DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Target PT 2025 Question Booklet: PTS-5098

General studies

Polity - 1
Time Allowed: One Hour Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number carefully
without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any
omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case,
choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded,
you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the
Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer
has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.
 2 TPT-PTS-5098/112024/10

1. Consider the following statements regarding Select the correct match:

the role of the Preamble in interpreting the
(a) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
Constitution:
(b) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
1. The Preamble is justiciable and it can be
amended by Parliament of India except (c) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
basic structure of the constitution (d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
2. The Preamble can be used as a reference
to understand the intent of the framers 3. Consider the following statements regarding
when there is ambiguity in constitutional the Doctrine of Separation of Powers:
provisions. 1. The Doctrine of Separation of Powers
Which of the above statements is/are correct? means that the powers of the executive,
legislature, and judiciary should be
(a) 1 only strictly separated and no branch should
(b) 2 only interfere in the functioning of the other
branches.

RE
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. In India, the Constitution provides for a
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 strict separation of powers between the
executive, legislature, and judiciary.
2. Match the following types of majority with 3. The concept of judicial review, where
their corresponding descriptions: courts can strike down unconstitutional
O
laws or executive actions, is an example
Types of Majority Description of a violation of the doctrine of separation
of powers.
1. A majority that Which of the above statements is/are correct?
SC
requires more
than half of the (a) Only one
total membership
A. Simple Majority (b) Only two
of the House,
including (c) All three
vacancies and
absentees. (d) None
GS

2. A majority where 4. Consider the following statements regarding

the support of
the Stare Decisis :
two-thirds of the
B.Absolute Majority
members present 1. The Doctrine of Stare Decisis means that
and voting is courts are bound to follow the decisions
required.
of higher courts in similar cases to
ensure consistency and predictability in
3. A majority of
members present the law.
and voting, 2. In India, the Supreme Court is also bound
C. Effective Majority
with more votes by its own previous decisions.
in favor than
against. Which of the above statements is/are
incorrect?
4. A majority where
more than half of (a) 1 only
D. Special Majority the total strength
(b) 2 only
(Article 368) of the House
excluding vacant (c) Both 1 and 2
seats is required.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
TPT-PTS-5098/112024/10 3

5. Consider the following statements: How many statements given above is/are
Statement I: incorrect?
(a) Only one
Judicial Review is available for all legislative
and executive actions without any exceptions. (b) Only two

Statement II: (c) All three

(d) None
The judiciary can review actions of the
President of India, including the declaration
8. Constitutional government means:
of an emergency.
(a) A government whose head enjoys nominal
Which of the statements given above is/are powers.
correct?
(b) A government whose head enjoys real
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are powers.
correct, and Statement 2 is the correct
explanation for Statement 1. (c) A representative government of a nation

RE
with federal structure.
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
correct, but Statement 2 is not the correct (d) A government limited by the provisions
explanation for Statement 1. of the Constitution.
(c) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2
is incorrect.
9. Consider the following statements
(d) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement regarding the Eighth Schedule of the Indian
2 is correct.
O Constitution:
1. The Eighth Schedule originally listed 14
6. Consider the following statements regarding
the Doctrine of Eclipse: languages, but now includes 20 scheduled
SC
languages.
1. The Doctrine of Eclipse implies that a law
which violates Fundamental Rights is not 2. Languages listed in the Eighth Schedule
null and void but remains dormant until are entitled to representation in the
the Fundamental Rights are amended, Official Languages Commission.
allowing the law to become active again.
3. English is one of the scheduled languages
2. The Doctrine of Eclipse can be applied under the Eighth Schedule and it is an
to post-constitutional laws that are
associate official language of India.
GS

inconsistent with Fundamental Rights.

