Quiz 1: Project Foundations ...............................................................................................................................

1
Quiz 2: PJ Environements ...................................................................................................................................5
Quiz 3: Role of the PJ manager ...........................................................................................................................8
Quiz 4: Implementing PJ integration mgt .........................................................................................................12
Quiz 5: Project Scope mgt ................................................................................................................................17
Quiz 6: Project Schedule Management ............................................................................................................21
Quiz 7: PJ cost management .............................................................................................................................26
Quiz 8: PJ quality mgt .......................................................................................................................................30
Quiz 9: Project Resource Management ............................................................................................................34
Quiz 10: Communications mgt .........................................................................................................................39
Quiz 11: Project Risk management ..................................................................................................................44
Quiz 12: PJ procurement mgt ...........................................................................................................................48
Quiz 13: PJ stakeholder mgt..............................................................................................................................53
Quiz 14: PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct ...................................................................................59
Quiz 15: Algile introduction .............................................................................................................................65
Quiz 16: Exploring Scrum..................................................................................................................................69
90-Question Pre-Assessment Exam ..................................................................................................................73
Quiz 17: Agile Roles and Responsibilites ..........................................................................................................99
Quiz 18: Refining Requirements .....................................................................................................................103
Quiz 19: Estimating user stories nd iterations ................................................................................................106
Quiz 20: Agile performance ............................................................................................................................110
Quiz 21: Exploring Different Agile Approaches ..............................................................................................113
Quiz 22: Testing and Verifying in Agile Projects .............................................................................................117
Quiz 23: Agile Stakeholder Engagement ........................................................................................................121
Quiz 24: Agile Project Risk and Issues Overview ............................................................................................124
End of Course Assessment Exam ....................................................................................................................128

Quiz 1: Project Foundations

Question 1:
As a PMP candidate you must have a firm grasp on what constitutes a project. Which one of the following is
not an attribute of a project?
- Definite starting date
- Has no definite end date
- Creates a product, services or result
- Requires resources
Question 2:
You are a project manager for Johnson Keyboards, Inc. Your organization has adapted the PMBOK Guide as
a standard tool for how projects should operate, and you are involved in shaping the standardization for all
future projects. In light of this information, what is the recommended course of action for the processes
and procedures in the PMBOK Guide?
- Not all processes and procedures in the PMBOK Guide are required on all PJs
- All processes and procedures are to be followed as defined in the PMBOK Guide
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 - Not all processes and procedures are needed, unless the PMBOK Guide states the process or
procedure is a requipment for the PJ type
- All the processes and procedures are to be followed as identified in the PMBOK Guide;
otherwise, the PMP is violation of the PMP Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct.
Question 3:
Your organization is considering launching a new project. Robert, the CEO, wants to know what business
value the proposed project will contribute. Which one of the following is not an example of business value
consideration for a new project?
- Return on investment
- New equipment
- Skills obtained by doing the PJ
- Risk assessments within the PJ
Question 4:
You are explaining to a junior engineer the difference between a project and operations. Which one of the
following is true only of operations?
- They are performed by people
- They are contrained by limited resources
- They are ongoing
- They are planned, executed, and controlled
Question 5:
You are the project manager for your company, Mark Manufacturers. Your company has a large client that
has requested a special component be created for one of their test engines. Your organization agrees and
creates a standard contract with the customer, and your manager assigns you to manage this project. The
project was launched because of which one of the following?
- A customer request
- A change in the technology your customer is creating
- A legal requirement (contractual)
- An organizational need
Question 6:
Project managers are not responsible for which one of the following in most organizations?
- Identifying the PJ requirements
- Selecting the PJs to be initiated
- Balancing demands for time, cost, scope, and quality
- Establishing clear and achievable PJ objectives
Question 7:
You and William, a project stakeholder, are discussing risks within your project. Which one of the following
best describes risk?
- Any event that can cause your PJ to fail
- Any event that may have a positive or negative effect on your PJ’s team
- An uncertain event that may have a positive or negative effect on your PJ
- An event that will cause time and cost contrains to be broken
Question 8:
You are the project manager for a large software development project. You have concerns that one of the
components of the Iron Triangle is slipping. Your project sponsor, Jim Bob, is not familiar with the Iron
Triangle, so you explain the concept to him. What will be affected if any angle of the Iron Triangle is not
kept in balance?
- Cost
- Quality
- Time
- Scope
Question 9:
Which knowledge area includes the creation of the project charter?
- PJ scope management
- PJ cost management
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 - PJ integration management
- PJ communications mgt
Question 10:
Beth is a project manager and she’s working with Karen the program manager. There is some disagreement
about the project management methodology Karen is requiring all project managers to operate by. Who
has authority over this decision in this scenario?
- Project sponsor
- Karen, as she is the program manager
- Beth, as she is the PJ manager
- Beth, as each PJ manager can select the appropriate PJ management methodology regardless
of the program
Question 11:
Which one of the following is an example of a project life cycle phase?
Of all the choices presented only framing is a project life cycle phase. A life cycle phase is unique to a project
and shows the type of work and expected deliverables achieved within that phase.
- Framing
- Phase gate review
- PJ quality management
- Executing
Question 12:
Smith Construction has won a contract to build a 77-story condominium building in downtown Chicago. The
building will have 650 condos, a parking garage, indoor and outdoor pools, two floors for retail, two floors
of offices, and several shared community rooms. Mary Anne Kedzie has elected to create a program for the
creation of the building. Which one of the following best describes a program?
- A standardized approach to PJ management within an organization
- A standardized approach to PJ mgt within multiple PJs coordinated together
- A collection of related PJs managed in coordination to gain control that would not necessary
be available if the PJs were managed independently
- A collection of related PJs, all contributing to one deliverable
Question 13:
Which one of the following statements best defines the difference between a program and portfolios in
regard to scope?
- Programs do not have scopes because they are made up of PJs. Portfolios have an
organizational scope
- Programs have larger scopes than PJs. Portfolios have an organizational scope
- Programs have larger scopes than PJs. Portfolios don’t have scopes because thay are a finalcial
invesment
Question 14:
Who is usually responsible for portfolio management within an organization?
- Project managers
- Project sponsors
- Stakeholders
- Senior management
Question 15:
You are the project manager of a large project to install 1900 kiosks throughout college campuses in North
America. The kiosks will collect applications for credit cards, phone services, and other services marketable
to college students. The bulk of your project is focused on the information technology integration, the wide
area network (WAN) connections from each kiosk, security of the data transferred, and the database of the
information gathered. For ease of management, you have hired local contractors to install the kiosks that
you will ship to each campus. The contractors on each campus will be responsible for the WAN connection,
the electrical connection, the security of the kiosk, and all testing. The local contracted work could be called
what?
- Risk mitigation
- Operations
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 - Subprojects
- Management by projects
Question 16:
There are several different project life cycle approaches you’ll need to know and be familiar with on your
PMP exam. Which life cycle approach defines the project scope, timeline, and project costs early in the
project?
- Predictive
- Iterative
- Incremental
- Adaptive
Question 17:
Which of the following is likely to be part of an operation?
- Providing electricity to a community
- Designing an electrial grid for a new community
- Building a new dam as source for electricity
- Informing the public about changes at the electrical company
Question 18:
Of the following, which one is not part of project integration management?
- The creation of the PJ plan
- The interaction between PJ teams
- The execution of the PJ plan
- The documentation of changes to the PJ plan
Question 19:
You are the project manager for the Fixture Installation Project in your organization. You’ve just completed
the second of three phases. What event will happen next?
Phase gate reviews happen at the end of each project phase and before the next phase will begin. These are
opportunity to review the project work so far and to confirm that the project can and should move forward.
- Phase gate review
- Initiating of the third phase
- Project quality management activities
- Phase closure
Question 20:
You are a new project manager in a company that uses a project management office. A new technology has
been released in the marketplace that will supersede the technology your project is implementing. There
are doubts that the project should continue. Martin, a member of the project management office is
considering the amount of funds already invested in the project. What term is given to the monies you’ve
already spent in the project?
Sunk costs describe the funds already “sunk” into a project – and they should not be considered when
determining if the project should move forward or not.
- Capital losses
- Return on investment
- Sunk costs
- In the red
Question 21:
What term best describes the raw data of a project, such as number of change requests and actual
duration?
Work performance data is the raw data and facts about the project work.
- PJ data outcomes
- Work performance information
- Work performance data
- Work performance reports
Question 22:
The project manager typically devotes the most amount of time to which of the following tasks?
- Communications
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 - Budget management
- Project organization
- Management of team negotiations
Question 23:
You have an excellent idea for a new project that can increase productivity by 20 percent in your
organization. Management, however, declines to approve the proposed project because too many
resources are already devoted to other projects. You have just experienced what?
Project portfolio management is the process of choosing and prioritizing projects within an organization. An
excellent project idea can still be denied if there aren’t enough resources to complete the project work.
- Parametric modeling
- Management by exception
- Project portfolio management
- Management reserve
Question 24:
Of the following, which is the most important stakeholder involved with a project?
- The project manager
- The project sponsor
- The CEO
- The customer
Question 25:
Which one of the following is not an example of business value?
Quality control is a process and is not business value.
- Profits
- Market share
- Quality control
- Goodwill in the community
What are at least two characteristics of a project?
- Projects are temporary
- Create a unique product, service, or result.
How often will you complete the two Initiating processes?
While developing the project charter is usually only done once, you can create a charter at each phase of
the project if your organization requires it.
Identify project stakeholders happens throughout the project, but should happen as early as possible.

