dialects, and 645
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
tribes.
Answer : a
• UCC is Infringement upon the constitutional right to
freely exercise one’s chosen religion. This right enables
religious communities to adhere to their respective
THE UNIFORM CIVIL CODE personal laws.
Why in News: During Independence Day Speech, the Prime ¾ For example, Article 25, which grants each religious
Minister of India had highlighted the need to move towards collective the entitlement to autonomously administer
a “secular civil code” instead of the existent “communal civil its internal matters, while Article 29 safeguards their
code”. prerogative to preserve their unique cultural heritage.
What is Uniform Civil Code? • There is a contention that the Uniform Civil Code may
potentially enforce a code that is influenced by one
• A Uniform Civil Code is one that would provide for
particular religious practices in all communities. Uniform
one law for the entire country, applicable to all religious
provisions tend to be unjust towards marginalised and
communities in their personal matters such as marriage,
vulnerable groups.
divorce, inheritance, adoption etc.
• According to the 21st Law Commission, the presence of
• Article 44 of the Constitution of India states that the State disparities does not necessarily indicate discriminatory
shall endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for the practices, but rather serves as an indication of a strong
citizens throughout the territory of India. and vibrant democratic system.

10 POLITY & GOVERNANCE

• According to the Constitution, the authority to enact
legislation pertaining to personal laws is vested in both SENIOR ADVOCATE OF THE
the Parliament and state Assemblies. The inclusion SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
of personal law in the Concurrent List (entry No. 5)
Why in News: The Supreme Court of India, in a full court
appears to be motivated by the desire to maintain legal
meeting, recently designated 39 lawyers and advocates-on-
diversity.
record as senior advocates.
• The Adivasis possess distinct personal laws and are Key Details
not classified as Hindus due to their practice of nature
• The process was led by Chief Justice D Y Chandrachud.
worship instead of idol worship and their observance
of burial rituals for the deceased. It has been argued • Out of the 39 lawyers elevated, 10 are women.
that the marriage and death rituals observed by tribal • According to the rules framed by the Supreme Court under
communities differ from Hindu customs, and there is Article 145 of the Constitution, only advocates designated
concern that these practices may also face prohibition. as advocate-on-record can file cases in the apex court,
which conducts AoR examinations twice a year.
Way Forward
• These designations were given based on new guidelines
• Implementing a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) in India which were delivered on May 12, 2023, by a three-
requires a careful, phased approach that respects the judge Bench led by Justice S K Kaul in a case seeking
nation’s cultural and religious diversity. This process modifications to the 2018 guidelines on how the ‘senior
should begin with inclusive consultations involving all advocate’ designation is granted.
communities to build consensus and address concerns. About Senior Advocate
• Harmonizing existing personal laws where possible, and • Section 16 of the Advocates Act refers to the separate class
initially introducing the UCC on a voluntary basis, can of ‘senior advocate’. Both the Supreme Court and High
facilitate broader acceptance. Courts can confer senior designation to lawyers based on
their merit, experience, special knowledge of the law and
• The UCC should focus on promoting gender equality and standing at the Bar.
social justice while ensuring that religious freedoms are
¾ Section 16 of the Advocates Act, 1961 prescribes two
respected and minority rights are protected.
different classes of advocates, “senior advocates and
• Political consensus and independent monitoring will be other advocates”.
crucial to its success, and learning from international ¾ Section 16 also states that senior advocates may be
examples can guide its implementation. subject to certain additional restrictions. For the
senior advocates designated by the Supreme Court,
• Ultimately, a balanced and inclusive approach is essential
these restrictions can be found in the Supreme Court
to achieving a UCC that unites the nation while upholding
Rules, 2013.
equality and justice.
¾ They are barred from filing a vakalatnama, appearing
before a court without a junior or an advocate-on-
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE record, doing drafting work, or directly accepting
briefs for cases from clients.
Prelims MCQ • Section 23 of the Act says, “senior advocates shall have pre-
audience over other lawyers and their right of pre-audience
Q. 
Which of the following Articles of the Indian inter se shall be determined by their respective seniority”.
Constitution explicitly provides for the promotion of a
Uniform Civil Code? • The designation of senior advocate is “a mark of excellence
to advocates who have distinguished themselves and
(a) Article 21 (b) Article 25 have made a significant contribution to the development
of the legal profession.
(c) Article 44 (d) Article 46 • It identifies advocates whose standing and achievements
Answer : c would justify an expectation that they can provide
outstanding services as advocates in the best interest of
the administration of justice.
Descriptive Question The conditions on which Advocates shall be eligible for
Q. 
The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) aims to provide a designation as Senior Advocates are:
common set of laws governing personal matters for all (i) At least
citizens. Discuss. [10 marks] [150 words]
(a) ten years’ standing as an Advocate; or

POLITY & GOVERNANCE  11

(b) ten years’ combined standing as an Advocate and as a
(c) Due to the vast experience of the senior advocate
District and Sessions Judge or as a Judicial Member of
in the field of law and also due to his face value
any Tribunal in India. before the judge, the case of the client is strongly
whose qualification for eligibility for such appointment is not put before the court due to the appearance of a
less than that prescribed for appointment as a District Judge. senior advocate in the matter.
(d) The reason to maintain the Advocate on record is
(ii) Practice mainly in the Supreme Court. ti maintain the expected standard of drafting and
(iii)Attainment of the age of 45 years, unless the age limit pleading before the Hon’ble Supreme Court.
is relaxed by the Committee, or the name has been Answer : a
recommended by the Chief Justice of India or a Judge
of the Supreme Court.
Note: Applicant-advocates having domain expertise of ALDERMEN TO THE MUNICIPAL
practising before specialized Tribunals may be given
concession with regard to the extent of appearances in the
CORPORATION OF DELHI
Supreme Court. Why in News: The Supreme Court of India has recently
upheld the Delhi Lieutenant Governor’s decision to nominate
2018 Guidelines 10 ‘aldermen’ to the Municipal Corporation of Delhi (MCD).

• In October 2018, the Supreme Court of India released a list What was the Issue?
of ‘Guidelines to Regulate the Conferment of Designation of • After the present government of Delhi won the municipal
Senior Advocates’. elections, the LG appointed 10 ‘aldermen,’ which was
• The guidelines discouraged the system of ‘voting by secret opposed by the Delhi government. The petition of the
ballot’, except in cases where it was “unavoidable”. Delhi government had sought the quashing of orders,
• It created a ‘Committee for Designation of Senior Advocates’ whereby the L-G nominated 10 persons as nominated
which is chaired by the CJI and comprises the two senior-most members of the MCD.
SC judges, the Attorney General of India, and a “member of the • Delhi government contention was that L-G has to work
Bar” nominated by the chair and other members. on the basis of aid and advice of council of minister.
• The CJI or any other judge could recommend the name of an • Also, this is the first time since Article 239AA came into
advocate for designation. effect in 1991 that such a nomination has been made by
• Alternatively, advocates could submit their applications to the the L-G completely bypassing the elected government.
‘permanent secretariat’, which would evaluate them on various • The legal question before the Supreme Court was whether
criteria including years of legal practice as an advocate, district the L-G could nominate the 10 persons as a part of the
judge, or a judicial member of an Indian tribunal.
statutory duty of his office or was he bound by the aid
• Prior to 2018, Section 16 of the Advocates Act, 1961, governed and advice of the Council of Ministers.
the appointment of senior advocates.
Judgment of the Supreme Court of India
New guidelines 2023
• The authority of the Lieutenant Governor (L-G) of Delhi
• The Chief Justice of India, along with any other Supreme Court to nominate 10 aldermen to the Municipal Corporation of
judge, can recommend in writing the name of an advocate for Delhi is a statutory duty attached to his office and he is not
the designation.
bound by the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.
• The new guidelines prescribe the minimum age as 45 years Therefore, the power to be exercised is the statutory duty
to apply for the ‘senior advocate’ designation. This age limit of the LG and not the executive power of the state.
may, however, be relaxed by the Committee for Designation
• The apex court held that the power of the L-G is drawn
of Senior Advocates (more on that later), the CJI, or a Supreme
Court judge, if they have recommended an advocate’s name. from Section 3(3)(b)(1) of the Delhi Municipal Corporation
No minimum age was prescribed under the 2018 guidelines. Act, 1957.
¾ Under Section 3(3)(b)(1) of the Delhi Municipal
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE Corporation Act 1957, which provides that the
Lieutenant Governor shall nominate 10 persons,
Prelims MCQ
who are not less than 25 years of age and who
Q. Which one of the following statements is not correct? have special knowledge or experience in municipal
(a) 
A senior advocate is the person who has been administration, to the MCD.
declared by the President as “senior advocate” after
analysing his profile, practice, citations and history. Importance of Alderman in MCD

(b) 
An Advocate on record is the person who by • Under the DMC Act, Delhi is divided into 12 zones. The Act
the way of vakalatnama represent clients as his also creates ‘Wards Committee’ for each zone comprising
advocate for the particular matter/case. elected representatives and the aldermen within that territory.

12 POLITY & GOVERNANCE

 • The issue has raised legal and constitutional questions,
• Though the aldermen do not have the right to vote in the MCD
meetings, they play a crucial role in the functioning of the resulting in the Karnataka High Court asking a trial
house through the Ward Committee. They have have special court to postpone its consideration of private complaints
knowledge or experience in municipal administration. against him.
• It is argued that the sanction was granted without
• Each of the 12 Wards Committees must elect a member to be
application of mind as the Governor has not referred to
a part of the MCD Standing Committee in their first meeting.
the merits of the complaints with regard to allegations
Aldermen can vote in these elections and stand as candidates
for being elected as a member of the Standing Committee.
made against Chief Minister Siddaramaiah.
The remaining six Standing Committee members are chosen Provisions on granting sanction
directly by the MCD house after the mayoral elections.
• The Governor sanctioned initiating proceedings against
• 
Though the Mayor is the nominal head of the MCD, the the CM of Karnataka under the Prevention of Corruption
Standing Committee effectively manages the functions of the Act, 1988, and the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.
corporation, and it cannot be constituted without the alderman ¾ Section 17A of the PCA deals with investigation
participating in the voting process. of offences related to public servants, allegedly
committed during the “discharge of official functions
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE or duties”. This section was introduced through an
Prelims MCQ amendment to the PCA in 2018.
Q. Which of the following statements accurately describes ¾ To investigate any such offence, the police officer must
the authority of the Lieutenant Governor (L-G) of receive the “previous approval” of the “authority
Delhi under Section 3(3)(b)(1) of the Delhi Municipal competent to remove” the public official from office,
Corporation Act, 1957? or the Central or state government, depending on
(a) The L-G has the authority to nominate 10 persons where the public official is employed.
to the Municipal Corporation of Delhi based on • Section 218 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita
their political affiliation. (BNSS), the procedure code that has replaced the CrPC,
(b) 
The L-G’s power to nominate members to the retains the sanction provisions. When the PCA was
Municipal Corporation of Delhi is a statutory duty amended in 2018, a new provision was introduced under
and is not subject to the aid and advice of the Delhi which the government’s approval is required, even to
Council of Ministers. begin an investigation.
(c) 
The L-G’s nominations to the Municipal
• While under Section 17A, the appropriate authority’s
Corporation of Delhi are made under the executive
powers of the Delhi government. approval is necessary to begin an investigation, the
provision for sanction under Section 19 is a pre-requisite
(d) 
Section 3(3)(b)(1) allows the Delhi Council of for any court to take cognisance of a charge sheet or
Ministers to directly nominate 10 persons to the
complaint of corruption.
Municipal Corporation of Delhi.
• Section 17A specifically deals with the procedure when
Answer : b
the police seek sanction to conduct an inquiry. However, in
Descriptive Question
the above case, no police officer approached the Governor
Q. Briefly discuss how powers of the Lieutenant Governor and sanction was given based on the complaints made by
of Delhi differ from the Governor of a State? [10 marks] three anti-corruption activists.
[150 words]
Governor’s role in a case against a CM
• Provisions relating to sanction in the CrPC generally spoke
SANCTION TO PROSECUTE A of the State government and the Central government as
PUBLIC SERVANT the authority to grant sanctions for those employed by
their respective governments. However, both the 1947
Why in News: Karnataka Governor recently approved the and 1988 versions of the PCA have a clause stating that
police investigation into an alleged corruption case against in the case of “any other person”, the sanction would be
the Chief Minister Siddaramaiah. granted by the authority competent to remove the public
Key Details servant in office.
• Karnataka Governor approved to open an investigation • Article 163 of the Constitution of India states, “There
against Chief Minister Siddaramaiah and to prosecute shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at
him in connection with alleged irregularities in the the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise
allotment of compensatory plots to his wife whose land of his functions, except in so far as he is by or under this
had been lost to the acquisition process by the Mysore Constitution required to exercise his functions or any of
Urban Development Authority. them in his discretion”.

POLITY & GOVERNANCE  13

• As the Governor is vested with the power to dismiss a provides a regulatory mechanism to streamline the
CM, the Governor is seen as the authority to consider education and practice of allied health care professionals,
granting sanction for prosecuting a CM. such as technicians, therapists and duty assistants, in the
• Questions have often arisen as to whether the Governor country.
exercises his discretion while considering sanction, or he ¾ The apex court has also directed the Union ministry
is bound to act on the aid and advice of the Council of of health to convene an online meeting with the
Ministers. concerned secretaries of the states within the given
• The Supreme Court has held on numerous occasions that timelines to expedite the process.
the Governor of a State is “bound” by the aid and advice
of this Council of Ministers. In the MUDA scam case, CM Important Provision of NCAHP Act
Siddaramaiah argues that the Governor is bound by the • National Commission for Allied and Healthcare Professions:
resolution sent by the Council of Ministers on August 1 Act will sets up the National Commission for Allied and
urging him to withdraw the show-cause notice. Healthcare Professions.
• Functions of the Commission: The Commission will perform
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE the following functions with regard to Allied and Healthcare
professionals:
Descriptive Question
� framing policies and standards for regulating education
Q. In light of the recent tussle between the Governor and and practice,
Chief Minister of Karnataka, examine the discretionary
powers of the Governor of a state. (10 Marks, 150 � creating and maintaining an online Central Register of all
Words) registered professionals,
providing basic standards of education, courses,
� 
curriculum, staff qualifications, examination, training,
maximum fee payable for various categories, and
THE NATIONAL COMMISSION � providing for a uniform entrance and exit examination,
FOR ALLIED, HEALTHCARE among others.
PROFESSIONS ACT 2021 • Professional Councils: The Commission will constitute a
Why in News: The Supreme Court has recently asked the Professional Council for every recognised category of allied
Centre and state governments to effectively implement the and healthcare professions. The Professional Council will
consist of a president and 4 to 24 members, representing each
National Commission for Allied & Healthcare Professions
profession in the recognised category. The Commission may
Act (NCAHP), 2021 within given deadline.
delegate any of its functions to this Council.
Key Details • State Councils: Within six months from the passage of the Bill,
• The directive of the apex court came in response to a state governments will constitute State Allied and Healthcare
Councils. The State Councils will:
public interest litigation filed (PIL) by the Joint Forum of
Medical Technologists of India (JFMTI). enforce professional conduct and code of ethics to be
� 
observed by allied healthcare professionals,
¾ The PIL called for the urgent implementation of
the 2021 Act to regulate and standardise the allied � maintain respective State Registers,
healthcare sector in India, thereby ensuring better � inspect allied and healthcare institutions, and
quality healthcare services and education.
� ensure uniform entry and exit examinations.
¾ The petition pointed out that the original timeline
• Establishment of institutions: Prior permission of the State
required state councils to be constituted within six
Council will be required to
months of the Act’s commencement (May 25, 2021).
As of now out of all states and UTs, only 14 states � Establish a new institution
have constituted state councils. Open new courses, increase the admission capacity, or
� 
¾ The PIL has highlighted that the absence of a admit a new batch of students to existing institutions.
dedicated council in the country to regulate and � If such permission is not sought, then any qualification
set standards for health care professions has led to granted to a student from such an institution will not be
a proliferation of institutes offering diplomas and recognised under the act.
certificate courses without any standardised curricula • Offences and penalties: No person is allowed to practice as
or teaching methods. a qualified allied and healthcare practitioner other than those
enrolled in a State Register or the National Register. Any
• The apex court in its order included the establishment of person who contravenes this provision will be punished with
the respective professional councils and state allied and a fine of Rs 50,000.
health care councils to effectuate the central law, which

14 POLITY & GOVERNANCE

 • The campaign was launched on January 24, 2024, by the
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
Hon’ble Vice-President of India.
Prelims MCQ • This campaign aims to reaffirm our collective commitment
Q. Which entity is responsible for providing guidelines to the principles enshrined in the Constitution of India
on the basic standards of education and curriculum and to celebrate the shared values that bind our nation.
for allied and healthcare professions according to the • This nationwide initiative provides opportunities for
NCAHP Act? every citizen to participate in various ways, empowering
(a) The State Allied and Healthcare Councils them to contribute meaningfully through its sub-
campaigns:
(b) 
The National Commission for Allied and ¾ Sabko Nyaya HarGhar Nyaya
Healthcare Professions
¾ Nav Bharat Nav Sankalp
(c) The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare ¾ Vidhi Jagriti Abhiyaan

(d) The Professional Councils • Other initiatives

Answer : b ¾ Panch Pran Pledge in regional languages
¾ Nyaya Sewa Melas - citizen-centric service fairs
Descriptive Question ¾ Online competitions such as the Samvidhan Quiz,
Q. Evaluate the key provisions of the National Commission Panch Pran Rangotsav (poster-making), and Panch
for Allied and Healthcare Professions (NCAHP) Act, Pran Anubhav (reel-making) were launched on the
2024, and their implications for the management and MyGov platform.
regulation of allied and healthcare professions in India. • To enhance constitutional education, the campaign has
[15 marks] [250 words] involved law students and partnered with agencies
like Doordarshan and IGNOU’s Gyan Vani and Gyan
Darshan platforms.
DRIVE TO POPULARISE THE
CONSTITUTION OF INDIA Legal Literacy and Awareness
• The Department of Justice (DoJ) is also implementing a
Why in News: The Government of India has taken various dedicated program for legal literacy and legal awareness
steps to popularise the understanding of the Indian under the scheme of the “Designing Innovative Solutions for
Constitution and to increase the awareness about the legal Holistic Access to Justice” (DISHA), introduced in 2021.
rights. • As of June 30, 2024, the legal awareness has reached 15.30 lakh
individuals through community engagement, webinars, and
Citizens’ Duties Awareness Programme the dissemination of educational materials on the Constitution,
• The Government of India, through the Department of legal rights, and duties.
Justice as the nodal department, launched the Citizens’ • 
The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA), through
Duties Awareness Programme (CDAP) on November its Legal Services Authorities at the state, district, and taluk
26, 2019, aiming to increase awareness of the Constitution levels, conducts legal literacy and awareness programs and
with a focus on Fundamental Duties. campaigns to educate the general public about their rights,
• CDAP was able to reach over 48.6 crore citizens through benefits, and privileges guaranteed by the Constitution and
effective implementation of various programmes by other enactments.
� The Legal Services Authorities have conducted a range
various Ministries/Departments of the Government of
of legal awareness programs covering various laws and
India, States/UTs, Judiciary and NSS/NYK Volunteers.
schemes related to children, laborers, disaster victims,
• The program utilized tools such as SC/ST communities, and persons with disabilities.
¾ Online Preamble reading (21.86 lakh), � Additionally, they have created and distributed booklets and
¾ Online Pledge taking (1.90 lakh), pamphlets in accessible language to inform the public about
these laws.
¾ Webinars (10,600),
� To effectively reach vulnerable sections of society, NALSA
¾ Messaging through E-tickets (14.5 Cr)
has developed and implemented a Module for Legal
¾ Social media (10.95 Cr). Services Camps through Legal Services Institutions. In 2023-
2024 alone, 30,043 legal awareness camps were organized,
Hamara Samvidhan Hamara Samman
benefiting 11.46 lakh citizens.
• During the current year, the Department of Justice has
This approach marks a shift from traditional methods
� 
initiated a pan-India, year-long nationwide campaign
of general legal awareness to a model focused on true
titled Hamara Samvidhan Hamara Samman to celebrate empowerment, grounded in need-based analysis and
the 75th year of India as a Republic and the adoption of targeted action.
India’s Constitution.

POLITY & GOVERNANCE  15

 broadcasters have to mandatorily share the
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
feeds of sporting events of national importance
Prelims MCQ including cricket tournaments featuring the
Indian team with public broadcaster Prasar
Q. Initiatives such as 'Panch Pran Pledge', 'Nyaya Sewa Bharati. Indian Premier Leauge is outside the
Melas' are related to purview of the Sports Act.
¾ The consolidation of content, distribution, and
(a) Popularising Buddhist sites in India. advertising power within one entity is expected to
significantly impact the overall market dynamics.
(b) 
Renovation of places associated with Dr. B.R.
Ambedkar. ¾ The merger could cause disturbances in the level
playing field of broadcasting sector.
(c) Promotion of Panchayati Raj system ¾ The combined entity, which had operating revenue of
Rs 25,000 crore in FY23, will inherit 115 TV channels
(d) Initiatives to popularize the understanding of the and two streaming platforms, Disney+ Hotstar and
Constitution and to increase the awareness about JioCinema.
the legal rights.
• To ease concerns, Reliance and Disney have proposed
Answer : d shutting certain channels and await regulatory approval.

The Competition Act, 2002, as amended by the Competition

(Amendment) Act, 2007, follows the philosophy of modern
THE COMPETITION COMMISSION competition laws.
OF INDIA The Act prohibits anti-competitive agreements, abuse of dominant
position by enterprises and regulates combinations (acquisition,
Why in News: The Competition Commission of India (CCI)
acquiring of control and M&A), which causes or likely to cause
has recently highlighting that the proposed merger of media an appreciable adverse effect on competition within India.
assets of Reliance Industries and Walt Disney in India could
Competition Commission of India
hurt competition in India.
• 
The objectives of the Competition Act are sought to be
Consequences of Reliance-Disney Merger Deal achieved through the Competition Commission of India,
• As per the Competition (Amendment) Act 2023, when which has been established by the Central Government with
the CCI is of the opinion that a merger is likely to have effect from 14th October 2003.
an appreciable adverse effect on competition (AAEC), • CCI consists of a Chairperson and 6 Members appointed by
it will issue a statement of objections to the parties and the Central Government.
direct them to explain within 25 days of receipt as to why • 
It is the duty of the Commission to eliminate practices
such merger should be allowed. having adverse effect on competition, promote and sustain
• In some cases, the CCI can suo motu propose appropriate competition, protect the interests of consumers and ensure
modifications of a merger. freedom of trade in the markets of India.

• The CCI has pointed out that the proposed Reliance • 

The Commission is also required to give opinion on
Industries and Walt Disney merger could create a competition issues on a reference received from a statutory
authority established under any law and to undertake
dominant entity in India’s entertainment sector, holding
competition advocacy, create public awareness and impart
significant cricket broadcasting rights
training on competition issues.
¾ The combined entity is likely to have market shares
in many segments which would exceed the CCI’s EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
thresholds for combinations.
Prelims MCQ
¾ The combined entity will exercise near monopoly
power over digital and TV cricket rights including Q. 
What is the composition of the Competition
IPL. Commission of India as per the Competition Act, 2002?

 For example, the proposed Star-Viacom18 (a) A Chairperson and 3 Members

entity will consolidate all the key cricket rights,
(b) A Chairperson and 6 Members
including the Indian Premier League (IPL),
International Cricket Council (ICC), Board of (c) A Chairperson and 9 Members
Control for Cricket in India (BCCI), Cricket
Australia, and Cricket South Africa. (d) A Chairperson and 5 Members
Answer : b
 Note: As per the Sports Act 2007, sports

16 POLITY & GOVERNANCE

 GUIDELINES FOR HANDLING EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
PUBLIC GRIEVANCES Prelims MCQ
Why in News: The Union Government has recently issued
Comprehensive Guidelines for Handling Public Grievances Q. 
Consider the following statements regarding
for making grievance redressal time-bound, accessible and CPGRAMS:
meaningful to empower citizens, streamline process, bring
greater clarity and focus to redressal of public grievances. 1. The system provides online access to all citizens
including those in Armed Forces personnel to report
Key highlights of the Comprehensive Guidelines their grievances.
• An integrated user-friendly grievance filing platform with
2. Right to Information (RTI) matters are not taken up
CPGRAMS www.pgportal.gov.in being the common for redressal by CPGRAMS.
open platform on which grievances can be registered by
citizens which will operate as a single window experience. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
• Appointment of Nodal Officers for Public Grievances in
all Ministries/ Departments who will address grievances (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
promptly, fairly and efficiently.
¾ Ministries/ Departments with high grievance loads (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
to have dedicated Nodal Officers. Answer : c
¾ The Role of the Nodal Officer is effective
categorization, monitoring pendency, examine the
feedback for process and policy improvements,
undertake root cause analysis, collation of monthly RULING ON SC/ST PROTECTION
data sets and supervisory oversight of the Grievance LAW
Redressal Officers of the Ministry/ Department.
• Dedicated Grievance Cells shall be set-up in every Why in News: Not every ‘insult’ against SC/ST persons can
Ministry/ Department with sufficient resources having be considered as offence under SC/ST protection law, says
knowledge of schemes and activities. the India Supreme Court of India.

• The timelines for effective grievance redressal have been Key Details
reduced to 21 days. In cases where grievance redressal • The Supreme Court held in a judgment that not all insults
is likely to take longer, citizens shall be given an interim and intimidatory comments aimed at a Scheduled Caste
reply. or Scheduled Tribe person would be an offence under the
• An escalation process has been envisaged with the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of
appointment of appellate officers and sub-nodal appellate Atrocities) Act, 1989.
officers in Ministries/ Departments. • The aggressor, who is not a Scheduled Caste/Scheduled
• A grievance redressal assessment index for ranking Tribe (SC/ST) person, cannot be booked under the
Ministries/ Departments shall be issued on a monthly 1989 Act merely because the victim of his insults or
basis. intimidatory act happened to be a SC/ST person.
• Training and Capacity building of grievance officers on • The Act would come into play if the insult had been
CPGRAMS shall be conducted through 36 Administrative intentionally thrown at the victim only on account that
Training Institutes of States/ UT’s under the SEVOTTAM the latter was a SC/ST member.
scheme. ¾ The very reason behind the intentional insult or
CPGRAMS intimidation should solely be the identity of the
victim as a member of the SC/ST community.
• Centralised Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System
(CPGRAMS) is an online platform available to the citizens Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of
24x7 to lodge their grievances to the public authorities on any Atrocities) Act, 1989
subject related to service delivery. • Section 3(1)(r) deals with insulting an SC/ST person in public
• It is a single portal connected to all the Ministries/Departments with intention to humiliate the person.
of Government of India and States. Every Ministry and States � Mere knowledge of the fact that the victim is an SC/ST
have role-based access to this system. member would not be sufficient to attract Section 3(1)(r).
• CPGRAMS is also accessible to the citizens through standalone � To effectively invoke this provision, the ‘humiliation’
mobile application downloadable through Google Play store inflicted by the aggressor should be intricately associated
and mobile application integrated with UMANG. with the caste identity of the victim.

POLITY & GOVERNANCE  17

 • Section 3(1)(u) covers the offence of promoting hatred, ill-will (b) Imprisonment for a term which shall not be less
or enmity against SC/ST communities. than three months but which may extend to five
years and with fine.
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
(c) Imprisonment for a term which shall not be less
than one month but which may extend to five years
Prelims MCQ
and with fine.
Q. If a person imposes or threatens a social or economic
(d) Imprisonment for a term which shall not be less
boycott of any person or a family or a group belonging
than one year but which may extend to five years
to a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe then he shall
and with fine.
be punished with
Answer : a
(a) Imprisonment for a term which shall not be less
than six months but which may extend to five years
and with fine.

18 POLITY & GOVERNANCE

 SECTION

B INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

INDIA-BANGLADESH RELATIONS Asia. Bangladesh exported USD 1.97 billion of goods to India
in FY 2023-24. In FY 2023-24, the total bilateral trade has been
Why in News: The end of the Sheikh Hasina government reported as USD 14.01 billion.
should not be perceived as a mortal blow to India-Bangladesh
Strategic Engagements:
relations.
� Bangladesh’s geographical position, situated between India
Key Details and Myanmar, provides India with strategic advantages.
• Following the ousting of Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina, a � It acts as a buffer state and plays a role in regional dynamics
17-member interim administration led by Nobel Laureate involving China, Myanmar, and the broader Indo-Pacific
Professor Muhammad Yunus took office. region.
• Policy-making circles in Dhaka contended that the interim Water Resources sharing:
government would give bilateral relations top priority � The management of transboundary rivers, such as the Ganges,
because it is beneficial for many Bangladeshi sectors to the Brahmaputra and its tributary Teesta, is a crucial issue.
keep positive relations with India. � Cooperative agreements on water sharing are essential for
Immediate impacts on India-Bangladesh Relations: addressing water scarcity and environmental challenges,
which can impact millions of people in both countries.
• India sees the events in Bangladesh as a blow to
Counterterrorism and Security:
connectivity, trade, and security as well as a potential loss
of power. Cooperation
�  between India and Bangladesh on
counterterrorism is vital.
• Since Sheikh Hasina’s resignation, there are indications
that the two neighbors are becoming icier. Bangladesh has been an important partner in combating
� 
terrorism and extremism, which directly impacts India’s
• Non-essential employees of India’s high commission
security.
have left Bangladesh after her departure.
� There are a number of terror outfits like United Liberation
• The Meghalaya government has temporarily suspended Front of Assam (ULFA) active in Bangladesh and arouse anti
business operations at the border haats along the Indian sentiments.
International Border with Bangladesh due to the volatile
Connectivity and Trade Routes:
situation in that country.
� Bangladesh serves as a key corridor for connectivity between
Engagements Between India and Bangladesh India’s northeastern states and the rest of the country.
Cooperation for regional stability: Improved infrastructure and transportation links through
� 
� India faces cross-border insurgency and illegal activities such Bangladesh enhance regional connectivity, benefiting trade
as smuggling and human trafficking that affects northeastern and movement.
Indian states. � Important examples are Agartala-Akhaura rail connectivity
� Both countries signed a land boundary agreement in 2015 to project and Khulna - Mongla Port Rail Line projects.
make the land border more stable and secure.
Cultural and Historical Ties:
Economic Ties:
� Shared cultural and historical links foster stronger bilateral
The economic relationship between India and Bangladesh
�  relations.
is substantial. Trade between the two countries has grown
� Collaboration in areas such as education, tourism, and people-
significantly, and India is one of Bangladesh’s largest trading
to-people connections helps to build a deeper relationship.
partners.
Energy Sector:
� Additionally, Indian investment in sectors like infrastructure
and energy contributes to economic development in Collaboration in energy infrastructure, including the
� 
Bangladesh, which in turn benefits Indian businesses and the development of cross-border power grids, thermal power
broader economy. plants, nuclear power plants and renewable energy projects,
could address energy needs and enhance sustainability.
� Bangladesh is India’s biggest trade partner in South Asia and
India is the second biggest trade partner of Bangladesh in � Maitree Super Thermal Power Plant and Rooppur nuclear

INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS  19
 power project (by the help of India and Russia) in Bangladesh • Both countries should place a high priority on bilateral ties
are important examples.. as it is in the interest of various sectors in India as well as
Bangladesh to maintain a good relationship.
Defense cooperation:
• Both countries should resume negotiations over river water
� Both countries are engaged in defense activites on various
sharing like Tessta and Ganga.
fronts.
• Both countries should resume Visa services. In 2023, around
� Exercise Sampriti (Army), Exercise Bongo Sagar (Navy) are
16 lakh Indian visas were issued to Bangladeshis.
important examples.
• In view of the growing demand for Indian visas, New Delhi
Regional cooperation:
had agreed, during former Prime Minister Hasina’s state visit
Both countries are actively associated with a number of
�  in June, to start an e-visa facility for patients seeking medical
regional organizations to promote regional cooperation. treatment in India. Visa service is important for India due to
Both countries are common members in South Asian
�  health and other forms of tourism.
Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC), IORA(Indian • For a short term measure, Bangladesh must bring the law and
Ocean Rim Association) and the Bay of Bengal Initiative order situation under control and must refrain from all kinds
for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation of violences.
(BIMSTEC).
• The Mahari system in Garo Hills, which has a strong clan-
Contemporary Challenges Ahead: based network, to aid in the identification, rehabilitation, and
Diplomatic challenges: eventual deportation of the refugees , must be utilized.

� It will bring diplomatic challenges before India with respect to Long Term Measures
stability in the region specifically with countries with which • Regional Integration:
India already has contentious relations. In recent outrage in
Working together within regional frameworks like the
� 
Bangladesh it has been alleged that Pakistan’s intelligence
SAARC, IORA and BIMSTEC to address regional issues
agency ISI has been fuelling the unrest.
and promote collective development.
Stability Challenge:
• Diplomacy and Regional Stability:
� The government crisis in Bangladesh will lead to unrest in
� Bangladesh shares a long border with India, and its stability
India’s north east region. Instability in Bangladesh will increase
is crucial for regional security.
refugee influx in north eastern states of India.
� As Chinese aggression is a common threat for both
Economic Challenges: countries, Bangladesh is important for stability in the
� Bilateral trade between both countries has been affected due South East Asian region and for successful implementation
to the recent crisis in Bangladesh. of India’s Act East Policy, neighborhood first policy and
Political Challenges: SAGAR (Security and growth for all in the region) initiative.

Both countries have been involved in deep political

�  • Trade engagements:
engagements since the liberation war in 1971. Recent political � Expanding trade agreements and increasing investments in
change in Bangladesh has not only changed the political sectors such as textiles, pharmaceuticals, and information
scenario in Bangladesh but has also affected its political technology can benefit both economies.
relations with India as well.
� Joint ventures and partnerships in infrastructure projects,
Social Challenges: including roads and ports, could also be explored.
� The Rohingya crisis has been one of the important challenges • Intelligence Sharing:
before both countries.
Enhancing cooperation on intelligence sharing and
� 
� Recently, attacks on hindu minorities in Bangladesh have also counterterrorism measures to combat extremist threats and
created communal tensions in the region. organized crime.
Way Forward • Academic Collaboration:
Short Terms Measures � Expanding educational exchanges, joint research projects,
• Bangladesh has been an excellent neighbor of India ever since and scholarships to foster academic cooperation and
the 1971 liberation war ended. cultural understanding.

• India needs to accept the people’s movement and the change, • Tourism:
and it needs to send a special envoy to speak with the interim Promoting tourism through joint initiatives, such as
� 
government. cultural festivals and heritage tours, to boost people-to-
people connections.
• 
The present Interim government has been led by the
BNP(Bangladesh Nationalist Party). • Public Health:

• Bangladesh has to work to change the perspective that Awami Collaborating on healthcare projects, including disease
� 
League means totally pro-India policy and BNP means anti- control and pandemic preparedness, to enhance health
India policy. outcomes and respond to public health emergencies.

20 INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

 Important Highlights of the Summit
• Medical Tourism:
• Extending Philosophy of Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam:
� Developing medical tourism by leveraging the strengths of
The Voice of Global South Summit is an extension to the
both countries’ healthcare sectors.
international arena of India’s philosophy of Vasudhaiva
Conclusion Kutumbakam, or “One Earth, One Family, One Future”
along with a vision of vision of Sabka Saath, Sabka Vikas,
The interim government in Bangladesh pledges to deliver
Sabka Vishwas and Sabka Prayas.
a government which assures safety to citizens and to
build positive relations with neighbors, specifically India. • Global Development Compact: India proposed a four-
Bangladesh must follow the policy of not “anger” or pronged Global Development Compact, targeting trade
“revenge” but “love and peace” which will rebuild the nation. for development, capacity building, technology sharing,
and concessional finance, to help Global South countries
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE achieve Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and
drive growth beyond 2030.
Prelims MCQ
¾ India announced a USD 2.5 million fund for trade
Q. Consider the following regional organization- promotion and a USD 1 million fund for capacity
building in trade policy.
1. BIMSTEC 2. SAARC
• Health and Education Initiatives:
3. IORA 4. ASEAN ¾ Making affordable generic medicines accessible,
strengthening drug regulation, and sharing
In how many of the above organizations, India and technology in natural farming.
Bangladesh are common members- ¾ In education, discussions centered on creating human
resources to accelerate SDG achievement, promoting
(a) Only two (b) Only three
women-led development, and integrating emerging
(c) All four (d) None technologies with skill development.
Answer: b (1, 2 and 3 only) • Climate Action and Energy Transition: The summit
emphasized the urgency of addressing climate change
Descriptive Question through climate justice, equitable access to climate finance,
and the need for technology transfer and capacity building.
Q. In the context of recent political changes in Bangladesh,
examine the immediate impacts and long term ¾ The discussions also underscored the importance
possibilities between India-Bangladesh relations. [15 of energy security and accessibility, with a focus on
marks] [250 Words] transitioning to clean energy technologies.
¾ The participants also reaffirmed the principles
of equity and Common but Differentiated
THE THIRD VOICE OF GLOBAL Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities.
SOUTH SUMMIT 2024 ¾ Global Governance: The summit called for
more inclusive and equitable global governance,
Why in News: India has recently hosted the 3rd Voice of emphasizing the importance of democratizing
Global South Summit in virtual format. multilateral institutions like the UN to better represent
developing countries’ interests.
Key Details
• Youth Empowerment and Digital Inclusion: The summit
• India had hosted the 1st Voice of Global South Summit highlighted the importance of empowering youth as
(VOGSS) on January 12-13, 2023, and the second Voice active drivers of development, with a focus on quality
of Global South Summit on November 17, 2023, both education, vocational training, and digital inclusion.
in virtual format. 123 countries participated in the • South-South Cooperation: Participants discussed
3rd VOGSS. However, China and Pakistan were not the potential of digital public infrastructure (DPI)
invited. models in enhancing service delivery and economic
• The third VOGSS, with the overarching theme of “An growth, advocating for greater collaboration on digital
Empowered Global South for a Sustainable Future”, innovations and the development of start-up ecosystems
aims to act as a platform to expand discussions held in within the Global South.
the previous summits on a range of complex challenges ¾ The summit stressed the importance of expanding
that continue to affect the world, such as conflicts, food financing options for the Global South, particularly
and energy security crises, climate change – all of which through multilateral development banks and tackling
disproportionately affect developing countries in a severe liquidity constraints, and scaling up affordable long-term
manner. financing to support sustainable development initiatives.

INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS  21
 What is Global South?

• The Global South encompasses countries, primarily in Africa,

Asia, and Latin America that are often characterized as
“developing” or “less developed.”

• These nations typically face greater economic challenges, such

as lower income levels, higher inequality, and reduced life
expectancy compared to the wealthier “Global North,” which
includes regions like North America and Europe.

• The term “Global South” was first coined in 1969 by activist

Carl Oglesby, who highlighted historical power imbalances
between the North and South, notably during conflicts like the
Vietnam War.

• Later, Brandt report was published in 1983 by a commission

chaired by formal German chancellor Willy brandt. The report
identified the north are those countries that are above the 30°
northern latitude. The South is geographical convenience
based on the fact that most of the poor world lies South of 30°
northern latitude, except Australia and New Zealand.

• Today, the term also reflects the socio-economic and

geopolitical divides between these regions, emphasizing the
need for equitable global development and cooperation.

Conclusion
With the participation of countries representing over 60%
of the world’s population, the Summit reinforced the
centrality of the Global South in pursuit of a future that
is inclusive for all. While calling global attention to the
urgent interventions required for the achievement of SDGs
by 2030, Leaders and Ministers deliberated on ways to
strengthen development and economic cooperation among
the countries of the Global South, and to meet socio-
economic challenges beyond 2030.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ
Challenges faced by Global South Countries
Q. Which country hosted the 3rd Global South Summit?
• Macroeconomic Vulnerabilities: These countries struggle
with high public debt, especially to private creditors, leading (a) India (b) Brazil
to financial instability and higher borrowing costs.
(c) South Africa (d) Indonesia
• Structural Weaknesses: Weak institutions, poor governance, Answer: a
and a reliance on volatile commodity markets limit their
economic resilience and ability to diversify.
Descriptive Question
• Geopolitical Risks: The transition to clean energy and global Q. Discuss the key highlights of the recent Global South
geopolitical shifts create both opportunities and challenges, Summit. Also, examine the role of India as voice of
particularly in maintaining economic stability. global south. [15 marks] [250 words]

• Developmental Challenges: Persistent poverty, inequality,

and insufficient infrastructure hinder sustainable development
and integration into the global economy. UNITED NATION SECURITY
• 
Environmental and Social Pressures: These countries face
COUNCIL
significant environmental degradation and social inequality, Why in News: India on the behalf of G4 nations (India, Brazil,
exacerbated by climate change and resource dependency. Germany & Japan) said that the Council is “ill-equipped”

22 INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

to address the international challenges as there is a lack of interests over global security, leading to biased decisions
representation. and undermining the Council’s credibility.

Key Details of the Statement ¾ For example during the Iraq War in 2003, the
• In the light of recent geopolitical events UNSC failed U.S. pursued military action despite widespread
to deliver its primary responsibility to safeguard opposition and the lack of a clear UNSC mandate.
international peace and security. • Changing Global Dynamics: Emerging powers,
• The primary reason for the under-performance of shifting alliances, and new security challenges require
the critical U.N. Security Council remains the non- a more dynamic and representative UNSC to address
representation of Africa, Latin America and the contemporary issues effectively.
Caribbean, and the under-representation of Asia Pacific ¾ For example, the emergence of new security threats
in the permanent category. such as cyber warfare and climate change are
• India advocated for group’s model of UNSC reforms examples of how global dynamics have evolved. The
which proposed that the Security Council membership current UNSC structure struggles to address these
increase from the current 15 to 25-26 by adding six modern challenges adequately, indicating the need
permanent and four or five non-permanent members. for reform.
• Among the six new permanent members, two each are Challenges in UNSC Reforms
proposed to be from African States and Asia Pacific states,
• To reform the UNSC, a proposal must come from the
one from Latin American and Caribbean states, and one
UNGA, which itself divided on the issue. Among the 193
from West European and Other States.
countries, there are five negotiating groups and they are
Need for the Reforms in UNSC neutralising each other.
• Under Representation: The UNSC’s current structure • Rigid Structure of the UN Charter also another obstacle
does not adequately represent the global population or as any amendment requires two third majority of the
the geopolitical realities of today. overall membership.
¾ The Council is dominated by the five permanent • Veto countries are reluctant to reform UNSC as it will
members (P5): the United States, Russia, China, the take away their privileges being a permanent member of
United Kingdom, and France, which reflects the a powerful UNSC.
power dynamics of the post-World War II era, not the • Many nations wish to reform the UNSC, but in their
modern world. hearts, they really want the changes to be made so they
¾ For example countries like India, Brazil, and Japan, can pursue their own interests rather than the interests of
which are major global players, lack permanent the world.
representation, leading to a lack of diversity in • Continue Geo plolitical conflicts hampering the UNSC
decision-making. reforms as it diverts the attention. For example, Israel
• Obsolete Structure: The structure of the UNSC, Gaza conflict, Russia-Ukraine conflict etc.
particularly the veto power held by the P5, is seen as
outdated. This power allows any of the permanent About UNSC
members to block resolutions, regardless of the majority
opinion, which can paralyze the Council’s ability to act • The United Nations was established by the United Nations
on critical global issues. Charter signed on June 26, 1945 in San Francisco. The United
Nations Charter established six main organs of the United
¾ For example the Syrian Civil War has seen numerous Nations, including the Security Council. It gives primary
proposed resolutions blocked by Russia and China, responsibility for maintaining international peace and security
using their veto power. to the Security Council, which may meet whenever peace is
threatened.
• Failure of Responsibility to Establish Peace: The UNSC
is tasked with maintaining international peace and • The UNSC has 15 members, including five permanent
members (China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom and the
security, but it has often failed to fulfill this responsibility United States) with veto rights. The UNSC’s working methods
effectively. The Council’s inability to act decisively in include procedural votes, the veto, Arria-formula meetings,
some of the world’s most severe conflicts has raised and visiting missions.
questions about its efficacy. • The ten non-permanent members of the Security Council are
¾ For example the ongoing conflict in Yemen has elected for two years on a regional basis. Five seats are allocated
resulted in one of the world’s worst humanitarian to African and Asian states, two seats to Latin American and
Caribbean states, one seat to Eastern European states and two
crises, yet the UNSC has struggled to take meaningful seats to Western European and other states.
action to resolve the conflict.
• Vested Interest of UNSC Members: The permanent • 
According to the Charter, the United Nations has four
purposes:
members of the UNSC often prioritize their national

INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS  23
 ¾ Recruitment, Employment and Repatriation of
� to maintain international peace and security;
Workers; Ayurveda and other Traditional Systems
� to develop friendly relations among nations; of Medicines; Digital Technologies; Culture, Arts
and Heritage; Tourism; Public Administration
to cooperate in solving international problems and in
� 
and Governance Reforms; Youth and Sports; and
promoting respect for human rights;
Financial Services between Labuan Financial Services
� and to be a centre for harmonizing the actions of Authority (LFSA) and International Financial Services
nations. Centres Authority, India (IFSCA).
• Both the countries agreed to work on linking India’s UPI
Conclusion with Malaysia’s PayNet.
Reforming the UNSC to include more South countries is ¾ Trade between India and Malaysia can now be settled
essential for ensuring fairer representation and effective in Indian Rupee INR and Malaysian Ringgits MYR.
decision-making. This change would better reflect today’s • Both sides agreed to support and expedite the review
global dynamics and enhance the Council’s legitimacy and process of ASEAN- India Trade in Goods Agreement
ability to address contemporary security challenges. (AITIGA) to make it more effective and trade-facilitative
for businesses.
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
• Both sides agreed to further expand defence industry
Prelims MCQ collaboration as well as defence R&D collaboration.
Q. Which of the following is NOT a reason for the need to • The Indian government also agreed to a “one-time”
reform the United Nations Security Council (UNSC)? special allocation of 2,00,000 MT of white rice to Malaysia,
which has been calling for India to ease its curbs on the
(a) Under-representation of Africa, Latin America, and export of rice and sugar.
the Caribbean
¾ Malaysia, which is dependent on food imports from
(b) Obsolete structure and veto power of permanent India, had requested an extra 5,00,000 metric tonnes
members of white rice from India in March, in addition to the
(c) Excessive representation of emerging powers 1,70,000 tonnes allocated for the year.
(d) 
Failure to address contemporary security
challenges effectively India Malaysia Relations
Answer: c • 
India established diplomatic relations with the Federation
of Malaya (predecessor state of Malaysia) in 1957. The two
countries enjoyed a strong relationship in the 1960s as a result
Descriptive Question
of the personal friendship between Prime Ministers Nehru and
Q. Discuss the key reasons behind the call for reforming Tunku Abdul Rahman Putra.
the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) and • Presently, India and Malaysia have developed close political,
evaluate the challenges associated with implementing economic and socio-cultural relations.
these reforms. [15 marks] [250 words]
• Malaysia is a home to over 2.95 million large Indian diapora
and the second largest PIO community in the world after the
US. There is growing engagement in all aspects of bilateral
INDIA-MALAYSIA RELATIONS relationship.

Why in News: India and Malaysia elevated their partnership Economic & Commercial Relation
to a comprehensive strategic level during a recent visit of
Malaysian Prime Ministers Anwar Ibrahim to India. • Bilateral trade between the two countries has been steadily
growing to reach US$20.01 billion in FY 2023-24. Malaysia has
Key Details of the Visit emerged as 16th largest trading partner for India while India
• Both the nation decided to upgrade the ties to a figures among the 10 largest trading partners for Malaysia.
‘Comprehensive Strategic Partnership’ from 2010 • Malaysia is also our 3rd largest trading partner in ASEAN.
Strategic Partnership that had been made an ‘Enhanced
Strategic Partnership’ in 2015. • 
India’s major exports items to Malaysia are mineral fuels,
• Reaffirming the importance of India’s Comprehensive mineral oils; aluminium and articles thereof, meat and edible
meat offal, iron and steel, copper etc
Strategic Partnership with ASEAN, Malaysia appreciated
India’s full support for ASEAN centrality and Malaysia’s • India’s major import items from Malaysia are palm oil, mineral
upcoming ASEAN Chairmanship in 2025. fuels, mineral oils, electrical machinery and equipment, animal
or vegetable fats and oils and their cleavage products; nuclear
• Both India and Malaysia exchanged MoUs on cooperation
reactors, boilers, machinery and mechanical appliances etc.
in the fields of:

24 INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

 Conclusion
Bilateral Investment
The recent upgrade of India-Malaysia ties to a ‘Comprehensive
• Malaysia ranks as the 31st largest investor in India with FDI
Strategic Partnership’ reflects a commitment to deepening
inflow of US$ 3.3 billion. Besides this, investments worth US$5
billion have been announced by various companies in the bilateral cooperation across various sectors. This strategic
fields of renewable energy especially green hydrogen, green enhancement builds on existing ties and aims to address past
ammonia and also infrastructure projects. tensions while fostering collaboration in trade, defense, and
cultural exchanges. Both nations are focused on leveraging
• 
There are more than 150 Indian companies, including 61
Indian joint ventures and 3 Indian Public Sector Undertakings
this partnership to enhance economic growth, security, and
operating in Malaysia. Indian companies have invested in mutual benefits in the region.
around 250 manufacturing projects of over US$ 2.62 billion
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
Defence Cooperation
Descriptive Question
• 
India-Malaysia defence relations have steadily progressed,
with a significant milestone being the 1993 MoU on Defence Q. Discuss the significance of upgrading India-Malaysia
Cooperation, which forms the foundation of their bilateral relations to a ‘Comprehensive Strategic Partnership,’
defence ties. highlighting key areas of cooperation and recent
developments. How does this new status impact
• This MoU was amended in July 2023 during the visit of the bilateral and regional dynamics? [15 Marks] [250 Words]
Indian Defence Minister to Malaysia, where the first regional
office of Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) was also
inaugurated in Kuala Lumpur. Key highlights include:

� The 12th edition of the Malaysia-India Defence Cooperation

75TH ANNIVERSARY OF THE
Meeting (MIDCOM) held on 19 September 2023 in New GENEVA CONVENTIONS
Delhi, co-chaired by India’s Defence Secretary Giridhar Why in News: 2024 year marks the 75th anniversary of the
Aramane and Malaysia’s Deputy Secretary General (Policy) adoption of the four Geneva Conventions of 12 August 1949.
Mohd Yani bin Daud.
Key Details
� Regular high-level Staff Talks and frequent port visits by
• The 75th anniversary aims to reaffirm the importance of
Indian Navy ships to Malaysia, fostering strong naval ties.
the Geneva Conventions in preventing suffering in armed
India’s active participation in Malaysia’s Langkawi
�  conflict and ensuring that a level of dignity is maintained.
International Maritime and Aerospace Exhibition (LIMA) • The 34th International Conference of the Red Cross and
and the Defence Services Asia (DSA) Exhibition. Red Crescent, will also take place in Geneva, from 28 to
31 October 2024.
Cultural Ties
• The Indian Cultural Centre in Kuala Lumpur, established in About the Geneva Conventions
February 2010 under the Indian Council for Cultural Relations • The 1949 Geneva Conventions and their Additional
(ICCR), offers classes in Carnatic Vocal, Kathak dance, Yoga, and Protocols form the core of International Humanitarian
Hindi, conducted by trained teachers from India and Malaysia. Law (IHL), which regulates the conduct of armed conflict
• 
It was renamed the Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Indian and seeks to limit its effects.
Cultural Center (NSCBICC) by Prime Minister Narendra Modi • All four Geneva Conventions contain an identical Article
during his visit to Malaysia in November 2015. Key activities 3, which applies to non-international armed conflicts
include: and prohibits various acts against individuals such as
� C
 onfluence: Samagam Language Series: Launched by people (civilians, medics, aid workers) and those who
NSCBICC and the High Commission of India on 27 April (wounded, sick and shipwrecked troops, prisoners of
2024, this series promotes Indian languages spoken by the war) not actively participating in hostilities.
Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) community in Malaysia.
• They are now universally ratified, representing a
9th International Yoga Day: Celebrated at Batu Caves
�  universal acknowledgement that war needs rules to limit
Complex on 21 June 2023, the event saw over 1,000 its devastating impact on humanity.
participants, including diplomats, Malaysian government
officials, NGOs, and community members.
The First Geneva Convention
� Cultural Events: The High Commission, in collaboration
• The 10 articles of the original 1864 version of the Convention
with Think City Penang and local Indian diaspora have been expanded in the First Geneva Convention of 1949 to
associations, organized “Reminiscing Rabindranath Tagore” 64 articles that protects soldiers who are hors de combat (out
at Universiti Sains Malaysia, Penang, on 29 November 2023. of the battle) which includes:
Other events throughout the year included World Sanskrit
� Wounded and sick soldiers
Day, Hindi Diwas, Gandhi Jayanti, Parakram Diwas, and
Ambedkar Jayanti. � Medical personnel, facilities and equipment

INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS  25
 Wounded and sick civilian
�  support personnel • Distinction: Parties must distinguish between civilians and
accompanying the armed forces combatants at all times. Only fighters can be directly targeted.
� Military chaplains • Prohibition of unnecessary suffering: IHL prohibits the
Civilians who spontaneously take up arms to repel an
�  infliction of suffering, injury, or destruction that is not
invasion necessary for legitimate military purposes. This includes
The Second Geneva Convention blinding laser weapons.

• The Second Geneva Convention adapts the protections of the • 

Prohibition of disproportionate attacks: IHL prohibits
First Geneva Convention to reflect conditions at sea. attacks that may cause excessive civilian harm in relation to
the military advantage.
• It protects following individuals while on board ship or at sea.
Armed forces members who are wounded, sick or
�  • Principle of necessity: Parties to an armed conflict may only
shipwrecked use the force required to achieve the legitimate purpose of the
conflict.
� Hospital ships and medical personnel
• Principle of proportionality: IHL limits the potential harm to
� Civilians who accompany the armed forces
civilians.
The Third Geneva Convention
IHL is based on customary international law and the four Geneva
• The Third Geneva Convention sets out specific rules for the Conventions of 1949, and two Additional Protocols of 1977. The
treatment of prisoners of war (POWs). red cross, red crescent, and red crystal are the signs of protection
• The Convention’s 143 articles require that POWs be treated under IHL.
humanely, adequately housed and receive sufficient food,
clothing and medical care.
• Its provisions also establish guidelines on labor, discipline,
recreation and criminal trial.
• Note: Prisoners of war may include the following:
� Members of the armed forces
� Volunteer militia, including resistance movements
� Civilians accompanying the armed forces.
The Fourth Geneva Convention
• The 159 articles of the Fourth Geneva Convention focuses on
civilians and includes detailed provisions on their treatment,
status, and rights in areas of armed conflict/war. It also
includes rules relating to humanitarian access.
• 
Moreover, under Article 146, parties to the Convention
undertake to enact legislation that provides for penal sanctions Conclusion
for persons who commit grave breaches. The 1949 Conventions remain the core of international
The Protocols Additional to the Geneva Conventions of 1949 humanitarian law, or the laws of armed conflict. Despite
• Protocol I (102 Articles) differing political views and experiences of war, countries
agreed to the Geneva Convention rules by striking a balance
� Protocol I expands protection for the civilian population
as well as military and civilian medical workers in between military need and humanitarian ideals for the
international armed conflicts. treatment of civilians, captured enemy soldiers and the dead.
• Protocol II (28 Articles)
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
� Protocol II elaborates on protections for victims caught up
in high-intensity internal conflicts such as civil wars. Prelims MCQ
� It does not apply to such internal disturbances as riots,
demonstrations and isolated acts of violence. Q. 
The Geneva Conventions are primarily concerned
with the protection of:
• Protocol III
�  In December 2005, a third Additional Protocol to the (a) Environmental resources during warfare
Geneva Conventions was adopted that provides for
another distinctive emblem: the red crystal. (b) Civilian populations and prisoners of war during
� The red crystal is an optional emblem, equal in status to the conflicts
red cross and red crescent. The red crystal may be used in
environments where another emblem could be perceived
(c) Trade and commerce between nations
as having religious, cultural or political connotations.
(d) Diplomatic relations between states
Note: The principles of International Humanitarian Law (IHL)
are intended to limit the effects of armed conflict while protecting Answer: b
civilians and combatants:

26 INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

 Abraham Verghese have had a profound impact
INDIAN DIASPORA IN U.S.A. with their explorations of the Indian-American
experience.
Why in News: Recently a landmark report released by
Indiaspora and Boston Consulting Group, highlighting the ¾ Half of the Indian American population lives in
significant contributions of Indian Americans in shaping the five large states: California, Texas, New York, New
US economy, culture, and society. Jersey, and Illinois. It also provides insights into the
community’s social structure, noting that a fifth of
Indian Diaspora is a generic term used for addressing people Indian Americans live in multi-generational homes,
who have migrated from the territories that are currently a practice reminiscent of the joint family system in
within the borders of the Republic of India. It constitutes NRIs India.
(Non-resident Indians) and PIOs (Persons of Indian origins).
• Education: More than three-fourths of Indian Americans
According to a 2024 Ministry of External Affairs report, there
have at least a bachelor’s degree, and a similar percentage
are 35.4 million non-resident Indians (NRIs) and persons of
work in high-paying professions such as management,
Indian origin (PIOs) living outside of India.
business, science, or the arts.
Key Details of the Report ¾ Around 22,000 faculty members of Indian origin are
Indian Americans are making up 1.5% of the US population, teaching at U.S. colleges and universities, making up
contributing richly to its economy, culture, and society. about 2.6% of all fulltime faculty.
• Economic Impact ¾ Moreover, Indian students comprise 25% of
¾ CEOs of Indian origin head 16 Fortune 500 companies. international students in the U.S. and 1.5% of the total
These leaders collectively employ 2.7 million student population, with approximately 60% enrolled
Americans and generate nearly $1 trillion in revenue. in graduate studies.
¾ Indian Diaspora have a significant presence in the • Innovation: Between 1975 and 2019, the share of U.S.
startup world, co-founding 72 out of 648 U.S. unicorns patents with Indian origin innovators increased from
operating in 2024. These companies, like Cambridge around 2% to 10%. About one-third of tech employees
Mobile Telematics and Solugen, employ over 55,000 in Silicon Valley are of Indian origin. Moreover, in 2023,
people and are valued at $195 billion. scientists of Indian-origin secured about 11 per cent of all
¾ Indian Americans own about 60% of all U.S. hotels, National Institutes of Health grants and contributed to 13
and hospitality industry. per cent of scientific publications.
¾ Indian Americans estimated to pay about 5-6% Conclusion
of all income taxes (approximately $250-300B).
Indian Americans are a powerhouse of talent, resilience,
Furthermore, their professions indirectly create 11-
and diversity that enriches America. The community’s
12 million American jobs, showcasing their broader
perseverance and accomplishments illustrate their vital role
economic influence.
in American society, driving progress and unity. Moreover,
• Cultural Impact a supportive infrastructure, combined with the American
¾ Indian Americans have significantly contributed to values of meritocracy and equal opportunity, helps Indian
the cultural landscape of the United States across Americans unleash their full potential.
various domains such as festivals, cuisine, wellness,
film, music, and fashion. EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
 Indian festivals like Diwali and Holi are now Descriptive Question
widely celebrated in the U.S., featuring vibrant
Q. Examine the multifaceted impact of the Indian diaspora
parades, music, dance, and food. Diwali is on USA socio-economic development. [15 marks] [250
now celebrated with an official state holiday in words]
Pennsylvania and in New York City.
 In the culinary world, celebrated chefs like Maneet
Chauhan Vikas Khanna, and Srijith Gopinathan MIDDLE EAST CRISIS
have brought Indian flavors to mainstream
American dining. Why in News: A recent escalation of tensions between Iran
and Israel, following assassination of leaders of Hamas and
 Deepak Chopra, who popularized Ayurvedic
Hezbollah (groups backed by Iran), has spurred the US and
practices and holistic health, have become
other regional powers to step up diplomacy to prevent an all-
significant trends in American culture. Yoga and
out war in West Asia.
Ayurveda, with roots in India, are now staples in
American wellness practices. Relevance of Middle East for India
 In literature, authors like Jhumpa Lahiri and • Energy Security: India who is world third largest crude

INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS  27
 oil importer and consumer has to rely on Middle East equidistant position from all major poles of influence
countries like Saudi Arabia, Iraq, and the UAE. in the international system. This is most challenging
¾ India’s dependence on the Gulf for energy imports especially when Middle-East region is the world’s most
decreased following Russia’s 2022 invasion of polarised and bifurcated region that is split between
Ukraine, with New Delhi importing discounted multiple regional powers and non-regional powers,
Russian oil. including the United States, Russia, China, and Europe.
¾ The Gulf region fulfilled 55.3% of India’s total crude • Navigating Domestic and Ideological Tensions: The
oil demand in 2022–23, compared to 63.9% in 2021– Nationalist ideology of India’s ruling party can strain
22. Current situation is an opportunity for India, but relations with Muslim-majority Middle Eastern countries.
India can never ignore gulf countries.
• Managing Regional Instability: The Middle East is
• Trade Relation: The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) is
one of the world’s most unstable regions, with conflicts
India’s largest regional-bloc trading partner.
like those in Syria, Yemen, and Gaza. India faces the
¾ Trade with the GCC comprised 15.8% of India’s total challenge of these instabilities spilling over into South
trade in FY2022–23, compared to 11.6% of total trade Asia, especially given its contentious relationship with
with the European Union. Iran and Israel are also Pakistan, potentially drawing India into regional conflicts
important trading partner. or affecting its own internal security.
• Remittance: During 2021-22, India received foreign
inward remittances of $89,127 million which was the • Effectiveness of New Diplomatic Initiatives: India’s
highest ever inward remittances received in a single year. recent initiatives, such as the I2U2 grouping (India, Israel,
Out of this around 26.2% is received from gulf countries. the United States, and the UAE) and the India-Middle
East-Europe Economic Corridor, are still in their infancy.
• Khalija Capital: Arab Gulf, with its huge amount
of capital that we can draw on for India’s economic • Energy Security and Economic Dependency: Any
development and transformation. For example, India and disruption in the Middle East region could have serious
the UAE are talking about joint space programs and joint economic repercussions for India’s energy security.
defense production.
• De-hyphenation from Pakistan: While India has
• Champion of Moderate Islam: India values its successfully de-hyphenated its Middle East policy
relationship with moderate Islamic countries in the from its relations with Pakistan, maintaining this de-
Middle East because the region’s influence directly affects hyphenation will be a challenge amid the chronic risk of
the large Muslim population in South Asia. Middle Eastern instabilities spilling over into South Asia.
¾ Radical ideologies from the Middle East can quickly
spread to South Asia, where they have a significant Conclusion
impact due to historical ties and ongoing issues like India’s strategy in the Middle East reflects a shift towards
cross-border terrorism. a more assertive and holistic foreign policy, but it must
¾ Therefore, India sees strong, moderate partners in the navigate these substantial challenges to sustain its influence
Gulf as crucial for regional stability and countering and achieve its strategic objectives.
extremism.
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
• Relation with Israel: Trade between two countries has
been rising significantly, from around $200 million in Prelims MCQ
1992 (comprising primarily of diamonds), to $10.7 billion
(excluding defence) in the Financial Year 2022-23. Q. Consider the following countries:
¾ In the last five years India-Israel trade has doubled. 1. Iraq 2. Iran
Moreover India has tended to rely more on Israeli
technology and equipment for border security and 3. Saudi Arabia 4. UAE
counterterrorism.
• Regional Connectivity and Infrastrcture: India is How many of the above are littoral countries of the Persian
Gulf?
investing in infrastructure project which are important
for regional connectivities which has potential to increase (a) Only one (b) Only two
India’s trade with central Asia, and Europe and expand
its regional influence. For example, Chabahar port in (c) Only three (d) All four
Iran, International North South Corridor and recently
Answer: c
concluded India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor.
Descriptive Question
Challenges for India in the Face of the Middle East Crisis Q. Discuss the strategic importance of the Middle East for
• Maintaining Strategic Autonomy: It means holding an India, focusing on its energy security, trade relations,

28 INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

 and regional connectivity initiatives. Also, analyze Future Prospect - India and Poland Defence Cooperation
the challenges India faces in maintaining strategic • It can be divided into two parts—defence industry cooperation
autonomy and managing domestic ideological tensions and joint exercises. Both together complement the defence and
amidst the ongoing Middle East crisis. [15 marks] security domain.
[250 words]
• In 2023, the Ministry of Defence’s decision to open a new
Defence Wing in Poland with a Brigadier rank officer to
oversee various aspects of cooperation.
INDIA - POLAND STRATEGIC
� The first leg of this defence industry cooperation is
PARTNERSHIP modernising India’s T-72 tanks.
Why in News: Prime Minister of India recently visited Poland • WB Group, the largest private defence company in Poland
to elevate their bilateral relations to strategic partnership. has been active in India through WB India is known for their
state-of-the-art solutions in advanced military systems and
Key Details of the Visit electronics, and engagement with a private Indian company
• After a gap of 45 years, India’s Prime Minister has for drone platforms and other cybersecurity systems.
recently visiting Poland to marks the 70th anniversary of • In 2023, India issued a new RFI (request for information) for
the establishment of diplomatic relations. Armoured Recovery Vehicles, with Poland’s Bumar being a
• Both the countries have agreed to implement the Strategic key contender due to its experience with India.
Partnership and have signed a five-year Joint Action • India and Poland could co-produce the Borsuk, an amphibious
Plan for 2024-2028 to expand cooperation in defence and infantry fighting vehicle, to help India replace its aging Soviet-
security, trade and investment and digitalisation. era BMPs.