How many statements given above is/are
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2\
(d) None
7. Which of the following exceptions apply to the
Doctrine of Double Jeopardy under the Indian 10. Arrange the following events of the Constitution
legal system? making process into the chronological order:
1. The doctrine does not apply if the previous 1. Adoption of Objective resolution by the
conviction was for a lesser offence. Constituent Assembly
2. The doctrine does not apply to disciplinary 2. Ratification of the India’s membership of
proceedings.
the Commonwealth
3. The doctrine applies only if the second
3. Adoption of National anthem
trial is in the same jurisdiction as the
first. 4. Adoption of National flag
 4 TPT-PTS-5098/112024/10

Select the correct answer using the code given (a) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
below:
(b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 4-3-2-1 (c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

(c) 1-4-3-2 (d) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

(d) 1-4-2-3
13. Consider the following statements about
11. Consider the following statements about the the Rajya Sabha’s special power to enable
implementation of the Official Languages Act Parliament to legislate on State List subjects:
(1963) and Official Language Rules (1976):
1. The Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution
1. The Official Languages Act (1963) and allowing Parliament to legislate on State
the Rules (1976) ensure the progressive List subjects if it is deemed necessary in
use of Hindi in official communication the national interest.
while preserving the use of English for 2. Such a resolution must be passed by a
legal purposes. simple majority in the Rajya Sabha.

RE
2. These provisions apply only to the central Which of the above statements is/are correct?
government and have no impact on state (a) 1 only
governments.
(b) 2 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only
O (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only
14. Which of the following is/are the features of
(c) Both 1 and 2 Presidential form of government?
SC
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Separation of Power
2. Political homogeneity
12. Match the following Schedules of the Indian 3. Stable government
Constitution with their content: 4. Single executive
Select the correct answer using the code given
Schedules Content below:
GS

(a) 1 and 2 only

1. Languages
(b) 2 only
recognized
A. First Schedule
by the (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
Constitution
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

2. Allocation of 15. Consider the following statements regarding

B. Third
seats in Rajya Part IX and Part IXA of the Indian
Schedule
Sabha Constitution:
1. The Finance Commission of India is
C. Eighth 3. Oaths and responsible for recommending the
Schedule affirmations distribution of financial resources to
Panchayats and Municipalities.
4. Territories 2. Part IX of the Constitution deals
D. Fourth of States with Municipalities and urban local
Schedule and Union governance.
Territories
3. Panchayats are empowered to levy and
collect taxes directly from citizens under
Options: Part IX.
TPT-PTS-5098/112024/10 5

How many statements given above is/are 18. Match the following landmark judgments with
incorrect? their observations on the Preamble:

(a) Only one Case Law Observation

(b) Only two A. Preamble is not a

1. Berubari Union
part of the Consti-
(c) All three case (1960)
tution

(d) None
2. Kesavananda
B. Preamble is a part
Bharati case
16. The origin of the state is due to general of the Constitution
(1973)
agreement freely entered into by equal and
independent individuals living in a state of C. Preamble can be
nature to form themselves in to a community 3. LIC of India case used to interpret
(1995) ambiguity in the
and obey a government established by them
Constitution

RE
for the protection of their natural rights.
Select the correct answer:
Which of the following ideas/theories correctly
describes the above passage? (a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C

(a) Rule of Law (b) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A

(b)

(c)
Social Contract Theory

Theory of Distributive justice

O (c)

(d)
1-C, 2-B, 3-A

1-A, 2-C, 3-B

(d) Separation of power
SC
19. Which of the following statements regarding
17. Consider the following statements with respect Doctrine of Pith and Substance are correct?
to the principles of Rule of Law: 1. It literally means true nature and
1. Rule of law is the fundamental principle substance and it is used to solve the
of governance in any civilized democratic conflict regarding the power of a level of
country as it is the antithesis of
GS

government to make law on a particular

arbitrariness. matter.
2. The concept of ‘Equal opportunity
2. It was been borrowed by the framers of
before law’ under Art. 14 of the Indian
the Indian Constitution from American
Constitution is an element of the ‘Rule of
Constitution.
Law.’
3. It is helpful in maintaining the federal
3. The primacy of the rights of the individual
structure of our political setup.
is not above the Constitution unlike the
British system. Select the correct answer using the code given

Which of the above statements are correct? below:

(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

 6 TPT-PTS-5098/112024/10

20. Match the following cases with their 23. Which of the following in Indian polity
significance related to the Basic Structure indicates that it is federal in character?
doctrine: (a) The union cabinet can have elected
representatives from regional parties.
Case Law Contribution
(b) The independence of the judiciary is
safeguarded.
A. Limited Parlia-
1. Golaknath ment’s power to (c) The fundamental rights are enforceable
case (1967) amend Fundamental by courts of law.
Rights (d) The union legislature has elected
representatives from constituent units.
2. Kesavanan- B. Established the
da Bharati Basic Structure 24. Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution
case (1973) doctrine contains the forms of oath and affirmation of
many of the constitutional post. Which of the
3. Minerva C. Strengthened the following is not one of them?
Mills case Basic Structure (a) Parliament and State Legislature
Elections’ Candidates

RE
(1980) doctrine
(b) Comptroller and Auditor General
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: (c) Union and States’ Ministers of India

(a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C (d) Chief Election Commissioner

(b) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B

25. Which of the following statements is/are true
(c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C
O regarding the term “Sovereign” as used in the
Preamble?
(d) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B
1. India is internally sovereign, with a
government that can make decisions
21. Consider the following statements regarding without external interference.
SC
doctrine of Colourable Legislation:
2. India is externally sovereign, free from
1. It is applied when a Legislature does external control.
not have the right to make law upon a 3. The sovereignty of India is restricted by
particular subject but indirectly makes international agreements.
one.
Select the correct answer using the code given
2. It is used to determine the substance of below:
the law which the legislature has given it
GS

(a) 1 only
and not the form or label of it.
(b) 2 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(d) 1 , 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 26. Match the following types of direct democracy
with their description:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Type of Direct
Description
22. Which of the following is not a feature of the Democracy
Constitution of India? A. Citizens have the power to
(a) It outlines for a sovereign Parliament of 1. Referendum remove elected represen-
India. tatives
(b) It is sufficiently flexible Constitution. B. Citizens can propose a law
2. Initiative
or policy change
(c) It establishes a federal system with
unitary bias. C. A general vote by the elec-
3. Recall torate on a specific pro-
(d) The preamble of the Constitution is not
posal
enforceable by law.
TPT-PTS-5098/112024/10 7

Select the correct answer: 2. It threw the covenant civil service to

(a) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A Indians through an open competition
system of selection and recruitment.
(b) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
correct?
(d) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B
(a) 1 only

27. Who was the Secretary of States for India (b) 2 only
when the Indian Independence Bill, 1947 was (c) Both 1 and 2
being introduced in the British Parliament?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Lord Listowel
(b) No one, as the post of Secretary of States 30. Consider the following statements regarding
for India was discontinued by the Cabinet
the Charter Act of 1853:
Mission Plan.
Statement I:
(c) No one, as the post of Secretary of States

RE
for India was already abolished by the The Charter Act of 1853 marked the end of the
Government of India Act, 1935. East India Company’s monopoly over trade in
(d) Lord Pethick-Lawrence India.
Statement II:
28. Consider the following statement regarding
The Act allowed the East India Company to
the Regulating Act of 1773:
continue its administrative functions while
O
1. The Act established a system of dual
government in British India, with powers
divided between the East India Company
ending its commercial role.
Which of the following is the correct option?
and the British Crown. (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
SC
2. It created the position of the Governor- correct, and Statement II is the correct
General of Bengal and a four-member explanation for Statement I.
council to assist him in administrative
functions. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct, but Statement II is not the correct
3. The Act aimed to improve the
explanation for Statement I.
management of East India Company’s
territories by curbing corruption and (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II
GS

enhancing accountability. is incorrect.

4. The Act abolished the position of the (d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement
British Parliament’s Board of Control. II is correct.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 31. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) 1 and 2 only the Government of India Act, 1858:

(b) 1, 2, and 3 only 1. The position of the Governor-General

was renamed as Viceroy of India.
(c) 2 and 3 only
2. The Board of Control and the Court of
(d) All of the above
Directors of the East India Company
were abolished.
29. Consider the following statements regarding
the Charter Act of 1833: 3. The Act created a system of responsible
government in India with legislative
1. It made the East India Company an
powers for Indians.
administrative body and granted the
Governor-General of India exclusive 4. The Secretary of State for India was
legislative powers over the entire British granted full control over the British
India. administration in India.
 8 TPT-PTS-5098/112024/10