Quiz 2: PJ Environements
Question 1:
You are working with your project team and stakeholders to plan the project work. Some of the resources
are in Chicago, Illinois and other resources are in London, UK. The distribution of resources, such as in your
project, are also known as what?
The distribution of resources is an enterprise environmental factors. The location of the resources can affect
how the project operates and communicates with resources and stakeholders.
- Enterprise environment factors
- Organizational Process assets
- Virtual team
- Contraints
Question 2:
Understanding enterprise environmental factors is an important part of your role as a project manager and
on the PMI exams. Of the following choices, which one is not an enterprise environmental factor?
- Employee capability
- Infrastructure
- Templates
- Organizational Culture

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Question 3:
In your industry there is a government regulation your products must adhere to. This government
regulation will affect how you manage your project. The government regulation in this scenario is best
described as which one of the following?
- Organizational process asset
- External enterprise environment factor
- Constraint
- External constrait
Question 4:
As the project manager, you must work with your project team to identify the project and the project
phases within the project schedule. To help with this identification you are using the project plan and
project documents from a completed and similar project. These project files are commonly known as what
term?
- Enterprise Environment factors
- Lessons learned
- Organizational process assets
- Supportive PMO
Project files and documents from past, similar projects are organizational process assets.
Question 5:
Governance framework is important for the success of the project, programs, and portfolios within an
organization. Governance framework address all the following items except for which one?
- Alignment with the organizational mission
- Change control procedures
- Performance on time, Cost, and scope
- Communication with stakeholders
Question 6:
Mark is the owner of a small manufacturing company. He’s working with the assemblers, production crew,
and even the administrative staff to complete an order for a new client. There’s not a formal project
manager on this project, but everyone is working together to complete the project on time. What type of
structure is Mark operating in?
- Simple
- Multidivisional
- Project-Oriented
- Strong matrix
Question 7:
Which organizational structure is most likely to have full-time project team members?
- Functional
- Weak matrix
- Strong matrix
- Project-Oriented
Question 8:
Marcy is the project manager of the GQD Project for her organization. She is working with Stan, the project
sponsor, and they are identifying the most likely phases for this type of project work. Why would an
organization divide a project into phases?
- To provide better management and control of the PJ
- To identify the work that will likely happen within a phase of the PJ
- To identify the resources necessary to complete a phase of the PJ
- To define the cash-flow requirements within each phase of the PJ
Question 9:
You are the project manager for your organization. Gary, a new project team member, approaches you
because he’s worried about who reports to whom as he’s on multiple projects at once for several project
managers. In addition, Gary has a functional manager that is assigning him operational work. What type of
structure are you and Gary operating in?
- Functional
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 - Weakmatrix
- PMO
- Project-Oriented
The best choice is that you and Gary are operating in a weak matrix. This is best choice because Gary is on
multiple projects and he is also receiving work assignments from his functional manager – something that
isn’t likely to happen in a functional or project-oriented structure.
Question 10:
You are the project manager of a new project. When is the likelihood of failing to achieve the objectives the
highest within your project?
- There is not enough information provided to know for certain
- At the start of the PJ
- At the end of the PJ
- During the intermediate phases of the PJ
Projects are most likely to fail at the start of the project. As the project moves closer to the project
completion, its odds of finishing successfully increase.
Question 11:
In a centralized organization who is control of the project budget?
- The comptroller
- The PJ manager
- The functional manager
- The PJ sponser
Question 12:
You are the project manager for your organization and you’re working with your company’s project
management office. The project management office has provided you with forms, templates, software, and
some advice on how best to manage the project. What type of project management does your company
have?
- Consultative
- Supporting
- Controlling
- Directive
Question 13:
You are a project manager acting in a functional organization. The functional manager and you disagree
about several deliverables the project will be creating. The functional manager insists that you begin the
project work now. What must you do?
- Begin work
- Resolve all the issue with the functional manager before you begin working
- Continue planning because you are project manager
- Begin work if the issues don’t affecte the PJ deliverables
Question 14:
You are a project manager working under a PMO. Your project resources are shared among several
projects. To whom will the project team members report?
- The PJ manager of each PJ
- The functional managers
- The PMO
- The PJ manager of their primary PJ
Question 15:
You are the project manager for your organization and you’re working with the project team to explain the
approach of the project life cycle and how you’ll be managing proposed changes to the project scope. If
your company is a project-oriented company who will make decisions on change control?
- PJ manager
- PJ team
- Functional manager
- PMO

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Question 16:
You are the project manager for your organization and you’re working with the project team to explain the
approach of the project life cycle and how you’ll be managing proposed changes to the project scope. If
your company is a weak matrix company who will make decisions on change control?
- PJ manager
- Project team
- Functional manager
- PMO
Question 17:
Nancy is a project manager for the NHG Corporation. She has identified several positive stakeholders for
her construction project and a few negative stakeholders. Nancy and the project team have been meeting
regularly with the positive stakeholders but have not met with the negative stakeholders. Mike, the Chief
Project Office from the PMO, tells Nancy she needs to meet with the negative stakeholders as quickly as
possible. What type of PMO is Nancy working with? Choose the best answer:
- Consultative
- Directive
- Controlling
- Supportive
Question 18:
Don is the project manager for his organization. In this project, his team will be composed of local workers
and workers from Scotland, India, and Belgium. Don knows that he needs to consider the working hours,
culture, and expectations of this virtual team to manage it successfully. All the following are cultural
attributes of an organization except for which one?
- Polices and procedures
- Work ethics
- View of authority relationships
- Exeperience of the PJ management team

Question 19:
You are a new project manager for your organization. Management has asked you to begin creating a
project management plan with your project team based on a recently initiated project. The project
management plan defines which one of the following?
- Who the PJ manager will be
- How the PJ manager will use the PJ management system
- When the PJ team will be assembled and released
- How the deliverable will be shipped to the customer
Question 20:
You are the project manager in your organization. Unlike your last job, which used a functional structure,
this organization is utilizing a weak matrix. Who has full authority over project funding in a weak matrix?
- The PJ manager
- The functional manager
The PMO
- The PJ sponser

Quiz 3: Role of the PJ manager

Question 1:
You know that leadership and project management not the same thing, but they are connected. Leaders
and managers rely on communications within a project to help motivate, manage, and ensure that the
project is moving forward towards its objectives. Communication includes an activity where the receiver
restates what the sender has said to confirm the message and to allow the sender to clarify if needed.
What is this communication component called?

- Active listening
- Sender-Recvier model
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 - Communications planning
- Leader listening
Question 2:
You are the project manager for your organization and you’re working with a new client to start a project at
the client’s site. You and the client are negotiating the price, schedule, and other project details for a
contract. What result should you and the client be negotiating?
- Best price for the contracted work
- Fair agreement for both the client and the vendor
- Most profit for the contracted work
- Risk distribution between the two parties
Question 3:
You are the project manager for a systems upgrade project for your organization. As a project manager,
you want to influence the organization and the project team for the better. What two key aspects are most
helpful in influencing your organization as a project manager?
- Mgt and leadership
- Communication skills and a positive attitude
- Experience and knowledge
- Experience and willingness to learn

Question 4:
Beth is a new project manager for her company and she’s working with her project team to develop a
project management plan. Beth knows that she must rely on several different skills to make her first project
successful. Of the following management skills, which one will a project manager use most?
- Leading
- Communicating
- Influcening the ORG
- Negotiating

Question 5:
Teresa is the project manager for her department, and she has been working with her manager to examine
her skills and her career. Teresa’s manager believes that more training in her department's project
management information system (PMIS) would make Teresa a better project manager. Teresa agrees since
she feels she doesn’t know much about the PMIS her department uses. Which one of the five steps of
competence describes Teresa's realization?
- Unconsciously competent
- Consciously competent
- Consciously incompetent
- Unconsciously incompetent
Question 6:
As a PMP candidate, you should be familiar with PMI's Talent Triangle since you’ll be earning professional
development units (PDUs) to maintain your PMP certification status once you’ve passed the exam. Which
of the following is not part of the Talent Triangle?

- Leadership
- Technicial PJ mgt
- Continuing education
- Strategic and business mgt
Question 7:
While management is about getting things done, leadership is said to be about motivating people. You
know that leadership is a desirable trait for a project manager and is heavily referenced throughout the
PMBOK Guide. Which one of the following characteristics is not an attribute of leadership?

- Fiscal responsibility
- Respect for others

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 - Problem-solving ability
- Desire to learn and improve
This is an example of a management skill. Fiscal responsibility is also a desirable trait for project managers,
but it’s a management skill rather than a leadership skill.
Question 8:
You are the project manager for your organization. Your current project has more than 100 stakeholders.
Some the stakeholders have competing objectives and are trying to leverage your project to meet their
personal objectives. Influencing your organization requires which of the following?

- An understanding of the organizational budget

- Reach and documentation of proven business cases
- An understanding of formal and informal organizational systems
- Positional power
Question 9:
Mark is new project manager in his company. Before joining this company, Mark worked as a project
manager for an IT service provider for more than 20 years. Mark has a deep understanding of electronics,
software development, and data warehouse technology and is considered an expert in his field. His current
project team, however, is pushing back on Mark's recommendations and challenging his knowledge of the
project. Since Mark is new, the project team reasons, he likely doesn’t understand how things work in the
organization. What type of power does Mark have in this scenario?

- Expert
- Positional
- Situational
- Informational
Question 10:
What type of power does a project manager have when the team admires him/her because they’ve worked
with him/her before the current project or they know of his/her reputation as a project manager?
- Situational
- Referent
- Personal
- Expert
Question 11:
Holly is the project manager for her company and her team likes working for her because she has a good
attitude, is easy to work with, and is a good planner. The project team views Holly as a member of
management who can give them a good review and possibly affect their financial bonus if the project is
completed on time. What type of power does Holly have?

- Punnitive
- Situational
- Reward
- Guilt-based
Question 12:
There are several different tactics and leadership styles you can adapt to a project. Which one of the
following is the best description of a servant leader?

- The leader emphasizes the goals of the PJ and rewards and disincentives for the PJ team
- The leader puts others first and focuses on the needs of the people he serves
- The leader takes a “hand-off” approach to the PJ
- The leader inspires and motivates the PJ team to achieve the project goals
The leader puts others first and focuses on the needs of the people he serves. Servant leaders provide
opportunity for growth, education, autonomy within the project, and the well-being of others. The primary
focus of servant leadership is service to others.

