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UCEED Mock Paper 3

Question Paper Structure for UCEED 2025

 There will be ONE question paper of total THREE hours duration.
 The question paper will be in English only.
 The question paper will carry a total of 300 marks.
 The question paper will consist of two parts: Part-A and Part-B. It is
compulsory to attempt questions from both the parts.
 Utmost care is taken to prepare an error free question paper. However,
if an error is detected in the question paper, the UCI Committee shall
take an appropriate decision after the examination, which shall be
final.
Details of the two parts of the question paper are given below:
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Part-A (Total marks: 200; Maximum time: 2 hours)
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This part will be administered through a computer-based test.
This part will consist of three sections.
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Section 1: NAT (Numerical Answer Type): 14 questions (4 marks each; no negative

marks).
For these questions, the answer is a number that needs to be entered using a
virtual keyboard on the computer screen. No choices will be shown for these
questions.

Section 2: MSQ (Multiple Select Question): 15 questions.

Each MSQ may have one or more than one correct choice(s) out of the four given.
The following is the marking scheme:

Full Marks: + 4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen and NONE of
the incorrect options is chosen.

Partial Marks: + 3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options
are chosen and NONE of the incorrect options is chosen.

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Partial Marks: + 2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options
are chosen, both of which are correct and NONE of the incorrect options is
chosen.

Partial Marks: + 1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is
chosen and it is a correct option and NONE of the incorrect options is
chosen.

Zero Marks: 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e., the question is

unanswered).

Negative Marks: -1 In all other cases.

Section 3: MCQ (Multiple Choice Question): 28 questions (3 marks each for the
correct answer; 0.71 negative marks for incorrect answers). Each MCQ will have
four choices, out of which only one is the correct answer..

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Part-B (Total marks: 100; Maximum time: 1 hour)
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 Part-B consists of TWO questions to test the candidates' drawing skills and
design aptitude. This will require subjective evaluation. The questions in Part-
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B will be displayed on the computer screen, and the answer must be

written/drawn in the answer book provided by the invigilator. In the case of
PwD candidates availing the use of a scribe, assistance in attempting Part-B
is not permitted, as the question is aimed at evaluating their drawing skill.
 Part-B answer booklets will be collected at the end of the examination.
 Part-B question is mandatory.
 The entire paper (Part-A and Part-B) must be finished within the stipulated
time for each part.

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Following is the question paper structure for UCEED 2025:

Part-A (2 hours)
Section Type of Number Marks Marks Marks for Total
question of for for question marks
questions correct wrong not for the
answer answer attempted section
1 Numerical 14 4 0 0 56
Answer
Type (NAT)
2 Multiple 15 Partial -1 0 60
Select Marking*
Question
(MSQ)
3 Multiple
Choice
28 3 S -0.71 0 84
D
Question
(MCQ)
BR

Total 57 200

Part-B (1 hour)
Type of question Number of questions Total marks
Sketching 1 50
Design Aptitude 1 50

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PART A
Section 1: Numerical Answer Type (NAT) questions
Section 1 (56 Marks) of Part A contains a total of 14 Numerical Answer Type (NAT)
questions. For each question, the answer is a real number that needs to be answered
manually on answer sheet. No choices will be shown for these questions. There is NO
NEGATIVE marking for this section. Each correct answer will be awarded 4 marks.
Questions that are not attempted or answered incorrectly will be given zero mark.
Questions from 1 to 14 belong to this section.

1. Object on left has a height of 2 cm and diameter of 5 cm. Object in center has height
of 1 cm and side 5 cm. The yellow object on right has total height of 7 cm and
cylindrical base of diameter 8 cm and base height of 1 cm. The two objects on left of
yellow object is stacked on the yellow object (first cylindrical and then cubical). After
all the objects stacked together, how many minimum numbers of surfaces the
resulting structure will have? S
D
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2. If with some inputs, following steps needs to be followed, find the final value of n.
Step 1: n = 2
Step 2: n = n x 3
Step 3: n = n+1
Step 4: if n < 150, go to step 2, otherwise go to step 5.
Step 5: n = n x 2
Step 6: stop

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3. How many surfaces are there in the letters of the word sign “OLYMPICS”? the two
views of the sign are shown below.

4. Two similar coins have been placed together as shown left in the figure below. The
coin on right is rotating on the circumference of the other coin clockwise. After
moving by 45°, the position is shown in the figure below on right. What fraction of
the one coin’s area has been travelled by the coin?

S
D
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5. In athletics 400-meter race, usually there are 8 lanes and every athlete has to run in
its designated lane. All the racers have to finish at the same line, and in this cause,
every racer does start from different position in its lane. If we consider the track to
be circular and every lane of 1 meter thickness, what should be the gap between the
person running in the inner lane and the person running in the outer lane?