¾ The total value of bilateral trade increased from $1.95 • Since Poland is a key destination for India’s defense exports,
billion to $5.72 billion from 2013-2023, with India’s therefore India should explore involvement in Warsaw’s
exports accounting for a majority. military modernization. With South Korea already engaged
in deals, the India–Poland Action Plan could establish Joint
¾ Acknowledging the critical role of digitalization in Working Groups to explore similar opportunities with India
economic and social development, both sides agreed and enhance collaboration.
to bolster bilateral cooperation in this field, including
• Joint exercises are key to building trust and interoperability.
in cybersecurity, to enhance stability and trust
With strategic partnerships and increased exercises across
between the two countries. Europe, India is positioning itself for a more prominent role on
¾ Both sides recognized the need to strengthen and the continent. Currently India-Poland have no joint exercise.
deepen cooperation in the defence sector. To this
end, they agreed to fully utilize existing bilateral
mechanisms, including the Joint Working Group for
Defence Cooperation.
• Both the countries have also discussed to expand
cooperation:

¾ in the areas of culture, education, science, research,

and health,
¾ in climate action initiatives,
¾ to a free, open and rules-based Indo-Pacific,
¾ on the early adoption of the Comprehensive
Convention on International Terrorism (CCIT),
¾ role of tourism in driving economic and business
opportunities.

• Prime Minister of India also paid homage at the ‘Good

Maharaja Square’ in Warsaw, Poland, commemorating
Maharaja Digvijaysinhji. Conclusion
¾ During World War II, the Maharaja sheltered 640 The India-Poland relationship has progressed significantly
Polish refugees in Jamnagar, Gujarat. The Maharaja’s and is poised to surpass the goals in their action plan. With
humanitarian efforts have earned him immense shared strategic interests and economic opportunities, both
respect in Poland, with schools and a square named nations are deepening ties, especially as Europe focuses on
after him. For his efforts, the Maharaja was awarded the Indo-Pacific and India engages more in stabilizing the
Poland’s highest honor, the President’s medal. European theater.

INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS  29
 • Further Cooperation Initiatives: They committed to
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
deepening cooperation on Humanitarian Assistance/
Premils MCQ Disaster Relief (HA/DR) and response to infectious
diseases and pandemics.
Q. Which of the following countries does NOT share a
¾ The potential for expanding bilateral cooperation
border with Poland?
in defence equipment and technology was
(a) Germany (b) Ukraine acknowledged, with ongoing collaboration in areas
such as Unmanned Ground Vehicles (UGV) and
(c) Austria (d) Belarus
Robotics.
Answer: c

Descriptive Question
Q. Evaluate the significance of the India-Poland strategic
partnership and its impact on defense and economic
cooperation. [10 marks] [150 words]

‘2+2’ DAILOGUE BETWEEN INDIA

AND JAPAN
Why in News: Recently, India and Japan hold ‘2+2’ dialogue
and reaffirmed their commitment to maintaining and
strengthening rules-based international order founded on the
principles of the UN Charter.

Key Highlights
• Indo-Pacific Strategy: The Ministers emphasized their
commitment to a free, open, inclusive, and resilient Indo-
Pacific, based on the rule of law and free from coercion.
¾ They reaffirmed support for ASEAN’s unity and
centrality, and endorsed the “ASEAN Outlook on the
Indo-Pacific (AOIP)” which promotes principles like Strengthening India-Japan Strategic Partnership in the Indo-
the rule of law, openness, freedom, transparency, and Pacific
inclusiveness.
The Indo-Pacific region has emerged as a crucial area of interest
• Regional and Global Security Issues: The Ministers for both India and Japan, driven by their shared strategic,
discussed mutual regional and global concerns, economic, and security concerns. Their collaboration is guided
particularly in the Indo-Pacific and Ukraine. by mutual goals of ensuring a stable, free, and open Indo-Pacific,
• Japan’s Defence Capabilities: Japan expressed its which is essential for global commerce and regional security. This
resolve to explore all options for national defense, strategic partnership has several dimensions:
including “counterstrike capabilities,” and committed • Shared Vision for the Indo-Pacific: Japan’s vision of a Free
to significantly reinforcing its defense capabilities and and Open Indo-Pacific aligns with India’s Act East Policy,
increasing its budget within the next five years. emphasizing freedom of navigation, adherence to international
laws, and open maritime commons.
• Bilateral Security and Defence Cooperation: They
welcomed deepened cooperation through various Both nations seek to counterbalance China’s growing
� 
dialogues (Disarmament, Maritime Affairs, Space, and influence in the region and ensure that no single power
dominates the Indo-Pacific, maintaining a multipolar balance.
Cyber) and expressed the desire for further dialogues,
including on Security Council reform and economic • Economic and Infrastructure Cooperation: India and Japan
security. collaborate on infrastructure projects across the Indo-Pacific,
such as the Asia-Africa Growth Corridor, which aims to
• Military Exercises and Defence Exchanges: Japan’s
enhance connectivity between Asia and Africa, promoting
participation in the multilateral exercise MILAN was sustainable development.
noted, along with the operationalization of a bilateral
� Joint ventures in areas like digital infrastructure, energy,
agreement on the provision of supplies and services.
and smart city initiatives help drive economic growth and
¾ The Ministers committed to continue bilateral and stability in the region.
multilateral exercises, including “Dharma Guardian,”
• Defense and Security Cooperation: India and Japan conduct
JIMEX, and “Malabar.”

30 INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

 • India aims to strengthen Vietnam’s defense capabilities.
joint naval exercises, such as the Malabar Exercise, to
strengthen maritime security, enhance interoperability, and Both countries agreed to enhance their defense and
ensure safe sea lanes in the Indo-Pacific. security cooperation, focusing on maritime security,
cybersecurity, and counter-terrorism. They also plan
� Regular 2+2 dialogue mechanisms between their defense
to work together in defense industry and technology
and foreign ministers allow for coordinated responses
to regional security challenges, particularly in maritime
transfer. A $300 million credit package for maritime
domains. security was signed to support these efforts.

• Countering Regional Threats: Both countries share concerns

• Both leaders virtually inaugurated the Army Software
over China’s assertiveness in the South China Sea and East Park at Telecommunications University in Nha Trang,
China Sea, and work together to promote a rules-based order Vietnam.
in these disputed waters.
India - Vietnam Relations
� Quad Cooperation: India and Japan, along with the United
States and Australia, form the Quadrilateral Security Economic:
Dialogue (Quad), a strategic forum aimed at countering Bilateral Trade
threats and maintaining regional stability.
• Bilateral trade between the two has gone up from a mere $200
million in 2000 to about $14.82 billion, in value terms, during
Conclusion 2023-24. India’s exports to Vietnam were at $5.47 billion, while
The India-Japan partnership in the Indo-Pacific is crucial for imports stood at $9.35 billion. (Vietnam trade with China
ensuring a balanced power structure, promoting economic $171.2 bn & with USA $ 125 bn in 2023)
growth, and enhancing regional security. By working together � India’s top exports to Vietnam include buffalo meat, marine
on shared goals, these two nations can play a pivotal role in products, iron and steel, rice, aluminium products, auto
components, cereals, cotton yarn and pharmaceutical
shaping the future of the Indo-Pacific, ensuring it remains a products.
region of peace, prosperity, and stability.
� Top imports from Vietnam include electronic components,
telecom instruments, consumer electronics, iron &
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE steel, computer hardware, copper products, electronic
Descriptive Question instruments, spices and rubber.

Q. Evaluate the significance of the recent India-Japan ‘2+2’ Investment:

dialogue in strengthening their strategic partnership. • Indian investments in Vietnam are currently estimated at $2
How does this dialogue enhance cooperation in the billion including investments routed through third countries.
Indo-Pacific region, and what are the key areas of focus As such, India has 392 valid projects with a total invested
for their bilateral relationship? [15 marks] [250 words] capital of $ 1,119 million.

� Vietnam’s presence in India is even more limited. As of

2022, Vietnam has six investment projects in India with
INDIA - VIETNAM RELATIONS an estimated investment of $ 28.55 million, primarily in
pharmaceuticals, information technology, chemicals and
Why in News: Vietnam’s Prime Minister Pham Minh Chinh building materials.
recently visited India at the invitation of Prime Minister of
Strategic Partnership
India.
• 
India and Vietnam had elevated their relationship to a
Key Details “Comprehensive Strategic Partnership” in 2016.
• A joint statement was issued to enhance the • Vietnam is a key partner in its Act East Policy as well as its
comprehensive strategic partnership and a plan of action wider Indo-Pacific vision.
for the implementation for the next four years, 2024-28. • 
The joint statement highlighted that the United Nations
Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) should be
• The action plan aimed at developing higher political- followed as the foundation for determining maritime rights
strategic trust, deeper defence-security cooperation, more and interests.
substantial and effective economic-trade-investment Defense
collaboration, broader cooperation in science-technology
• As part of India’s defense support to Vietnam, 12 high-speed
and closer cultural-tourism and people-to-people exchange. guard boats are being built for the Vietnam Border Guard
• Besides, the two countries signed nine cooperative Command. Five of these boats are being constructed by the
documents covering a wide range of subjects such as Indian company Larsen & Toubro in India, while the other
seven are being built at a shipyard in Vietnam. The first boat
healthcare, justice, diplomacy, human resources training,
was delivered to Vietnam in December 2020.
agricultural science, broadcasting, tourism, culture, and
agriculture. • Other defense engagements include joint military exercises
VIMBAX which was first started in 2018 and recently held in
• Businesses of the two sides also inked ten deals in december 2023.
infrastructure, logistics, aviation, tourism, culture, and • In june 2023, New Delhi handed the domestically built missile
pharmaceuticals.

INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS  31
 corvette INS Kirpan to Vietnam’s navy, the first time that India with reductions impacting over 88.7% of these lines. While
had gifted a fully operational corvette to another country. similar offers were made by other major ASEAN countries,
• The two nations are in talks for Vietnam’s possible purchase of Indonesia, the largest economy in ASEAN, eliminated tariffs
the Indo-Russian Brahmos supersonic cruise missile. There are on only 50.4% of its lines, with tariff reductions affecting just
also reports that Hanoi is interested in India’s Akash surface- 67.6%.
to-air missile system.
• Comparative Tariff Reductions: The larger ASEAN economies
generally provided less tariff elimination for industrial
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE products compared to India’s offerings. This was especially
Descriptive Question evident in sectors where India has strong capabilities, such
as base metals and their products, machinery, vehicles and
Q. The recent visit of Vietnam’s Prime Minister to India transport equipment, and miscellaneous manufactured goods.
underscores the evolving Comprehensive Strategic
Partnership between the two nations. Discuss the • India’s Market Disadvantage Under AITIGA Compared to
significance of India-Vietnam relations in the context China-ASEAN FTA: The dominance of Chinese products in
of economic cooperation, defense collaboration, and both Indian and ASEAN markets limited the mutual benefits
cultural ties. How do these aspects align with India’s each could gain under AITIGA. However, the ASEAN-
Act East Policy and Indo-Pacific strategy? [15 marks] China FTA provided China with even greater market access
[250 words] in ASEAN than India had under AITIGA, putting India at
a relative disadvantage. In contrast, China received fewer
concessions in India, limited mainly to those under the Asia
ASEAN-INDIA TRADE IN GOODS Pacific Trade Agreement (APTA).

AGREEMENT • 
The Impact of “China Plus One” Strategy: This strategy,
increasingly adopted by various multinational corporations,
Why in News: The 5th AITIGA Joint Committee and including some Chinese firms, has led to growing investments
related meetings for review of ASEAN-India Trade in in ASEAN countries. This approach is contributing to the
Goods Agreement (AITIGA) were recently held in ASEAN expansion of manufacturing and export capacities within the
Secretariat, Jakarta. ASEAN region.
• Trade imbalance: In 2008-09, India had trade deficits with only
Key Details
five ASEAN countries. This has since increased to seven, with
• The 5th AITIGA joint meeting was co-chaired by the addition of Singapore and Vietnam from 2018-19 onwards.
Additional Secretary, Department of Commerce, India India, therefore, has a trade surplus position now with only
and Deputy Secretary General (Trade), Ministry of Cambodia, Laos and The Philippines.
Investment, Trade & Industry, Malaysia. About ASEAN
¾ The Indian lead of delegation also held bilateral
• It is an intergovernmental organization of ten Southeast Asian
meetings with his counterparts from Malaysia, countries: Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia,
Singapore, Indonesia and Vietnam on the sidelines Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam.
of 5th AITIGA JC meeting to develop a common
• The bloc’s biggest success in recent years has been promoting
understanding on the issues being discussed in the
economic integration among members. It also helped negotiate
AITIGA review. the RCEP, the world’s largest free trade agreement.
• The ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA)
• ASEAN has struggled to form a cohesive response to Myanmar’s
entered into force on 1 January 2010. military takeover and China’s claims in the South China Sea,
• The signing of the AITIGA on 13 August 2009 in Bangkok which overlap with those of several ASEAN members.
paved the way for the creation of one of the world’s
largest free trade areas with more than 1.9 billion people EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
and a combined GDP of US$ 5.36 trillion.
Prelims MCQ
¾ This agreement excludes trade in services; it only
covers physical goods and products. India signed Q. Which of the following statements is true regarding the
separate the ASEAN-India Trade in Services ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement (AITIGA)?
Agreement on 13 November 2014 and had entered (a) AITIGA covers both trade in goods and services.
into force on 1 July 2015 for trade in services.
(b) 
The ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement
• ASEAN is one of the major trade partners of India with (AITIGA) entered into force on 1 January 2010.
a share of 11% in India’s global trade. The bilateral trade
(c) 
China received more concessions under AITIGA
stood at USD 122.67 Bn during 2023-24.
than under the ASEAN-China FTA.
Imbalance in market access (d) India’s trade surplus with ASEAN countries has
• India’s Extensive Tariff Reductions Compared to ASEAN’s remained stable since the agreement.
Answer: b
Limited Offers: India removed tariffs on 75% of its tariff lines,

32 INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

 Descriptive Question � India and Maldives signed a trade agreement in 1981, which
provides for export of essential commodities. Growing from
Q. Discuss the key outcomes and challenges associated modest beginnings, India-Maldives bilateral trade crossed
with the ASEAN-India Trade in Goods Agreement the USD 300 million mark for the first time in 2021 which
(AITIGA). How can India address the trade imbalances further crossed USD 500 million mark in 2022.
under AITIGA? [15 marks] [250 words]
• Capacity Building/Training: India provides the largest
number of training opportunities for Maldivian National
Defence Force (MNDF), meeting around 70% of their defence
INDIA - MALDIVES RELATIONS training requirements. India has trained over 1500 MNDF
trainees over the past 10 years
Why in News: Recently, the India’s external affairs minister
visited Maldives to elevate their friendship and strong • Disaster Management: MNDF regularly participates in
alliance to new heights. Humanitarian Assistance & Disaster Relief, Search & Rescue
(SAR), Pollution Control, other exercises organised by India.
Key Details India previously provided pollution dispersant to MNDF
Coast Guard in 2016. India is also undertaking customised
• India’s external affairs minister’s official visit to the
trainings for MNDF Fire and Rescue Service in India.
Maldives was the first high-level trip after President
Mohamed Muizzu (seen as a pro-China leader) assumed • Development Cooperation: The major completed and ongoing
development assistance projects executed by India are: Indira
office in November 2023. India’s relationship with the
Gandhi Memorial Hospital; National College for Police and
Maldives soon came under severe strain due to the
Law Enforcement; India-Maldives Faculty of Hospitality &
actions of the new government. Tourism Studies; The Maldives Polytechnic etc.
• India’s external affairs minister highlighted the
• Tourism: The Maldivian economy is heavily dependent
importance of Maldives as a key partners in the on its tourism sector, which is the major source of foreign
Neighbourhood First’ policy and India’s Vision SAGAR’ exchange earnings and government revenue. In terms of direct
i.e. Security and Growth for All in the Region. employment, tourism accounts for more than 1/3rd of job
• The India’s external affairs minister visit has reaffirmed the opportunities for Maldivians.
continued commitment of both countries to strengthening � In 2018, India was the 5th largest source of tourist arrivals
their multi-dimensional bilateral relationship and in Maldives with around 6.1 % (over 90,474) market share.
deepening their close people-to-people ties. However, in 2019, India reached the 2nd spot with almost
double the number of arrivals compared to the 2018.
India-Maldives Relation From 2021 to 2023, India continued as the top tourists
� 
• Historical Bonhomie: In 1988, India helped Maldives thwart market with over 2.91 lakh, 2.41 lakh & 2.09 lakh Indian
coup bid backed by Lankan militants which led to the tourist arrivals and a 23%, 14.4% & 11.1 % market share,
foundation of deep trust between two countries and saving respectively.
the democracy.
• Security & Defence Cooperation: Since 1988, defence and EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
security has been a major area of cooperation between
India and Maldives. India has adopted a very flexible and Prelims MCQ
accommodating approach in meeting Maldivian requirements
Q. 'Ektha harbour', which was seen in the news, is located
of defence training and equipment. A comprehensive Action
in?
Plan for Defence was also signed in April 2016 to consolidate
defence partnership. (a) Indonesia (b) Maldives
� India-Maldives Defence Cooperation also extends to the (c) Malaysia (d) Sri Lanka
areas of Joint Exercises, Maritime Domain Awareness,
Answer: b
gifting of hardware, infrastructure development, etc. Key
projects in the defence sector includes Composite Training
Centre (CTC) for MNDF, Coastal Radar System (CRS),
Descriptive Question
construction of new Ministry of Defence Headquarters and Q. "What are the key areas of cooperation between India
construction of “Ektha” MNDF harbour. and the Maldives? How do these areas benefit both
• Bilateral Economic and Trade Relations: India emerged as
countries?" [10 marks] [150 words]
Maldives’ 2nd largest trade partner in 2022 & the largest in
2023. Indian imports from the Maldives primarily comprise
scrap metals while Indian exports to the Maldives include a INDIA-AUSTRALIA MARITIME
variety of engineering and industrial products like drugs and SECURITY DIALOGUE
pharmaceuticals, radar apparatus, rock boulders, aggregates,
cement and agriculture produce like rice, spices, fruits, Why in News: Recently the 6th India-Australia Maritime
vegetables and poultry produce etc. Security Dialogue concluded in Canberra.

INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS  33
Key Details • Unconventional security threats: These includes illegal
• The two countries discussed how to maintain a safe and fishing, natural disasters, marine pollution, human and
secure maritime environment that supports inclusive drug trafficking, and the impact of climate change.
growth and global well-being. • China’s String of Pearls: China is circling India from the
• They exchanged views on various topics of mutual all side. For example, China is developing deep water
interest: port in Kyaukphyu in Myanmar under Belt and Road
Initiative, Hambantota in Sri Lanka, Gawdar port in
¾ Maritime security environment in the Indo-Pacific
Pakistan, China’s naval base in Djbouti.
region
¾ Maritime domain awareness Indo-Pacific Ocean Initiative (IPOI)
¾ Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) • 
The initiative will drive deeper engagement between India
coordination and regional partners to collaboratively safeguard the oceans;
¾ Regional and multilateral engagements enhance maritime security; preserve marine resources; build
capacity and fairly share resources; reduce disaster risk; enhance
¾ Sustainable use of marine resources
science, technology and academic cooperation; and promote
• This included cooperation in Search and Rescue (SAR), free, fair and mutually beneficial trade and maritime transport.
pollution response, blue economy and Port State control.
• Australia has undertaken to be a lead partner on the maritime
They discussed ways and means of further strengthening
ecology pillar and is looking to drive scientific collaboration
their bilateral cooperation in these areas. and share best practice across the Indo-Pacific on reducing
• They also conferred on the way ahead for collaboration marine pollution, with a focus on plastic waste.
in the maritime ecology pillar of the Indo-Pacific Ocean • The Indo-Pacific Oceans Initiative (IPOI), announced by
Initiative (IPOI). Prime Minister Narendra Modi at the 14th East Asia Summit
Maritime Security Challenges in Front of India and on 4 November 2019 at Bangkok, has seven pillars:
� Maritime Ecology
Australia
• China’s Hegemony: China’s growing influence in Indo- � Maritime Security
Pacific region is major challenge for many Indo-Pacific � Marine Resources
countries including Australia. It poses significant security � Capacity Building and Resource Sharing
challenges, over islands, reefs, and sea areas, leading to
� Disaster Risk Reduction and Management
increased tensions and the possibility of military conflict.
� Science, Technology and Academic Cooperation
• Military Modernization and Power Projection: The
military modernization efforts of various countries in the � Trade, Connectivity and Maritime Transport
Indo-Pacific region have raised concerns about power
relations and the potential for an arms race. Way Forward
• Nuclear Proliferation: The presence of nuclear powers Recognising that India and Australia have a shared interest
like China, North Korea in the Indo-Pacific region raises in promoting maritime security and safety, they will deepen
concerns about nuclear proliferation and the potential for navy-to-navy cooperation and strengthen maritime domain
an arms race. awareness in the Indo-Pacific region through enhanced
exchange of information. Joint exercises and defense
¾ Developing and possessing nuclear weapons can partnerships can further strengthen their ability to respond
impact the region’s security, creating a fragile balance to emergencies and protect their maritime interests.
of power.
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
¾ Key challenges in the Indo-Pacific include managing
Prelims MCQ
deterrence and preventing the spread of nuclear
weapons. Q. 
Recently, the 6th India-Australia Maritime Security
Dialogue was held in ?
• Maritime terrorism: Any act of maritime terrorism (a) Melbourne (b) Chennai
may threaten Australia’s national interests. Terrorism
is a criminal activity intended to coerce or intimidate (c) Canberra (d) Mumbai
Answer: c
governments or public to meet political, religious, or
ideological objectives. Descriptive Question
• Piracy & Robbery at Sea: Incidents classed as piracy and Q. 
Discuss the key challenges faced by India and
robbery at sea include profit-motivated illegal activities, Australia in their maritime security cooperation under
in either an organised or an opportunistic manner, the Maritime Security Dialogue.? Propose potential
undertaken against: vessels infrastructure, or individuals solutions to overcome these issues. [15 marks]
[250 words]
at sea.

34 INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

 Conclusion
UNITED NATIONS Several Global states placed emphasis on the intersection
FRAMEWORK CONVENTION between tax policy and climate change, as well as the human
ON INTERNATIONAL TAX rights obligation to mobilize all available resources to realize
COOPERATION economic and social rights. With this in mind, the upcoming
steps in the UN Tax Convention process will be crucial in
Why in News: Recently, the United Nation Ad Hoc determining the actual changes that will result from this re-
Committee voted to approve Terms of Reference (ToR) for the writing of the global tax rules.
development of a United Nations Framework Convention on
International Tax Cooperation.
Key Details
INDO-PACIFIC ECONOMIC
• The ToR were supported by 110 UN member jurisdictions,
FRAMEWORK FOR PROSPERITY
with 44 abstentions, including the European Union (EU) Why in News: Recently, India elected as Vice-Chair of
and its Member States, and eight votes against, including the Supply Chain Council under Indo-Pacific Economic
the United States (US). Framework for Prosperity (IPEF) Agreement relating to
• The ToR provide that the Framework Convention should Supply Chain Resilience.
encompass structural elements such as a clear statement Key Details
of objectives, principles and commitments to achieving
In pursuant to the Supply Chain Agreement, the IPEF
the objectives.
partners established three supply chain bodies –
• In addition, the ToR discuss development of protocols for
specific tax issues. • Supply Chain Council to pursue targeted, action-
oriented work to strengthen the supply chains for those
• The ToR are set to be presented to the UN General
sectors and goods most critical to national security, public
Assembly for a vote during its 79th session beginning in
health, and economic well-being;
September 2024.
• Crisis Response Network to provide a forum for a
• The draft provides for the Framework Convention to be
collective emergency response to exigent or imminent
negotiated during 2025–2027, after which it should be
disruptions; and
available for signature and ratification.
• Labor Rights Advisory Board that brings together
workers, employers, and governments at the same table
to strengthen labor rights and workforce development
across regional supply chains.
Each of the three supply chain bodies elected a Chair and
Vice Chair, who will serve for a term of two years. The elected
chairs and vice chairs are:
• Supply Chain Council: USA (Chair) and India (Vice Chair)
• Crisis Response Network: Republic of Korea (Chair) and
Japan (Vice Chair)
• Labor Rights Advisory Board: USA (Chair) and Fiji (Vice
Chair)

About Indo-Pacific Economic Framework

• IPEF was launched on 23 May 2022 at Tokyo, Japan, comprising
of 14 countries – Australia, Brunei, Fiji, India, Indonesia, Japan,
Republic of Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, Philippines,
Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam and USA.
• 
The IPEF seeks to strengthen economic engagement and
cooperation among partner countries with the goal of
advancing growth, economic stability and prosperity in the
region.
• 
The framework is structured around four pillars relating
to Trade (Pillar I); Supply Chain Resilience (Pillar II); Clean
Economy (Pillar III); and Fair Economy (Pillar IV). India
had joined Pillars II to IV of IPEF while it has maintained an
observer status in Pillar-I.

INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS  35
 information and communications system people don’t
• Objective of IPEF Supply Chain Resilience Agreement to make
IPEF supply chains more resilient, robust, and well-integrated, have access to.
and contribute towards economic development and progress • It asks states to make it illegal to produce or sell explicit
of the Indo-Pacific region as a whole and better prepare for child sexual content online, protect children from online
and respond to supply chain disruptions that pose a risk to groomers, or make “arrangements” online to abuse a
economic prosperity while strengthening labor rights. child.
• The treaty also covers misuse of devices and computer-
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE related forgery or theft.
• There’s also a call to create laws against deepfake and
Prelims MCQ
revenge porn that is distributed online without the
Q. Consider the following statements consent of the adults involved.
1. 
India elected as Vice-Chair of the Supply chain • To assess these crimes, the treaty also gives states
council under Indo-Pacific Economic Framework permission to “collect or record” relevant data for a
for Prosperity (IPEF) Agreement relating to Supply conviction and “compel” service providers to hand over
Chain Resilience. incriminating information or documents.

2. 
The objective of the Supply Chain Council is to • The last time the UN passed a protocol on cybercrime
strengthen the supply chains of arms export and was in 2001 with the Budapest Convention, but many
import that are critical for national security. countries did not sign that document.
Limitations of the Treaty
3. Recently, China joined this group as 14th member.
• In a last-minute open letter ahead of the vote, the
How many of the above statements are true? Cybersecurity Tech Accord, a group representing
(a) Only one (b) Only two tech companies at the UN, said the revised draft was
“ambiguous” and doesn’t do enough for human rights,
(c) Only three (d) None
press freedom and gender equality.
Answer: a (1 only)
• Among their concerns are that the treaty allowed states
to share personal information without being detected,
criminalise “legitimate” online activity because of
UNITED NATION TREATY ON expanding definitions of what crimes are considered
CYBERCRIME fraud or child sexual abuse, and make it harder for
victims of cybercrime to see justice.
Why in News: A UN committee has recently approved the
• The treaty is also missing support from human
first worldwide treaty on cybercrime despite opposition from
rights groups, including the UN’s Office of the High
human rights groups and a coalition of tech companies.
Commissioner for Human Rights (OHCHR).
Key Details
Budapest Convention on Cybercrime
• The treaty was adopted by consensus after three years
of negotiations but still needs to face a vote from the • The Budapest Convention is more than a legal document; it
General Assembly in the fall. It needs to be ratified by 40 is a framework that permits hundreds of practitioners from
Parties to share experience and create relationships that
nations there.
facilitate cooperation in specific cases, including in emergency
• The convention establishes “a global criminal justice situations, beyond the specific provisions foreseen in this
policy,” to protect society against cybercrime by “fostering Convention.
international cooperation.\
• Any country may make use of the Budapest Convention as a
Key Provisions of Treaty guideline, check list or model law. Furthermore, becoming a
Party to this treaty entails additional advantages.
• The treaty would have UN member states agree to put
in place legislation that will make it illegal to breach an • India is not a party to the Budapest Convention.

36 INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

 SECTION

C ECONOMY & AGRICULTURE

ROLE OF BIO-ECONOMY IN 21ST on fossil fuels to one based on biofuels will increase
sustainability, lessen our reliance on fossil fuels,
CENTURY decreases Green house gas emissions and safeguard the
Why in News: Recently, the Union Minister of State environment and climate.
(Independent Charge) for Science and Technology during ¾ Technologies such as genetic editing, Bioprocessing,
the “4th Edition of Global Bio India 2024” declared that Digital integration and bioprinting are key to creating
the “Bioeconomy will drive the industrial revolution in 21 an interconnected and dynamic framework for
century”. growth.

Key Details Types of Bio Economy

• The Union Minister of State (Independent Charge) for Economic-Ecological Bioeconomy: This type of Bioeconomy
Science and Technology emphasized the government’s aims to balance economic growth with environmental care by
priority in boosting the Bioeconomy, and highlighted ensuring that economic activities are sustainable and do not
that India’s bioeconomy has increased 13 times in the harm the environment.
previous ten years, from $10 billion in 2014 to over $130 • Promotes the sustainable use of biological resources, such
billion in 2024, and is expected to reach $300 billion by as crops, forests, and marine life.
2030, highlighting the significance of biotechnology.
• Encourages the adoption of green technologies and eco-
• In addition, he mentioned that India’s ranking in the friendly practices to minimize environmental impact.
Global Innovation Index has improved from 81st in 2015
• Focuses on renewable energy sources, like biofuels and
to 40th out of 132 economies (2023).
biomass, to reduce carbon emissions.
Global BioIndia 2024 • Prioritizes biodiversity conservation and the maintenance
The Department of Biotechnology (DBT) and its Public Sector of ecosystem services.
Entreprise(PSE), Biotechnology Industry Assistance Research ¾ Examples:
Council (BIRAC), have launched a strategic initiative called
 Organic Farming: Programs like Paramparagat
Global Bio-India, a Mega International event for national and
international biotech stakeholders, to position and advance Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) promote organic
India’s biotechnology sector globally. farming, reducing chemical use and enhancing
soil health.
• The 4th Edition of this event will be held on 12-14 September,
2024 in Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi.  Afforestation Initiatives: The Green India
Mission focuses on increasing forest cover
Global Bio-India 2024 brings together international organisations,
and restoring degraded ecosystems, balancing
regulatory agencies, state and central ministries, SMEs, big
economic development with environmental
businesses, bioclusters, research institutions, investors, and the
startup ecosystem. conservation.
Mainstream Bioeconomy: The mainstream bioeconomy
What is Bioeconomy leverages biological resources for economic gain, focusing
• The Bioeconomy refers to the method of using natural on using biology to drive economic activities, particularly in
resources—plants, animals, and marine life—responsibly agriculture, biotechnology, and industrial processes.
while employing biological knowledge to propel ¾ Examples:
economic growth in a range of businesses.
 GM Crops: The adoption of Bt-cotton has
• Additionally, it makes use of the unrealised potential improved agricultural yields and reduced the
found in millions of tonnes of residual resources and need for chemical pesticides in India.
biological waste.
 Biotech Startups: India’s biotechnology sector
• In the Bioeconomy, plants are broken down into their is growing rapidly, with startups innovating in
constituent components as much as possible and areas like biofuels, biopharma, and agricultural
transformed into useful products. biotechnology.
• It is anticipated that shifting from an economy dependent  Bio-based Products: The development and

ECONOMY & AGRICULTURE  37

 commercialization of bio-based plastics and or biotechnology-related software and databases,
materials reduce reliance on traditional, specialized equipment or instruments for use in the
petroleum-based products. BioEconomy, and bioscience patent lawyers, and
Socio-Biodiversity Bioeconomy: This type of bioeconomy services.
focuses on protecting biodiversity and empowering local
Future Outlook
communities by safeguarding indigenous knowledge
and cultural heritage, promoting the sustainable use of 2025 Projection: With the BioEconomy estimated to reach the
biodiversity. $150 billion mark at least two years earlier by 2023, India’s
BioEconomy could be in the range of $147-$152.6 billion at the
¾ Examples: end of 2023. Continued focus on innovation, global market
 Community Forest Management: Joint Forest penetration, and sustainable practices will be pivotal in achieving
Management (JFM) programs involve local this milestone.
communities in managing forests, ensuring
sustainable use and biodiversity conservation. 2030 Vision: Looking ahead to 2030, the forecast suggests a
BioEconomy worth $270-300 billion, accounting for 3.3-3.5% of
 Medicinal Plant Cultivation: Initiatives in India’s GDP. Key contributors include a robust Biopharma sector,
the Western Ghats support the cultivation of a thriving BioIndustrial segment, and a flourishing BioServices
medicinal plants, which are vital to traditional sector. Achieving this vision will require sustained government
healthcare systems and local economies. initiatives, strategic collaborations, and a commitment to
 Eco-Tourism: In areas like the Sundarbans, eco- technological advancements.
tourism initiatives provide economic benefits
to local communities while promoting the
conservation of biodiversity.
Potential of the Bio Economy Sector in India
• Agriculture: India’s diverse agro-climatic conditions
make it ideal for bio-agriculture, including organic
farming, bio-fertilizers, and precision agriculture.
¾ BioAgri: This subsector includes the development
and production of genetically modified crops and
animals, precision agriculture technologies, and bio-
based products. Bt Cotton is the single largest crop.
• Biotechnology: India’s biotechnology sector is rapidly
expanding, with potential for leadership in biopharma,
bio-services, and bio-industrial sectors.
¾ Bioindustrial: This subsector includes the
development and production of biobased chemicals Challenges Faced by the Bioeconomy Sector in India
and products using enzymes, biosynthetic routes, • Infrastructure Gaps: Lack of infrastructure for
and recombinant DNA technology. bioprocessing and bio-manufacturing hampers large-
• Healthcare: The bioeconomy can provide affordable scale implementation of bioeconomy projects, particularly
healthcare solutions, such as vaccines and biosimilars, in rural areas.
making India a global hub for biopharmaceuticals. • Regulatory Complexities: The regulatory environment
¾ Biopharma or BioMedical: The terms “BioPharma” or for bio-based products is often complex and cumbersome,
“BioMedical” are interchangeably used to refer to the slowing down innovation and commercialization.
broader category encompassing Biopharmaceuticals, • R&D Limitations: Insufficient investment in research
Medical Devices, MedTech, and Diagnostics. and development limits the growth of new technologies
• Renewable Energy: India’s abundant biomass resources and innovations in the bioeconomy sector.
offer opportunities for large-scale biofuel production, • Skilled Workforce Shortage: The bioeconomy requires a
contributing to energy security and climate change specialized workforce, and there is a shortage of trained
mitigation. professionals in biotechnology, bioinformatics, and bio-
• Employment: The bioeconomy can create jobs in rural manufacturing.
and urban areas, enhancing livelihoods and supporting • Public Awareness: Limited awareness among the general
inclusive economic growth. public and industries about the benefits of bioeconomy
¾ BioResearch & BioIT (BioServices): Contract leads to slow adoption of bio-based products and
Research, Clinical Research and trials, Drug practices.
Discovery Services. BioIT includes life sciences • Biodiversity Conservation: The exploitation of

38 ECONOMY & AGRICULTURE

 biological resources without proper safeguards can lead • Enhance Global Engagement:
to biodiversity loss and ecological imbalances, posing a ¾ Pursue International Collaboration: Engage in
threat to sustainability. global partnerships to share knowledge, technology,
Way Forward and best practices in the bioeconomy.
• Strengthening Infrastructure: ¾ Participate in Global Initiatives: Actively take part
in global bioeconomy events, such as the Global
¾ Establish Bio-manufacturing Hubs: Develop bio-
Bioeconomy Summit, to position India as a leader in
manufacturing zones with advanced facilities,
the sector.
particularly in rural areas, to support local economies
and reduce disparities.
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
¾ Enhance Supply Chains: Improve logistics, storage,
and transportation systems for bio-based products to Prelims MCQ
ensure efficient market delivery.
• Regulatory Reforms: Q. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the
Economic-Ecological Bioeconomy?
¾ Simplify Approvals: Create a single-window
clearance system for bio-based products, reducing
(a) It focuses on sustainable agricultural practices.
delays and fostering innovation.
¾ Update Policies: Regularly revise bioeconomy-related (b) It prioritizes economic growth over environmental
policies to incorporate technological advancements conservation.
and global best practices.
• Promote R&D: (c) 
It promotes the use of renewable biological
resources.
¾ Increase Investment: Boost public and private
investment in R&D, focusing on emerging areas like (d) It encourages the adoption of green technologies.
synthetic biology, gene editing, and bioinformatics.
Answer: b
¾ Foster Collaboration: Encourage partnerships between
academia, industry, and government to bridge the gap
between research and commercialization. Descriptive Question
• Develop Skilled Workforce:
Q. “The Bioeconomy represents a transformative approach
¾ Launch Skill Development Programs: Implement to sustainable development in India.” Discuss the
targeted training programs in bioeconomy fields, potential of bioeconomy in India, the challenges it
such as biotechnology and bio-manufacturing, to faces, and the strategies required to overcome these
build a skilled workforce. challenges. [15 marks] [250 words]
¾ Strengthen Industry-Academia Linkages: Align
educational programs with industry needs through
partnerships between academic institutions and bio-
industries.
WOMEN ENTREPRENEURSHIP
PROGRAM
• Raise Public Awareness:
Why in News: The National Skill Development Corporation
¾ Conduct Awareness Campaigns: Educate the public
(NSDC), in collaboration with Britannia Industries, has
and industry stakeholders about the benefits of the
launched the Women Entrepreneurship Program.
bioeconomy through nationwide campaigns.

¾ Integrate Bioeconomy in Education: Incorporate About the Women Entrepreneurship Program

bioeconomy concepts into school and university • This initiative aims to empower nearly 25 lakh women
curricula to build foundational knowledge from an with the skills, knowledge, and resources needed to start
early age. and grow successful businesses.
• It is launched with self-learning basic entrepreneurship
• Ensure Biodiversity Protection:
courses available in multiple languages on the Skill India
¾ Promote Sustainable Practices: Enforce regulations Digital Hub (SIDH).
on biodiversity conservation and ensure equitable • The program will be implemented in two phases:
benefit-sharing with local communities. ¾ First phase: It will offer free online self-learning
¾ Strengthen Conservation Programs: Support entrepreneurship courses through the Skill India
initiatives that protect ecosystems and species, Digital Hub (SIDH). These courses, available in
ensuring the long-term viability of the bioeconomy. multiple languages, will cover crucial topics such

ECONOMY & AGRICULTURE  39

 as entrepreneurial skills, enterprise setup, finance • Social Change: Empowered women are more likely to
basics, digital skills, and market analysis. engage in community activities and take on leadership
¾ Second Phase: NSDC extends robust incubation roles, driving social change and fostering a culture of
support to 10,000 shortlisted contestants across 100 inclusivity and equality. They become role models for
business models. This support encompasses business the next generation, inspiring young girls to pursue their
model selection, entrepreneurship development dreams and aspirations without limitations.
programs, industrial workshops, business
registration assistance, project report preparation, and Issues faced by Women entrepreneurs in India
guidance on funding through various government • Lack of Social Support: Women lack social supports to kick
entrepreneurship and startup schemes. start their business from family, peers, society because of
• The initiative will culminate in a grand finale where the prevalent prejudices associated with women.
top 50 contestants will present their business ideas to a • Lack of Funding: Due to investor prejudice and other issues,
distinguished jury. And Britannia Industries will award women-owned firms in the nation do not have easy access to
financial grants of 10 lakh rupees each to 10 of the most funding. Many Venture Capital firms and angel investors are
successful contestants. reluctant to invest in women-led businesses in India.
• Double Burden: Owing to social and cultural norms, Indian
Significance of the Program
women are constantly forced to choose between their
• Empowerment of women: The program will empower professional and family lives. As the venture and the family
women entrepreneurs and spurring economic growth. It grow, maintaining a perfect work-life balance becomes an
can help to enhance social equity and inclusivity, ensuring almost impossible challenge and, more often than not, the
that women have equal opportunities to succeed and thrive. business suffers.
• Safety issues: One of the main issues facing Indian women
entrepreneurs is limited mobility. Usually they feel unsafe on
alone trips or stay in hotels for work without being concerned
about their safety.
• Lack of education: Women’s education is rarely given the
credit it deserves. Because of this, a large number of aspiring
female business owners lack the training necessary to operate
a profitable company. Women are leveling the playing field by
gaining access to higher education.
• Stiff Competition: Businesses now face intense competition
due to the current state of the economy and market dynamics.
Moreover, at most industry gatherings the men dominate the
networking and the information flow.
• Gender Stereotypes: The establishment and expansion of
firms by female entrepreneurs might be hindered by cultural
limitations and deeply embedded preconceptions regarding
the roles of women in society

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE

• Supportive family Environment: Through financial Prelims MCQ

independence, women gain an overarching confidence,
which often leads to a reduction in domestic abuse Q. 
Recently, Women Entrepreneurship Program was in
news, it was launched by?
and alcoholism in men, creating a healthier and more
supportive home environment.
(a) National Skill Development Corporation
• Women Dignity: Financial empowerment also shifts the
dynamics within households, fostering mutual respect (b) Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
and cooperation.
• Financial stability of the family: Women who are (c) Department of Financial Services
economically independent can contribute to the
household income, which in turn improves the overall (d) National Social Assistance Programme
financial stability of the family. This stability allows Answer: a
for better education and health outcomes for children,
creating a positive cycle of growth and development.

40 ECONOMY & AGRICULTURE

 • Logistics, Marketing and Branding: Support
Descriptive Question
interventions to link cluster produce with consumption
Q. Evaluate the potential impact of women markets and seamless logistics for efficient evacuation,
entrepreneurship program on the broader socio- cluster branding and outreach in the domestic and export
economic development of India. Also discuss how markets.
this program aims to address the challenges faced
by women entrepreneurs in this country? [15 marks] Challenges in the Horticulture Industry
[250 words] • Persistent Pest Problem: The prevalence of insect
infestations and plant diseases can significantly diminish
crop yield and quality, thereby resulting in substantial
DEVELOPMENT OF EXPORT- financial setbacks for farmers.
ORIENTED HORTICULTURE • Lack of high-quality seedlings and rootstock: The
CLUSTERS seedlings that are procurable in the marketplace exhibit
inferior quality, thereby resulting in subpar crop yields
Why in News: Recently the Union Agriculture Minister and consequent monetary setbacks for agriculturalists.
has announced setting up 100 export-oriented horticulture The dearth of superior rootstock presents a formidable
clusters in the next five years. obstacle, especially in the context of fruit-bearing trees,
wherein the rootstock assumes a pivotal function in
About the Horticulture Cluster Development Program dictating the triumph of the harvest.
• A horticulture cluster is defined as a regional/ • Climate Change: Rising temperatures, changing rainfall
geographical concentration of targeted horticulture patterns, and extreme weather events like floods and
crops, offering scope for specialisation in production, droughts are making it harder for farmers to grow crops.
post- harvest management, marketing and exports. These conditions can reduce crop yields, lower the quality
• It aims to enhance the global competitiveness of the of fruits, and increase the risk of pests and diseases.
Indian horticulture sector. Additionally, changes in temperature and rainfall may
• It is a Central Sector programme implemented by the affect the timing of planting and harvesting, disrupting
National Horticulture Board (NHB). supply chains and causing market prices to fluctuate.
• Export Growth Stalled by Production and
Objective of the Program
Infrastructure Hurdles: Export growth is being
• Address the concerns of horticulture value chains in an undermined by marketing challenges, inadequate
integrated manner to accelerate competitiveness in the transport infrastructure, fragmented supply chains,
domestic and export markets. and insufficient storage facilities. These factors result
• Reduce harvest and post-harvest losses by developing/ in delays and wastage and discourage farmers from
expanding/upgrading the infrastructure for post-harvest improving the quality of their produce.
handling of produce, value addition and market linkages.
Way Forward
• Facilitate introduction of innovative technologies
• Technological Advancements: The adoption of
and practices that will help to enhance the global
Controlled Environment Agriculture (CEA), precision
competitiveness of focus cluster crops.
farming, drip irrigation, greenhouse farming, AI, robotics,
• Facilitate the dovetailing of resources, including the and engineered plant genetics has boosted productivity
convergence of various government schemes, to entrench and crop quality. Significant improvements in storage and
stakeholders in the global value chains. transportation, including cold storage and refrigerated
• Build capacity of stakeholders and enhance farmers’ transport, have enhanced farm-to-market connectivity.
income through cluster-specific interventions including • Expanded Export Opportunities: India’s horticulture
brand promotion. sector has seen increased export options, supported by
Key Features of the Program government policies and programs, leading to higher
income for farmers.
• Pre-production and Production: Support capacity-
• Growth in Organic Farming: There is a rising interest in
building of farmers and farm proximate interventions
organic farming in India’s horticulture sector, promoting
covering crop lifecycle, including planting material, crop-
sustainable and environmentally friendly practices that
care practices and farm mechanisation until the harvest
result in healthier crops and increased profitability.
of the crop.
• Strengthening of Secondary Industries: The integration
• Post-harvest Management and Value Addition: Support of technology in farming is boosting productivity, creating
interventions at the cluster level, ranging from post- growth opportunities for related industries like fruit
harvest handling of the produce during transportation to processing, natural dyes, dietary fibers, and essential oils,
storage, value addition and packaging. especially near fruit farms.

ECONOMY & AGRICULTURE  41

Conclusion monitoring, government will be able to understand
India is the second-largest producer of horticulture crops cropping patterns by analysing parcel-level crop maps
globally, accounting for nearly 12% of the world’s production over the different years. This information helps in
of fruits and vegetables. Due to its high remunerative understanding crop rotation practices and promotes
capability, the horticulture sector has emerged as one of sustainable agriculture by encouraging the cultivation of
the potential agriculture enterprises that will accelerate the diverse crops.
growth of the Indian economy. ¾ With Field parcel segmentation, we will be able
to accurate field parcel units which will help in
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE understanding each parcels unique needs, cropping
patterns for targeted interventions.
Prelims MCQ
• Drought monitoring: It will helps to stay ahead of the
Q. Which of the following is not a key objective of the drought, which gives near real-time information on
Horticulture Cluster Development Program (CDP)? various indicators i.e soil moisture, water storages, crop
condition, dry spells etc, while crop weather watch will
(a) 
Enhancing global competitiveness of the Indian keep us informed about how weather is impacting the
horticulture sector. crops, crop harvest status, crop residue burning etc.
(b) Increasing subsidies for chemical fertilizers. • Comprehensive Soil Data for Crop and Land
(c) Reducing harvest and post-harvest losses. Management: One nation-one soil information system
gives a comprehensive soil data at your fingertips i.e
(d) Facilitating introduction of innovative technologies. soil type, soil pH, soil health etc. Soil data will help us
Answer: b in assessing crop suitability and land capability for
implementing soil water conservation measures.
Descriptive Question • Fostering Innovation with Krishi-DSS Ground Truth
Data Library: Ground truth data library of Krishi-DSS
Q. 
Examine the challenges faced by the horticulture
industry in India, particularly in the context of climate will foster innovation by providing essential resources
change and export growth. Also suggest measures to like ground truth data and spectral libraries for different
overcome these challenges. [15 marks] [250 words] crops to the researchers and industry.

¾ From flood impact assessment to Crop insurance

solutions and many more, Krishi-DSS is a holistic
KRISHI-DECISION SUPPORT solution. It’s about empowering our farmers,
SYSTEM informing our policies, and nourishing our nation.

Why in News: Recently, the Union Minister of State for • Data Integration: By integrating various data sources
Agriculture launched Krishi-Decision Support System available on the Krishi Decision Support System (DSS),
(Krishi-DSS) a geo-spatial platform to provide real-time various farmer-centric solutions can be developed such
information on crop conditions, weather patterns, water as right individual advisories to farmers, early disaster
resources, and soil health. warning like Pest attack, Heavy rain, Hail storm etc.

About Krishi-DSS Application of Space Technology in Agriculture

• The platform provides seamless access to comprehensive
• National Land Use/Land Cover (LU/LC) mapping: LU/LC
data including satellite images, weather information,
assessment is made using semi-automated approach which
reservoir storage, groundwater levels and soil health includes automated processing of AWiFS quadrant data and
information, which can be easily accessed from anywhere classification using rule based approach. Water spread as well
at any time. as snow cover information is generated though automated
• Krishi-DSS includes several advanced modules designed process. Rule based data integration of temporal datasets was
to support comprehensive agricultural management from adopted to derive final LU/LC output.
the vast expanse of fields to the smallest soil particle,
• Crop Acreage and Production Estimation: The semi-physical
Krishi-DSS has it covered. spectral-spatial yield model was developed for various crops
• Krishi-DSS is more than just a tool, it’s a catalyst for and provided to Mahalanobis National Crop Forecasting
innovation and sustainability in agriculture Centre (MNCFC) and required training is being imparted
to MNCFC personnel for running the model and deriving
Key Details planting date from time series NDVI data.
• Enhancing Sustainable Agriculture through Crop • Coordinated programme on Horticulture Assessment and
Mapping and Monitoring: With crop mapping and Management using Geoinformatics (CHAMAN): This

42 ECONOMY & AGRICULTURE

 national level project has been taken up, with the major EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
objectives of
Prelims MCQ
Area assessment and production forecasting of major
�  Q. Consider the following statements regarding National
horticultural crops in selected districts in India; Agricultural Drought Assessment and Monitoring
System (NADAMS):
� Geospatial applications for horticultural development and
management planning; and 1. 
It is a pan India system developed by National
Remote Sensing Centre.
� Detailed scientific field level studies for developing 2. It provides near real-time information on prevalence,
technology for crop identification, yield modelling and severity level and persistence of agricultural drought
disease assessment. Temporal high-resolution data (LISS- at state/ district/sub-district level.
IV and Cartosat-1) has been used for delineation of spatial
extent of the crop of interest. Which of the statements above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
� A mobile application ‘CHAMAN app’ was developed to aid
in faster and efficient collection of ground information, as (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b
well as in building geodatabase through Bhuvan platform.
• 
Cotton crop area mapping: Multi-temporal satellite
(Landsat-8) data was classified and interpreted for cotton crop
identification, discrimination and mapping for Wardha Taluka NATIONAL HIGH SPEED ROAD
in Wardha district, Maharashtra. Land Use/Land Cover,
forest, settlement, water bodies and ancillary data was used to
CORRIDOR
mask the non-crop area. It was observed that around 17,900 ha Why in News: The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
area of study area was covered by cotton crop (21.4% of total has approved the development of eight National High Speed
geographical area). The results were subsequently validated in Corridor project across India.
the field.
Key Details
• 
Indian Forest Cover Change Alert System (InFCCAS): A
remote sensing based technique was developed for automated • The projects will cover 936 km to improve logistics
detection of forest cover loss of an area greater than 2 hectare efficiency and connectivity across the country.
for rapid annual monitoring. The forest pixels are identified on
Resourcesat-2 AWiFS data (20 x 20 tiles) for Andhra Pradesh,
Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Goa, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh,
Jharkhand, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Orissa,
Punjab, Rajasthan, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal).

• 
KISAN [C(K)rop Insurance using Space technology And
geoinformatcs]: The project envisaged use of high-resolution
remote sensing data for optimum crop cutting experiment
planning and improving yield estimation.

• National Agricultural Drought Assessment and Monitoring

System (NADAMS): NADAMS project, developed by
National Remote Sensing Centre, provides near real-time
information on prevalence, severity level and persistence of
agricultural drought at state/ district/sub-district level.
Currently, it covers 17 states of India, which are
� 
predominantly agriculture based and prone to drought
situation.
• 
Forecasting Agricultural Output using Space, Agro-
meteorology and Land based Observations (FASAL) project:
It regularly generates crop forecasts at District/State/National • Implementation of these 8 projects will generate an
level for 9 major crops of the country, using the procedures estimated 4.42 crore mandays of direct and indirect
developed by Space Applications Centre, ISRO. Both optical
employment.
and microwave Remote sensing data is used for crop acreage
estimation, crop condition assessment and production • The government has adopted a corridor-based highway
forecasting. infrastructure development approach with focus on
ensuring consistent standards, user convenience and
• Soil Resource Mapping: Soil and Land Use Survey of India, logistics efficiency, as compared to the earlier project-
which uses satellite data for soil resources mapping. based development approach.

ECONOMY & AGRICULTURE  43

 Approved Projects: • 
The Ring Road will also provide seamless connectivity to
national and international tourists arriving from Lucknow
Nashik Phata - Khed Corridor near Pune: This 30-km high-speed
International Airport, Ayodhya Airport and major railway
corridor will be developed on Build-Operate-Transfer (BOT).
stations in the city.
Significance:
Pathalgaon and Gumla of Raipur-Ranchi National High­speed
• 
The elevated corridor will provide seamless high-speed Corridor: The 137-krn will be developed in Hybrid Annuity
connectivity for traffic originating from/ heading to industrial Mode (HAM).
centers.
Significance
• 
The corridor will also alleviate serious congestion around
Pimpri-Chinchwad. • It will enhance connectivity between mining areas, industrial
and manufacturing zones.
Gwalior National High-Speed Corridor: The 88-km high-speed
corridor will be developed on Build-Operate-Transfer (BOT) Northern Guwahati Bypass and Widening/Improvement of
mode. Existing Guwahati Bypass: The 121-km Guwahati Ring Road
will be developed in Build Operate Toll (BOT) mode.
Significance:
Significance:
• It will reduce the distance between Agra and Gwalior by 7%
and the travel time by 50%, thereby bringing in a substantial • It will provide seamless connectivity to long-distance traffic
reduction in logistics cost. and will ease congestion on major National Highways around
Guwahati.
• 
The corridor will enhance connectivity to key tourist
destinations in Uttar Pradesh (e.g., Taj Mahal, Agra Fort, etc)
and Madhya Pradesh (e.g., Gwalior Fort, etc). Conclusion
Tharad - Deesa - Mehsana - Ahmedabad National High-Speed Infrastructure development is the foundation for a country’s
Corridor: The 214-km high-speed corridor will be developed in economic prosperity and is critical for improving the quality
Build - Operate - Transfer (BOT) mode. of life of its citizens. Every rupee spent on infrastructure
Significance: development has a multiplier effect of about 2.5-3.0 times on
GDP. John F Kennedy once said: “America’s roads are good
• The corridor will provide connectivity between the state of
not because America is rich. America is rich because of its
Gujarat, viz., Amritsar - Jamnagar Corridor and Delhi - Mumbai
Expressway, thereby providing seamless connectivity for the
good roads.”
freight vehicles originating from industrial regions of Punjab,
Haryana, and Rajasthan to the major ports in Maharashtra EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
(JNPT, Mumbai and newly-sanctioned Vadhavan port).
Descriptive Question
• 
The corridor will also provide connectivity to key tourist
destinations in Rajasthan (e.g., Mehrangarh Fort, Dilwara Q. Discuss the significance of infrastructure development
Temple, etc.) and Gujarat (e.g., Rani ka Vav, Ambaji Temple, etc.) in driving economic prosperity and improving the
Kanpur Ring Road: The 47-km road will be developed in quality of life in India. Analyze the impact of the
Engineering, Procurement and Construction (EPC) Mode. corridor-based highway infrastructure development
approach undertaken by the Ministry of Road
Significance: Transport and Highways. [15 marks] [250 words]
• It will improve logistics efficiency for freight travelling between
Uttar Pradesh, Delhi, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal.
Kharagpur - Moregram National High-Speed Corridor: The THE ECONOMIC SURVEY (2023-24)
231-km will be developed in Hybrid Annuity (HAM) Mode. ON FOREIGN DIRECT INVESTMENT
Significance:
Why in News: The Economic Survey (2023-24) suggested
• It will provide efficient connectivity for traffic between states that Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) from China could be
such as West Bengal, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh etc. on one end leveraged to benefit from ‘China plus one Strategy’.
and North-Eastern part of the country on the other.
• The corridor will enable reduction in travel time from existing What is China Plus One Strategy?
9 to 10 hours to 3 to 5 hours for freight vehicles between • It is a supply chain strategy that encourages companies
Kharagpur and Moregram, thereby reducing logistics cost. to minimize their supply chain dependency on China by
Ayodhya Ring Road: The 68 km will be developed in Hybrid diversifying the countries they source parts from.
Annuity Mode (HAM) • The goal here is to reduce the risk of over relying on a
Significance: single country for sourcing and manufacturing. It is
similar to the famous saying, “don’t put all your eggs in
• The Ring Road will reduce congestion on National Highways
passing through, thereby enabling fast movement of pilgrims one basket”.
visiting the Rama Mandir. • This strategy emerged in 2013 due to concerns about

44 ECONOMY & AGRICULTURE

 global dependency on China and has gained ground with government restrains access to crucial inputs for political
trade tensions, COVID-19 disruptions, and rising labour leverage.
costs. • Beijing has started retaliating against these import
• New markets are emerging as great alternatives to China, restrictions which has further complicated the
including Vietnam, Mexico and India. manufacturing landscape for emerging market and
developing economies EMDEs.
¾ For example, in response the India’s anti-dumping
probe against Chinese entities, China has been quietly
blocking India’s access to solar equipment.
• Given India’s large bilateral trade deficit with China,
it makes India vulnerable to potential abrupt supply
disruptions.
• Replacing some well-chosen imports with investments
from China raises the prospect of creating domestic
know-how down the road. Though it may have other
risks but FDI from China appears better option.
• Brazil and Turkey had the similar approach as they have
raised barriers to Chinese electric vehicle imports while
attracting Chinese FDI in the sector.
• US adoption of China Plus one strategy benefited
countries like Mexico, Vietnam, Taiwan, and Korea, but
Integrate into China’s Supply Chain
these countries also promoted FDI from China.
• India trade deficit with China stand of $85 billion in FY24.
This deficit increased from $83 billion in FY23 and $73 FDI in India
billion in FY22. • In 2017-18, India attracted the maximum FDI from Mauritius.
• India after importing product from China further promote After the India-Mauritius tax treaty amendment, Singapore has
manufacturing in India. And after adding minimal value emerged as the preferred jurisdiction for foreign investment in
to it, then exporting to other countries. However it is not India.
very profitable. � India’s initiatives such as amendments by the SEBI to the
¾ For example, in electronics, India’s exports to the US REIT Regulations 2014 have created new opportunities for
Singapore-based investors in India.
have moved from a trade deficit of $0.6 billion in FY17
� Since 2018-19, Singapore has been the largest source of such
to a trade surplus of $8.7 billion in FY24. But India’s
investments for India. India received the highest FDI from
imports from China is the highest in the electronics Singapore in 2023-24.
and telecom products segment at 38 per cent.
• During the last fiscal, FDI equity inflows decreased from major
• As India looks to improve its manufacturing capacity, it countries, including Mauritius, Singapore, the US, the UK,
will have to increase imports of capital goods. India has UAE, Cayman Islands, Germany, and Cyprus.
no alternative choices except China as China’s base of
• The total FDI — which includes equity inflows, reinvested
capital good manufacturing sector.
earnings and other capital — declined marginally by one per
Promote FDI from China cent to $70.95 billion during 2023-24 from $71.35 billion in
2022-23. Note- In 2021-22, India received the highest ever FDI
• FDI inflows from China can help in increasing India’s
inflows of $84.83 billion.
global supply chain participation along with a push to
exports. • The U.S. is the third largest investor in India in 2023-24 with
$4.99 billion foreign investments, though it is down from $6
• Focusing on FDI from China seems more promising for
billion in 2022-23.
boosting India’s exports to the US, similar to the East
Asian economies. It is more effective to have Chinese • USA was followed by the Netherlands ($4.93 billion), Japan
($3.17 billion), the UAE ($2.9 billion), U.K. ($1.2 billion),
companies invest in India and then export the products
Cyprus ($806 million), Germany ($505 million), and Cayman
to other markets.
Islands ($342 million).
• Moreover, choosing FDI as a strategy to benefit from the
China plus one approach appears more advantageous than Conclusion
relying on trade. This is because China is India’s top import Foreign investments are crucial for India to overhaul its
partner, and the trade deficit with China has been growing. infrastructure such as ports, airports and highways to push
• China’s dominance over a large number of product growth. FDI also helps improve the country’s balance of
categories creates a risk of economic coercion, where the payments situation and strengthen the rupee value against
other global currencies, especially the U.S. dollar.

