1

7 Test
SET CODE Booklet No
GROUP - II
APGR2 HISTORY & POLITY 260524
Duration : 2.30 Hrs (ENGLISH & TELUGU MEDIUM) Marks : 150

QUESTION, KEY WITH EXPLANATIONS

1. Consider the following statements?

a) Assertion : There is evidence that the first temples built in Andhra were Shiva temples.
b) Reason : The oldest Shivalinga in Andhra is found in Amaravati. It belongs to the Satavahana period.
1) Only A is correct
2) Only B is correct
3) A & B are correct
4) Both A and B are correct and B is the correct explanation of A

Answer: 1
The oldest Shiva lingam in Andhra desha was found at Gudimallam in Chittoor district. It dates back to the
time of the Satavahanas. This proves that the first temples built in Andhra were Shiva temples.
Additional Important Information:
Largest Stupa in south India - Nelakondapalli
The largest Stupa in India - Sanchi
Oldest Stupa in south India - Bhattiprolu
Oldest Stupa in India - Pipravaha

2. Identify which of the following is correct about the Satavahana king who is described as the
"Trisamudhradipathi" by Banabhattu, the 27th king in the orderof Satavahana kings according
to the Chinaganjam inscription?
a) He married Rudramaka, daughter of Rudramana.
b) He minted coins with the symbol of a ship's sailing or anchored ship.
c) During his time there was a lot of trade with Rome.
d) Kamasutra was composed during his time.
e) The Chinese traveler Intsiang mentioned that he built Paravata Vihara at Nagarjunakonda.
1) A, B, C only 2) B, C, E only
3) B, C, D only 4) B, C only

Answer: 4
According to the Junagad inscription written by Rudradhamana, Rudradamika was married to Vasishtaputra
Sivashri Satakarni.
Compilation of Matsyapuranam started during the period of Yajnashree Satakarni.
Pahiyan states that Acharya Nagarjuna used to stay in the court of Yagnashri Satakarni and built the
Mahavihara or Paravata Vihara for him.

3. Among the 18 occupational categories during the Satavahana period, if we code Gadhika as
Veja, Veja as Gadhika, Vassakara as Silavadhika, and Silavadhika as Vassakara, which of the
following occupational categories were bamboo/wood workers?
1) Veja 2) Gadhika
3) Vassakara 4) Silavadhika
Answer: 4

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Gadhika - A maker of aromatic perfumes.
Veja- the physician/doctor.
Vassakara - bamboo/wood worker.
ilavadhika - sculptures.

Note :-

According to the code only Shilavadhika ie bamboo workers are Shilavadhika. But actually the Vassakaras
used to work with bamboo during the Satavahana period.

4. Which of the following factors is important for Gautamiputra Satakarni to earn the title of
"Varna Sankarya Nirodhaka"?
1) For preventing Shakas belonging to foreign tribes from mixing in Satavahana society.
2) For defeating Sakaraja Sahapana in a battle called Jogalthambi.
3) For starting the tradition of matrimonics. 4) For starting the Salivahana era in AD 78.

Answer: 1
5. identify the following correct points regarding the inscriptions of sathavahanas and matter in it
?
a) The Nanaghat Inscription reveals the matrimonial relationship between the Satavahanas and the
Marathas.
b) Naganika is mentioned as "Rajarshipatni" in the Nasik inscription.
c) The Amaravati Inscription shows that Satavahana Empire spread to Andhra during Pulomawi period.
d) The information about village administration of the Satavahanas, Gulmika, and fall of the kingdom of
the Satavahanas is mentioned in the Macedonian inscription.
e) It is mentioned in the "Bilsa Inscription" that the 1st Satakarni recaptured the areas previously lost by
the Satavahanas.
1) A, B, C only 2) A, C, D, E only
3) A, C, D only 4) All of the above

Answer: 3
Gautami Balashri's Nashik inscription mentions her as 'Rajarshipatni'.
It is stated in the Bilsa Inscription that the 2nd Satakarni recaptured the areas previously lost by the
Satavahanas.

6. Identify which of the following pairs are correct in relation to the texts that inform about the
"Satavahanas"?
a) About the way of social life during the time of the Satavahanas - Gadha Saptasati.
b) They ruled for about 450 years from 271 BC to 174 AD - Matsyapurana.
c) A treatise describing the competition to teach Sanskrit to Kuntala Satakarni - Kantatra Vyakarana.
d) Vatsayana's Kamasutra is a text describing the society of the time of the Satavahanas through 700
romantic poems.
1) A, B, C only 2) A, B only
3) A and C only 4) A and D only

Answer: 2
A text describing the competition to teach Sanskrit to Kuntala Satakarni - Somadeva's Kathasaritsagaram.
Gadhasaptasati is a treatise describing the society of the time of the Satavahanas through 700 romantic
poems.
Note :-
The social life of the time of the Satavahanas is also mentioned in Vatsayuna's Kamasutra.

7. Identify the wrong statement given below regarding Satavahana kings ?

1) Satakarni 1st who conquered Akara, Avanti, Malaka and Malwa regions while expanding the kingdom
from the western side of Satavahana kingdom.
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2) He who occupied Vidisha after the death of Pushyamitra Shunga - 2nd Satakarni.
3) He who informed the plight of wives and girlfriends of sea traders - Haludu.
4) Gautamiputra Satakarni is mentioned as "Dakshinapadhesvara" in the Nasik inscription.

Answer: 4
Gautami Balasri, the mother of Gautamiputra Satakarni, inscribed the "Nasik" inscription during the reign
of Gautamiputra Satakarni's son Pulomavi II or Vasishtaputra Pulomavi. This inscription mentions his
grandson Pulomavi II as "Dakshinapadhesvaru".

8. Identify the incorrect statements about the Ikshvaka king who overthrew Pulomavi III, the
last ruler of the Satavahanas and founded the Ikshvaka kingdom, who was given the titles of
Sata Sahasra Halaka and Mahadanapati?
a) During his time Sriparvatam became a great pilgrimage site for Mahayana Buddhists.
b) It is mentioned in the Phanigiri inscription that he ruled for 18 years.
c) He restored the Mahachaitya at Nagarjunakonda under the supervision of a teacher named 'Bhavanta
Ananda'.
d) Nelakondapalli Stupa was built in Khamma during his time.
1) A and B only 2) A, B and C only
3) A, C, D only 4) All of the above

Answer: 4
While the question mentions Srisanthamulu, the founder of Ikshvaku, the statements are all about
Veerapurushadatta.
Note :-
All the statements are correctly regarding Veerapurusadattu.

9. Identify the incorrect statements regarding the "Veeragallu tradition" of the Ikshvaku period?
a) The tradition of worshiping and enshrining rocks for the heroes who died in the war is called veeragallu
tradition.
b) Sculptures related to this tradition were found at Nagarjunakonda.
c) One of the prominent sculptures of this tradition is the Mandhata sculpture found at Nelakondapally.
d) This sculpture found at Nelakondapally shows what the Emperor looked like.
1) None 2) Only b
3) D only 4) C, D only

Answer: 4
Mandhata sculpture, a famous sculpture of the Ikshvaku period, was found in Jaggaiyapet. This sculpture
shows for the first time what the emperor looked like.

10. Who built a vihara for Buddhist monks belonging to the "Bahusrutiya sect" at Nagarjunakonda?
1) Acharya Nagarjuna
2) Upashika Bodhishri
3) Bhatta Mahadevi
4) Rudra Purusha Datta

Answer: 4
Bhattimahadevi, the wife of Ehuvala Shantamula, donated to the Bahushruti Buddhists, while Rudra
Purushadatta or 2nd Veerapurushadatta built a vihara for the Buddhist monks of the Bahushruti sect at
Nagarjuna konda in the name of his mother 'Bhatti Mahadevi'.

11. From the fall of the Ikshwakas to the establishment of the Vengi Chalukya kingdom i.e. From
the 4th century AD. to 7th century AD match the Royal dynasties that ruled the Andhra with
important aspects related to those dynasties ?
a) Early Pallavas 1) They are mentioned in the inscription as
"Brahmakshatra Tejoyutulu".
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b) Brihatpalayanas 2) They are mentioned in the
inscriptions as Kapila Dhwajus
and Thrikuta Parvatadhipulas.
c) Shalankayans 3) Pedvegi inscription with
Vishnu temples in Andhra belongs to
this dynasty.
d) Ananda Gotrikas 4) Their only inscription is the
Kondamudi inscription
e) Vishnukundinas 5) An inscription describing their reign
is now in the British Museum.
1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-5
2) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-2, E-1
3) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-1, E-2
4) A-5, B-4, C-2, D-3, E-1

Answer: 2

12. Madhavavarma II, the greatest of Vishnukundya kings, is mentioned in which of the following
inscriptions as having received the title "Trivara Nagara Bhavanagata Sundari Hrudaya
Nandana" as the one who make suffocated and pleasures the beautiful women?
1) Palamuru Inscription
2) Chaitanyapuri rock inscription
3) Chikkulla Copper Inscription
4) Velpur Rock Inscription

Answer: 1

13. Identify the correct statements regarding capital and administration of Vengi Chalukyas ?
a) Jayasimha Vallabhudu shifted their capital from Piptapuram to Vengi.
b) Kokkoli Vikramaditya who renounced the kingdom of Vengi and established a new kingdom at
'Yalamanchili'.
c) Ammaraju II Built a town called Rajamahendravaram and shifted the capital from Vengi town to
Rajamahendravaram
1) All of the above 2) A and B only
3) A and C only 4) B and C only

Answer: 2
Ammaraju I titles - Rajamahendra, Vishnuvardhana.
He built a town named Rajamahendravaram after his title Rajamahendra on the banks of Godavari river
and shifted the capital from Vengi to Rajamahendravaram.