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Question 13:
You are the project manager for your department. As a project manager, you will have to use some
positional power to keep the project moving forward. You’ll also need to develop leadership skills to align,
motivate, and inspire people. Of the following choices, which one is most likely associated with
management skills?
- Focus on the next PJ achievements
- Build relationships
- Support the PJ team
- Challenge status quo
Question 14:
You are the project manager for your organization. In your current project, you’re coaching Mary on the
project management knowledge areas. Mary has questions about project integration management at the
process level. Which one of the following is the best example of project integration management at the
process level?
- Poor quality mgt planning will likely affect the quality of the PJ deliverable
- A robust communications mgt plan is dependent on the number of stakeholders involved in the
PJ
- Larger PJs require more detail than smaller PJs
- Planning is an iterative activity that will happen throughtout the PJ
Question 15:
You are the project manager of a project. The project team is experiencing some trouble with a new
material that the project will utilize. You gather the team together for an active problem-solving session.
Which one of the following is the best definition of active problem solving?
- Define the problem and the desired solution
- Discern the cause and the effect of the problem
- Document the problem and its characteristics to see the whole effect
- Test the materials to identify the solution
Question 16:
Dwight was the project lead for the IT Upgrade Project while Jim was serving as the project manager. Due
to a family emergency, Jim has stepped down from the project and taken a leave of absence. Management
has asked that Dwight now serve as the project manager for the remainder of the project. What type of
power does Dwight now have?
- Personal
- Expert
- Situational
- Reward
Question 17:
A project manager is meeting with his project team. In this meeting, the top ten percent of project team
members are openly praised for their hard work. The bottom ten percent of the project team members are
disciplined and somewhat berated in the meeting. The balance of the project team is not addresses. What
type of leadership is happening in this scenario?
- Transactional leadership
- Laissez-faire leadership
- Interactional leadership
- Pressure-base power
Transactional leadership means the leader emphasizes the goals of the project and rewards and
disincentives for the project team. This is sometimes called management by exception as it’s the exception
that is reward or punished.
Question 18:
Harrold is the project manager for his organization and has seven people on his project team. Who is
responsible for executing the project plan and creating the project deliverables?
- PJ lead
- PJ manager and the PJ team
- PJ manager
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 - PJ team
The project team members are responsible for executing the project plan and creating the project
deliverables.
Question 19:
As a project manager, you need both leadership and management skills. Which one of the following
statements best describes the difference between leadership and management in a project?
- Mgt is the process of getting the results that are expected by PJ. Leadership is the ability to
motivate and inspire individuals
- Mgt is the process of getting the results that are expected by PJ stakeholders. Leadership is
the ability to motivate and inspire individuals to work forward those expected results
- Leadership is about creating excitement to be managed
- Leadership is the process of getting the PJ team excited to create results that are expected by
PJ stakeholders. Mgt is the ability to keep track of the PJ results.
Question 20:
Communication is paramount in project management and can best be summed up by defining who needs
what information, when they need it, and the best _____________________ needed to deliver the
message? Choose the best answer:
- Person
- Resource
- Format
- Modality
Project communication can be summed up as “who needs what information, when do they need it, and
what’s the best modality to deliver the message.

Quiz 4: Implementing PJ integration mgt

Question 1:
You are a project manager for your organization. Management has asked you to help determine which
projects should be selected for implementation. In a project selection model, which of the following is the
most important factor?
- Business needs
- The type of contraints
- The budget
- The schedule
Question 2:
Beth is the project manager of a software development project. She and her project team are done with a
phase and Beth needs to make certain the lessons-learned register is complete before moving the project
onto the next phase. On any project, the lessons-learned document is created by which of the following?
- The customers
- The PJ sponsor
- The PJ team
- The stakeholders
Question 3:
Your project is moving ahead of schedule. Management elects to incorporate additional quality testing into
the project to improve the quality and acceptability of the project deliverable. This is an example of which
one of the following?
- Scope creep
- Change control
- Quality assureance
- Integrated change control
Additional quality testing will require additional time and resources for the project. This is an example of
integrated change control.

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Question 4:
You are the project manager of a new website design project. There are 45 stakeholders with this project
and you are anticipating change requests in the project. Which of the following is not true about change
requests?
- They happen while PJ work is being done
- They always require additional funding
- They must be documented
- They can be requested by a stakeholders
Change requests do not always require more money. Approved changes may require more funds, but not
always. The change request may be denied, so no additional funds are needed for the project.
Question 5:
You are the project manager for a pharmaceutical company. You are currently working on a project for a
new drug your company is creating. A recent change in a law governing drug testing will change your
project scope. Since the project must be completed within two years, what’s the first thing you should do
as project manager?
- Create a document change request
- Proceed as planned, since the PJ will be grandfathered beyond the new change in the law
- Consult with the PJ sponsor and the stakeholders
- Stop all PJ work untill the issue is resolved
A formal, documented change request is the best course of action for a change request stemming from a
law or regulation.
Question 6:
During project execution activities, a project sponsor’s role in a functional organization can best be
described as doing which one of the following?
- Acting as a sounding board for the PJ stakeholders
- Helping the PM and stakeholders resolve any issues ASAP
- Defecting change requests for the PM
- Showing mgt the PJ progress and status reports
The project sponsor can help the project manager and the stakeholders resolve issues during project
execution.
Question 7:
You are the project manager for the HALO Project. You and your project team are preparing the project
plan. Of the following, which one is a project plan development constraint you and your team must
consider?
- The budget as assigned by mgt
- PJ plans from similar PJs
- PJ plans from similar PJs that have failed
- Interviews with suject matter experts (SMEs) who have experience with the PJ work in your PJ
plan
If management has assigned the project the constraint of a fixed budget, the project manager and the
project team must determine how the project can operate within that constraint.
Question 8:
You are the project manager of HYH Project for your company, and you’re working with the project team
and several key stakeholders to develop the project management plan. Which of the following is the
primary purpose of the project management plan?
- To define the work to be completed to reach the PJ end date
- To define the work needed in each phase of the PJ life cycle
- To prevent any changes to the scope
- To define how the PJ is executed, monitored, controlled, and then closed
Of all the choices presented, D is the best choice. Project management plans communicate to the project
team, the project sponsor, and stakeholders how the entire project will operate.
Question 9:
John is a new employee and he’s learning how to do a task in your organization. Mary, a senior network
engineer, is working with John to do the new task. Rather than just show John the procedure, Mary is
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watching John and coaching him through the task. What is happening in this knowledge management
activity?
- Reserve shadowing
- PJ planning methodology
- On-the-job training
- Storytelling
Of the choices, reverse shadowing is the best choice. Mary is letting John learn by doing and she’s coaching
and watching him do the task.
Question 10:
You are examining the project management plan and its components with the project team. The team
doesn’t understand why so much information is needed for the project. What is the difference between a
project baseline and a project plan?
- PJ plans change as needed, while baselines change only at milestones
- PJ plans and baselines do not change – they are amended
- PJ plans change as needed, while baselines are snapshots of the PJ plan
- Baselines are control tools, while PJ plans are execution tools
A project baseline serves as a control tool. Project plan execution and work results are measured against the
project baselines.
Question 11:
Which one of the following is least beneficial to the project manager during the project plan development
process?
- Gantt charts
- PMIS
- The PJ mgt methodology
- Stakeholder knowledge
Gantt charts are excellent tools to measure and predict the project progress, but they are not needed during
the project plan development process.
Question 12:
Yoli is the project manager for her company and she’s reviewing the project budget with management.
Management is concerned about the capital expenses in the project and they’d like more information
about when Yoli will actually spend the project budget. Which one of the following represents the vast
majority of a project’s budget?
- PJ planning
- PJ plan execution
- Labor
- Cost of goods and services
The project plan execution represents the majority of the project budget.
Question 13:
The project plan provides a baseline for several things. Which one of the following does the project plan
not provide a baseline for?
- Scope
- Cost
- Schedule
- Control
Control is not a baseline.
Question 14:
Natasha is the project manager for her organization. She is meeting with her project stakeholders to review
the project plan and the different elements she’ll use as part of project execution. Which of the following
can best help Natasha during project execution?
- Stakeholder analysis
- Change control boards
- PMIS
- Scope verification

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A PMIS can assist the project manager the most during project execution. It does not replace the role of the
project manager, however.
Question 15:
You are the project manager for your organization. When it comes to integrated change control, you must
ensure that which one of the following is present?
- Supporting detail for the change exists
- Approval of the change from the PJ team
- Approval of the change from an SME
- Risk assessment for each proposed change
Integrated change control requires detail for implementing the change. Without evidence of the need for
the change, there is no reason to implement it.
Question 16:
Jeff is the project manager of the Bridge Construction Project for his company. This project requires strict
change control because of government regulations, the cost of the project deliverables, and the approved
scope. The project plan provides what with regard to project changes?
- A methodology to approve or decline CCB changes
- A guide to all future decisions
- A vision of the PJ deliverables
- A fluid document that may be updated as needed based on the CCB
The project plan serves as a guide to all future project decisions.
Question 17:
You are the project manager for the DGF Project. This project is to design and implement a new application
that will connect to a database server. Management of your company has requested that you create a
method to document technical direction on the project and to document any changes or enhancements to
the technical attributes of the project deliverable. Which one of the following would satisfy management’s
request?
- Configuration mgt
- Integrated change control
- Scope control
- The change mgt plan
Configuration management is the documentation of the project product, its attributes, and its changes to
the product.
Question 18:
Baseline variances, a documented plan to management variances, and a proven methodology to offer
corrective actions to the project plan are all part of which process?
- Change mgt
- The change control system
- The scope change control
- Integrated change control
Integrated change control is a system to document changes, their impact, the response to those changes,
and performance deficits.
Question 19:
One of the requirements of project management in your organization is to describe your project
management approach and methodology in the project plan. You can best accomplish this requirement
through which one of the following actions?
- Establishing a PJ office
- Establishing a program office
- Compiling the mgt plans from each of the knowledge areas
- Creating a PMIS documenting its inputs, tools and techniques, and outputs
The management approach is best described as a compilation of the individual plans in the project plan.
Question 20:
You have just informed your project team that each team member will be contributing to the lessons-
learned register. Your team does not understand this approach and wants to know what the