6. Hillary can maximum buy 50 apples or 100 bananas or 10 kiwis with her monthly
expenditure on fruits. This month she decided to increase her expenditure by 20%
and bought 24 apples and 6 kiwis. How many bananas she can purchase now?

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7. In the following figure, find the area of the shaded portion if the side of the square is
14. Consider the value of π as 22/7.

S
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8. What are the least number of lines required to generate a 3D form such that it creates
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shadows similar to the figure shown below?

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9. Following figure has different pictograms of Gear. Find how many unique gear
pictograms are there in the following figure?

S
D
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10. The following figure had been formed with squares, where there are 4 squares are
placed diagonally on the corners of outermost square. There is one more square
formed in between those four squares. How many such innermost square can be
formed in the outermost square?

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11. How many different fonts have been used to write “R” in the following image?

S
D
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12. What number will replace the question mark?

7 13 8 11 5 12
100 95 85

6 9 4 14
75 ?

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13. Three different coloured cubes have been stacked together to form a cuboidal
structure as shown below in figure. If the cubical structure below has ration of red to
yellow to green is 2:1:1. Find out the difference between the number of red and green
block which are not visible in the following figure.

S
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14. Spot the differences in the following two similar looking figures and answer the
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number of differences.

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Section 2: Multiple Select Questions (MSQ)

Section 2 (60 Marks) of Part A contains a total of 15 Multiple Select Questions (MSQ). Each question may
have one or more than one correct choice(s) out of the four options given. The following is the marking
scheme:
Full Marks: + 4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen and NONE of the incorrect options is
chosen.
Partial Marks: + 3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen and NONE of
the incorrect options is chosen.
Partial Marks: + 2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of
which are correct and NONE of the incorrect options is chosen.
Partial Marks: + 1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is the
correct option and NONE of the incorrect options is chosen.
Zero Marks: 0 If NONE of the options is chosen (i.e., the question is unanswered); Negative Marks: -1
In all other cases.
Questions from 15 to 29 belong to this section.

15. Following figure is showing an arrangement of gear system. If the rope connected
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with gear P is being pulled downwards and causing gear P to rotate with 720 rpm,
which of the following statements is/are correct?
D
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A. Gear Q will rotate with speed of 360 rpm and in Clock wise direction.
B. Gear R and S will rotate with same speed of 480 rpm and in same direction as
of gear P.
C. Gear T will rotate with speed of 213.33 rpm and in Clock wise direction.
D. Rack A will move in Rightward direction.

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16. In the following diagram three pieces of same puzzle were dismantle as shown in
figure 1, 2 and 3. Then fig 1 is rotated 60° clockwise and then placed on 2nd piece
(shown in fig 2). Then resultant figure is rotated 120° anti clockwise. Then resultant
figure after rotation was placed on third piece (shown in fig 3). Final resultant figure
is then rotated 180° clockwise. Which of the following option can be the view of the
final figure (final figure further can be rotated but not flipped)?

S
D
BR

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17. The following pie chart shows the proportions of expenses of salary by a person in
different sectors. Each sectors expenditure is shown in a different slice of the pie.
Which of the statements can be derived from the chart shown below?

A. Person spends almost half of its salary in Food and Rent.

B. Person spends more than half of its salary in Rent, Travel and Medical.
C. Person spends almost same amount in Medical as the amount in saving.
D. Medical and travel expenses are almost a quarter of the salary of person.

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18. In the following image, the image on left is the unfolded view of a dice. Which of the
option/s on right is/are unfolded view of the same dice?
D
BR

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19. Which of the following options can be made using the rubber stamp shown in the
figure on left hand side of the image?

20. In a 3D structure made of some blocks of equal size, a hole is made by removing a
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few blocks, as shown on the left. Which of the 3d structures in the options on the
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right would successfully pass through the hole, given that they are also made of
blocks of same size?
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21. Given Tangram in the following image on left is made of different parts put together.
Which of the shapes in the options can be constructed using all the parts of the given
tangram shape?

22. Which of the following facts is/are true?

A. Olympic games were traditionally started in 776 BC in Greece.

B. Modern Olympics were first held in 1896 AD in Greece.
C.
D.
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India first participated in Olympics in year 1948 AD.
India have won most Olympic medals in Kabaddi.
D
23. Which of the following is a work of famous painter Jamini Roy?
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24. Which of the following is a simple rotation of the image given on left?