14. Identify the incorrect statement in the following about the Eastern Chalukya king who got
titles like Paramabrahmana, Parama Mahesvara, Parama Bhattaraka, Kavigayaka Kalpataravu
and inscribed important inscriptions like Tadikonda, Malayampudi and Kaluchemburu?
a) His prince - Ballala devudu
b) His court poets - Potanabhattu, Madhavabhattu, Bhattudevudu.
c) He donated the village Kaluchemburu to the Sarvalokashrayam jain temple built at Eluru by his wife
Chamakamba.
d) His army chief Duggaraju donated the village "Maliampudi" to "Katikabarana Jinalaya" built in
Dharmavaram of Prakasam district.
1) d only 2) c only
3) d only 4) None
Answer: 4
Note :-
Regarding the Eastern Chalukya or Vengi Chalukya king Amaraja 2, the titles, inscriptions and information
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in the statements in question is correctly given.

15. Which foreign traveler mentioned that during the period of Eastern Chalukyas, Buddhist temples
became Saiva temples and brothels?
1) Huan Tsang 2) Pahian
3) Intsingh 4) Travernier

Answer: 1
Chinese traveller, Huan Tsang in his Si-yu-ki mentions that during the period of Eastern Chalukyas the
Buddha temples became Saiva temples and brothels.

16. Identify the correct statements regarding Eastern Chalukya kings ?

a) The Kalavakonda inscription of Visakha district shows that Jayasimha Vallabhudu extended his kingdom
up to Diviseema.
b) Indra Bhattaraka laid the Pedda Maddala inscription
c) Vishnuvardhana II laid the Kondanaguru inscription
d) 3rd Vishnuvarthana inscribed the Rayyur inscription
1) a, b, c only 2) b, c, d only
3) a, c, d only 4) None

Answer: 4
The Kalankonda inscription of Visakha district states that Kujjavishnuvardhana extended his kingdom up
to Divisima.

1) Peda Maddala Inscription, Vipparla Inscription - Jayasimha Vallabhudu

2) Kondanaguru Inscription - Indra Bhattaraka
3) Rayuru Inscription - 2nd Vishnuvarthana
Note : The inscription of Vishnuvardhana 3rd is Mushini konda inscription

17. The 3rd Vijayaditya popularly known as Gunaga Vijayaditya who grasped the 'Pali Dhwaja' -
Ganga Yamuna toranam from the rastra kutas got which of the following titles?
1) Tripura Martyamaheswara
2) Para Chakrarama
3) Samadhigata Pancha Mahasabdha
4) Ranaranga Shudraka

Answer: 3
Titles of Gunaga Vijayaditya (848 - 892 AD).
1) Pridhvi Vallabha
2) Dakshinapati
3) Parachakrarama
4) Tripura Martyamaheswara
5) Viramakaradvaja
6) Ranranga Shudraka
7) Bhavana Kandarpa
8) Maanuja prakasha
9) Gunakesallata
10)Samadhigata Pancha Mahashabda
Note:
Dakshinapati - Gunaga Vijayaditya
Dakshina Padheswara - 2nd Pulomavi
Dakshinadhi Ashoka - Veerapurushadatta
Dakshinapadhapathi - 1st Satakarni, Vasishthaputra - Shiva Sri Satakarni
Dakshinapadha Swami - Sri Krishna Devarayalu

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18. Identify the correct statements about Telugu Cholas who claimed to be descendants of Karikala
Cholas and Suravamsa Kshatriyas ?
a) Renati Cholas are credited by laying the first inscriptions in Telugu language
b) Pottati Chodas were the rulers of Kadapa district after Renati Cholas
c) According to the inscription laid by Opili Siddhi, Opili Siddhi fought with the Konidena Chodas and
occupied 'Konidena' on the orders of Ganapati devudu.
d) Nannuru Choda Progenitor - Bijjanna
1) a, b, c only 2) a,b,d only
3) b,c,d only 4) All of the above

Answer: 1
Nanne Chodakavi, who wrote Kumara Sambhavam, belonged to this Nannur Choda sect, whose father
was Chodabaliraju, a king of Pakanati.
Note:
Progenitor of Nellore Chodas - Bijjanna
The capital of the Nellore Chodas - Vikramasinghampuram
First King of Nellore Chodas - 1st Manumasiddhi

19. Identify the incorrect statements about buddhism ?

a) 10 mantras were taught in Dharanikota according to Vajrayana
b) According to the Chulla Kalinga Jataka stories, Mahakashyapa, one of the Buddha's disciples, spread
Buddhism in the Asmaka kingdom.
c) According to Paramartha Deepuni katha, Buddhism spread widely in Andhra after the war of Kalinga
during the reign of Ashoka.
d) According to Suttanipada Bavari Kosala countrys guru.
1) a and b only 2) a and d only
3) b and c only 4) None

Answer: 3
Chulla Kalinga Jataka katha
This book is about the wars between Asmaka and Kalinga kings
After the Kalinga War during the reign of Ashoka, Buddhism spread widely in Andhra.
Paramartha Deepunikadha:
Mahakashyapa, one of the Buddha's disciples, thought Buddhism to the Asmaka king and spread Buddhism
in the Asmaka kingdoms.

20. Saraswati Gaccham Sangham was founded and spread Jainism by ?

1) Samprati
2) Kondakundacharyulu
3) Kalinga Kharaveladu
4) Simhanandi

Answer: 2
Konda Kundacharyulu founded the Sangham called Saraswati Gaccham or Vakragaccham or
Pustakaccham and spread Jainism

21. Match the Texts related to administration of Kakatiyas given below with the authors correctly.
a) Sakala Neeti 1) Shivadevaya
Sammatam
b) Neetisara Muktavali 2) Rudradevudu
c) Purushartha saram 3) Madiki singana
d) Neethi saaram 4) Baddena
1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
2) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
3) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
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4) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

Answer: 2

22. Among the Kakatiya rulers, identify the correct statements about great Kakatiyas ?
a) Rudra devudu gives details about the defense of the fort in the Nithisara Granth written in Sanskrit.
b) According to Ekamranadhu's 'Pratapa Charitra' the Yadavas gave their princess Somaladevi to marry
Ganapatidevudu.
c) According to Prataparudra Yashobhoshanam, Yadavaraja Sevana Mahadeva attacked Warangal and
defeated Rudramadevi.
1) A and B only 2) B and C only
3) A and C only 4) All of the above

Answer: 1
Vidyanadha mentions in Prathaparudra Yasobhoshanam that Yadavaraja Sevana Mahadeva attacked
Warangal but Rudramadevi repelled this attack and chased her to Devagiri.

23. Identify the incorrect statement about "2nd Prataparudra" ?

a) Most of the 77 leaders of his time belonged to the Padmanayaka community.
b) In his time, Nayankaras had the power to collect taxes and execute punishments in the areas controlled
by the Nayankaras.
c) His titles - Kumara Rudradeva, Navalaksha Dhanurthadeeshudu
d) His inscriptions - Taurala, Kolanupalli, Salakalaveedu

Answer: 2
During this period the Nayankars had the power to collect taxes and supervise law and order in the areas
under their control.
Note:
The nayankaras are not solely responsible for carrying out the punishments.

24. Identify the statement related to 'Anavema Reddy', the greatest of the Reddy kings?
1) He donated the village "Vemavaram" to Brahmins in memory of his sister Vemasani.
2) He fought many wars during his father's reign and succeed in them and became known as "Veeranna
vothu".
3) The first invasion he faced soon after he came to the kingdom was the Kalinga invasion
4) With the help of the 7th Chodabhakti king, he conquered the Talagada jaladurgam (water island) and
assumed the title of island conqueror.

Answer: 1
Statements given are about Anavotha Reddy, the first of the three sons of Prolaya Vemareddy.

25. The text Karpura Vasantarayulu written by c. narayana reddydescribes the love story of
Kumaragiri Vemareddy, king of the Reddy Rajas, and Lakkamadevi, the court dancer. But the
reason for the name Karpura Vasantarayulu is
1) Kumaragiri Vemareddy's love for Lakuma Devi means camphor of spring.
2) No matter how angry Kumaragiri Vemareddy was, he melted like camphor when he saw Lakumadevi.
3) Kumarigiri Vemareddy used to bring camphor from Punjab and saffron from Goa and sprinkled it on
people.
4) None

Answer: 3 Kumaragiri Vemareddy used to conduct Vasantotsavam for 9 days every year.
He used to bring camphor from Punjab and saffron from Goa and sprinkle it on people for these 9 days.

26. Identify the correct statements regarding the Reddy kings ?

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a) Prolaya Vemareddy's younger brother Mallareddy occupy Motupalli which lead to expansion of the
wealth of the Reddy kingdom
b) He who shifted the capital from Addaki to Kondaveedu - Anavotha Reddy
c) The famous mandapam called 'Anavemapuri' was built in Kondaveeti, the capital - Anavemareddy
d) Anavema Reddy was succeeded by Pedakomati Vema Reddy, the son of Anavota Reddy.
1) a, b, c only 2) a, b only
3) a and c only 4) All of the above

Answer: 2
Anavema Reddy built the famous mandapam called Anavemavuri in Simhachalam
After Anavema Reddy, Anavota Reddy's son Kumaragiri Vema Reddy ascended the throne, but this was
opposed by Pedakomati Vema Reddy.

27. Reddy Raja who got the title of 'Dharma Pratishthaguru'?

1) Anavotha Reddy
2) Anavema Reddy
2) Kumaragiri Vemareddy
4) Prolaya Vemareddy

Answer: 4
Prolaya Vemareddy Other Titles :
Mlechha Kulodbhava
Nissima Bhudaana Parasurama,
Dharmapratistha Guru,
Anavarata Purohitakruta Somapaana
Pallava, Trinetra
Parasurama
Rachuru Durga Vibhasha.

28. Match correctly the Four dynasties that ruled Vijayanagara with the famous people associated
with those dynasties.
a) Sangama Dynasty 1) Gangadhar
b) Saluva Dynasty 2) Rajanadha Dhimdhima
c) Tuluva dynasty 3) Suyal
d) Araveeti clan 4) Ramaraja Bhushanudu
1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
2) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
3) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
4) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Answer: 1
Gangadhara Pratapavilasam written by Gangadhara tells about the decline of the Sangama dynasty.
One of the court poets of Saluva narasimharayulu, 'Rajnadha Dhimdhima' wrote Saluvabhyudayam
Aliya Ramarayu of the Tuluva dynasty described the battle on 23 January 1565 with the Bahmani forces
at Rakshasa Tungadi yuddam in his book Suyal the Forgotten Empire.
Ramaraya Bhushana wrote the Vasucharitra and dedicated it to the Tirumala Raaya of the Araveeti
dynasty.