ECONOMY & AGRICULTURE  45

 EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE • Initially, the Board was in charge of both direct and indirect
taxes. Subsequently, the Board was split up into two, namely
Prelims MCQ the Central Board of Direct Taxes and Central Board of Excise
and Customs with effect from 1.1.1964.
Q. 
Which of the following best describes the “China
Plus One” strategy adopted by several countries and • This bifurcation was brought about by constitution of two
companies? Boards u/s 3 of the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963.
• The Central Board of Direct Taxes is a statutory authority
(a) A policy aimed at exclusively increasing trade with constituted under the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963.
China while reducing trade with other countries.
• The officers of the Board in their ex-officio capacity also
(b) A strategy to diversify supply chains by establishing function as a Division of the Ministry dealing with matters
alternative production or sourcing options in relating to levy and collection of direct taxes.
addition to China. • The Central Board of Direct Taxes consists of a Chairman and
six members.
(c) A diplomatic approach to enhance military alliances
with China and its neighboring countries. Comparing the Equity Impact of Direct and Indirect Taxes on
citizens
(d) An economic plan to solely invest in infrastructure
Direct Tax:
development within China to boost its economy.
Answer: b • 
Under progressive Direct taxes where higher-income
individuals pay a higher percentage of their income in taxes.
Descriptive Question This can help reduce income inequality.

Q. Evaluate the impact of ‘China plus one strategy’ in • By taxing higher incomes and wealth at higher rates, direct
shaping the future of global supply chains. Discuss the taxes can facilitate wealth redistribution, potentially reducing
opportunities and challenges associated with this for the gap between rich and poor.
India. [15 marks] [250 words] Indirect Tax:
• Indirect taxes apply uniformly across all consumers (GST),
regardless of income, which can exacerbate income inequality.
RISE IN DIRECT TAX COLLECTIONS • Low-income households spend a larger proportion of their
FOR ASSESSMENT YEAR 2024-25 income on consumption, so they bear a greater burden from
indirect taxes.
Why in News: The Central Board of Direct Taxes recently • 
Indirect taxes can raise the cost of goods and services,
reported that out of the total I-T returns for assessment year disproportionately affecting low-income individuals who
2024-25, 70% have opted for the new tax regime. spend a larger share of their income on the essential items.
Key Details
• The total number of ITRs for assessment year 2024-25 EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
filed till July 31, 2024 is more than 7.28 crore, which is 7.5 Prelims MCQ
per cent higher than the total ITRs for AY 2023-24 (6.77
crore) filed till July 31, 2023. Q. Which of the following statements accurately describes
• The gross direct tax collections of the Indian government the impact of direct and indirect taxes on economic
inequality?
witnessed a rise of 24% YoY.
• Also, the tax refunds have been increased by 33.5%. (a) Direct taxes, such as income taxes, tend to reduce
• The direct taxes contributing to such collections comprise economic inequality by being progressive, while
indirect taxes, such as GST, tend to increase
the corporate tax, personal income tax, securities
inequality due to their regressive nature.
transaction tax, equalization levy, and various others
such as fringe benefits tax, wealth tax, banking cash (b) Direct taxes are regressive and increase inequality,
transaction tax, hotel receipt tax, interest tax, expenditure whereas indirect taxes are progressive and help
tax, estate duty, and gift tax. reduce economic disparities.

About Central Board of Direct Taxes

(c) Both direct and indirect taxes have the same impact
on economic inequality, as their effects are neutral
• 
The Central Board of Revenue as the apex body of the with respect to income distribution.
Department, was entrusted with the task of administration of
taxes.
(d) Indirect taxes are regressive and increase economic
inequality, while direct taxes are neutral in their
• 
It came into existence as a result of the Central Board of impact on economic disparity.
Revenue Act, 1924. Answer: a

46 ECONOMY & AGRICULTURE

 • Exploitation of Vulnerabilities: Dark patterns endanger
DECEPTIVE DARK PATTERNS the experience of Internet users and make them more
Why in News: Recently, a report released by Advertising vulnerable to financial and data exploitation by Big Tech
Standards Council of India (ASCI), titled “Conscious firms.
Patterns,” reveals that almost all Indian apps use deceptive • Deceptive Design Tactics that Frustrate Users: Dark
or dark patterns in their business. patterns confuse users, introduce online obstacles, make
simple tasks time-consuming, have users sign up for
Key Findings unwanted services/products, and force them to pay
• It has been found that 52 of the top 53 apps have deceptive more money or share more personal information than
UI (user interface)/UX (user experience) practices that can they intended.
impact user autonomy and informed decision-making or
Is there any law in India to Govern these practices?
mislead users into doing something they originally did
not intend or want to do. • The Department of Consumer Affairs and the ASCI have
identified the issue and recently taken certain steps to
• The deceptive patterns discovered include privacy
handle the same. Companies are being asked to desist
deception, interface interference, drip pricing, and false
from using such tactics in the e-market.
urgency etc.
• Major Indian online marketplaces received a letter
¾ Privacy deception emerged as the most prevalent
from the Department of Consumer Affairs warning
deceptive pattern, observed in 79% of the apps
them against engaging in “unfair trade practices” by
analysed, followed by interface interference (45%),
implementing “dark patterns” in their user interfaces to
drip pricing (43%), and false urgency (32%).
influence consumer choice and infringe on “consumer
¾ Health-tech led the list of sectors where deceptive rights” as stated in Section 2(9) of the Consumer
patterns are the highest, followed by travel booking Protection Act, 2019.
and e-commerce. Interestingly, the deceptive patterns
• The Indian government doesn’t have any existing laws to
per app were lowest in gaming and streaming
specifically address dark patterns. To do this, new rules
services.
aimed against deceptive design practices may need to
 Health-tech platforms including Tata 1mg were be introduced along with updated consumer protection
the most violative in terms of deceptive practices. laws and data protection legislation.
What are “Conscious patterns” and “Dark Pattern”? How global regulators dealing with dark pattern?
• “Conscious patterns” refer to features in an app’s user • The Competition and Markets Authority (CMA) of the
interface that are clear and honest, making it easy for U.K. lists different pressure-selling techniques that the
users to understand what they are doing and avoid being CMA believes would likely violate consumer protection
tricked. laws and for which actions will be taken.
• The term “Conscious patterns” contrasts with “dark • Guidelines from the European Data Protection Board
patterns,” which are deceptive tactics that can trick or were released in 2022 and offered designers and users
coerce users into actions they might not intend. of social media platforms practical guidance on how to
¾ Social media companies and Big Tech firms such spot and avoid so-called “dark patterns” in social media
as Apple, Amazon, Skype, Facebook, LinkedIn, interfaces that are in violation of General Data Protection
Microsoft, and Google use dark or deceptive patterns Regulation (GDPR) laws.
to downgrade the user experience to their advantage. Conclusion
¾ For example, when a user try to unsubscribe from The study emphasised the need for clear and honest design to
an email newsletter, but the “Unsubscribe” button enhance user trust and transparency. Further there is a need
is hard to find or is hidden in very small text at the of clarity on how dark patterns are defined as it would help
bottom of the email. Sometimes, even after you click companies know what sort of design options shown to users
it, the process is made confusing by asking multiple is alright and what is not.
times if you’re sure you want to unsubscribe, or
by redirecting you to a page where the option is EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
difficult to locate. This design tricks you into staying
subscribed longer than you intended, which is a Prelims MCQ
classic dark pattern.
Q. Which of the following best describes a “dark pattern”
Violation of Users Right to Choice and Privacy in user interface design?
• Lack of Informed Consent: Users are often not fully
aware of what they’re agreeing to, which undermines the (a) A design element that enhances the aesthetic appeal
principle of informed consent. of a website.

ECONOMY & AGRICULTURE  47

 for the development and regulation of mines and
(b) A user interface feature that simplifies the user
minerals under the control of the central government.
experience.
Key Features of the Bill
(c) A deceptive design practice intended to manipulate
users into making choices that benefit the company, • Definition of mineral oils expanded: The Bill has
often at the expense of user autonomy. introduces the term ‘Mineral Oils’ in place of 'Oils'. The
Act defines mineral oils to include petroleum and natural
(d) A technical error in a website’s layout that causes
gas. The Bill expands the definition to include: (i) any
confusion for users.
naturally occurring hydrocarbon, (ii) coal bed methane,
Answer: c
and (iii) shale gas/oil. It clarifies that mineral oils will not
include coal, lignite or helium.
Descriptive Question
• Introduction of petroleum lease: The Act provides for
Q. What is “dark pattern”? Discuss the ethical implications
of “dark patterns” in digital interfaces and suggest a mining lease. The lease provides for various activities
measures to enhance consumer protection in the digital such as exploration, prospecting, production, making
ecosystem. [15 marks] [250 words] merchantable, and disposal of mineral oils. The Bill
replaces the mining lease with a petroleum lease, which
also covers similar set of activities.

THE OILFIELDS (REGULATION • Rule making powers of the central government

AND DEVELOPMENT) expanded: The central government may also make Rules
on (i) merger and combination of petroleum leases, (ii)
AMENDMENT BILL, 2024 sharing of production and processing facilities, (iii)
Why in News: Recently the Oilfields (Regulation and obligations of lessees towards protecting environment
Development) Amendment Bill, 2024 was introduced in and reducing emissions, (iv) alternative mechanisms for
Rajya Sabha. resolving disputes in relation to the grant of petroleum
leases.
Objective Behind the Amendment
• Decriminalisation of offences: Earlier the Act
• To delink petroleum operations from mining by clarifying provides that violation of Rules will be punishable with
the granting and extension of natural gas and petroleum imprisonment up to six months, a fine of Rs 1,000, or
leases, and create a new dispute resolution mechanism both. The Bill instead provides that the above offence will
for the exploration and production sector. be punishable with a penalty of Rs 25 lakh. The Bill also
• To reduce the complexities in the process of granting and adds following offences: (i) undertaking activities related
extension of petroleum leases without compromising on to mineral oils such as exploring, prospecting, and
environmental safeguards. production without a valid lease, and (ii) non-payment
of royalty. These are also punishable with a penalty of Rs
• To promote ease of doing business and attract investment 25 lakh. Continued violation in case of all above offences
in the oil mining sector to infuse necessary capital and will attract a penalty of up to Rs 10 lakh per day.
technology.
• Adjudication of penalties: The central government
• To promote and facilitate the adoption of measures for will appoint an officer of the rank of Joint Secretary or
reducing carbon and greenhouse gas emissions and above for adjudication of penalties. Appeals against the
decarbonising operations including but not limited to the decisions of the Adjudicating Authority will lie before
use of oilfields for other purposes, such as the production the Appellate Tribunal specified in the Petroleum and
of hydrogen or coal gasification. Natural Gas Board Regulatory Board Act, 2006. The 2006
Act designates the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity,
• To increase domestic production of oil and gas to meet the
constituted under the Electricity Act, 2003, as the
rising demand for energy and reduce import dependence
Appellate Tribunal.
of the country.
• Note: Originally, oilfields, mines, and minerals were Conclusion
comprehensively regulated together through the Mines
and Minerals (Regulation and Development) Act, 1948. The Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Amendment
Moreover, the original Act of 1948 was also renamed as Bill, 2024 aimed at strengthening petroleum operations
the Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Act, 1948, through rules framed for governing various functional
(the said Act) and made applicable to mineral oils only. aspects and creating an environment for facilitating energy
transition by enabling the development of comprehensive
¾ Subsequently, in 1957, the Mines and Minerals energy projects for harnessing wind and solar energy along
(Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 was enacted with mineral oils at oilfields.

48 ECONOMY & AGRICULTURE

 production in gross agricultural value added (at
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
current prices) has decreased from 65% in 2011-12 to
Prelims MCQ 55% in 2022-23.
¾ The share of fishing and aquaculture in agriculture
Q. Which of the following is specifically excluded from
GVA (at current prices) increased from 5% in 2011
the definition of ‘mineral oils’ under the Oilfields
12 to 7% in 2022-23 while the share of livestock has
(Regulation and Development) Amendment Bill, 2024?
increased from 22% to 30% in the same period.
(a) Petroleum (b) Coal Bed Methane Agriculture Sector in Union Budget 2024-25
(c) Shale Gas (d) Lignite As part of measures to enhance productivity and resilience in
Answer: d Agriculture sector, the Union Budget 2024-25 has announced
several measures including Digital Public Infrastructure,
‘Atmanirbharta’ for oil seeds, Large scale clusters for
vegetable production and financial support for network of
AGRICULTURE AND ALLIED Nucleus Breeding Centres for Shrimp Broodstocks.
SECTOR
Why in News: The Budget 2024-25 has made a provision of
₹ 1.52 lakh crore for agriculture and allied sector.

Overview of Finances
• Within the Ministry, 92% of the allocation made for 2024-
25 is to be spent on the Department of Agriculture and
Farmers Welfare while the remaining 8% will be spent
under the Department of Agricultural Research and
Education.
Utilisation of Funds
• Between 2018-19 and 2023 24, the average fund utilisation
by the Ministry was around 86% as compared to the
budget estimates.
Issues for Consideration
Digital Public Infrastructure for Agriculture
• Share of economy and employment:
• Buoyed by the success of the pilot project, the Government,
¾ The agriculture sector employs the largest share of in partnership with the states, will facilitate the
the workforce in India but contributes the lowest to implementation of the Digital Public Infrastructure(DPI)
value addition in the economy. in agriculture for coverage of farmers and their lands in
¾ In 2022-23, agriculture employed about 46% of the 3 years.
workforce, and accounted for 18% of India’s gross
Missions for pulses and oilseeds
value added (GVA).
• For achieving self-sufficiency in pulses and oilseeds, the
¾ While the agriculture sector continues to employ a
Government will strengthen their production, storage
majority of India’s workforce, there has been a change
and marketing.
in the composition of the workforce employed in
agriculture. • A strategy is being put in place to achieve ‘Atmanirbharta’
for oil seeds such as mustard, groundnut, sesame,
¾ The share of cultivators in total agricultural workforce
soybean, and sunflower.
reduced from 54% in 2001 to 45% in 2011 while the
share of agricultural labourers increased from 46% in Vegetable production & Supply Chains
2001 to 55% in 2011. • Large scale clusters for vegetable production will be
• Low growth rates in the crop sector: developed closer to major consumption centres.
¾ The agriculture sector grew at 1.4% in 2023-24, lowest • Government will promote Farmer-Producer
since 2015-16. Organizations, cooperatives and start-ups for vegetable
¾ Growth in the sector has been volatile, and averaged supply chains including for collection, storage, and
at 3.6% in the past 12 years. marketing.
¾ Within agriculture, crop production accounts for Shrimp Production & Export
over 50% of the total production. The share of crop • Financial support for setting up a network of Nucleus

ECONOMY & AGRICULTURE  49

 Breeding Centres for Shrimp Broodstocks will be
Which of the statements above is/are incorrect?
provided.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
• Financing for shrimp farming, processing and export will
be facilitated through NABARD. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a
Conclusion

Productivity and resilience in agriculture is first among the Descriptive Question

nine priority areas announced in the Union Budget. While
announcing the MSP for all major crops Finance Minister Q. Discuss the significance and contribution of the
termed ‘Annadata’ (Farmer) as one of four major castes agriculture sector in India’s growth trajectory towards
$10 trillion economy. [10 marks] [150 words]
which need to be focused upon.

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE LONG TERM CAPITAL GAINS TAX
Why in News: Lok Sabha passes Finance Bill, amends LTCG
Prelims MCQ
tax provision on immovable properties.

Q. Consider the following statements: Key Details

With this amendment, individuals or Hindu Undivided
1. 
The share of agriculture sector in India’s GDP Families (HUFs) who bought houses/immovable properties
growth has been increasing consistently over the before July 23, 2024 has two option
past decade.
1. To pay LTCG tax under the new scheme at the rate of
2. 
Within agriculture, crop production accounts for 12.5% without indexation or
over 50% of the total production.
2. Claim the indexation benefit and pay 20% tax.

Option 1 (20% tax after Indexation) Option 2 (12.5% tax)

• Purchase Price (in 2005): ₹10 lakhs • Purchase Price (in 2005): ₹10 lakhs
• Sale Price (in 2023): ₹50 lakhs • Sale Price (in 2023): ₹50 lakhs
• Indexed Purchase Price (adjusted for inflation): ₹ 24 lakhs • LTCG: ₹40 lakhs
• Net LTCG: ₹50 lakhs - ₹24 lakhs = ₹26 lakhs • Tax: 12.5% of ₹40 Lakhs = ₹5 lakhs
• Tax: 20% of ₹26 lakhs = ₹5.2 lakhs
• Note: Indexation can vary depend on the inflation

What is Capital Gain Tax?

• Any profit or gain that arises from the sale of a ‘capital EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
asset’ is known as ‘income from capital gains’. Such
capital gains are taxable in the year in which the transfer Prelims MCQ
of the capital asset takes place. This is called capital gains
tax. Q. Consider the following statements regarding Capital
Gains Tax:
• There are two types of Capital Gains: Short-term capital
gains(STCG) Long-term capital gains(LTCG). 1. Capital gains are taxable in the year in which the
transfer of the capital asset occurs.
• Depends on the type of capital asset; accordingly, it comes
under short-term or long-term capital gain tax.
2. Selling shares in the stock market with a gain after
• For example, selling shares in the stock market with a gain holding them for more than 1 year is considered a
before 1 year comes under short-term capital gain tax, Short-Term Capital Gain (STCG).
and selling shares with a gain after 1 year comes under
long-term capital gain tax. Similarly, selling immovable 3. 
Selling immovable properties with a gain after
properties with a gain before 2 years comes under short- holding them for more than 2 years is considered a
Long-Term Capital Gain (LTCG).
term capital gain tax and after 2 years comes under long-
term capital gain tax.

50 ECONOMY & AGRICULTURE

 • Facilitation of FDI in White Label ATMs: The
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Amendment Rules permit 100% FDI in White Label ATM
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Operations under the automatic route to boost financial
inclusion nationwide. White Label ATMs are ATMs that
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 are owned and operated by non-bank entities, such as
Answer: b Tata Communication, Hitachi, and India 1 Payments,
which have been approved by the RBI.
• Government Approval for Equity Transfers: It has now
been mandated that all transfers of equity instruments
involving non-residents, whether buying, selling, or
THE NON-DEBT INSTRUMENT swapping equity, must follow the prescribed approval
RULES procedures, whenever government approval is applicable.
Why in News: Recently, the Government of India notified • Government Approval for Foreign Portfolio Investment:
Foreign Exchange Management (Non-debt Instruments) The Amendment Rules provide that aggregate foreign
(Fourth Amendment) Rules. portfolio investment (FPI) up to the sectoral cap will not
require government approval or compliance with sectoral
About Non-Debt Instrument conditions, given that such investment does not result in
Non-debt instruments are financial assets that do not involve transfer of ownership or control. Previously, government
borrowing or debt obligations. Instead, they represent approval was required, and sectoral conditions applied if
ownership or equity interests. They include: the aggregate FPI was up to 49% of the paid-up capital or
the sectoral cap, whichever was lower.
• Equity Shares: Ownership stakes in a company.
• Preference Shares: Equity with fixed dividends and Relevance of the Amendment
priority in asset distribution. • This will facilitate the global expansion of Indian
• Convertible Debentures: Debt that can be converted into companies through mergers, acquisitions, and other
equity. strategic initiatives, enabling them to reach new markets
and grow their presence worldwide.
• Equity-linked Instruments: Products tied to stock
performance, like stock options. • The Amendment Rules work towards clarifying the
NDI Rules, rationalising provisions, and simplifying
• Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI): Foreign investments
investments.
in a country’s financial markets.
• Allowing the exchange of equity instruments between
• Venture Capital: Equity investments in startups.
Indian and foreign entities promotes investment flexibility
Objective of the amendment and fosters international business relationships.
• The principal objective of the Amendment Rules is to • Mandating government approval for all equity transfers
simplify cross-border equity share swaps and provide involving non-residents enhances regulatory oversight
for the issue/transfer of equity instruments of Indian and ensures compliance with foreign investment norms.
companies in exchange for the equity instruments of • Further liberalisation may however be necessary as the OI
foreign companies. Rules permit investment by resident individuals in foreign
• Other changes under the purview of the Amendment entities through secondary share swaps in the event of
Rules include amending the definitions of ‘start-ups’ and mergers, demergers, amalgamations and liquidation.
‘control’ to align them with the definitions under other • Removing the need for government approval up to
laws, and permitting 100% FDI through the automatic the sectoral cap for FPI (without affecting ownership
route in white label ATM operations. or control) attracts more foreign investment, improves
Key Changes market liquidity, and supports economic growth.
• Facilitation of Swap of Equity Instruments and Equity • Aligning the definitions of ‘control’ and ‘startup
Capital: This provision allows for the exchange of equity company’ with existing regulations ensures consistency
instruments between an Indian company and a foreign and reduces regulatory ambiguities, making compliance
entity in compliance with the rules prescribed by the easier for businesses.
Central Government and the Reserve Bank of India.
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
• Standardized the definitions: The definition of ‘control’
has been standardized to align it with the definition under Prelims MCQ
the Companies Act, 2013, and the definition of ‘startup
company’ has been harmonized with the definition Q. Consider the following:
mentioned in the notification issued by the Department 1. Equity Shares
for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade.

ECONOMY & AGRICULTURE  51

 2. Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI)

3. Convertible Debentures

How many of the above are non-debt financial instruments?

(a) Only one (b) Only two

(c) All three (d) None

Answer: c

REGIONAL RURAL BANKS

Why in News: Union Finance Minister reviewed performance
of nine Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) of Gujarat, Maharashtra,
Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Rajasthan.

Key Details

• Regular review of RRBs started in 2022.

• The review meeting focused on business performance,

upgrading digital technology services, fostering business
About Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)
growth in MSME clusters, and deepening of financial
inclusion in rural areas. • Regional Rural Banks were established under the provisions
of an Ordinance passed on 26 September 1975 and the RRB
• Given the crucial role of RRBs in supporting the rural Act 1987 to provide sufficient banking and credit facility for
economy, the Union Finance Minister urged RRBs to agriculture and other rural sectors.
generate awareness of Government schemes, especially • Regional Rural Banks (RRB) are Indian Scheduled Commercial
in aspirational districts. Banks operating at the regional level in different states of India.

• The Union Finance Minister noted the natural potential • They have been created with a view of serving primarily the
of PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana scheme in states rural areas of India with basic banking and financial services.
However, RRBs may have branches set up for urban operations
of Gujarat and Rajasthan and urged RRBs to generate
and their area of operation may include urban area too.
awareness and provide credit under the scheme.
• It is mandatory for RRBs to seek prior approval/ licence from
• Potential of One District One Product (ODOP) programme Rural Planning and Credit Department (RPCD) of RBI before
was also highlighted to increase credit penetration by opening of new branches/offices.
RRBs.
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
• RRBs were directed to identify potential trades under
PM Vishwakarma scheme in their areas of operation to Prelims MCQ
provide credit.
Q. Consider the following statements regarding Regional
• RRBs were directed to increase their share in ground level Rural Banks (RRBs):
agriculture credit disbursement and achieve the stated
1. Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are established under
objectives of Priority Sector Lending. Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976.
• The Union Finance Minister directed RRBs to leverage 2. These banks are exempted from the Priority Sector
their healthy CASA ratio to disseminate more credit. Lending norms of the RBI.

• The Finance Minister directed RRBs to become more 3. 

Government initiated regular review of RRBs in
2020.
customer friendly and leverage its local connect to further
improve performance. How many of the above statements are correct?

• The Sponsor Banks have a significant role in these (a) Only one (b) Only two
endeavours by providing technical assistance, sharing
(c) All three (d) None
best practices, and ensuring that RRBs have access to the
resources they need to succeed.
Answer: a (1 only)

52 ECONOMY & AGRICULTURE

 successively or simultaneously while for other
THE BANKING LAWS purposes they can be appointed successively.
(AMENDMENT) BILL, 2024 • Settlement of unclaimed amounts
Why in News: The Banking Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024 ¾ The Bill widens the ambit of the funds that can be
was introduced in Lok Sabha on August 9, 2024. transferred to the Investor Education and Protection
Fund (IEPF). These include:
Key Details of the Bill ¾ Shares for which dividend has not been paid or
• Aim claimed for seven consecutive years.
¾ The bill aims to streamline banking operations and ¾ Any interest or redemption amount for bonds which
align them with contemporary financial practices, is unpaid/ unclaimed for seven years.
reflecting the government’s commitment to ¾ Any person whose shares or unclaimed/ unpaid
improving the efficiency and effectiveness of banking money is transferred to IEPF can claim the transfer
regulations. or refund.
• The Bill amends the following Acts: • Remuneration of auditors
¾ Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 ¾ At present, the remuneration paid to the auditors
¾ Banking Regulation Act, 1949 of banks is fixed by the RBI in consultation with the
¾ State Bank of India Act, 1955 central government. The Bill empowers banks to
¾ Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of decide the remuneration of their auditors.
Undertakings) Act, 1970
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
¾ Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of
Undertakings) Act, 1980 Prelims Question
• Definition of fortnight for cash reserves
Q. Consider the following Acts:
¾ The bill defines the definition of fortnight to the period
from: (i) first day to fifteenth day of each month, or (ii) 1. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934
sixteenth day to the last day of each month. 2. Banking Regulation Act, 1949
• Tenure of directors of co-operative banks 3. State Bank of India Act, 1955
¾ The Banking Regulation Act prohibits the director of The Banking Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024 seeks to amend
a bank (except its chairman or whole-time director) which of the above Acts?
to hold office for more than eight years consecutively.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
The Bill seeks to increase this period to 10 years for
co-operative banks. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
• Prohibition on common directors in case of co-operative Answer: d
banks
¾ The Banking Regulation Act prohibits a director on a
bank’s board to serve on the board of another bank.
This does not apply to directors appointed by RBI. REVISED NPAS NORMS FOR
¾ The Bill extends this exemption to the director of a COOPERATIVE BANKS
central co-operative bank. This exemption will apply
Why in New: Reserve Bank of India has recently revised
where he is elected to the board of a state cooperative
NPAs norms for Cooperative Banks in India
bank in which he is a member.
• Substantial interest in a company Key Details
¾ Under the Banking Regulation Act, substantial • RBI had observed that
interest in a company refers to holding shares of over ¾ There was variation in treatment of provisions for
five lakh rupees or 10% of the paid-up capital of the non-performing assets (NPAs) across cooperative
company, whichever is less. The Bill amends this to banks.
increase the threshold to two crore rupees.
¾ Under the provisions of the respective State Co-
• Nomination operative Societies Acts, or otherwise, several co-
¾ The Bill allows the appointment of up to four operative banks have created Bad and Doubtful
nominees for the purpose of accessing the deposit, Debt Reserve (BDDR). While in some cases, BDDR
articles, or locker in case of death of the person who is created by recognising an expense in the Profit
nominated him/her. and Loss (P&L) account, in other cases it is created
¾ For deposits, such nominees can be appointed either through appropriations from net profits.

ECONOMY & AGRICULTURE  53

• Therefore to bring uniformity in the treatment of BDDR
(c) Ministry of Finance
for prudential purposes across all the cooperative banks,
RBI has revises NPAs norms.
(d) None of the above
• These revised norms will be applicable to Urban Co-
Answer: a
operative Banks, State Cooperative Banks and Central
Co-operative Banks and come into force with immediate
effect.
Key Guidelines BIO-BITUMEN MIXING POLICY
• Expense Recognition: Starting from the financial year
2024-25, all provisions for NPAs must be recognized as Why in News: Recently, the Government of India has allowed
an expense in the Profit & Loss (P&L) account during the up to 35% of bio-bitumen (lignin) mixing in petroleum-based
accounting period in which they are identified. bitumen.
• Regulatory Capital: Provisions for regulatory capital will Key Details
continue to be guided by the existing norms for capital
• The government of India has allowed mixing of lignin,
adequacy.
bio-bitumen to save foreign exchange outflows as a large
• Reallocation of Provisions: part of which is imported from other countries.
¾ Banks may have created provisions required as per ¾ The bio-bitumen is produced by heating the organic
IRACP (Income Recognition, Asset Classification and waste to around 500°C in the absence of oxygen. This
Provisioning) by setting aside funds from the net process, known as pyrolysis.
profits instead of recording it as an expense in their
¾ Bio-oil obtained from the pyrolysis of wood materials
Profit and Loss (P&L) account. The amounts set aside
is a complex mixture of water, soluble organic
in this way by March 31, 2024, need to be identified
compounds, and insoluble organic compounds.
and quantified.
• Bitumen is a black substance produced through the
¾ Banks should directly set aside funds from their
distillation of crude oil and is widely used for making
Profit and Loss (P&L) account or General Reserves
roads and roofs.
to cover bad loans (NPAs) by March 31, 2025. These
provisions can then be subtracted from the Gross • In India, 90% of roads are using bituminous layers.
NPAs to calculate the net NPAs. ¾ Bitumen consumption in 2023-24 was 88 lakh tonnes.
¾ Amount of balances in BDDR, which are not required ¾ In 2024-25 it is expected to be 100 lakh tonnes. 50%
for provisions, can be moved to General Reserves or of the bitumen is imported and annual import cost is
Balance in P&L Account. ₹25,000-30,000 crore.
• Handling Unnecessary Balances: After following the • Central Road Research Institute (CRRI) and the Indian
above mentioned steps, the balances in the BDDR can be Institute of Petroleum, Dehradun, had developed bio-
reckoned as Tier 1 capital. However, balance in the BDDR bitumen from paddy straw.
should not be not be reduced from Gross NPAs to arrive • Indian Oil Corporation has a project in Panipat for
at Net NPAs making one lakh litres of ethanol per day from rice straw
Conclusion apart from 150 tonnes of bio-bitumen per day, and 88,000
tonnes per year of bio-aviation fuel.
The new norms, which take effect immediately, include a • Currently, there are 450 projects are in Haryana, Punjab
one-time transition measure to ease the shift to the new and Western Uttar Pradesh where biomass (parali) is
accounting standards. These norms are expected to enhance getting converted into bio-CNG, and now getting lignin.
transparency and uniformity in how NPAs are treated across
different cooperative banking institutions. Benefits of Bio-Bitumen
• It will save government of India’s foreign exchange resulting
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
reducing trade deficit thus improving current account balance.

Prelims MCQ � The cost of petroleum-based bitumen is ₹50 per kg while

the cost of bio-bitumen from biomass (rice straw) is ₹40 per
Q. 
NPA norms guidelines for Cooperative banks are kg.
decided by? • It will create opportunity for MSMEs/Farmers to generate
revenue and provide employment.
(a) Reserve Bank of India
• It is more environmentally friendly than traditional asphalt as
it doesn’t contain any toxic chemicals, so it’s safer for workers
(b) Ministry of Cooperatives also.

54 ECONOMY & AGRICULTURE

 Tantalum ores & concentrates and unwrought Tantalum
• It helps to reduce the harmful long-term effects of heat islands
that asphalt causes by absorbing more solar radiation than have been announced in Union Budget 2024-25.
asphalt
About Tantalum
• The Ministry of Road Transport & Highways has sanctioned
• Tantalum is a rare metal with the atomic number 73 — the
two (02) research projects, one each to IIT Roorkee, and Central
number of protons found in one atom of the element. It’s
Road Research Institute (CRRI) New Delhi in collaboration
grey, heavy, very hard, and one of the most corrosion-resistant
with Indian Institute of Petroleum (IIP) Dehradun to evaluate
metals in use today.
bio-bitumen in the laboratory and to assess the long-term
performance of pavement constructed with bio-bitumen. • 
High corrosion resistance: It possesses high corrosion
resistance because when exposed to air, it forms an oxide layer
• A test section has also been laid on Shamli-Muzaffarnagar
that is extremely difficult to remove, even when it interacts
Section of NH-709AD in November 2022 for performance
with strong and hot acid environments.
monitoring for a period of three years to assess suitability of
bio-bitumen in road construction. NHAI has also contemplated • Refractory Metal: It has an extremely high melting point of
trial with bio-bitumen on Jorabat-Shillong section of NH-40. 2996 C, which is the range of other refractory metals exceeded
only by tungsten and rhenium. However, one caution applies;
Conclusion due to its reaction with carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, and
hydrogen, it may not be used in environments where these
India is looking to start large-scale production of bio-bitumen
elements or their compounds are present as gases or volatile
from biomass or agricultural waste, a move that would help substances. Thus, it used at high temperature is limited to
reduce imports of the material used for asphalting of roads vacuum or inert gas environments.
while also addressing the persistent issue of stubble burning
• Pure tantalum is ductile: It can be stretched, pulled, or drawn
particularly in Northern India.
into a thin wire or thread without breaking. Moreover, it is
almost completely immune to chemical attack at temperatures
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE below 150°C, and is attacked only by hydrofluoric acid, acidic
solutions containing the fluoride ion, and free sulphur trioxide.
Prelims MCQ
• Major Producers: It occurs mainly in the mineral columbite-
Q. Indian Institute of Petroleum is located in … tantalite, which also contains other metals including niobium.
It is mined in many places including Democratic Republic of
(a) Dehradun (b) Lucknow the Congo, Rwanda, Nigeria, Australia, Canada and Brazil. A
lot of tantalum is obtained commercially as a by-product of tin
(c) Shimla (d) New Delhi
extraction.
Answer: a
� In India, tantalum is found in Gujarat, Arunachal Pradesh,
Rajasthan, Chhattisgarh, Bihar and Karnataka. Recently, found
the presence of tantalum in the Sutlej river sand in Punjab.

TANTALUM AS CRITICAL AND Uses of Tantalum

STRATEGIC MINERAL • Electronic Sector: The capacitors made from tantalum are
capable of storing more electricity in smaller sizes without
Why in News: The Union Government of India has recently much leakage than any other type of capacitor. This makes
notified a list of 24 minerals including Tantalum, in the Part them ideal for use in portable electronic devices such as
D of the First Schedule of the MMDR Act, 1957 as Critical and smartphones, laptops, and digital cameras.
Strategic minerals. • 
Substitute for Platinum: As tantalum has a high melting
point, it is frequently used as a substitute for platinum, which
Key Details is more expensive.
• The Geological Survey of India (GSI), an attached office • Medical Sector: Tantalum does not react with bodily fluids
of the Ministry of Mines, is giving special emphasis on and is used to make surgical equipment and implants, like
exploration of strategic and critical minerals including artificial joints.
Tantalum. • Other Sectors: The rare metal is also used to make components
• From field season 2021-22 to 2024-25, GSI has taken for chemical plants, nuclear power plants, aeroplanes and
up various projects on exploration for Tantalum and missiles.
associated minerals in different parts of India.
• GSI has also established a Niobium-Tantalum resource EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
of 16.42 million tonnes with average grade of 144ppm Prelims MCQ
(Nb+Ta)2O5 at 100 ppm cut off in Rewat Hill block,
Q. Mineral ‘Tantalum’ can be used in production of:
Nagaur district, Rajasthan.
1. Airplanes 2. Nuclear missiles
• In order to strengthen the supply chain of critical minerals
including Tantalum, elimination of customs duty on 3. Surgical implants 4. Smartphones

ECONOMY & AGRICULTURE  55

 • The RBI has announced that public deposits accepted or
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
renewed by HFCs must be repayable within a period of
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4 12-60 months. Existing deposits with maturities longer
than 60 months can be repaid according to their current
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 repayment schedule.
Answer: d • Regulations for NBFCs with regard to branches and
appointment of agents to collect deposits will also apply
to deposit-taking HFCs.
• To manage their underlying exposures, the RBI has
HOUSING FINANCE COMPANIES now authorised HFCs to participate in currency futures
Why in News: The Reserve Bank of India released revised exchanges.
rules for deposit-taking housing finance companies (HFCs).

Key Details
• The new rules will be applicable from January 1.
• They are aimed at bringing deposit-taking HFCs on par
with non-banking financial companies (NBFCs).
• It mandates deposit-taking HFCs to maintain 15% liquid
assets against public deposits held by them in a phased
manner, up from 13% at present.
• Currently, HFCs accepting public deposits are subject
to more relaxed prudential parameters on deposit
acceptance as compared to NBFCs.

EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. India’s first Grain ATM has been launched in.

(a) Raipur (b) Jaipur

(c) Bhubaneshwar (d) Guwahati

Answer: c

56 ECONOMY & AGRICULTURE

 SECTION

D ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY

THE DISASTER MANAGEMENT • Recommending guidelines for minimum standards of

(AMENDMENT) BILL, 2024 relief.
• Preparing national and state disaster databases,
Why in News: The Minister of State for Home has recently respectively.
introduced the Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024 • Functions of NDMA will also include: assessing disaster
in Lok Sabha to amend the Disaster Amendment Act 2005. preparedness of states, and undertaking post-disaster
audit of preparedness and response.
¾ Formation of Disaster Database will include
following information:
 The type and severity of disaster risks

 Allocation of funds and expenditure

 Disaster preparedness and mitigation plans

• Mandatory Establishment of State Disaster Response

Forces (SDRFs): It will be mandatory for every state to
raise and maintain an SDRF. Although most states have
raised their disaster relief forces on the lines of NDRF
over the years, an SDRF is not mandated in the 2005 Act.
• Establishment of a new body: Urban Disaster
Management Authorities: The Bill empowers the state
government to constitute a separate Urban Disaster
Management Authority for state capitals and cities with
Main Features of the Amendment Bill
a municipal corporation except the union territories of
• Shifting Responsibility for Disaster Management Plans Delhi and Chandigarh.
to NDMA and SDMAs: The Bill provides that National
Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) and State ¾ It will prepare and implement the disaster
Disaster Management Authority (SDMA) will prepare management plan for the area under it.
disaster management plans. Earlier this function was ¾ The Urban Authority will comprise the Municipal
performed by a National Executive Committee at the Commissioner as the chairperson, the District
union level and a State Executive Committee at the state Collector as the vice chairperson, and other members
level. specified by the state government.
• Enhanced Authority of NDMA to Assess Emerging
Disaster Risks: The Bill empowers the NDMA to take • Statutory status to existing committees: The Bill provides
stock of the entire range of disaster risks in the country statutory status to existing bodies such as the National
periodically, including emerging disaster risks, which Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) and the High
include “risks of those disasters that may not have taken Level Committee (HLC).
place, but may occur in future due to extreme climate ¾ The NCMC will function as the nodal body for
events and other factors.” dealing with major disasters with serious or national
• Additional key functions for NDMA & SDMA: The ramifications.
Bill adds certain functions for these authorities at their ¾ The HLC will provide financial assistance to state
respective levels. These include: governments during disasters. It will approve
¾ Taking periodic stock of disaster risks, including financial assistance from the National Disaster
emerging risks from extreme climate events. Mitigation Fund.
¾ Providing technical assistance to authorities below ¾ The Cabinet Secretary will serve as the chairperson
them. of NCMC.

ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY  57

 ¾ Minister of the department with administrative
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
control over disaster management will serve as
chairperson of the HLC. Prelims MCQ
Q. Which of the following will function as a nodal body for
• Compensations: The Bill proposes that the NDMA dealing with major disasters with serious and national
should recommend guidelines for minimum standards of ramifications, according to the Disaster Management
relief to be provided to people affected by disasters. This (Amendment) Bill, 2024?
includes a recommendation on compensation amounts in
(a) National Disaster Management Authority
case of loss of lives, damage to homes and property, and
loss of livelihoods. (b) State Disaster Management Authority
• Penalty: The Bill seeks to empower the Central and State
(c) National Crisis Management Committee
governments to direct any person to take any action or
refrain from taking any action for reducing the impact of (d) High Level Committee
a disaster and to impose a penalty not exceeding ₹10,000. Answer: c
• Clarification about the definition of disasters: The Bill
seeks to include an important clarification about the Descriptive Question
definition of disasters.
Q. Discuss the key provisions of the Disaster Management
Limitations
(Amendment) Bill, 2024 and evaluate its effectiveness
• Currently the Home Ministry is the nodal ministry for the in addressing the challenges of disaster management
NDMA. Considering its growing role and importance, it in India. [15 marks] [250 words]
has been argued that NDMA be given more powers and
elevated to the status of a government department, if not
a full-fledged ministry in itself. TECHNOLOGY DRIVEN DISASTER
• The NDMA does not have any administrative or financial MANAGEMENT
powers. Routing every small decision through the Home
Why in News: The United Nations Development Program
Ministry is an inefficient and time-consuming process.
has recently emphasized innovation in disaster management
• The NDMA body is also severely short-staffed at the top, by leveraging technology to save more lives.
with just three members functioning. It used to once have
six to seven members, each in charge of a specific type of Key Details
disaster. • Between 1900 and 2019 the number of disaster around the
• Many opposition members raised concern over the Bill world has increased from 39 incidents to 396. (Institute
as it creates several authorities and also encroaches upon for Economics and Peace).
the functions of the State Governments. • The resulting cost of addressing damage caused by
Conclusion natural disasters has risen from US$50 billion per year in
the 1980s to US$ 200 billion per year in the last decade.
India is vulnerable, in varying degrees, to a large number of
natural as well as man-made disasters. In the last 10 years • However, according to the World Meteorological
between 2014 to 2024, a total budget of ₹2 lakh crore was Organization, the deaths from climate and weather-related
allocated to SDRFs and NDRF for disaster relief. Moreover, disasters decreased almost 3-fold from 1970 to 2019 but
the best practices from around the world have been put in we need to build even more resilience and use modern
place in India to deal with disasters. technology to ensure this progress doesn’t reverse.

Role of technology in Disaster Management and Risk Reduction

Earthquake-

Pre- Disaster Phase (Preparation and Mitigation) Post- Disaster Phase (Response and Recovery)

• Sensors monitor the condition of infrastructure like bridges

• Earthquakes are currently more unpredictable
and buildings to detect vulnerabilities and prevent failures.
than other naturally occurring disasters.
Advances in construction materials and techniques improve
• Earthquake early warning systems use the resilience of structures to withstand disasters.
seismographs to detect and alert people before
• Example- Earthquake resistant building designs in China.
the shaking starts. During an earthquake, ground
motion is recorded using a seismograph. • Technology can also help in confirming the whereabouts and
safety of residents, operating evacuation process, transporting
• For example- Japan’s earthquake alert system.
and managing relief goods.

58 ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY

Tropical Cyclones-

Pre- Disaster Phase (Preparation and Mitigation) Post- Disaster Phase (Response and Recovery)

• A cyclone cannot be prevented, but can be predicted, • Data analysis Centers using blockchain technology
mitigated and responded well by using technology to for post cyclonic response to provide relief to the
reduce vulnerability. victims.
• Advanced meteorological tools and satellite systems help • Recent development of AI technologies would enable
predict severe weather events like cyclones. disaster managers to analyze those recorded data
• Utilizing technology, forecasting instruments, and and create an alert.
observational techniques is important for anticipating • An AI platform which can detect water rise from
tropical cyclones. social media posts has already been developed
• Example- Bangladesh cyclone warning system.

Floods

Pre- Disaster Phase (Preparation and Mitigation) Post- Disaster Phase (Response and Recovery)

• Geographic Information Systems (GIS) can help to • The GIS based Digital Elevation Model (DEM) is a three-
map disaster-prone areas, analyze risks, and plan dimensional representation of the terrain’s surface that
evacuation routes. shows the extent of flooding and its depth.

• Sensor network systems can be used to monitor • Use of remote sensing technology for flood management
activity in roads and bridges, offer constant data
about the integrity of the infrastructure in question as • For examples,
well as surrounding factors that may have an impact ¾ European flood awareness system.
on it, including rising water levels related to floods.
¾ India’s flood management with remote sensing was
• Use of communication services like SMS has been used during Kerala flood in 2018.
proven effective in disaster alertness.
¾ Further, use of drones or unmanned aerial vehicles
(UAVs) can be effective for post flood surveys.

Landslides

Pre- Disaster Phase (Preparation and Mitigation) Post- Disaster Phase (Response and Recovery)

Technology can play an indicative role in landslide prone • First responders can be kept out of the direct line of a
areas. For example, disaster, such a landslides, by employing GPS tracking.
Cars equipped with GPS tracking systems can display
• Finder is a disaster management tool of NASA widely
which highways and roads are safe to travel on and
used during landslides
which have been compromised.
• Lidar technology in landslide monitoring.
• Further, Artificial intelligence (AI) and robotics have
transformative potential in disaster management,
offering solutions that enhance response efficiency,
safety, and effectiveness.

For example,
• Technology played an important role during the
Silkyara-Barkot tunnel rescue mission in Uttarkashi
district of Uttarakhand where 41 workers were trapped
inside the tunnel and were rescued with the help of
technology.
• Robotics was used for supplying essentials and to
monitor the well-being of the workers trapped inside
the tunnel.

ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY  59

Forest Fires

Pre- Disaster Phase (Preparation and Mitigation) Post- Disaster Phase (Response and Recovery)
Satellites and drones provide real-time imagery for assessing Use of unmanned aerial vehicles(UAVs) can be effective for
damage, tracking wildfires. spraying fire retardants and initiating artificial rains.

India’s Technological Integration for Disaster Management: Descriptive Question

• 
National Disaster Management Service (NDMS): NDMS Q. Technology can play an efficient role in disaster
plan involves using satellite technology, specifically management and risk reduction in both pre and
developing Very Small Aperture Terminals (VSATs) to connect post disaster phases. Explain with examples. Also
120 locations. NDMA has initiated this project to enhance mention India’s technological integration for disaster
telecommunication infrastructure for the State Disaster management. [15 marks] [250 words]
Management Authority (SDMA) and selected District Disaster
Management Authorities (DDMAs). This initiative is part of
the information and communication technology (ICT) services
aimed at supporting the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA),
THE WESTERN GHATS ECO-
NDMA, National Disaster Response Force (NDRF), and SDMA SENSITIVE AREA NOTIFICATION
in making informed decisions during disasters.
Why in News: The National Green Tribunal has recently
• SATARK Platform of Odisha- System for Assessing, Tracking, directed the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
and Alerting Disaster Risk Information based on Dynamic
Change (MoEF&CC) to fix the timeline to finalize the Western
Risk Knowledge (SATARK) is a one-stop risk management
Ghat eco-sensitive area ESA notification.
system for automated assessment of risks and evaluation and
dissemination of alerts and resource management actions, Key Details
informed by climate data at different timescales.
• MoEF&CC had issued the draft notification in 2022 but it
� SATARK, integrated into operations of Odisha State Disaster is yet to be finalised.
Management Authority (OSDMA) generates impact-based
• As per the recent draft, the Centre has notified an area of
forecasting and assists disaster managers to take forecast-
based early actions.
56,825 sq km spread across Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa,
Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu, classifying 37% of
• India’s satellite programs like Indian National Satellite System Western Ghats region under ESA.
(INSAT) and Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) Satellites are a
series of satellites designed for earth observation and resource ¾ The ESAs proposed across these states are spread
management, including disaster monitoring. over 449 sq km in Gujarat, Maharashtra (17,340 sq
km), Goa (1,461 sq km), Karnataka (20,668 sq km),
• Crisis Management platform of Kerala’s IT mission
Tamil Nadu (6,914 sq km), and Kerala (9,993.7 sq km).
• TN SMART- WEB based GIS systems by Tamil Nadu in
• The Central Government has provided a window of 60
partnership with ISRO.
days to submit objections and suggestions on the draft.
• The draft notification declaring ESA over Western Ghats
Conclusion was first issued in March 2014, based on suggestions by
Overall, technology enhances the efficiency and effectiveness the High-Level Working Group (HLWG) under Madhav
of disaster management and risk reduction efforts, helping Gadgil. Which was formed by the Centre in 2012.
communities to better prepare for, respond to, and recover
Why is the Government Hesitating to issue the Guidelines?
from disasters.
• Planters/Farmers oppose ESA draft notification.
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE ¾ It is being argued that declaration of the ESA in
Western Ghat will lead to relocation of thousands of
Prelims MCQ villagers living in the region.
¾ However, there seems to be no basis for such
Q. 
In recent times many countries are using the tool apprehensions since the report categorically mentions
‘Finder’ to assess land prone areas. It is developed by? that people will not be displaced.
• It will affect work on villagers’ individual tracts of land
(a) ISRO (b) NASA and estates, while also affecting those who have applied
for grants of land for cultivation and residential purposes.
(c) C-DAC (d) IIT Madras • Lack of political will and no politician wants to disturb
Answer: b their vote bank.
¾ Elected representatives have also been accused of
safeguarding their vested interests in the region by

60 ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY

 misleading people under the pretext of protecting • Absence of eco-sensitive zone cover for the Western
their rights. Ghats has resulted in the continuation of environmentally
hazardous human activities
¾ They have been stoking fears through misinformation,
that people living in the Western Ghats region will ¾ For example, massive deforestation for mining and
lose their land and livelihood or be subjected to construction over the years leading to loosening of
untold restrictions. soil and instability of the hills.
• The latest Wayanad landslide disaster in Kerala serves as
• Many local communities also felt that there was no yet another reminder from nature to preserve ecological
adequate consultation with people who would be balance.
affected. This led to mistrust and opposition.
What are Ecologically Sensitive Areas?
Why it is important to declare Western Ghats eco sensitive
• As per the National Wildlife Action Plan (2002-2016),
zone?
Eco-Sensitive Areas (ESAs) are regions located within 10
• The Western Ghat is recognized as one of the world’s km of protected areas such as national parks and wildlife
eight ‘hottest hotspots’ of biological diversity along with sanctuaries. ESAs are notified and regulated by the
Sri Lanka. MoEFCC under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
¾ A chain of mountains running parallel to India’s • The purpose of declaring ESAs is to create “shock
western coast covering an area of around 140,000 absorbers” to prevent ecological damage caused by
square kilometres in a 1,500 km long stretch it is developmental activities in such areas and protect then
interrupted only by the 30 km Palakkad Gap. by minimising the negative impact on the ecosystem.
• The area is the second most landslide-prone region of the • They also act as a transition zone from areas that require
country after the Himalayas. high protection to those that need lesser protection.

Activities restricted under ESA in Western Ghats

Prohibited • Complete ban on mining, quarrying, and sand mining

• ‘Red’ category industries
• New thermal power projects
• Construction projects with 20,000 sq. m and above
• All new and expansion townships, development projects with 50 ha/1.5 lakh sq. m of built-up area
Regulated • Hydropower projects
• ‘Orange/White’ category industries
Unrestricted • Change in ownership of property
• All existing healthcare establishments
• No displacement or dislocation of local people
• Practicing of agriculture and plantation activity

Gadgil Committee and Kasturirangan Committee EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
• The Gadgil committee recommended that 137,000 sq km—
80%—of the Western Ghats should be notified as ESA. Prelims MCQ
� It sub-categorised this protected region into three zones and
Q. 
‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and ‘Kasturirangan
provided permissible activities for each zone.
Committee Report’, sometimes seen in the news, are
• 
Kasturirangan committee was established to review the related to:
report published by Gadgil committee. Gadgil committee
report created apprehensions that areas under plantations and (a) Constitutional reforms
farming would be subjected to government control.
• Kasturirangan commitee made major changes to the Gadgil (b) Ganga Action Plan
report. It reduced the area of ESA to 59,940 sq km.
� It used satellite imagery to find that 60% of the Western Ghats
(c) Linking of rivers
was under plantation, agriculture or human settlements.
(d) Protection of Western Ghats
� These were classified as cultural landscape as it would be
difficult to reverse changed land use. So, the effort was to Answer: d
protect what remained as natural landscape.

ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY  61

 Descriptive Question � Ice Melting: The melting of ice from glaciers, ice caps, and
ice sheets in Greenland and Antarctica is another cause
Q. Explain the concept of Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESAs) and
of SLR. Substantial melting of land-based ice blocks and
their role in environmental conservation with special
glaciers due to rising global temperatures adds water to the
reference to Western ghats. Also explain the reasons
oceans, thereby increasing global sea levels.
behind its inadequate implementation and suggest
measures for the same. [10 marks] [150 words]

SEA LEVEL RISE

Why in News: Recently a report titled ‘Sea level rise scenarios
and inundation maps for selected Indian coastal cities’ was
published by a Bengaluru-based think tank, the Center for
Study of Science, Technology and Policy.

Report’s Key Findings

• The report presents information on changes in sea levels

under historical and future climate scenarios for 15 Indian
coastal cities and towns.

• Mumbai has witnessed the maximum rise in sea levels

(4.44 cm) among 15 Indian coastal cities between 1987 to
2021.
• Mumbai is followed by Haldia (2.726 cm), Visakhapatnam
(2.381 cm), Kochi (2.213 cm), Paradip (0.717cm), and
Chennai (0.679 cm).

• By 2100, sea levels would rise by 76.2 cm in Mumbai, 75.5

cm in Panaji, 75.3 cm in Udupi, 75.2 cm in Mangalore,
75.1 cm in Kozhikode, 74.9 cm in Kochi, 74.7 cm in
Thiruvananthapuram, and 74.7 cm in Kanniyakumari
even under a medium-emission scenario.

• The study highlights that more than 10% of the land in

Mumbai, Yanam, and Thoothukudi, 5%–10% in Panaji and
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
Chennai, and 1%–5% in Kochi, Mangalore, Visakhapatnam,
Haldia, Udupi, Paradip, and Puri would be submerged Prelims MCQ
due to rise in sea levels by 2040.
Q. Which of the following statements regarding the impact
• As per the report, key sectors that will be impacted of sea level rise (SLR) on Indian coastal cities is/are
include water, agriculture, forest and biodiversity, and correct?
health. The beaches, backwaters, and mangrove forests
are particularly at risk, impacting biodiversity and 1. 
Mumbai has experienced the highest rise in sea
tourism. levels among Indian coastal cities between 1987 to
2021.

Factors Responsible For Sea Level Rises 2. More than 10% of the land in Chennai and Kochi is
projected to be submerged due to sea level rise by
• Sea level rise is the gradual increase in the average height of 2040.
the world’s oceans and seas. It is determined by the rise in the
water level in relation to the land. 3. Rising sea levels lead to the salinisation of freshwater
• The expansion of seawater is caused by heat and the influx of sources, affecting drinking water and agriculture.
water from ice melting, as explained below: Select the correct answer using the code given below:
� Ocean thermal expansion: Oceans absorb more than 90% (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
of the heat trapped by accumulating greenhouse gases
(GHGs)—the primary cause of Earth’s warming. As a (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
result, ocean temperatures increase and the water expands, Answer: b
resulting in SLR.

62 ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY

 ¾ The gas is also emitted from livestock, primarily
Descriptive Question
through the burps of cows, and increased animal
Q. Sea level rise poses a significant threat to India’s agriculture, as well as to a lesser degree expanding
coastal cities and ecosystems. Discuss the key factors rice production.
responsible for the rise in sea levels and its potential
impacts on Indian coastal cities by 2100. What ¾ The increasing release of methane from natural
measures should be adopted to mitigate these impacts? wetlands, triggered by a hotter climate, is now also
[15 marks] [250 words] contributing.
¾ Methane is produced by thawing permafrost.
Discarded household waste also releases large
INCREASE IN GLOBAL METHANE quantities of methane when it decomposes, if left to
EMISSION rot in landfills.

Why in News: A new study by international experts shows Key Highlights of the Global Methane Tracker 2024
that global methane emissions have been rapidly increasing
• Methane emissions from the energy sector remained near a
since 2006, with a sharp rise since 2020, and this trend is likely
record high in 2023.
to continue.
• The overall emissions remain far too high to meet the world’s
Key Findings climate goals.
• One of the biggest causes of climate change is methane • Large methane emissions events detected by satellites also
gas emissions, second only to carbon dioxide, and rose by more than 50% in 2023 compared with 2022, with more
the gas also causes serious health problems. Most than 5 Mt of methane emissions detected from major fossil fuel
emissions come from the energy, agriculture and leaks around the world – including a major well blowout in
waste sectors. Kazakhstan that went on for more than 200 days.
• Methane emissions are responsible for half of the • The United States is the largest emitter of methane from oil
global heating already experienced, have been climbing and gas operations, closely followed by the Russia.
significantly since around 2006. • 
Norway and the Netherlands have the lowest emissions
• Methane has 80 times the warming power of CO2 in the intensities.
first 20 years after it reaches the atmosphere. This is the
reason methane gas is more dangerous.
• Global methane emissions have typically been about
30m tons higher each year than during last decade, with
annual records in methane emissions broken in 2021 and
again in 2022. While there is no single clear reason for
this, scientists point to a number of factors.
• Methane also contributes to the formation of ozone
at ground level, increasing the risk of death through
respiratory illnesses and cardiovascular diseases.
• CO2 can linger in the atmosphere for hundreds or
thousands of years, unless removed, methane is a far
shorter-lived threat. If all methane emissions were cut How can we reduce methane emissions?
immediately, 90% of accumulated methane would have
• Technological solutions include capturing methane and
left the atmosphere within 30 years, providing a swifter
using it for energy generation; minimizing leaks from fossil
way to reduce global heating than focusing just on carbon
fuel operations by repairing infrastructure; improving
dioxide
the efficiency of gas flaring and eventually phasing it out;
• Atmospheric methane (CH4) occurs abundantly in nature and inhibiting methane-producing microbes in cattle,
as the primary component of natural gas. The majority of through vaccines and feed supplements, as well as in
methane emissions -- around 60% -- are linked to human treatment facilities for manure and other organic waste.
activity, while some 40% is from natural sources, mainly
• Systemic changes include reducing livestock numbers
wetlands. Methane comes from
through improved productivity and dietary shifts
¾ The drilling and processing of oil, gas and coal, with towards plant-based foods; reducing emissions from
a boom in fracking causing a rash of new gas projects livestock; using rice cultivars with lower methane
this century. emissions; improving water and fertilizer management
¾ Methane leaks from energy infrastructure -- such as in rice cultivation; and diverting organic waste from
gas pipelines -- and from deliberate releases during landfills through recycling, composting, and reducing
maintenance. food loss and waste.

ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY  63

• Policy measures for methane abatement include emission • The water vapour forms a band or a column in the lower
reduction targets, enforceable regulations, and financial part of the atmosphere which moves from the tropics to
incentives such as subsidies and methane pricing. the cooler latitudes and comes down as rain or snow,
devastating enough to cause floods or deadly avalanches.
Conclusion
• These “rivers in the sky” carry some 90% of the total
A recent International Energy Agency (IEA), report estimates
water vapour that moves across the Earth’s mid-latitudes
that rapid cuts in methane emissions linked to the fossil fuel
and, on an average, have about twice the regular flow of
sector could prevent up to 0.1 degrees Celsius of warming
the Amazon, the world’s largest river by the discharge
by mid-century. Moreover, a joint EU-US “Global Methane
volume of water.
Pledge” was launched in 2021, aiming to reduce worldwide
methane emissions by 30% by 2030, compared to 2020 levels. • An average atmospheric river is about 2,000km (1,242
miles) long, 500km wide and nearly 3km deep - although
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE they are now getting wider and longer, with some more
than 5,000km long.
Prelims MCQ

Q. 
Which of the following statements is/are correct
regarding methane emissions and their impact on the
environment?

1. Methane has 80 times the warming power of CO₂ in

the first 20 years after it reaches the atmosphere.

2. Methane contributes to the formation of ozone at

ground level, which increases the risk of respiratory
and cardiovascular diseases.