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documentation will be used for. Which one of the following best describes the purpose of the lessons-
learned documentation?
- Offers proof of concept for mgt
- Offers historical information for current and future PJs
- Offers evidence of PJ progression as reported by the PJ team
- Offers input to team member evaluations at the PJ conclusion
The lessons-learned register offers historical information for current and future projects.
Question 21:
Which one of the following is a formal document to manage and control project execution?
- WBS
- The PJ mgt plan
- The organizational mgt plan
- The work authorization system
The project management plan is the formal document used to manage and control project execution.
Question 22:
Configuration management is a process for applying technical and administrative direction and surveillance
of the project implementation. Which activity is not included in configuration management?
- Controlling changes to the PJ deliverables
- Identification of which PJ artifacts are controlled by configuration mgt
- Automatic change request approvals
- Identification of the functional and physical attributes of the PJ deliverables
Hopefully, automatic change request approvals are not included in any project. They are not a part of
configuration management.
Question 23:
You are preparing to enter into the project execution with your project team. As part of your preparation,
you’ll rely on your project management plan and several tools and techniques. Which of the following
contains parts of the project plan execution?
- PMIS, WBS and EVM
- General mgt skills, status review meetings, and EVM
- PJ mgt methodology and the PMIS
- General mgt skills, EVM, status review meetings, and interpersonal skills
The project management methodology and the PMIS are tools and techniques used for project execution.
Question 24:
You are the project manager of the GHQ Project for your company. Management has required that you
utilize earned value management as part of your project and their enterprise environmental factors. EVM is
used during the _______________.
- Controlling processes
- Executing processes
- Closing processes
- Entire PJ
EVM, earned value management, is used throughout the project processes. It is a planning and control tool
used to measure performance.
Question 25:
You are the project manager for your organization. Management would like you to use a tool that can help
you plan, schedule, monitor, and report your findings on your project. Which of the following is the correct
tool to use?
- PMIS
- EVM
- Status review meetings
- PJ team knowledge and skill set
PMIS is the best answer because it helps the project manager plan, schedule, monitor, and report findings.

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Quiz 5: Project Scope mgt
Question 1:
You are the project manager of the OQH Project and are working with the project stakeholders to
determine the project requirements. You and the stakeholders are brainstorming privately as many
solutions to the project as possible. After the brainstorming session, a recorder documents all the solutions
on a white board so everyone can see the ideas and how they may be related. After the solutions have
been documented, you lead the group through a voting process to discuss and rank each idea and
requirement that has been proposed. What is this requirement gathering technique called?
- Brainstomring
- Nominal group technique
- Affinity diagram creations
- Mind mapping
This is an example of the nominal group technique, in which you ask for as many ideas and solutions as
possible, and then rank the concepts to help guide the requirements development.
Question 2:
You are the project manager for the HGD Project and will need as many inputs to the scope planning as
possible. Mary, your project assistant, recommends that you use some of the organizational process assets
to help with your project scope planning. Of the following, which one is not an organizational process
asset?
- Organizational procedures
- Organizational polices
- WBS
- Historical information
Question 3:
You are a project manager for your organization. In your role as the project manager, you are required to
cross-train and coach your project team members. Sarah, a project manager in training, wants to know
which project documents can stem from templates? What should be your answer?
- Risk policies
- Organizational policies
- Scope mgt plans
- Historical information
Scope management plans can be based on templates. For the record, so can the WBS and project scope
change control forms.
Question 4:
You are the project manager for a technical project. The project product is the complete installation of a
new operating system on 4500 workstations. You have, in your project cost and time estimates, told the
customer that the estimates provided will be accurate if the workstations meet the hardware requirements
of the new operating system. This is an example of which of the following?
- Risk
- Assumption
- Contraint
- Order of magnitue
Question 5:
You are the project manager for the NBG Project. The project is to develop new software that is supported
on mobile devices. The project customer has defined a maximum budget, performance metrics, and other
quality metrics for the project deliverable to be acceptable. One requirement of the project is that it must
be completed within six months. This is an example of which of the following?
- Schedule
- Assumption
- Contraint
- Planning process

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Question 6:
As a PMP candidate you must be familiar with the project management terms. Sometimes the terms seem
confusing, such as project scope statement, scope baseline, or even the scope control process. Which of
the following best describes the project scope statement?
- The description of the PJ deliverables
- The authorizing document that allows the PM to move forward with the PJ status and to assign
resources to the tasks
- A document that defines all the required work – and only the required work – to create the
PJ’s deliverables
- The process of planning and executing all the required work to deliver the PJ to the customer
Question 7:
During the planning phase of your project, your project team has discovered another method to complete a
portion of the project scope. This method is safer for the project team, but it may cost more for the
customer. This is an example of which of the following?
- Risk assessment
- Alternative identification
- Alternative selection
- Product analysis
Question 8:
You are the project manager of a large software development project. Hundreds of requirements need to
be documented, annotated, and communicated to the project stakeholders. Management would also like
you to report when the requirements should be created and when they’re created by the project team.
What document can help you monitor all the characteristics of each requirement?
- PJ mgt plan
- Configuration mgt plan
- Requirement traceability matrix (RTM)
- PJ communications mgt plan
The requirements traceability matrix can help the project manager track and monitor all the characteristics
of each project requirement. It helps to communicate the requirement’s status and completion, and it
records any notes or comments about each requirement.
Question 9:
You are the project manager for the JHN Project. Mike, a project manager you are mentoring, does not
know which plan he should reference for guarding the project scope. Which plan does Mike need?
- The scope mgt plan
- The scope change control system
- The scope validation
- The scope charter
The scope management plan provides details about how the project scope may be changed.
Question 10:
You are the project manager for the JKL Project. This project has more than 45 key stakeholders and will
span the globe when implemented. Management has deemed that the project’s completion should not
cost more than $34 million. This is an example of which of the following?
- Internationalization
- Budget contraint
- Mgt contraint
- Hard logic
This is an example of a budget constraint. The budget must not exceed $34 million. In addition, the metric
for the values to be in U.S. dollars can affect the budget if most of the product is to be purchased in a
foreign country.
Question 11:
You are the project manager for your organization. Your project is to construct a new house for a client.
You and the client have agreed to meet at the end of each phase of the project to walk through the house
as it’s being built to confirm the quality and accuracy of the build. You need to ensure the customer
formally accepts the deliverables of each project phase. This process is known as _______________.
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 - Earned value mgt
- Scope validation
- Quality control
- Quality assurance
Scope validation is the process of formally accepting the deliverable of a project or phase.
Question 12:
It’s important to know what each project management process creates. For example, which of the
following is an output of scope validation?
- WBS template
- Rework
- Formal acceptance
- SOW acceptance
Scope validation results in one thing: formal acceptance.
Question 13:
Where can the project manager find work package information such as the code of an account identifier, a
statement of work, information on the responsible organization, quality requirements, and information on
the required resources? Choose the best answer:
- PJ plan
- WBS
- WBS dictionary
- PJ mgt plan
The WBS dictionary provides all this information—along with information on milestones and contract
information—and then cross-references each work package with related work package information.
Question 14:
You are a project manager for a large manufacturer. Your current project is to create a new manufacturing
assembly line that will allow your organization to create its products with less downtime and faster
turnaround time for its clients. A stakeholder has presented a change request for your project, which will
likely increase the cost and time needed to complete the project. All the following components are not part
of integrated change control except for which one?
- Adding more team members to the PJ to get the PJ work done faster
- Outsourcing portions of the PJ execution to tranfer risk
- Tracking systems for the proposed change
- Documenting the PJ and how the manufacturing assembly should work
The only answer that describes a component of the change control system is the tracking system for the
proposed change.
Question 15:
A project team member has, on his own initiative, added extra vents to an attic to increase air circulation.
The project plan did not call for these extra vents, but the team member decided they were needed based
on the geographic location of the house. The project team’s experts concur with this decision. This is an
example of which of the following?
- Cost control
- Ineffective change control
- Self-led teams
- Value-added change
The project team member did not follow the change management plan’s method of incorporating changes
into the scope.
Question 16:
Which of the following is an output of scope control?
- Workarounds
- Recommended corrective action
- Transference
- Risk assessment

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Recommended corrective actions, which are change requests, are outputs of change control. Poor
performance leads to corrective actions to bring the project back in alignment with the project plan. Recall
that a corrective action is a change request.
Question 17:
You are the project manager for the JHG Project. Your project is to create a new product for your industry.
You have recently learned your competitor is also working on a similar project, but their offering will
include a computer-aided program and web-based tools, which your project does not offer. You have
implemented a change request to update your project. This is an example of which of the following?
- A change due to an error or omission in the initiation phase
- A change due to an external event
- A change due to an error or omission in the planning phase
- A change due to a legal issue
The change is requested to remain competitive with the competition—an external event. Change is
inevitable and requires a change control process to manage.
Question 18:
You are the project manager for a pharmaceutical company. A new government regulation will change your
project scope. For the project to move forward and be in accordance with the new regulation, what should
be your next action?
- Prepare a new baseline to reflect the government changes
- Notify management
- Present the change to the CCB
- Create a feasibility study
Presenting the change to the change control board is the best choice.
Question 19:
Your project is to document all the computer system in your company. Your project team was required to
document the operating systems, the hardware, the network configuration, and the software on each
computer. You have finished the project scope according to plan. For the customer to accept the project,
what must happen next?
- Nothing. The plan is complete, so the PJ is complete
- Scope validation should be conducted
- Lessons learned should be finalized
- Proof-of-concept should be implemented
Scope validation concerns itself with the formal acceptance of the product.
Question 20:
You are the project manager for an airplane manufacturer. Your project concerns the development of
lighter, stronger material for commercial jets. As the project moves toward completion, different material
composition is considered for the deliverable. This is an example of which of the following?
- Program mgt
- Alternatives identification
- Quality assurance
- Regulatory guidelines
Alternatives identification is the technique to consider different approaches, materials, and solutions for the
project work.
Question 21:
You are the project manager of a large project. Your project sponsor and management have approved your
outsourcing portions of the project plan. The _______________ must document project scope
management decisions.
- PJ sponsor
- Organization’s mgt
- Vendor (s)
- PJ mgt team
The responsibility to document project scope management decisions rests with the project management
team.