29. Which of the following works does not belong to Srikrishna Devaraya?
1) Satyavadhu Parinayam
2) Sakhala katha saara sangrahamu
3) Kavyalankara Sangraham
4) Rasamanjari

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Answer: 3

"Kavyalankara Sangraham" or "Bhupaliyam" is the work of Ramaraja Bhushan, one of the eight great
poets.
Other works of Sri Krishna Devarayulu
1) Amukta Malyada
2) Jambavati Parinayam
3) Usha Parinayam
4) Madalasa charitra

30. Identify the correct statements about "Shrikrishna Devarayulu" ?

a) Srikakulandhra maha vishnuvu addressed Srikrishna Devaraya as Kannadaraya.
b) The Hampi rock inscription mentions the character of Sri Krishna Devaraya.
c) 'Marichi Parinayam' was written by Tirumalamba, daughter of Sri Krishna Devaraya.
d) With the help of his Minister Saluva Thimmarasu, he took over throne
1) a, b, c only
2) b, c, d only
3) a, c, d only
4) a, b, d only

Answer: 4
1) Marichiparinayam - Mohanangi
Varadambika Parinayam - Tirumalamba
Note: Both of them are daughters of Sri Krishna Devarayulu
Among the daughters of Srikrishna Devarayulu
Another person is Tirumaladevaraya's wife Vengamamba
The name of Srikrishnadevaraya's son is also Tirumaladevaraya who was killed at a young
age by the Gajapaths' conspiracy

31. Which Vijayanagara king did Srinadha address as "Karnataka Kshitapala"?

1) Srikrishna Devaraya
2) 2nd Devaraya
3) 2nd Harihara Raya
4) 1st Bukkaraya

Answer: 2

Srinatha addressed Vijayanagara as Kannada Rajyalakshmi and Devaraya II as "Karnata Kshtapala".

32. Correctly match the various wars fought in the Vijayanagara Empire with the people associated
with those wars?
a) Mudgal War 1) Hussain Nizam Shah
b) Battle of Koilakonda 2) Ferishta
c) Kalinga invasion 3) Yusuf Adil Shah
d) Rakshasa Tangadi 4) Nuniz
yuddam
1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
2) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
3) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
4) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Answer: 2

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Ferishta: He gave complete information about the Mudgal war through his writings.
Yusuf Adil Shah : Died in the battle of Koilakonda.
Nunez: As part of the Kalinga invasion, Srikrishna Deva Rayulu informed that he acquired the fort of
Udayagiri one and a half years later.
Hussain Nizam Shah Alia, the ruler of Ahmednagar, killed Rama Raya in the Rakshasa Tangadi yuddam.

33. Who wrote the 'Vilapaka inscription' describing the Tulava and Araviti kings?
1) First Sriranga Raya
2) 2nd Venkatapathi Raya
3) Tirumala Raya
4) 3rd Srirangaraya

Answer: 2
The Greatest of the Araveeti Dynasty - 2nd Venkatapatiraya

34. Identify the incorrect statements about the Qutbshahi ruler 'Ibrahim Quli qutub shah' who was
given the title of 'Malkibharayudu' because he look after the Telugu poets.
a) He introduced a new religion called "Charasia".
b) The first king to receive the title of Shah
c) "Ali bin Adeemullah" stated that he is a model for all the kings of the world in terms of justice.
1) A only 2) B only
3) C only 4) None

Answer: 4

35. Identify the correct statements given below about Mahabharatam which is considered to be
the first poem in Telugu?
a) Nannayya translated the Adi and Sabha Parvas of Mahabharata and half of Aranya Parva into Telugu.
b) Tikkana translated 15 Parvas from Virata Parvam to Sargarohana Parvam into Telugu.
c) 2nd son Manumasiddhi Nandampudi donated the Agraharana for Narayana Bhatta's help in translation
into Telugu by Nannayya.
d) In the court of Prolaya Vema Reddy, the founder of Reddy dynasty, Errana translated the remaining
half of the Aranya Parvam of the Mahabharata into Telugu.
1) All of the above 2) A,B,C only
3) B, C, D only 4) A, B, D only

Answer: 4
Narayana Bhattu who donated Nandampudi Agrahara for his cooperation with Kannayya -
Rajarajanarendra

36. Which of the following works is not among the works of Pedakomati Vemareddy?
1) Nirvachanottara Ramayanam
2) Sahitya Chintamani
3) shrungara Deepika
4) Saptapati Saratika

Answer: 1
Nirvachanottara Ramayana is a Tikkana work
Other works of Tikkana:
Mahabharata (15 parvas)
Krishna shatakam
Vijaya Senam
Kavi sarva bhauma chandassu
Note : Another work of Pedakomati Vemareddy - Sangeeta & Chintamani

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37. Match the popular poets given below with their works
a) Tallapaka Thimmakka 1) Subhadra Parinayam
b) Madhuravani 2) Samskruta Ramayanam
c) Rangayamma 3) Veera Kampala Rayacharitra
d) Ganga Devi 4) Mannarudasu Vilasa Prabhandham
1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
2) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
3) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
4) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Answer: 2

38. Identify which of the following pairs are correct regarding Telugu language in the modern era?
a) Promoter of Granthika language - Gidugu Rammurthy
b) First magazine to publish in colloquial language - Janavani
c) Promoter of colloquial language - Jayantiramaiah
d) ………. Memorandum on Modern Telugu Essayist - Gidugu Ramurthy
1) a and d only
2) b and c only
3) b, d only
4) All of the above

Answer: 3
Promoter of Grandhika Language - Jayanthi
Ramaiah
Promoter of colloquial language - Gidugu
Ramurthy.

39. Match correctly the early works in Telugu.

a) First Novel in Telugu 1) Rajasekhara charitram
b) First comprehensive 2) Sriranga Rayacharitra
novel in Telugu
c) The first comic 3) Asamarthuni
book in Telugu Jeeva yatra
d) First Manovaijnanika 4) Ganapati
novel in Telugu
1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
2) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
3) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
4) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2

Answer: 3
Rajasekhara charitra - Kandukuri Veereshalingam
Sriranga Rayacharitra - Narahari Gopalakrishnama Shetty
Asamardhuni jeeva yatra - Gopichand
Ganapati - Chilakamarthi Lakshminarasimha
Note:
First stage Play in Telugu - Manjari Madhukareeyam (Vavila Vasudeva Shastri)
First stage Play in Telugu - Comprehensive Social Drama - Kanyashulkam (Gurajada Apparao)

40. Who designed the national flag with three Telugu regions in 1938?
1) Jonna vittula Gurunadham
2) Unava Lakshmi Narayana
3) Mamidipudi Venkata Rangaiah
4) Pandrangi Kesha Rao
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Answer: 4

41. According to the S.R.C report, Submitted on September 30, 1955 identify the incorrect
Stataement?
1) Revealed this report on 10 October 1955
2) states should be formed on linguistic basis
3) A, B, C, D states should be abolished and only regular states and union territories should be formed in
India.
4) India should have 14 states and 3 Union Territories.

Answer: 4
According to the S.R.C report, 16 states and 3 Union Territories should be formed.

42. Identify the correct statements regarding the 14 protections made to the Telangana region
under the Gentle Mens Agreement of 20 February 1956 ?
a) Liquor ban will be imposed only if the people of Telangana want it
b) Telangana should be given high priority in recruitment of employees in Vishalandhra
c) if the employees have to be fired due to the establishment of Vishalandra, they should be fired in
proportion to the population.
d) Telangana Regional Council (TRC) should be established for all-round development of Telangana

1) All 2) a, b ,c only
3) a, d 4) a, c, d only
Answer: 4

Recruitment of employees in Visalandhra should be done in proportion to the population.

43. Arrange the state chiefs of Andhra Pradesh in chronological order according to their periods of
administration.
a) Neduramalli Janarthana Reddy
b) Bhavanam Venkatrami Reddy
c) Jalagam Vengala Rao
d) Kasu Brahmananda Reddy
e) P.V. Narasimha Rao
1) E, D, E, B, A
2) D,E,C,B,A
3) A, B, C, D, E
4) A,C,B,E,D

Answer: 2

Kasubrahmananda Reddy (1964-71)

P.V. Narasimha Rao (1971-73)
Jalagam Vengala Rao (1973-78)
Bhavanam Venkatrami Reddy (1982 February - 1982 September)
Neduramalli Janardhana Reddy (1990-1992)

44. Among the six points announced by Indira Gandhi on 21 September 1973, identify the false
principle among the following
1) Special boards will be set up for the development of backward areas and Hyderabad.
2) Establishment of Andhra University
3) Applicability of Reservations, Exemption
4) Establishment of Tribunal
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Answer: 2
Establishment of Hyderabad Central University
The remaining 2 principles
5) The above 4 principles are given constitutional protection
6) By implementing these there will be no need for Telangana Regional Committee and
Mulki.

45. G. Subramanya Iyer came out in 1898 and published which journal after giving up his participation
in which magazine founded in 1878 for the formation of Andhra State.
1) The Hindu Patrika - Swadeshi Mitran
2) Swadeshi Mitran - Andhra prakashika
3) The Hindu Patrika - Andhra Prakashika
4) Andhra Prakashika - Krishna Patrika

Answer: 1
'Hindu Patrika' which started in 1878 became a daily in 1889.
G. Subramanya Iyer came out of the Hindu Patrika partnership in 1898 and published a Tamil magazine
called Swadeshi Mitran.