25. Eight people 100, 99, 102, 82, 96, 88, 92 and 95 are sitting in a straight line facing in
north and south directions. 100 is sitting second to the right of 96 and 99. 96 is sitting
third to the right of 8. 95 is sitting fourth to the left of 100. The second and fourth
person from the left side are facing south. 82 is sitting fourth to the left of 88, who is
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second from the left end. 102 is not facing towards the south but sitting fourth to the
left of 92 who is third to the right of 95. 95 is facing north. 99 is not the neighbor of
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88.
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Which of the following statement/s is/are NOT true?

A. 92 is second to the left of 100.

B. 82 is third from the right end.
C. 88 is fifth to the left of 99.
D. 95, 96 and 88,92 are the immediate neighbors of each other.

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26. Image on left is showing a pattern drawn on a transparent sheet. The same patterned
sheet is placed above the same image with some operations. Select the correct option
showing the correct image associated with the correct explanation.

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27. Identify the following states (maps are NOT in proportion) and select the correct
option related to the state which are on coastal international boundary of India.
D
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28. The word given below uses a particular font. Which option(s) belongs/belong to the
same font?

29. A set of two frames with Triangular openings when perfectly overlapped with each
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other allow light though it in certain patterns. Shown below are four sets of such
frames. These frames are hinged to each other. Assuming that the red frames are
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fixed and the green frames are allowed to move, which option(s) will allow light to
pass through as in the pattern shown on the top?
BR

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Section 3: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)

Section 3 (84 Marks) of Part A contains a total of 28 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ).
Each question has four choices out of which ONLY ONE is the correct answer. There is
NEGATIVE marking for this section. Each correct answer will be awarded 3 marks and each
wrong answer will receive −0.71 (minus point seven one) mark. Questions not attempted
will be given zero mark. Questions from 30 to 57 belong to this section.

30. Choose the correct option that can be placed at the empty space on the image shown
in left.

S
D
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31. Image on left is printed in a transparent sheet of paper and folding line is shown from
where the sheet have been folded. Which of the option is a correct view after the
sheet had been folded (rotation and flipping is not allowed)?

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32. Some identical tetrahedron are unfolded in an identical manner. Following image is
showing some of the unfolded tetrahedron are arranged without overlapping. Which
face of tetrahedron can be on the place of “?”?

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33. If the image on left is Rotated 90° clockwise and then flipped horizontally, what will
be the resulting image?
D
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34. In the following image on left, a portion of that image is selected and then rotated
180° clockwise. Which of the option figure is a portion of the image on left?

35. What will come next in the series to give it a proper pattern?
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D
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36. Which collection among the following when arranged correctly will result in the
silhouette of the trophy?

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37. In the following image, on left a square tile is shown. Select the correct arrangement
from option that can be formed with using four such tiles (Flipping is NOT allowed).
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38. In an ODI cricket match of 50 overs, team India scored 70 runs in first 10 overs. The
pie chart in the following diagram is showing the run scored by team India in every
10 overs. Which of the option will be most nearly correct representation of team
India’s score chart?

S
D
BR

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39. In the following image, fig 1 shows a sheet XY with some folding lines marked 1, 2,
3, 4, 5 and 6. Fig 2 represents the way the sheet had been fold along the folding
lines. Fig 3 represents the cuts made on the sheet and then sheet is unfolded. Select
the correct option which will be the correct unfolded view of the sheet.

S
D
BR

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40. Image given below has a shape on top which will be formed by using some or all
pieces given below that shape. Select the correct option which will form the given
shape when fitted together.

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A. I, II and III
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B. I, III and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV

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41. Select the correct alternative from the given option which is showing almost near
time as like 30 minutes past 3 o’clock.

S
D
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42. The diagram represents two areas having the shape of regular pentagons. The smaller
(red) pentagon sits within the larger (red plus blue) pentagon and shares two adjacent
sides. The side of the larger pentagon is three times that of the smaller. If the red
region of the diagram has an area of 10 square units, what is the area of the blue
region?

20 unit2
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D
A.
B. 30 unit2
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C. 80 unit2
D. 90 unit2

43. If we consider each planet as sphere then Earth’s radius is approximately double of
Mars’ radius. Then which of the given statement is true?

A. Earth’s volume is approximately eight times of Mars’ volume

B. Earth’s volume is approximately six times of Mars’ volume
C. Earth’s volume is approximately four times of Mars’ volume
D. Earth’s volume is approximately double of Mars’ volume

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44. The diameter of a Standard pizza is 28 cm; that of a large pizza is 35 cm and that of
an extra-large pizza 42 cm; and the thickness of the three different size pizzas is the
same. Making cost for one cm2 area of pizza is 10 paisa. The selling price of pizza
depend on its size, where selling price is proportional to its radius with 10/- per cm.
Which of the following order of pizza will generate more profit for the company?