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Question 22:
A project team member has asked you what project scope management is. Which of the following is a
characteristic of project scope management?
- It defines the baseline for PJ acceptance
- It defines the requirements for each PJ within the organization
- It defines the processes to ensure that the PJ includes all the work required-and only the
work required-to complete the PJ successfully
- It defines the funcional managers assigned to the PJ
Project scope management defines the processes to ensure that the project includes all the work required—
and only the work required—to complete the project successfully.
Question 23:
One of the stakeholders of the project you are managing asks why you consider the scope statement so
important in your project management methodology. You answer her question with which of the
following?
- It is mandatory to consult the plan before authorizing any change
- PMs must document any changes before approving or declining them
- The PJ scope statement statement serves as a reference for all change requests to determine
if the change is in or out of scope
- The PJ plan and EVM work together to assess the risk involed with proposed changes
The scope statement serves as a point of reference when considering whether change requests are in or out
of scope.
Question 24:
The project scope statement is decomposed into the work breakdown structure. The WBS then becomes an
important part of the project for planning, execution, and control. A WBS serves as an input to many of the
project processes. Of the following, which is not true?
- WBS serves as an input to planning cost mgt
- WBS serves as an input to control procecuments
- WBS serves as an input to risk identification
- WBS serves as an input to cost budgeting
The WBS does not directly serve as an input to planning cost management.

Quiz 6: Project Schedule Management

Question 1:
You are the project manager of the JHG Project. This project has 32 stakeholders and will require
implementation activities in North and South America. You have been requested to provide a duration
estimate for the project. Of the following, which will offer the best level of detail in your estimate?
- The resource calendar
- An order of magnitude
- A requirement document
- A requirements document
- A stakeholder analysis
The resource calendar is the best choice for this scenario because it is the only activity duration estimating
input listed.
Question 2:
Michael is the project manager of the 78GH Project. This project requires several members of the project
team to complete a certification class for another project the week of November 2. This class causes some
of the project activities on Michael’s activities to be delayed from his target schedule. This is an example of
which of the following?
- Hard logic
- External dependencies
- Soft logic
- Conflict of interest
Before the work can begin, the certification class must be completed.
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Question 3:
You are managing an interior decorating project. The walls are scheduled to be painted immediately after
the primer. You have allowed 36 hours between the primer activity and the painting activity to ensure that
the primer has cured. This is an example of which one of the following?
- Lead
- Lag
- Soft logic
- Finish-to-start relationship
The time between the activities is lag time. The painting activity must wait 36 hours before it can begin.
Question 4:
You are the project manager for the LLL Project. Steven, a project team member, is confused about
network diagrams. Specifically, he wants to know what the critical path is in a network diagram. Your
answer is which one of the following?
- The critical path is the network tha hosts the activity most critical to the PJ’s success
- The critical path is a path with the longest duration
- The critical path is always one path that cannot be delayed, or the entire PJ will be delayed
- The critical path is the path from start to completion with no deviataion form PJ plan
The critical path is always the path with the longest duration.
Question 5:
You are the project manager of the HQQ Project and you’re working with your customer stakeholder. The
stakeholder has asked that you find a method to reduce the overall project duration for her organization.
She has promised a bonus to your company of $10,000 per day that you finish ahead of schedule. Which
duration compression technique could you utilize on activities that are effort-driven?
- Crashing
- Fast tracking
- Effort-driven activities cannot be composed
- Resource smoothing
Crashing allows you to add more labor to effort-driven activities. By adding more labor, or effort, you are
reducing the duration of the activity.
Question 6:
You are creating a schedule duration estimate for the activities in the PDR Project. You’re working with your
project and comparing the results of a past similar project to predict the time of the current project. What
estimating approach are you using?
- OPAs
- Parametric
- Analogous
- PERT
This is an example of an analogous estimate. You can remember this estimate approach by identifying the
“analogy” between the two similar projects.
Question 7:
You are the project manager for your organization and your organization utilizes an agile approach to
project management. The development team is rating the difficulty of completing the requirements in the
current sprint. What term describes rating of the requirements to determine how many requirements can
be completed in a sprint?
- Fist to five voting
- Value analysis
- Sprint backlog
- Story points
Requirements are written as user stories. Story points score the difficulty of the tasks needed to complete a
user story in a sprint.
Question 8:
You are the project manager for the POL Project. This project will use a three-point estimate to calculate
the estimates for activity duration. For Activity D, you have the following information: P = 9, O = 4, M = 5.
What is the result of this estimate?
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 - 18 weeks
- 6 weeks
- 33.33 weeks
- 3 weeks
The formula is (P + M + O)/3. In this instance, the outcome is 6 weeks.
Question 9:
You are the project manager for the YKL Project. This project will affect several lines of business at
completion. You have elected to schedule each milestone in the project to end so the work does not affect
current business cycles. This is an example of which one of the following?
- Constraint
- Expert judgment
- WBS scheduling
- Soft logic
Soft logic allows the project manager to make decisions based on conditions outside of the project, best
practices, or guidelines.
Question 10:
You are the project manager for the MNB Project. You and your project team are about to enter the activity
duration estimating process. Which of the following will not be helpful in your meeting?
- Constraints
- Assumptions
- The PJ charter
- Identified risks
The project charter is not an input to the activity duration estimating process.
Question 11:
You are the project manager for a new training program at your customer’s site. This program will require
each of the customer’s employees to attend a half-day class and complete an assessment exam. You will be
completing the training at the customer’s facility and will need a trainer for the duration of the training,
which is six months. This is an example of which of the following?
- Resource requirement
- Assumption
- Cost constraint
- A human resource issue
The trainer resource is required for the project for six months.
Question 12:
You are the project manager for a construction company. Your firm has been contracted to complete the
drilling of a well for a new cabin in Arkansas. The specification of the well is documented, but your
company has little experience in well drilling in Arkansas. The stakeholder is concerned that your time
estimates are not accurate, since the soil and rock in Arkansas are quite different from the soil in your
home state. Which one of the following can you use to ensure your project estimates are accurate?
- An order of magnitude
- A commercial duration estimating database
- Local contractors
- Soil samplings from the arkansas government
Commercial duration estimating databases are valid resources to confirm or base time estimates on.
Question 13:
You are the project manager for your organization. You and your project team are in conflict on the amount
of time allotted to complete certain activities. Several of the team members want to bloat the time
associated with activities to ensure they will have enough time to complete their tasks should something go
awry. The law of economics that these tasks may suffer from is which one of the following?
- Parkinson’s law
- The law of diminishing returns
- Hertberg’s theory of motivation
- Oligopoly