46. Identify the famous people given below who made the map of Andhra during the period between
the beginning of the Andhra Movement (1903-1913) which was the 2nd stage of the emergence
of Andhra state?
a) Unnava Lakshmi Narayana
b) Jonna vittula Gurunadham
c) Mutnur Krishna Rao
d) Gadicharla Harisarvottam Rao
e) Konda Venkatappayya
1) a, b only 2) a, b, c only
3) a, b, c, d 4) All of the above

Answer: 1

47. Who organized a meeting at Nidadavolu in 1912 and called for Andhra Mahasabha to be held
for the formation of Andhra State?
1) Vinjamuri Bhavana Chari
2) Vemavarapu Ramadasa
3) Unava Lakshmi Narayana
4) Jonnavittula Gurunadham

Answer: 2

48. Identify the correct statements regarding the "Andhra Mahasabhas" which were the 3rd stage
in the formation of Andhra state?
a) In the first Andhra Mahasabha in the year 1913, Nyapati Subbarao introduced the Andhra state
resolution, but Vemavarapu Ramadasu opposed it.
b) 1914 In the 2nd Andhra Mahasabha, the name of Andhra Sabha was changed to Andhra Mahasabha.
c) 1915 In the 3rd Andhra Mahasabha held in , it was decided that people should speak only in Telugu.
d) 1916 Ekamber Iyer and Gutti Kesava Pillai opposed the separate Andhra state in the 4th Andhra
Mahasabha held in
1) d only 2) c, d only
3) b, c, d only 4) All of the above

Answer: 3

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1913 Vemavarapu Ramadasu introduced the Andhra State Resolution in the first assembly of 1989, but
Nyapati Subbarao opposed it.

49. In 1928 Gadicharla Harisarvottam Rao named Dattata Mandalas as 'Rayalaseema' in the Andhra
Mahasabha held in 1989, who presided over these meetings?
1) Kattamanchi Ramalinga Reddy
2) Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
3) Kadapa Kotireddy
4) Vemavarapu Ramadasu

Answer: 2

50. Identify the incorrect statement given below regarding the differences between Andhra-
Rayalaseema leaders, the 4th stage of emergence of Andhra state?
1) In 1913 Rayalaseema District Mahasabha was held at Mahanandi in Kurnool district.
2) This Rayalaseema District Mahasabha was presided over by Kesavapillai from Anantapur, Gutti.
3) Kesava Pillai promoted the Andhra Movement as a movement of "Agravarna Tamils".
4) At that time the Tamil people who came as refugees to Rayalaseema and settled in Rayalaseema
opposed the Andhra movement.

Answer: 3
Andhra state Movement was promoted by Kesavapillai as "Brahmin Movement

51. Identify the correct statements regarding the emblem of Andhra University?
a) The logo of Andhra University was designed by Kauta Ramamohanasashtri
b) The symbol is the rising sun and its rays within a circle, symbolizing the various departments in the
university.
c) The sunflower in this symbol is a symbol of wisdom and Lakshmi is the lord of wealth and Saraswati
is the load of knowledge.
d) Swastik in the middle circle is the symbol of the Aryans.
1) a, b only 2) b, c, d only
3) a, b, d only 4) All of the above

Answer: 3
Lotus flower symbolizes wealth and knowledge Lakshmi is the lord of wealth and Saraswati is lord of
knowledge.
Also, this symbol has the slogan "Tejasvina Vadita Mastu".
There are 64 lotus petals representing the 64 arts.
Below this circle is the crescent moon. Below it is written "Andhra Kala Parishad".
The symbol consists of two snakes. These are meant to protect those who acquire knowledge in the
university.

52. Where was the silver jubilee conference of "Andhra Mahasabha" held in Kadapa in 1937under
the chairmanship of Kotireddy?
1) Visakhapatnam 2) Kadapa
3) Vijayawada 4) Guntur

Answer: 3

53. In 1938 Who introduced the resolution to form 4 new states from Madras State as suggested
by Lo Rajaji in the Madras Legislative Assembly?
1) Konda Venkatappayya
2) Pattabi Seetharamaiah
3) Desaraju Hanumantha Rao
4) Tunguturi Prakasam Pantulu
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Answer: 1
It has been approved and sent to the Central government.
But the Center rejected it.
As a result, Madras Legislative Assembly Speaker Bulusu Sambamuri resigned from his post.

54. As part of the Andhra State Movement, the points that "All the powers are given by the right
hand and taken by the left hand, the machine is fitted with many wheels but each wheel turns
backwards" were published in which of the following magazines.
1) The Hindu Magazine
2) Krishna Magazine
3) Andhra Patrika
4) Goshti Magazine

Answer: 2
The above material was published in Krishna patrika in critic of Montague Chelmsford reforms.

55. Match them correctly with the concerned persons for the emergence of Andhra State with their
Prominent Journals.
A) Telugu desham 1) B.V. Raju
b) Telugu Desam Janana 2) Medi Raju Sitarama Chandra Rao
c) Telugu patrika 3) Malyadri Venkataratnam
d) Ravindra Bharti 4) Mutnur Krishna Rao
1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
2) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
3) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
4) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

Answer: 4

56. Identify the correct statements regarding the arrival of Europeans in Andhra and the settlements
established by them.
a) First settlement of Dutch in Andhra in 1605 It was built by Wadengane at Machilipatnam.
b) The first British settlement in Andhra was built at Machilipatnam in 1611.
c) The temporary settlement of the Portuguese in Andhra was established at Machilipatnam in 1669
AD.
d) The first settlement of the French in Andhra was built at Machilipatnam in 1670 AD.
1) All of the above 2) C,D only
3) A and B only 4) None

Answer: 3
At Machilipatnam in Andhra, the French settled in 1669 and the Portuguese established their settlements
in 1670.
Note:
In 1670, the Portuguese established a temporary settlement at Machilipatnam.

57. Which of the following is correct about the battle fought in Andhra on 10th July 1794, compared
to the Battle of Flodden.
a) In 1760 After the death of Vijayanagara zamindar Anandagajapati, his minor son Chinna Vijay Ramaraj
became the zamindar.
b) Since the younger Vijayaramaraju was a minor, a corrupt man named Sitaramaraj took charge of the

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administration and because of him debts to be paid to the British increased.
c) The British killed the younger Vijayaramaraju in the war for defaulting on payment of dues and not
being able to resist British rule.
d) Narayana Babu, son of Chinna Vijayaramaraj Minor, is appointed as zamindar of Vijayanagara and
accepts lord Wellesley as special commissioner for British administration of Vijayanagara as part of
the agreement to pay 5 lakh rupees debt to the British.
1) All of the above 2) a, d only
3) a, c, d only 4) a, b, c only

Answer: 4
Special Commissioner for Vijayanagara Administration - George Russell

The question asked above was about the Padmanabha War by Special Commissioner for Vijayanagara
Administration - George Russell.

58. Identify which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the formation of districts and
bifurcation of coastal areas under British rule for their administrative convenience?
1) In 1802 Rajahmundry and Kakinada Collectorates were merged to form Rajahmundry District.
2) In 1859 Rajahmundry district was divided into Godavari and Kakinada districts
3) In 1904 Krishna district was divided into Krishna and Guntur districts
4) In 1925 Godavari district was divided into East Godavari and West Godavari districts.

Answer: 2
In 1859 Rajahmundry district was divided into Krishna and Godavari districts.

59. match the following important textile industries In Andhra region during the period of British rule with the
areas.
a) Fine fabrics 1) Machilipatnam
b) Mirror fabrics 2) Srikakulam
c) Handkerchiefs 3) Tuni
d) Carpets 4) Nellore
5) Elur
1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-5
2) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
3) A-2, B-1, C-5, D-3
4) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-5

Answer: 4
Other information
Kurnool - Rugs
Satuni - Dhovali
Peddapuram, Dharmavaram, Barampuram - famous for silks.

60. Identify which of the following is incorrect about the educational institutions established in
Andhra during the British rule?
a) In 1841 Central Collegiate Institute Madras was established as the first college in the state of Madras.

b) In 1843, Reverend Noble established the Church Missionary School at Machilipatnam as the first
school in Andhra.
c) Started as a zamindari school in 1860 and converted into a Hindu college in 1878 when Winlkar was
the principal.
d) Foundation stone was laid by Bipin Chandrapal in 1907 and was established as Bandar National
College in 1910.
1) c only 2) d only
3) All of the above 4) None
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Answer: 4

Andhra University was first established at Vijayawada in 1926. Later it was shifted to Visakhapatnam.

61. Identify the different person among the following people from Andhra region during the 1857
rebellion ?
1) Radhakrishna Dandasena
2) Shankaraswami
3) Sheikh Pir Saheb
4) Korukonda Subbarao

Answer: 2
Radhakrishna Dandasena rebelled in Parlakimidi.
Korukonda Subbarao rebelled in Erranna Gudem
Sheikh Peersaheb rebelled in Kadapa.
Note:
Korukonda Subbarao in Erranna Gudem was supressed by.
Chudai Gudem Munsab Sankaraswamy.

62. Who attacked the Addateegala police station in Rampachodavaram Agency area of Godavari
district and stole weapons as part of the Rampa Rebellion of 1879?
1) Alluri Sitaramaraju
2) Sambaiah
3) Chandraiah
4) Sardar Jangaiah
Answer: 3

63. Which magazine was started as a weekly in Bombay by Kashinadhuni Nageswara Rao in 1909
and moved to Madras in 1914 and continued as a daily?
1) Andhra Patrika 2) Jayanti Patrika
3) Telugu Janana 4) Bharati Patrika

Answer: 1
Jayanthi Patrika - Viswanadha Satyanarayana
Telugu janana (1904) - Malladi Venkataratnam - Rayasam Venkata shivudu
. Bharati Patrika - Kashinaduni Nageswara Rao.