3. CO₂ has a shorter lifespan in the atmosphere

compared to methane.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) All of the above

Answer: a Required Conditions for Atmospheric Rivers to Form
• Strong low-level winds that act as a highway for water
Descriptive Question vapour to be transported across. The jet streams in
the Northern and Southern hemispheres act as these
Q. Discuss the impact of methane emissions on global
highways, with speeds reaching as high as 442km/h
warming. Propose solutions to manage and reduce
(275mph).
these emissions. [10 marks] [150 words]
• High moisture levels, which are a prerequisite for
precipitation to occur.
• Orographic life, a phenomenon that occurs when an air
ATMOSPHERIC RIVERS mass moves from a low to a higher elevation as it moves
Why in News: Recently, the Scientists have warned that over rising terrain, such as a mountain. As the air mass
intensification and increased frequency of atmospheric rivers gains altitude, it quickly cools down, raising humidity in
due to global warming is worsening extreme rainfall events the air and eventually leading to the formation of clouds
and weather patterns. and, under the right conditions, precipitations.
Reasons Behind Formation of Atmospheric Rivers
About Atmospheric Rivers
• Global warming makes the Indian Ocean warm up faster,
• An atmospheric river is a plume of deep tropical
there can be a considerable increase in evaporation, which
moisture that brings heavy rain and snow to a region.
could lead to more severe ARs.
Like hurricanes, they’re ranked from AR-1 to AR -5 (AR-
5 the most intense) based on how much moisture they • More warming, more evaporation, and the capacity of the
transport. atmosphere to hold more moisture increase.
• They are also known as “flying rivers”, these storms are • Climate change has made monsoon rains more erratic,
huge, invisible ribbons of water vapour that are born in with massive rainfall in a short span of time followed by
warm oceans as seawater evaporates. prolonged periods of dryness.

64 ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY

Impact of Atmospheric Rivers
Descriptive Question
• Disadvantages of this weather phenomenon include
Q. Atmospheric rivers (ARs) are becoming more intense
landslides, mudslides, and major flooding.
and frequent due to global warming, leading to
• Moreover, if there is not enough vegetation in the area extreme weather events. Discuss the formation and
– for example as a result of a forest fire – and the slope characteristics of atmospheric rivers, and analyze
is steep enough, abundant precipitation can result in their impact on India, particularly in terms of
landslides and/or mudslides. environmental and socio-economic consequences.
[15 marks] [250 words]
• Besides that there will be economic cost in terms
of infrastructure damage, agricultural losses and
environmental degradation.
• Atmospheric rivers can cause loss of life due to floods GROUND-LEVEL OZONE
and landslides, displace communities, and require large- POLLUTION
scale evacuations, with long-term social and economic
consequences for affected populations. Why in News: In a recent study the Centre for Science and
Environment (CSE) has revealed that the Ground-level ozone
Conclusion pollution is on the rise across India’s major cities.
Earth’s atmosphere has warmed about 1.3 degrees Celsius
Key Details
(2.3 degrees Fahrenheit) since pre-industrial times, and
researchers have already observed heavier rain in storms, • The duration of ozone exposure is concerning, lasting an
hurricanes, daily precipitation — and now in atmospheric average of 12-15 hours across most cities, the researchers
rivers. The atmospheric rivers produced about 11 and 15 found.
percent more rain because of warming brought on by fossil • Between April and July this year, Delhi-NCR recorded
fuel burning. If the same events were to take place in an even 176 days of ground-level ozone exceedances, the highest
warmer world — as projected by the end of the 21st century among the ten metropolitan areas studied.
— the researchers found rainfall quantities would have been • Ozone levels were elevated even at night, with Mumbai
20 and 60 percent higher. recording the most instances of night-time exceedances.
• High-end and green neighbourhoods, with lower levels
of other pollutants, are ironically more susceptible to
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
ozone build-up.
Prelims MCQ • Summer is the peak season for ozone but the problem
persists year-round in many areas, particularly in sunnier
Q. 
Which of the following statements regarding southern cities.
atmospheric rivers (ARs) is/are correct?
• The report pointed out as particulate pollution is reduced,
1. 
Atmospheric rivers carry about 90% of the total issues with nitrogen oxides (NOx) and ground-level
water vapor that moves across the Earth’s mid- ozone increase.
latitudes.
• Furthermore, ozone accumulates not only in metropolitan
2. The formation of atmospheric rivers requires high areas but also travels long distances, creating a regional
moisture levels and strong low-level winds that act pollutant that demands both local and regional action.
as highways for water vapor transport.
Sources of Ozone Pollution
3. Atmospheric rivers are typically confined to tropical • Ozone is not directly emitted from any source. It forms
regions and do not affect temperate zones. when nitrogen oxides (NOx), volatile organic compounds
(VOCs), carbon monoxide (CO) and methane (CH4) react
4. 
Global warming contributes to the increased in the presence of sunlight and high temperatures.
intensity and frequency of atmospheric rivers
• This reaction is influenced by the relative concentrations
by enhancing evaporation and the atmosphere’s
capacity to hold moisture. of VOCs and NOx, creating what scientists refer to as
“ozone isopleths.”
Select the correct answer using the code given below: • Vehicle exhaust, fossil fuel combustion, gasoline vapours,
chemical solvents and natural sources release NOx and
(a) 1, 2, and 4 only (b) 1 and 3 only VOCs into the air - the essential ingredients for ozone
formation. Other sources are power plants, industrial
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
boilers, refineries, and chemical plants. Ozone pollution
Answer: a can even come from paints, cleaners, solvents, and
motorized lawn equipment.

ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY  65

Consequences of Ozone Pollution
3. 
Ozone pollution can harm human health,
• These minuscule particles, less than 2.5 micrometres in particularly affecting individuals with respiratory
diameter, can infiltrate our lungs, posing grave health conditions.
risks.
4. 
Ozone has no impact on crop yields and food
• Those with respiratory conditions, asthma and chronic
security.
obstructive pulmonary disease — as well as children
with premature lungs and older adults — are at serious How many of the above statements are correct?
risk. This can inflame and damage airways, make lungs
susceptible to infection, aggravate asthma, emphysema (a) Only one (b) Only two
and chronic bronchitis and increase the frequency of
(c) Only three (d) All four
asthma attacks leading to increased hospitalisation.
Answer: b
• Ozone can damage crops, reducing yields and affecting
food security. Ozone also cripples crop yields and harms
Descriptive Question
food security.
• As this pollutant enters leaves through pores called Q. 
Analyze the impacts of rising ground-level ozone
stomata, it damages plant tissues, accelerates ageing, pollution in major Indian cities. How does ozone
slows photosynthesis, stunts growth and eventually formation relate to emissions of nitrogen oxides and
slashes crop yields. volatile organic compounds, and what strategies
can be employed to address this issue effectively?
• A study published in the American Geophysical Union’s [15 marks] [250 words]
Journal highlighted that the present-day ozone-induced
damage to wheat and rice in India is sufficient to feed
roughly 35 per cent of the nation’s poor.
GURU GHASIDAS TAMOR PINGLA
Way Forward
TIGER RESERVE
• Air quality alerts could help reduce flare-ups of ozone.
• Local warnings could be issued to stop people from Why in News: Recently, Chhattisgarh has approved a proposal
fueling their cars to avoid fuel evaporating to form some to notify Guru Ghasidas Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve (TR).
of the precursor gases for ozone.
Key Details
• Similarly, industry could be asked to shift operations to
the evening or even the night. • The Tamor Pingla Wildlife Sanctuary was identified as
part of the Sarguja Jashpur Elephant Reserve in 2011.
• A good monitoring and alert infrastructure exists in
The Guru Ghasidas National Park used to be part of the
Delhi, but is still limited across the country as a whole.
Sanjay National Park in undivided Madhya Pradesh.
This needs to be expanded to enable such notifications.
Both were identified as reserve forests, and had been in
Conclusion line to be notified as Tiger Reserve since 2011.
Globally, there were 46% more ozone-attributable deaths
• The new Reserve is located in the northern part of the
in 2019 than in 2000, according to a study published in the
state, bordering Madhya Pradesh and Jharkhand.
Lancet. South Asia showed the highest increases in ozone
exposure and ozone-attributable mortality rates. Moreover, • The tiger population in Chhattisgarh fell from 46 in 2014
a recent study by the University of Leeds suggested that by to 17 in 2022.
2050, more than a million deaths in India could be linked to
ozone exposure if emissions of ozone’s constituents can’t be • Named Guru Ghasidas- Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve —
reduced. after integrating the regions of Guru Ghasidas National
Park and Tamor Pingla Sanctuary located in the different
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE districts, it will cover 2,829.387 sq.km.

• Currently, Chhattisgarh has three tiger reserves —

Prelims MCQ
Indravati in Bijapur district, Udanti-Sitanadi in Gariaband
Q. 
Consider the following statements regarding ozone and Achanakmar in Mungeli.
pollution:
Importance of Guru Ghasidas Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve
1. Ozone is directly emitted from industrial sources
and vehicles. • Guru Ghasidas National Park was the last known habitat
of the Asiatic cheetah in the country.
2. Ozone forms through a reaction involving nitrogen
oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) • Turning Guru Ghasidas into a Tiger Reserve is important
in the presence of sunlight. because it connects Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh

66 ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY

 and provides a corridor for tigers to move between the
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
Bandhavgarh and Palamau Tiger Reserves.
Prelims MCQ
• The vegetation of Guru Ghasidas National Park consist
mainly of mixed deciduous forest with teak, sal and Q. Consider the following tiger reserves
bamboo trees.
1. Indravati 2. Udanti -Sitanadi
• The diverse vegetation of the region consists of a wide
variety of mammal population. Tigers, Leopards, 3. Achanakmar
Chital, Nilgai, Chinkara, Jackals, Sambar, Four-horned
How many of the above tiger reserves are located in
Antelopes, Jungle Cat, Barking Deer, Porcupine, Monkey,
Madhya Pradesh?
Bison, Striped Hyena, Sloth Bear, Wild Dogs are some of
the common species found in this region. (a) Only one (b) Only two
• It is also an ideal place to watch migratory birds.
(c) All three (d) None
How Tiger Reserve are notified?
Answer: d

Tiger Reserves are notified by State Governments as per

provisions of Section 38V of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
on advice of the National Tiger Conservation Authority. The NEW RAMSAR SITES NOTIFIED
following steps are involved in the notification:
• (a) Proposal is obtained from the State. Why in News: The Union Environment Minister has recently
• (b) In-principle approval is communicated from the National notified 3 wetlands to the list of Ramsar sites on the eve of
Tiger Conservation Authority, soliciting detailed proposals Independence Day 2024.
under section 38V of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Key Details
• (c) National Tiger Conservation Authority recommends the • India has increased its tally of Ramsar sites (Wetlands
proposal to the State after due diligence. of International Importance) to 85 from existing 82 by
designating three more wetlands as Ramsar Sites.
• (d) The State Government notifies the area as a Tiger Reserve.
• With this addition, the area of Ramsar sites touched
Can tiger Reserve be altered and de-notified? to 1358067.757 ha in the country. The three new sites
These processes are governed by Section 38W of the Wildlife included are Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary, Kazhuveli
(Protection) Act, 1972 whose provisions are as follows: Bird Sanctuary in Tamil Nadu and Tawa Reservoir in
Madhya Pradesh.
38 W (1): “No alteration in the boundaries of a tiger reserve
• 
• India is one of the Contracting Parties to Ramsar
shall be made except on a recommendation of the Tiger
Conservation Authority and the approval of the National Convention, signed in Ramsar, Iran, in 1971. India became
Board for Wild Life”. a signatory to the convention on 1st February 1982.
• During 1982 to 2013, a total of 26 sites were added to the
38 W (2): “No State Government shall de-notify a tiger
•  list of Ramsar sites, however, during 2014 to 2024, the
reserve, except in public interest with the approval of the Tiger
country has added 59 new wetlands to the list of Ramsar
Conservation Authority and the National Board for Wild Life”.
sites.
Core Area and Buffer Area of Tiger Reserve • Currently, Tamil Nadu harbours maximum number of
• The core-buffer forest strategy is a technique used by wildlife Ramsar Sites (18 sites) followed by Uttar Pradesh (10
experts to protect wildlife in tiger reserves by dividing the sites).
area into two parts: a core forest and a buffer forest.
Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary
• Core Forest: The core forest is the central part of the reserve
and is considered a critical tiger habitat. These areas are like • The Nanjarayan lake a large shallow wetland situated along
the heart and soul of the park and they are responsible for the north-eastern region of Uthukuli Taluk of Tiruppur District
protecting and conserving the natural environment and all in Tamil Nadu.
the creatures that call it home. They’re like the most important
conservation zone of the park, where nature reigns supreme. • 
The wetlands in this region depend mainly on weather
conditions, especially on heavy rain water flow from Nallar
• Buffer Forest: The buffer forest is a mixed land area that drainage.
surrounds the core forest and acts as a protective shield for
the wildlife. The buffer forest separates the core forest from • The lake got its name from the fact that it was repaired and
the outside world and allows for limited human use, while the restored by King Nanjarayan who was ruling the region many
core forest should be free from all human use. centuries ago.

ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY  67

 • The site acts as feeding and nesting habitat for resident bird GLACIAL LAKE OUTBURST
species, migratory birds use this lake as their feeding ground
during the migratory season. FLOODS
• The lake is announced as 17th bird sanctuary of state of Tamil Why in News: Recently, the Government of India has decided
Nadu owing to its rich avifaunal diversity. to review the design of dams vulnerable to glacial lake
Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary outburst floods.
• It was declared as the 16th bird sanctuary in Tamil Nadu in the Key Details
year 2021.
• In October 2023, a glacial lake outburst flood in Sikkim
• It is a brackish shallow lake located on the Coromandel Coast led to the collapse of the Teesta III hydroelectric dam,
in Villupuram district, North of Pondicherry. killed more than 100 people, and affected thousands of
• The lake is connected to the Bay of Bengal by the brackish others.
Uppukalli creek and the Edayanthittu Estuary. • Subsequent the Central Water Commission (CWC) has
• Kazhuveli is one of the significant and biodiversity rich decided to review the design flood of all the existing
wetlands. The lake is one of the largest wetlands in peninsular and under construction dams vulnerable to Glacial
India. Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs) to ensure their adequate
• The Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary lies in the Central Asian Flyway spillway capacity for a combination of Probable Maximum
and is an important stopover site for migratory species of Flood/Standard Probable Flood and GLOF.
birds. • GLOF Studies has been made mandatory for all new
Tawa Reservoir dams planned having Glacial Lakes in their catchments.
• The Tawa Reservoir has been constructed at the confluence of • The Ministry of Power has identified 47 dams, including
the Tawa and Denwa rivers. 38 commissioned and nine under-construction dams, as
• 
River Malani, Sonbhadra, and Nagdwari are the major potentially affected by GLOFs from glacial lakes in India.
tributaries of Tawa reservoir.
What is Glacial Lake Outburst Flood
• Tawa River, a left bank tributary originates from Mahadeo
hills in Chhindwara district, flows through Betul district and • These are instances of large lakes formed from the melting of
joins river Narmada in Narmadapuram district. glaciers, suddenly breaking free of their moraine — natural
dams that are formed from rock, sediment and other debris
� It is the longest tributary of river Narmada (172 Km).
• Or in simple words it is a type of outburst flood caused by the
• The reservoir was built mainly for irrigation purpose. Later on
failure of a dam containing a glacial lake.
it is also being used for power generation and aquaculture.
• The reservoir is located inside the Satpura Tiger Reserve and
forms the western boundary of the Satpura National Park and
Bori Wildlife Sanctuary.
� It is the largest protected area in the state Madhya Pradesh.

EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. Consider the following pairs

Ramsar Sites State

1. Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary Tamil Nadu Reasons Behind Glacial Lake Outburst Flood (GLOF)

2. Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary Kerala • Earthquake: Seismic activities can destabilize the natural
moraine or ice dams that hold the glacial lakes. An earthquake
3. Tawa Reservoir Madhya Pradesh can cause these structures to collapse, leading to a sudden
release of the lake’s water, resulting in a Glacial Lake Outburst
Flood (GLOF).
How many of the above pairs are correct?
• Avalanche: An avalanche, especially one carrying a significant
(a) Only one (b) Only two
amount of ice and debris, can suddenly surge into a glacial
(c) All three (d) None lake, displacing large volumes of water. This sudden influx can
Answer: b cause the lake to overflow or the dam to breach, triggering a
GLOF.

68 ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY

 • Volcanic Eruption: In glaciated volcanic regions, an eruption EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
can rapidly melt ice and snow, leading to the formation of
a glacial lake. The intense heat can also destabilize the dam Prelims MCQ
holding the lake, resulting in an outburst flood.
Q. Which of the following statements regarding Glacial
• Excessive Precipitation: Heavy rainfall or rapid snowmelt Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs) is/are correct?
can lead to a significant rise in the water level of glacial lakes.
If the natural dam (usually made of loose sediments, ice, or 1. GLOFs occur when water accumulated in a glacial
moraine) is unable to withstand the increased water pressure, lake is suddenly released due to the failure of an ice
it can break, causing a sudden release of water downstream. or moraine dam.
This excessive water flow can result in a GLOF, leading to
catastrophic flooding. 2. The Central Water Commission (CWC) of India has
made GLOF studies mandatory for all existing dams
• Climate Change:
in glacial lake regions.
� Melting of Glaciers: Due to global warming, glaciers are
retreating at an accelerated rate. As glaciers melt, they 3. 
GLOFs can lead to catastrophic damage
often leave behind depressions that fill with water, forming downstream, including the collapse of dams and
glacial lakes. These newly formed lakes are often dammed loss of lives.
by unstable ice or moraine. Continuous melting can weaken
these natural dams, making them prone to failure, which Select the correct answer using the code below:
can lead to a GLOF.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
� Unstable Glacier Advances: In some cases, climate change
may cause glaciers to advance rapidly, leading to the (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
formation of ice dams. When these ice dams break, they can Answer: c
release large volumes of water from the glacial lake, causing
severe flooding downstream. Descriptive Question

Mitigation Strategies Q. In the context of recent incidents in India, discuss the
primary causes of Glacial Lake Outburst Flood. Enlist
• Early Detection and Warning Systems: It can play crucial the mitigation strategies that could enhance flood risk
role of surveillance systems in providing early detection management in glacial regions. [15 marks] [250 words]
and warnings for Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOF) and
Landslide Lake Outburst events.
• 
Integration of Technology: It involves how advanced THAWING PERMAFROST IN
technologies are integrated into surveillance systems,
showcasing the use of cutting-edge tools for monitoring and ARCTIC
assessing potential risks. Why in News: As the Arctic’s permafrost thaws in a warming
• Understanding Electromagnetic Physics: It is the application climate, an enormous amount of toxic mercury is being
of electromagnetic physics in designing and operating released into the environment.
surveillance systems, emphasizing its importance in
understanding and predicting GLOF and Landslide Lake Key Details
Outburst phenomena. • Mercury becomes a problem for the environment when
• Ground Penetrating Radar (GPR) Application in GLOF: The it is released from rock and ends up in the atmosphere
use of Ground Penetrating Radar (GPR) and its advantages in and in water. These releases can happen naturally.
these surveillance systems, illustrating how this technology Both volcanoes and forest fires send mercury into the
contributes to effective monitoring and assessment. atmosphere.
• Community Involvement and Preparedness: The importance ¾ Human activities, however, are responsible for much
of community engagement in response to early warnings, of the mercury that is released into the environment.
highlighting the need for local preparedness and coordination
The burning of coal, oil and wood as fuel can cause
in the face of potential disasters.
mercury to become airborne, as can burning wastes
• Interdisciplinary Collaboration: It emphasized the that contain mercury.
interdisciplinary nature of surveillance systems, showcasing
¾ This airborne mercury can fall to the ground in
collaboration between various scientific and technological
disciplines to create robust monitoring frameworks. raindrops, in dust, or simply due to gravity (known
as “air deposition”). The amount of mercury
• Global Applicability: Involved the learnings about the
deposited in a given area depends on how much
global applicability of GLOF and Landslide Lake Outburst
mercury is released from local, regional, national, and
surveillance systems, recognizing that these technologies
are relevant in diverse geographical settings facing similar
international sources.
challenges. • The Arctic is covered in permafrost, a large icy expanse
that remains permanently frozen. Climate change has

ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY  69

 caused record-warm temperatures which have been
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
slowly thawing the permafrost.
Prelims MCQ
¾ Mercury has been trapped in the Arctic for thousands
of years. Natural air currents pick up atmospheric Q. Which of the following statements is/are correct about
mercury and push it toward the Arctic where it is the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’?
absorbed by plants, which then deposit the toxin in 1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane
the soil. gas from these deposits.
¾ The mercury content of the Arctic has especially 2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in
increased over the past 500 years as a result of Arctic Tundra and under the sea floor.
industrialization. 3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide
¾ Within the icy reserves lies an abundance of mercury after a decade or two.
ready to be released. That release could have negative Select the correct answer using the code given below.
health and environmental effects.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
• Much of the mercury contaminating the Arctic is a result
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
of transport by air and ocean pathways from sources Answer: d
outside of the Arctic.
• People living in the Arctic remain among some of the
most exposed human populations globally to mercury,
and some Arctic wildlife face high and critical levels of CHEMICAL DISASTER IN ANDHRA
exposure. PRADESH
¾ Many indigenous communities, including Alaskan Why in News: Recently, explosion in a chemical reactor
communities, rely on subsistence fishing and have killed people and severly injured many at the Atchutapuram
disproportionately elevated blood mercury levels Special Economic Zone (SEZ) in Andhra Pradesh.
linked to dietary exposure.
The State of Chemical Disaster Risk in India
¾ Altering mercury inputs to Arctic waterways has an
immediate and direct impact on mercury exposure in • According to the National Disaster Management
these communities, as well as affecting the mercury Authority (NDMA), in the recent past, over 130 significant
delivered to ecosystems and the Arctic Ocean. chemical accidents have been reported in the country,
which have resulted in 259 deaths and caused major
¾ Mercury poisoning is not necessarily an immediate injuries to more than 560 people.
threat. Mercury takes time to accumulate in the food
chain, and the risk from drinking water is minimal. • There are over 1861 Major Accident Hazard (MAH) units
spread across 301 districts and 25 states and three Union
Territories in all zones of the country.
Minamata Convention on Mercury
• Further, there are thousands of registered and hazardous
• The Minamata Convention on Mercury is a global treaty to factories and unorganised sectors dealing with numerous
protect human health and the environment from the adverse ranges of hazardous material posing serious and complex
effects of mercury. levels of disaster risks.
• Controlling the anthropogenic releases of mercury throughout • At the national level legislative provisions for chemical
its lifecycle has been a key factor in shaping the obligations disaster management are
under the Convention. ¾ Factories Act, 1948 (amended 1987),
• The Minamata Convention entered into force on 16 August ¾ Public Liability Insurance Act 1992,
2017. ¾ Chemical Weapon Convention(CWC) Act 2002,
• The Conference of the Parties (COP) is the governing body of ¾ Environment (Protection) Act 1986 and
the Minamata Convention on Mercury. Through the decisions ¾ Disaster Management Act 2005.
taken at its meetings, the COP advances the implementation of
¾ MSIHC Rules 1989 & Chemical Accidents (EPPR)
the Convention, which it is to keep under continuous review
Rules 1996 and institutional developments, provisions
and evaluation.
National Action Plan
• Financial mechanism of Minamata Convention is composed
of: • The National Disaster Management Authority has issued
guidelines for various disasters, including chemical
� The Global Environment Facility Trust Fund (GEF)
disasters. The Ministry of Environment & Forests, as
� The Specific International Programme (SIP) to support the nodal ministry for managing chemical disasters, is
capacity-building and technical assistance. responsible for preparing a National Action Plan.

70 ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY

GIS Based Emergency Planning and Response System: businesses, and society. Chemical disasters, though
System will be able to help response agencies at Central, uncommon, require vigilant safety measures and robust
State and Local level, during both pre-emergency state for disaster preparedness. The potential for widespread harm
planning and rehearsing. underscores the need for stringent regulations, continuous
monitoring, and emergency response planning to protect
• First responders i.e. Police stations, fire stations, lives, communities, and the environment.
hospitals/nursing homes and sensitive areas – schools,
colleges, cinemas, etc. surrounding the industrial units, EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
were identified and mapped.
• The other major components of the project are Prelims MCQ
¾ Identification of Chemical Industries in India Q. What is the main objective of Rotterdam convention?
¾ Collection of data pertaining to chemical storage and
handling from identified industries (a) To protect human health and environment from
toxic pesticides and hazardous chemicals
¾ Collection of data on resources available with
government authorities such as police, fire and (b) To protect human health and environment from all
medical departments chemicals
¾ Geo-referencing and Digitization of toposheets (c) Chemical analysis of hazardous substance
¾ Chemical accident simulation using computer models
for all the identified chemical accident scenarios (d) Pathway analysis of chemical substance
Answer: a

Descriptive Question

Q. Analyze the key issues in managing chemical disasters

in India, highlighting the challenges faced and
the effectiveness of current national strategies and
systems. How can India improve its chemical disaster
preparedness and response? [15 marks] [250 words]

GATE OF TUNGABHADRA DAM

COLLAPSED
Why in News: Recently, one of the gate of Tungabhadra dam
Chemical Accident Information and Reporting System collapsed, triggering a flood alert in Karnataka and Andhra
• National Informatics Centre demonstrated the Web Pradesh.
based Chemical Accident Information Reporting System
(CAIRS) developed by the National Informatics Centre About Tungabhadra Dam
for MoEF. • The Tungabhadra dam also known as Pampa sagar, a
• This is web based system and it allows the concerned multi-state venture constructed across the Tungabhadra
authorities to online Add/Update/Delete the information River which is a tributary of Krishna River and it is
related to Hazardous Chemical Accident using password administered by Karnataka Government.
security over web, so that only authentic users can update • Sir Arthur Cotton, a British engineer from the Madras
the information. Presidency, conceived the Tungabhadra Dam project in
• It is GUI based with the capabilities to generate reports 1860. His primary objectives were to provide irrigation
for concerned authorities. facilities, generate electricity, and control floods in the
region.
• MoEF also analyses the accident information available in
the form of various charts. These reports help MoEF in • The construction of the dam began in 1949 as a joint
their decision making process, presentation to the Central venture between the Kingdom of Hyderabad and the
Crisis Group and sharing with specific state or district Madras Presidency. The project was completed in 1953.
crisis groups. • Tunga Bhadra reservoir has a storage capacity of 101 TMC
with catchment area spreading to 28000 square kms. TB
Conclusion
Dam is about 49.5 meters in height and has about 33 crest
Chemicals, central to modern industry, pose significant gates.
disaster management challenges for the public sector,
• The Tungabhadra reservoir, along with the Mullaperiyar

ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY  71

 dam in Kerala are the only two reservoirs in India that • Need for Greater Transparency in Dam Safety
were built using a combination of mud and limestone Information: A robust DSA should allow different
materials. stakeholders to access information easily. Everything
• Tungabhadra is formed by the union of two rivers Tunga about dam safety, functions of all the institutions and
and Bhadra and hence the name. The two rivers merge at committees and authorities, their reports, decisions
Koodli in the Shimoga district of Karnataka, giving birth minutes and agendas, everything should be promptly
to the Tungabhadra River. available to the public.

¾ Insufficient Independent Oversight in Dam Safety

How is Dam safety governed in India?
Bodies: Transparency is further obstructed when
Dam safety Act (DSA) 2021 national and State bodies comprise government
• 
It provides for four tiers of institutional mechanism: employees and engineers who worked on these
establishment of National Committee on Dam Safety (NCDS) projects, compromising objective decision making
and National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA) at Centre level and lacking people with a proven track record of
and establishment of State Committee on Dam Safety and the
State Dam Safety Organization at State level. taking independent decisions.
• 
It provides a comprehensive frame work for proper • Poor Compliance at all level: Dam safety is a function of
surveillance, inspection, operations and maintenance of all the many parts; designing and constructing dams that adhere
large (specified) dams of the country for ensuring their safe to safety margins, maintaining and operating them per
functioning and to avoid dam failure related disasters. guidelines, recording data in real-time in an accessible
format, forecasting hazardous events and instituting
Regulatory Structure under Dam Safety Act 2021 emergency plans. For example, the Sikkim Glacial Lake
• National Committee on Dam Safety: A National Committee Outburst Flood.
on Dam Safety with a three-year tenure, comprising the • Lack of Periodic Review: Periodic reviews are required
chairman of the Central Water Commission, a maximum of to bring forth fresh inundation maps and new rule curves
10 representatives of the central government in the ranks of (which determine the capacity of dam reservoirs), all of
joint secretary, a maximum of seven representatives of the state which contribute towards the safety of the downstream
governments, and three experts.
areas. First there is no periodic review and if it happening,
• National Dam Safety Authority: There will be a centrally the finding is not available in the public domain.
appointed National Dam Safety Authority, headed by an
• Inconsistent Standards in Dam Safety Evaluations:
officer of at least Additional Secretary rank.
The Act mandates that dam builders must carry out
To implement policies and regulations formulated by
�  thorough safety assessments of dams, but it does not
national committee and to deal with problems relating to provide a uniform method for analyzing and reporting
dam engineering and dam safety management.
dam failures.
� The authority will also resolve issues between State Dam
Safety Organisations (SDSOs) or between a SDSO and Conclusion
any individual dam owner, lay down regulations for In order to improve the safety and operational performance
dam inspection and for accreditation to construction and of selected existing dams in the country, Government of India
designing agencies. is implementing the Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement
• State Dam Safety Organisation: It will be responsible for the Project (DRIP) with external funding. After completion of
dam safety through for proper review and study of the various DRIP Phase I programme, Government of India has taken up
features of the design, construction, repair and enlargement of DRIP Phase-II & III. The scheme envisages rehabilitation and
dams, reservoirs and appurtenant structures. safety improvement of 736 dams located in 19 States. DRIP
� The state dam safety organisation must also report events Phase-Il has become operational from 12th October 2021,
such as dam failures to the National Dam Safety Authority and is being co-financed by the World Bank and the Asian
and also maintain records of major dam incidents of each Infrastructure and Investment Bank.
specified dam.
At the State/UT level, all the States (28) and Union
�  EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
Territories (3) owning the specified dams have established
the State/UT Dam Safety Committees & Organisations. Prelims MCQ

Challenges in Ensuring Dam Safety in India Q. Pampa Sagar reservoir is located in?
• Lack of Risk-Based Decision-Making in the DSA: It
does not promote risk-based decision-making and fails (a) Kerala (b) Andhra Pradesh
to incentivise transparency. It keeps happening regularly,
(c) Karnataka (d) Telangana
people face disastrous consequences and these disastered
termed as ‘natural disasters’. But there’s nothing natural Answer: c
about them.

72 ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY

 Descriptive Question About Banni Grasslands
Q. Identify and analyze the key challenges in ensuring • The Kachchh district in Gujarat is one of the largest tracts of
dam safety in India. And propose solutions to improve grasslands in the country. Popularly known as ‘Banni’, it once
the same. [10 marks] [150 words] covered an area of approximately 3,800 sq. km but it has now
decreased to about 2,600 sq. km.
• 
The land here was formed from the sediments that were
deposited by the Indus until it changed its course due to the
RESTORATION OF BANNI 1819 earthquake.
GRASSLANDS • 
Banni is situated in Arid climate, with high temperature
in most of time which reached maximum up to 48°C -50°C
Why in News: In a new study, researchers have assessed the
during May June and winter temperature goes down to 5°C –
suitability of different areas of Banni for sustainable grassland
8°C during December January.
restoration.
• Banni Grassland having numerous large, medium and small
Key Findings of the Study sized wetlands attracts migratory birds to breed and rest in
winter like great Indian bustard and the Bengal florican.
• Researchers at Kachchh University grouped the prospective
• The Kutch Desert Wildlife Sanctuary which spans over an
restoration zones of the Banni grassland into five categories
area of 380 Sq. km and the recently notified 227 Sq. km Chhari
depending on how suitable each zone was for restoration. Dhand Conservation Reserve are part of the Banni Grasslands.
¾ Highly Suitable: 937 sq. km or 36% of the existing • These grasslands are home to a pastoral community called the
grassland Maldhari.
¾ Suitable: 728 sq. km or 28 % of the existing grassland
¾ Moderately: 714 sq. km or 27% of the existing
grassland
¾ Marginally suitable182 sq. km. or 7% of the existing
grassland
¾ Not Suitable for Restoration: 61 sq. km or 2% of the
existing grassland
• Highly suitable and suitable zones which accounted for
nearly two-thirds of the complete Banni grasslands can be
restored easily by simply providing them with adequate
water sources, either through irrigation or rainwater
harvesting.

• Marginally suitable and not suitable zones can also be EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
managed through interventions such as
Prelims MCQ
¾ Terracing with supplementary inputs like fertilizers;
Q. The Maldhari tribe is predominantly found in which
¾ By protecting from high water run-off and erosion region of Gujrat?
and salt intrusion
(a) Gir forest (b) Banni grassland
Relevance of the Study
• The study could provide the National Green Tribunal (c) Dangs (d) Central Gujarat
Answer: b
(NGT) and policymakers a robust foundation for crafting
policies aimed at protecting and rehabilitating degraded
grasslands.
CLOUDBUSTS IN HIMACHAL
• A key feature of the new study is that it provides a holistic PRADESH
assessment. Earlier studies on grassland degradation has
been performed only at the scale of sample plots. Why in News: Himachal Pradesh recently witnessed a series
of cloudburst incidents, which triggered flash floods.
• They analysed multiple characteristics of soil such as
the availability of the three important nutrients (NPK), Key Details
four essential micronutrients, iron, manganese, zinc, • The epicentre of two of the five cloudbursts in Himachal
and copper; soil acidity, soil texture, soil organic carbon, Pradesh that caused the maximum devastation at
salinity, the water holding capacity, cation exchange Nirmand block in Kullu and Samej Khad in Shimla’s
capacity, bulk density, and infiltration rate. Rampur division was the Shrikhand Kailash mountains.

ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY  73

• The Samej Khad, a tributary of the Sutlej River that
� Tsunamis
divides Shimla and Kullu districts, witnessed the most
significant devastation. � Downstream blockage of the river channel
Way Forward
Cloud Burst • Regulations should be strictly followed in the development
• 
A cloudburst is a sudden rainfall which can be quite planning for ecologically sensitive areas, properly taking into
unexpected, very abrupt, accompanied by hail and thunder. account environmental impact assessments, and the ecological
footprints of projects.
• It usually occurs in high altitude areas due to the formation of
a low pressure area on the top of a mountain. • Alternative livelihood opportunities should be provided in
fragile ecosystems, reducing the dependence on tourism.
• The low pressure zone attracts clouds to the top of the mountain
with great force. When they hit the peak, the moisture content • 
Automated weather stations should be established under
is released in the form of rain. each gram panchayat and urban local bodies to ensure timely
evacuation and quick response to disasters.
• According to the India Meteorological Department’s (IMD)
definition, a cloud burst occurs when more than 100 mm/ • Prioritise mitigation and adaptation plans at multiple levels to
hour precipitation occurs in a geographical area of 20-30 sq overcome the threats posed by climate change.
km.

EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. 
Which of the following statements with regard to
cloudburst is/are correct?

1. It is defined as sudden localized very heavy

downpour with cloud thunder and lightning.

2. It mostly occurs in the hilly areas.

3. It results into very high intensity of rainfall, i.e.,

more than 10 cm/ hour precipitation occurs in a
geographical area of 20- 30 sq km.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 only

Answer: a

Flash Flood
• A flash flood is sudden flooding that occurs when floodwaters BIOFORTIFIED VARIETIES OF
rise rapidly with no warning within several hours of an CROPS
intense rain. They often occur after heavy rainfall, usually
from a storm. Why in News: Prime Minister of India recently released more
than hundred high yielding, climate resilient and biofortified
• Flash floods can be caused by:
varieties of crops.
� A heavy rain in an area with high runoff (no absorption)
Key Details
� A prolonged heavy rain feeding into area watercourses
• These varieties, developed by the Indian Council of
� A sudden snow melt
Agricultural Research (ICAR), were released at the
� A rain on frozen soil which melts the snow in addition to research fields of ICAR-Indian Agricultural Research
the rain volume which Institute, Pusa, New Delhi.
� Cannot be absorbed into frozen ground • The Prime Minister released 109 varieties of 61 crops
� A breakage in a dam or containment system including 34 field crops and 27 horticultural crops.
� High tides ¾ Among the field crops, seeds of various cereals
� Storm surges
including millets, forage crops, oilseeds, pulses,
sugarcane, cotton, fibre, and other potential crops

74 ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY

 were released, whereas the horticultural crops
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
consisted of different varieties of fruits, vegetable
crops, plantation crops, tuber crops, spices, flowers,
Prelims MCQ
and medicinal crops were released.
• PM highlighted the importance of millets, highlighting
Q. 
Which of the following is not an objective of
their significant potential in addressing malnutrition and biofortification in crops?
enhancing the country’s food security.
• Some examples of varieties (a) Improve micronutrient and mineral content
¾ Pooja 1801
(b) Improve protein content
 Millet variety with exceptional iron and zinc
content.
(c) Improve resistance to diseases
¾ Pusa 2002
 Millet variety that matures in just 70 days, (d) Improve vitamin content
compared to the 110 days required by most other Answer: c
varieties.
¾ Girnar 6

 Groundnut variety with high oil content.

GROSS ENVIRONMENTAL
¾ Nandyal 1267
PRODUCT INDEX
 Chickpea variety well-suited for mechanical
harvesting. Why in News: Uttarakhand has recently launched the World’s
first Gross Environmental Product Index.
Biofortification of Crops
Key Details
• Biofortification is a process of enhancing the nutritional
• Uttarakhand is the first state in the world where the
quality of edible parts of the plants through genetic approach
such as plant breeding. development of the ecosystem will be assessed through
the Gross Environmental Product Index.
• Significance of Biofortification
• Under the Gross Environmental Product Index,
� Biofortification is regarded as the most sustainable Uttarakhand has assigned monetary value to four of its
approach to alleviate malnutrition.
natural resources — air, water, forest, and soil — termed
� It provides nutrients in natural form, thus nutrients enter as gross environment product (GEP).
the body as part of natural food matrix.
� Biofortified varieties are as high yielding as traditional • The GEP index reflects comparative data from 2020 to
varieties, thus no loss is incurred to the farmers. 2022 and shows a 0.9% increase.
� They are also cost-efficient as they do not include any
additional costs. • Now GEP can also be released along with GDP in the
state. Its assessment will establish better harmony
� Biofortification makes food crop varieties more
between ecology and economy.
nutritious and more stable under a variety of challenging
environmental conditions. • Formula
� Improvements in crop micronutrient density and resilience
via biofortification offers a solution to help offset climate- ¾ GEP Index = (Air-GEP index + Water-GEP index +
induced declines in agricultural productivity and nutrition. Soil-GEP index + Forest-GEP index)
Lab-to-Land Programme • Significance

• The Lab to Land Programme (LLP) was launched by the ICAR

¾ This assessment will establish better harmony
in 1979 as a part of its Golden Jubilee celebration. between ecology and economy.

• The overall objective of the programme was to improve the ¾ The GEP index would increase awareness of the
economic condition of the small and marginal farmers and environment.
landless agricultural labourers, particularly scheduled castes
¾ This will help in assessing the contribution to
and scheduled tribes, by transfer of improved technology
developed by the agricultural universities, research institutes
environmental protection.
etc. ¾ This index will also help in making plans.

ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY  75

 EXPECTED QUESTION
FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. Recently, World’s first

environmental product
index was launched by
the state of?

(a) Rajasthan

(b) Gujrat

(c) Andhra Pradesh

(d) Uttarakhand
Answer: d

SMART LABORATORY ON CLEAN ¾ Project, to enhance regional economic and social

RIVERS development while ensuring good river health on a
selected stretch of the Varuna River.
Why in News: India and Denmark have recently agreed ¾ Hydrogeological Model of the Varuna Basin for
to establish a ‘smart laboratory on clean rivers’ (SLCR) in Recharge Sites, aims to enhance base flow through
Varanasi to bring excellence in small river rejuvenation and Managed Aquifer Recharge (MAR).
management.

Key Details About Varuna River

• The alliance is a unique tripartite initiative between • It is a minor tributary of the Ganga, which is named after the
Government of India (Department of Water Resources, god Varuna, the god of water.
River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation), the Indian
Institute of Technology - Banaras Hindu University (IIT- • The Varuna river rises from Melhum at Phulpur in Allahabad
district at 25°27′N, 82°18′E.
BHU), and Government of Denmark, to bring excellence
in small river rejuvenation and management. • It flows east-to-southeast for 106 kilometers via Bhadohi,
• The SLCR aims to leverage the expertise of both nations Mirzapur, Jaunpur, and enters Varanasi in order to finally
to rejuvenate the river Varuna using sustainable merge in Ganga at Sarai Mohana.
approaches.
• City of Varanasi is located between two confluences: one of
• The Indo-Danish Joint Steering Committee (JSC) is Ganga and Varuna, and other of Ganga and Asi.
the highest forum for SLCR which provides strategic
guidance and reviews progress.
Conclusion
• JSC has cleared four projects to be taken up under the
collaboration. The SLCR is expected to bring out a unique confluence of
academia, sub national and national Government working in
¾ Developing a Decision Support System (DSS) for
partnership with another country to co-create solutions for
water management to analyse basin water dynamics
identified problems and issues pertaining to river health in
through hydrological models, scenario generation,
general and small river rejuvenation in particular.
forecasting and data analytics.

¾ The second project focuses on the characterization of

emerging pollutants and fingerprint analysis.

76 ENVIRONMENT & GEOGRAPHY

 SECTION

E SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

PRIVATE SECTOR PARTICIPATION About the Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation
IN SPACE Centre (IN-SPACe)

• 
IN-SPACe, or the Indian National Space Promotion and
Why in News: Recently, IN-SPACe has come with an Authorization Center, is a regulatory body established by the
Announcement of Opportunity (AO) for making available Indian government to promote and regulate private sector
Indian Orbital Resources to the Non-Government/Private participation in the Indian space sector.
Entities.
� It was established in 2020 by the Indian government as part
Key Details of its efforts to enhance the role of private players in space
activities. It operates under the Department of Space.
• In this Announcement of Opportunity (AO), IN-SPACe
It is responsible for issuing licenses and authorizations
� 
is inviting non-government entities (NGEs) to develop,
for private space missions, satellite launches, and other
launch, and operate a telecommunications satellite, as
space activities. This includes ensuring that private entities
well as to support blue economy projects with seed adhere to safety, security, and regulatory standards.
funding. The goal of this AO is to identify and enable
eligible NGEs to utilize unused ITU filings. � It aims to facilitate the growth of the private space sector in
India by providing a structured and streamlined regulatory
• An “unused ITU filing” refers to a registration made framework.
by India’s space agency, ISRO, with the International
Telecommunication Union (ITU) for a satellite or satellite Goals Include
network.
Promoting Private Sector Participation: Encouraging
� 
• This filing includes detailed technical information about private companies to engage in various space-related
the satellite, its planned orbital position, and frequency activities, including satellite launches, space exploration,
allocations. The purpose of the filing is to coordinate the and technology development.
use of orbital slots and frequencies to prevent interference Authorization and Regulation: Ensuring that private
� 
between satellites. space activities comply with national and international
regulations, safety standards, and policies.
• For this AO, the ITU filing ‘INSAT-KA89ER’ has requested
uplink frequencies ranging from 21 GHz to 31 GHz and � Facilitating Collaborations: Acting as a liaison between
downlink frequencies from 17.7 GHz to 21.2 GHz. This private companies and governmental space agencies like
AO for a telecommunications satellite follows another AO ISRO to foster collaborations and support innovation.
focused on the blue economy.
India’s Space Economy
• Under this previous AO, IN-SPACe announced the
• Space Tech Analytics reports that India ranks as the 6th
creation of a seed fund to offer financial support, expert
largest player in the global space industry, accounting for
mentorship, and resources to help entrepreneurs bring
3.6% of the world’s space-tech companies.
their ideas to market.
• As of the early 2020s, the Indian space economy is valued
• The fund aims to support projects that address at around $8-10 billion, covering areas such as satellite
critical issues in the blue economy, such as improving manufacturing, launch services, space applications, and
ocean monitoring and mapping, enhancing maritime related fields.
surveillance, and aiding disaster response efforts in
• This represents roughly 2-3% of the global space economy
coastal communities.
and is projected to grow substantially with rising private
• The AO notification invited proposals from startups, sector participation and government backing.
micro enterprises, and small enterprises with innovative Present Status of Private Sector Participation in Space in
ideas for applying space technology to advance the blue India
economy.
• Private sector involvement in India’s space industry

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY  77

 has experienced substantial growth and development ¾ Access to Capital: Space ventures require substantial
recently. investment in technology, infrastructure, and
• Currently, private sector engagement is on the rise, with research. Securing sufficient funding can be difficult,
companies like Skyroot Aerospace and AgniKula Cosmos especially for startups and smaller companies.
pioneering new space technologies and launch vehicles. ¾ Limited Infrastructure: Developing and maintaining
• Deloitte reports that private investments in the Indian the necessary infrastructure for space activities, such
space sector surged by approximately 75% from 2021 to as launch facilities and ground stations, requires
2022, a period that saw the emergence of around 190 new significant investment and expertise.
start-ups in the field. ¾ R&D Costs: Research and development in space
technology are expensive. Private firms may struggle
Significance of Private participation in Space Sector
with the high costs associated with developing
• Economic cutting-edge technologies and innovative solutions.
¾ Space technology plays a crucial role in the
¾ Skill Shortages: The space sector requires a highly
sustainable development of the blue economy by
skilled workforce. Finding and retaining talent with
offering tools and data for effective management of
the necessary expertise in aerospace engineering,
marine resources and maritime safety.
satellite technology, and related fields can be difficult.
¾ The AO highlights key areas such as fisheries
• Security Challenges:
(including combating illegal and over-the-quota
fishing), marine biology, shipping, surveillance, ¾ Data Risk: Data privacy is a big concern in the
oceanography, and exploration of marine resources present scenario. Privatization in the space sector will
like poly-metallic nodules. risk ISRO’s space data.
¾ This advancement will significantly boost India’s ¾ National Security: Space activities have implications
space export, space tourism, and overall space for national security. Balancing commercial interests
economy by reducing exploration costs, making with security concerns is a challenge, particularly for
the $40 billion space economy target for 2040 more sensitive technologies and data.
attainable, and attracting increased foreign direct ¾ Increase in Space Emissions and Debris: NASA
investment. researchers have indicated that the rising frequency
¾ Additionally, the Confederation of Indian Industry of launches is resulting in more collisions and,
(CII) estimating that the space sector could create consequently, an increase in orbital debris.
over 100,000 jobs in coming years. • Governance Challenges:
• Environmental
¾ Regulation: Ensuring compliance with national and
¾ This participation will support environmental
international space regulations, safety standards, and
conservation and climate resilience efforts.
legal requirements can be challenging.
¾ Private participation will help in Weather forecasting
& disaster management efforts. Steps Taken to Encourage Private Sector Participation in
Space in India
• Technological
¾ Private sector participation in space will provide • Over the years, ISRO has cultivated a range of industries
digital upgrades. and Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) as
¾ India’s Communications infrastructure will be key supply chain partners for the development of launch
strengthened. vehicles and satellites.

• National security • Established in 2019, NSIL (New Space India Ltd.) is a

¾ India’s space independence and security will be public sector enterprise that acts as a commercial arm of
ensured. It will equip India to deal with a potential ISRO.
attack on its space assets as India will have alternatives ¾ Its role is to handle the commercialization of space
to switch to. activities and promote private sector participation.
¾ A robust and diverse space sector enhances India’s • In order to achieve this objective, the Union Cabinet led by
strategic capabilities in space exploration, satellite the Prime Minister took the historic decision in June 2020
communications, and Earth observation, contributing to open up the Space sector and enable the participation
to national security and development. of the Indian private sector in the entire gamut of space
activities.
Challenges That Need To Be Addressed
• Economic Challenges: • To further it, the government has created the Indian
¾ Revenue Loss: Private space ventures may reduce the National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-
revenue earned by ISRO through its space activities. SPACe).

78 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

• Moreover, the Indian government released a New Space
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
Policy 2023 aimed at fostering greater private sector
involvement. This policy encourages private entities to Prelims MCQ
participate in satellite launches, space exploration, and Q. Consider the following statements regarding IN-SPACe
other space-related activities. 1. It is a regulatory body established by the Indian
¾ In May 2024, IN-SPACe announced the norms, government to promote and regulate private sector
participation in the Indian space sector.
guidelines, and procedures for the Authorization of
Space Activities (NGP) per the Indian Space Policy 2. It operates under the Department of science and
2023. technology.
3. At present private participation in the space sector is
Way Forward not permitted in India.
4. 100% FDI is allowed in all sub activities in the space
• FDI Liberalization: sector.
¾ As per the existing FDI policy, FDI is permitted in How many of the above statements is/are correct?
establishment and operation of Satellites through the (a) Only one (b) Only two
Government approval route only.
(c) Only three (d) All four
¾ Space sector has to be liberalized further for foreign Answer: a (1 only)
direct investment in sub-sectors like Launch Vehicles
and associated systems or subsystems, Creation of Descriptive Question
Spaceports for launching and receiving Spacecraft Q. 
IN-SPACe has come with an Announcement of
etc. Opportunity (AO) for making available Indian Orbital
Resources to the Non-Government/Private Entities.
• More Freedom to Private Sector: In the context of the above initiative, examine the
potential role of private sector participation in space
¾ In Countries like the USA, private companies and associated challenges. [15 marks] [250 words]
have more accessibility to the space sector. Private
companies like SpaceX, Blue Origin, and Rocket Lab
have revolutionized the launch industry. SpaceX’s NSIL TO LAUNCH NEPAL-BUILT
Falcon 9 and Falcon Heavy rockets, for example, have MUNAL SATELLITE
dramatically reduced launch costs and increased the
Why in News: The Ministry of External Affairs and New
frequency of missions.
Space India Limited has recently signed an agreement to
• Increase Access to Space Tourism: assist launch of the Nepal-built Munal satellite.

¾ Blue Origin’s New Shepard is designed for suborbital Key Details

tourism, and Rocket Lab offers small satellite launches • Munal is an indigenous satellite developed in Nepal
with its Electron rocket. under the aegis of the Nepal Academy of Science and
Technology (NAST).
• More Emphasis on Innovation:
• Antarikchya Pratishan Nepal (APN), a Nepalese space
startup, has assisted Nepalese students in the design and
¾ Private companies are leading innovations in satellite
fabrication of this satellite.
technology. Companies like OneWeb, SpaceX’s
Starlink, and Amazon’s Project Kuiper are working • It aims to build a vegetation density database of the
on large constellations of satellites to provide global earth’s surface.
internet coverage. • This satellite is expected to be launched soon on New
Space India Limited (NSIL’s) Polar Satellite Launch
¾ These networks aim to offer high-speed internet Vehicle.
access to underserved and remote areas around the • A launch service agreement for launching the Munal
world. satellite was signed by NSIL and NAST when India’s
external affairs minister visited Nepal in January 2024.
Conclusion
What is Space Diplomacy?
Private entity’s participation in the space sector should
• Space diplomacy is the use of diplomacy, science, and
be seen with a futuristic perspective. This integration will
technology to explore space and ensure its safety, security,
revolutionize India’s space sector and synchronize India’s
and sustainability.
technical sphere with its political, economic and social
¾ It involves collaboration between nations, space
spheres.
agencies, private companies, and other actors

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY  79

• It focuses on the establishment of strong connections,
Providing public goods and services using space
� 
creating knowledge structures, and developing space technology for national priorities.
capabilities among nations.
� Creating a stable and predictable regulatory framework to
• It is about safeguarding outer space through international provide a level playing field to Non-Government Entities
collaboration and concrete frameworks—all for the in the Space sector through IN-SPACe.
utmost benefit of humankind.
Promoting space-related education and
�  innovation,
• It also recognizes that these opportunities will only including support to space-sector start-ups.
unlock its maximum potential in safe, sustainable and
� Using space as a driver for overall technology development,
equitable conditions.
nurturing scientific temperament in society, and increasing
• The global space economy is now estimated to be nearly awareness of space activities.
USD450 billion in size and is projected to grow to over
USD1 trillion by the 2040. India’s Space Diplomacy
Objective of Space Diplomacy • Space diplomacy has become a significant tool of India’s
• Creating a Global Security Framework: Space diplomacy foreign policy and it can open new vistas to maximise its
aims to establish rules and guidelines to ensure that interests globally.
disputes are resolved peacefully, based on the idea • ISRO has been successful in enhancing India’s self-
that space should be fair and accessible to all nations. reliance in technology, including its economic and
Cooperation among countries is essential to prevent international stature.
conflicts and avoid a potential space arms race. ¾ Recent successful landing on the moon, India has
• Addressing Shared Challenges: Space technologies are gained the leverage to hold a significant position in
becoming more integrated into our daily lives. Space the global space community.
diplomacy seeks to use these innovations to tackle • India’s role in space diplomacy specifically global south
global challenges. For example, satellites can help detect reflects its commitment to leveraging space technology
earthquakes, and space mining could provide new water for the benefit of all nations, particularly those in the
sources. developing world.
• Promoting Global Engagement: Space diplomacy • Through collaboration, knowledge sharing, and capacity
naturally strengthens collaboration between nations and building, India strives to foster a more inclusive and
enhance diplomatic relations. As more sectors become equitable global space ecosystem.
interested in space, it offers a unique chance to unite
India’s Collaboration with Other Countries
people in achieving common goals.
• India-USA: India’s space diplomacy with the USA
• Encouraging Economic Growth and Scientific advanced with India’s entry into the Artemis Accords in
Progress: Space diplomacy also ensure transparency June 2023, becoming the 27th member to join this US-led
and accountability in the space activities of both public initiative for peaceful space exploration.
and private sectors worldwide, while also encouraging ¾ Both nations agreed on a human spaceflight
innovation. cooperation framework between NASA and ISRO,
highlighted the upcoming 2024 launch of the NASA-
India Space Policy 2023 ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) satellite, and
emphasized collaboration on critical technologies
• This policy endeavours to contribute to economic growth, through the iCET initiative.
foster social progress, and improve the overall well-being of
• India-EU: The European Union initiated the Copernicus
its population.
Earth observation program, promoting global cooperation
• The policy institutionalizes roles for government stakeholders, with a free, open data policy. India, a vital partner in
including the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), this initiative, signed a Cooperation Agreement with
the Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation the EU in March 2018, allowing mutual access to data
Centre (IN-SPACe), New Space India Limited (NSIL), and the from India’s Earth observation satellites and the EU’s
Department of Space (DoS). Sentinel satellites. This collaboration enhances disaster
management and addresses global challenges through
• The Policy sets the stage for India’s expanded participation
in the global space arena by emphasising the importance of shared data.
international cooperation and coordination. • India-Russia: Following the Gaganyaan mission, India
and Russia are expanding their space cooperation, with
• The 2023 Policy focuses predominantly on five key areas. four Indian astronauts trained in Russia for the mission.
� Encouraging advanced Research & Development in the ¾ Both countries are establishing ground stations to
space sector to sustain and augment the space program.
enhance their satellite navigation systems, GLONASS

80 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

 and NavIC, and India is producing components for
Descriptive Question
GLONASS.
Q. Briefly discuss the key elements of India’s space
¾ In 2021, both the countries signed an agreement to
diplomacy and its impact on the country’s global
boost collaboration, especially in human spaceflight, standing and socio-economic development. [10 marks]
and explore cooperation on Russia’s Zeus TEM deep- [150 words]
space mobility platform.

¾ They also aim to strengthen their joint efforts

within the UN Committee on the Peaceful Uses of HUMAN SPACEFLIGHT
Outer Space (UN COPUOS) for sustainable space
operations. Why in News: NASA has recently rescheduled for next year
to bring astronauts back from the International Space Station
• India-Japan: India and Japan have cooperated in space (ISS) to Earth.
since 1992 through the APRSAF and jointly led the
Sentinel Asia Project from 2005 for disaster management. Key Details
• Boeing’s Starliner spacecraft, which launched on June 5
¾ The first Japan-India Space Dialogue in 2019, followed
with astronauts Sunita Williams and Barry Wilmore, is
by a virtual meeting in 2021, focused on space policy
set to make an uncrewed return to Earth on September 6
and industry cooperation.
after a mission fraught with technical challenges.
¾ At the 2023 QUAD summit, they prioritized space • Meanwhile astronauts Sunita Williams and Barry
situational awareness and sustainability. Both Wilmore will remain on the ISS until February 2025, when
countries plan a joint lunar mission in 2025 to search they will return on a SpaceX Dragon capsule.
for water at the lunar south pole.
¾ During their extended stay on the ISS, Williams and
Conclusion: Wilmore have continued their scientific research and
India’s space diplomacy initiatives focus on promoting maintenance activities.
peaceful space exploration, advancing technological
capabilities, and fostering global cooperation. By engaging ¾ The extended mission has also provided an
in international partnerships, policy dialogues, and joint opportunity to study the long-term effects of space
missions, India aims to enhance its role in the global travel on the human body.
space community, address shared challenges like disaster • This decision was made to prioritize their safety, given
management and climate change, and contribute to the unresolved issues with the Starliner such as helium
sustainable and innovative use of outer space. These efforts leaks and thruster problems.
align with India’s vision to strengthen its strategic interests
and socio-economic development through space technology. About Spaceflight
• A spaceflight is flight beyond the earth’s atmosphere.
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE • In aeronautic and astronautic circles, space begins from
the Karman line, which is 100 km above sea level.
Prelims MCQ
• Similarly, the force of gravity can be said to be approaching
zero several billion kilometres from a massive body but is
Q. Consider the following statements:
nonetheless present. This is why the astronauts onboard
1. Munal is an indigenous satellite developed in UAE the ISS experience microgravity, not zero gravity.
with the help of ISRO. Effects of Space Travel on the Human Body
• Space Sickness
2. 
The Gaganyaan mission is a joint space mission
between India and Japan. ¾ Around 20% of all astronauts and 70% of those
involved in long-duration spaceflight develop a
3. India joined the Artemis Accords in June 2023 for disease called spaceflight-associated neuro-ocular
peaceful space exploration. syndrome (SANS): more fluids enter the head and
build up at the back of the eye, affecting eyesight.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? • The Face Often Swells in Space
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only ¾ Blood and other bodily fluids are pulled by gravity
into the lower body. When you go to space, gravity
(c) 1, 2, and 3 (d) 3 only weakens and thus fluids are no longer pulled down,
Answer: d resulting in a state where fluids accumulate in the
upper body.

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY  81

• Bones and Muscles weaken
(b) The point where gravity no longer affects objects.
¾ NASA has learned that without Earth’s gravity
affecting the human body, weight-bearing bones lose (c) The altitude where the atmosphere becomes too
on average 1% to 1.5% of mineral density per month thin for conventional aircraft to maintain flight.
during spaceflight. After returning to Earth, bone loss
(d) 
The boundary between the Earth’s atmosphere
might not be completely corrected by rehabilitation;
and the Moon's gravitational influence.
however, their risk for fracture is not higher. Answer: c
¾ Moreover, in microgravity, bones become weaker,
which might force the body to deposit the ‘excess’
mineral content in the kidneys, leading to renal
stones.
NATIONAL QUANTUM MISSION
• Major Impacts on the Human Body. Why in News: India’s first quantum computer is expected to
¾ Astronauts who stay in space, where there is almost launch under National Quantum Mission (NQM).
no atmosphere, are exposed to higher energy Key Details
radiation than on the earth. If a person is exposed to a
• India’s first quantum computer, after its launch, is
lot of higher energy radiation, the risk increases that
expected to achieve computation of 6 qubits over the next
they will develop diseases such as cancer.
few months.
• Intense Stress and Other Effects
• Moreover, amongst the targets set to be achieved, the
¾ Astronauts develop stress before even realizing it NQM will be setting up four Section 8 companies across
when living and working together in a cramped the four verticals of quantum technologies namely –
space with other astronauts for a few months. computing, communication, measurement and sensing.
¾ Researchers are also studying whether various nutrients ¾ These companies will be run under the aegis of
and drugs are metabolised differently in space. They premier institutes like Indian Institute of Technology
have already identified some changes in metabolic or the Indian Institute of Sciences
pathways involved in synthesising DNA, amino acids,
and phospholipids, and a condition in which excess Goal of the NQM
iron in the body presents along with low urinary
magnesium and potentially lower DNA stability. • To establish a quantum computer with a computation of
20-50 qubits in the next three years, 50-100 qubits in the
next five years and 50-1000 qubits in the next 10 years.

• To put these computational capabilities in context,

on average internationally quantum computers have
processing capabilities of 20-50 qubits at present.

About Quantum Computing

• Quantum computing is an area of computer science that uses
the principles of quantum theory at the atomic and subatomic
levels. It uses subatomic particles, such as electrons or
photons.
• Classical computers, which include smartphones and laptops,
encode information in binary “bits” that can either be 0s or
1s. In a quantum computer, the basic unit of memory is a
quantum bit or qubit.
• Quantum bits, or qubits, allow the subatomic particles to exist
in more than one state at the same time.
Theoretically, linked qubits can exploit the superposition,
entanglement and interference between their wave-like quantum
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE states to perform calculations that might otherwise take millions
of years.
Prelims MCQ
Key Principles of Quantum Computing
Q. 
Which of the following statements best describe
Karman Line? Quantum computers are based on these key principles of
quantum physics that enable new approaches to information
(a) The altitude at which atmospheric pressure equals
processing:
zero.

82 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

 Key Principle Description
Superposition • The fundamental principle that enables the power of quantum computing is ‘quantum
superposition’.