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Parkinson’s Law states that work will expand to fulfill the time allotted to it. Bloated tasks will take all the
time allotted. Management reserve should be used instead.
Question 14:
You are the project manager for your organization. You and your project team are in conflict regarding the
amount of time allotted to complete certain activities. Several of the team members want to bloat the time
associated with activities to ensure they will have enough time to complete their tasks should something
risk events cause the schedule to change. Instead of overestimating their project activities, the project
team should use which of the following?
- Contingency plans
- Capital reserve
- Contingency reserve
- Assumption of plus or minus a percentage
Rather than bloat activities, projects should use a contingency reserve. A contingency reserve is a portion of
the project schedule allotted for time overruns on activities.
Question 15:
You are the project manager for your organization and part of your role requires that you coach the project
team on the project management processes. At this point in your project, you’re estimating the activity
durations with the project team and need to review the tools and techniques that are appropriate for
usage with this process. Which one of the following is not a tool and technique for the estimate activity
duration process??
- Risk identification
- Analogous estimating
- Reserve analysis
- Three-point estimating
Risk identification is not a tool and technique of the estimate activity durations process. This process has
eight tools to consider: expert judgment, analogous estimating, parametric estimating, three-point
estimating, bottom-up estimating, data analysis, decision making, and meetings.
Question 16:
You are the project manager for the 987 Project. Should this project run over schedule, it will cost your
organization $35,000 per day in lost sales. With four months to completion, you realize the project is
running late. You decide, with management’s approval, to add more project team members to the plan to
complete the work on time. This is an example of which of the following?
- Crashing
- Fast-tracking
- Expert judgment
- Cost-benefit analysis
When more resources are added to a project to complete the work on time, it is called crashing.
Question 17:
You are the project manager for the 987 Project. Should this project run over schedule, it will cost your
organization $35,000 per day in lost sales. With four months to completion, you realize the project is
running late. You decide, with management’s approval, to change the relationship between several of the
work packages so they begin in tandem rather than sequentially. This is an example of which one of the
following?
- Crashing
- Fast-tracking
- Expert judgment
- Cost-benefit analysis
Fast-tracking allows activities to operate in tandem with each other rather than sequentially.
Question 18:
Chris, a project manager for his company, is explaining the difference between a Gantt chart and a
milestone chart. Which of the following best describes a Gantt chart?
- A Gantt chart depicts what was planned againts what occurred
- A Gantt chart compares the work in the PJ against the work that has been completed
- A Gantt chart depicts the work in the PJ againts a calendar
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 - A Gantt chart depicts the work in the PJ against each resource’s calendar
A Gantt chart is a bar chart that represents the duration of activities against a calendar. The length of the
bars represents the length of activities, while the order of the bars represents the order of activities in the
project.
Question 19:
Beth is a project manager for her organization. Management has asked Beth to use the CPM approach in
her network diagram. She is not familiar with this approach and she’s asked you to help her complete this
portion of her project work. Which of the following is a correct attribute of the critical path?
- It determines the earliest completion date
- It has the largest amount of fload
- It has the most activites in the PND
- It is the path with the most expensive PJ activities
Of all the choices presented, A is the best description of the critical path. The critical path is the path with
the longest duration and it tells the earliest and the latest day the project can be completed. There can be
instances, however, when the project’s expected end date is well beyond the duration of the scheduled
work. In such cases, the critical path is considered the path with the least amount of float.
Question 20:
Management has informed you that you must flatten your project through resource-leveling heuristics.
What is likely to happen to your project schedule if your project team members are allowed to contribute
only 30 hours per week?
- The PJ schedule will increase
- The PJ schedule will decrease
- The PJ critical path will change
- The PM will need to use the critical chain method
When the project schedule is flattened through resource leveling, the project duration (schedule) will likely
increase.
Question 21:
You are the project manager for a construction project. Your foreman informs you that, due to the
humidity, the concrete will need to cure for an additional 24 hours before the framing can begin. To
accommodate the requirement, you add _______________ time to the framing activity.
- Lead
- Lag
- Delay
- Slack
You will add lag time to the framing activity. Lag is waiting time.
Question 22:
Bertha is the project manager for the HAR Project. The project is behind schedule, and Bertha has elected,
with management’s approval, to crash the critical path. This process adds more what? (Choose the best
answer.)
- Cost
- Time
- Risk
- Documentation
Crashing involves adding resources, which typically increases cost.
Question 23:
Bertha is the project manager for the HAR Project. It’s currently behind schedule, and Bertha has elected,
with management’s approval, to fast-track the critical path. This process adds more what? (Choose the best
answer.)
- Cost
- Time
- Risk
- Documentation
Fast-tracking adds risk because tasks can overlap. A may be correct in some instances, but it is not the best
choice here.
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Quiz 7: PJ cost management
Question 1:
You are the project manager for your organization and you need to create a cost estimate for your current
project. This project is similar to the ABG Project you completed a few months ago, so you report to your
program manager that you’ll be using analogous estimating. Which of the following best describes
analogous estimating?
- Regression analysis
- Bottom-up estimating
- Less accurate
- More accurate
Analogous estimating is less accurate than other estimating methods.
Question 2:
You are the project manager for the GHG Project. You are about to create the cost estimates for the
project. Which input to this process will help you the most?
- Parametric modeling
- WBS
- Project scope
- Requirements document
The WBS is the input that can help you the most with the cost estimates.
Question 3:
You are the project manager for the JKH Project. You have elected to use parametric estimating in your cost
estimating for the project. Which of the following is an example of parametric estimating?
- $750 per ton
- Historical information from a similar PJ
- Estimate built bottom-up based the WBS
- Estimate based on top-down budgeting
A is correct because $750 per ton is an example of parametric estimating.
Question 4:
You are the project manager for a new technology implementation project. Management has requested
that your estimates be as exact as possible. Which one of the following methods of estimating will provide
the most accurate estimate?
- Top-down estimating
- Top-down budgeting
- Bottom-up estimating
- Parametric estimating
Bottom-up estimating provides the most accurate estimates. The project manager starts at zero, the
bottom, and accounts for each cost within the project.
Question 5:
Your company has been hired to install the tile in 1000 hotel rooms. All rooms will be identical in nature
and will require the same amount of materials. Your project team has completed the first three hotel
rooms that took an average of six hours each to complete. You calculate the time to install the tile in each
hotel room at six hours. The cost for the labor for your new project team is calculated at $700 per room.
Your project sponsor disagrees with your labor estimate. Why?
- You haven’t completed one hotel room yet, so you don’t know how long the work will actually
take
- You have not factored in all of the effort applied to the work
- You have not considered the law of diminishing returns
- You have not considered the learning curve
D is the best choice. As the project team completes more and more units, the time to complete a hotel room
should take less and less time.

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Question 6:
You are the project manager for a construction project to build 17 cabins. All of the cabins will be identical
in nature. The contract for the project is set at a fixed cost, the incentive being that the faster the project
work is completed, the more profitable the job. Management has requested that you study the work
method to determine a faster, less costly, and better method of completing the project. This is an example
of which one of the following?
- Time contraint
- Schedule contraint
- Value engineering
- Learning curve
Value engineering is a systematic approach to finding less costly ways to complete the same work.
Question 7:
You are the project manager for a technical implementation project. The customer has requested that you
factor in the after-the-project costs, such as maintenance and service. This is an example of which one of
the following?
- Life-cycle costs
- Scope creep
- Project spin-off
- Operations
The after-project costs are known as the life-cycle costs.
Question 8:
You are the project manager for your organization and you need to create a cost estimate for your current
project. Your manager informs you that this project requires a precise cost estimate so you need to choose
the most accurate estimating approach possible. Which one of the following provides the least accuracy in
estimating?
- Rough order of magnitude
- Budget estimate
- Definitive estimate
- WBS estimate
The rough order of magnitude is the least accurate approach, since it may vary from –25 percent to +75
percent.
Question 9:
As a PMP candidate, you need to be able to compare and contrast project plans, their components, and
how the plans are used within a live project. Based on this information, which one of the following is true?
- The cost mgt plan controls how change mgt affects the BAC
- The cost mgt plan controls how cost variances will be managed
- The cost mgt plan controls how the PM may be update the cost estimates
- The cost mgt plan controls how the BAC may be adjusted
The cost management plan controls how cost variances will be managed.
Question 10:
You have just started a project for a manufacturer. Project team members report they are 30 percent
complete with the project. You have spent $25,000 out of the project’s $250,000 budget. What is the
earned value for this project?
- 10%
- $75,000
- $25,000
- Not enough information to know
The earned value is 30 percent of the project’s budget.
Question 11:
You and your project team are about to enter a meeting to determine project costs. You have elected to
use bottom-up estimating and will base your estimates on the WBS. Which one of the following is not an
attribute of bottom-up estimating?
- People doing the work create the estimates
- It creates a more accurate estimate
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 - It’s more expensive to do than other methods
- It’s less expensive to do than other methos
Using bottom-up estimating is not less expensive to do.
Question 12:
What is the present value if an organization expects to make $100,000 four years from now and the annual
interest rate is 6 percent?
- $100,000
- $79,000
- $25,000
- Zero
The present value of $100,000 four years from now can be calculated by using this formula: present value =
FV / (1 + i)^n. FV is the future value, i is the interest rate, and n is the number of time periods.
Question 13:
You are the project manager for the construction of a new hotel. Before you begin the cost budgeting
process, what is needed?
- Cost estimates and PJ schedule
- Cost estimates and supporting detail
- EAC and BAC
- A parametric model used to arrive at the costs submitted
Cost estimates and the project schedule are inputs to the cost budgeting process.
Question 14:
You are the project manager of the MNJ Project. Your project is falling behind schedule, and you have
already spent $130,000 of your $150,000 budget. What do you call the $130,000?
- Planned value
- Present value
- Sunk costs
- Capital expenditure
Sunk costs are monies that have been spent.
Question 15:
You are the project manager of the JHD Project. Your project will cost your organization $250,000 to
complete over the next eight months. Once the project is completed, the deliverables will begin earning the
company $3500 per month. Which of the following represents the time to recover the costs of the project?
- Not enough information to know
- 8 months
- 72 months
- 5 years
The time to recoup the monies from the project is 72 months. This is calculated by dividing the ROI of $3500
per month into the project cost.
Question 16:
You are the project manager for a consulting company. Your company has two possible projects to manage,
but they can choose only one. Project KJH is worth $17,000, while Project ADS is worth $22,000.
Management elects to choose Project ADS. The opportunity cost of this choice is which one of the
following?
- $5000
- $17,000
- $22000
- Zero, because PJ ADS is worth more than PJ KJH
The opportunity cost is the amount of the project that was not chosen
Question 17:
You are the project manager for the CSR Training Project, and 21,000 customer service reps are invited to
attend the training session. Attendance is optional. You have calculated the costs of the training facility, but
the workbook expense depends on how many students register for the class. For every 5000 workbooks
created, the cost is reduced by a percentage of the original printing cost. The workbook expense is an
example of which one of the following?
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 - Fixed cost
- Parametric costs
- Variable costs
- Indirect cost
This is an example of variable costs. The more students who register to take the class, the more the cost of
the books will be.
Question 18:
You are the project manager of a construction project scheduled to last 24 months. You have elected to
rent a piece of equipment for the duration of a project, even though you will need the equipment only
periodically throughout the project. The costs of the equipment rental per month are $890. This is an
example of which of the following?
- Fixed cost
- Parametric cost
- Variable cost
- Indirect cost
This is a fixed-cost expense of $890 per month—regardless of how often the piece of equipment is used.
Question 19:
You are the project manager for the Hardware Inventory Project. You have a piece of equipment that was
purchased recently for $10,000 and is expected to last five years in production. At the end of the five years,
the expected worth of the equipment will be $1000. Using straight-line depreciation, what is the amount
that can be written off each year?
- Zero
- $1000
- $1800
- $2000
The straight-line depreciation takes the purchase value of the item, minus the salvage price of the item,
divided by the number of time periods. In this instance, it would be $10,000 minus $1000, or $9000. The
$9000 is divided by five years and equates to $1800 per year.
Question 20:
You are the project manager of the LKG Project. The project has a budget of $290,000 and is expected to
last three years. The project is now 10 percent complete an is on schedule. What is the BAC?
- $29,000
- $290,000
- $96,666
- $9,666
Question 21:
Your project has a budget of $130,000 and is expected to last 10 months, with the work and budget spread
evenly across all months. The project is now in month three, the work is on schedule, but you have spent
$65,000 of the project budget. What is your variance?
- $65,000
- $39,000
- $26,000
- $64,999
$26,000 is the variance. This is calculated by subtracting the actual costs of $65,000 from the earned value
of $39,000. EV is calculated by taking the 30 percent completion of the project against the BAC. The project
is considered to be 30 percent complete because it’s slated for 10 months, is currently in month three, an D
is on schedule.
Question 22:
You are the project manager of the Carpet Installation Project for a new building. Your BAC is $600,000. You
are now 40 percent complete with the project, though your plan called for you to be 45 percent complete
with the work by this time. What is your earned value?
- $240,000
- $270,000
- $30,000
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 - -$30,000
The earned value is calculated by multiplying the percentage of completion, 40 percent, by the BAC, which is
$600,000, for a value of $240,000.
Question 23:
You are the project manager of the Carpet Installation Project for a new building. Your BAC is $600,000. You
have spent $270,000 of your budget. You are now 40 percent done with the project, though your plan
called for you to be 45 percent done with the work by this time. What is your CPI?
- 100
- 89
- 0.89
- 0.79
C is the correct answer. The EV of $240,000 is divided by the AC of $270,000 for a value of 0.89.
Question 24:
You are the project manager for the Facility Installation Project. The project calls for 1500 units to be
installed in a new baseball stadium. Your team wants to know why you have not assigned the same amount
of time for the last 800 units as you assigned for the first 500 units. You tell them it is because of the
learning curve. Which one of the following best describes this theory?
- Production increases as workers become more effcient with the installation procedure
- Efficiency increases as workers become more familiar with the installation procedure
- Costs decrease as workers complete more of the installation procedure
- Time decreases as workers complete more of the installation procedure in the final phases of a
project
The learning curve means that efficiency will increase as workers become more familiar with the installation
procedure.
Question 25:
Beth is a project manager for her company and she has been assigned a new project. During project
planning, Beth needs to create a cost estimate for her project. Of the following, which one is the most
reliable source of information for estimating project costs that Beth may use?
- Historical information from a recently completed PJ
- An SME’s opinion
- Recollections of team members that have worked on similar PJs
- Vendors’ whitepapers
Of the choices presented, historical information from a recently completed project is the most reliable
source of information.