64. Identify the correct pair of Magazines related to Kandukuri Veeresalingam with the years of
establishment?
a) Satya Samvardhani - 1891
b) Satihita Bodhini - 1876
c) Hasya Sanjeevini - 1883
d) Viveka Vardhini - 1874
1) A and B only 2) B and C only
3) A and C only 4) A and D only
Answer: 4
Hasya Sanjeevini - 1876
Sati Hitabodhini - 183 monthly magzine for women empowerment)
Additional information
He worked as a sub-editor of the magazine Telugu Janana.
Satyavadini - 1905

65. Identify the incorrect statement given below regarding 'Raghupathi Venkataratnam Naidu', a
social reformer who earned titles such as Brahmarshi, Kulapathy, Abhinava Socrates, Kaiser-
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e-Hind and Svethambara Rushi.
a) He published magazines Brahma Prakasika, Fellow Worker, People's Friend in English.
b) He joined the Brahma samaj under the inspiration of Pandit Sivanatha Shastri.
c) He introduced the tradition of awarding degrees to linguists.
d) With the help of Bhupathiraja he established a Brahma Mandir at Kakinada and a shelter for children
named Karunalayam at Kakinada.
1) B,D only 2) C only
3) D only 4) All of the above

Answer: 3
With the help of King of Pithapuram "Raja Surya Rao" he established a Brahma temple in Kakinada and
a shelter for children named Karunalayam in Kakinada.

66. Identify which of the following is incorrect regarding Lord Lakshmi Narayana ?
1) Served as Andhra President of 'All India Khilafat Swaraj Party' founded by CR Das
2) He wrote a novel 'Malapalli' in 1921 when he was jailed for the non-cooperation movement.
3) Based on his novel 'Malapalli', in 1938 Gudavalla Ramabraham produced a film 'Malapilla'.
4) He along with his wife Lakshmi Bayamma established the ``Sri Sharada Niketan'' for women education
at Bradipet in Guntur.

Answer: 1
Worked as Andhra Secretary of All India Khilafat Swaraj Party founded by CR Dass.

67. Who translated the Arabic text "Chardarvishu" into Telugu with the title "Naluguru pakeerula
charitra"?
1) Tirupati Venkatakavulu
2) Erramalli Mallikaharunudu
3) Gurjada Ramamurthy
4) Muthukapalli Narasimhamurthy
Answer: 2

68. In which year did E.V. Ramaswamy who thought it impossible to reconcile the Justice Party
dissolve the Justice Party and replace it with Dravida Kazhagam?
1) 1941 2) 1947
3) 1943 4) 1944
Answer: 4

69. Identify the correct statements regarding the Dalit movement in Andhra?
a) Jalarangaswamy wrote the book "Nimna jaatula charitra" while working for the upliftment of Dalits.
b) Working for the education of Dalits, Arigeramaswamy founded the Sunitha Bala Sangham
c) Bojja Appalaswamy set up Dalit school in Ponnamanda village of Konaseema.
d) Founder of Dalit school in Kandipappu village of West Godavari district - Undra tathaiah
1) A,B only 2) A,B,C only
3) C,D only 4) All of the above

Answer: 1
In Ponna Manda village - Undrutathaiya
In Kandipappu village - Bojja Appalaswamy
Dalit schools were established.

70. Identify the books given below which are not related to a famous Dalit poet.
a) Kokili
b) Paleru nundi Padma Sri daaka
c) Telugu talli

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d) Vetti Madiga
e) Gabbilamu
f) Kandashekudu
1) None
2) B,D only
3) B, D, F only
4) D and F only
Answer: 2
Paleru nundi Padma Sri daaka is the autobiography of Boya Bheemanna
A book called Vettimadiga is written by Madiri Bagyareddy Varma.
71. Regarding the Quit India Movements in Andhra, match the areas given below - correctly with the topic
related to those areas.
a) Chirala 1) The collector's office was surrounded and the tricolour flag was
hoisted over the collector's office
b) Tadepalli Gudem 2) Dandu Satyanarayana Raja was in jail for one year and died in jail.
c) Bhimavaram 3) Burned the Head Post Office.
d) Nellore 4) Railway station signal wires were cut and the station was set on fire.
1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
2) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
3) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
4) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

answer: 3

72. Pusumanu Gunnamma died in Mandasa firing on 1st April 1940. Which of the following prominent
persons was closely associated with this incident?
1) Mandeswara Shastri
2) Swami Sahajananda
3) K.S. Gupta
4) Pullela Shyamasunda Rao

Answer: 4

Pullela Shyam Sundararao: He called the movement to take action against the police responsible for the
mandasa firing.
Mandeshwara Shastri: In 1938, he held a meeting with Madugu hill tribes and demanded the abolition of
the "Gothi" system.
Swami Sahajananda: Presided over the Palasa Akhila Bharat Rythu Mahasabha held in 1940.
Under the leadership of KS Gupta, a 'Famine Prevention Society' was formed and food, clothing and
medicine were supplied to the famine victims.

73. Founder of Adarsha Grandha Mandali, who is the famous person who spread the communist
ideas through the book "Viplava Veerulu"?
1) Darshi Chenchaiah
2) Gadde Lingaiah
3) Puchchalapalli Sundarayya
4) Sardar Gauta Lacchanna

Answer: 2

74. In April 1907, regarding "Bipin Chandrapal's" visit to Andhra, Machilipatnam lecture, arrangements, etc.
Identify the correct ones among the statements given below?
a) An organization named "Young Men's Swarajya Samiti" was formed to celebrate the arrival of Bipin

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Chandrapal in Machilipatnam.
b) He stayed in the house of Puranam Venkaiah, a member of Brahma Samaj in Machilipatnam.
c) He laid the foundation stone of the National College as part of this visit.
d) In his lecture at Malichipatnam he called for donations to the Andhra National Education Committee
set up in Rajahmundry.

1) All 2) ABC only

3) BCD only 4) ACD only

Answer: 4
He stayed at Ramdas Naidu's house in Machilipatnam.

75. Which of the following prominent events took place in Andhra during the Vande Matara
Movement period?
a) Rajahmundry Government College incident
b) Kakinada bomb case
c) Kotappakonda incident
d) Tenali bomb case
1) None 2) Only c
3) D only 4) B only
Answer: 4
The Kakinadu Bomb Case (1930) took place during the Civil Violation Movement.
Events in Andhra during the Vande Matara Movement
Rajahmundry Government College incident (April 24, 1907)
Kakinada Incident (31 May 1907)
Kotappa konda incident (February 18, 1909)
Tenali Bomb Case (April 6, 1909

76. Consider the following statements:

a) If an MP/MLA is convicted for a crime and is sent to jail for 2 years or more, he will be disqualified
from contesting elections for 6 years from the time of release.
b) Even if a person is on bail after the conviction, he is disqualified from contesting an election if his
appeal is pending for disposal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1) a only
2) b only
3) Both a and b
4) none

Ans: 3

Exp:
Disqualification of MPs and MLAs: The RPA, 1951 lays down certain rules for disqualification
of MPs and MLAs. Any person who promotes or attempts to promote on
grounds of religion, race, caste, community or language,feelings of enmity or hatred between different
classes of citizens of India can be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend to 3 years.
Section 8 (3) of the Act states that if an MP or MLA is convicted for any other crime and is sent to jail
for 2 years or more, he/she will be disqualified for 6 years from the time of release.

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77. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the distribution of legislative powers
between the Union and the States in India?
a) The Union List includes subjects of national importance.
b) The State List includes subjects of local or regional importance.
c) The Concurrent List includes subjects where both the Union and States can legislate, but the
Union law prevails in case of conflict.
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) b and c only
4) all

Answer: 4
Explanation: The Union List (List I) includes subjects like defense, foreign affairs, etc., which are of
national importance. The State List (List II) includes subjects like police, public health, etc., of local
or regional importance. The Concurrent List (List III) includes subjects like education and forests,
where both the Union and States can legislate, but Union law prevails in case of conflict.

78. Which of the following statements about the Indian Parliament is correct?
a) The Indian Parliament consists of the President, the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha.
b) The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body that cannot be dissolved.
c) The Lok Sabha is also known as the Council of States.
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) b and c only
4) all

Answer: 2
Explanation: The Indian Parliament consists of the President, the Lok Sabha (House of the People), and
the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). The Rajya Sabha is indeed a permanent body, but the Lok Sabha is
not called the Council of States.

79. With respect to Representation of People Act (RPA) 1950, consider the following topics:
a) Qualification of voters
b) Preparation of electoral rolls
c) Delimitation of constituencies
d.) Election offences
How many of the above mentioned topics is/are included in RPA, 1950?
1) Only one
2) Only two
3) Only three
4) D. All four

Answer: 3
Explanation:
• Representation of Peoples Act 1950 (RPA Act 1950) provides for the following:

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> Qualification of voters
> Preparation of electoral rolls
> Delimitation of constituencies
> Allocation of seats in the Parliament and state legislatures
• Representation of Peoples Act 1951 (RPA Act 1951) provides for the following:
> Actual conduct of elections
> Administrative machinery for conducting elections
> Poll
> Election offences
> Election disputes
> By-elections
> Registration of political parties
Hence, option C is correct.

80. With reference to adjudication of Interstate water disputes consider the following statements:
a) Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint.
b) Parliament cannot restrict Supreme Court to exercise its jurisdiction with respect to such disputes.
Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) b and c only
4) all

Answer: 1
Explanation:
• Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect
to the use, distribution or control of the waters of, or in, any inter-state river or river valley. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
• Article 262, Constitution of India 1950?(2) Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution,
Parliament may by law provide that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise
jurisdiction in respect of any Inter-state water dispute or complaint. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Hence, option A is correct

81. Identify the statement that best describes a unicameral legislature:

a) It consists of only one legislative chamber.
b) t is more common in unitary states.
c) It typically leads to more thorough legislative scrutiny.
Which of the above given statements is/are correct?
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) b and c only
4) all

Answer: 2

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Explanation: A unicameral legislature consists of a single legislative chamber and is more common in
unitary states. It often leads to less thorough legislative scrutiny compared to a bicameral system,
where two chambers review the legislation.

82. Which of the following statements is correct about the parliamentary system of government?
a) The executive is derived from the legislature.
b) The head of state and head of government are the same person.
c) The executive is accountable to the legislature.
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) a and c only
4) all

Answer: 3
Explanation: In a parliamentary system, the executive is derived from and accountable to the
legislature. The head of state and head of government are usually separate individuals, with the head of
state often being a ceremonial position.