• Unlike traditional bits used in classical computers that can exist in only one state (either 0
or 1), quantum bits or ‘qubits’ can exist in a superposition of 0 and 1 simultaneously.

Quantum Entanglement • Quantum Entanglement is where quantum particles interact physically in ways such that
the quantum state of each cannot be described independently.

• Measuring one particle instantaneously affects the others even over long distances.

• This enables quantum systems to exhibit correlations stronger than any possible classical
behaviour.

Quantum Interference • The wave-like characteristics of quantum particles cause interference effects between
different probability states that can result in constructive or destructive interference
analogous to the interference effects seen in waves.

¾ This effect is harnessed in quantum algorithms.

Quantum Tunneling • Quantum tunnelling refers to the ability of particles to tunnel through barriers when
according to classical physics they do not have enough energy to do so. This principle is
critical for the functioning of quantum computer hardware like quantum dots.

EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE ¾ No human organ for transplant shall be allowed to be
transported from outside the territory of India.
Prelims MCQ ¾ The transport protocols aim to ensure the expeditious
Q. Which one of the following is the context in which the movement of life-saving organs from the point of
term “qubit” is mentioned? (UPSC CSE-2022) harvest to their destination through effective use of
available infrastructure.
(a) Cloud Services • All cases of organ transplants, whether from a living
(b) Quantum Computing or deceased donor, will be allocated a unique National
Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation (NOTTO)-ID
(c) Visible Light Communication Technologies for both the donor and the recipient.
• It must be generated by the hospital from the NOTTO
(d) Wireless Communication Technologies
website (www.notto.mohfw.gov.in).
Answer: b
• The directives were issued following reports of
malpractice and to eliminate commercial dealing in
organs, especially those involving foreign citizens.
GUIDELINES FOR Guidelines to be Followed at Airport
TRANSPORTATION OF LIVE • When transporting organs by air (commercial or private
HUMAN ORGANS aircraft, helicopter, air ambulance, etc., except drones),
Why in News: The Union Health Ministry has recently issued the box containing the organ should be screened without
guidelines for organ transport across India. being opened, but the passengers carrying it must still go
through regular security checks before boarding.
Key Details • Staff accompanying an organ box should be prioritized
• The Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) will serve as a during deboarding, with an announcement made by the
guiding document for healthcare institutions in States/ Pilot-in-Command. Airlines should provide front-row
Union Territories to transport organs by various modes of seating, priority reservations, and allow late check-ins for
transport, including metro trains and over water. organ transport.
¾ Human organs for transplant would be transported • It would be the responsibility of the airport officials to
only within the territory of India and no organ shall define a green path (free from obstruction) and a trolley
be transported outside the country. for the organ box from the ambulance to the aircraft at the

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY  83

 point of origin and from the aircraft to an ambulance at
• 
In the case of a foreign national, prior approval of the
the destination. authorisation committee is required before removing or
• The flight captain may request Air Traffic Control to transplanting organ or tissue or both.
accord priority take-off and landing for the aircraft and � When the proposed donor or the recipient is a foreigner,
also make an in-flight announcement about the carriage a senior embassy official of the country of origin has to
of a live human organ onboard. certify the relationship between the donor and the recipient
• In case the ambulance is allowed until the runway, in accordance with Form 21 of THOTA, and in case a
the airline crew would have to guide and assist the country does not have an embassy in India, the certificate
accompanying medical personnel carrying the organ box of relationship, in the same format, should be issued by the
government of that country.
to disembark from the staircase onto the runway directly
and into the waiting ambulance. � The laws also have provision for verifying the authenticity
Guidelines when Organs are Transported by Road of the documents of the donor and recipient by senior
embassy officials.
• A green corridor may be provided on the request of the
concerned authorities/agencies. � The authorisation committee and senior embassy official
• The One Trigger System suggests that a request from are also required to assess and certify that the donation of
the organ was made out of love and affection; there was no
a credible organ allocation authority (like NOTTO or
financial transaction between the recipient and donor; and
ROTTO/SOTTO) should initiate the process of organ
there was no pressure or coercion on the donor.
transport by creating a green corridor, helping to address
internal security concerns. • Any violation of the THOTA, 1994 and its rules have to be
• A nodal officer from the police department may be probed, and appropriate action includes the suspension of
appointed to handle issues related to the creation of green registration for performing organ transplants if hospitals are
involved in illegal activities.
corridor in each State/city. The nodal officer may help
iron out issues related to jurisdiction, approvals, security Note: The National Organ and Tissue Transplant Organisation
concerns, etc. during the creation of the green corridor. (NOTTO)-ID is mandatory for considering allocation of organs
in case of deceased donor transplant, this ID in case of a living
SOPs For Transfer of Organs by Railways/Metro donor transplant, shall also be generated at the earliest, maximum
within 48 hours after the transplant surgery is done.
• The steps to be taken by the authorities concerned as
regards providing accommodation, arranging for a green
corridor and security arrangements were also issued.
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE

The Transplantation of Human Organs & Tissues Act (THOTA), Prelims MCQ
1994

Key Provisions
Q. 
Which of the following is not covered under the
Transplantation of Human Organs & Tissues Act
• 
It provides for regulation of removal, storage and (THOTA), 1994?
transplantation of human organs & tissues for therapeutic
purposes and for prevention of commercial dealings in human (a) Removal of human organs for transplantation
organs & tissues.
(b) Storage of human tissues for therapeutic purposes
• The subject of artificial organs is not regulated under the
aforesaid Act. (c) Regulation of artificial organs
• The Government of India has implemented National Organ
(d) Prevention of commercial dealings in human organs
Transplant Program (NOTP). Under the program, support
is provided to establish new or to upgrade existing organ & Answer: c
tissue transplant and retrieval facilities and to establish tissue
banks. NOPT

To establish a network of organ and tissue transplant

� 
organizations at national, regional and state level and to MESSENGER RIBONUCLEIC ACID
link them with transplant & retrieval hospitals and tissue (MRNA) VACCINE
banks
Why in News: The World Health Organisation has recently
� To maintain a national registry of organ & tissue donors
and recipients for the purpose to provide an efficient system announced a new Messenger Ribonucleic Acid (mRNA)
for procurement and distribution of organs & tissues from vaccine development initiative against human avian
deceased donors. influenza.

84 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

Rational Behind to Develop mRNA Vaccine • Once the preclinical data is ready, the technology,
• The bird flu H5N1 first emerged in 1996, but since 2020 materials, and expertise will be shared with a network
an exponential growth in outbreaks in birds has occurred of manufacturers in poorer countries, allowing them to
and infected some 26 mammalian species, including accelerate their own development and production.
cattle in US farms. What is mRNA?
• According to the WHO, between 2003 and April 1, 2024, • mRNA—or messenger RNA—is a molecule that contains
close to 900 human infections of H5N1 have been reported the instructions or recipe that directs the cells to make a
from 23 countries, of which, more than half were fatal. protein using its natural machinery.
For the first time, three cases of human infection in dairy • To enter cells smoothly, mRNA travels within a protective
farm workers were also reported in India, raising fears of bubble called a Lipid Nanoparticle.
the risks of a wider transmission of this virus from cattle • Once inside, our cells read the mRNA as a set of
to humans. This has prompted fears the virus could spark instructions, building proteins that match up with parts
a future pandemic. of the pathogen called antigens.
• Also, Covid pandemic exposed glaring global vaccine • The immune system sees these foreign antigens as
inequity and demands for a fairer distribution amid invaders—dispatching defenders called antibodies and
efforts to use the technology against other diseases. T-cells—and training the immune system for potential
• The WHO said Argentinian manufacturer Sinergium future attacks.
Biotech would lead the effort and had already begun • So, if and when the real virus comes along, the body
developing candidate H5N1 vaccines. might recognize it—sounding the alarm to help defend
against infection and illness.

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY  85

 Norway had identified three major pests that could
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
potentially be targeted for outdoor-use gene-editing
Prelims MCQ pesticides: Western corn rootworm, red flour beetle and
the fungus Sclerotinia sclerotium.
Q. 
Which of the following statements about mRNA
• During the study the team investigated 18 species that are
vaccines is correct?
commonly found in farming environments, like humans,
(a) mRNA vaccines work by inserting viral proteins cattle, chickens, mice, pollinator insects, earthworms,
directly into the cells. fungi and crops like maize, cotton, and soybean. These
were the NTOs and it was observed that the use of
(b) The mRNA in the vaccine acts as a blueprint for genetic pesticides can lead to silencing or disruption of
the body to produce specific proteins that trigger the normal functioning of ‘non-target organisms’ (NTO)
an immune response.
species.
(c) Lipid nanoparticles are used in mRNA vaccines to ¾ The study also discovered, using computer predictive
directly destroy pathogens. modelling, that 12 of the 18 species faced potential
“unintended hybridisation.” Humans were most
(d) mRNA vaccines require the use of live attenuated
likely to be affected under all three scenarios.
viruses to be effective.
Answer: b • The most likely impact is on humans, who may experience
significant biological consequences.

Descriptive Question ¾ In humans, the affected genomic regions include

several cancer and hormone metabolism pathways,
Q. Evaluate the potential and challenges of mRNA vaccine whereas in plants and animals, there were effects on
distribution, especially in the context of global vaccine immune responses, essential molecule biosynthesis
equity, as highlighted by the COVID-19 pandemic. and the central nervous system.
[10 marks] [150 words]
Conclusion
The researchers cautioned that new risk assessment
frameworks are required for proposed applications
CASE STUDY- GENE EDITING of genetic engineering pesticides outside of contained
PESTICIDES laboratories. These should also include the assessment of
their environmental persistence.
Context: According to a recent study, humans, farm animals,
and insects may all suffer collateral damage as a result of EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
genetic pesticide exposure.
Prelims MCQ
About Genetic Pesticides
• Genetic pesticides are a type of biotechnological Q. 
Which of the following correctly describes the
intervention used to control pests by modifying their difference between genetic pesticides and traditional
genetic material. chemical pesticides?
• Unlike traditional chemical pesticides, which kill or repel
pests through toxic substances, genetic pesticides work 1. Genetic pesticides alter the genetic makeup of pests,
whereas chemical pesticides typically use toxic
at the genetic level to either reduce pest populations or
substances to kill or repel pests.
make them less harmful to crops.
• Genetic pesticides are touted as more environmentally 2. 
Genetic pesticides have no impact on non-target
friendly than chemical pesticides. species, unlike chemical pesticides, which can affect
• Note: Researchers are also applying gene editing to a wide range of organisms.
agricultural pests to control insects that destroy about
40% of global crop production each year. CRISPR-Cas9 3. 
Chemical pesticides often require repeated
applications, while genetic pesticides can have long-
gene editing is the primary technique used in the biotech
lasting effects after a single application.
industry to manage insect pests.
Potential Implications of Genetic Pesticides on Non Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Targeted Organisms (NTOs)
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
• Scientists have warned that genetic pesticides may be
able to edit the genes of people, animals, and insects in (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
the environment where pesticides will be sprayed. Answer: b
• The team of scientists from Brazil, New Zealand, and

86 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

 for Environment’ and will steer India on the path of
BIOE3 (BIOTECHNOLOGY FOR accelerated ‘Green Growth’ by promoting ‘Circular
ECONOMY, ENVIRONMENT AND Bioeconomy’.
EMPLOYMENT) POLICY • The BioE3 Policy will foster and advance future that is
more sustainable, innovative, and responsive to global
Why in News: The Union Cabinet has recently approved BioE3
challenges and lays down the Bio-vision for Viksit Bharat.
(Biotechnology for Economy, Environment and Employment)
Policy for Fostering High Performance Biomanufacturing. Conclusion
India’s bio economy skyrocketed from $10 billion in 2014 to
Key Details
over $130 billion in 2024, with projections to reach $300 billion
• The BioE3 policy is aimed at ‘Fostering High Performance by 2030, it is expected that biotechnology has huge potential
Biomanufacturing’ aligned with National initiatives for driving the next revolution of 21st Generation.
of the government of India such as ‘Net Zero’ carbon
economy and Mission LiFE (Lifestyle for environment). EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
• The salient features of BioE3 policy include innovation-
driven support to R&D and entrepreneurship across Prelims MCQ
thematic sectors. Q. Consider the following:
¾ This will accelerate technology development and
commercialization by establishing Biomanufacturing 1. Marine and Space Research
& Bio-AI hubs and Biofoundry.
2. Climate Resilient Agriculture
• High performance biomanufacturing is the ability to
produce products from medicine to materials, address 3. Biopolymers and Enzymes
farming and food challenges, and promote manufacturing
How many of the above sectors are focus areas under the
of bio-based products through integration of advanced
BioE3 policy?
biotechnological processes.
• To address the national priorities, the BioE3 Policy would (a) Only one (b) Only two
broadly focus on the following strategic/thematic sectors:
(c) All three (d) None
Answer: c

VIGYAN DHARA SCHEME

Why in News: The Union Cabinet has recently approved
the Department of Science and Technology scheme namely
‘Vigyan Dhara’

Key Details

• The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister

of India recently approved continuation of the three
umbrella schemes, merged into a unified central sector
scheme namely ‘Vigyan Dhara’ of Department of Science
and Technology (DST).

• The scheme has three broad components:

¾ Science and Technology (S&T) Institutional and
Human Capacity Building,

¾ Research and Development.

Significance
• Along with prioritizing regenerative bioeconomy models ¾ Innovation, Technology Development and Deployment.
of green growth, this policy will facilitate expansion • The scheme will be implementation coterminous with the
of India’s skilled workforce and provide a surge in job 15th finance Commission period from 2021-22 to 2025-26.
creation.
• The merger of the schemes into a single scheme would
• Overall, this Policy will further strengthen Government’s enhance efficiency in fund utilization and establish
initiatives such as ‘Net Zero’ carbon economy & ‘Lifestyle synchronization among the sub-schemes/programs.

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY  87

 About Vigyan Dhara Scheme GENOME EDITING
• The primary objective of the ‘Vigyan Dhara’ scheme is to Why in News: Recently researchers have developed a new
promote S&T capacity building as well as research, innovation gene-editing tool that is small enough to edit plant genomes.
and technology development towards strengthening the
Key Details
Science, Technology and Innovation ecosystem in the country.
• A team of researchers from the ICAR-National Rice
• 
Implementation of the scheme will strengthen the S&T Research Institute in Cuttack and from the Pennsylvania
infrastructure of the country by fostering well-equipped R&D State University in the U.S. developed a plant genome
labs in the Academic Institutions. editor consisting of a protein called ISDra2TnpB, derived
• The scheme endeavours to promote research in areas such as from bacteria called Deinococcus radiodurans (famous for
basic research with access to the international mega facilities, being able to survive extreme environmental conditions).
translational research in sustainable energy, water, etc. and • ISDra2TnpB is less than half the size of Cas9 and Cas12.
collaborative research through international bilateral and
multilateral cooperation.
About ISDra2TnpB
• TnpB is a protein made up of around 400 amino acid units.
• 
It will also contribute to building critical human resource
• TnpB is a protein extracted from D. radiodurans, a
pool to strengthen the science and technology landscape and
prokaryotic bacteria, which has a different codon for
expand the R&D base of the country towards improving the
Full-Time Equivalent (FTE) researcher count. lysine than do eukaryotes like plants.
• It belongs to a family of transposable elements, or
• 
Focused interventions will be taken up to enhance the transposons.
participation of women in the field of Science and Technology
(S&T) with the ultimate goal of bringing gender parity in ¾ Transposons are parts of a genome that can move
Science, Technology and Innovation (STI). from one location to another.
¾ They are known as jumping genes.
• The scheme would reinforce the efforts of the government
towards promoting innovations at all levels, starting from
• In the new system, TnpB hitches a ride on a piece of RNA
school level to higher education, and for the industries and that guides it to the target DNA sequence. Once there the
startups through targeted interventions. TnpB binds with the sequence and eliminates it.
• The TnpB-based editors the researchers built can edit the
• All the programs proposed under the ‘Vigyan Dhara’ scheme
plant genome using both base editing and transcription
would be aligned with the 5-year goals of DST towards
activation, two widely used techniques in plant synthetic
realising the vision of Viksit Bharat 2047.
biology.
• The research and development component of the scheme will
• Moreover, researchers also experimented to deactivate
be aligned in line with the Anusandhan National Research
Foundation (ANRF). TnpB and fuse it with another protein to create a ‘hybrid’
base editor.
• When accompanied by the guide RNA, this editor could
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE swap out a single nucleotide in the DNA sequence.
¾ This wasn’t possible with the previous version, with
Prelims MCQ active TnpB, because it tended only to delete DNA
sequences and couldn’t swap one sequence for
Q. Consider the following statements regarding Vigyan another.
Dhara Scheme:
¾ The new base editor can be demonstrated for crop
1. It is a central sector scheme launched after merging innovation by facilitating the alteration of genes at
three umbrella schemes. the level of individual nucleotides.
Limitation of CRISPR Gene-Editing Tool
2. The scheme is to be implemented for five years from
2024-25 to 2028-29. • CRISPR gene-editing tool allows scientists to increase
crop yields and improve resistance to disease and
anomalous weather through gene-editing.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
• With the help of the CRISPR gene-editing tool CRISPR,
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only scientists can precisely edit genomes to introduce
desirable genetic traits or remove undesirable ones.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a • However, there has been a critical obstacle: a commonly
used form of the CRISPR system is too big for plant
genomes.

88 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

 ¾ This system uses one of two proteins, Cas9 or Cas12, permissions of the regulatory authority, the Atomic
to target specific parts of the DNA. But they are too Energy Regulatory Board (AERB).
bulky for plant cells to accommodate.

Conclusion
The researchers believed that ISDra2TnpB genome editing
tool will help remove anti-nutrient factors from food crops,
reduce their susceptibility to pests, and help rice crops
become shorter and less prone to damage during cyclones.

EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL)
• NPCIL is a Public Sector Enterprise under the administrative
Prelims MCQ control of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE),
Government of India.
Q. What is TnpB recently seen in news?
• The Company was registered as a Public Limited Company
(a) A protein used in targeted gene editing. under the Companies Act, 1956 in September 1987 with the
objectives of operating atomic power plants and implementing
(b) 
A biosensor used in the accurate detection of atomic power projects for generation of electricity in pursuance
pathogens in patients. of the schemes and programmes of the Government of India
under the Atomic Energy Act, 1962.
(c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant.
• NPCIL also has equity participation in BHAVINI, another PSU
(d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically of Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) which implements
modified crops. Fast Breeder Reactors programme in the country.
Answer: a • NPCIL is responsible for design, construction, commissioning
and operation of nuclear power reactors.
• NPCIL is a MoU signing, profit making and dividend paying
KAKRAPAR ATOMIC POWER company with the highest level of credit rating (AAA rating by
CRISIL and CARE).
STATION • NPCIL is presently operating 24 commercial nuclear power
Why in News: India’s second home-built nuclear power reactors with an installed capacity of 8180 MW.
reactor at Kakrapar Atomic Power Station (KAPS) in Gujarat • In addition, 10 more reactors with a total capacity of 7000 MW
started operating at its full capacity. are in pre-project activities. These are expected to be completed
progressively, taking the installed nuclear power capacity in
Key Details the country to 22480 MW by 2031-32.
• The Unit 4 of Kakrapar Atomic Power Station (KAPS 4 Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (AERB)
– 700 MW) has recently commenced operation at its full
• 
The Atomic Energy Regulatory Board was constituted on
power of 700 MW. The unit had been operating at 90%
November 15, 1983, by the President of India by exercising the
before raising it to full power.
powers conferred by the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 to carry out
¾ The full power operation of KAPS-4 after the certain regulatory and safety functions under the Act.
smooth operation of its twin unit KAPS-3 at full • The regulatory authority of AERB is derived from the rules and
power demonstrates the strength of the first of a notifications promulgated under the Atomic Energy Act and
kind indigenous 700 MW Pressurised Heavy Water the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Reactor (PHWR) design.
¾ Fourteen more reactors of the same design are at Mission
various stages of implementation and are expected to • 
The Mission of the AERB is to ensure the use of ionizing
commence operations progressively by 2031-32 radiation and nuclear energy in India does not cause undue
risk to the health of people and the environment.
• The power level of the unit was raised in line with the

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY  89

 the surface billions of years ago when Mars harboured
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
rivers, lakes, and possibly oceans.
Prelims MCQ Significance of Discovery
• The findings could help researchers better understand
Q. Kakrapar Atomic Power Station, a significant nuclear the water cycle of Mars, which in turn could unlock
power plant in India, is located in which of the
questions related to the evolution of the planet’s climate,
following state?
surface, and interior.
(a) Maharashtra (b) Gujarat • The discovery could also provide impetus to the ongoing
search for evidence of life on Mars.
(c) Rajasthan (d) Tamil Nadu • Although the discovery of liquid water does not mean
Answer: b that there is life on Mars, it sure raises the possibility of
finding a habitable environment.
• However, the researchers believes that it would be a
daunting task to drill a 10-20 km deep hole on Mars and
LIQUID WATER IN THE MARTIAN extract the water.
MID-CRUST
Why in News: Recently scientist for the first time have EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
discovered presence of liquid water hidden deep within Prelims MCQ
Mars mid crust.
Q. Recently data from which of the Mars project is used in
Key Details the study of liquid water in the Martian mid-crust?
• The study, ‘Liquid water in the Martian mid-crust’, was
(a) Perseverance Rover (b) Curiosity Rover
published in the journal Proceedings of the National
Academy of Sciences (PNAS). (c) InSight lander (d) Odyssey orbiter
• While scientists have known about water ice at the Answer: c
Martian poles for a long time, this is the first time they
have discovered liquid water on the planet.
• According to the new study, there could be oceans’ worth
of liquid water deep in the rocky outer crust of Mars. SOLAR PARABOLOID
• For their study, the researchers used the data from NASA’s TECHNOLOGY
Mars Insight Lander, which touched down on the planet
Why in News: Solar paraboloids technology can be
back in 2018 and retired in December 2022.
instrumental in shaping the future of global energy by
Key Finding reducing carbon emissions and achieving net-zero targets.
• The NASA’s Mars Insight Lander was equipped with
Key Details
a seismometer, which recorded four years’ of seismic
waves — created by Marsquakes and meteorite impacts • The Government of India has taken initiatives to enhance
— deep inside the planet. In total, Insight recorded more local manufacturing and has been promoting research
than 1,300 quakes while it was active. and projects in these areas.
¾ The researchers examined the speed of these seismic • Aligned with its potential, solar paraboloids can emerge
waves and were able to determine what material they as a viable alternative for medium/high-grade heat
were most likely to be moving through. generation applications and help in reducing reliance on
fossil fuels.
¾ To do so, they used “a geophysical model identical
to one used to map underground aquifers and oil About Solar Paraboloid Technology
fields here on Earth, and employed it to analyse data • It is an advanced form of concentrating solar power (CSP)
collected by lander on Mars. technology.
¾ They found that the data are best explained if, • It not only enhances the efficiency of solar energy capture
deep below the surface of Mars, there lies a layer of but also addresses the limitations that have long plagued
fractured igneous rock, such as granite, whose cracks traditional photovoltaic (PV) systems.
are filled with liquid water.
• Working
• The layer is located at depths of about 10 to 20 km in the
¾ Solar paraboloids operate using a Parabolic Trough
Martian crust.
Collector (PTC) system.
• The study suggests that the water could have seeped from
¾ These systems consist of long, parabolic mirrors that

90 SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

 focus sunlight onto a receiver tube placed at the focal such as high upfront costs and infrastructure requirements.
line of the mirror. To overcome these barriers, governments and industries
¾ The concentrated solar energy heats a fluid within the must invest in research and development, as well as provide
receiver, which can then be used to generate electricity incentives for early adopters.
or provide direct heat for industrial processes.
• Benefits EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
¾ Solar paraboloids are highly efficient in concentrating
solar energy, which means that more electricity can be Prelims MCQ
generated from the same amount of sunlight.
Q. 
Consider the following statements regarding solar
¾ This efficiency could lead to lower costs per unit paraboloid:
of electricity produced, making solar energy more
competitive with traditional fossil fuels. 1. It is an advanced form of concentrating solar power
¾ Another key benefit is its ability to operate at higher technology.
temperatures, up to 300°C, which significantly
increases thermal efficiency. This is achieved by 2. It enhances the efficiency of solar energy capture
reducing heat losses through a smaller absorbing and addresses the limitations of traditional photo-
voltaic systems.
surface area.
¾ The technology can produce energy even in low-light 3. It can produce energy even without light, making it
conditions, making it a versatile solution for diverse a versatile solution for diverse environments.
environments.
¾ Solar paraboloid systems are scalable and can be How many of the above statements are correct?
deployed in various configurations, from small-scale
applications to large solar farms. (a) Only one (b) Only two

Conclusion (c) All three (d) None

Adopting solar paraboloids on a large scale can bring Answer: b (1 and 2 only)
significant economic benefits, including reduced costs and
increased competitiveness. However, challenges remain,

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY  91

 SECTION

F DEFENCE & SECURITY

DIRECTED ENERGY WEAPONS communications, or creating non-lethal effects on

personnel. An example is the Active Denial System,
Why in News: Though the interest in Directed Energy which causes a burning sensation on the skin without
Weapons (DEWs) has been around for a long time, it is only causing permanent injury.
recently that significant advancements have happened in the
Particle Beam Weapons
field. Number of countries including India have tested DEWs
successfully. ¾ Description: Use beams of charged or neutral
particles to damage targets.
What Are Directed Energy Weapons (DEWs)? ¾ Applications: More theoretical and experimental,
• Directed Energy Weapons (DEWs) are an advanced particle beams could potentially be used for missile
class of weapons that utilize concentrated energy to defense or as an anti-satellite weapon.
incapacitate or destroy targets.
High-Energy Radio Frequency (HERF) Weapons
• Unlike traditional kinetic or explosive weapons, DEWs
¾ Description: Deliver high-powered radio frequency
focus on delivering devastating lethal energy generated
energy to disrupt or damage electronic systems.
by concentrated lasers, microwaves, or particle beams
onto a target at a great speed. ¾ Applications: Designed to target and disable
electronic equipment, including communications and
¾ The intense and concentrated beams from DEWs
navigation systems.
would disrupt or jumble up communications and
other command, controlling, positioning, navigation
and timing systems in the target in what is known as
a soft kill or even destroy the target in a hard kill.

Types of Directed Energy Weapons

Laser Weapons
¾ Description: These use focused beams of light to
cause damage through intense heat.
¾ Applications: Used for precise targeting of objects
like drones, missiles, and enemy equipment. Modern
examples include the U.S. Navy’s Laser Weapon
System (LaWS) and the Army’s High Energy Laser
Mobile Demonstrator (HEL-MD).
Microwave Weapons
¾ Description: Emit high-frequency microwaves to
disrupt electronic systems or cause harm to humans.
¾ Applications: Used for disabling electronics, jamming

DEFENCE & SECURITY  92

Current and Future Applications
EXPECTED QUESTIONS ON UPSE CSE
• Military: DEWs are being actively developed and
deployed for various defense applications, including Prelims MCQ
missile defense systems, anti-drone systems, and naval
Q. Consider the following statements regarding Directed
ship protection.
Energy Weapons (DEWs):
• Law Enforcement: Non-lethal DEWs are being explored
for crowd control and area denial, such as the Active 1. DEWs are an advanced class of weapons that utilize
Denial System for controlling large crowds. concentrated energy to incapacitate or destroy
targets.
• Space: Research is ongoing into using DEWs for space
defense, including the potential for asteroid deflection or 2. The effective range of DEWs can be very high by the
satellite protection. beam dispersion and the atmospheric conditions.
3. DURGA and KALI are two important DEWs of India
Future Trends
developed by ISRO.
• Integration with Autonomous Systems: Combining DEWs
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
with drones or autonomous vehicles could enhance their
effectiveness and deployment options. (a) Only one (b) Only two
• Advancements in Power and Cooling Technologies: (c) All three (d) None Answer: a (1 only)
Improved power sources and cooling systems could
expand the capabilities and applications of DEWs. Descriptive Question
• Increased Deployment: As technology matures, DEWs Q. What are Directed energy weapons? How can DEWs
are expected to become more prevalent in both military revolutionize India’s defense capabilities? Enumerate
and civilian sectors. some of India’s achievements in DEWs? [10 marks]
[150 words]
Global Achievements
• Various countries like Russia, France, Germany, the
United Kingdom, Israel, and China have developed A JOINT MILITARY EXERCISES IN
DEWs.
THE SOUTH CHINA SEA
• The United States has made huge investments in DEWs.
Important DEWs of the USA are high-energy lasers (HEL) Why in News: Recently, naval and air forces from the
and high-powered microwaves (HPM), with various US, Australia, Canada, and the Philippines carried out
applications ranging from missile defense to disabling joint exercises in the Disputed South China Sea, citing a
drones. commitment to international law and free navigation.

India’s Achievements Issue about the South China Sea?

• 1KW laser Weapon: DRDO has tested a 1KW laser • The South China Sea is situated just south of the Chinese
weapon which hit a target 250m away. mainland and is bordered by the countries of Brunei,
China, Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Taiwan and
• DURGA-II: DRDO has initiated a project DURGA
Vietnam.
II(Directionally Unrestricted Ray-Gun Array), which is a
100-kilowatt lightweight DEW. • The South China Sea is one of the most strategically
critical maritime areas and China eyes its control to assert
• Kilo Ampere Linear Ejector (KALI): KALI is a DEW more power over the region.
particle accelerator developed by DRDO and Bhabha • China stakes claim on the 90% of the South China Sea,
Atomic Research Center. This DEW will fire intense and is based on the U-shaped nine-dash line adopted
electron pulses at incoming missiles and aircraft, from Chinese maps in the 1940s represents China’s claim
destroying onboard electronic circuits. over the sea and all the land features that are contained
• Hypersonic Technology Development: Hypersonic within the line.
technology in India has been developed and tested by • The two primary points of contention are the Spratly
both DRDO and ISRO. Islands and the Paracel Islands in the sea.
Conclusion • In the past few years, the country has also tried to stop
The field of DEWs is rapidly evolving, with ongoing other nations from conducting any military or economic
advancements in technology and increasing interest from operation without its consent, saying the sea falls under
both military and civilian sectors. The development and its Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ).
deployment of DEWs represent a significant shift in weaponry, • China has physically increased the size of islands or
offering new capabilities and challenges in modern defense created new islands altogether in the sea, according to the
and security strategies. Council on Foreign Relations (CFR).

93 DEFENCE & SECURITY

• In addition to piling sand onto existing reefs, China has • The South China Sea is home to rich fishing grounds —
constructed ports, military installations, and airstrips— a major source of income for millions of people across
particularly in the Paracel and Spratly Islands, where it the region. The BBC reported that more than half of the
has twenty and seven outposts, respectively. China has world’s fishing vessels operate in this area.
militarised Woody Island by deploying fighter jets, cruise
missiles, and a radar system. • The United Nations Conference on Trade and
Development estimates that over 21% of global trade,
• Since 2013, China has engaged in unprecedented amounting to $3.37 trillion, transited through these
dredging and artificial island-building in the Spratlys, waters in 2016.
creating 3,200 acres of new land, along with a substantial
expansion of its presence in the Paracels. • According to UN Conference on Trade and Development
(UNCTAD), that 80% of global trade by volume and 70%
Importance of South China Sea
by value is transported by sea. Of the total volume, 60%
• There are 11 billion barrels of oil and 190 trillion cubic passes through Asia, with the South China Sea carrying
feet of natural gas in deposits under the South China Sea, an estimated one-third of global shipping.
according to the estimates of the United States Energy
Information Agency.

DEFENCE & SECURITY  94

 UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) 1. The United Nations Convention on the Law of the
• The convention allows state parties to claim 12 nautical mile Sea (UNCLOS) allows state parties to claim a 200
(nm) territorial seas and 200 nm exclusive economic zones nautical mile exclusive economic zone (EEZ) around
(EEZs) around their coastlines and “naturally formed” land their coastlines.
features that can support human habitation.
2. The Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) ruled in
• Land features that are above water at high tide but not favor of China’s “nine-dash line” claim in the South
habitable can also claim 12 nm territorial seas, as can other China Sea.
features that cannot support life, such as rocks.
3. The South China Sea is home to an estimated one-
• UNCLOS also requires coastal states to respect the rights of
third of global shipping traffic.
non-coastal states to freedom of navigation, overflight, and
innocent passage. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Ruling from the Permanent Court of Arbitration
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
• In 2013, Manila initiated arbitral proceedings against
China under UNCLOS, claiming its actions had violated
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
the convention. Beijing refused to participate, deeming the
Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) illegal. Answer: b
• In 2016 the PCA rejected China’s “nine dash line”. The PCA
ruling said China’s claims were inconsistent with UNCLOS. Descriptive Question
• The PCA tribunal concluded that if China had any historic Q. Discuss the strategic importance of the South China
rights to resources in the South China Sea, those rights were Sea and the role of international law in addressing
overridden by the rights established under the EEZ in the the territorial disputes in the region. How has the
convention. Permanent Court of Arbitration’s ruling impacted
the claims and actions of China and other claimant
• Beijing rejected the arbitration, and in response issued a nations? [15 marks] [250 words]
white paper that claimed that “China’s sovereignty and
relevant rights and interests in the South China Sea have
been established in the long course of history, and are solidly
grounded in history and law.” LEFT WING EXTREMISM

EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE Why in News: Recently the Union Home Minister while
addressing a press conference in Raipur said that Left Wing
Prelims MCQ extremism will be completely eliminated in the country
Q. Which of the following statements regarding the South before March 2026.
China Sea and the United Nations Convention on the
Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) is/are correct? Key Details

95 DEFENCE & SECURITY

• According to the Minister, government has worked to
• In 2015, National Strategy to counter LWE was formed with a
instill faith among the people in development instead of multipronged approach to combat it.
the ideology of left-wing extremism.
• Aspirational District: The Ministry of Home Affairs has
• Home Ministry and Chhattisgarh government will jointly been tasked with the monitoring of Aspirational districts
run a campaign to educate people left illiterate due to LWE programme in 35 LWE affected districts.
• Chhattisgarh government has set a target of 100% • 
Security Related Expenditure (SRE) Scheme: This a sub
saturation of all government schemes by March 2025. scheme of the Umbrella Scheme Modernization of Police
• Chhattisgarh government will soon bring a new surrender Forces. Under it, the Central Government reimburses to 11
policy so that youth will be able to give up arms and join LWE affected States the Security Related Expenditure relating
the mainstream to training and operational needs of security forces, ex-
gratia payment, compensation to Left Wing Extremist cadres
• Union Home and Minister of Cooperation said that in who surrendered, community policing, Security related
2022, for the first time in 4 decades, the number of deaths infrastructure for village defence committees and publicity
due to left-wing violence has come down below 100. materials.
¾ He pointed out that the lowest number of LWE- • S
 pecial Central Assistance (SCA) for 30 most LWE affected
related violent incidents have been reported between districts: This is a sub-scheme of the Umbrella Scheme,
2022 and 2024. ‘Modernization of Police Forces’. The main objective of the
¾ Shri Amit Shah said that the ‘Bastariya Battalion’ was Scheme is to fill the critical gaps in Public infrastructure and
Services, which are of emergent nature.
raised in CRPF in 2017 in which all the jawans were
from the Bastar region. • C
 onstruction of Fortified Police Stations: The Home Ministry
had sanctioned construction of 400 Fortified Police Stations in
Government Approach: To address the LWE problem in an 10 LWE affected States.
effective manner, the Government has formulated a National
• Road Requirement Plan: This Scheme is being implemented
Policy and Action Plan adopting a multi-pronged strategy in the
by the Ministry of Road Transport & Highways for improving
areas of security, development, ensuring rights & entitlement of
road connectivity in 34 LWE affected districts of 8 States. RRP
local communities etc.
II has also been launched.
• SAMADHAN doctrine: It was introduced as a one stop
• LWE Mobile Tower Project: To improve mobile connectivity
solution for LWE affected areas; it includes both short- and
in the LWE areas, the Government approved installation of
long-term government policies to deal with LWE.
mobile towers in LWE affected States and 2335 mobile towers
have been installed in Phase-I.

EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ
Q. Which of the following is concerned with Left Wing
Extremism (LWE)?
(a) Operation Black Thunder
(b) Operation Meghdoot
(c) Operation All Clear
(d) Operation Green Hunt
Answer: d

TRIBO-ELECTRIC
NANOGENERATOR (TENG)
TECHNOLOGY
Why in News: IIT Indore has developed shoes that generate
electricity, track location in real time for Armed forces.

Key Details
• These footwear harnesses Tribo-Electric Nanogenerator
(TENG) technology and has features that can enhance
the safety and coordination of military personnel while
helping boost operational efficiency and security.

DEFENCE & SECURITY  96

• The shoes are using Tribo-Electric Nanogenerator (TENG)
technology that can generate electricity with every step. INDIA - USA DEFENCE SUPPLY
• This stored energy can then power small electronic PACT
devices, providing a portable and renewable energy Why in News: Recently India and US have signed a Security
source for soldiers in the field, while offering advantages of Supply Arrangement (SOSA) and Memorandum of
such as substantial output power, cost-effectiveness, Agreement regarding the Assignment of Liaison Officers.
simplicity in production, and high efficiency.
• The shoes are equipped with sophisticated GPS and Radio Two New Agreements
Frequency Identification (RFID) technology with a 50-metre • SOSA
range and a satellite-based GPS module that can help with ¾ Under SOSA, the US and India will provide reciprocal
precise live location tracking of military personnel. priority support to each other for goods and services
• This real-time tracking can help in enhancing strategic that promote national defence.
coordination and ensure the safety of soldiers during ¾ India is the 18th SOSA partner of the US.
operations.
• MOU ON LIAISON OFFICERS
• IIT Indore has already supplied the first batch of 10 pairs
¾ The Memorandum of Agreement regarding the
of these shoes to the Defence Research and Development
Assignment of Liaison Officers is a progression on a
Organisation (DRDO).
decision taken earlier to increase information-sharing
between India and the US, and to post Indian armed
forces officers in key strategic US Commands.
India - USA Defence Cooperation Milestones
• 2013: Joint US-India Declaration on Defence Cooperation
• 2015: Framework for the US-India Defence Relationship
• 2023 Roadmap
¾ It envisioned the conclusion of SOSA and the RDP
Agreement.
¾ Priority areas of cooperation identified in the
roadmap included Intelligence, Surveillance, and
Reconnaissance (ISR), Undersea Domain Awareness,
Air Combat and Support, including Aero engines,
munitions systems, and mobility.
• iCET
¾ The US-India initiative on Critical and Emerging
Technology (iCET) was discussed in Jan 2023 to
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE expand the strategic technology partnership and
defence industrial cooperation.
Prelims MCQ • INDUS-X
Q. With reference to the Tribo-Electric Nanogenerator ¾ India-US Defence Acceleration Ecosystem (INDUS-X),
(TENG)-powered shoes developed by IIT Indore,
took forward the commitment to build a defence
consider the following statements:
innovation bridge under iCET.
1. The TENG-powered shoes generate electricity with
• Foundational Agreements
every step, providing a renewable energy source for
soldiers. ¾ In 2002, India and US signed the General Security
of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA) to
2. The shoes are equipped with GPS and Radio
Frequency Identification (RFID) technology for real- facilitate sharing of military information.
time location tracking. ¾ In 2019, the Industrial Security Annex (ISA) to the
3. These shoes are exclusively developed for military GSOMIA was signed to facilitate the exchange of
use and have no civilian applications. classified information between the defence industries
of the two countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? ¾ Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (LEMOA) of 2016 established the basic terms,
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 conditions, and procedures for reciprocal provision of
Answer: b logistic support, supplies, and services between the
two militaries.

97 DEFENCE & SECURITY

 ¾ In 2018, the Communications Compatibility and to Australia required for the safe and secure construction,
Security Agreement (COMCASA), an India-specific operation and sustainment of conventionally armed,
version of the Communications and Information nuclear-powered submarines under the AUKUS
Security Memorandum of Agreement (CISMOA), partnership.
was signed to secure military communication • The Agreement re-affirms, and is consistent with,
between the countries, facilitate access to advanced AUKUS partners’ respective existing international non-
defence systems, and enable India to optimally utilise proliferation obligations.
its existing US-origin platforms.
¾ As a non-nuclear-weapon State Party to the Treaty on
¾ Basic Exchange and Cooperation Agreement (BECA) the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, Australia
of 2020 aimed to facilitate the sharing of military has re-affirmed unequivocally that it does not have
information including maps, nautical charts, and and will not seek to acquire nuclear weapons.
other unclassified imagery and data.
• The agreement will replace the Exchange of Naval
Other Military Deals and Sales Nuclear Propulsion Information Agreement, which
• In 2012, the Defence Trade and Technology Initiative entered into force in 2022.
(DTTI) agreement was signed to promote industrial
AUKUS: The Trilateral Security Partnership Between Australia,
cooperation and defence trade between the two countries. U.K. and U.S.
• In 2016, the US designated India as a Major Defence
• In September 2021, leaders of Australia, the United Kingdom,
Partner. and the United States announced the creation of an enhanced
• In 2018, India was elevated to Strategic Trade trilateral security partnership called “AUKUS.”
Authorisation tier 1 status, which gave it licence-free • AUKUS is intended to strengthen the ability of each
access to a range of military and dual-use technologies government to support security and defense interests, building
regulated by the US Department of Commerce. on longstanding and ongoing bilateral ties.
• Memorandum of Intent between the US Defence • It will promote deeper information sharing and technology
Innovation Unit (DIU) and the Indian Defence Innovation sharing; and foster deeper integration of security and defense-
Organization-Innovation for Defence Excellence (DIO- related science, technology, industrial bases and supply chains.
iDEX). • The first initiative under AUKUS is a commitment to support
• Military hardware and weapon procurements Australia in acquiring nuclear-powered submarines for the
¾ MH-60R Seahawk multirole helicopters Royal Australian Navy.

¾ Sig Sauer Rifles • The second initiative intends to enhance joint capabilities
and interoperability, focusing on cyber capabilities, artificial
¾ M777 ultra-light howitzers intelligence, quantum technologies and additional undersea
Conclusion capabilities.

Recently both India and USA have agreed to advance priority

co-production projects including jet engines, unmanned
platforms, munitions, and ground mobility systems under the EXERCISE TARANG SHAKTI
2023 US-India Roadmap for Defence Industrial Cooperation. Why in News: India’s first multinational air exercise Tarang
Shakti recently begins in Coimbatore

NAVAL NUCLEAR PROPULSION Key Details

AGREEMENT • Tranag Shakti is the first multinational air exercise of the
Air Force to be conducted on Indian soil after a span of
Why in News: Recently, AUKUS partners have signed 61 years
the trilateral agreement for cooperation on naval nuclear
• The exercise is to be held in two phases. The first will be
propulsion.
held in southern India (Sulur, Tamil Nadu Air Base) in
Key Details the first two weeks of August and the second will be in
• Agreement is signed among the Government of Australia, the western sector (Jodhpur, Rajashtan Air Base) from the
the Government of the United Kingdom of Great Britain end of August to mid-September.
and Northern Ireland, and the Government of the United • The Indian Air Force will be showcasing an impressive
States of America. lineup of its aerial assets, including the Rafale, Sukhoi,
• The Agreement will enable AUKUS partners to continue Mirage, Jaguar, Tejas, MiG-29, Prachand, Rudra attack
to share submarine naval nuclear propulsion information helicopters, ALH Dhruv, C-130, IL-78, and AWACS
between the partners, and allow the United Kingdom systems.
and the United States to transfer material and equipment • Thirty countries, including the U.S., Germany, France,

DEFENCE & SECURITY  98

 Australia, UAE, and Singapore, will showcase their event conducted alternatively in India and Sri Lanka.
fighter jets. Last edition was conducted in Pune in Nov 2023.
• Tactical drills to be rehearsed during the exercise include
Response to a Terrorist Action, Establishment of a Joint
Command Post, Establishment of an Intelligence &
Surveillance Centre, Securing of a Helipad/ Landing Site,
Small Team Insertion & Extraction, Special Heliborne
Operations, Cordon & Search Operations besides
employment of Drones and Counter Drone Systems,
among others.
Objective of the Exercise
• Aim of the Joint Exercise is to enhance joint military
capability of both sides to undertake counter insurgency
operations in a Sub Conventional scenario under Chapter
VII of the United Nations Mandate.
• The exercise will focus on operations in the semi-urban
environment.
• Exercise MITRA SHAKTI will enable both sides to share
best practices in Tactics, Techniques and Procedures of
conducting joint operations.
• It will facilitate developing interoperability, bonhomie
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
and camaraderie between the two armies.
Prelims MCQ • The Joint Exercise will also enhance defence cooperation,
further augmenting bilateral relations between the two
Q. With reference to India’s air exercise “Tarang Shakti,”
friendly nations.
consider the following statements:

1. Tarang Shakti is the first multinational air exercise EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
conducted by the Indian Air Force. Prelims MCQ
2. The exercise will be held exclusively in southern Q. Consider the following statements about joint military
India, specifically at the Sulur Air Base in Tamil exercise Mitra Shakti.
Nadu. 1. It is annual military exercise between India and
Indonesia.
3. Germany is one of the participating countries and
will deploy an A-400M transport aircraft. 2. Recently 10th edition of the exercise was held
Jakarta.
4. The exercise aims to enhance coordination among
3. The joint exercise aims to enhance defence
diverse aircraft formations and reinforce strategic
cooperation between India & Indonesia.
ties with participating nations.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(a) 1, 2, and 3 only (b) 1, 3, and 4 only (c) All three (d) None Answer: d
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: b
EXERCISE PARVAT PRAHAR
Why in News: The Indian Army has recently conducted
a strategic military exercise, ‘Parvat Prahaar’, in Ladakh,
EXERCISE MITRA SHAKTI focusing on high-altitude warfare and operations.
Why in News: The 10th edition of India- Sri Lanka Joint About Parvat Prahar Exercise
Military Exercise MITRA SHAKTI was recently commenced
• The ‘Parvat Prahaar’ (Mountain Strike) is a strategic military
at Army Training School, Maduru Oya, Sri Lanka.
exercise primarily focused on high-altitude mountain
Key Details warfare, developing and validating tactics to be used in a
• Joint Exercise MITRA SHAKTI is an annual training war-like situation against China in Eastern Ladakh.

99 DEFENCE & SECURITY

• It is a fortnight long exercise that aims on high-altitude
The standoff, which is now in its fifth year, shows no signs of
warfare and operations. easing since the Chinese do not seem interested in restoring the
• It is crucial for maintaining the readiness and effectiveness status quo before 2020, which has been a consistent demand of
of the Army in the region, which is close to the India- India in several military and civilian meetings held to defuse the
China border. This exercise is primarily to train the re- standoff.
oriented corps to get up to speed for mountain warfare.
• It involves simulating real-world combat scenarios to EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
train soldiers in the unique challenges posed by such
terrains and train soldiers on how to efficiently operate in Prelims MCQ
the harsh climate of the Himalayas.
• In 2021, it was reorganised under the Mountain Strike Q. “Parvat Prahar,” recently in the news, refers to which
Corps of the Northern Command to focus on China after of the following?
the standoff with China in Eastern Ladakh and operations
in sensitive region along the Line of Actual Control (LAC) (a) A joint military exercise between India and Bhutan
• Tanks like the T-72 and T-90, K-9 Vajra-T self-propelled
(b) An Indian Army operation aimed at enhancing
howitzers, unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs), swarm
preparedness in high-altitude regions
drones, loitering munitions, anti-air defence systems, and
helicopters were participated in this exercise. (c) 
It is a cultural festival celebrated in the Himalayan
region
The Chinese standoff began after a series of clashes between
the Indian Army and Chinese soldiers at Pangong Tso Lake and
Galwan Valley in May and June 2020. The clashes in Galwan, on (d) 
Development of civilian infrastructure in
the intervening nights of June 15-16 2020, left twenty Indian and mountainous areas
an unknown number of Chinese soldiers dead. Answer: b
Since then, India has deployed more than 50,000 additional troops,
along with 500 tanks, artillery, and supporting infrastructure, in
the mountains of Eastern Ladakh.

DEFENCE & SECURITY  100

 SECTION

G SOCIAL ISSUES

CASE STUDY- WATER TANKER Positive impact on various stakeholders:

ECONOMY • Ensure timely supply of drinking water to the residents.
Why in News: The recent water crisis in various major cities • 
Commercialization of water as a commodity provides
of India has revealed the emerging concept of water tanker employment to large chunk of people.
economy. Negative Impacts on various stakeholders:

Key Details • Residents spend an average of Rs 12,000 on tanker water

during the three months of summer (May-July), approximately
• In Delhi, residents of some areas battle scarcity amidst Rs 30,000 on tankers each year.
tanker mafia monopoly.
• Due to collusion between private tanker mafia and DJB
• Nexus between Water Mafia and Politicians controls officials, water from government tankers is not delivered to
supply in Bengaluru which led residents of Bengaluru the needy, allowing the tanker business to profit.
line up for receiving water.
• Every family cannot afford a tanker
• Chennai grapples with tanker cartels’ stranglehold on
• Tanker mafias run a number of illegal borewells which will
water needs.
affect ground water level.
• In hydrologically rich Kolkata, the poor pay for the water
Response of Various stakeholders:
supply of rich people.
• 
Most residents have built underground tanks inside their
City Wise Case Studies homes to store water, as well as tanks on their roofs and in the
street.
Present Status of Water Tanker Economy in Delhi:
Present Status of Water Tank Economy in Bengaluru:
• Families are completely reliant on water from private tankers
to meet their needs. • Water tanker mafia is one of many lobbies that work closely
• The tanker’s water is only used for bathing, washing clothes with political parties. help us with the elections and we will
and cleaning utensils. Drinking water must be arranged get back your investment in the summer.
separately.
• Tanker operators get water while the Bengaluru Water Supply
• According to a recent study conducted by the Delhi-based
and Sewerage Board (BWSSB) does not, despite being a
think tank Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) in
government organization.
Sangam Vihar, this area with a population of more than 1
million receives only 45 litres of water per person per day
• Despite owning the pipelines, rivers, reservoirs, tanks, lakes
from all sources combined, despite the fact that the central
government’s standard for urban areas is 135 litres per day. and all water bodies, the BWSSB is unable to supply water to
This implies that only a third of the required quantity is the citizens, while the tanker operators can.
available.
• Residents from various neighborhoods in Bengaluru report
Why Water Tank Economy Grew in Delhi: being held hostage by these operators, who charge exorbitant
• Residents of some areas of Delhi faced difficulty in access to prices for basic water supply.
adequate and clean drinking water which led water tanker
businesses to utilize the opportunity. • A standard 12,000-litre tanker can cost between Rs 1,200 and
Rs 3,000, depending on urgency and location.
• Nexus between the water tanker mafia and politicians in
Delhi. • Prices may increase during the dry season or when the
• Lack of universal coverage of government water supply in all BWSSB’s supply is disrupted.
areas. The government supply of water does not reach their
Why Water Tank Economy Grew in Bengaluru:
home. Delhi Jal Board (DJB) water is available in a limited
quantity • Lack of strict regulatory frameworks and strong enforcement.
• As per court affidavit submitted by Board states, to the Positive impact on various stakeholders
National Green Tribunal (NGT). Only 32 of 40 STPs (sewage
treatment plants) mentioned are operational, . • Ensure timely supply of drinking water to the residents.

SOCIAL ISSUES  101

Negative Impacts on various stakeholders: resources, is now supplying 5.5 million litres of water daily
through tankers despite producing sufficient water for its
• Metropolis of Bengaluru, known as the Silicon Valley of India
residents.
led IT techies leaving for their hometowns.
• The situation in the city, built on a deltaic topography with the
• Water was available for those who could afford it. It widens Hooghly River nearby, hints at high wastage and distributional
the rich-poor gap. failures.
• It’s a classic case of supply and demand being manipulated to • Kolkata produces 479 million gallons daily (MGD), or 2,180
benefit a few at the expense of many. million litres daily (MLD), including about 182 MLD of
• 
Middle-class families in apartment complexes, gated groundwater.
communities and informal settlements alike depended on • Of this, around 1,700 MLD is designated for domestic use.
tankers. Considering the city’s estimated 5 million population, the
• High-rise buildings inhabited by high-income groups. They requirement is approximately 750 MLD.
do not mind paying for tanker water and do not mind if their • 
Even accounting for the additional 5 million people who
taps go dry. These are the first areas in the city to experience frequent the city daily, the produced water should suffice
dry taps.
Why Water Tank Economy Grew in Kolkata:
Response of Various stakeholders:
• Kolkata’s groundwater ranges from fresh to brackish with
• 
Citizens’ groups and non-governmental organisations are high hardness and iron levels, as well as occasional arsenic
stepping up their efforts to address the crisis. Initiatives like and manganese.
“Save Bangalore’s Lakes” and “Borewell Recharging Projects”
• Salinity, due to chloride content, is also a key issue.
aim to replenish the city’s groundwater levels and reduce
tanker dependency. • 
In the northern, southern, and central parts of the city,
groundwater is often unsuitable for drinking due to
• 
The tanker operators have created a parallel system that
contamination with sewage
exploits the city’s vulnerabilities
• Unplanned urbanization exacerbates these problems.
Present Status of Water Tank Economy in Chennai: Response of Various stakeholders:

• IT parks, high-rise apartments, and commercial complexes, • Although the government does not charge domestic users,
have become the epicenter of a lucrative and contentious both poor and rich often pay illegal suppliers in water-stressed
water tanker cartel operation, fueled by the area’s chronic areas.
water shortages. Water Tank Economy & Sustainability:
Why Water Tank Economy Grew in Chennai: • 
Tanker water markets (TWM) supply water services in
many urban areas, including those unconnected to public
• Daily water demands far exceed municipal supply, residents infrastructures.
and businesses along the corridor have increasingly turned to
private water tankers to bridge the gap. • Notwithstanding they have been associated with outcomes
in conflict with sustainability goals of water policy, e.g.,
• This reliance has enabled a network of water tanker operators through inequitable and unaffordable supply or by
to carve out a profitable niche, often at the expense of desperate contributing to groundwater overexploitation.
customers.
• We use the concept of sustainable access, which combines
• 
Behind this thriving business is a web of corruption and notions of what constitutes access to water and what
collusion. characterizes sustainable supply of services.
• Local officials responsible for regulating water supply and • 
The available evidence suggest that TWM have two key
tanker operations are frequently complicit. functions in urban water systems:
• The private water tankers have an association where they set � They provide services at otherwise unavailable level,
prices. particularly with respect to the temporal availability and
Positive impact on various stakeholders: spatial accessibility of the service.
� They extend access to areas without or with low-quality
• Ensure timely supply of drinking water to the residents.
network supply, typically low-income communities on the
Negative Impacts on various stakeholders: fringe of cities.
• 
The tankers frequently draw water from unregulated and • From the perspective of sustainable access, we find that TWM
sometimes illegal borewells. can provide high service levels and thus fill a specific gap in
the landscape of urban water services.
• This water is rarely treated or tested, posing serious health
risks to users. • Due to comparatively high prices, however, it is unlikely that
these services are affordable for all.
Present Status of Water Tank Economy in Kolkata: • The combination of heterogeneous access to cheaper
(subsidized) piped water and marginal pricing in TWM
• 
According to sources within the Kolkata Municipal results in allocation outcomes that are not coherent with
Corporation (KMC). Kolkata, a city traditionally rich in water existing notions of equitable access to water.

102 SOCIAL ISSUES

 • Gender Inequality: Women’s active participation in
• 
However, there is little convincing evidence that TWM
necessarily result in unsustainable water use. the economy is crucial for reducing gender inequality.
However, India faces a significant challenge: a low female
• The urban water governance in the studied areas is frequently
labour force participation rate (FLFPR).
characterized by a lack of effective institutions, which impedes
the regulation or formalization of TWM. ¾ According to the Economic Survey 2023-24, India’s
FLFPR was 37% (2022-23), significantly below the
world average of 47.8%. One key reason behind this
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE disparity is the disproportionate burden of care that
Descriptive Question women bear within families.
Q. In light of the Indian cities facing severe water stress • Care Burden: Women in India shoulder multiple care
and scarcity especially during summers, critically responsibilities, ranging from childcare to looking after
examine the water tanker economy and associated other household members—such as the elderly, sick, and
issues arising out of it. [15 marks] [250 words] disabled.
¾ Additionally, they perform substantial unpaid
domestic work. In fact, women aged 15-64 years
CASE STUDY - CARE ECOSYSTEM spend about three times more time daily on unpaid
domestic work than men.
Why in News: The development of a care economy is critical ¾ It often prevents women from participating fully in
for the long-term growth of India’s economy and for the the workforce.
balanced development of India’s society.
• Childcare as a Focus: To increase women’s participation
About Care Economy in the labour force, attention is now turning toward
childcare.
• It encompasses all the activities related to caregiving, both
paid and unpaid. It includes childcare, eldercare, care for ¾ Some State governments have been working on
people with disabilities, and other forms of support. building support services through the existing
Anganwadi network.
• While traditionally much of this work has fallen on
women within families, there’s a growing recognition ¾ In the 2024-25 Budget, there was a 3% increase in the
that it’s a shared responsibility that affects everyone. Ministry of Women and Child Development’s budget
for the integrated child care and nutrition program
Need for a Care Economy Strategy in India (Saksham Anganwadi and Poshan 2.0 scheme).
• Changing Demographics: India’s demographic • Beyond Childcare: While childcare is crucial, we must
landscape is expected to change between 2020 to 2050, recognize that women are primary caregivers across the
necessitating more elderly care alongside continuing entire life course of household members. Therefore, their
levels of childcare. care responsibilities need to shift elsewhere.
¾ A recent study from the United Nations Population
Fund finds that as of 2022, about 25% of India’s
population is between the ages of 0-14 years, and
10.5% is above 60 years, i.e. about 360 million children
and 147 million elderly persons require care.
¾ Over the next few decades, not only will the population
grow, but there will also be a demographic transition.
¾ By 2050, the proportion of elderly persons is expected
to increase to 20.8% of the population, i.e. about 347
million persons.
¾ Moreover, even as the proportion of children reduces
marginally to 18%, the number of children will still be
close to 300 million.
• Ageing Population: As life expectancy increases and birth
rates decline, the proportion of elderly individuals in our
society is rising. This demographic shift necessitates more
attention to elderly care.
• Continuing Childcare: Alongside the ageing population,
childcare remains crucial. Families still need support for
raising children, ensuring their healthy development,
and balancing work and family responsibilities.

SOCIAL ISSUES  103

Conclusion
• Common symptoms of mpox include a rash which may last
The shift in India’s demographic landscape implies the need for 2–4 weeks.
to strategically invest in healthcare, social support, and other
care infrastructure to cater to the evolving needs of an ageing • The rash looks like blisters or sores, and can affect the face,
population, alongside continuing levels of childcare services. palms of the hands, soles of the feet, groin, genital and/or
anal regions.
India needs a comprehensive policy that defines the care
ecosystem from a life course perspective. A committee of the • 
This may start with, or be followed by, fever, headache,
Ministries of Women and Child Development, Health and muscle aches, back pain, low energy and swollen glands
Family Welfare, Labour and Employment, Social Justice and (lymph nodes).
Empowerment, and Skill Development and Entrepreneurship
would be ideal to initiate the process. • In most cases, the symptoms of mpox go away on their own
within a few weeks with supportive care, such as medication
for pain or fever.
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
Descriptive Question • However, in some people, the illness can be severe or lead to
complications and even death. According to available data,
Q. 
The development of a care economy is critical for
between 0.1% and 10% of people with mpox have died.
the long-term growth of India’s economy and for the
balanced development of India’s society. Comment. • 
Newborn babies, children, people who are pregnant and
[10 marks] [150 words] people with underlying immune deficiencies such as from
advanced HIV disease may be at higher risk of more serious
mpox disease and death.
PUBLIC HEALTH EMERGENCY OF Spread of Mpox
INTERNATIONAL CONCERN • From person to person
Why in News: The World Health Organization (WHO) has � Mpox spreads from person to person mainly through close
recently declared mpox (formerly known as monkeypox) a contact with someone who has mpox.
Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC). � Close contact includes skin-to-skin and mouth-to-mouth,
or mouth-to-skin contact, and can also include being face-
Key Details
to-face with someone who has mpox (such as talking
• Mpox was declared PHEIC following its outbreak in or breathing close to one another, which can generate
the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC), Africa, infectious respiratory particles).
and subsequently spreading to over a dozen African � It is also possible for the virus to persist for some time on
countries. clothing, bedding, towels, objects, electronics and surfaces
• In the days following the PHEIC declaration, cases that have been touched by a person with mpox.
of mpox were identified in Sweden, Pakistan and the � The virus can also spread during pregnancy to the fetus,
Philippines, indicating that the virus has likely spread during or after birth through skin-to-skin contact, or from
beyond the African continent. a parent with mpox to an infant or child during close
• As countries closely monitor the mpox outbreak, the contact.
demand for vaccines is expected to surge. • From animals to humans
• The mpox outbreak presents an opportunity to apply � Someone who comes into physical contact with an animal
lessons from the COVID-19 pandemic. which carries the virus, such as some species of monkeys
or a terrestrial rodent (such as the tree squirrel) may also
Mpox develop mpox.

• Mpox is an illness caused by the monkeypox virus. � The virus can also be caught through eating contaminated
• It is a viral infection which can spread between people, mainly meat which is not cooked thoroughly.
through close contact, and occasionally from the environment • From humans to animals
to people via things and surfaces that have been touched by a
person with mpox. � There have been a few reports of the virus being identified
in pet dogs. However, it has not been confirmed whether
• 
In settings where the monkeypox virus is present among
these were true infections or whether the detection of virus
some wild animals, it can also be transmitted from infected
was related to surface contamination.
animals to people who have contact with them.
Treatment
Symptoms
• Many years of research on therapeutics for smallpox have led
• Mpox can cause a range of signs and symptoms. While some
to the development of products that may also be useful for
people have less severe symptoms, others may develop more
treating mpox.
serious illness and need care in a health facility.