Quiz 8: PJ quality mgt

Question 1:
Gary is the project manager of the HBB Project for his organization. He’s working with project customers to
define the specifics of the project requirements, the project scope, and the defined product scope to help
define the quality of the project. The customer asks Gary who is responsible for the quality of the project
deliverables. Which of the following is responsible for managing quality?
- The PJ champion
- The PJ team
- Stakeholders
- Everyone
Managing quality is the responsibility of everyone - even the project customer. See the PMBOK Guide, 8.2
Question 2:
You are the project manager for the BBB Project. Stacy, a project team member, is confused about what QA
is. You need all the project team members and the project stakeholders to be clear on the quality
management processes. To help Stacy, which of the following best describes QA?
- QA is quality assurance for the overall PJ performance
- QA is quality acceptance according to scope verification
- QA is quality assuarance for the PJ deliverable
- QA is quality assurance for the PJ stakeholders
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QA is concerned with overall project quality performance.
Question 3:
You are the project manager for the Photo Scanning Project. This project is similar to another project you
have completed. Your project is to store thousands of historical photos electronically for your city’s
historical society. Quality is paramount on this project. Management approaches you and asks why you
have devoted so much of the project time for planning. Your response is which of the following?
- This is a first-time, first-use PJ, so more time is needed for planning
- Planning for a PJ of this size, with this amount of quality, is mandantory
- Quality is planned into a PJ, not inspected in
- Quality audits are part of the planning time
Question 4:
You are the project manager for the Floor Installation Project. Today, you will meet with your project team
to ensure the project is completed with no deviations from the project requirements. This process is which
of the following?
- Quality planning
- Quality mgt
- Quality control
- Quality assurance
Quality planning should be completed prior to the work beginning—and should thereafter be revisited as
needed.
Question 5:
You are the project manager for the ASE Project, which must map to industry standards in order to be
accepted by the customer. You and your team have studied the requirements and have created a plan to
implement the deliverables with the appropriate level of quality. What is this process called?
- Quality planning
- Quality mgt
- Quality control
- Quality assurance
Quality planning is the process of creating a plan to meet the requirements of quality.
Question 6:
You are the project manager of the NHQ Project, which is part of the HQQ Program to construct a
condominium building. Samuel, the program manager, has required that you document any variances to
costs, schedule, scope, and quality expectations as part of the program governance. You believe that your
project team now has an internal failure cost that needs to be documented for Samuel. Which of the
following is an example of internal failure cost?
- Rework
- Quality audit
- Random quality audits
- PJ team training
Internal failure cost is attributed to failure that results in rework. It is an example of the cost of
nonconformance to quality.
Question 7:
Quality assurance is an organization-wide initiative and is part of your enterprise environmental factors. All
projects must adhere to the quality assurance initiatives in your company. Within your project, however,
you also have quality assurance efforts and you have quality control efforts. Quality control is typically a(n)
_______________ process.
- Mgt
- PM
- Audit
- Inspection
Question 8:
Quality assurance is an organization-wide initiative and is part of your enterprise environmental factors. All
projects must adhere to the quality assurance initiatives in your company. Within your project, however,

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you also have quality assurance efforts and you have quality control efforts. Managing quality is typically
a(n) _______________ process.
- Executing
- PM
- Audit
- Inspection
Managing quality is typically an executing process.
Question 9:
You are the project manager for a large manufacturer of wood furniture. Your new project is the Shop
Table Project, which will involve the creation and manufacture of a new table for woodworkers to use in
their wood shops. For this project, you have elected to use JIT for scheduling. Which of the following is an
advantage to using JIT?
- It requires materials to be readily available
- It allows the PJ team to have control over the materials
- It decreases the inventory investment
- It allows for a broad range of deviation compared to other inventory solutions
JIT (just-in-time) scheduling decreases the investment in inventory. However, mistakes with the materials
can cause downtime if no additional materials are on hand.
Question 10:
You are the project manager of the HHQ Project for your company. Your company is a manufacturer of
paper products. Your company has elected to use ISO 9000 standards. What is an attribute of ISO 9000?
- It ensures that your company follows its own quality procedures
- It ensures that your company follows the set phases in each PJ from initiation to closure
- It ensure that your company map its processes to a proven process within the program
- It ensures that QA and QC are integrated into the PJ or service your organization offers
From ASQ: "ISO 9000 is a set of international standards on quality management and quality assurance
developed to help companies effectively document the quality system elements to be implemented to
maintain an efficient quality system. They are not specific to any one industry and can be applied to
organizations of any size."
Question 11:
You are the project manager of the Halogen Installation Project. As this project gets underway, you receive
notice from the program manager that the organization will be moving to Kaizen methodology as part of its
quality management program. What is a Kaizen methodology?
- Small improments for small results
- Small improvements for all PJs
- Small process and product improvements that are carried out on a continuous basis
- Small process improvements that are made to shorten the PJ duration
Kaizen technologies are small changes to processes and products on a steady, continuous basis to save costs
and improve quality.
Question 12:
Holly Ann is a project manager for her organization. She is working with Jeff, the manufacturing rep, to
analyze the errors in the deliverables as part of their quality control approach. Jeff recommends that they
create a fishbone diagram to help analyze the problem. A fishbone diagram is the same as a(n)
_______________ diagram.
• Ishikawa
• Pareto
• Flow
• Control
A fishbone diagram is the same as an Ishikawa diagram, also called a why-why chart.
Question 13:
Management has asked you to define the correlation between quality and the project scope. Which of the
following is the best answer?
- The PJ scope will include metrics for quality
- Quality metrics will be apllied to the PJ scope
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 - Quality is the process of completing the scope to meet stated or implied needs
- Quality is the process of evaluating the PJ scope to ensure quality exists
Quality, in regard to the project scope, is about completing the work as promised and defined in the project
scope. It is what the customer is expecting as part of the project deliverables.
Question 14:
Quality is about conforming to requirement and the deliverables’ fitness for use. Quality also has some
attributes that must be considered as part of the project planning, project costs, and the project schedule.
Considering these factors, which of the following is most true about quality?
- It will cost more money to build quality into the PJ
- It will cost less money to build quality into the PJ process
- Quality is inspection-driven
- Quality is prevention-driven
Quality is prevention-driven. Quality wants to complete the work correctly the first time to prevent poor
results, a loss of time, and a loss of funds.
Question 15:
Which of the following can be described as a business philosophy to find methods that will continuously
improve products, services, and business practices?
- TQM
- ASQ
- QA
- QC
TQM, total quality management, is a business philosophy to find methods to continuously improve products,
services, and business practices.
Question 16:
Yolanda is the project manager for her company and she’s working with the project team to identify errors
in the project deliverables. As part of the process, Yolanda and the team must calculate the cost of the
error, the materials, the time, and the cost to redo the work. In this instance, in regard to quality
management, which of the following is not an attribute of failure costs that Yolanda will need to consider?
- Loss of customers
- Downtime
- Safety measures
- Rework
A safety measure is not an attribute of the cost of nonconformance, but rather a prevention cost.
Question 17:
You are the project manager for the KOY Project, which requires quality that maps to federal guidelines. To
ensure you can meet these standards, you have elected to put the project team through training specific to
the federal guidelines to which your project must adhere. The costs of these classes can be assigned to
which of the following?
- Cost of doing business
- Cost of quality
- Cost of adherence
- Cost of nonconformance
Training to meet the quality expectations is attributed to the cost of quality.
Question 18:
You are the project manager for the KOY Project, which requires quality that maps to federal guidelines.
During a quality audit, you discover that a portion of the project work is faulty and must be redone. The
requirement to correct the work is an example of which of the following?
- Prevention cost
- Appraisal cost
- Failure cost
- Cost of doing business
When project work results are faulty and must be done over, it is attributed to the cost of nonconformance
to quality, which is a failure cost.