83. Consider the following statements with respect to national emergency:

a) Resolution for approval of continuation of emergency needs to be passed by both the Houses of
Parliament, while resolution for disapproval of continuation required to be passed by the Lok Sabha
only.
b) Resolution of approval of continuation requires simple majority, while resolution of
disapproval of continuation require special majority.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
1) a only
2) b only
3) Both a and b
4) none

Answer: B

Explanation:
• For continuation, permission of both the houses of Parliament is required. For disapproval,
permission of only Lok Sabha is required. The President must revoke a proclamation if the Lok
Sabha passes a resolution disapproving its continuation.
• For continuation, resolution has to be passed by special majority. For disapproval, simple
majority is required. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Hence, option B is correct.

84. Which of the following will be the consequences of declaration of national

emergency by the President?
a) The executive power of the Centre overrides the State’s executive power.
b) The State assembly is suspended till the emergency is in operation.

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c) The life of the Lok Sabha may be extended beyond its normal term by
a law of Parliament for one year at a time.
d) All the fundamental rights are suspended.
1) d only
2) a and b only
3) a and c only
4) all

Answer: C
Explanation:
During national emergency
• The six fundamental rights get suspended except those guaranteed under Article 20
(protection in respect of conviction for offences) and Article 21(protection of life and personal liberty).
• Rights under Article 19 are suspended only during external emergency. Hence, statement 4 is
not correct.
• Though the state governments are not suspended, the executive and legislative powers are
brought under the centre. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• During a national emergency, the executive power of the Centre extends to directing any state
regarding the manner in which its executive power is to be exercised. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The President will have the power to either reduce or cancel the constitutional distribution of
revenues between States.
• While a proclamation of National Emergency is in operation, the life of the Lok Sabha may be
extended beyond its normal term (five years) by a law of Parliament for one year at a time (for any
length of time). Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Hence, option C is correct

85. In the Indian parliamentary system, which of the following is true?

a) The Prime Minister is the head of government.
b) The President is the head of state.
c) The Council of Ministers is responsible to the Rajya Sabha.
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) a and c only
4) all

Answer: 2
Explanation: In India, the Prime Minister is the head of government, and the President is the head of
state. The Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha.

86. Which of the following statements about judicial review in India is correct?
a) Judicial review allows the Supreme Court to invalidate laws that conflict with the Constitution.
b) Judicial review is explicitly mentioned in the Constitution of India.
c) Judicial review is a power granted only to the Supreme Court.
1) a only
2) a and b only

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3) a and c only
4) all

Answer: 1
Explanation: Judicial review allows the Supreme Court to invalidate unconstitutional laws and is
implicitly provided by the Constitution. Both the Supreme Court and High Courts have the power of
judicial review.

87. What is the significance of judicial review in India?

a) It upholds the supremacy of the Constitution.
b) It ensures that the executive and legislative actions comply with the Constitution.
c) It allows the judiciary to make laws.
1) a only
2) a and c only
3) a and b only
4) all

Answer: 3
Explanation: Judicial review upholds the supremacy of the Constitution and ensures that executive and
legislative actions comply with it. The judiciary interprets laws, but it does not make them.

88. Which of the following statements is true about judicial activism in India?
a) Judicial activism allows the judiciary to interpret laws in a progressive manner.
b) Judicial activism is often criticized for overstepping the traditional boundaries of the judiciary.
c) Judicial activism always leads to better governance.
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) a and c only
4) all

Answer: 2
Explanation: Judicial activism allows for progressive interpretations of the law and is often criticized for
overstepping traditional boundaries. However, it does not always lead to better governance.

89. In context of the Finance Commission consider the following recommendations:

a) Distribution of the net proceeds of taxes to be shared between Centre and the States.
b) The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid to the states by the
Centre out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
c) Measures needed to augment the Contingency Fund of States to supplement the resources of the
Panchayats and Municipalities in the State.
d) Any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance.

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How many of the above recommendations is/are correct?
1) Only one
2) Only two
3) Only three
4) All four

Answer: 3
Explanation:
Set up under Article 280 of the Constitution, the core responsibility of the Finance Commission is to
evaluate the state of finances of the Union and State Governments.
It is the duty of the Commission to make recommendations to the President in relation to:
• The distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to
be, or maybe, divided between them and the allocation between the States of the respective shares
of such proceeds. Hence, recommendation 1 is correct.
• The principles which should govern the grants in aid of the revenues of the States out of the
Consolidated Fund of India. Hence, recommendation 2 is correct.
• Any other matter referred to the Commission by the President in the interests of sound
finance.
• The measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the
resources of the Panchayats in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance
Commission of the State.
• The measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the
resources of the Municipalities in the State on the basis of the recommendations made by the Finance
Commission of the State. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

90. Which of the following best describes judicial activism?

a) Judges take an active role in policy-making decisions.
b) Courts interpret the Constitution to meet contemporary needs.
c) Judicial activism is synonymous with judicial overreach.
1) a only
2) a and c only
3) a and b only
4) all

Answer: 3
Explanation: Judicial activism involves judges taking an active role in policy-making by interpreting the
Constitution to meet contemporary needs. It is not synonymous with judicial overreach, which implies
a negative connotation of exceeding authority

91. Which of the following statements about the Lok Sabha is correct?
a) It is the lower house of the Parliament of India.
b) Members are elected by a system of proportional representation.
c) It has a maximum term of five years.
1) a only
2) a and b only

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3) a and c only
4) all

Answer: 3
Explanation: The Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Parliament, with members elected by a first-
pastthe-post system, not proportional representation. It has a maximum term of five years.

92. Which of the following is true about the Rajya Sabha?

a) It has a maximum of 250 members.
b) Members are elected for a term of six years.
c) All members are elected directly by the people.
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) a and c only
4) all
Answer: 2
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha has a maximum of 250 members, with members elected for a term of six
years. Members are elected by the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies, not directly by
the people.

93. The Rajmannar Committee was established to:

a) Study the relationship between the Center and the States.
b) Recommend constitutional amendments to strengthen State autonomy.
c) Investigate the financial distribution between the Center and States.
Which of the above statements is/are INcorrect ?
1) a only
2) b only
3) ALL
4) NONE

Anwser: 4

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct; it was set up by the Tamil Nadu government in 1969.
Statement 2 is correct; it aimed to enhance State autonomy.
Statement 3 is also correct; it looked into financial aspects of Center-State relations.

94. Consider the following statements regarding Inter-State Council:

a) Parliament can establish inter-state council to enhance coordination
between the center and states.
b) The council has concurrent powers with Supreme Court to enquire and
adjudicate upon inter-state disputes.
c) It is a permanent constitutional body
How many of the statements given above is/are not correct?

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1) Only one
2) Only two
3) All three
4) None

Answer: 3
Explanation:
Article 263 of Indian constitution provides the establishment of an Inter-State Council. This is
to enhance the coordination between the center and states. It is not a permanent constitutional body,
which can be created at any time if it seems to the President that the public interest would be served
by the establishment of such council. It was set up in 1990 through a Presidential ordinance for the
first time as per the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission under the Ministry of Home affairs.
Function of Inter-State Council:
1. Inquiring and advising upon disputes which may have emerged between the States (It is
complementary to the Supreme Court’s jurisdiction under Article 131 to decide a legal controversy
between the governments).
2) Investigating and discussing subjects in which the States or the Union has a common interest.
3) Making suggestions on any such subject, for the better coordination of policy and action with respect
to that subject.

95. Which of the following statements about the Prime Minister of India is correct?
a) The Prime Minister is the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha.
b) The Prime Minister can dismiss the President.
c) The Prime Minister is the chief advisor to the President.
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) a and c only
4) all

Answer: 3
Explanation: The Prime Minister is the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha and the chief
advisor to the President. The Prime Minister cannot dismiss the President.

96. Which of the following statements about the Judiciary in India is correct?
a) The Supreme Court is the highest court in India.
b) High Courts have jurisdiction over the states.
c) District courts have jurisdiction over the entire country.
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) a and c only
4) all

Answer: 2
Explanation: The Supreme Court is the highest court in India, and High Courts have jurisdiction over
the states. District courts have jurisdiction over specific districts, not the entire country.

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97. Which reform was aimed at increasing voter turnout in India?
a) Introduction of NOTA (None of the Above).
b) Granting voting rights to NRIs.
c) Lowering the voting age from 21 to 18.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) a and c only
4) all

Answer: 4

Explanation:
All statements are correct; these reforms aim to increase voter participation and inclusivity.

98. Consider the following statements in context of Centre-States relations:

a) The Constitution of India, being federal in structure divides all legislative, executive and judicial
powers between Centre and States.
b) The Centre-States relations are regulated in accordance with the constitutional provisions and judicial
interpretations.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
1) a only
2) b only
3) Both a and b
4) none

Answer: 1
Explanation:
• The Constitution of India being federal in structure divides all powers: legislative, executive
and financial between Centre and States not Judicial. There is no division of judicial powers as the
Constitution has established an integrated judicial system to enforce both central and state laws.
Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The constitution, judicial interpretations, mechanism for dialogue (Article 263) etc., regulate
relations between the centre and states.

99. Which of the following statements regarding the impeachment of the President of India is
correct?
a) The process can be initiated in either House of Parliament.
b) A two-thirds majority of the total membership of each House is required for impeachment.
c) The President has no right to defend themselves during the impeachment process.
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) a and c only
4) all

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Answer: 2
Explanation: The impeachment process can be initiated in either House of Parliament, and a two-thirds
majority of the total membership of each House is required. The President does have the right to
defend themselves during the process.

100. Which of the following statements regarding the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act is true?
a : It provided for the establishment of Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) in rural areas.
b : It was enacted in 1993 to decentralize power to the grassroots level.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
1) a only
2) b only
3) Both a and b
4) none

Answer: 3
Explanation: Both statements are true. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act indeed mandated
the establishment of PRIs in rural areas and aimed to decentralize power by devolving authority
tolocal bodies

101. Which of the following statements regarding the role of women in local governance is true
according to the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts?
a) Both acts mandate a minimum of 50% reservation for women in local bodies.
b) Women are not allowed to contestaelections for positions in local bodies
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
1) a only
2) b only
3) Both a and b
4) none

Answer: 4

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Both the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts mandate
a minimum of 50% reservation for women in local bodies, ensuring their participation in decisionmaking
processes at the grassroots level.