104 SOCIAL ISSUES

 • An antiviral developed to treat smallpox (tecovirimat) was 2. Clade I caused the global outbreak that began in
approved in January 2022 by the European Medicines Agency 2022.
for the treatment of mpox under exceptional circumstances.
3. Clade I cause more severe illness and deaths.
Vaccine
• There are vaccines recommended by WHO for use against 4. Infections from clade II monkeypox are less severe.
mpox.
How many of the above statements are correct?
At present, WHO recommends use of MVA-BN or LC16
• 
vaccines, or the ACAM2000 vaccine when the others are not (a) Only one (b) Only two
available.
(c) Only three (d) All four
• The Modified Vaccinia Ankara-Bavarian Nordic (MVA-BN),
also known as Jynneos, is already in production by Danish Answer: c (1, 3 and 4)
manufacturer Bavarian Nordic. This vaccine, produced using
primary chick embryo fibroblast (CEF) cell cultures. Descriptive Question
• India is well-positioned to meet this challenge. Three major Q. What is mpox disease? What are the different clades
vaccine manufacturers — the Serum Institute of India, Bharat (types) of mpox pathogen? Discuss the transmission
Biotech, and Zydus Cadila — already have the experience of and history of mpox outbreaks. [15 marks] [250 words]
producing vaccines using CEF cells.
• India’s drug regulatory agency, the Central Drugs Standard
Control Organization (CDSCO), waived the requirement PARTICULARLY VULNERABLE
for clinical trials in India for ‘new drugs used in pandemic
situations’.
TRIBAL GROUPS
Different Virus Clades Why in News: District Level Committee in Odisha’s Keonjhar
district has recently approved habitat rights of Juanga tribe.
• There are two broad clades of the virus: clade I and II.
• Clade II was behind the global mpox outbreak that began in Key Details
2022. • The Juanga tribe under Juanga Development Agency will
• The current understanding is that clade I leads to more severe have habitat rights over an area of 64951.4 hectare (ha) of
disease and death than clade II in the populations where it is forestland.
endemic.
• In March 2024, habitat right of Paudi Bhuyan, a PVTG,
• A new offshoot of clade I virus, called clade Ib, was first was approved over an area of 21310.17 ha in Deogarh
reported in the Democratic Republic of the Congo in 2023. district, marking Odisha’s first habiat right.
Challenge • Odisha has total 13 PVGTs which is maximum number
• 
Rapidly scaling up MVA-BN production will require among the other states. 1. Birhor 2. Bondo 3. Chuktia
comprehensive technology transfer, including the sharing of Bhunjia 4. Didayi 5. Juang 6. Kharia 7.Dongria Khond 8.
biological resources, know-how, and patents. Kutia Khond 9. Lanjia Saora 10. Lodha 11. Mankidia 12.
Paudi Bhuyan 13. Saora
Conclusion
About Habitat Rights
A PHEIC is intended to foster international cooperation.
Countries, international organisations, and non-governmental • Habitat rights recognition provides the community
organisations must collaborate to coordinate their responses, concerned rights over their customary territory of
share information, and provide mutual assistance. The habitation, socio-cultural practices, economic and
declaration should trigger the rapid mobilisation of financial livelihood means, intellectual knowledge of biodiversity
and technical resources, including emergency funding, and ecology, traditional knowledge of use of natural
deployment of trained health-care workers, and provision of resources, as well as protection and conservation of their
medical supplies. natural and cultural heritage.

• Habitat rights safeguard and promote traditional

livelihood and ecological knowledge passed down
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
through generations.
Prelims MCQ
• They also help converge different government schemes
Q. 
Consider the following statements regarding and initiatives from various departments to empower
Monkeypox virus: PVTG communities to develop their habitats.

1. 
There are two major types of Monkeypox virus Regulation of Habitat rights
variants. • Habitat rights are given to PVTGs under section 3(1)

SOCIAL ISSUES  105

 (e) [rights including community tenures of habitat and • According to Section 2(h) of FRA, “Habitat includes the
habitation for primitive tribal groups and pre-agricultural area comprising the customary habitat and such other
communities] of The Scheduled Tribes and Other habitats in reserved forests and protected forests of
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) primitive tribal groups and pre-agricultural communities
Act, 2006 also known as the Forest Rights Act (FRA). and other forest dwelling Scheduled Tribes.”

106 SOCIAL ISSUES

 The State’s Role in Upholding Human Rights
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
• The state has a crucial responsibility to restore personal
Prelims MCQ liberty and bring violators to justice, aligning with the
Universal Declaration of Human Rights.
• Achieving this requires strong institutions that prioritize
Q. 
Consider the following statements about Habitat
human rights as fundamental to their political ideology.
Rights and Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups
(PVTGs): In liberal systems, human rights should be central to
ensuring public welfare and stability.
• Establishing the centrality of human rights is crucial
1. Habitat rights provide the community concerned
in a world of increasing violations, especially in liberal
with rights over their customary territory, including
their socio-cultural practices and traditional systems that promote stability through public welfare.
knowledge of natural resources. Achieving this requires a unified approach, consolidating
political coalitions, institutional frameworks, and
2. Habitat rights for PVTGs are recognized under ideologies to ensure compliance and accountability.
The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest • Failure by the state to champion these rights can legitimize
Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. resistance activism, especially in the face of authoritarian
regimes where human rights are often disregarded.
3. Odisha has the highest number of Particularly
Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) among Indian Approach to Ensure Human Rights Standard
states. • Enforcement of Economic Sanctions or Military
Invasion: Economic sanctions and military invasion are
4. Recently, Juanga tribe became first tribe in India to a powerful tool that can be used to enforce compliance
get habitat right under Forest right Act, 2006. with human rights norms by exerting financial pressure
on a country or regime.
Which of the statements given above are correct? ¾ In 1999, NATO intervened militarily in Kosovo to halt
ethnic cleansing by Yugoslav forces, leading to their
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2, and 3 only withdrawal and an UN-administered region. This
action stopped the abuses but was controversial for
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 bypassing the UN Security Council.
Answer: b ¾ During apartheid, South Africa faced international
economic sanctions due to its racial segregation
policies. These sanctions, imposed by the UN and
Western countries, pressured the government to end
VIOLATION OF HUMAN RIGHTS its discriminatory practices.
• Naming and Shaming: It is through forceful condemnation
Why in News: Maharashtra Human Rights Commission has which can be undertaken by non-governmental
recently recommended compensation and disciplinary action organisations or smaller nations, irrespective of their
against Pantnagar police for illegally detaining a contractor military or economic power or their lack of adequate
and labourers without a complaint. international clout.

SOCIAL ISSUES  107

 • These programs will include campus-based, residential
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
or web-based training, in partnership with the WHO
Academy and other strategic partners.
Prelims MCQ
• In 2023, India signed a five-year agreement to support the
Q. Which of the following are functions of the National technical work of WHO’s Traditional, Complementary
Human Rights Commission (NHRC) in India? and Integrative Medicine (TCI) unit.
• The unit develops key benchmark documents,
1. Investigating human rights violations. standardised terminologies, and other evidence-
informed technical products to enhance the acceptability
2. 
Recommending compensation for victims of human
and credibility of the traditional medicine systems.
rights abuses.
About WHO Global Traditional Medicine Centre
3. 
Implementing laws related to human rights at the
• It is a knowledge hub for traditional medicine focusing on
state level.
five inter-connected areas of work — research and evidence;
primary health care and universal health coverage; indigenous
Select the correct answer
knowledges and biodiversity; digital health applications and
the biennial WHO Global Traditional Medicine Summit and
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only collaborations.

(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3 • 

It has a strategic focus on evidence and learning, data
and analytics, sustainability and equity, and innovation
Answer: a and technology to optimize the contribution of traditional
medicine to global health and sustainable development.
Descriptive Question • At the same time it will show respect for local heritages,
resources and rights is a guiding principle.
Q. 
Discuss the role of human rights commissions in • Government of India are supporting the establishment of the
addressing illegal detention by law enforcement WHO Global Traditional Medicine as a global good and in the
agencies. Evaluate the effectiveness of ‘naming and spirit of Vasudhaiva Kudumbakam: the world is one family.
shaming’ compared to other methods like economic
sanctions and military intervention in promoting
human rights. [15 marks] [250 words] EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

TRADITIONAL MEDICINE CENTRE Q. With reference to the WHO Global Traditional Medicine
Centre (GTMC) in Jamnagar, Gujarat, consider the
Why in News: Recently Ayush Ministry and the World Health following statements:
Organisation have signed a donor agreement in Geneva.
1. The WHO Global Traditional Medicine Centre is the
Key Details first and only global out-posted centre for traditional
• This agreement, which outlines the financial terms for medicine across the globe.
implementing the activities of the WHO Global Traditional 2. India will donate $ 85 million over a period of 10
Medicine Centre (GTMC) in Jamnagar, Gujarat. years to support the operations of the WHO Global
• India will donate US$ 85 million over a period of 10 Traditional Medicine Centre.
years (2022-2032) to support the operations of the WHO
3. 
The WHO Global Traditional Medicine Centre
Global Traditional Medicine Centre (GTMC) in Jamnagar,
focuses on areas such as primary health care, digital
Gujarat, India.
health applications, and indigenous knowledge.
• The WHO-India donor agreement is part of a $250 million
investment from India in support of the establishment of 4. The WHO Global Traditional Medicine Centre was
the WHO Global Centre of Traditional Medicine in 2022 established with the help of WHO and financial
support from the members of WHO.
• It recognizes the establishment of the WHO Global
Traditional Medicine Centre as a key knowledge hub Which of the statements given above are correct?
for evidence-based Traditional Complementary and
Integrative Medicine (TCIM) aiming to advance the (a) 1, 2, and 3 only (b) 1, 2, and 4 only
health and well-being of people and the planet.
(c) 2, 3, and 4 only (d) 1, 3, and 4 only
• WHO Global Traditional Medicine Centre in Jamnagar, Answer: a
Gujarat is the first and only global out-posted Centre
(office) for traditional medicine across the globe.

108 SOCIAL ISSUES

 • Married couples (whether they have biological son/
MODEL GUIDELINES FOR FOSTER daughter or not) who want to foster must have stable
CARE marital relationship of two years.
Why in News: Recently, Ministry of Women and Child • The guidelines have also allowed the foster parent to
Development has released Model Foster Care Guidelines adopt a child after she has been in her foster care for
(MFCG), 2024. minimum of two years, as opposed to five years earlier.

Nurturing Futures: The Benefits of Foster Care for Everyone

Difference between Foster Care and Adoption
• Benefits for the Foster Child
• Foster Care: In sub-section 29 of section of JJ Act
defines “foster care” means placement of a child, by � Safe and Stable Environment: Provides a safe and stable
home, especially for children coming from abusive or
the Committee for the purpose of alternate care in the
neglectful situations.
domestic environment of a family, other than the child’s
� Emotional Support: Foster children receive emotional
biological family, that has been selected, qualified,
support and nurturing that can help them heal from past
approved and supervised for providing such care. trauma.
¾ In India, children who can be fostered have to be above � Education and Healthcare Access: They often gain access
the age of six years living in child care institutions to better education, healthcare, and other essential services.
and having “unfit guardians”. � Opportunities for Growth: Exposure to new experiences,
¾ Minors who are placed in the category of “hard to skills, and opportunities that might not have been available
place or children having special needs” can also be in their previous environment.
fostered. � Sense of Belonging: Foster care can offer a sense of family
and belonging, which is crucial for emotional and social
• Adoption: In sub-section 2 of section 2 of JJ Act defines development.
“adoption” means the process through which the adopted
• Benefits for the Foster Parents:
child is permanently separated from his biological parents
and becomes the lawful child of his adoptive parents � Fulfillment and Purpose: Foster parents often find deep
personal fulfillment and a sense of purpose in caring for
with all the rights, privileges and responsibilities that are
children in need.
attached to a biological child.
� Positive Impact: They have the opportunity to make a
Key Details of the Revised Guidelines lasting positive impact on a child’s life and selflessness that
arises from fostering children translates into other areas
• The 2016 guidelines have been revised in accordance with
of your life, helping you become a more conscious and
the amendment to Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection intentional person.
of Children) Act in 2021 and the Juvenile Justice (Care
� Family Enrichment: Fostering can enrich the family
and Protection of Children) Model Rules of 2022. dynamic by teaching values like empathy, patience, and
• Single individuals including those who are unmarried, generosity.
widowed, divorced, or legally separated aged between • Benefits for Society:
35 to 60 years are allowed to foster a child and adopt after � Reducing Homelessness and Crime: Providing children
two years. with stable homes reduces the likelihood of future
homelessness, criminal activity, and other social issues.
� Economic Savings: Early intervention in a child’s life
can reduce future social and economic costs related to
healthcare, crime, and welfare dependency.
� Social Responsibility: It reflects a society’s commitment to
protecting and nurturing its vulnerable members.
Breaking the Cycle: Foster care helps break the cycle
� 
of abuse, neglect, and poverty, contributing to healthier
future generations.
� Community Strengthening: When children are well-
cared for, they grow into productive members of society,
strengthening the community as a whole.

EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE

Descriptive Question

Q. How is foster care different from adoption? Analyse

• A single woman can foster and eventually adopt a child the benefits of foster care for the different stakeholders
of any gender, a man can only do so for male children. involved. [15 marks] [250 words]

SOCIAL ISSUES  109

 and nurses at every medical establishment to conduct
HEALTHCARE WORKERS quarterly audits on institutional safety measures and
Why in News: The Supreme Court of India recently constituted ensuring compliance of the Sexual Harassment of Women
a national task force (NTF) of senior medical professionals at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal)
to formulate comprehensive safety protocols for healthcare Act, 2013.
workers across India.

Key Details MINIMUM MARRIAGE AGE FOR

• The Supreme Court bench, led by Chief Justice of India GIRLS
(CJI) DY Chandrachud, took suo motu cognisance of the Why in News: Himachal Pradesh has recently passed
Kolkata rape & murder case, emphasising the urgent need ‘the Prohibition of Child Marriage (Himachal Pradesh
for a national consensus on standard safety protocols for Amendment) Bill, 2024’ to raise women’s marriage age.
medical professionals.
Key Details
• The Prohibition of Child Marriage (Himachal Pradesh
Amendment) Bill, 2024 aimed to raise the minimum age
of marriage for women from 18 to 21 years.
• The bill seeks to amend the Prohibition of Child Marriage
Act, 2006 (2006 Act) to advance gender equality and
encourage higher education among women.
• With this Himachal Pradesh becomes the first State in
India to enact the legislation to increase the marriage age
of girls to 21.
Key Provisions
• Currently, Section Section 2(a) of the 2006 Act defines
a “child” as someone “who, if male, has not completed
twenty-one years of age, and if female, has not completed
eighteen years of age.” The Bill removes this gender-based
distinction, redefining a “child” as “a male or female who
has not completed twenty-one years of age.”
• The Bill also extends the time period for filing a petition
to annul a marriage. Under Section 3 of the 2006 Act, an
individual who was a minor at the time of marriage can
• The apex court has directed the NTF to submit an interim file for annulment within two years of attaining majority
report on its proposed action plan within three weeks, —before turning 20 for women and 23 for men.
with a final report due within two months. • The Bill extends this period to five years, allowing both
women and men to file petitions before they turn 23, in
What will the task force do?
accordance with the new minimum marriageable age of
• The NTF will prepare an action-plan under the heads 21 years.
preventing violence, including gender-based violence
• A new provision, Section 18A, has also been introduced
against medical professionals; providing an enforceable
to ensure that the Bill’s provisions take precedence over
national protocol for dignified and safe working
all other existing laws.
conditions for interns, residents, senior residents, doctors,
nurses and all medical professionals. ¾ This means that the new minimum marriageable age
for women will apply uniformly across Himachal
• To prevent violence, the action plan shall address issues
Pradesh, regardless of any conflicting laws or
like ensuring due security in medical establishments
religious and cultural practices.
including preventing intoxicated persons from entering
the premises of the medical establishment, unless they The Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution
are patients; infrastructural development such as outlines subjects on which both the central and state governments
provision of separate resting rooms and duty rooms in can legislate. Entry 5 of this list deals with the subject of marriage
each department for male and female doctors, male and and divorce enabling both the Centre and states to enact laws to
female nurses; and a gender-neutral common resting regulate child marriages.
space. • At Union level, the Prohibition of Child Marriage
• It shall also explore constitution of “Employees Safety (Amendment) Bill, 2021 was introduced in the Lok Sabha
Committees” comprising doctors, interns, residents

110 SOCIAL ISSUES

 in December 2021 and was subsequently referred to a EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
parliamentary standing committee for review.
Prelims MCQ
• 
However, despite receiving multiple extensions, the
31-member committee failed to table its report. Q. Consider the following statements:
1. Marriage and divorce is mentioned in the Union
List in Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
Conclusion
2. 
State Amendments to central laws dealing with
The 2008 Law Commission Report recommended setting concurrent list subjects repugnant to the original
a uniform age of marriage for both men and women at 18 law require President’s assent.
years. The National Human Rights Commission in 2018 Which of the statements above is/are correct?
too proposed a similar reform. However, it is also been
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
argued that in a patriarchal society, increasing the minimum
marriage age may further entrench parental control over (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
young adults and is likely to endanger the life and liberty Answer: b
of the marginalised communities exposing them to further
brutal policing.

SOCIAL ISSUES  111

 SECTION

H HISTORY & CULTURE

KARTARPUR SAHIB CORRIDOR Culture: Key Pillar of Soft Power

• The culture of a nation is representative of a country’s
Why in News: Pakistan has recently completed the 420-metre-
ideas and values. Religion and culture has been used
long bridge at the Kartarpur Sahib Corridor zero line.
often as a measure to sustain regimes, and as a powerful
Kartarpur Corridor tool in politics, diplomacy and international relations.
• Village Kartarpur is located at the west bank of river Ravi
• The term ‘Soft Power’ coined by Joseph Nye, is the ability
where Sri Guru Nanak Dev Ji spent the last 18 years of his
to attract and co-opt, rather than coerce.
life. Gurdwara Dera Baba Nanak is about 1 km from the
Indo- Pakistan border and on the east bank of River Ravi. • The three pillars of soft power are political values, culture
• To the west side of the river is located the town of and foreign policy. Soft power uses a country’s economic
Kartarpur, Pakistan. Gurdwara Sri Kartarpur Sahib falls and cultural influence to persuade countries to do
in district Narowal of Pakistan, about 4.5 k.m. from the something, rather than by using military influence.
international border near the historic town of Dera Baba
• Cultural diplomacy is a phenomenon where states utilise
Nanak, District Gurdaspur, Punjab.
their culture to achieve their foreign policy goals.
• The Indian part of Dera Baba Nanak - Sri Kartarpur
Sahib corridor involves a 4.1 k.m. long four lane highway India-Pakistan Cultural Ties
from Dera Baba Nanak to international border and a
• Language Homogeneity: The cultural similarities between
state of the art Passenger Terminal Building (PTB) at the
India and Pakistan are clearly reflected in the languages spoken
international border. in both countries. This linguistic commonality facilitates the
• Dera Baba Nanak is a city situated in Gurdaspur district sharing and enjoyment of cultural activities between the two
in the state of Punjab, India. Followers of Sri Guru Nanak countries.
Dev Ji built the town and named it Dera Baba Nanak after � Urdu and Punjabi are widely spoken across both nations,
their great ancestor. with 36 million people in India identifying Punjabi as their
first language and 63 million using Urdu.
Additionally, both India and Pakistan have adopted
� 
English, a legacy from their colonial history, as an official
language.
• Cricket: Cricket diplomacy refers to using the sport as a means
to influence diplomatic relations between the two nations. This
form of diplomacy has a history as complex as the political ties
between India and Pakistan. While cricket has occasionally
reflected a sense of peace, this is often disrupted by political
tensions.

� Former Pakistani President General Zia-ul-Haq initiated

cricket diplomacy in 1987 when he visited India to watch a
test match, promoting “cricket for peace.”

• 
Attracting Each Other’s Audiences: Indian and Pakistani
cultural products, such as films, music, and television dramas,
have a strong influence on each other’s audiences.

� Bollywood movies are highly popular in Pakistan, often

leading to packed cinemas and widespread discussions.

� Similarly, Pakistani TV dramas, known for their storytelling

and high production quality, have gained a substantial
viewership in India.

HISTORY & CULTURE  112

• Shaping Perceptions: Cultural exports from India and Which of the statements above is/are correct?
Pakistan often reflect the values and ideas of their respective
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
societies, influencing how they perceive each other.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
� For example, the popularity of Pakistani music in India, Answer: c
especially Sufi and Qawwali genres, has led to a greater
appreciation of Pakistan’s rich cultural heritage.
Descriptive Question
� The appeal of Indian films in Pakistan has fostered a sense Q. Despite their geo-political tensions, India and Pakistan
of shared cultural identity, helping to humanize the “other” share deep rooted cultural ties. Comment. [10 marks]
and challenge negative stereotypes. [150 words]
• Fostering Diplomatic Relations Through Culture: Cultural
exchanges between India and Pakistan have played a crucial
role in softening diplomatic relations. Joint initiatives like RATNA BHANDAR OF PURI
concerts, literary festivals, and art exhibitions have provided
platforms for people-to-people interactions. JAGANNATH TEMPLE
Why in News: The Puri Jagannath Temple‘s ‘Ratna Bhandar’
� For instance, in 2010, the Aman ki Asha campaign brought
together artists and intellectuals from both countries, was recently reopened after 46 years of repairs and taking
promoting peace and understanding through cultural inventory of valuables.
dialogue, even when official diplomatic channels were
strained.
About Ratna Bhandar
• The gold and jewels offered by devotees to the deities
• 
Economic and Creative Collaboration: Despite political at the Puri Jagannath temple — Lord Jagannath, Lord
barriers, there has been significant collaboration between Balabhadra and Goddess Subhadra — is stored in the
Indian and Pakistani artists, particularly in the entertainment
Ratna Bhandar, located adjacent to the Jagamohan (prayer
industry. This collaboration not only strengthens cultural ties
hall) at the north side of the temple.
but also creates economic opportunities for artists in both
countries • Under the Jagannath Temple Act, 1952, a list of the
ornaments and gold offered to the deities was prepared
� 70% percent of the Pakistani movie industry’s revenue is and preserved in the Record Room of the Puri collectorate.
said to be from Indian movies.
• The safety of the Ratna Bhandar vests with the Temple’s
• 
Reinforcing National Identity Through Shared Culture: Managing Committee, which is headed by titular
Both India and Pakistan have used their cultural products to ‘King of Puri’ Dibyasingha Deb (Chairman), the Chief
assert their national identities, but these efforts have also led Administrator (an IAS-level officer) and other members
to a recognition of shared cultural roots. appointed or nominated by the State government.
For example, the classical music traditions of both
�  • The temple committee and the Puri collectorate had
countries are deeply intertwined, and performances by copies of the keys to the Ratna Bhandar.
artists from either side are appreciated in both countries. Types of Ratna Bhandar
This shared cultural heritage helps reinforce a sense of
common identity, reminding people of the deep historical • Bhitar Bhandar (Inner Treasury): The articles in ‘Bhitar
and cultural connections between India and Pakistan. Bhandar’- which are never used.
¾ It has 367 gold items including ornaments studded
with precious stones, plates of gold, pearls, diamonds,
EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE corals and other precious stones and 231 items of
silver articles.
Prelims MCQ ¾ The items in the Bhitar Bhandar are stored under a
double lock, sealed by the Managing Committee,
Q. Consider the following statements regarding Holy and the keys are generally deposited by the temple
Sikh Pilgrimage Sites: administration in the Government treasury.
1. Gurdwara Darbar Sahib Kartarpur and Gurdwara ¾ The locks may be opened only if ordered by the State
Janam Asthan are two of the holiest Sikh pilgrimage government.
sites located in Pakistan. • Bahar Bhandar (Outer Treasury): There are articles which
are used only for ceremonial purposes and then for daily
2. The Kartarpur Corridor allows Sikh pilgrims to visit use the articles are kept in ‘Bahar Bhandar’.
the Kartarpur Sahib Gurudwara in Pakistan without
a visa. ¾ It stores 87 pieces of gold ornaments, some with
precious stones, and 62 pieces of silver items.

113 HISTORY & CULTURE

 ¾ Items used for special occasions are stored under
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
double lock in the Bahar Bhandar, which may be
opened in the presence of temple officials and the Prelims MCQ
Chief administrator from time to time.
Q. Consider the following statements regarding Jagannath
¾ Items used daily are locked and under the protection
Temple, Puri:
of the Bhandar Mekap.
¾ The last two types of ornaments stored in the outer 1. It is one of the four holiest Hindu temple sites in
treasury are compared and verified periodically — at India known as Chaar Dhaam.
least once every six months.
2. 
The main shrine is built by Anantavarman
When was it was last opened? Chodaganga, the founder of Ganga Dynasty in the
• The ‘Ratna Bhandar’ was first opened in 1905 by the tenth century.
British administration for inspection. Later they made a Which of the statements above is/are correct?
record of the items/jewels in 1926.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
• Post-Independence, it was opened in 1978 by the then
Odisha Governor Bhagabat Dayal Sharma. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
¾ As per the inventory, gold items weighing 4364 bhari Answer: c
(50 kilograms) and 14,878 bhari (173 kilograms) of
silver were stored in the inner treasury, apart from a
sizeable amount of gold ornaments used regularly in
temple rituals. HUMAYUN’S TOMB WORLD
• It was once again opened in 1985 for maintenance work, HERITAGE SITE MUSEUM
but no inventory was conducted.
Why in News: The Union Minister of Culture and Tourism
• On April 4, 2018, the temple administration wanted recently inaugurated Humayun’s Tomb World Heritage Site
to open the inner treasury for inspection but couldn’t Museum.
because they couldn’t find the keys to the room.
About Humayun’s Tomb World Heritage Site Museum
• The Museum, spread over one lakh square feet is located
in a corner of Sunder Nursery next to the mausoleum of
second Mughal emperor Humayun in Nizamuddin area.
• The Museum is a facility of the Archaeological Survey of
India designed and built in collaboration with the Aga
Khan Trust for Culture (AKTC).
• Inspired from the ancient ‘Baolis’ or stepped wells of
Delhi, this underground museum is designed to retain the
visual integrity of the monuments located in the complex.
• Background
¾ It is an UNESCO recommendation that interpretation
centres/ site museums be provided at the entrance
zone of significant World Heritage Sites to provide
the cultural context of the heritage site and thus
significantly enhance the visitor experience.
¾ The Museum is designed to be underground so as to
retain the visual integrity of the monuments located
in the complex.

• Artefacts

¾ The Museum has over 500 never seen before artefacts

- from the collections of the National Museum,
Archaeological Survey of India and Aga Khan Trust
for Culture.
¾ Mughal miniatures, manuscripts, significant
architectural elements from Humayun’s Mausoleum
and monuments in the complex, coins, contemporary

HISTORY & CULTURE  114

 art and craft pieces, astrolabes and celestial spheres
favoured by the Mughals amidst other metalware, CLASSICAL LANGUAGES IN INDIA
several stone inscriptions dating from the 14th Why in News: Special Centres for promotion of classical
century onwards, glass, textiles, are all on display. Telugu, Odia, Kannada and Malayala are demanding
autonomy in their functioning.

Key Details
• India has six classical languages — Tamil, Sanskrit,
Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, and Odia. While four of
the centres for classical languages function under the
aegis of the Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL),
Mysuru, the centre for Tamil is autonomous.
¾ The chief problem facing these four language centres
was that any event or activity planned for them had
to get financial sanction from the CIIL.
¾ Most of the time, the centre has to hold the event
first and then get the cost reimbursed from the
CIIL, making it difficult to organise many such
programmes.

¾ This also means many positions for research scholars

as well as administrative staff remain vacant in the
absence of regular funds.

• Recently, the Project Directors of the centres for Telugu,

Kannada, Malayalam and Odia demanded that their
institutes be made autonomous.
¾ Following this, the centres were asked to submit
detailed project reports, which was done in June.
¾ However, no further direction has been received from
the Union Education Ministry as of now.

About Classical Languages

EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
• India currently recognizes six languages as classical:
Prelims MCQ
� Tamil: Declared in 2004, Tamil was the first language to
Q. Consider the following statements regarding a receive this status.
monument in India:
1. It was the first garden-tomb on the Indian � Sanskrit: Accorded classical language status in 2005.
subcontinent made up of red sandstone.
� Telugu: Declared in 2008.
2. It was commissioned by Empress Bega Begum (also
known as Haji Begum), in 1560s, and designed by � Kannada: Also recognized in 2008.
Mirak Mirza Ghiyas and his son, Sayyid Muhammad.
� Malayalam: Added to the list in 2013.
3. It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in
1993. � Odia: The latest to be recognized, was in 2014.

The above statements describe: Criteria for eligibility: The government’s current criteria for
declaring a language as classical include the following:
(a) Red Fort, Delhi
• The language should have a long history of at least 1,500-2,000
(b) Agra Fort years, documented in early texts.

(c) Buland Darwaza, Fatehpur Sikri • It should possess a body of ancient literature that is highly
regarded as a cultural heritage by generations of speakers.
(d) Humayun’s Tomb, Delhi
Answer: d • The literary tradition of the language should be original and
not borrowed from another speech community.

115 HISTORY & CULTURE

  The oval shaped structure spans over an area of
• The classical language and its literature should be distinct
from its modern form, potentially showing a discontinuity
180 sq.km.
between the classical language and its later forms or offshoots. ¾ Chandragupt Ridge
Benefits of Classical Language Status:  Discovered in 2020
• Once a language is designated as classical, the Ministry of  Named after Mauryan King Chandragupt
Education provides various benefits to promote it, including:  Elongated and oval shaped body covering a total
• 
Two major international awards annually for scholars of area of 675 sq.km.
eminence in the language. ¾ Kalpataru Ridge
• Establishment of a Centre of Excellence for Studies in the  Discovered in 2012
Classical Language.
 Elongated shape; Area of 430 sq.km.
• Requesting the University Grants Commission (UGC) to
create Professional Chairs in Central Universities dedicated to
the classical language.

EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. Identify the true statements about classical languages

in India:

1. The first declared classical language in India was

Sanskrit.

2. Only six languages have been identified so far.

3. Classical languages are identified once in five years.

4. The languages of all the four South Indian states

come under the classical category.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one (b) Only two

(c) Only three (d) All four

Answer: b (1 and 4)
• These are located along the Southwest Indian Ridge
area of the Indian Ocean and were discovered during an
international survey exploration programme.
UNDERWATER STRUCTURES • All the three named structures were discovered by
IN THE INDIAN OCEAN oceanographers from the National Centre for Polar and
Ocean Research (NCPOR), Goa.
Why in News: Recently, underwater geographical structures
located in the Indian Ocean have been awarded names • There are now seven structures in the Indian Ocean
proposed by India. named mainly after Indian scientists or bear names
proposed by India in the region of the Indian Ocean.
Key Details
• International Hydrographic Organization (IHO)
and UNESCO’s Intergovernmental Oceanographic
Commission (IOC) have recently awarded names to three
underwater geographical structures located in the Indian
Ocean, proposed by India.

¾ Ashoka Seamount
• The worldwide ocean data is maintained and provided
 Discovered in 2012
by the General Bathymetric Chart of Oceans operating
 Named after Mauryan King Ashoka. under the IOC and IHO.

HISTORY & CULTURE  116

National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR) 1. 
It is India’s premier R&D institution responsible
National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research is India’s premier for the country’s research activities in the Polar and
R&D institution responsible for the country’s research activities Southern Ocean realms.
in the Polar and Southern Ocean realms.
2. 
It functions under the Ministry of Science and
It functions under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, Government
Technology, Government of India.
of India.
The mandate of NCPOR is multi-dimensional: Which of the statements above is/are correct?
• Leadership role in niche areas of scientific research in the
domain of polar and ocean sciences. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
• Lead role in the geoscientific surveys of the country’s EEZ and (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
its extended continental shelf beyond 200M, deep-sea drilling Answer: a
in the Arabian Sea basin through the IODP, exploration for
ocean non-living resources such as the gas hydrates and
multi-metal sulphides in mid-ocean ridges.
• Facilitatory role in the scientific research activities being NATIONAL CULTURE FUND
undertaken by several national institutions and organizations
in Antarctica, the Arctic and in the Indian Ocean sector of the
Why in News: The Ministry of Culture and Tourism recently
Southern Ocean.
highlighted the achievements made in the National Mission
• Management role in implementing all scientific and logistics for Manuscripts and National Culture Fund.
activities related to the Annual Indian Expeditions to the
Antarctic, Arctic and Southern Ocean. About National Culture Fund (NCF)
• Management and upkeep of the Indian Antarctic Research
• It is a trust under Ministry of Culture, Govt. of India ,
Bases “Maitri” and “Bharati”, and the Indian Arctic base
“Himadri”
Serves as a financing mechanism for enabling-donor/
sponsor institution to support Protection, Restoration,
• Management of the Ministry’s research vessel ORV Sagar Conservation and Development of India’s rich tangible
Kanya as well as the other research vessels chartered by the
and intangible culture and heritage(Monuments/Cultural
Ministry.
Traditions) directly as partners with the Government.

EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE • The Government of India has set up National Culture
Fund (NCF) as a Trust on 28th November, 1996 under the
Prelims MCQ Charitable Endowment Act, 1890 with a view to mobilize
extra resources through Public Private Partnerships (PPP)
Q. Consider the following statements regarding National
towards promoting, protecting and preserving India’s
Centre for Polar and Ocean Research (NCPOR):
tangible & intangible cultural heritage.

117 HISTORY & CULTURE

Role of NCF
2. Donations under the fund are eligible for 100% tax
• NCF plays an important role by forging partnerships benefit under Income Tax Act.
with Corporates, NGOs etc. in getting the preservation
& conservation related heritage projects implemented as 3. It was set up to mobilize extra resources through
per norms. Public Private Partnerships (PPP) towards
promoting, protecting and preserving India’s
• NCF can receive donations from Corporates, PSUs, tangible & intangible cultural heritage.
Trusts and Individuals for maintenance and preservation
of Centrally Projected monuments/ cultural projects How many of the above statements are correct?
through NCF.
• NCF provides the donor/sponsor the flexibility to indicate (a) Only one (b) Only two
a project along with any specific location/aspect and also
an implementing agency for execution of the project. (c) All three (d) None
Answer: c
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE

Prelims MCQ

Q. Consider the following statements regarding National

Culture Fund (NCF):

1. It is established as a trust under Ministry of Culture,

Govt. of India.

HISTORY & CULTURE  118

 SECTION

I GOVERNMENT SCHEMES

PRADHAN MANTRI JI-VAN Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme

YOJANA • The Government has actively promoted blending ethanol with

petrol through the Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme,
Why in News: Union Cabinet has recently approved where Public Sector Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) sell
amendment in “Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN (Jaiv Indhan- ethanol-blended petrol.
Vatavaran Anukool fasal awashesh Nivaran) Yojana”. • Since the inception of the EBP Programme, ethanol blending
has increased from 38 crore litres in the Ethanol Supply Year
Key Details (ESY) 2013-14 to over 500 crore litres in ESY 2022-23.
• To allow financial support to Advanced Biofuel Projects • The blending percentage rose from 1.53% to 12.06% during
using lignocellulosic biomass and other renewable this period. Notably, the blending percentage reached 15.83%
feedstock. in July 2024, and the cumulative blending percentage has
• The modified scheme extends timeline for implementation exceeded 13% in the current ESY 2023-24.
of scheme by Five (5) year i.e. till 2028-29 and includes Key Facets of EBP Programme
advanced biofuels produced from lignocellulosic
• Blending Target: OMCs aim to achieve a 20% ethanol blending
feedstocks i.e. agricultural and forestry residues, target by the end of the Ethanol Supply Year (ESY) 2025-26.
industrial waste, synthesis (syn) gas, algae etc. in its
• Ethanol Requirement: Approximately 1,100 crore litres of
scope.
ethanol will be needed to reach this 20% blending target.
• The scheme aims to provide remunerative income
• Distillation Capacity: To meet the blending requirement and
to farmers for their agriculture residue, address
other uses, 1,750 crore litres of ethanol distillation capacity
environmental pollution, create local employment
needs to be installed.
opportunities, and contribute to India’s energy security
and self-reliance. • Focus on 2G Ethanol: The Government is promoting 2nd-
generation (2G) Ethanol, which is derived from surplus
• It also supports the development of advanced biofuel biomass, agricultural waste, and industrial waste using
technologies and promotes the Make in India Mission. advanced biofuel technology.
• Support for 2G Projects: The “Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN (Jaiv
Indhan- Vatavaran Anukool fasal awashesh Nivaran) Yojana”
was launched on March 7, 2019, to provide financial assistance
for 2G bio-ethanol projects.

Way Forward
A multifaceted approach is crucial to maximizing the benefits
of ethanol in India. Expanding the Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN
Yojana will support the India’s ambitious goal of achieving
net-zero GHG emissions by 2070. Increasing ethanol blending
will also contribute to India’s energy security by lessening
dependence on imported fossil fuels and creating local
employment opportunities.

PRADHAN MANTRI KISAN URJA

SURAKSHA EVAM UTTHAAN
MAHABHIYAN
Why in News: Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam
Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) has achieved only 30%
of its targets, raising concerns about its ability to meet the
2026 deadline.

GOVERNMENT SCHEMES  119

About PM-KUSUM the ambitious goal of solarising agriculture in India. It holds
the potential to reduce carbon emissions by 5.2 million
The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha Evam Utthaan tonnes, making its successful implementation crucial for
Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) scheme, launched in 2019 with India’s climate action efforts.

Key Details of the Report • Financial viability: Offering farmers the option to pay
upfront costs in instalments could make the scheme more
• A report - Implementation Challenges of the PM-KUSUM accessible.
Scheme: Case Studies from Selected Indian States
published by Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) • Increased central assistance: Boosting financial
shedding light on the scheme’s on-ground realities and assistance from the Centre, tailored to state-specific needs
suggesting a comprehensive roadmap for its successful and fluctuating prices of solar modules, would alleviate
implementation. the financial burden on farmers.

• There has seen significant progress in component B,

particularly in Haryana, Rajasthan, Maharashtra and EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
Uttar Pradesh, components A and C have lagged. Most
implementation efforts have focused on replacing diesel Prelims MCQ
pumps with solar variants, which has brought substantial
Q. 
With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja
benefits to farmers.
Suraksha Evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM)
scheme, consider the following statements:
Challenges in implementation
1. The scheme includes the installation of 10,000 MW
• One significant hurdle has been the availability of cheap
of decentralized grid-connected renewable energy
electricity, which diminishes the incentive for farmers to power plants on barren land.
switch to solar pumps.
2. It supports individual farmers in off-grid areas by
• Additionally, farmers are often forced to opt for larger- providing standalone solar agriculture pumps of up
than-needed pumps, increasing their financial burden. to 7.5 HP to replace existing diesel pumps.
3. The scheme also involves providing financial
• Centralisation of the implementation model poses
assistance of the tune of 6000 Rs annually to farmers
another challenge. In Punjab, the Punjab Renewable
to encourage them to install solar pumps.
Energy Development Agency oversees the scheme,
whereas in Rajasthan, different components are managed
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
by various agencies.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Way Forward

• Decentralisation: Local implementing agencies with on- (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
ground knowledge should manage the scheme to better Answer: a
cater to farmers’ needs.

120 GOVERNMENT SCHEMES

 PRADHAN MANTRI SURYA GHAR: Advantages of Grid-Connected Rooftop Solar System:

MUFT BIJLI YOJANA • Saving on electricity bill by the consumer.

• Utilization of available vacant roof space, no additional land
Why in News: The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy has required.
recently issued Operational Guidelines for Implementation
• 
Low gestation period. No additional requirement of
of ‘Model Solar Village’ under PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli
transmission and distribution (T&D) lines.
Yojana.
• Reduces T&D losses as power consumption and generation
Key Details are collocated. Improvement in the tail-end grid voltages and
• Under the scheme component ‘Model Solar Village’, reduction of system congestion.
emphasis has been made on creating one Model Solar • 
Long term energy and ecological security by reduction in
Village per district across India, with the goal of promoting carbon emission.
solar energy adoption and enabling village communities • Better management of daytime peak loads by DISCOM/
to become self-reliant in meeting their energy needs. utility. Meeting of the Renewable Purchase Obligations (RPOs)
• A total financial outlay of ₹800 crore has been allocated of obligated entities
for this component, providing ₹1 crore per selected
Model Solar Village.
• The winning village in each district, with the highest RE JAL JEEVAN MISSION
capacity, will receive a central financial assistance grant Why in News: Jal Jeevan Mission has recently achieved
of ₹1 crore. historic milestone of 15 crore from 3 crores Rural Tap
About PM-Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana Connections, just in a short span of 5 years.
• PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijlee Yojana is a Central Scheme that Background
aims to provide free electricity to one crore households in
• The Central Government assistance to States for rural
India, who opt to install roof top solar electricity unit.
water supply began in 1972 with the launch of Accelerated
• The Government of India approved the PM-Surya Ghar: Rural Water Supply Programme.
Muft Bijli Yojana on 29th February 2024, with the aim to
• It was renamed as National Rural Drinking Water
increase the share of solar rooftop capacity and empower
Programme (NRDWP) in 2009, which is a centrally
residential households to generate their own electricity.
sponsored scheme with fund sharing between the Centre
• The scheme has an outlay of Rs 75,021 crore and is to be and the States.
implemented till FY 2026-27.
• Under NRDWP, one of the objectives was to “enable all
How does PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijlee Yojana work? households to have access to and use safe & adequate
The scheme provides for a subsidy of 60% of the solar unit cost drinking water within premises to the extent possible”.
for systems up to 2 kW capacity and 40 percent of additional • It was proposed to achieve the goal by 2030, coinciding
system cost for systems between 2 to 3 kW capacity. The with the United Nation’s Sustainable Development
subsidy has been capped at 3 kW capacity. Goals. But now, it is has been planned to achieve the goal
by 2024 through Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM).
About Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM)
• Government of India restructured and subsumed the
National Rural Drinking Water Programme(NRDWP)
into Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) to provide Functional
Household Tap Connection (FHTC) to every rural
household i.e., Har Ghar Nal Se Jal (HGNSJ) by 2024.
• On 15 August 2019, Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi,
announced Jal Jeevan Mission - ‘Har Ghar Jal’.
• The mission aims to improve quality of life by ending age-
old drudgery faced by women & young girls in collection
of drinking water.
The institutional mechanism under JJM:
National Level National Jal Jeevan Mission
State Level State Water and Sanitation Mission
(SWSM)

GOVERNMENT SCHEMES  121

 District Level District Water and Sanitation Mission Gram Panchayat Paani Samiti/ Village Water & Sanitation
(DWSM) Level Committee (VWSC)/ User group

NAMAMI GANGE MISSION 2.0 the city’s sanitation infrastructure and preventing the
discharge of untreated sewage into the River Ganga.
Why in News: Recently, four major projects worth Rs. 920
crores operationalized in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar under • Project Mirzapur (Uttar Pradesh): This is for the
Namami Gange Mission 2.0. Interception, Diversion and Treatment Works for
abatement of Pollution of River Ganga. This project
Key Details prevents untreated sewage from entering the Ganga,
• These initiatives located across the mainstream of the significantly improving water quality and supporting
river Ganga in Bihar and Uttar Pradesh, are pivotal in aquatic biodiversity.
the ongoing efforts to curb pollution and enhance the • Ghazipur (Uttar Pradesh): This has been established
ecological health of the Ganga and its tributaries. for interception, diversion, and treatment works for
• Projects to augment 145 MLD of sewage treatment abatement of pollution of River Ganga. This project
capacity, provide better sewer networks, and intercept benefits city by treating sewage effectively, preventing
numerous drains. Designed to meet the stringent discharge the discharge of untreated sewage into the Ganga.
standards prescribed by the National Green Tribunal, • Bareilly (Uttar Pradesh): It is an important project for
these initiatives ensure substantial improvements in the interception, diversion, and sewage treatment works.
water quality of the Ganga and its tributaries. This project targets pollution abatement in the river. The
• Munger (Bihar): It will improve sewer network, and Project will benefit the city by having its sewage treated
establish Sewerage Treatment Plant (STP). The project at the STPs and thereby avoiding discharge of untreated
has been implemented using the DBOT (Design, sewage to river Ramganga, resulting in the improvement
Build, Operate, and Transfer) Model. It will benefit in the water quality of the river Ganga.
approximately 3,00,000 residents by connecting their About the Namami Gange Mission
households to the sewer network, significantly improving
• It is an Integrated Conservation Mission, approved as

122 GOVERNMENT SCHEMES

 ‘Flagship Programme’ by the Union Government in June
2014 with budget outlay of Rs.20,000 Crore. MISSION KARMAYOGI
• The twin objectives of effective abatement of pollution, Why in News: The Government of India recently launched
conservation and rejuvenation of National River ‘Amrit Gyan Kosh’ and ‘Faculty Development’ Portals under
Ganga. Mission Karmayogi.

About Mission Karmayogi

• The National Programme for Civil Services Capacity
Building (NPCSCB)- Mission Karmayogi aims to create
a competent civil service rooted in Indian ethos, with a
shared understanding of India’s priorities, working in
harmonization for effective and efficient public service
delivery.
• The Mission seeks to keep the civil service at the center
of all change, empowering them to deliver in challenging
environments.
• The focus of NPCSCB is on enhancing the government-
citizen interaction, with officials becoming enablers for
citizens and business, with development of Behavioural-
functional-domain competencies leading to ease of living
and ease of doing business. Thus, by design, Mission
Karmayogi adopts a citizen-centric approach for civil
service reforms.
• Six key pillars
¾ Policy Framework
¾ Institutional Framework
¾ Competency Framework
¾ Digital Learning Framework (iGOT-Karmayogi)
¾ electronic Human Resource Management System
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE (e-HRMS)
¾ Monitoring and Evaluation Framework
Prelims MCQ • The Programme covers all civil servants (including
contractual employees) across different ministries,
Q. 
With reference to the Namami Gange Programme, departments, organizations and agencies of the Union
consider the following statements: Government.

1. The programme was launched in June 2012 with a Amrit Gyan Kosh Portal
budget outlay of Rs. 20,000 Crore.
It is a shared learning resources knowledge bank that will enable
2. 
The main objectives of the programme are the institutes to access India centric case studies instead of always
effective abatement of pollution and the conservation relying on west to give us knowledge material.
and rejuvenation of the Ganga River. Faculty Development Portal
To ensure that practitioners and faculties are better able to deliver
3. 
Key components of the programme includes knowledge to civil servants.
Sewerage Treatment Infrastructure, River-Front
Development, and Bio-Diversity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? UNIFIED PENSION SCHEME
Why in News: The Union Cabinet has recently approved
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) for central government
employees.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: c Key Features of the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS)
• The scheme assures a pension of 50% of the average basic

GOVERNMENT SCHEMES  123

 pay drawn over the last 12 months prior to superannuation
mandatory contribution of 10% of his basic pay and DA and
for employees with a minimum of 25 years of service. the government would make an equal matching contribution
• For service between 10-25 years, the pension is in a pension account.
proportionate.
• Under the second,optional tier, employees could make their
• The UPS provides a guaranteed family pension equivalent own contribution under a separate account whose withdrawal
to 60% of pension of the employee immediately before was at the employees’ discretion.
his/her demise.
• At the time of retirement (60 years of age), the government
• The UPS also assures minimum pension of Rs 10,000 per employee has to mandatorily invest 40% of the pension
month on superannuation, provided the employee has received to purchase an annuity which will provide pension
completed at least 10 years of service. for the lifetime of the employees and his dependents.

• The scheme also includes inflation indexation and a • The NPS instituted the independent Pension Fund Regulatory
lump-sum payment upon superannuation, reinforcing and Development and Authority (PFRDA) to regulate and
the government’s commitment to employee welfare. develop the pension market.

• Inflation indexation: on assured pension, on assured

family pension and assured minimum pension, Dearness
Relief based on All India Consumer Price Index for PRADHAN MANTRI JAN DHAN
Industrial Workers (AICPI-IW) as in case of service YOJANA
employees.
Why in News: The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)
completes 10 years of implementation on 28 August 2024.
Old Pension Scheme (OPS)
About Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
• Under the Pensions Act, 1871, the British established the system
of offering pensions to government employees, empowering
• The government’s flagship financial inclusion programme
the Central and State governments to enact rules for disbursal Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) was launched
of money. by Prime Minister Narendra Modi ten years ago on
August 28, 2014.
• Based on a ‘Defined Benefit’ concept, this pension scheme
assured the retiree of 50% of the last drawn basic salary as his • It is a National Mission for Financial Inclusion to ensure
pension. access to financial services, namely, a basic savings &
• 
The scheme also introduced a ‘Dearness Allowance’ (DA), deposit accounts, remittance, credit, insurance, pension
which was calculated as a percentage of the pensioner’s salary in an affordable manner.
to cushion the effect of rising cost of living and was hiked by
the government whenever necessary. • The Finance Ministry said the PMJDY has been the
foundation for people-centric economic initiatives.
• This pension was ‘unfunded’, i.e. there was no corpus (like PMJDY has helped provide adults with a bank account
the Contingency Fund of India) from which the pension which has helped in direct benefit transfers, COVID-19
was drawn. Hence, employees had no deductions from their
financial assistance, PM-KISAN.
salaries for contributing to a pension fund.
• The JAM Trinity (Jan Dhan, Aadhaar, Mobile) has given
• The government made budgetary allocations to pay pensions
a boost to the Direct Benefit Transfer programme and
under a ‘pay-as-you-go’ system i.e. funds were drawn from
expanded its coverage from partial to ubiquitous.
the government’s income, such as tax collected from citizens.
National Pension Scheme (NPS) • Under the PMJDY, there are no account opening charges,
no account maintenance charges, and no minimum
• Burdened with an ever-increasing pension liability, the Centre
scrapped the OPS, replacing it with the National Pension balance charges. Free RuPay debit card, with in-built
Scheme (NPS), formerly known as New Pension scheme, on accident insurance cover of Rs 2 lakh, and access to
January 14, 2004. overdraft facility of up to Rs 10,000, are other major
features of the scheme.
• Based on a ‘Defined Contribution’ concept, the NPS had a two-
tiered system. • PMJDY accounts are eligible for Direct Benefit Transfer
(DBT), Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY),
• Employees who joined service after the rollout of the scheme Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY), Atal
did not have the option to join the OPS and were allotted a Pension Yojana (APY), Micro Units Development &
unique Permanent Pension Account Number (PPAN) on
Refinance Agency Bank (MUDRA) scheme.
joining.
• The government aims to open more than 3 crore accounts
• Under the first tier, the government employee had to make a under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)
during the current financial year 2024-25.

124 GOVERNMENT SCHEMES

 inclination to take up repairs of electrical goods,
Financial Inclusion Index
fitting and mechanical works will be selected by the
• Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) is a multidimensional State Rural Livelihood Mission (SRLM) and LFCs
composite index based on 97 indicators which quantifies the who will be trained as drone technician/assistant.
extent of financial inclusion in the country. It is developed by These training shall be provided as a package along
RBI.
with the supply of drones.
• The FI-Index has been constructed without any base year and
as such it reflects cumulative efforts of all stakeholders over the • Note: The cost of training the first batch of drone didis is
years towards financial inclusion. borne by the fertiliser companies.

• The FI-Index comprises of three broad parameters: • The cost of training each ‘Drone Didi’ has been estimated
at Rs 25,000, which will be covered through corporate
� Access (35% weightage)
social responsibility funding.
� Usage (45% weightage) Conclusion
� Quality (20% weightage)
Namo Drone Didi Scheme marks a pivotal step in integrating
advanced technology with rural development, potentially
• Each of these parameters consist of various dimensions, which
transforming the lives of these women by opening up
are computed based on a number of indicators.
new avenues for employment and entrepreneurship in
• The Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index), stood at 64.2 in March the agricultural sector. Once trained, the Drone Didis will
2024 from 60.1 in March 2023. find employment and entrepreneurial opportunities in
conducting drone surveys, event shoots, photography, and
video recordings, in addition to agricultural activities such as
NAMO DRONE DIDI SCHEME seeding and pesticide and fertiliser sprinkling.

Why in News: The Government of India has recently allocated

Rs 500 crore for Namo Drone Didi scheme. NEW INDIA LITERACY
About Namo Drone Didi Scheme
PROGRAMME
• Namo Drone Didi is a Central Sector Scheme for Why in News: The Ministry of Education (MoE) has recently
providing drones to the Women Self Help Groups (SHGs) defined ‘literacy,’ and what it means to achieve ‘full literacy’
for the period from 2023-24 to 2025-26. under the New India Literacy Programme (NILP).
• The scheme aims to provide drones to 15,000 selected
Key Details
women SHGs during the period 2023-24 to 2025-2026
for providing rental services to farmers for agriculture • The Ministry of Education (MoE) has defined ‘literacy,’
purpose (application of fertilizers and pesticides). and what it means to achieve ‘full literacy,’ in the light of
the renewed push for adult literacy under the New India
• Central Financial Assistance 80%of of the cost of drone Literacy Programme (NILP).
and accessories/ancillary charges up to a maximum of ¾ Literacy may be understood as the ability to read,
Rs. Eight Lakh will be provided to the women SHGs for write, and compute with comprehension, i.e. to
purchase of drones. identify, understand, interpret and create along with
• The Cluster Level Federation (CLFs) of SHGs may raise critical life skills such as digital literacy, financial
the balance amount (total cost of procurement minus literacy etc.
subsidy) as loan under National Agriculture Infra ¾ Full literacy (to be considered equivalent to 100%
Financing Facility (AIF). Interest subvention @ 3% on the literacy) will be achieving 95% literacy in a State/UT
AIF loan will be provided. that may be considered as equivalent to fully literate.
• Under the scheme, fertiliser companies select women to ¾ A non-literate person may be considered as literate
be trained to fly agricultural drones. under the NILP, as per the aforementioned definition
¾ One of the members of the women SHGs who is well when she/he has been declared literate after taking
qualified, 18 and above years of age will be elected by the Foundational Literacy and Numeracy Assessment
the SRLM and LFCs for 15 day training comprising of Test (FLNAT).
5 day mandatory drone pilot training and additional • Non-literate individuals face disadvantages in various
10 day training for agriculture purpose of nutrient aspects of life such as financial transactions, job
and pesticide application. applications, comprehension of media and technology,
understanding of rights and participation in higher
¾ The other member / family member of the SHG with productivity sectors.

GOVERNMENT SCHEMES  125

State of Illiteracy in India of the Prime Minister of India, aims to enhance stations
for better passenger movement and introduce facilities
• According to the Census 2011, India faces a significant like retail outlets and commercial spaces to boost non-fare
literacy challenge, with 25.76 crore non-literate individuals revenue.
in the 15 years and above age group, comprising 9.08
crore males and 16.68 crore females. • The scheme currently intends to upgrade and
modernize a total of 1275 stations across the Indian
• Despite the progress made under the Saakshar Bharat
Railway system.
programme, which certified 7.64 crore individuals as
literate between 2009-10 and 2017-18, an estimated 18.12
• The Amrit Bharat Station scheme has a long-term vision
crore adults in India remain non-literate.
for the ongoing development of stations.It involves
creating Master Plans and executing them in phases to
New India Literacy Programme
enhance various station facilities.
• ULLAS - Nav Bharat Saaksharta Karyakram, also known as
the New India Literacy Programme (NILP), is a centrally ¾ These enhancements encompass bettering station
sponsored initiative that aligns with the National Education
accessibility, waiting areas, toilet facilities, lift and
Policy (NEP) 2020.
escalator installations as needed, cleanliness, offering
• 
It aims to empower adults aged 15 and above from all
free Wi-Fi, setting up kiosks for local products through
backgrounds who missed formal schooling, helping them
integrate into society and contribute to the nation‘s growth. initiatives like ‘One Station One Product’, enhancing
passenger information systems, establishing
• 
The programme focuses on imparting functional literacy
including reading, writing, and numeracy skills, and enriches Executive Lounges, designating spaces for business
learners with critical life skills, fostering lifelong learning. meetings, incorporating landscaping, and catering to
• 
Implemented through volunteerism, ULLAS promotes
the unique requirements of each station.
social responsibility and a sense of duty ‘Kartavya Bodh’,
• Furthermore, the scheme emphasizes upgrading station
encouraging learners to access educational content in regional
languages via the DIKSHA Portal and the ULLAS Mobile structures, integrating stations with the surrounding
App/Portal. city areas on both sides, promoting multimodal
connectivity, providing facilities for individuals with
• Objective: To cover non-literates of the age group of 15 years disabilities (Divyangjans), implementing sustainable
and above in all States/UTs.
and eco-friendly solutions, introducing ballastless
• The target for Foundational Literacy and Numeracy for FYs tracks, incorporating ‘Roof Plazas’ when required,
2022-27 is 5 (five) crore learners, with 1 crore learners per year and considering the feasibility and phasing of
by using “Online Teaching, Learning and Assessment System improvements.
(OTLAS)”.

� OTLAS is a computer application embedded in the Web • The ultimate goal is to transform these stations into
Portal/Mobile App under ULLAS developed by the vibrant city centres and connect divided areas of the city
National Informatics Centre (NIC). over the long term.
• Implementation Duration: FYs 2022-2027
• Components EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
� Foundational Literacy and Numeracy
Prelims MCQ
� Critical life skills

� Vocational Skills
Q. 
Which of the following is not a requirement for a
railway station to be eligible for the Amrit Bharat
� Basic Education Station Scheme?

� Continuing Education (a) The station must be at least 50 years old.

(b) The station must be located in a Tier-1 or Tier-2

AMRIT BHARAT STATION SCHEME city.

Why in News: Kandivali and Dahisar railway stations on

(c) The station must have a minimum footfall of 1
Western Railway’s Mumbai division in Maharashtra to get a
million passengers per year.
makeover under Amrit Bharat Station Scheme.

About Amrit Bharat Station Development Plan (d) The station must have a master plan in place.

The Amrit Bharat Station Development Plan, a key initiative

Answer: b

126 GOVERNMENT SCHEMES

 • The government has set a target of three crore Lakhpati
LAKHPATI DIDI YOJANA Didis.
Why in News : The Prime Minister of India recently
About Lakhpati Didi Yojana
participated in Lakhpati Didi Sammelan in Jalgaon,
Maharashtra. • A Lakhpati Didi is a Self-Help Group member who earns an
Key Details annual household income of Rupees One Lakh (Rs. 1,00,000)
or more.
• The Prime Minister of India handed out certificates and
felicitated 11 lakh new Lakhpati Didis who recently This income is calculated for at least four agricultural
� 
became Lakhpati. seasons and/or business cycles, with an average monthly
income exceeding Rupees Ten Thousand (Rs. 10,000), so
• He released a Revolving Fund of Rs 2,500 crore, benefiting
that it is sustainable.
about 48 lakh members of 4.3 lakh Self-Help Groups
(SHG). • Lakhpati Didis serve as an inspiration to the community, not
solely for their income, but for their transformation journey
• He also disbursed bank loans of Rs 5,000 crore which
through adopting sustainable livelihood practices (farm or
will benefit 25.8 lakh members of 2.35 lakh SHGs. Loan non-farm or service), effectively managing resources, and
Facilities available are achieving a decent standard of life.
¾ Collateral-free bank loan up to Rs. 20 lakh for SHGs. • The SHG groups have fostered collective action and mutual
¾ Interest Subvention: Interest subvention, to cover the support, while also serving as conduits for crucial financial
difference between the Lending Rate of the banks and literacy, skill development, and livelihood assistance.
7%, on all credit from the banks/ financial institutions
• Lakhpati initiative facilitates diversified livelihood activities,
availed by women Self Help Groups, for a maximum
by ensuring convergence across all Government departments/
of Rs. 3,00,000 per Self Help Group.
Ministries, Private sector and Market players.
¾ Overdraft Facility: Every Self Help Group women
member having a Jan-Dhan Account is eligible for an � The strategy includes focused planning, implementation
Overdraft (OD) limit of Rs. 5,000. and monitoring at all levels.

Steps taken to enable SHG members to become Lakhpati Didis

GOVERNMENT SCHEMES  127

During the Financial Year (FY) 2024-25, Government of India The DAY-NRLM has multiple interventions focusing on the
(GoI) has proposed an increased budgetary outlay of Rs. 15047.00 livelihood augmentation of women Self Help Group Members.
Crore for the DAY-NRLM. This will facilitate in increased
interventions for livelihoods of SHG members.