Which of the following statements given above 34. Which of the following was not one of the
is/are correct ? features of the Government of India Act,
1935?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Expansion of franchise
(b) 1, 2, and 4 only
(b) Abolition of Dyarchy at the central level
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Establishment of a Federal Court
(d) All of the above
(d) Separate electorates were provided for
32. Consider the following statements regarding Muslims, Sikhs and others, but not to
the Indian Councils Act, 1909: Depressed Classes.
1. It increased the size of the legislative
councils, both Central and provincial 35. Consider the following statements:
councils
Statement I:
2. It provided for the first time the
association of Indians with the executive The Communal Award intensified the demand
councils of the Viceroy and Governors for separate electorates and heightened

RE
3. It introduced a system of communal communal tensions in India.
representation only for Muslims by Statement II:
accepting the concept of ‘separate
electorate’ The Poona Pact was a direct outcome of the
Communal Award and led to a more inclusive
How many statements given above is/are representation of Scheduled Castes.
correct ?
O
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Only one
correct?
(b) Only two
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
(c) All three correct, and Statement 2 is not the correct
SC
(d) None explanation for Statement 1
(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
33. Consider the following statement regarding correct, but Statement 2 is the correct
the Government of India Act of 1919: explanation for Statement 1
1. The Act provided for a division of (c) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2
subjects into “reserved” and “transferred” is incorrect
GS

categories, with the latter managed by (d) Statement 1 is incorrect, but Statement
Indian ministers. 2 is correct
2. The Governor-General was required
to give assent to any bill passed by the 36. Arrange the following Scheduled Languages of
Central Legislative Assembly. India into the chronological order:
3. The bicameral legislature introduced 1. Nepali
by the Act allowed the Upper House to 2. Urdu
have equal powers as the Lower House in 3. Maithili
financial matters.
4. Sindhi
How many statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code given
incorrect? below:
(a) Only one (a) 1-2-3-4
(b) Only two (b) 2-4-1-3
(c) All three (c) 2-1-4-3
(d) None (d) 2-4-3-1
 TPT-PTS-5098/112024/10 9

37. Consider the following statement regarding 39. Consider the following provisions:
the Indian Independence Act of 1947: 1. Election of the President and its manner
Statement-I : 2. Supreme Court and High courts

The Act allowed princely states the option to 3. Admission or establishment of new
join either of the two dominions or to remain states
independent. 4. Lists in the seventh schedule

Statement-II: 5. Provisions of the Second Schedule

6. Power of Parliament to amend the
The Act granted complete self-governance Constitution and its procedures
to India and Pakistan, removing the role
Which of the aforementioned provisions need
of Governor-General from the governance
a special majority of Parliament and consent
structure.
of states for the amendment?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
correct?
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 6 only

RE
(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
correct, and Statement 2 is the correct
explanation for Statement 1 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are

40. Consider the following statements regarding
correct, but Statement 2 is not correct the procedure for amendment of Constitution
explanation for Statement 1 as mentioned in Article 368:
(c)
O
Statement I is correct and Statement II
is incorrect.
1. A bill seeking an amendment of the
Constitution can only be introduced in
the Parliament, by a minister but not by
(d) Statement I is incorrect and Statement
SC
a private member.
II is correct.
2. The bill must be passed in each house
separately by special majority.
38. Match List-I with List-II and select the Correct
3. In case of a disagreement between two
Option using the codes given below the lists:
houses, Constitution provides for a joint
List - I List- II sitting of both the houses.
(a) Indian Council — 1. Mountbatten 4. After it is duly passed by both the houses
GS

Act, 1909 Plan of Parliament, the President must give

his assent to the bill.
(b) Government of — 2. Establishment of
India Act, 1919 the Supreme Which of the above statements are correct?
Court (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) Government of — 3. Montagu- (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
India Act, 1935 Chelmsford
Reforms (c) 2 and 4 only

(d) Indian — 4. Morley-Minto (d) 1 and 3 only

Independence Reforms
Act, 1947 41. Consider the following pairs:
Select the correct answer from the code given Ideals in the Provided through
below: Preamble
(a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 1. Fraternity Single citizenship, Ar-
(b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 ticle 51 A
(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 2. Economic Part III of the Constitu-
equality tion
(d) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
10 TPT-PTS-5098/112024/10