102. Which of the following are the conditions under which Parliament can legislate on state subjects?
a) When Rajya Sabha passes a resolution with two-third majority of the total members of the house.
b) When national emergency is in operation.
c) When Parliament has to implement international treaties, agreements and conventions.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) b and c only
4) all

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Answer: 3
Explanation:
There are five conditions under which parliament can make laws on state list.
1) If Rajya Sabha approves a resolution with two- third majority of the members present and
voting and declares that a subject is of national interest (under Article-249).
2) During times of national Emergency (under Article 250).
3) If the legislature of two or more state request parliament to make law for an item in state list.
4) For implementation of international treaties (Article 253).

103. What is the significance of the Gram Sabha in the context of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment
Act?
a) It serves as a general assembly of all voters in a village.
b) It has no decision-making authority and acts merely as a ceremonial body.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
1) a only
2) b only
3) Both a and b
4) none
Answer: 1
Explanation: . The Gram Sabha, as mandated by the 73rd Constitutional
Amendment Act, serves as a general assembly of all voters in a village and plays a crucial role in local
decision-making processes.

104. The Citizenship Act, 1955 deals with the determination of citizenship on or after-
1) 26th January 1950.
2) 26th November 1949.
3) 15th August 1947.
4) 14th August 1947.

Ans 1
Exp
The Citizenship Act, 1955 deals with the determination of citizenship on or after 26th January 1950,
which marks the commencement of the Act and the establishment of the Republic of India

105. Consider the following statements in context of delegation of power between Centre and States:
a) The Centre can delegate its legislative functions to the States.
b) Parliament can make law on state subject, only if atleast two states pass a resolution to that effect.
Which of the statements give above is/are not correct?
1) a only
2) b only
3) Both a and b
4) none

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Answer: 1
Explanation:
• The distribution of legislative powers between the Centre and the states is rigid. Consequently,
the Centre cannot delegate its legislative powers to the states and a single state cannot request the
Parliament to make a law on a state subject. The legislative functions on its true and intrinsic sense
cannot be delegated. Although subordinate/delegated legislation is allowed, which occurs when the
“Parent Act” (a statute established by the legislature that gives the executive-legislative power)
delegated law-making power to the executive and administrative authority, resulting in delegated
legislation

106. Who acts as the chairperson of the Goods and Services Tax Council?
1) Prime Minister
2) Union Finance Minister
3) RBI Governor
4) President of India

Answer: 2
Explanation:
Composition of the GST Council
Article 279A(2): The Goods and Services Tax Council shall consist of the following members:
• Chairperson The Union Finance Minister
• Members The Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance
• The Minister in charge of Finance or Taxation or any other Minister nominated by each state

107. Consider the following members of the Constituent Assembly of India:

a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
b) N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar
c) Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar
d) Dr. K.M. Munshi
e) Syed Mohammad Saadullah
f) N. Madhava Rau
How many of the above members were part of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?
1) Only three
2) Only four
3) Only five
4) All Six

Ans) 4
Exp) Option 4 is the correct answer

108. What mechanism is provided by the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts to resolve
disputes between local bodies and higher levels of government?
a) The establishment of State Election Commissions.
b) The provision for constitutionally mandated Inter-State Councils.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

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1) a only
2) b only
3) Both a and b
4) none

Answer: 1
Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts provide for
the establishment of State Election Commissions,which play a crucial role in resolving disputes
related to elections and functioning of local bodies.

109. With reference to Judicial Appointments, consider thefollowing statements:

a) In practice, the appointment of the Chief Justice of India is done strictly on the basis of seniority.
b) For the appointment of the Supreme Court Judges, the Collegium does not send the recommendations
directly to the Prime Minister to advise the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1) a only
2) b only
3) Both a and b
4) none
Ans: 3

110. Consider the following statements:

a) Public order is one of the grounds which can restrict freedom of religion as well as the freedom of
speech.
b) The power to legislate on aspects of public order rests with the state government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1) a only
2) b only
3) Both a and b
4) none

Ans: 2

111. Which of the following statements about the Vice-President of India is correct?
a) The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
b) The Vice-President can act as the President if the office of the President becomes vacant.
c) The Vice-President is elected by a direct vote of the people.
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) a and c only
4) all

Answer: 2
Explanation: The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and can act as the
President if the office becomes vacant. The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college, not by a

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direct vote of the people.

112. Which of the following was a recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission?

a) The establishment of the Inter-State Council.
b) More financial powers to the States.
c) Abolishment of the Governor's post.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
1) a only 2) a and b only
3) a and c only 4) all

Answer: 2

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct; the Sarkaria Commission recommended the establishment of an Inter-State
Council.
Statement 2 is correct; it recommended more financial autonomy to the States.
Statement 3 is incorrect; it did not recommend abolishing the Governor's post but suggested
reforms.

113. Which of the following is/are the provisions of 74th Amendment Act?
a) Reservation of seats for SCs and STs in proportion of their population in
municipal area of which not less than one-third shall be for women.
b) Mandatory for states to hold elections after every 5 years or before expiration of a period of 6
months from the date of dissolution of the urban local bodies.
c) Constitution of Nagar Panchayats for smaller urban areas.
d) State Election Commission to have the power of superintendence,
direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the
conduct of all elections to municipalities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1) d only
2) a and d only
3) a ,b, d only
4) all

Answer: 3

114. The M.M. Punchhi Commission was tasked with:

a) Reviewing the working of the Indian Constitution.
b) Examining the role of the Governor.
c) Recommending measures to streamline judicial appointments.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) a and c only
4) all

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Answer: 2

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct; it reviewed the working of the Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct; it examined the role and responsibilities of the Governor.
Statement 3 is incorrect; it did not specifically focus on judicial appointments.

115. In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for
bureaucracy?
1) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy
2) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism
3) An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth
4) An Agency for the implementation of public policy

Ans : 4

116. The party system in India is characterized by:

a) Multi-party system.
b) Bi-party system.
c) Regional parties playing a significant role in politics.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) a and c only
4) all

Answer: 3

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct; India has a multi-party system.
Statement 2 is incorrect; it is not a bi-party system.
Statement 3 is correct; regional parties are influential in Indian politics.

117. Which criteria are used by the Election Commission of India to recognize a national party?
a) It must win at least 2% of seats in the Lok Sabha from at least three different States.
b) It must secure at least 6% of the total valid votes polled in four or more States.
c) It must be recognized as a State party in at least four States.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

1) a only
2) a and b only
3) a and c only
4) all

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Answer: 4

Explanation:
All statements are correct as per the criteria set by the Election Commission of India for
recognizing national parties.

118. Which of the following Commissions/Resolution were constituted/adopted to examine the

Centre-State relations in India?
a) MM Punchhi commission
b) Dhar Commission
c) Anandpur Sahib Resolution
d) Rajamannar Committee
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1) a only
2) a ,c and d only
3) a ,b and c only
4) all

Answer: 2
Explanation:
• Committees/ Resolutions related to Centre-State relations: Rajamannar Committee, Anandpur
Sahib Resolution, West Bengal Memorandum, Sarkaria commission, MM Punchhi Commission
• Dhar Committee is related to state reorganization. The Dhar Commission was chaired by S.K.
Dhar, to investigate the feasibility of organizing states on a linguistic basis and was established on
June 17, 1948.

119. Which of the following electoral reforms have been implemented in India?
a) Introduction of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs).
b) Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT).
c) Proportional representation system for Lok Sabha elections.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) a and c only
4) all
Answer: 2

Explanation:
Statements 1 and 2 are correct; EVMs and VVPATs have been introduced.
Statement 3 is incorrect; India uses the first-past-the-post system for Lok Sabha elections.

120. The Anti-Defection Law was introduced to:

a) Prevent elected members from switching parties.
b) Ensure stability in government.

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c) Allow members to vote against party lines without penalty.
Which of the above statements is/are INcorrect ?
1) c only
2) a and b only
3) a and c only
4) all

Answer: 1

Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct; it prevents members from defecting.
Statement 2 is correct; it aims to provide stability.
Statement 3 is incorrect; it penalizes members for voting against party lines.

121. The Finance Commission is responsible for:

a) Distributing net proceeds of taxes between the Center and States.
b) Granting aid to the States from the Consolidated Fund of India.
c) Supervising the budgeting process of State governments.
Which of the above statements is/are INcorrect ?
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) c only
4) all

Answer: 3

Explanation:
Statements 1 and 2 are correct; these are key functions of the Finance Commission.
Statement 3 is incorrect; it does not supervise State budgeting processes.

122. The ‘Hadiya Case Judgement, 2017’ sometimes seen in the news, is related to?
1) Right to marry a person of one’s choice
2) Right to privacy
3) Right to livelihood
4) Right to access internet

Ans: 1

123. Consider the following statements:

a) Focus on technology upgradation and capacity building for implementation of programmes and
initiatives.
b) Offer a platform for the resolution of inter-sectoral and interdepartmental issues.
c) Design strategic and long-term policy and programme frameworks and initiatives.
d) Reforming the laws for maximizing justice in society and promoting good governance under the rule
of law.

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How many of the statements given above is/are the objectives of Niti Aayog?
1) Only one
2) Only two
3) Only three
4) All four
Answer: 3
Explanation:
Objectives of Niti Aayog:
• To design strategic and long-term policy and programme frameworks and initiatives, and
monitor their progress and their efficacy. The lessons learned through monitoring and feedback will
be used for making innovative improvements, including necessary mid-course corrections. .
• To offer a platform for the resolution of inter-sectoral and inter-departmental issues in order
to accelerate the implementation of the development agenda.
• To focus on technology upgradation and capacity building for implementation of programmes
and initiatives.

124. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid
before the Parliament which of the following?
a) The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission
b) The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
c) The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
d) The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes
Select the correct answer using thecode given below.
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) a ,c and d only
4) all

Answer: c

125. Given below are two statements.

Assertion (A): The executive power of the Union is vested in the President of India.
Reason (R): The executive power is concerned with carrying on the business of the Government.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct?
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of(A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: 2

126. The Sarkaria Commission's report focused on:

a) Greater autonomy for the States.
b) Uniform civil code implementation.
c) Reforms in the judicial system.