Key interventions that can supplement the Lakhpati Didis:

128 GOVERNMENT SCHEMES

 J
SECTION

REPORTS

DIGITAL PUBLIC ¾ To mitigate the risk of data breach, surveillance, and

INFRASTRUCTURE
misuse, it is important to allow for the storage of data
at multiple locations and to prevent the collection of
Why in News: The final ‘Report of India’s G20 Task Force on data at a single centralised repository.
Digital Public Infrastructure’ by ‘India’s G20 Task Force on
Governance
Digital Public Infrastructure for Economic Transformation,
• For Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI), governance
Financial Inclusion and Development’ was recently released.
includes the protocols that define how the DPI operates
What is Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI)? and how market participants’ systems will interact with
• DPI is an infrastructure-based approach that uses it.
technology to achieve societal goals through an ecosystem ¾ For example, all DPI based technology is bound by
(comprising technology, markets and governance) built the digital personal data protection act 2023.
in the public interest that leverages competitive private • To sustain Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) long-term,
innovation within regulatory guardrails. it’s crucial to identify or create institutions that promote
• It is composed of mutliple layers that contain consent DPI adoption, protect consumers, and ensure equal
systems, digital identification systems, and payment opportunities.
networks, and a physical layer that includes routers, • Since Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) interacts directly
servers, and other devices. with citizens, it’s essential to have clear and easy ways
What Does Not Constitute DPI? for people to report issues or complaints. The goal should
be to ensure that any service problems are addressed
• The physical infrastructure required for improving
access to mobile and internet services such as cell towers, promptly and transparently.
broadband cables, underground internet cables etc do not Market Participation
form a part of the DPI. • The success of the DPI approach is the involvement of
¾ However, the protocols and standards required market participants in the development and deployment
to build the necessary physical infrastructure for of solutions.
connectivity may be considered DPI. • DPIs depend on market participants to develop and
• Processes like digitising physical processes for a deploy the systems and solution that ordinary users
government portal or ‘enterprise architecture’ for limited engage with.
use also cannot be defined as DPI. • For example the Unified Payments Network brought in
DPI Approach is Constructed on Three Pillar fintech apps like Phone Pe, Paytm, Bharat Pe in a safe
manner as ‘Payment Service Providers’ into the regulated
Technology Design:
payments ecosystem - allowing them to innovate on
• DPIs should be based on common protocols and standards payments user experiences and drive small merchant
so that there can be integration of services and allow adoption of digital payments whilst keeping money flow
multiple systems and institutions to interact with each other.
within the regulated banking ecosystem.
• DPI should be designed in a way that it can be modified
and extended to new technologies and functionalities. How India is Leveraging from the DPI?
• DPIs allow diverse players to participate and develop • The digitised biometric proof of identity (Aadhar) issued
varied digital services, unlike the platform-centric by the Unique Identification Authority of India.
approach which does not offer much flexibility. ¾ Now, around 1.3 billion Indians possess this digital
ID and on average 10 million eKYC requests per day
• DPIs should be built with privacy and security
are being received and facilitated through Aadhaar.
implemented through the design of the system.
¾ An eLocker for verifiable credentials, used by over 211
• DPIs should follow the data minimization principle,
Million people to store over 6 Billion individual and
collecting only the necessary data, and ensuring that all
business identity documents, educational credentials,
data is encrypted both during transmission and storage.
vaccination certificates, and beyond.

REPORTS  129
• In the payments space, UPI facilitates 13 billion
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
transactions monthly, serving about 350 million
individuals and 50 million merchants. Descriptive Question
¾ DPI-enabled direct transfer of benefits has saved the
government $41 billion across central government Q. Discuss the concept of Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI)
schemes. in India, highlighting its components, significance, and
the challenges associated with its implementation.
• Between 2015 and 2021, rural internet subscriptions
How can DPI contribute to India’s goal of becoming a
increased by 200 percent, compared to a 158 percent $5 trillion economy, and what measures can be taken to
increase in urban areas. address the existing challenges? [15 marks] [250 words]
• There is an increase of bank penetration from 7 per cent to
80 per cent in just 7 years (which typically takes 47 years
to achieve) leading to over 60% of all digital transactions
globally. NATIONAL CLEAN AIR PROGRAMME
• According to an analysis mature DPIs have generated a Why in News: The report by Centre for Science and
value of $31.8 billion, equivalent to 0.9% of India’s GDP. Environment – titled National Clean Air Programme: An
By 2030, this economic value is projected to increase to agenda for reform – was recently released.
approximately 2.9% – 4.2% of GDP, considering both
direct and indirect impacts. Findings of the Report
• India also plans to increase export of its DPI and digital • Nearly two-thirds of the funds allocated to 131 cities
public goods by developing new platforms to help under the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) have
emerging economics with financial inclusion, innovation been used for dust management, while less than one per
and economic growth. cent has been utilised to combat air pollution from the
industrial sector and only 64% of the total funds given to
Challenges the 131 cities have been spent so far.
• Exclusion from Social Service: Unequal access to digital • According to the report, only 0.61% of the total funds
tools and literacy excluding millions from the social have been used to tackle industrial pollution, 12.63% for
welfare system. vehicular pollution and 14.51% for biomass burning.
¾ According to India Inequality Report 2022: Digital
Divide’, it was found that 8 per cent of people under • Among the cities covered under NCAP, 82 receive direct
the ‘General’ caste category had access to a computer funding from the Union environment ministry, while 42
or a laptop compared to 1 per cent of Scheduled Tribes cities and seven urban agglomerations with populations
(ST) or 2 per cent of Scheduled Castes (SC). Only 52% over a million get funding from the 15th Finance
of India’s population has to access to internet service. Commission.
• Disproportionate access to data: Disproportionate access • A significant issue identified in the report is the focus on
to people’s data through rules mandating Aadhaar for PM10 levels as the benchmark for assessing air quality
almost everything. improvement. This has diverted attention from the more
• Data Collection and Privacy: Acute privacy risks to such harmful PM2.5 emissions, which are predominantly
data resulting from multiple instances of data breaches, emitted from combustion sources.
whether it’s Aadhaar, the Co-WIN platform or the
DIKSHA app that collects children’s data. Issues Reform Actions /
• Unclear Policy and Regulations: DPI application are Recommendations
governed by section 8 of companies act 2013 which Dust control has become the Make PM2.5 improvement the
deals organization whose objective are to promote social focus benchmark to drive action.
welfare, charity, environmental protection etc. By virue
of registering under section 8, they are out of purview of Mismatched aims and Real on-ground action must be
Right to information act. objectives incentivised

• Lack Interoperability: There are many DPIs which work Key combustion sources Improve the metrics to prioritise
in different sector but there is lack of coordination among neglected sources of toxic emissions –focus
them and they are working in silos. on industry, transport, solid fuels
Non-transparent/ Need transparency in reporting
Conclusion
unavailable data of action in cities to deepen
To achieve the dream of a $5 trillion Indian economy, DPIs will the understanding of solutions
act as the foundation for it. Also, if implemented carefully, it implemented in cities
has the potential to eradicate inequality and poverty among
Go beyond cities to take a regional
different sections of society. If the government addresses the
approach
loopholes, it will surely help India to lead the world.

130 REPORTS
 National policies have to enable • Status of Air Quality: Out of 131 identified cities, decrease
local action in cities and states in PM10 Concentration has been observed in 95 cities during
2023-24 as compared to levels during FY 2017-18.
NCAP needs long term policy
visibility and funding strategy for
sustained and scalable action EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
Need sectoral targets and
mandate Prelims MCQ

Need protocol for data recording Q. ‘National Clean Air Programme: An agenda for reform’
and reporting on indicators report is published by:
Need stronger institutional
mechanism and capacity for
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
planning and implementation in
(b) The Energy and Resources Institute
cities
Performance-linked assessment (c) Environmentalist Foundation of India
needs to capture and promote
best practices to build the learning (d) Centre for Science and Environment
curve for other cities Answer :d
Need sustainable funding
strategy at Central and state levels
for sustained and scalable action
IMPACT OF CLIMATE CHANGE ON
About National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) MARGINAL FARMERS REPORT
• Overview
Why in News: Recently, ‘Impact of Climate Change on
� ○National Clean Air Programme has been launched by the Marginal Farmers’ Report was released.
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change as
a comprehensive initiative in partnership with various Key Findings of the Report
Ministries and States to improve air quality at city, regional • This report is a joint publication of the Forum of
and national level.
Enterprises for Equitable Develope (FEED) in
� ○It is a focused and time bound scheme to implement various collaboration with the Development Intelligence Unit
sectoral policies, strengthen monitoring and enhance public (DIU) covering 6,615 farmers across 21 states.
participation in more than 100 cities for effective air quality
• Marginal farmer is someone with up to one hectare of
management.
agricultural land representing 68.5% of all farmers in
• Goal: Meet prescribed annual average ambient air quality India but owning only about 24% of the crop area.
standards at all locations in the country in a stipulated time • Around 80% of marginal farmers surveyed faced
frame (long-term). significant crop losses due to extreme weather events in
• Target the past five years, with more than half reporting severe
�○Tentative national level target of 20%–30% reduction of impacts.
Particulate Matter (PM10 and PM2.5) concentration by 2024 • The primary causes of crop damage were drought (41%),
is proposed under NCAP. irregular rainfall including excessive or non-seasonal
�○These interim targets are in line with global experiences rains (32%), and early withdrawal or late arrival of the
which highlight that city specific actions led to 35%–40% monsoons (24%).
PM2.5 reduction in five years for cities, such as Beijing and
The problem of marginal farmers
Seoul, whereas cities, such as Santiago and Mexico City
have shown 73% and 61% reduction in 22 to 25 years with • Livelihood issues: Arised due to the lack of adequate
regard to PM2.5 and PM10 concentrations, respectively. use of quality inputs, poor irrigation facilities, absence of
• Tenure timely advisory, poor extension services leading to low
yield, and crop failure, ets.
NCAP is a mid-term, five-year action plan launched in 2019.
� 
• Unfavorable weather conditions, including drought,
� H
 owever, international experiences and national studies
flood, extended periods of high or low temperatures, etc.
indicate that significant outcomes in terms of air pollution
initiatives are visible only in the long-term, and hence the • At various points of development (e.g. post-germination,
programme may be further extended to 20–25 years in the reproduction), all crops show varying sensitivities to
long-term after a mid-term review of the outcomes. specific types of weather stresses leading to reduced
agricultural production.

REPORTS  131
 IMF WORKING PAPER
Why in News: Working paper titled “Advancing India’s
Structural Transformation and Catch-up to the Technology
Frontier” was recently released by the International Monetary
Fund (IMF).

Key Findings
India’s structural transformation still has some way to go.
While the role of agriculture in terms of aggregate output has
declined in India from over 40% in 1980 to 15% in 2019, it
remains large in terms of employment, accounting for 42% of
workers in 2019.

Structural Transformation Challenges

• Share of the agricultural sector in the GDP has been
• Central Sector Schemes continuously declining due to reduced productivity,
¾ Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN)
which is caused by the employment of a high number of
workers (42%) in the sector.
¾ Pradhan Mantri Kisan MaanDhan Yojana (PM-KMY)
• Similarly, the construction industry is also a significant
¾ Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)
employer with low productivity.
¾ Modified Interest Subvention Scheme (MISS)
¾ Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF) Technological Advancement
¾ Namo Drone Didi • Services sector outperformed the manufacturing sector
and large firms in Information Technology (IT) services
• Centrally-sponsored Schemes
and jewelry manufacturing are at the technological
¾ Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana - Detailed Project Report frontier.
based schemes (RKVYDPR)
• Agriculture sector, construction industry, and trade
¾ Soil Health Card (SHC) lagged behind as compared to other sectors.
¾ Per Drop More Crop (PDMC) • Also, the average productivity of the Indian firms
¾ Micro Irrigation Fund (MIF) remained low.
¾ National Bamboo Mission (NBM) Future Job Creation Needs
¾ Digital Agriculture • Need to create 143-324 million jobs by 2050.

132 REPORTS
• Includes current job shortfall and population growth. • Solar and wind accounted for 28.9% of the country’s
• Moving workers from agriculture to other sectors could electricity capacity.
boost GDP growth by 0.2-0.5 percentage points. Significance
• The rapid addition of renewable energy sources like solar
Required Structural Reforms for Employment Generation:
and wind has significantly impacted grid stability. So,
• Strengthening education and skilling
BESS can help in improving grid stability.
• Advancing labor market reforms
• It will help to reduce green house gas emission.
• Fostering trade integration
• India plans to nearly double its power capacity to about
• Removing red tape and other obstacles to private sector
900 gigawatts (GW) by 2030, up from the current 427 GW,
growth
in response to a surge in demand.
• Strengthening the social safety net
¾ The peak power demand in the country is projected
• Facilitating access to credit to reach 366 GW by 2030, significantly up from the
Current Employment and Productivity Issue: Need to create current 243 GW.
productive, well-paying jobs in labor-intensive sectors such ¾ To achieve this feat India not only need renewable
as the manufacturing sector because economic activity in energy but also need how to store it so that it can be
India has shifted from agriculture to services over time. use judicially.
Productivity-Enhancing Reforms • Given that India imports a significant amount of crude
• Strengthening education and skilling. E.g, National oil, it will assist India in controlling its trade deficit.
Education Policy (NEP) 2020, Skill India Mission, Challenges
Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) and
• India lacks substantial reserves of key minerals such
National Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme (NAPS).
as lithium, cobalt, and nickel, essential for battery
• Advancing labor market reforms. E.g., Code on Wages, production.
2019, Industrial Relations Code, 2020, Social Security
• When it comes to research and development, India lags
Code, 2020, and Occupational Safety, Health and Working
behind global powers like China, Japan, and South Korea.
Conditions Code, 2020.
Significant R&D expenditures, the creation of a competent
• Fostering trade integration. E.g., Goods and Services Tax labour force, and cooperation between business and
(GST) and various Trade agreements. academic institutions are all necessary to close this gap.
• Sectoral Growth Drivers. E.g., Make in India, Digital
• India is still developing the infrastructure required for
India, and Start-up India.
large-scale battery manufacture, such as reliable power
• Continuing the public investment push. E.g., National supplies, cutting-edge production facilities, and effective
Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP), etc. logistics networks.
• Strengthening the social safety net. E.g., “One Nation,
One Ration Card”, Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY), About BESS
and Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana (PMGKY). • Battery storage is a technology that enables storage of
• Facilitating access to credit. E.g., Mudra Yojana, Pradhan electricity for later use.
Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), Kisan Credit Card • A BESS is an electrochemical device that charges or collects
(KCC) and Stand-Up India. energy from the solar energy, wind energy etc and then
discharges the energy as per the requirement.

INDIA’S ENERGY STORAGE • The main types of batteries used in battery energy storage

LANDSCAPE’ REPORT
systems: Lithium-ion (Li-ion) batteries; Lead-acid batteries;
Redox flow batteries; Sodium-sulfur batteries and Zinc-
Why in News: India’s Energy Storage Landscape report was bromine flow batteries.

recently released by Mercom India Research. Conclusion

Key Findings of the Report India is an emerging market for energy storage, still in
• India has a cumulative installed battery energy storage the early stages of development. Despite rapid growth in
system (BESS) capacity totalling 219.1 MWh as of March 2024. renewable energy, energy storage has lagged, which could
potentially lead to curtailment and a lack of grid flexibility
• Chhattisgarh has the he highest BESS capacity installed,
and stability. To meet energy transition goals and manage the
accounting for 54.8% of cumulative installed capacity.
exponential increase in renewable energy, the government
• According to the report, PhotoVoltaic systems combined must prioritise energy storage to avoid issues faced by other
with battery energy storage systems account for 90.6% of countries with growing intermittent power but insufficient
the total installed BESS capacity. storage capacity.

REPORTS  133
 the Open Credit Enablement Network and the Open
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) driving growth.
Prelims MCQ Remittance Inflows in India
Q. Which of the following statements is correct according • India continues to lead as the highest remittance recipient
to the ‘India’s Energy Storage Landscape’ report globally, with US$ 115.3 billion in 2023, accounting for
released by Mercom India Research? 13.5% of the world’s total remittances.
• The RCF highlights that more than half of India’s inward
(a) As of March 2024, India has a cumulative installed
remittances in 2021 came from the Gulf countries, with
BESS capacity of 500 MWh.
North America contributing 22%.
(b) 
Chhattisgarh accounts for 54.8% of India’s • The remittance-to-GDP ratio for India has risen from
cumulative installed BESS capacity.
2.8% in 2000 to 3.2% in 2023, surpassing the gross FDI
(c) Solar and wind energy account for 90.6% of India’s inflows to GDP ratio of 1.9% in 2023.
total electricity capacity.
• Looking forward, India is poised to remain a leading
(d) BESS can help renewable energy to integrate with supplier of labor, with its working-age population
existing grid system. expected to rise until 2048, potentially propelling
remittances to around $160 billion by 2029.
Answer : b

Smartphones Penetration
• India’s mobile penetration has seen remarkable growth,
REPORT ON CURRENCY & FINANCE with internet penetration reaching 55% in 2023 and an
increase of 199 million internet users over the past three
Why in News: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently years.
released the “Report on Currency and Finance (RCF)” for the
• The cost per gigabyte of data in India is the lowest
year 2023-24. globally, at an average of Rs. 13.32 per GB.
Key Details • India has one of the highest mobile data consumption
• The RCF is an annual publication by the Reserve Bank rates worldwide, with an average per-user per-month
of India (RBI). consumption of 24.1 GB in 2023.
• It covers various aspects of the Indian economy and • The number of smartphone users in India was about 750
financial system, providing insights and analysis on million in 2023, expected to reach 1 billion by 2026.
current economic conditions, financial stability, and • The RCF projects that India will become the second-
policy issues. largest smartphone manufacturer within the next 5 years.
• The theme for the 2023-24 report is “India’s Digital
Revolution.” EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
• Focus: The transformative impact of digitalization across Prelims MCQ
various sectors in India, especially in the financial sector.
Q. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of
Key Highlights of the RCF implementing the ‘Unified Payments Interface (UPI)’?
Digital Revolution (a) 
Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online
• The RCF emphasizes India’s leading role in the global payments.
digital revolution. (b) Digital currency will replace physical currency in
• With robust digital public infrastructure (DPI), evolving about two decades.
institutional frameworks, and a tech-savvy population,
India has emerged as a frontrunner in this arena. (c) FDI inflows will drastically increase.
• Key initiatives such as Aadhaar, the world’s largest (d) 
Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will
biometric-based identification system, and the UPI, a real- become very effective.
time, low-cost transaction platform, have revolutionized Answer : a
service delivery and financial inclusion.
Digitalization in Finance
STATE OF THE WORLD’S FOREST
The above-discussed initiatives have made retail
REPORT
•
payments faster and more convenient, while the RBI’s
pilot runs of the E-Rupee position India at the forefront Why in News: Recently the Food and Agriculture Organisation
of digital currency initiatives. (FAO) of the United Nation has released a “State of the
• The digital lending ecosystem is also vibrant, with World’s Forest Report”.

134 REPORTS
Key Findings of the Report Key Findings of the Report
Forest Area • ‘Rosewood’ is a commercial/trade term for various
• The Russian Federation, Brazil, Canada, the United States tropical hardwoods prized for furniture making.
of America, and China account for 54 per cent of the • Overexploitation of Rosewood in Asia has shifted the
global forest area, in descending order. trade to Latin America and Africa.
• Another 10 countries, including Australia, the Democratic • CITES has listed many Rosewood species due to trade
Republic of Congo, Indonesia, Peru and India, contribute impacts on their survival.
about two-thirds of the global forest area. • A study on rosewood conservation and trade was
• The report estimated that between 1990 and 2020, commissioned.
approximately 420 million ha of forest were converted to • 57 CITES-listed species are commercially traded as
land use. However, deforestation rates decline from 15.8 rosewood.
million ha per year between 1990 and 2002 to 10.2 million • 13 species are categorized as high priority for conservation.
ha between 2015 and 2020.
• Trade data analysis shows most Asian rosewood imports
• According to the report, net rate of change in forest are from cultivated sources, while African imports are
area (the difference between forest expansion and primarily wild-sourced.
deforestation) in 2010-2020 has significantly reduced as
• Large-scale plantations for most rosewood species are
compare to previous two decades.
rare.
Mangroves • Recommendations by CITES for improving rosewood
• South and Southeast Asia contributed almost 44 per cent trade management are proposed.
of the total global mangroves area. • CITES has issued guidelines for sustainable harvest and
• The global rate of mangrove loss decreased by 23% trade of rosewood specimens.
between 2000-2010 and 2010-2020, but the increase in
mangrove areas also slowed slightly, according to the Rosewood Species in India: ‘Dalbergia Latifolia’
report. • It is indigenous to India and distributed in the sub-
• The net change in mangrove area globally was negative Himalayan tract of eastern U.P to Sikkim.
between 2000 and 2020the net change in mangrove area • It also occurs in central, western and southern India.
globally was negative between 2000 and 2020 • It requires 8°C to 50°C temperature range with 750mm to
Fire 5000mm annual rainfall.
• Satellite data estimated that about 383 million ha of land
were affected by fire in 2023 alone.
Threats from the Pests
• There is a rising threat from pests, especially in Asia and
North America.
¾ For example, South Korea lost 12 million pine
trees between 1988 and 2022 because of pine wood
nematode pest

Conclusion
Key findings and insights from the newly published reports
were presented at the Global Landscapes Forum (GLF)
Digital Conference 2024. The findings noted that despite some
progress in recent years, deforestation and forest degradation Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of
continue at alarming rates, highlighting agriculture as the Wild Fauna and Flora
main driver of deforestation and forest fragmentation. • It is an international agreement between governments.
• It was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in 1963 at
REPORT ON ROSEWOOD TREE a meeting of members of IUCN (The World Conservation
SPECIES Union).
• Its aim is to ensure that international trade in specimens of
Why in News: Report on the “Conservation and Trade of wild animals and plants does not threaten the survival of the
CITES-listed Rosewood tree species” was recently released species.
by the Convention on International Trade in Endangered
• India has been a CITES Party since 1976.
Species (CITES).

REPORTS  135
 ANNUAL SURVEY OF • Own Account Establishment (OAE): An establishment

UNINCORPORATED ENTERPRISES
which is run without any hired worker employed on a fairly
regular basis
IN INDIA • Hired Worker Establishment (HWE): An establishment
Why in News: “Annual Survey of Unincorporated Enterprises which is employing at least one hired worker on a fairly
(ASUS) 2022-23” was recently released regular basis is termed as hired worker establishment.

Key Highlights of ASUS 2022-23

• Survey conducted by: National Sample Survey SIGNAL SPOTLIGHT REPORT
Office (NSSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Why in News: Recently the United Nation Development
Implementation (MoSPI).
Programme (UNDP) has released a Signal Spotlight Report
• Survey period: October, 2022-September, 2023 emphasising the emerging signals and trends that can be
• Coverage: considered significant for development in the next 3 to 10 years.
¾ The rural and urban areas of India. Key Highlights of the Reports
¾ Unincorporated Non-agricultural establishments
belonging to three sectors viz., Manufacturing, Trade
and Other Services.
¾ Total number of establishments belonging to this
sector were 5.97 crore. Own Account Establishments
(OAE) were 5.53 crore .
Findings:
¾ Uttar Pradesh (13.82%), West Bengal (12.03%)
and Maharashtra (9.37%) had produced the most
number of Hired Worker Establishments (HWE)
establishments.
¾ Maximum number of HWEs had been observed in
Maharashtra (13.29%).
¾ Leading state for OAE in the country was Uttar
Pradesh (14.46%).
¾ Proprietary establishments run by women
entrepreneurs: Telangana (43.32%), West Bengal
(32.74%), and Karnataka (31.42%).
¾ Most of the owners of proprietary and partnership
concerns belonged to Other Backward Classes (OBC)
(51.9%).
¾ 99.5% of the estimated unincorporated non-
agricultural establishments were non-NPIs (Non-
profit Institutions).
¾ This sector employed 11 crore workers during 2022-
2023 as compared to 9.8 crore workers during 2021-
22, showing an increase of about 1.2 crore.
Hope for resilient and connected communities
• Largest female employment generated in West Bengal
(11.30%) followed by Uttar Pradesh (11.17%) and • Building connected communities is crucial for fairer
Maharashtra (10.37%). futures, addressing challenges like conflict trauma,
• Maharashtra (12.20%), Uttar Pradesh (10.56%) and Tamil pandemic-induced loneliness, and “waithood” among
Nadu (8.57%) together contributed around one-third of youth.
overall Gross Value Added (GVA) ( Market establishments). • The rise of generative AI fuels disinformation, eroding
• Maharashtra (Rs. 7,15,253), Gujarat (Rs. 5,58,063) and trust in institutions and shared realities.
Jammu & Kashmir (Rs. 5,21,178) had been the top 3 states • Increased appreciation for clean air, water, and social
among the major states to have owned the most valued connections shows promise, earlier these things were
fixed assets per establishment. taken for granted.
• Kerala (Rs. 1,64,826), Andhra Pradesh (93,920) and Jammu • Progress toward gender equality could enhance
& Kashmir (89,998) were the states which are having the opportunities for all, contributing to more equitable
most outstanding loan per establishment. futures.

136 REPORTS
 SECTION

K PERSONALITIES IN NEWS

SRI AUROBINDO GHOSE • In 1904 and 1905, he attained the Congress Sessions and
opined that the party members for being too timid and
Why in New: Prime Minister of India has recently paid unmotivated. According to him, the Moderates could
homage to Sri Aurobindo on his Birth Anniversary. never rise out of their servitude, and their thinking creeps
up.
About Aurobindo Ghose
• In 1905, Aurobindo considered the partition of Bengal as a
• Sri Aurobindo was born in Calcutta on 15 August 1872.
blessing as it would raise the people’s national sentiment.
• At the age of seven he was taken to England for education.
• In 1906, through a Bengali newspaper, Yugantar, he called
There he studied at St. Paul’s
for open revolt and complete independence.
School, London, and at King’s
College, Cambridge. ¾ This article became widely popular and sparked a
national sentiment. As a result, mass protests spread
• Despite receiving highly
across the country.
Westernized education, and
strict instructions from his father, • In 1906, at the request of Bipin Chandra Pal, he wrote
Aurobindo became a member some articles in the Vandemataram newspaper.
of a secret society of Indian ¾ This article angered the British government because,
revolutionaries called ‘Lotus and through this article, he highlighted British dominance
Daggers’. Over a period of time, in Indian politics and talked about the whole process
Aurobindo became the chief of westernization. Aurobindo described the Surat
exponent of militant nationalism. split of 1907 as God’s will.
• He was greatly impressed by the way the French • In 1908 Aurobindo was arrested for his involvement in
established democracy through revolution that took just the Alipore conspiracy case.
five short-years than the British who took more than 12 ¾ The trial of the Alipore Bomb Case lasted for a year,
years. but eventually, he was acquitted on 6th May 1909. His
• Returning to India in 1893, he worked for the next thirteen defence counsel was Chittaranjan Das.
years in the Princely State of Baroda in the service of the • In 1910 he withdrew from politics and went to Pondicherry
Maharaja and as a professor in Baroda College. in order to devote himself entirely to his inner spiritual
• In 1906, soon after the Partition of Bengal, Sri Aurobindo life and work.
quit his post in Baroda and went to Calcutta, where ¾ In 1914, after four years of secluded yoga, he started
he soon became one of the leaders of the Nationalist a monthly philosophical magazine called Arya. This
movement. ceased publication in 1921.
Contribution to the Indian Nationalism • In 1926, with the help of his spiritual collaborator, the
• In 1900, at Baroda college, Aurobindo was appointed Mother, he founded the Sri Aurobindo Ashram. Among
as a professor. During this time, a Maratha newspaper, his many writings are The Life Divine, The Synthesis of
Induprakash, wrote a sensitive series of articles entitled Yoga and Savitri.
“New Lamps for Old.” • Sri Aurobindo left his body on 5 December 1950.
¾ Through these articles, Aurobindo suggested people
not to depend upon the charity of the British. He also
LOKMANYA TILAK
said that our nation’s actual enemy was our weakness
and cowardness, not the external forces. Why in News: The Prime Minister of India has recently paid
• He also criticized the Congress party. He said that the tributes to Lokmanya Tilak on his birth anniversary.
party had not trained the people to act or to work together
Key Details
but trained them to speak in one voice.
Prime Minister of India was conferred the Lokmanya Tilak
¾ He describes the party as a Party of the Middle-class
National Award for his outstanding contributions towards
that depends on the blessings of the British.
the progress of the country at a function in Pune.

PERSONALITIES IN NEWS  137

About Lokmanya Tilak and his Contribution • He authored two books called Shrimadh Bhagvad Gita
• Tilak was born on July 23, 1856. A Rahasya and Arctic Home of the Vedas.
lawyer, scholar, and journalist (he ran • He claimed in his book “The Arctic Home in the Vedas”
the newspaper Kesari in Marathi and that the Vedas could only have been written in the Arctics,
Maratha in English), Tilak joined the and that the Aryan bards carried them south after the last
Indian National Congress in 1890. ice age. He suggested a new method for determining the
• Initially, his stance aligned with the Vedas’ exact period.
Congress, advocating for reforms • In prison at Mandalay, Tilak wrote: “Shrimad Bhagvad
and more rights for Indians, without Gita Rahasya,” which describes the study of “Karma
calling for a complete revolution. Yoga” in the Bhagavad Gita, which is considered a gift of
His articles in Kesari and Maratha generally supported the Vedas and Upanishads.
Congress demands from 1885 to 1895.
Conclusion
• Tilak became frustrated with the Congress’s moderate
Tilak was one of the first to maintain that Indians should cease
approach and, along with Lala Lajpat Rai and Bipin
to cooperate with foreign rule, but he always denied that he
Chandra Pal, formed the Lal Bal Pal trio.
had ever encouraged the use of violence. In tributes, Gandhi
¾ They advocated for complete freedom from British called him “the Maker of Modern India,” and Jawaharlal
rule, endorsing the use of unconstitutional means, Nehru, independent India’s first prime minister, described
including violence, to achieve this goal. him as “the Father of the Indian Revolution.”
• Tilak’s main contribution to the freedom struggle was
taking the movement to the common people and giving
him the tag of ‘Lokmanya’ (beloved of the people). SHIVARAM RAJGURU
• It was Tilak who advocated vociferously for swaraj (self- Why in News: Freedom Fighter Shivaram Rajguru was
governance or or freedom from foreign rule). recently remembered on his 116th birth anniversary.
¾ This the reason once Gnadhi Ji said “No man
About Shivaram Rajguru
preached the gospel of Swaraj with the consistency
and the insistence of Lokmanya” • His full name was Hari Shivaram
Rajguru and was born into a
• But Tilak has been criticised for giving the freedom
Deshastha Brahmin family.
struggle a communal shade — his mass mobilisation
programmes like the celebration of Ganeshchaturthi • Since his childhood days, he had
and Shivaji Jayanti revolved around Hindu festivals and witnessed the brutal atrocities that
heroes — and for his conservative stand on women’s the Imperial British Raj inflicted on
emancipation and caste reforms. India and her people. This instilled
within him a strong urge to join
• As a proponent of atma-nirbharata or self-reliance, he
hands with the revolutionaries in a
strongly supported Indian industrialists, especially small
bid for India’s freedom struggle.
entrepreneurs.
• Shivaram Hari Rajguru was a prominent and active
¾ He became the treasurer of what came to be called the
Indian revolutionary during the freedom struggle.
“paisa fund” to finance local industries and village
enterprises. The fund was also used to send bright • In the days of the Indian Freedom Movement, the
Indian students abroad for technical study. Hindustan Socialist Republican Army (HSRA) was
an active force working against the British. Their main
• In 1916 he concluded the Lucknow Pact with Mohammed
motive was to strike fear into the heart of the British
Ali Jinnah, which provided for Hindu-Muslim unity in
regime. Shivaram Rajguru was a key member of the
the nationalist struggle.
Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA).
• Tilak valued education highly, viewing it as essential for • On December 18, 1928, in Ferozepur, Lahore, a planned
the nation’s progress. retaliation was enforced that led to the assassination of
Deputy Superintendent of Police, J.P. Saunders. Shivaram
¾ In 1917, he emphasized that after achieving Swaraj,
Rajguru, along with Sukhdev Thapar, was accomplice of
the priority should be educating everyone, warning
Bhagat Singh who spearheaded the attack.
that Swaraj would not endure without widespread
education. ¾ Rajguru then went into hiding in Nagpur. Whilst
taking shelter in the house of an RSS worker, he
Literary Contributions of Bal Gangadhar Tilak even met Dr. K. B. Hedgewar. On his travel to Pune,
• He used to write articles about the Indian independence however, Shivaram was finally arrested.
movement in a Marathi newspaper called “Kesari” and ¾ Shivaram Rajguru was hanged on 23rd March 1931
an English newspaper called “Mahratta”. along with Bhagat Singh and Sukhdev, after being

138 PERSONALITIES IN NEWS

 tried under the Lahore Conspiracy Case from 1929 to Towards the end of her life, she was living in New Delhi,
1930, on the charges of murdering ASP John Saunders. running the institute Nritya Kaustubha.
• Most of the inner circle members of the Hindustan Krishnamurti is also credited with a noteworthy contribution
Socialist Republican Association who were vigorously to the nation’s soft power in post-independent India. She
involved in the on-going political activities had their travelled globally and extensively, besides popularising
studio photographs taken well in advance. Bharatanatyam and Kuchipudi in North India. The Tirumala-
¾ These later became templates for eulogy prints of the Tirupati Devasthanams Trust honoured her with the title
dead. Rajguru Martyrdom Print is a part of it as well. ‘Asthana Nartaki’.
¾ Rajguru’s death was a crucial incident for the Indian
EXPECTED QUESTION FOR UPSC CSE
political history. Thus, the Rajguru Martyrdom Print
also occupies a key position as a Nationalist Artwork. Prelims MCQ

Q. 
Which of the following statements about Yamini
YAMINI KRISHNAMURTHY Krishnamurthy is correct?
Why in News: Veteran Bharatanatyam dancer Yamini (a) 
Yamini Krishnamurthy was primarily trained
Krishnamurthy died at the age of 83. in Bharatanatyam and was not trained in other
classical dance forms.
About Yamini Krishnamurthy
• Born in Madanapalli in Andhra (b) Krishnamurthy received the Padma Shri award in
Pradesh’s Chittoor into a family of 1968, the Padma Bhushan in 2001, and the Padma
Sanskrit scholars, Krishnamurti grew up Vibhushan in 2016.
in Tamil Nadu after her family moved (c) 
Yamini Krishnamurthy was known for her
there. Yamini Krishnamurthy had contributions solely in the field of Carnatic music
always been awed by various postures and veena performance.
of Nataraja and sculptures on temple
walls. (d) She was honored with the title ‘Asthana Nartaki’ by
the Sangeet Natak Akademi for her contributions to
• She learned Bharathanatyam at Kalakshetra (Madras)
classical dance.
under Rukmini Devi Arundale. She had learnt
Answer: b
Kutchipudi under great teachers like Vedantam Lakshmi
Narayana Sastry, Pasumarthi Venu Gopal Sharma, Chinta
Krishnamurthy and Vedantam Satyanarayana Sharma.
Her training in Odissi was under teachers like Pankaj RAGHOJI BHANGRE
Charan Das and Kelucharan Mohapatra.
Why in News: Ministry of Culture has recently released the
• Besides learning the various dance forms, Krishnamurthy
third Comic book on stories of Raghoji Bhangre along with
was trained in Carnatic vocals and the veena.
other Tribal Freedom Fighters during Tiranga Utsav
• At the age of 17, Yamini Krishnamurthy gave her first celebration in New Delhi.
solo performance in 1957.
• Krishnamurti was only 28 and dancing professionally Key Details
for a decade when she was honoured with Padma Shri in • Ministry of Culture as a part of
1968, followed by a Padma Bhushan in 2001 and a Padma Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav (AKM)
Vibhushan in 2016. has released pictorial books on 75
freedom fighters in collaboration
Contribution
with Amar Chitra Katha (ACK).
• Yamini Krishnamurti who set Bharatanatyam benchmark
• Aim: To create awareness among the
and torchbearer of Kuchipudi and Odissi. Her
youth and children about the supreme
performances, marked by grace, precision and emotional
sacrifice and patriotism of our lesser
depth, electrified audiences and earned her accolades,
known heroes of freedom struggle.
both nationally and internationally.
• The first ACK Comic book on India’s 20 Women Unsung
• Many considered Yamini Krishnamurthy a celestial
Heroes and Second Comic book on stories of 15 Women
nymph from the Gandharva Loka who descended on
elected to the Constituent Assembly has been released
earth to captivate everyone with her dance. Such was the
earlier.
power of her dance that anyone who witnessed it was
transformed. About Raghoji Bhangre (1805-1848)
• Yamini Krishnamurthy transformed the classical dance • He was an Indian Revolutionary who belonged to the
scene in India from the late 50s to the early 90s. Mahadeo Koli tribe.

PERSONALITIES IN NEWS  139

• He challenged and defied the British power in • He led the country’s ambitious Agni missile programme
Maharashtra. for over two decades right from its beginning in 1983 as
• He was the son of Ramji Rao Bhangre a Koli who also Project Director.
resisted British rule and was subsequently hanged in • He inspired the team to successfully test the Technology
Cellular Jail. demonstrator missile in May 1989.
• He had killed a British Officer and 10 constables in an • He retired as the founder and director of the Advanced
ambush in 1844. Systems Laboratory (ASL), Hyderabad in 2005.
Rebellion of Raghoji Bhangre (1845-1847) • He played a key role in establishing the re-entry
technology, all composite heat shield, onboard propulsion
• In the nineteenth century, the moneylenders, under the
system, guidance and control etc for missiles during a
protection of the British regime, exploited the tribals
distinguished tenure of 22 years.
and farmers by charging arbitrary interest rates on loans
and seizing their lands in exchange for recovering the • In 1995 he was appointed Programme Director of Agni
debt. Bhangre became infamous owing to his reckless for weaponisation and deployment of Agni 2.
campaign against such moneylenders. • In recognition of his distinguished services, the
• In 1845, some moneylenders complained to the police, and Government of India conferred Agarwal with Padma
when the officials came to investigate, Bhangre’s mother Shri in the year 1990 and Padma Bhushan in 2000.
refused to disclose his whereabouts. The police officers • After retiring from Defence Research and Development
tortured Bhangre’s mother, which deeply enraged him. Organisation (DRDO) as a Distinguished Scientist, he
• Bhangre collected a band of Kolis and wandered around settled in Hyderabad.
Nasik and Ahmednagar, seeking revenge. He cut off the
nose of every moneylender he could lay his hands on, Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP)
causing great tension in the region. • 
The Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme
• All the village moneylenders escaped to district towns (IGMDP) was conceived by renowned scientist Dr. A P J Abdul
fearing for their lives. Raghoji was pursued by the police Kalam to enable India attain self-sufficiency in the field of
missile technology.
and had to break off with his troops to disappear.
• Raghoji Bhangre was eventually captured in 1847 and • The missiles developed under the programme:
later hanged on the charge of multiple murders. � Short-range surface-to-surface ballistic missile Prithvi
� Intermediate-range surface-to-surface ballistic missile Agni

RAM NARAIN AGARWAL � Short-range low-level surface-to-air missile Trishul

� Medium-range surface-to-air missile Akash
Why in News: ‘Father of Agni missile’, RN Agarwal, recently
passed away at the age of 84 following mild old-age related � Third generation anti-tank missile Nag
ailments. • The Agni was initially conceived as a technology demonstrator
project in the form of a re-entry vehicle. It was later upgraded
About Dr. Ram Narain Agarwal to a ballistic missile with different ranges.
• He was a distinguished Scientist Agni Missiles
of the Defence Research and
• Agni-1 to 5 missiles are designed & developed by DRDO
Development Organisation
and inducted into Services to act as deterrence & meet the
(DRDO). country’s security requirements.
• Padma Bhushan awardee and
• These are medium to intercontinental range, surface-to-
outstanding aerospace scientist, surface ballistic missiles.
Dr. Ram Narain Agarwal, was
instrumental in the development of India’s long-range • The first missile of the series, Agni-I was developed under
the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme
missile, Agni.
(lGMDP) and tested in 1989. After its success, the Agni missile
• He worked with late President A.P.J Abdul Kalam, ‘Missile programme was separated from the GMDP upon realizing its
Man’, when the government launched Integrated Guided strategic importance.
Missile Development Programme in the year 1983.

Name Type Range Status

Agni-I Medium Range Ballistic Missile 700-1200 km Operational
Agni-II Medium Range Ballistic Missile 2000-3500 km Operational
Agni-III Intermediate Range Ballistic Missile 3000-5000 km Operational

140 PERSONALITIES IN NEWS

 Agni-IV Intermediate Range Ballistic Missile 3500-4000 km Operational
Agni-V Intercontinental Ballistic Missile 7000-8000 km Operational
Agni-VI Intercontinental Ballistic Missile 11000-12000 km Under Development
Agni-P (Prime) Medium Range Ballistic Missile 1000-2000 km In trial

SREE NARAYANA GURU • He propagated the message of ‘One Caste, One Religion
and One God for Mankind’.
Why in News: Recently Kerala Chief Minister paid obeisance • Whichever be the religion of a man, it suffices if it makes
to the saint-reformer Sree Narayana Guru on his 170th birth a better man.
anniversary.
• Acts that one performs for the sake of oneself should also
About Sree Narayana Guru aim for the good of others.
• Sree Narayana Guru (20 August 1856 Social Reforms
– 20 September 1928) was a saint, • Born in the Ezhava caste, Sree Narayana Guru experienced
philosopher, spiritual leader, and a discrimination based on caste.
social reformer from Kerala, India.
• It was against this discrimination that the Guru performed
• He was born into a backward his first major public act.
Ezhava family in an era when people
• He consecrated a temple for Lord Shiva with a slab
from such communities faced social
inscribed with the words, Truth, Ethics, Compassion,
injustice in the caste-ridden society
Love. This was the first time that a Hindu idol was
of Kerala
ordinated by a non-brahmin in Aruvippuram village
• Driven by the strong desire to break superstitions and of Kerala, and it sparked off the anti-caste revolution
taboos that were holding back the Indian society from against the upper-caste communities.
progress, the Guru underwent years of strict penance and
• The Guru went on to establish more than 40 temples
meditation before attaining enlightenment.
across the state of Kerala, to enable everyone, including
• Luminaries such as Mahatma Gandhi, Rabindranath the lower caste and oppressed segments of society, to
Tagore, and many others, were all enthused by the Guru’s practise their faith.
ideals and teachings.
• The Guru also led the ‘Vaikom Satyagraha’ protest
Teachings and Principles movement against caste discrimination, untouchability,
Sree Narayana Guru’s philosophies on openness and and inequality.
inclusivity are especially relevant in a world that is becoming • The Sivagiri foundation was established in 1924 by
increasingly diverse today. the Guru to promote virtues of cleanliness, education,
devotion, agriculture, handicrafts, and trade.

PERSONALITIES IN NEWS  141

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ARTICLES FROM YOJANA
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CELLULAR JAIL – THE SAGA OF memorial, preserving its history and significance. The
site has been developed to educate visitors about the
RESISTANCE atrocities committed during the colonial era and the
• The Cellular Jail, also known as ‘Kālā Pānī’ was a British heroism of those who suffered within its walls.
colonial prison in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The • Architecture: It was designed by British architect J. A.
prison was used by the colonial government of India for H. W. Macpherson based on the ‘Pennsylvania System
the purpose of exiling criminals and political prisoners. or Separate System’ theory, which required separate
• Many notable independence activists, including Sardar confinement of each inmate for complete isolation from
Singh Artillery, Diwan Singh Kalepani, Yogendra Shukla, other inmates, with no communication possible between
Batukeshwar Dutt, Shadan Chandra Chatterjee, Sohan prisoners in the same or different wings.
Singh, Vinayak Savarkar, Hare Krishna Konar, Shiv • Each cell was designed for solitary confinement,
Verma, Allama Fazl-e-Haq Khairabadi, and Sudhanshu measuring approximately 4.5 meters by 2.7 meters.
Dasgupta were imprisoned here during the struggle for • They were equipped with thick walls and small windows,
India's independence. limiting light and air, creating a suffocating environment
• The construction of this infamous prison began in 1896 for inmates.
and was completed in 1906 under British colonial rule. • The design aimed to prevent any form of communication
• The jail was built primarily to exile and punish political or solidarity among prisoners.
prisoners and revolutionaries who actively opposed • The central watchtower, which rises above the prison
British authority. wings, was strategically placed to allow guards to monitor
• The establishment of Cellular Jail was a direct consequence the movements of all prisoners. This architectural feature
of the 1857 Sepoy Mutiny, a significant uprising against emphasized the oppressive nature of the jail, instilling
British rule, which prompted the British to adopt more fear among inmates.
stringent measures in dealing with dissent.
Freedom Fighters Associated With Cellular Jail
• Today, the complex serves as a national memorial
• Vinayak Damodar Savarkar: A prominent revolutionary,
monument
poet, and politician, he was a key figure in the Indian
• A proposal of the tentative list of the UNESCO World independence movement. Known as ‘Veer’ for his bravery,
Heritage Convention , submitted in April 2014, mentions he was sentenced in 1911 to two life terms (50 years) in the
the Cellular Jail is in the . Cellular Jail of the Andamans for his involvement in anti-
Key Facts About Cellular Jail colonial activities, including opposition to the Morley-
• Location: Cellular Jail is located in Port Blair, the capital Minto Reforms (Indian Councils Act 1909). Savarkar is also
of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, an archipelago in credited with popularizing the concept of “Hindutva.” He
the Bay of Bengal, which was strategically chosen for its was eventually released in 1924, having played a crucial
remoteness, making escape nearly impossible. role in mobilizing support for India’s independence.

• Architecture: The jail’s design features seven wings • Batukeshwar Dutt: He was also known as B.K. Dutt, was
radiating from a central watchtower, resembling a spider’s a revolutionary freedom fighter who, alongside Bhagat
web. This unique architectural layout was intended to Singh, participated in the Central Legislative Assembly
ensure that no two prisoners could communicate with bombing in 1929. He was sentenced to life imprisonment
each other, thus preventing any form of rebellion or and exiled to the Cellular Jail in Port Blair. Dutt passed
solidarity among them. away on July 20, 1965, at the age of 54.

• Construction Timeline: The jail was officially inaugurated • Fazl-E-Haq Khairabadi: He was arrested on January 30,
in 1906 and operated until India gained independence in 1859, for inciting violence following the Indian Rebellion
1947. During its operational years, it became a symbol of of 1857. He was found guilty of encouraging murder and
the inhumanity of colonial rule. leading a ‘jihad’ and was sentenced to life imprisonment
in the Cellular Jail on the Andaman Islands. His property
• Closure: Following India’s independence in 1947, the was also confiscated by the British authorities.
jail was closed, and in 1969 it was declared a national

ARTIClES FROM YOJANA (AUGUST 2024)  142

• Barindra Kumar Ghose: He was involved in the Alipore in Assam’s history, where British forces opened fire on
Bomb Case following an attempted assassination of unarmed protesters. Among the martyrs was a young boy,
Kingsford by revolutionaries Khudiram and Prafulla who became known as India’s youngest martyr. His name
on April 30, 1908, was arrested alongside his brother remains etched in history, symbolizing the innocence
Aurobindo Ghosh. Initially sentenced to death, Barin’s lost during the struggle for freedom. Commemorative
sentence was reduced to life imprisonment, and he was events and memorials have been established to honor the
deported to the Cellular Jail in Andaman in 1909. victims, reflecting the government’s recognition of their
• Sushil Dasgupta: He was a member of the revolutionary sacrifice.
Yugantar Dal of Bengal, was involved in the Putiya Mail • Bom Singpho of Arunachal Pradesh: He was a key figure
Robbery case of 1929. After escaping from Medinipur in the freedom movement from Arunachal Pradesh.
prison, he was eventually captured and sent to the He was instrumental in organizing local tribes against
Cellular Jail. His comrades, Sachin Kar Gupta and Dinesh British rule and played a significant role in the anti-
Majumdar, also faced imprisonment, with Dinesh being colonial agitation. His efforts to unite various tribes for a
executed. common cause laid the foundation for future movements
• On December 29, 1943, political control of the Andaman in the region. The Indian government has recognized
Islands was transferred to Subhas Chandra Bose’s Azad his contributions through various initiatives aimed at
Hind government. Bose visited Port Blair and raised the preserving the history of tribal freedom fighters.
tricolor flag of the Indian National Army. • Thangal General of Manipur: He is also known as Thangal
Sardar, was a prominent leader in the Manipuri resistance
End of Cellular Jail as a prison
against British rule during the First Anglo-Manipur War
• Bowing either to the general and popular demand of (1891). He led guerrilla warfare tactics against colonial
Indians or their constant agitaition or because of its forces and became a symbol of resistance for the Manipuri
own political wisdom, the Bristish government declared people. His legacy is celebrated in Manipur, with several
general amnesty for the political prisoners in the institutions and events commemorating his contributions
Andamans in 1920. to the freedom struggle.
• Thereafter, the cellular jail was closed, and all the • Ka Phan Nonglait of Meghalaya: She was a significant
remaining political prisoners were taken back to the figure in Meghalaya’s freedom movement. She led
mainland protests against British policies and was known for
her fearless spirit. Her contributions to the struggle
UNTOLD STORIES OF FREEDOM for independence have been recognized by the state
government, with memorials and educational programs
STRUGGLE FROM NORTHEAST dedicated to her legacy.
INDIA • Ropuiliani from Mizoram: He was a notable freedom
• Gomdhar Konwar, Assam’s First Martyr: He was a fighter from Mizoram, participating actively in the
prominent figure in the struggle for independence from anti-colonial struggle. He was involved in organizing
Assam. Born in 1915, he became actively involved in the local communities against British rule and played a
freedom movement during the 1940s. He was a member crucial role in raising awareness about the freedom
of the Indian National Congress and played a significant movement. The government has honored him through
role in mobilizing the youth against British rule. Konwar various commemorations and educational initiatives,
is best remembered for his bravery during the Quit India highlighting his contributions to the nation’s history.
Movement of 1942, where he led protests and faced severe • Bhogeswari Phukanani (1885-1942): A courageous
repression. The Government of India posthumously freedom fighter from Assam, she actively participated
honored him by naming various institutions after him, in the Quit India Movement despite being a mother of
recognizing his contributions to the freedom struggle. eight. She played a key role in liberating the Congress
• Moongri: The First Woman Martyr: She is recognized office in Berhampur, Assam, from British control.She was
as one of the first female martyrs in the Indian freedom shot by British police and succumbed to her injuries after
movement. Her activism began in the early 20th century, 20 days, making the ultimate sacrifice for India’s freedom.
where she participated in various protests against British • U. Tirot Singh: A leader of the Khasi tribe, Tirot Singh led
oppression. Moongri’s ultimate sacrifice came during a his people in a guerrilla war against the British when they
protest against oppressive policies, where she lost her attempted to build a road through Khasi Hills without
life. The Government of India has acknowledged her fulfilling their promises. Despite being outmatched
contributions through various memorials and educational in terms of weaponry, he fought bravely for four years
institutions named in her honor. before being captured and imprisoned in Dhaka, where
• Dhekiajuli Massacre, India's Youngest Martyr: The he died.
Dhekiajuli Massacre in 1942 marked a tragic chapter • Shoorvir Pasaltha Khuangchera: A legendary figure in

143 ARTIClES FROM YOJANA (AUGUST 2024)

 Mizoram, Pasaltha Khuangchera was the first Mizo leader Dipa village on August 15, 1947. He was arrested for
to resist British invasion in 1890. He fought valiantly his involvement in the Quit India Movement and for
against the British forces in the Lushai Hills and died in distributing pamphlets advocating independence.
battle. His bravery remains an inspiration, though he is • Sachindra Lal Singh from Tripura: He was an influential
less recognized nationally. leader from Tripura who actively participated in the
• Rani Gaidinliu: A prominent female leader from the freedom struggle. He played a vital role in mobilizing the
Naga community, she initiated a movement against masses against British rule and was involved in various
British rule at the age of 16. Captured and sentenced to movements aimed at securing independence. The
life imprisonment, she was later released after India’s government of India has acknowledged his contributions
independence. Rani Gaidinliu continued to work for the through memorials and educational institutions, ensuring
upliftment of her people and was awarded the Padma that his legacy is preserved.
Bhushan for her contributions.
• Kanaklata Baruah (1924-1942): A 17-year-old freedom EXPECTED QUESTIONS FOR UPSC CSE
fighter from Assam, Kanaklata was shot dead by British
police while attempting to hoist the national flag at Descriptive Question
a police station during the Quit India Movement. Q. 
Mention some of the freedom nationalists along with
Moje Riba: A freedom fighter from Arunachal Pradesh, their contribution from North- East India ? [15 marks]
Riba was the first person to hoist the Indian tricolor in [250 words]

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ARTICLE FROM KURUKSHETRA
(AUGUST 2024)
e-LEARNING: FROM may have limited access to traditional educational
opportunities.
CLASSROOMS TO SCREENS:
• It promotes personalised learning experiences.
FUTURE OF LEARNING WITH
• It fosters interactive and engaging learning environments.
DIGITAL EDUCATION
Digital Divide
History of Technology in Education • Digital divide is a challenge in the implementation of
• From the early use of audio-visual aids to the integration digital education.
of computers and the internet, technology has played a • Disparities in access to technology and internet
significant role in transforming the educational landscape. connectivity hinder equal educational opportunities.
• Early 20th century: Educational institutions began • Addressing the digital divide requires concerted efforts
incorporating audio-visual aids such as film projectors, to ensure infrastructure development, affordability, and
slide projectors and educational films to enhance accessibility of digital tools and internet connectivity for all.
classroom instruction.
Transforming Learning Experiences
• 1950s and 1960s: Television sets became more accessible,
leading to the emergence of educational television • Digital Education is reshaping learning experiences:
programs. ¾ It promotes active and self-directed learning.
• 1970s: Introduction of computers. They paved the way ¾ It enables personalised assessments and feedback.
for computer-assisted instruction (CAI). Programs like
Role of Educators in Digital Education
PLATO (Programmed Logic for Automatic Teaching
Operations) offered interactive learning experiences and • Educators play a crucial role as facilitators, mentors and
personalised instruction. guides in digital education.
• 1990s: The advent of internet revolutionsed education. It • They provide guidance, support, and expertise, ensuring
enabled the creation of online learning platforms, virtual that students navigate digital resources effectively,
classrooms and collaborative tools. develop critical digital literacy skills, and understand
ethical considerations in the digital realm.
EdTech (Education Technology) • Their role extends beyond content delivery to fostering
It includes a wide range of technologies, hardware, software, collaboration, critical thinking, and social-emotional
services and digital resources used to conduct, support or enhance skills in digital learning environments.
teaching and learning, and facilitate education management and
operations. Future Directions and Implications
Digital Learning • Advancements in artificial intelligence (AI), virtual
reality (VR) and augmented reality (AR) technologies
It is the teaching and learning process that entails the use of
will further revolutionise educational experiences.
digital technologies, including online or offline environments,
using distance, hybrid or in-person modalities. • With the evolution of digital education, it is crucial to
address ethical considerations, such as data privacy,
The Rise of Digital Education digital citizenship, and the responsible use of technology.
• Rapid advancement of technology has led to the rise of • Microlearning and mobile learning have become
digital education. increasingly popular trends in the learning space.
• Digital education refers to the use of digital tools, • Microlearning entails breaking down learning material
resources, and platforms to facilitate teaching and into bite-sized, easily digestible segments, while mobile
learning processes. learning enables learners to access content on the move,
using their smartphones or tablets.
Benefits of Digital Education
• Gamification and game-based learning utilise game
• It enhances accessibility and inclusivity by breaking
design principles to enhance the interactivity and
down geographical barriers and reaching learners who
enhancement of the learning process.

ARTICLE FROM KURUKSHETRA (AUGUST 2024)  145

Challenge of making Digital Education offline or on low • National Digital Education Architecture (NDEAR)
internet speed ¾ It is envisaged as UPI for education.
• Approaches to overcome challenges in making digital
education accessible offline or in low internet speed National Digital Education Architecture (NDEAR)
environments: • It aims to create a unified digital ecosystem that supports the
diverse needs of the education sector by leveraging technology.
¾ Offline Content Delivery: Providing downloadable
content such as PDFs, e-books, videos that can be • Key Features of NDEAR
accessed without an internet connection. � Unified Digital Infrastructure
¾ Mobile Apps: Developing mobile applications that � Interoperability and Standards
can store educational content locally on the device.
� Data-Driven Decision making
¾ Learning Management Systems (LMS): Utilising LMS
� Personalised Learning
that support offline functionality.
¾ USB/CD Distribution: Distributing educational � Inclusivity and Accessibility
content through USB drives or CDs. • By creating a unified digital ecosystem, it aims to enhance
the quality, accessibility, and equity of education across the
¾ Curriculum on storage devices: Storing educational
country.
content on portable storage devices like SD cards or
external hard drives. • NDEAR provide the following to cater to 5 key personas
(Student, Parent, Teacher, Administrator, Community
¾ Interactive Offline Activities: Designing interactive
members) and 3 key ecosystems (Programs, Asset, Solution)
offline activities, worksheets, or projects that do not across 2 core interactions (learning and administration).
require internet connectivity.
� Specifications and Standards
• Target audience, infrastructure limitations, and available
technology should be considered in designing offline or � Microservices and APIs
low-internet education solutions. � Reference Solutions

Open Standards for Digital Education From Classrooms to Screens

• National Repository of Open Educational Resources • Education is transitioning from traditional classrooms to
(NROER) digital screens, driven by advancements in technology
¾ NROER is an initiative by the Ministry of Education, and changing learning needs:
aimed at creating a centralised repository of open • Key aspects of this transition:
educational resources.
¾ Online and Blended Learning
• National Digital Library of India (NDLI)
¾ Personalised Learning Experiences
¾ NDLI is a digital library that offers free access to a vast
¾ Collaboration and Global Connections
collection of academic resources, including textbooks,
scholarly articles, thesis and other educational ¾ Data-Driven Insights
materials. ¾ Lifelong Learning and Microlearning
• Study Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds Way Forward
(SWAYAM)
For the transition, it is crucial to fully embrace the
¾ SWAYAM is an online platform that hosts massive opportunities that technology offers while also preserving
open online courses (MOOCs) and other digital the human touch of educators. Doing so will foster creativity,
learning resources. critical thinking and support the growth of every learner.
• Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing (DIKSHA)
¾ It is a groundbreaking digital platform developed
by NCERT. It serves as a comprehensive hub of
educational resources.

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ARTICLES FROM DOWN TO EARTH
(AUGUST 2024)
MINIMUM SUPPORT PRICE • Lack of sufficient data
¾ The absence of reliable and timely data complicates
Context: There is an ongoing protest over legalising the
MSP estimation.
Minimum Support Price (MSP)
About Minimum Support Price ¾ It is difficult to estimate demand and required supply
if crop consumption estimates are unknown.
• The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a crucial mechanism
through which the government supports farmers by • Landed imports
purchasing their crops at a pre-determined price.
¾ The same metrics cannot be used to estimate MSP for
• Annually, the Government of India announces MSPs for
rice (a net exported commodity) or soybeans (where
22 major agricultural commodities, including 14 Kharif
we are a large importer of soybean oil and a residual
crops, 6 Rabi crops, and 2 commercial crops.
exporter of soybean meal).
• In addition, MSP for Toria and de husked coconut is also
fixed based on MSPs of rapeseed & mustard, and copra, Way Forward
respectively. • The way forward involves aligning MSP with current
• Government fixes Minimum Support Prices (MSPs) and future market needs, balancing domestic and global
for 22 mandated agricultural crops based on the markets and addressing the needs of both farmers and
recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural consumers.
Costs & Prices (CACP). • CACP would need a robust mechanism for developing an
• While recommending MSP, CACP considers various outlook; one can’t just look back and predict the future.
factors viz. cost of production, overall demand-supply • An MSP is technically a future price and, therefore, a
situations of various crops in domestic and world credible assessment of the outlook is integral to the whole
markets, domestic and international prices, inter-crop process of suggesting these prices.
price parity, terms of trade between agriculture and non-
• CACP needs to develop survey assessments to assess
agriculture sector, likely effect of price policy on rest of
future demand in the country and/or globally, among
economy and a minimum of 50 per cent as the margin
other things.
over the cost of production.
• MSPs have to be set up to encourage the diversification
MSP is important
of crops, especially towards pulses, oilseeds, and millets,
• In the recent years, central government has been expanding which are crucial for the country’s nutrition goals.
its procurement, encompassing newer states and crops. Both
• Given climate change and varying resource-use efficiency,
pulses and oilseeds are also emerging to be focus crops.
CACP could consider incentive packages, like a water-
• MSP has been able to provide a floor price for the procured saving premium.
crops, at least in states where GOI procures.
Conclusion
• It nudges farmers’ crop choices.
Establishing a state-specific decentralised MSP mechanism
• When mandi prices fall below MSP, many policy actions
that guarantees a profit margin of at least 50% over cost,
get triggered.
prioritising rainfed crops like millets, pulses, and oilseeds, is
Limitations of MSP imperative. This approach would ensure food, fodder, and
• Despite being in existence for nearly 58 years, the MSP nutritional security for the country.
regime appears to have benefited less than 10% Indian
farmers.
DIFFERENT CONSENSUS ON
• The remuneration is not enough to make farming
profitable.
CLIMATE CHANGE
Issues with MSP calculations Context: At least 97 percent of scientists have agree that
• MSP is out of sync with market dynamics and there are humanity contributes to climate change, but the same cannot
three primary reasons for it. be said for society at large.