A. Two extra-large pizzas

B. Four standard pizzas
C. Three large pizzas
D. Three standard pizzas, one large pizza

45. After its victory over the hare, the tortoise challenges a snail to a race. Speed of
tortoise is 30 metres per hour, and the speed of snail is 25 metres per hour. The
tortoise finishes one hour before the snail. How long was the race course (in meter)?
A. 150 meters
B. 180 meters
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D
C. 300 meters
D. 450 meters
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46. The picture shows a clock at 10 minutes past 10. Notice that the minute hand and
the hour hand are not symmetrical about the vertical axis; but just a short time
previously they would have been. Which of the following times is the closest to
having symmetrical hands, i.e. x = y (x and y are denoting angles formed by hour hand
and minute hand from 12 respectively)?

A. Nine minutes past ten

B. Nine and a quarter minute past ten
C. Nine and a half minutes past ten
D. Nine- and three-quarter minutes past ten

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47. 15 identical coins are arranged in the following manner to form a triangle. A naughty
kid decided to invert the whole triangle keeping the size of its side same. How many
minimum numbers of coins kid will require to move to make this possible?

A. 15
B. 12
C.
D.
7
5
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D
48. A fruit vendor weighing the fruits designed a new system which is shown below. What
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will be the weight of 1 banana?

A. 1 kg
B. 2 kg
C. 3 kg
D. 4 kg

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49. A structure has been drawn using the pencils of the same size. Observe the structure
and select the correct option with the number of pencils used to form this structure.

S
D
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A. 36
B. 48
C. 72
D. 96

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50. Four equilateral triangles have been placed together as shown in the following figure.
to form this, figure some tiles of either red or green colour have been used. One can
maximum use 4 red or 4 green tiles for the arrangement. How many total such unique
arrangements of tiles can be formed (including the one shown below)?

A.
B.
6
8
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C. 9
D. 12
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51. How many different ways are there to connect four cubes? Every cube needs to touch
at least one other cube, and faces need to line up. You can ignore arrangement with
rotations or reflections.
i.e. following two arrangements are counted as one arrangement only.

A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12

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52. Find number of triangles in the given figure.

A. 56
B. 60
C.
D.
64
72
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D
BR

53. John, Paul, George, and Ringo all enter a race, but there is nobody at the finish line to
judge the ending. When the judge finally shows up to award the prize for coming in
first, these are the statements the four of them make: John: I was neither first nor
last. Paul: I did not finish last. George: I won the race! Ringo: I came in last. The judge
starts to hand George the prize, when Yoko, who was watching the race, says, "Exactly
one of these four is lying." To whom should the judge grant the price?

A. John
B. Paul
C. George
D. Ringo

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54. How many ways are there to tile a rectangle of size 2×10 with dominoes?
Dominoes are tiles of size 2×1 and can be placed horizontally or vertically. All
dominoes need to be contained within the board, and there can’t be any gaps. One
such arrangement is shown below.

A. 46
B. 63
C. 89
D. 107

55. In the following option part of some famous paintings are given. Identify and select
the option which is not an example of surrealism?
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D
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56.

57.
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D
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A. France
B. Luxemburg
C. Slovakia
D. Chad

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PART B (60 minutes – 100 marks)

Q.1. Drawing [50 Marks]

Imagine you are standing at the entrance of a cafe. In front of you, you see a
group of friends taking a selfie with a selfie stick. Behind them, there are 2-3 other
people sitting at tables, talking, drinking, or using their phones. There’s a dog
walking around with a customer, and two children are sitting at a table with their
parent. The children accidentally spilled their food on the floor, and the waiter is
cleaning it up. The café has tables, chairs, a counter, and other typical café details
like plants, decorations, or lamps.
Draw what you see from the entrance of the café.

Note:

 Use only pencil

 Do not use colours

Evaluation Criteria:
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 Perspective
 Proportion
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 Composition
 Observation
 Imagination
 Quality of sketch
 Attention to detail

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Q.2. Design Aptitude [50 Marks]

Using the provided image of a basic alarm clock as your starting point, Redesign
this clock for any one of the following users:

 A visually impaired person, or

 An elderly person.

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D
Note:
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 Use only pencil. Do not use colours.

 Explain your design only through visuals and short labels.
 Do not write separate explanations.

Evaluation Criteria:

 Appropriateness of three-dimensional form and visual graphics

 Provisions for fulfilling functional requirements
 Considerations for product usability by the user
 Attention to detail and explanation of features through visuals only
 Clarity of the sketch and quality of presentation, and uniqueness of design.

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