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Which of the above statements is/are INcorrect ?
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) b and c only
4) all

Answer: 3
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct; the Commission recommended enhancing State autonomy.
Statement 2 is incorrect; it did not focus on a uniform civil code.
Statement 3 is incorrect; it focused on Center-State relations, not judicial reforms.

127. Which characteristic is true of the party system in India?

a) Dominance of single-party rule.
b) Coalition governments are common.
c) Absence of regional parties.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

1) a only
2) b only
3) a and c only
4) all

Answer: 2
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect; single-party dominance is not a consistent feature.
Statement 2 is correct; coalition governments are common.
Statement 3 is incorrect; regional parties play a significant role.

128. Match the Prime Ministers with their tenure.[Chhattisgarh PCS (Pre) 2014]
List-I (Prime Minister)
a) Deve Gowda
b) Chandra Shekhar
c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
d) Inder Kumar Gujral
e) Vishwanath Pratap Singh
List-II (Tenure)
1) 1999-2004 2) 1989-90
3) 1990-91 4) 1996-97
5) 1997-98

(a) (b) (c) (d) (e)

1) 1 2 3 4 5
2) 5 4 3 2 1
3) 3 1 2 5 4

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4) 4 3 1 5 2

Answer: 4

129. The basic structure doctrine with regard to the Constitution of India relates to
a) the power of judicial review.
b) the judgement in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).
c) the constraints on Article-368 of the Constitution of India.
d) the judgement in Golaknath case (1967).
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
1) a only 2) a and b only
3) a , b and c only
4) all

Ans : 3

130. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?
a) Directive Principles of State Policy.
b) Rural and Urban Local Bodies.
c) Fifth Schedule
d) Sixth Schedule
e) Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) a and c only
4) all

Answer: 4

Exp) Option 4 is the correct answer.

All the above provisions of the Constitution of India, have a bearing on Education.
Directive Principles of State Policy - Article 45: To provide early childhood care and education for all
children until they reach the age of six years.
86th Amendment changed the subject-matter of Article 45 and made elementary education a fundamental
right under Article 21 A.

131. Consider the following statements:

a) The Collegium System was introduced in the Third Judges Case (1998).
b) The government plays no role regarding the appointment of judges in a High Court Collegium.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1) a only
2) b only
3) Both a and b
4) none

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Ans: 3

132. Which of the following statements about Center-State relations in India is INcorrect?
a) The Central government has exclusive power over the Union List.
b) The State governments have exclusive power over the Concurrent List.
c) The Residuary powers are vested in the State governments.

1) a only
2) b only
3) Both c and b
4) none

Answer: 3
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct as per Article 246 of the Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect; both the Central and State governments can legislate on the Concurrent
List.
Statement 3 is incorrect; residuary powers are vested in the Central government.

133. Which of the following statements about the President of India is true?
a) The President is elected by an electoral college.
b) The President can be impeached for violation of the Constitution.
c) The President appoints the Prime Minister.

1) a only
2) b only
3) all
4) none

Answer: 3
Explanation: The President of India is elected by an electoral college, can be impeached for violation
of the Constitution, and appoints the Prime Minister.

134. Which of the following statements is true about Indian political parties?
a) They are required to register with the Election Commission of India.
b) Only national parties can contest in parliamentary elections.
c) Political parties must submit annual financial reports to the Election Commission.
1) a only
2) c only
3) Both a and c
4) none

Answer: 3
Explanation:

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Statement 1 is correct; all political parties must register with the ECI.
Statement 2 is incorrect; both national and state parties can contest parliamentary elections.
Statement 3 is correct; they must submit annual audited accounts..
135. Which of the following Acts introduced the ‘Principle of Constitutional Autocracy’ in India?
1) The Indian Councils Act of 1909
2) The Government of India Act of 1919
3) The Government of India Act of 1935
4) The Indian Independence Act of 1947

Ans : 3
The Government of India Act of 1935 introduced the principle of constitutional autocracy,

136. How do the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts contribute to cooperative
federalism in India?
a) By promoting cooperation between the central and state governments in local
governance.
b) By centralizing all powers within the central government.
Which of the above statements is/are INcorrect ?
1) a only
2) b only
3) Both a and b
4) none

Answer: 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. The amendments contribute to cooperative federalism

by promoting cooperation between the central and state governments in matters of local governance,
ensuring effective decentralization of power.

137. Which of the following features ensures constitutionalism in India?

a) Rule of law
b) Separation of power
c) Judicial review
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) a and c only
4) all

Ans) 4
Exp) Option 4 is the correct answer.

138. With reference to the citizenship of India, which one of the following statements is correct?
1) If a person renounces his/her Indian Citizenship, his/her minor child continues to be Indian citizen till

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he/she attain the age of Eighteen.
2) A person loses his/her Indian Citizenship when he/she renounces his/her citizenship voluntarily during
the time of a war involving India.
3) A person loses his/her Indian citizenship, if he/she has been imprisoned for two years within five
years after registration or naturalisation.
4) A person charged with sedition will lose his/her Indian citizenship.

Ans) 3
Exp) Option 3 is the correct answer.

139. Arrange the following events in the chronological order of their occurrence:
a) Adoption of National Song
b) Ratification of Commonwealth membership
c) Adoption of National Flag
d) Adoption of National Emblem
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1) a-b-d-c
2) c-b-a-d
3) a-d-b-c
4) c-b-d-a

Ans) 2
Exp) Option 2 is the correct answer.

140. Consider the following bodies:

a) State Finance Commission
b) State Election Commission
c) Ward Committee
d) District Planning Committee
e) Metropolitan Planning Committee
f) Autonomous District Council
How many of the above bodies was/were constituted in accordance with the 73rd and 74th
Constitutional Amendment Acts?
1) Only three
2) Only four
3) Only five
4) All six
Answer: 3

141. Which of the following is a responsibility of Urban Local Bodies (ULBs) as per the 74th
Constitutional Amendment Act?
a) Maintenance of public health and sanitation.
b) Regulation of inter-state commerce and trade.
Which of the above statements is/are INcorrect ?

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1) a only
2) b only
3) Both a and b
4) none

Answer: 2

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct. Urban Local Bodies, as mandated by the 74th Constitutional
Amendment Act, are responsible for functions such as maintenance of public health and sanitation,
urban planning including town planning, and regulation of land use.
142. What is the maximum number of directors in a co-operative society?
1) Five
2) Twenty-one
3) Fifteen
4) Three

Answer: 2
Explanation:
Part IX-B of the constitution contains the following provisions with respect to the cooperative societies:
Number and Term of Members of Board and its Office Bearers: The board shall consist of such number
of directors as may be provided by the state legislature. But, the maximum number of directors of a
co-operative society shall not exceed twenty-one.

143. Assertion (A): Ministers make policy and civil servants adhere to that policy.
Reason (R): Parliamentary form of government works on the Principle of ‘Cabinet Collective
Responsibility’.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: 2

144. Before completing term, Lok Sabha can be dissolved

1) By the discretion of President
2) By the discretion of Prime Minister
3) By the discretion of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
4) By the President on the recommendation of Prime Minister

Answer: 4

145. A political party is recognized as a state party if:

a) It wins a certain percentage of seats in the State Legislative Assembly.
b) It secures a certain percentage of votes in State elections.
c) It wins a specific number of seats in the Lok Sabha from that state.

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Which of the above statements is/are INcorrect ?

1) a only
2) a and b only
3) a and c only
4) none

Answer: 4
Explanation:
All statements are correct; these are among the criteria used by the Election Commission to
recognize state parties.

146. Under the Anti-Defection Law, a member is not disqualified if:

a) They leave their party after being elected as Speaker.
b) Their party merges with another party.
c) They vote against the party in a motion of confidence.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) a and c only
4) all

Answer: 2
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct; the Speaker is an exception.
Statement 2 is correct; merger with another party is an exception.
Statement 3 is incorrect; voting against the party in a confidence motion leads to disqualification.

147. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Election Commission of India?
a) It is responsible for conducting elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures.
b) It conducts elections for the offices of the President and Vice-President.
c) It is a multi-member body with a Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners
appointed by the President.
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) a and c only
4) all

Answer: d
Explanation: The Election Commission of India is responsible for conducting elections to the
Parliament, State Legislatures, and for the offices of the President and Vice-President. It is a multimember
body comprising the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners
appointed by the President.

148. Which of the following statements is/are true about the National Human Rights Commission

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a) The NHRC can investigate human rights violations by public servants.
b) The NHRC can take suo motu cognizance of cases of human rights violations.
c) The NHRC's recommendations are binding on the government.
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) a and c only
4) all

Answer:2
Explanation: The NHRC can investigate human rights violations by public servants and take suo
motu cognizance of cases. However, its recommendations are not binding on the government;
they are advisory in nature.

149. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013?
a) Lokpal is an anti-corruption authority for the Union, while Lokayuktas are for the States.
b) Lokpal can inquire into allegations of corruption against the Prime Minister.
c) The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and a maximum of eight members.
1) a only
2) a and b only
3) a and c only
4) all

Answer: 4
Explanation: The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, establishes the Lokpal for the Union and
Lokayuktas for the States. The Lokpal can inquire into allegations of corruption against the Prime
Minister, though with certain safeguards. The Lokpal consists of a Chairperson and up to eight
members.

150. With reference to Centre-States relations,consider the following statements:

a) The Constitution provides for intergovernment delegation of executive functions.
b) The President with the consent of the state government can entrust to
that government any of the executive functions of the Centre.
c) The Constitution provides for the entrustment of the executive functions of the Centre to a state
without the consent of that state.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
1) Only one
2) Only two
3) All three
4) None

Answer: 3
Explanation:
Mutual delegation of administrative functions:
• Though there is a rigid division of legislative powers, the constitution provides intergovernment
delegation of executive powers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

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• With the consent of the state government, the President can entrust that state government
any of the executive function of the centre. Conversely, with the consent of the Central Government,
governor of the state can entrust any of the executive function of a state to centre.

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