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Key Details complexity of human motivations, including dreams and
While there is broad scientific consensus that human action has goals. Herbert Simon’s concept suggests that decision-
contributed decisively to warming the atmosphere, ocean and making is limited by cognitive capacity, information, and
land, causing widespread change in a very short time, however time, leading to simplified and adaptive choices.
public opinion is considerably less clear in this regard. • Liquid Modernity: Zygmunt Bauman’s idea of “liquid
modernity” describes a fluid, unstable society prone
• Public Perception: Various studies and surveys show
to rapid change, affecting long-term commitment and
that social consensus on climate change is stronger in
behaviour.
Europe than in the United States, where only 12 per cent
of citizens are aware of the scientific community’s near- • Individualism and Hedonism: Gilles Lipovetsky’s view
total unanimity. This is a result of, among other things, highlights a culture focused on immediate gratification,
disinformation, media portrayals, and cognitive bias. contrasting with ethical commitments and sacrifices
needed for climate action. Recognizing the complexity
Challenges in Global Climate Commitments of human decision-making and biases may help in
• Lack of Enforcement and Accountability: Despite reconciling individual behavior with climate action goals.
increased awareness and commitment to climate change
mitigation and adaptation, international agreements, such How Climate Change is impacting India’s Youth
as the 2015 Paris Agreement, lack binding obligations, • Youth vulnerability is a complex, intersectional concept
effective enforcement, and accountability measures. that involves various factors, including biophysical,
• Uneven Implementation: Countries and companies socio-economic, political, and ethical considerations
have developed detailed carbon neutrality and net-zero but climate change is the new factor which make it even
strategies, but inconsistent implementation and confusion more complex.
over objectives hinder progress. Some countries benefit
For example, the Sundarbans region has seen
� 
from reduced emissions without bearing their fair share significant youth displacement due to flooding and
of the costs. cyclones, illustrating the profound impact of climate
• Emissions Trends: Progress since the Paris Agreement change on young lives.
shows a decrease in projected emissions increase from
16% to 3% by 2030. However, significant reductions • Reports from the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC) emphasize the increasingly severe
are still needed to meet global temperature targets. For
impacts of climate change in vulnerable regions,
instance, China’s energy sector emissions rose by 5.2% in
including rising sea levels and more frequent
2023, highlighting the need for a substantial reduction in extreme weather events, which can render certain
the near future to meet climate goals. areas uninhabitable. As a result, communities, and
Complexities and Inconsistencies in Climate Change Efforts particularly young people, are compelled to seek refuge
in safer regions.
• Global Demand for Fossil Fuels: Despite slower growth,
global fossil fuel demand continues and is expected to • In regions heavily reliant on climate-sensitive sectors
peak by 2030 if electric vehicle adoption rises and China such as agriculture can lead to reduced job opportunities
invests more in renewable energy. for youth, jeopardising their livelihoods and the
intergenerational transmission of knowledge.
• Investment Trends: Significant investments are still
directed towards oil and gas, averaging $0.75 trillion • These challenges become further exacerbated by the
annually from 2016 to 2023. In 2023, global clean energy psychological and social impacts of mobility, as young
investments reached $1.8 trillion, primarily in China, the people may experience feelings of isolation, anxiety,
EU, and the US. However, investments in renewables are and emotional strain as they leave their communities,
not uniform, and rebound effects can mitigate reductions lose cultural ties, and struggle to establish connections
in fossil fuel use. in new environments.
• Local vs. Global Costs: The benefits of carbon emission • Within this context, gender and structural inequalities
reductions are global and long-term, whereas the costs are are exacerbated by the increasing risks posed by climate
often immediate and local. For instance, lithium mining change and disasters caused by natural hazards.
for clean energy technologies impacts fragile ecosystems, � For example, because of climate change, there is
and low-income countries like India continue to rely on an increase in the incidence of child marriage in
coal despite the overall benefits of emission reductions. Rajasthan.
Solutions Remain Elusive � The aftermath of the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami
• Complex Solutions: Addressing climate change involves serves as a stark reminder of how many underage
both technological advancements and changes in lifestyle girls were compelled into marriages with
and values. Classical economics assumes individuals “tsunami widowers” following a devastating
always act to maximize satisfaction, but this overlooks the environmental catastrophe.

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O ARTICLES FROM EPW (AUGUST 2024)

VIOLENCE AGAINST WOMEN IN Key Findings

INDIA • Incidence of violence against women: Contrary to
expectations, both sexual and physical violence by others
Context: Understanding trends in the extent of violence
were higher in the more recent NFHS than in NFHS-3,
against women can be helpful in challenging violence against
which was conducted in 2005–06. Moreover, Physical
women and gender inequality.
violence by husbands was also higher in the most recent
Key Details NFHS than in NFHS-3 and NFHS-4. It was observed that
• Sexual and physical violence against women is one of the over a period spanning one and a half decades, physical
clearest and most detrimental manifestations of gender violence against women has increased, as has sexual
inequality. Violence against women remains one of the violence by others whereas sexual violence by husbands
core concerns of movements against patriarchy in India has declined, but quite modestly.
and globally.

• Despite this recognition, public discussions on violence

against women in India are constrained by the lack of
reliable information on the magnitude of violence against
women, the extent to which cases are reported to the
police, or trends in incidence and reporting.

• The article helps to compare the incidence of violence, as

measured in the National Family Health Surveys (NFHS)
to the reporting of violence, as compiled by the National
Crime Records Bureau (NCRB).

Data Used for Analysis

• National Family Health Survey: The NFHS are nationally

representative and large-scale surveys that include
questions on different forms of violence. For example, • Patterning of violence by women’s education: Patterns
responses on the experience of physical and sexual for the experience of violence by education are consistent
violence by women in the previous year were recorded across survey rounds contrary to expectation of
and used. disproportionately higher incidence of violence against
women with lesser education. No substantial shift in
• National Crime Records Bureau: To calculate reporting
the slope or increased reporting of violence by women
of violence against women, NCRB’s annual publication
with lesser education compared to women with more
titled “Crime in India” from various years which
education was observed.
categorises crime statistics based on statutes of the Indian
Penal Code (IPC) and other acts were used. For example, • Reporting of violence: After comparing the NCRB and
offences were classified as sexual violence by others under the NFHS data it was found that there is under-reporting
“rape” (Section 376, IPC) and “attempt to rape” (Section of violence against women in India.
511, IPC). Similarly, those that involve physical violence ¾ Very little of the violence that women experience is
by husbands cases registered under “cruelty by husband and reported to the police, and that violence by husbands
relatives” (Section 498A, IPC), dowry deaths (Section 304B, is even less likely to be reported than violence by
IPC), and under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 were used. others.
• Further to calculate the number of cases reported per ¾ Moreover, despite rising concern against violence
capita, national and statewise population projections against women, reporting of violence against women
published by the National Commission on Population has not increased substantially for any form of
were used. violence.

ARTICLES FROM EPW (AUGUST 2024)  149

• Regional variation in reporting and incidence: Violence • Reversing the trend requires the Supreme Court to assert
against women is under-reported in most states in India. itself with the political executive on behalf of the judiciary
¾ Particularly, south Indian states, such as Tamil Nadu, as a whole.
Andhra Pradesh/Telangana, and Karnataka have ¾ Note: The process of selection of judges for the high
high levels of physical violence and low reporting. courts and the Supreme Court is still governed by the
¾ However, in states like Kerala and Himachal Pradesh, Memorandum of Procedure drawn up by the union
the prevalence of violence against women is lower on the basis of the Second and Third Judges’ cases.
than in other states, and reporting is better.
Constitutional Provision
Conclusion • The Supreme Court has held that its judicial pronouncements
The findings highlight that the violence by husbands against lay down the law. Article 141 of the Indian Constitution
women is more common than violence by others and is less mandates that law declared by the Supreme Court is binding
likely to be reported. There is a urgent need for social and legal on all courts, including the Supreme Court itself.
changes (including the criminalisation of sexual violence by • 
The Parliament is free to bring a new law on judicial
husbands) to address violence against women in India. appointments, possibly through a constitutional amendment,
but that too would be subject to judicial review.
� The Constitution of India does not use the phrase “judicial
JUDICIAL DISCIPLINE AND review” anywhere, but it does provide for judicial review
JUDICIAL AUTHORITY implicitly through several article such as Articles 13, 32 and
through 136, 142 and 226.
Context: Recent instances of lower courts and tribunals
outright ignoring the orders of the Supreme Court point to a Extend of Judicial Discipline and Authority
worrying breakdown of judicial discipline across India.
• Assisting and aiding the implementation of the orders of
Key Details the Supreme Court is not dependent on the goodwill of
• A magistrate in Surat, Gujarat sent an accused to police the judges and authorities but a constitutional mandate
custody even after the Supreme Court of India had under Article 144.
granted anticipatory bail to the accused. • The breakdown of judicial discipline is, therefore, not
• Similarly, a bench of the National Company Law Appellate just a matter of internal administration but a grave
Tribunal (NCLAT) refused to take note of the Supreme constitutional matter and worrisome for the rule of law.
Court’s order of stay on proceedings and went on to • The very same Kesavananda Bharati verdict in past
deliver a judgment in a matter where it had been expressly had made it clear that judicial review is not a means
ordered by the Supreme Court to refrain from doing so. to usurp parliamentary sovereignty, but only part of a
• In April 2023, the Supreme Court had directed the High “system of checks and balances” to ensure constitutional
Court of Manipur to grant a promotion to an employee functionaries do not exceed their limits.
of the high court in accordance with the rules. However, Way Forward
instead of granting the promotion, the high court • Upon reviewing the process of judicial nominations
constituted a fresh depart­ment promotion committee to in other nations, we find that most of them are made
include eight other candidates, in direct defiance of the by a committee established by the administrative and
Supreme Court’s order. legislative branches of government. For example,
• This phenomenon can be attributed to the Supreme ¾ For instance, the Constitutional Reform Act, 2005,
Court’s own loss of moral authority and credibility over introduced by the U.K., established two Commissions
the last few years. for the purpose of choosing candidates: one for the
Matter of Concern courts in England and Wales, and the other for the
• Above discussed matters are not only instances of the Supreme Court.
lower courts misapplying or misunderstanding judicial • Many countries have switched to an appointments
verdicts of the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court commission system.
order in each case was short and straightforward. The ¾ For example, South Africa has a Judicial Service
response of the judges was open defiance or just casual Commission (JSC) that advises the President to
disregard. It was as if the Supreme Court’s orders were appoint judges.
just pieces of paper which need not be acted on or taken • The NJAC can be reworked by taking into account the
into consideration. views of the judiciary, the executive, and civil society, and
• Moreover, the collegium system has frequently been the need to strike a balance between judicial independence
criticised for its lack of accountability and transparency, and accountability.
and the prevalence of nepotism.

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IMPORTANT DAYS IN AUGUST

Date Day Significance / Remark / Detail

1. 1 August World Wide Web Day • "World Web Day" is observed to commemorate the World Wide Web and its impact
on the world.
• This year’s theme emphasizes the transformative role of the web in revolutionising
communication, collaboration, and access to knowledge, effectively bringing the
world closer together.

2. 1 August - 7 World Breastfeeding • World Breastfeeding Week is held in the first week of August every year, supported
August Week by WHO, UNICEF and many Ministries of Health and civil society partners.
• The theme for 2024 is "Closing the gap: Breastfeeding support for all".
3. 7 August National Handloom • The Swadeshi Movement which was launched on 7th August, 1905 had encouraged
Day indigenous industries and in particular handloom weavers.
• In 2015, the Government of India decided to designate the 7th August every year,
as the "National Handloom Day".

4. 8 August August Kranti Day / • Quit India Movement Day, observed on August 8th annually, commemorates the
Quit India Movement historic launch of the Quit India Movement on August 8, 1942 from Bombay’s
Day Gowalia Tank Maidan under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi.

5. 9 August International Day of • In order to raise awareness of the needs of these population groups, every 9
the World’s Indigenous August commemorates the International Day of the World’s Indigenous People.
Peoples • International Day of the World’s Indigenous People 2024 is focusing on ‘Protecting
the Rights of Indigenous People in Voluntary Isolation and Initial Contact’.

6. 10 August World Biofuel Day • Every year on August 10, "World Biofuel Day" is observed to underline the
significance of biofuels as a sustainable source of energy.
• The Theme for World Biofuel Day 2024 is "Sustainable Biofuels: Fueling a
Greener Future".

7. 10 August World Lion Day • World Lion Day was initiated by Big Cat Rescue, the world’s largest accredited
sanctuary dedicated to big cats.
• Celebrated on August 10th, it is a day for people to come together from across the
globe to pay tribute to the mighty lion.

8. 12 August International Youth • International Youth Day is commemorated every year on 12 August, bringing
Day youth issues to the attention of the international community and celebrating the
potential of youth as partners in today’s global society.
• The Theme for International Youth Day 2024 is "From Clicks to Progress: Youth
Digital Pathways for Sustainable Development".

9. 12 August World Elephant Day • On August 12, 2012, the inaugural World Elephant Day was launched to bring
attention to the urgent plight of Asian and African elephants.
• Every Year, World Elephant Day is observed on August 12 to raise awareness
about the challenges in elephant conservation and their protection worldwide.

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 10. 13 August World Organ Donation • World Organ Donation Day, observed annually on August 13, holds significant
Day importance globally.
• This dedicated day serves as a powerful platform to raise awareness about the
critical need for organ donation and to inspire individuals to consider to be an
organ donors.
11. 15 August India’s Independence • The Independence Day of India, holds tremendous ground in the list of National
Day days, since it reminds every Indian about the dawn of a new beginning, the
beginning of an era of deliverance from the clutches of British colonialism of more
than 200 years.
• It was on 15th August 1947 that India was declared independent from British
colonialism, and the reins of control were handed over to the leaders of the
Country.
12. 19 August World Humanitarian • On 19 August 2003, a bomb attack on the Canal Hotel in Baghdad, Iraq, killed 22
Day Humanitarian Aid workers.
• Five years later, the General Assembly adopted a resolution designating 19 August
as World Humanitarian Day.
13. 21 August International Day of • The General Assembly, in its resolution 72/165 (2017), proclaimed 21 August as
Remembrance of and the International Day of Remembrance of and Tribute to the Victims of Terrorism.
Tribute to Victims of • The main focus of the International Day is to honour, remember and pay tribute
Terrorism to the victims of terrorism by standing in solidarity with them and promoting and
protecting their human rights and fundamental freedoms.
14. 22 August International Day • The General Assembly, in its resolution A/RES/73/296, designated 22 August
Commemorating the as the "International Day Commemorating the Victims of Acts of Violence based
Victims of Acts of on Religion or Belief" recognizing the importance of providing victims of acts of
Violence Based on violence based on religion or belief and members of their families with appropriate
Religion or Belief support and assistance in accordance with applicable law.
15. 23 August National Space Day • India became the fourth country to land on the moon and the first to reach its
southern polar region on August 23, 2023. To honour this landmark achievement,
the government announced August 23 as “National Space Day”.
• India is celebrating its maiden National Space Day on August 23, 2024 with the
theme “Touching Lives while Touching the Moon: India’s Space Saga.”
16. 23 August International Day for • On the night of 22 to 23 August 1791, in Saint Domingue, today the Republic
the Remembrance of of Haiti, saw the beginning of the uprising that would play a crucial role in the
the Slave Trade and its abolition of the transatlantic slave trade.
Abolition • It is against this background that the "International Day for the Remembrance of
the Slave Trade" and its Abolition is commemorated on 23 August each year.

17. 29 August National Sports Day • The National Sports Day in India is celebrated every year on August 29.
• The National Sports Day is celebrated to commemorate the birth anniversary of
hockey legend "Major Dhyan Chand".
• National Sports Day was included in the list of celebratory days in India for the
first time in 2012.
18. 29 August International Day • On 2 December 2009, the 64th session of the United Nations General Assembly
against Nuclear Tests declared 29 August the "International Day against Nuclear Tests" by unanimously
adopting resolution 64/35.
• 2010 marked the inaugural commemoration of the International Day against
Nuclear Tests.

19. 30 August International Day of • On 21 December 2010, by its resolution 65/209 the UN General Assembly expressed
the Victims of Enforced its deep concern about the increase in enforced or involuntary disappearances in
Disappearances various regions of the world.
• By the same resolution the Assembly welcomed the adoption of the "International
Convention for the Protection of All Persons from Enforced Disappearance", and
decided to declare 30 August the International Day of the Victims of Enforced
Disappearances, to be observed beginning in 2011.

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 20. 31 August International Day • Every August 31st, the world comes together through the UN International Day
for People of African for People of African Descent to honor the shared Heritage, Diverse Culture, and
Descent profound influence of Africans and the global African diaspora.

OBITUARIES IN NEWS
DATE PERSON IMPORTANT INFORMATION
1. 3 Aug 2024 Yamini Krisnamurthy • She was an Indian classical dancer specializing in Bharatnatyam and
Kuchipudi.
• She received the Padma Shri in 1968, Padma Bhushan in 2001 and
Padma Vibhushan in 2016.
• She was also conferred the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1977.

2. 4 Aug 2024 Shobhana Ranade • She was a Veteran Gandhian and Social Worker.
• She was honoured with the Padma Bhushan, India’s third-highest
civilian award, for her Social work in 2001
• She helped set up the Gandhi National Memorial Society at Aga
Khan Palace, Pune, and a training institute for women.

3. 4 Aug 2024 Tsung-Dao Lee • He won The Nobel Prize in Physics 1957.

4. 8 Aug 2024 Buddhadeb Bhattacharjee • He was a veteran Communist leader and was Chief Minister of West
Bengal from 2000 to 2011.
5. 10 Aug 2024 Natwar Singh • He was the External Affairs Minister of India from 2004-2009.
• He was an Indian Foreign Service Officer of 1953 batch.

6. 15 Aug 2024 Dr. Ram Narain Agarwal • He was a noted Aerospace Engineer of India.
• He has significantly contributed towards the Agni series of surface-
to-surface missiles.
7. 18 Aug 2024 Rakesh Pal • At the time of his death he was serving as Director-General of Indian
Coast Guard.
8. 19 Aug 2024 Maria Branyas Morera • She was the world’s oldest verified living person until her death.

AWARDS AND PRIZES

Award Winner Details
1. Vigyan Ratna Puraskar Dr. Govindarajan • It is the highest scientific award and is part of "Rashtriya Vigyan
Padmanabhan Puraskar".
• Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar were awarded for the first time in 2024.

2. Gallantry Awards - • 4 Kirti Chakras (3 posthumous)

• 18 Shaurya Chakras (4 posthumous)
• One Bar to Sena Medal (Gallantry)
• 63 Sena Medals (Gallantry) (2 posthumous)
• 11 Nao Sena Medals (Gallantry)
• 6 Vayu Sena Medals (Gallantry)

3. National Film Award Rishab Shetty • For Kantara (Kannada film)

Best Actor
4. National Film Award Nithya Menen and • For Thiruchitrambalam and The Kutch Express, respectively.
Best Actress Manasi Parekh

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 5. National Film Award Sooraj Barjatya • For Uunchai
Best Director

6. National Film Award Aattam: The Play • Malayalam film directed by Anand Ekarshi
Best Feature Film
7. India Travel Awards - Rajiv Gandhi • Rajiv Gandhi International Airport (RGIA) in Hyderabad won the
Best Airport International Airport award for the third consecutive time.
(RGIA) in Hyderabad

8. National Geoscience Professor Dhiraj • National Geoscience Award for Lifetime Achievement is the
Award for Lifetime Mohan Banerjee highest recognition in the field of Geosciences in the country.
Achievement

9. Puthiya Thalaimurai - • Honors outstanding individuals across various fields

Tamilan Awards • Tamil Literature: Achiever Award- Perumal Murugan
• Arts: Achiever Award- Film Director K.S. Ravikumar
• Sports: Achiever Award- Former Cricketer W. V. Raman
• Business: Achiever Award- Founder of Thyrocare Arogyaswamy
Velumani
• Science and Technology: Achiever Award- P. Veeramuthuvel of
ISRO
• Social Work: Achiever Award- Retired Librarian Palam
Kalyanasundaram
• Each category presented two distinct honors
• Achiever Award
• Promising Talent Award
10. PATA Gold Award Kerala Tourism • Pacific Asia Travel Association (PATA) Gold Award
• The award recognizes Kerala’s innovative online contest, ‘Holiday
Heist’, in the Digital Marketing Campaign category.

11. FICCI Young Leaders Neeraj Chopra • Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry
Youth Icon Award (FICCI)’s Young Leaders Awards bring together a diverse array of
Ayushmann Khurrana
talented individuals from various fields.

IMPORTANT SUMMITS IN NEWS

Summit/Conference Details

1. World Heritage Committee • For the first time, India hosted the 46th session of the World Heritage Committee
Meeting Meeting, from 21st to 31st July, 2024, organized at Bharat Mandapam in New Delhi.

2. International Conference of • 32nd International Conference of Agricultural Economists (ICAE) inaugurated by PM

Agricultural Economists Modi at National Agricultural Science Centre (NASC) Complex, New Delhi on August 3.
• Theme - Transformation Towards Sustainable Agri-Food Systems

3. BIMSTEC Business Summit • 1st BIMSTEC Business Summit hosted by Ministry of External Affairs of the Government
of India in association with Confederation of Indian Industries (CII) in New DElhi on
August 6, 2024.

4. Voice Of Global South Summit • India hosted third Voice Of Global South Summit in virtual format on August 17, 2024.
• Theme - An Empowered Global South for a Sustainable Future

5. India-Japan 2+2 Ministerial • Defence Minister Rajnath Singh and External Affairs Minister Dr S Jaishankar, Japanese
Dialogue Minister of Defense Kihara Minoru and Minister of Foreign Affairs Ms Yoko Kamikawa
took part in the dialogue on August 20, 2024.

154 QUICK REVISION

 6. India-EU Regional Conference • European Union (EU) and the external affairs ministry organised regional conference
in New Delhi to discuss emerging threats in online radicalisation and to jointly counter
the exploitation of online spaces by terrorists.
• The Track 1.5 conference, which will be held on August 21-22 in collaboration with
organising partner Global Counter-Terrorism Council (GCTC).

7. India-Singapore Ministerial • 2nd India-Singapore Ministerial Roundtable (ISMR), aimed at further strengthening
Roundtable trade and economic ties between the two countries was held in Singapore on August 26.

8. Joint Russian- Indian • Second Meeting of the Joint Russian- Indian Commission on the Cooperation in the
Commission Field of Emergency Management was held on 28th August 2024 in Moscow, Russia.
9. INDUS-X Summit 2024 • US-India Strategic Partnership Forum revealed the third edition of the India-US
Defense Acceleration Ecosystem (INDUS-X) Summit.
• It is set to take place in collaboration with Stanford University’s Gordian Knot Center
for National Security Innovation and the Hoover Institution, on September 9-10, 2024.

IMPORTANT TERMS IN NEWS

Term Meaning and Details
1. Axis of • A Coalition of Iranian-backed groups is known as the ‘axis of resistance’. Hezbollah, Hamas,
resistance the Palestinian Islamic Jihad (PIJ), and the Houthis are some of the major groups in the alliance.
2. Wing Stall • A wing stall occurs when the airflow over an aircraft’s wings becomes disrupted due to an
excessive angle of attack, causing a loss of lift and potentially leading the aircraft to descend
uncontrollably.
3. Project PARI • It is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Culture to celebrate and enhance the public art scene in India.
(Public Art of • This project is executed by the Lalit Kala Akademi and the National Gallery of Modern Art in New Delhi
India) from July 21-31, 2024.
• PARI aims to stimulate dialogue and reflection through public art that blends India’s rich cultural heritage
with contemporary themes.
4. Bailey bridge • A Bailey bridge is a type of modular bridge whose parts are pre-built, so they can be put together quickly
as needed.
• An English civil engineer named Donald Coleman Bailey is credited with inventing it during World War II.
5. Yen carry trade • The yen carry trade involves borrowing in Japan, where interest rates are extremely low, and investing in
countries with higher interest rates.
• Investors profit from the difference, but unwinding this trade can impact global markets.
6. Drug Captagon • It is commonly known as “poor man’s cocaine.”
• It was originally manufactured in Germany in the 1960s and 1970s where it was intended to treat attention
deficit disorders.
7. Rail Force One • Prime Minister Narendra Modi arrived in Ukraine’s capital Kyiv from neighbouring Poland by train on
August 23. This train is nicknamed as “Rail Force One.”
8. Long-pimple • It is a defensive ploy used in Table tennis. It puts the opposite effect on the spin that the opponent plays.
rubber
9. Fahrenheit 451 • It is a book written by American writer Ray Bradbury which was published in 1953 at the height of the
“McCarthy era” of political repression and persecution of left-wing individuals and ideas in the United
States.
10. Namdharis • This sect was founded by Satguru Ram Singh on Baisakhi in 1857.
• He challenged the status quo, advocated social reform, and resisted the Raj in various ways.
11. Jiu-jitsu and • A family of martial arts originating in Japan, jujutsu translates to gentle art.
aikido • Aikido is an offshoot of jujutsu.

QUICK REVISION  155

 Q
SECTION
AUGUST - DAILY MCQs FROM
THE HINDU & INDIAN EXPRESS
DAILY MCQs PRACTICE Which of the above pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
August 1
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 & 3
Q1. Consider the following steps with reference to life
August 2
cycle of retrovirus
Q5. Consider the following statements about Gouda:
1. The reverse-transcribed DNA is integrated into the
host’s DNA. 1. It is a city situated in the Italian Alps.
2. The enzyme called integrase, acts like glue to bind 2. It is famous for a creamy & yellow cow’s milk
the two DNA genomes. cheese called Gouda cheese.
3. Once bound, the viral DNA is called a provirus, 3. It was in news because of recent volcanic eruptions
and is complete with all the ingredients it needs to in its vicinity.
be functional. Which of the statements above is/are correct?
4. The virus practically hijacks human cells and turns (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
them into virus-making factories.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 & 3
Select the answer from the options below illustrating the Q6. Consider the following pairs:
correct steps:
(a) 4, 1, 2, 3 (b) 4, 2, 1, 3 Dominant Scheduled Caste Community State
1. Matang Gujarat
(c) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4
2. Meghwal Rajasthan
Q2. What causes Cherenkov radiation to be emitted in a 3. Pan West Bengal
medium?
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) 
Acceleration of charged particles through the
(a) Only one (b) Only two
medium faster than the speed of light in that
medium (c) All three (d) None
(b) Absorption of gamma rays by atomic nuclei
Q7. What is the primary objective of the Open Market Sale
(c) Reflection of electromagnetic waves off metallic Scheme (Domestic) of the Food Corporation of India
surfaces (FCI)?
(d) Ionization of atoms in a magnetic field (a) To promote the export of agricultural products

Q3. 
Which of the following developed countries is (b) To control inflation by releasing food grains into
developing ‘World’s First’ model to combat Peanut the domestic market
Allergy? (c) To provide subsidies for fertilizer purchase
(a) USA (b) UK (d) To support the export of surplus food grains to
foreign countries
(c) Japan (d) Australia
Q8. W
 hich of the following correctly differentiates La
Q4. Consider the following militia groups active in West Niña from El Niño?
Asia:
(a) 
La Niña has warmer sea temperature and
Group Name Country increases Atlantic hurricanes; El Niño has cooler
sea temperature and reduces Atlantic hurricanes.
1. Hezbollah Yemen
(b) 
La Niña features cooler sea temperature and
2. Hamas Palestine more Atlantic hurricanes; El Niño has warmer sea
3. Houthi Lebanon temperature and fewer Atlantic hurricanes.

AUGUST - DAILY MCQs FROM THE HINDU & INDIAN EXPRESS  156
 (c) La Niña causes warmer sea temperature and less August 5
rainfall in the eastern Pacific; El Niño results in
cooler sea temperature and more rainfall in the Q13. According to the Indian Constitution, which of the
eastern Pacific. following best describes the primary objective of the
6th Schedule?
(d) 
Both La Niña and El Niño cause warmer sea
temperature in the central Pacific but differ in (a) To define the powers of the Union and State
their effects on the Indian Ocean monsoon. Governments
August 3
(b) To provide special provisions for the protection
Q9. Consider the following statements of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
1. The power of declaring castes and tribes as the (c) 
To ensure the establishment of municipal
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes are vested corporations
in the President of India.
2. Indian Parliament can, by public notification of (d) To provide for the administration of tribal areas
the President, remove any caste or community in certain northeastern states
included in the Scheduled Castes or Tribes from
Q14. 
Consider the following statements regarding
this list.
different sports in the Olympic Games:
3. Article 56 deals with the executive power of the
President. 1. There are 32 different sports at the ongoing 2024
Paris Olympics.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
2. Plunge for the distance is introduced as a new
(a) Only one (b) Only two
sport at this year’s Olympics.
(c) All three (d) None
3. Tug of war was the part of Olympic Games up
Q10. Which of the following countries is NOT a participant until 1972 games in Munich.
in the International North-South Transport Corridor
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(INSTC)?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(a) India (b) Russia
(c) All three (d) None
(c) Turkey (d) Iran
Q15. Consider the following statements regarding CAT
Q11. Consider the following statements:
Bonds:
1. The origin points of Kabini and Chaliyar rivers
1. Catastrophe (CAT) bond is a security that pays the
lies in Wayanad.
issuer when a predefined disaster risk is realised.
2. 
Tholpetty Wildlife Sanctuary is located in
Wayanad. 2. High interest rates in India provide a conducive
environment to raise funds through CAT bonds.
3. 
The Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel
demarcated Wayanad region as an Ecologically Which of the statements above is/are correct?
Sensitive Area (ESA).
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 & 3 Q16. Which of the following statements best describe the
Exercise Pitch Black?
Q12. Consider the following countries:
(a) It is an annual bilateral exercise hosted by the US
1. Ecuador 2. Brazil Navy.
3. Colombia 4. Guyana (b) It is a biennial, multi- national exercise hosted by
the Royal Australian Air Force
5. Suriname
(c) 
It is a biennial space defence exercise jointly
How many of the above countries share their land border
hosted by NASA and European Space Agency
with Venezuela?
(ESA)
(a) Only two (b) Only three
(d) It is the Indian Air Force’s biggest International
(c) Only four (d) All five air combat training activity.

157 AUGUST - DAILY MCQs FROM THE HINDU & INDIAN EXPRESS
 August 6 (b) Central Statistics Office

Q17. 
Consider the following statements regarding (c) National Sample Survey Organization
International Conference of Agricultural Economists
(ICAE): (d) Ministry of Finance
1. 
It is an annual conference organized by Q22. Consider the following statements with reference to
International Association of Agricultural ‘International Criminal Court’?
Economists.
1. It can prosecute individuals accused of genocide,
2. The conference is being hosted by India for the war crimes, crimes against humanity, and the
first time this year. crime of aggression
3. The founding president of ICAE was Lord L. K. 2. It is not a permanent judicial body
Elmhirst.
How many of the above statements is/are correct’?
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q18. Consider the following statements Q23. 

Consider the following statements regarding the
Disaster Management Act, 2005
Statement-I: The Indian Rupee slumped to an all
time low of 84.09 against the US Dollar. 1. It was enacted in the aftermath of 2004 tsunami.
Statement-II: There is a sharp downturn in the equity
market and foreign capital inflow in the economy. 2. 
It established National Disaster Management
Authority (NDMA) and National Disaster
Which of the following is correct with respect to the above Response Force (NDRF).
statements?
3. It mandates the establishment of State Disaster
(a) 
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Response Force (SDRF) by respective state
Statement-II explains Statement-I governments.
(b) 
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and How many of the above statements are correct?
Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect (c) All three (d) None
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Q24. What is ‘carry trade’ recently seen in news?
Q19. Consider the following statements with reference to (a) 
Borrowing money in developed country and
the ‘Power sector’ in India? investing it in developing country.
1. The country saw a two-fold decrease in installed (b) Borrowing money in country with high interest
renewable energy (RE) capacity. rates and investing it in country with low interest
rates.
2. The power distribution companies(discoms) saw
a 40% decrease in its aggregate profits. (c) 
Borrowing money in stable currency and
investing it in volatile currency.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(d) Borrowing money in country with low interest
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only rates and investing it in country with high
interest rates.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q20. Which of the countries lies directly to the north of August 8
Israel?
Q25. 
Consider the following statements regarding
(a) Iran (b) Egypt Pyrocumulonimbus clouds:
(c) Libya (d) Lebanon 1. 
These are grey or brown clouds that have the
potential to spit out thunder and cause fires.
August 7
2. They occur due to extremely hot wildfire or
Q21. 
Which organization is primarily responsible for volcanic eruptions.
measuring the ‘Consumer Price Index (CPI) in India’? 3. The development of these clouds has become less
(a) Reserve Bank of India frequent in the last decade.

AUGUST - DAILY MCQs FROM THE HINDU & INDIAN EXPRESS  158
How many of the above statements are correct? 2. It will help borrowers to verify the claims of digital
(a) Only one (b) Only two lending apps’ (DLAs) association with Regulated
Entities (RE)
(c) All three (d) None
How many of the above statements is/are correct’?
Q26. Consider the following statements regarding Bailey (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
bridge:
1. It is a type of modular bridge with pre-built parts (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
that can be put together quickly as needed. Q31. Consider the following statements regarding Indian
2. They were invented during World War II. Southern Ocean Research Programme:
3. They find applications in military and disaster 1. The programme initiated in 2012, to send Scientific
relief operations. Expeditions to the Indian Ocean Sector of the
Southern Ocean.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
2. 
National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (NCPOR), Goa is the nodal agency for the
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 & 3 programme.

Q27. Consider the following statements with reference to Which of the statements above is/are correct?
‘The operation Dhundi’: (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. Operation Dudhi was undertaken in the general
area of Chowkibal by central reserve police force (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(CRPF). Q32. What is Lingshui 36-1 recently seen in news?
2. Hallmark of Operation Dudhi was that this was
mainly conducted under the commanding officer (a) Largest Nuclear power plant developed by South
of the battalion with his sub-units playing the Korea
major role.
(b) China’s first re-usable rocket
How many of the above statements is/are correct’?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Volcano in the Yellow Sea

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Gas field in South China Sea

Q28. Which is the primary function of ‘Indexation’? August 10

(a) To determine the tax rates in a country
Q33. Which of the following primarily reflects the term
(b) To calculate the inflation rates ‘Headline Inflation’?
(c) To adjust the prices for seasonal variations (a) Inflation excluding food and energy prices
(d) To adjust the value of an asset for inflation (b) Inflation including all goods and services in the
August 9 economy

Q29. Which of the following states are included in ‘The (c) Inflation measured only in urban areas
Indian Himalayan Region’? (d) Inflation that focuses on only the core sectors of
1. Jammu and Kashmir the economy

2. Kerala Q34. Consider the following statements with reference to

3. Himachal Pradesh ‘Election Commission of India’:

4. Uttarakhand 1. It is responsible for delimitation of constituencies.

5. Eastern Ghats 2. Article 325 of the Indian Constitution deals with

Election commission of India.
Choose the correct option: How many of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only two (b) Only three (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Only four (d) All five (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q30. Consider the following statements with reference to Q35. Consider the following countries:
RBI’s ‘Public Repository of Digital Lending Apps’?
1. Russia 2. China
1. The repository will be based on data submitted by
Regulated Entities (RE) 3. Iran 4. Venezuela

159 AUGUST - DAILY MCQs FROM THE HINDU & INDIAN EXPRESS
 How many of the above countries are members of OPEC+? Which of the statements above is/are correct?
(a) One only (b) Two only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Three only (d) All four (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q36. Consider the following statements regarding High Q40. 
Consider the following regarding Indian medal
Courts in India: winning athletes in Paris Olympics 2024:
1. Article 214 of the Constitution provides a High
Court for each state. Athlete Medal Winning Event
2. According to the Constitution, the President after 1. Swapnil Kusale Shooting - 25m Rifle Men
consultation with Governor and Chief Justice of 2. Manu Bhaker Shooting - 10m Air Pistol Women
India can provide for establishment of additional
benches of the High Court. 3. Aman Wrestling – Men’s freestyle 60kg
4. Neeraj Chopra Men’s Javelin Throw
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
How many of the pairs above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only three (d) All four
August 12
August 13
Q37. Consider the following statements with reference to
‘Election to the State Assembly’? Q41. 
Consider the following statements regarding
1. Article 174 deals with the duration of the state Tungabhadra River:
assemblies 1. It is formed by confluence of two streams, Tunga
2. 
Minimum age to contest an election in a state and Bhadra that rise in the Western ghats.
assembly is 30 years. 2. 
It forms the boundary between the states of
3. State election commission is primarily responsible Karnataka and Maharashtra.
for conducting elections for state assemblies.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
How many of the above are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) All three (d) None
Q42. What is Gobekli Tepe recently seen in news?
Q38. Consider the following with recent reference by the (a) A near Earth asteroid
Supreme court ‘Bail Norms’ w.r.t the denial of the (b) Ancient site in south of France
bail:
(c) Archeological site in Turkey
1. The suspect is unlikely to appear before the court (d) Crater near lunar south pole
for trial.
Q43. Which of the following best reflects the meaning of
2. The suspect is a flight risk. the term ‘Microcephaly’?
(a) A condition where the baby is born with a smaller
3. The possibility of the trial not beginning anytime than average head size
soon.
(b) A condition where the baby’s head grows too
4. The suspect is in a position to influence witnesses. rapidly

How many of the above statements are correct? (c) A condition where the baby has excessive fluid in
the brain
(a) Only two (b) Only three
(d) A condition where the baby is born with a larger
(c) All four (d) None than average head size
Q39. Consider the following statements regarding Nankai
Q44. Which of the following are included in the basket of
Trough:
goods and services used to calculate the Consumer
1. 
It is an underwater subduction zone where Price Index (CPI)?
Australian Plate collides with Philippine Plate. 1. Defence expenditure

2. It is located in the South China Sea. 2. Housing

AUGUST - DAILY MCQs FROM THE HINDU & INDIAN EXPRESS  160
 3. Food and beverage August 15
4. Transportation Q49. Which of following countries are a part of ‘Horn of
5. Domestic Electricity Africa’?

Choose the correct option: 1. Ethiopia 2. Somalia

(a) Only two (b) Only three 3. Sudan 4. Eretria

(c) Only four (d) All five Select the correct option from above:

August 14 (a) Only one (b) Only two

Q45. Consider the following statements with reference to (c) Only three (d) All four
the Border Security Force (BSF): Q50. Consider the following statements regarding nuclear-
1. BSF is not a part of central armed police force armed submarines in India:
(CAPF). 1. INS Arighat is indigenously built diesel-electric
2. 
It primarily guards the borders of India with powered, nuclear-armed submarine developed
Pakistan and Bangladesh. under Advanced Technology Vessel programme.
3. 
Ministry of Defence is responsible for the 2. INS Arihant was commissioned into the Strategic
administration of BSF. Forces Command (SFC) in 2018 and is operated by
How many of the above is/are correct? Indian Navy.

(a) Only one (b) Only two Which of the statements above is/are correct?

(c) All three (d) None (a) 1 only (b) 2 only

Q46. Which of the following is a condition of furlough? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(a) The prisoner must attend daily parole meetings Q51. Consider the following:

(b) The prisoner must return to prison by a specified 1. Food prices

date and time 2. Medical services
(c) The prisoner is allowed to leave the country 3. Energy Prices
(d) The prisoner’s sentence is automatically reduced 4. Education and communication
Q47. Consider the following statements regarding Denial- 5. Housing costs
of-Service (DoS) attacks: Which of the above are typically considered when
1. It is a type of computer malware that disrupts the calculating Core Inflation?
availability of services by flooding the system with (a) Only two (b) Only three
traffic.
(c) Only four (d) All five
2. In a distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack,
multiple sources work against one target making Q52. 
Bacillus, Micrococcus and Staphylococcus are the
the culprit easy to locate. types of…
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
(a) Fungi (b) DNA Viruses
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) RNA Viruses (d) Bacteria
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q48. 
Consider the following statements regarding Joint August 17
Parliamentary Committees (JPCs): Q53. Consider the following statements regarding ISRO’s
1. A Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) is an ad Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV):
hoc body comprising members of both Houses of 1. 
SSLV is a two-staged solid propellent launch
Parliament. vehicle.

2. The proportion of representation in a JPC is 2:1 for 2. 

ISRO has successfully launched the third
Treasury and Opposition. developmental flight of the SSLV.

3. A motion to set up a JPC can only be introduced in 3. 

The SSLV can launch satellites weighing up to
Lok Sabha. 1,200 kg and accommodate multiple satellites.
How many of the above statements are correct?
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None (c) All three (d) None

161 AUGUST - DAILY MCQs FROM THE HINDU & INDIAN EXPRESS
 Q54. Consider the following statements regarding Krishi Q59. Which one of the following are not true about Baya
Decision Support System (K-DSS) portal: Weavers?
1. It is a geospatial platform that will function as a (a) They are solitary in nature and prefer isolated
repository of standardized data. nest
2. It is a part of the Digital Public Infrastructure for (b) Their nests are intricately woven and hang from
Agriculture. tree branches
Which of the statements above is/are correct? (c) Only males contribute equally to nest-building
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) They are commonly found in open grasslands
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q60. Consider the following statements with reference to
Q55. Which of following is the purpose of ‘EOS-08 Earth ‘The Agnipath Scheme’:
Observation Satellite’? 1. It is a short term military service.
1. Surface-to-Air Defence 2. A pension for life is to be provided to Agniveers
2. Ballistic Missile Delivery after a 4-year tenure.
3. Climate and Weather Monitoring 3. 25% of the Agniveers are expected to be retained
4. Anti-Submarine Warfare in the armed forces after their initial tenure.

Select the correct option from above: Select the correct option from above:

(a) Only one (b) Only two (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) Only three (d) All four (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3

Q56. Consider the following pairs: August 20

Q61. Consider the following statements regarding BPalM:
Country Recently seen in news
1. 
BPalM is a novel treatment regimen for drug-
1. Croatia Two-month compulsory military service
resistant tuberculosis.
2. Sudan Referendum held
2. 
It is a three-month intra-venous regimen for
3. Vietnam Youngest leader in country’s history elected treating multi-drug-resistant tuberculosis.
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? 3. It is in the final phases of trial under WHO
(a) Only one (b) Only two supervision.

(c) All three (d) None How many of the above statements are correct?

August 19 (a) Only one (b) Only two

Q57. 
Which of the following bodies recently released (c) All three (d) None
the report ‘Small Community, Big Contributions, Answer: a (1 only)
Boundless Horizons: The Indian Diaspora in the Q62. Consider the following statements regarding dual-
United States”? use goods:
(a) Ministry of External Affairs, Government of India 1. Dual-use items are goods, software and technology
(b) U.S. Department of State that can be used for both civilian and military
(c) Indiaspora applications.

(d) United Nations (UN) Population Division 2. 

These include electronic components, machine
tools, drones and software for drones.
Q58. Consider the following statements: 3. 
The Australia Group is a multilateral export
1. India’s energy demand has been rising briskly, control regime related to the export of dual-use
leading to higher oil imports and increasing goods.
dependence on imported crude. How many of the above statements are correct?
2. Heavy dependence on imported crude oil makes (a) Only one (b) Only two
Indian economy vulnerable to global oil price
volatility, and have a bearing on the country’s (c) All three (d) None
trade deficit, foreign exchange reserves, rupee’s Q63. What was the primary focus of the recently tabled ‘K.
exchange rate, and inflation. Hema Committee report’?
Which of the statements above is/are correct? (a) Investigating financial irregularities in the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Malayalam film industry

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Promoting regional cinema in Kerala

AUGUST - DAILY MCQs FROM THE HINDU & INDIAN EXPRESS  162
 (c) 
Addressing issues faced by women in the (b) To oversee the global financial system and
Malayalam film industry economic policies
(d) Evaluating the quality of films produced in the (c) 
To address issues related to nuclear non-
Malayalam industry proliferation and the Iranian nuclear program
Q64. Consider the following statements with reference to (d) 
To coordinate military strategies and defence
‘The Thomas Picketty measure of Income Inequality’: policies among member states
1. It is a measure of income inequality defined as the August 22
ratio of the share of top 1 % to that of the bottom
50% of the population in total income. Q69. 
Which of the following statements best describe
2. Rapid technological advancements are the one of ‘Predatory Pricing’?
the main drivers of rising income inequality in the (a) Offering discounts to loyal customers to maintain
21st century. market share.
3. 
Piketty’s analysis primarily relies on National (b) Setting prices based on the cost of production
Income Tax records to study income and wealth plus very high profit margin.
inequality.
(c) Setting prices above market value to maximize
How many of the above is/are correct? profits in the short term.
(a) Only one (b) Only two (d) Setting prices below cost with the intention of
(c) Only three (d) All four driving competitors out of the market and later
raising prices.
Answer: b (1 and 3 only)
Q70. Consider the following statements regarding Panda
August 21 Diplomacy:
Q65. Consider the following states in India: 1. Panda diplomacy is a diplomatic tool that involves
1. Assam 2. Bihar the practice of sending giant pandas to other
3. Sikkim 4. West Bengal countries.

The Teesta River passes through which of the above states? 2. China and other East Asian countries send giant
pandas as goodwill ambassadors to strengthen
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only relations with other countries.
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only Which of the statements above is/are correct?
Q66. What is epinephrine sometimes seen in news? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(a) A protein responsible for muscle contraction.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) A polymer used in the production of plastics.
(c) A hormone released by the adrenal glands during Q71. Consider the following statements with reference to
stress. ‘The India – KLEMS database:’

(d) A type of fuel used in rocket propulsion systems. 1. 

KLEMS stand for Knowledge, Labour, Energy,
Material, Services
Q67. Consider the following statements with reference to
‘Union Public Service Commission’ 2. The database is primarily designed to measure
1. Article 324 deals with Appointment of members Total factor Productivity (TFP).
of the commission. 3. 
Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector
2. Prime Minister of India appoints the chairman Enterprises (ASUSE) is used by SBI to validate the
and the members of the commission. India-KLEMS employment data.
3. Part IX of the Indian Constitution deals functioning Select the correct option from above?
of the Commission.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
How many of the above is/are correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
(a) Only two (b) Only three
Q72. Which article of the Universal Declaration of Human
(c) All four (d) None Rights (UDHR) focuses on the right to life, liberty,
Q68. What is the primary purpose of the P5+1 group in and security of person?
international diplomacy? (a) Article 3 (b) Article 1
(a) To negotiate trade agreements between member
countries (c) Article 10 (d) Article 5

163 AUGUST - DAILY MCQs FROM THE HINDU & INDIAN EXPRESS
 August 23 (b) Reports of the CAG are required to be submitted
Q73. What is the primary purpose of Alpha Particle X-ray to the President, who shall cause them to be laid
Spectrometer (APXS) used in planetary exploration before each House of Parliament.
missions? (c) Reports of the CAG for states are submitted to the
(a) To measure the temperature of planetary surfaces Governor, who shall cause them to be laid before
(b) To capture high-resolution images of planetary the legislature of the state.
landscapes (d) 
When reports are received in Parliament,
 o analyse the chemical composition of rocks and
(c) T the reports are scrutinised by the Estimates
soil Committee of the Parliament.

(d) To detect magnetic fields on planets Q79. Consider the following statements with reference to
‘The SWAMITVA Scheme’:
Q74. Consider the following countries:
1. 
Ministry of Panchayati Raj is responsible for
1. Algeria 2. Libya implementing the SWAMITVA scheme
3. Israel 4. Sudan 2. The Ground-penetrating radar technology is used
How many of the above countries share land border with under the SWAMITVA scheme.
Egypt? 3. The primary objective of the SWAMITVA scheme
(a) Only one (b) Only two is to digitally map rural properties.
(c) Only three (d) All four 4. Its implementation is managed under States and
Centre has no role under the scheme.
Q75. Consider the following statements with reference to
‘The Gaganyaan TV-D1’: How many of the above is/are correct?
1. It is a modified L-40 Vikas engine that was used to (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
perform the first abort mission.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
2. The mission demonstrated the ability of the Crew
Escape System (CES) to separate from the test Q80. The G20 was established in response to which global
vehicle. event?
Select the correct option from above? (a) World War II
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (b) The 2008 Global Financial Crisis
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) The Great Depression
Q76. 
What does a ‘Purchasing Manufacturing Index (d) The 1997 Asian Financial Crisis
(PMI)’ value above 50 generally indicates?
August 26
(a) Economic contraction in the manufacturing sector
Q81. Consider the following statements with reference to
(b) Economic expansion in the manufacturing sector ‘The Justice Verma Committee’:
(c) Decline in consumer spending 1. Criminalization of marital rape
(d) No change in the manufacturing 2. 
Strengthening laws against stalking and
August 24 voyeurism
Q77. 
Consider the following statements regarding 3. Death penalty of rape
Vijayanagara Empire: 4. 
Creation of fast-track courts for sexual assault
1. It was established in 1336 by Harihara-I and Bukka cases
Raya-I of Tuluva dynasty. How many of the above is/are recommended by the
2. The empire fell after successive defeats in battles committee?
with the Bijapur Sultanate. (a) Only two (b) Only three
Which of the statements above is/are correct? (c) All four (d) None
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Q82. Consider the following statements with reference to
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 ‘The UPI-PayNow’:
Q78. 
Which of the following statement regarding
Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is 1. 
The UPI-PayNow linkage enables real-time,
incorrect: cross-border fund transfers between India and
Singapore.
(a) Reports of the CAG are subject to scrutiny by
Parliament and the Government can always offer 2. 
It allows users to send money using mobile
its views on the reports. numbers or virtual payment addresses.

AUGUST - DAILY MCQs FROM THE HINDU & INDIAN EXPRESS  164
 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only 3. The survey is conducted quarterly.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. National Sample Survey Office is responsible for
Q83. Consider the following statements regarding Feroz conducting the Periodic Labour Force Survey in
Shah Kotla: India.

1. It is a 14th century monument built by Feroz Shah How many of the above is/are correct?
Tughlaq, ruler of the Tughlaq dynasty. (a) 1, 3, and 4 only (b) 1, 2, and 3 only
2. It introduced the concept of Diwan-e-Aam and (c) 1, 2, and 4 only (d) 2, 3, and 4 only
Diwan-e-Khas for the first time in medieval India. Q88. According to the What is the primary function of the
Which of the statements above is/are correct? diaphragm in a stethoscope?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (a) To amplify sounds
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) To transmit low-frequency sounds
Q84. 
Consider the following statements regarding (c) To create pressure waves in the air
Atacama Desert: (d) To acquire an electrocardiogram of the heart
1. It is located in the Sahel region of Africa.
August 28
2. It is the driest non-polar desert in the world.
Q89. Consider the following pairs:
3. The salt flat at Atacama is known for Lithium
extraction. National Park State to which Waterbodies
How many of the above statements are correct? they belong present
(a) Only one (b) Only two 1. Kuno National Park Madhya Pradesh Kabini river
(c) All three (d) None 2. Ranthambore Rajasthan Chambal
August 27 National Park river
Q85. 
Consider the following statements regarding 3. Kanha National Madhya Pradesh Banjar river
Hollongapar Gibbon Wildlife Sanctuary: Park
1. The sanctuary is located in Arunachal Pradesh. How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
2. It is home to endangered Hoolock Gibbon and (a) Only one (b) Only two
wild elephants. (c) All three (d) None
3. 
It is the only place in India to have Hoolock Q90. The Modified Vaccinia Ankara-Bavarian Nordic
Gibbon. (MVA-BN), also known as ‘Jynneos’ recently seen in
How many of the above statements are correct? news is…
(a) Only one (b) Only two (a) Inactivated vaccine
(c) All three (d) None (b) Live attenuated vaccine
Q86. Consider the following agreements between India (c) Subunit vaccine
and USA: (d) mRNA vaccine
1. Logistics Exchange Memorandum of Agreement
(LEMOA) Q91. Consider the following statements regarding fixed-
dose combination (FDC) drugs:
2. 
Communications, Compatibility and Security
Agreement (COMCASA) 1. Fixed dose combinations are medicines that have
two or more active ingredients in a single pill,
3. Security of Supply Arrangement (SOSA) capsule or shot.
4. Industrial Security Agreement (ISA) 2. The combination makes them highly effective as
the ingredients work together to provide relief to
Which of the agreements above is/are signed in 2024? the patient.
(a) 1 and 4 Only (b) 4 only Which of the statements above is/are correct?

(c) 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q87. Consider the following statements with reference to
‘The Periodic Labour Force Survey’: Q92. Consider the following statements regarding Goods
1. It assesses the level of inflation in the economy. and Service Tax (GST):

2. It covers both the urban and rural population. 1. At present, GST has four tax slabs.

165 AUGUST - DAILY MCQs FROM THE HINDU & INDIAN EXPRESS
 2. Instead of GST, a compensation cess is levied on How many of the above is/are correct?
coal and petroleum products. (a) 1, 2, and 3only (b) 2, 3, and 4 only
3. GST revenue collection has been rising consistently (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, and 4 only
month-on-month in the past one year.
How many of the above statements are correct? August 30
(a) Only one (b) Only two Q97. 
Consider the following statements regarding
International Convention for the Protection of All
(c) All three (d) None Persons from Enforced Disappearance:
August 29 1. Article 1 declares that no one shall be subjected to
enforced disappearance.
Q93. 
Consider the following statements regarding
Paralympic Games: 2. War and public emergency are the two exceptions
under Article 1 of the convention.
1. The Paralympic Games are held every four years,
following the Olympic Games, and feature athletes 3. India has ratified to the convention in 2007.
with disabilities. How many of the above statements are correct?
2. 
India has never participated in the Winter (a) Only one (b) Only two
Paralympic Games. (c) All three (d) None
3. 
India’s medal count and tally is higher in Q98. 
What is Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP)
Paralympic games as compared to Olympic frequently seen in news?
Games.
(a) 
A nationwide scheme to promote renewable
How many of the above statements are correct? energy sources and reduce carbon emissions.
(a) Only one (b) Only two (b) 
A set of guidelines to improve the quality of
(c) All three (d) None drinking water in rural areas.

Q94. Consider the following countries: (c) A comprehensive framework designed to combat
air pollution in Delhi-NCR by implementing
1. Mauritius 2. Singapore specific actions based on the severity of air quality.
3. UAE 4. France (d) A government initiative to increase forest cover
around metro cities by planting trees.
How many of the above countries allow payments from
both UPI QR code and RuPay cards? Q99. Consider the following verticals as envisaged by the
BioE3 initiative:
(a) Only one (b) Only two
1. Bio-based chemicals and enzymes
(c) Only three (d) All four
2. Space exploration technologies
Q95. Consider the following statements with reference to 3. Precision biotherapeutics
‘The MCD Elections of Delhi’:
4. Climate-resilient agriculture
1. The MCD elections are held every five years to
elect members of the municipal corporation. 5. Marine and space research
2. The MCD elections are conducted by the Election How many of the above is/are correct?
Commission of India. (a) Only three (b) Only four
3. 
The Mayor of Delhi is directly elected by the (c) All five (d) None
citizens through MCD elections.
Q100. Consider the following statements with reference to
How many of the above is/are correct? ‘The State Elections Commission (SEC)’:
(a) Only one (b) Only two 1. It conducts elections to state legislative assembly.
(c) All three (d) None 2. Articles 324 of the Indian Constitution established
Q96. Consider the following strategies recommended by the State Election Commissions.
the World Health Organization (WHO) to combat 3. Kishan Singh Tomar vs Municipal Corporation of
Tubercolosis? Ahmedabad emphasized the need to empower
1. Early diagnosis and treatment State Election Commissions to be on par with the
Election Commission of India.
2. Improving TB diagnostics and treatment regimens
How many of the above is/are correct?
3. Increasing access to vaccination for all age groups
(a) Only one (b) Only two
4. Strengthening TB surveillance systems
(c) All three (d) None

AUGUST - DAILY MCQs FROM THE HINDU & INDIAN EXPRESS  166
August 31 Q103. Consider the following statements with reference to
Q101. 
Consider the following statements regarding ‘The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)’:
Copyright Act 1957: 1. 
It was established under the Insolvency and
1. 
It provides the author with legal rights to Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
reproduce, adapt or translate his/her work. 2. 
Its primary aim is to issue licenses for new
2. 
Ownership of the copyright lapses upon the companies.
death of the author. 3. Appeals against the orders of the NCLT can be
Which of the statements above is/are correct? made to High Court of the respective state.

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only How many of the above is/are correct?

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only one (b) Only two

Q102. 
Consider the following statements regarding (c) All three (d) None
NASA’s Endurance Mission: Q104. 
Consider the following with reference to the
1. It was launched in 2022, with aim to measure conditions that cause ‘Cyclone’?
Earth’s global electric potential. 1. Coriolis Force 2. High Atmospheric Pressure
2. Observations of the mission are used to measure 3. Low Humidity 4. Low Vertical Wind Shear
planet-wide electric field.
How many of the above is/are correct?
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
(a) Only two (b) Only three
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) All four (d) None
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer Key
Q1. d Q27. b Q53. a Q79. c
Q2. a Q28. d Q54. c Q80. d
Q3. d Q29. b Q55. a Q81. b
Q4. b Q30. c Q56. a Q82. c
Q5. b Q31. b Q57. c Q83. c
Q6. a Q32. d Q58. c Q84. b
Q7. b Q33. b Q59. a Q85. a
Q8. b Q34. d Q60. c Q86. c
Q9. b Q35. c Q61. a Q87. d
Q10. c Q36. a Q62. b Q88. c
Q11. d Q37. d Q63. c Q89. b
Q12. b Q38. c Q64. b Q90. b
Q13. d Q39. d Q65. c Q91. a
Q14. a Q40. b Q66. c Q92. d DAILY ANSWER WRITING
Q15. a Q41. a Q67. d Q93. a PRACTICE
Q16. b Q42. c Q68. c Q94. d
Q1. 
Critically examine the environmental concerns
Q17. a Q43. a Q69. d Q95. a associated with the adoption of Artificial Intelligence
Q18. c Q44. c Q70. a Q96. d (AI) in present and in future.
Q19. d Q45. a Q71. b Q97. a [GS 3, 15 marks] [250 words]
Q20. d Q46. b Q72. a Q98. c Q2. What is Multiple Independently Targetable Re-entry
Vehicle (MIRV) technology? Discuss its key features
Q21. b Q47. a Q73. c Q99. b
and significance in Indian missile programme.
Q22. a Q48. a Q74. c Q100. a
[GS 3, 15 marks] [250 words]
Q23. b Q49. c Q75. c Q101. a
Q3. H
 ighlight the significance of agriculture research and
Q24 d Q50. b Q76. b Q102. c development in enhancing agriculture productivity.
Q25. b Q51. b Q77. b Q103. d What are the implications of reduced investment
in agriculture research and development (R&D) on
Q26. d Q52. d Q78. d Q104. a

167 AUGUST - DAILY MCQs FROM THE HINDU & INDIAN EXPRESS
 India’s food security and economic growth? [GS 3, 15 Q18. 
Discuss the various methods of sustainable
marks] [250 words] agriculture. What are the challenges associated with
Q4. What is CAR-T cell therapy? Describe the procedure sustainable agriculture? [GS3, 15 marks] [250 words]
and advantages of the CAR-T cell therapy in cancer Q19. What is denial-of-service (DoS) attack? How is it
treatment.[GS 3, 15 marks] [250 words] different from a distributed denial of service (DDoS)
Q5. What is a landslide? Discuss the susceptibility of India attack? Discuss the ways in which DoS attacks are
to landslides and the factors responsible for causing carried and ways to deal with such attacks. [GS 3, 15
landslides. [GS 1, 15 marks] [250 words] marks] [250 words]

Q6. Examine the risk of lightning in eastern and central Q20. What are pyrocumulonimbus clouds? Discuss the
India. Discuss the significance of planting palm trees formation and occurrence of pyrocumulonimbus
to combat lightning. [GS 1 & 3, 10 marks] [150 words] clouds. [GS 1, 10 marks] [150 words]

Q7. 
In light of the recent political developments Q21. 
Discuss the constitutional provisions and
in Bangladesh, discuss the significance of composition of the Election Commission of
India-Bangladesh relationship in the context India. What are its jurisdictions and functions?
of regional cooperation and development. [GS 2, 15 marks] [250 words]
[GS 2, 15 marks] [250 words] Q22. W
 hat is mpox disease? What are the different
Q8. 
Climate change induced rising sea levels are clades (types) of mpox pathogen? Discuss the
pushing countries to relocate their cities and capitals. transmission and history of mpox outbreaks.
Comment. [GS 1, 10 marks] [150 words] [GS 3, 15 marks] [250 words]

Q9. 
With government planning to roll out India AI Q23. Discuss the arguments against excessive regulatory
Mission, how can the goals of AI be realised without a intervention by RBI to manage Rupee volatility.
digital divide. Discuss. [GS 3, 15 marks] [250 words] What are the different regulatory measures and
the problems associated with such measures?
Q10. W
 hat are biofuels? Discuss the significance of [GS3, 15 marks] [250 words]
adopting biofuels in present time and the challenges
associated with biofuels. [GS 3, 15 marks] [250 words] Q24. 
What is Financial Inclusion index and its broad
parameters? Discuss the benefits and significance
Q11. 
Discuss the recent judgment of the Supreme of the Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY).
Court on the classification of Scheduled [GS 3, 15 marks] [250 words]
Castes and Scheduled Tribes, highlighting
the key questions or issues before the bench. Q25. W
 hat is the different colour-coded warnings by India
[GS 2, 15 marks] [250 words] Meteorological Department (IMD)? Discuss the need
for upgrade in India Meteorological Department
Q12. What is Clean Plant Program? Examine its objectives (IMD). [GS 1, 15 marks] [250 words]
and components. What are the potential benefits of
the program. [GS3, 15 marks] [250 words] Q26. What is the policy of lateral entry? Examine the need
and criticism of lateral entry in bureaucracy. [GS 2,
Q13. 
Discuss the events of 1940s leading up to 15 marks] [250 words]
India’s independence and partition in 1947.
[GS 1, 15 marks] [250 words]

Q14. 
The Indian subcontinent was subject to various
foreign invasions. Discuss how did these invasions
changed the Indian culture in due course of time.
[GS 1, 15 marks] [250 words]

Q15. W
 hat is the difference between structural and
frictional unemployment? Discuss the challenges of
structural unemployment in India and the strategies
to address structural unemployment. [GS 3, 15
marks] [250 words]
Q16. What are polymetallic nodules? Critically analyse
the economic viability and potential environmental
implications of deep-sea mining. [GS 1 & 3, 15
marks] [250 words]

Q17. Discuss the key schemes and initiatives implemented

by the Government of India to achieve its renewable
energy targets. Highlight the progress made by India
in adoption renewable energy. [GS 3, 15 marks]
[250 words]

AUGUST - DAILY MCQs FROM THE HINDU & INDIAN EXPRESS  168