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly

3. Popular sov- Universal adult fran-
matched?
ereignty chise, Periodic elections
(a) Only one pair
4. Unity and Part 1 of the Constitu-
integrity of tion (b) Only two pairs
the Nation (c) Only three pairs
(d) All the four pairs
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
matched? 44. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Constituent Assembly of
(a) Only one pair India.
(b) Only two pairs 1. The idea of a Constituent Assembly was
(c) Only three pairs first mooted by Jawaharlal Nehru.
2. The Constituent Assembly was formed
(d) All the four pairs through the provisions of the August
Offer.
42. In contrast to the American concept of 3. The Muslim League boycotted the

RE
secularism, Indian Constitution embodies the proceedings of the first meeting of
Constituent Assembly.
positive concept of secularism. Choose the most
appropriate definition of Indian Secularism: Which of the statements given above is/ are
correct?
(a) Strict separation of religion from politics (a) 3 only
and the idea of non-intervention of the
(b) 1 and 2 only
O
state into the affairs of any religion.
(c) 2 and 3 only
(b) Promotion of the religion of majority of
(d) None of the above
the population by the state and exclusive
SC
financial aids for its development. 45. Regarding the amendment to the Indian
Constitution, consider the following:
(c) Same status of all religions in the country,
irrespective of their strength, and equal 1. The preamble of the Constitution can be
amended by the Parliament.
support from the state.
2. A constitutional amendment cannot
(d) The idea of promoting the religion of the violate the ‘Basic structure’ of the
minorities so as to prevent them from constitution.
GS

marginalization. 3. The scope of ‘Basic structure’ has been

clearly defined in the constitution.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
43. Consider the following pairs:
(a) 1 and 2 only
Amendments Provisions
(b) 2 only
1. 103rd Constitutional 10% reservation
(c) 1 and 3 only
Amendment granted to EWS
section (d) 1, 2 and 3

2. 24th Constitutional Compensation for

46. Consider the following statements regarding
Amendment acquiring property
the Presumption of constitutionality of law:
of any individual to
be decided by the 1. It presumes the legislature of the rule
government making authority to enact a law which
does not contravene or violate the
3. 44th Constitutional Right to property constitutional provisions.
Amendment made a legal right 2. If the statute has different meanings,
4. 26 Constitutional
th
Abolished the right to it rules in favour of the constructive
Amendment privy purse of princely interpretation of the law that would
make it consistent with the Constitution
states
instead of declaring it null and void.
TPT-PTS-5098/112024/10 11

Which of the above statements is/are correct? 49. With reference to the Constituent Assembly,
(a) 1 only consider the following statements:

(b) 2 only 1. The elections to the Constituent

Assembly were conducted under the
(c) Both 1 and 2 system of separate electorate based on
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 the community.
2. The Constituent Assembly could
47. Which of the following statements related to become sovereign body only after Indian
Doctrine of Severability is incorrect? Independence Act, 1947 was enacted.
(a) It states that if there is any offending part Which of the statements given above is/are
in the statute then the only offending correct?
part is declared void and not the entire
statute. (a) 1 only
(b) It is explicitly related to Article 13 of the (b) 2 only
constitution.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) If the valid and invalid provisions of
statute cannot be separated from one (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RE
another then the entire act becomes
invalid. 50. Which of the following statements regarding
(d) It limits the scope of Judicial Review. ‘Objective resolution’, moved by Pt. Jawaharlal
Nehru in the Constituent Assembly?
1. It guaranteed and secured social,
48. Consider the following: economic and political justice to each and
Schedule Subject matters every person of India.
1. Ninth schedule - Diluting the
concentration of
wealth
O 2. It provided for adequate safeguard s for
minorities, backward and tribal areas,
and depressed and other backward
classes.
2. Fourth schedule - Federal structure 3. The modified version of the objective
SC
3. Seventh schedule - Division of Powers resolution forms the Directive Principles of
State Policy in the present Constitution.
How many of the pairs given above is/are
correctly matched? Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one pair (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Only two pairs (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) No pair (c) 1 only
GS

(d) All the three pairs (d) 1, 2 and 3

vvvvv
12 TPT-PTS-5098/112024/10

Space for Rough Work

RE
O
SC
GS