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Question 19:
You are the project manager of the GHQ Project. Your organization has a requirement that you use only the
seven basic quality tools. Which one of the following is not one of the seven basic quality tools?
- Cause-and-effect diagram
- Histogram
- Control chart
- Network diagrams
Network diagrams are not part of the seven basic quality tools. The tools are cause-and-effect diagrams,
flowcharts, checksheets, Pareto diagrams, histograms, control charts, and scatter diagrams.
Question 20:
You are the project manager of the JKL Project, which currently has some production flaws. Which analysis
tool will allow you to determine the cause and effect of the production faults?
- A flowchart
- A Pareto diagram
- An Ishikawa diagram
- A control chart
The key words “cause and effect” equate to the Ishikawa diagram.
Question 21:
Linda is the project manager of a manufacturing project. She and her project team are using root cause
analysis. How will Linda know they have found the root cause?
- She will never know as root cause analysis create a hypothesis of causes
- When she has asked why seven times she will find the root cause
- When the root cause are removed and the problem doesn’t recur
- When she has found three root cause that are linked by process design
Of all the choices presented, C is the best choice. When Linda removes the root causes the problem will not
recur and she will know that she has found the root causes to the problem.
Question 22:
You are the project manager of the Global Upgrade Project. Your project team consists of 75 project team
members around the world. Each project team will be upgrading a piece of equipment in many different
facilities. Which of the following could you implement to ensure that the project team members are
completing all the steps in the install procedure with quality?
- Checklists
- WBS
- PND
- The WBS dictionary
Checklists are simple but effective quality management tools that the project manager can use to ensure
that the project team is completing the required work.
Question 23:
Mark is the project manager of the PMH Project. Quality audits of the deliverables show there are several
problems. Management has asked Mark to create a chart showing the distribution of problems and their
frequencies. Given this, management wants which of the following?
- A control chart
- An Ishikawa diagram
- A Pareto diagram
- A flowchart
Management wants Mark to create a Pareto diagram. Recall that a Pareto diagram maps out the causes of
defects and illustrates their frequency.

Quiz 9: Project Resource Management

Question 1:
You are the project manager for the JHG Project. This project requires coordination with the directors of
manufacturing, resources, the IT department, and the CIO. You will only be acquiring resources for the
project as the resources are needed. The goal is to reduce waste, minimize inventory, and forecast resource
utilization. What type of approach is this?
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 - Just-in-time manufacturing
- Schedule ALAP
- Schedule ASAP
- Resource recurring factoring
With just-in-time manufacturing, the physical resources are only in place as they are needed. This approach
reduces waste, keeps inventory at a minimum, and helps the project manager forecast resource utilization
more accurately.
Question 2:
You are the project manager of the GHY Project. This project will remove old lights throughout your
building and replace the fixtures with new, cost-saving lights. In this project, you’ll work with internal and
external vendors. Your project requires an electrician at month eight. This is an example of which of the
following?
- Organizational interfaces
- Resource requirement
- Contractor requirements
- Resource constraints
Because the project requires the electrician, a project role, this is a resource requirement.
Question 3:
You are the project manager of the PUY Project. This project requires a chemical engineer for seven months
of the project, but there are no available chemical engineers within your department. This is an example of
which of the following?
- Organizational interfaces
- Resource requirements
- Contractor requirements
- Resource constraints
The project needs the resource of the chemical engineer to be successful. When the project needs a
resource, it is a staffing requirement.
Question 4:
As a PMP you need to recognize the different organizational structures and the expected amount of
authority a project manager will have in these environments. For example, pretend you are the project
manager in an organization with a weak matrix. Who will have the authority on your project?
- The PM
- The customer
- Functional mgt
- The team leader
In a weak matrix structure, functional management will have more authority than the project manager.
Question 5:
You are the project manager for the LMG Project. Your project will have several resource issues that must
be coordinated and approved by the union. Which of the following statements is correct about this
scenario?
- The union is considered a resource contraint
- The union is considerted a mgt constraint
- The union is considerted a PJ stakeholder
- The union is considered a PJ team member
In this instance, the union is considered a project stakeholder because it has a vested interest in the
project’s outcome.
Question 6:
You are the project manager of the PLY Project. This project is like the ACT Project you completed earlier.
What method can you use to expedite the process of organization planning?
- Use the PJ plan of the ACT PJ on the PLY PJ
- Use the roles and responsibilites definitions of the ACT PJ on the PLY PJ
- Use the PJ team reward structure of the ACT PJ on the PLY PJ
- Use the PJ team of the ACT PJ on the PLY PJ

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When projects are similar in nature, the project manager can use the roles and responsibilities definitions
of the historical project to guide the current project.
Question 7:
In your organization, management is referred to as coaches. As a project manager, you are referred to as a
project coach. A resource document should be created to handle this scenario. What should it cover?
- How coaches are separate from managers
- How coaches are the same as managers
- How a coach is to complete his job
- How the PJ team is to work for a coach
When project managers, or managers in general, are referred to by different terms, a job description is
needed so that the project manager can successfully complete the required obligations.
Question 8:
You are the project manager of the JQA Project. This project will last for eight months, and you have 12
project team members. Management has requested that you create a chart depicting all the project
resource needs and the associated activities. Management is looking for which type of chart?
- A roles chart
- A roles matrix
- A roles and responsibilities matrix
- A Gantt chart
Management is looking for a roles and responsibility matrix. This chart lists the roles and responsibilities,
and depicts the intersection of the two.
Question 9:
Many theories and philosophies can affect the approach a manager uses to lead and manage the project
team. Based on your knowledge of the different management theories, which of the following is an
example of the X in Theory of X and Y?
- Self-led PJ teams
- Micromanagement
- Team members able to work on their own accord
- EVM
The X in the Theory of X and Y states that workers have an inherent dislike of work and will avoid it if
possible. Micromanagement is a method with regard to X that helps to make certain workers complete
their work.
Question 10:
You are the project manager of the PLN Project. management has asked you to identify the weakest link in
the project chain. What approach is management likely using in your organization?
- Formal power
- Theory of contraints
- Critical path networking
- Referent power
When the looking for the weakest link in the project management chain, management is likely using the
theory of constraints. The theory of constraints is a management system is limited by its weakest
components, the constraint. Adapts the phrase “a chain is only as strong as its weakest link.”
Question 11:
Beth is a great application developer and has been in that role for 12 years. Because of her experience, she
would make a great project manager of an application development project. What does this scenario best
describe?
- Halo effect
- Coerice power
- Expert power
- Halo power
The perception that Beth would make a great project manager of an application development project solely
because she has been an application developer is an example of the halo effect.

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Question 12:
Management has approached Tyler, one of your project team members. Tyler is a database administrator
and developer whose work is always on time, accurate, and of quality. He also has a reputation of being a
“good guy” and is well liked. Because of this, management has decided to move Tyler into the role of a
project manager for a new database administration project. This is an example of which of the following?
- Mgt by exception
- The halo effect
- Mgt by objectives
- McGregor’s Theory of X and Y
The halo effect is the assumption that because a person is good at a certain technology, she will also be
good at managing a project dealing with said technology.
Question 13:
Susan is the project manager for the PMG Project. She makes all the decisions on the project team,
regardless of the project team’s objections. This is an example of which of the following management
styles?
- Autocratic
- Democratic
- Laissez faire
- Exceptional
Susan is an autocratic decision maker.
Question 14:
You are a new project manager in your company. Many of the project team members do not know you,
haven’t worked with you before, and don’t seem interested in working on the project goal now. Some
problems have come up in the project and need to be addressed immediately for the project to be
successful. Which problem-solving technique is the best for most project management situations?
- Collaborating
- Compromising
- Forcing
- Avoidance
Collaborating is the best problem-solving technique, since it meets the problem directly.
Question 15:
Harold is an outspoken project team member. All the project team members respect Harold for his
experience with the technology, but things usually have to be done as Harold sees fit; otherwise, things
don’t go well. During a discussion on a solution, a project team member throws up her arms and says,
“Fine, Harold, do it your way.” This is an example of which of the following?
- A win-win solution
- A leave-lose solution
- A lose-lose solution
- A yield-lose solution
When Harold always must win an argument and team members begin to give in to Harold’s demands
simply to avoid arguments rather than to find an accurate solution, this is a yield-lose situation.
Question 16:
You are the project manager for the GBK Project. This project affects a line of business, and the customer is
anxious about the success of the project. Which of the following is likely not a top concern for the
customer?
- PJ priorities
- Schedule
- Cost
- Personality conflict
Personality conflicts are likely a concern for the customer but are not as important as project priorities,
schedule, and cost. The customer hired your company to solve the technical issues.
Question 17:
As a project manager in your organization, you believe that projects operate better when the project team
is involved in the management processes. You like to include the project team in decisions, listen to their
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input, and create a familial environment. Which theory believes that workers need to be involved with the
management process?
- McGregor’s theory of X and Y
- Ouchi’s theory Z
- Herzberg’s Theory of motivation
- The Expectancy theory
Ouchi’s Theory Z states that workers need to be involved with the management process.
Question 18:
Employees and employers enter the employment contract with certain obligations. The employee is
obligated to work and perform according to requirements. The employer is obligated to abide by the
employment offer and pay the worker accordingly. Which of the following states that if workers are
rewarded they will remain productive?
- McGregor’s theory of X and Y
- Ouchi’s theory Z
- Herzberg’s Theory of motivation
- The Expectancy theory
The Expectancy Theory describes how people will work based on what they expect because of the work
they do. If people are rewarded because of the work they complete and they like the reward (payment),
they will continue to work.
Question 19:
Mary has created a RACI chart for her project team. What does the C in RACI mean?
- Continue
- Coercive
- Consult
- Character
The C in RACI means Consult.
Question 20:
You are the project manager for the GHB Project. You have served as a project manager for your
organization for the past ten years. Practically all your projects are completed on time and on budget. The
project team has worked with you in the past, and they consider you to be an expert project manager. They
also like working with you. Given all of this, you likely have what type of power on this project?
- Formal power
- Coercive power
- Expert power
- Referent power
This is referent power because the project team knows you, the project manager, personally.
Question 21:
Several types of power can be used in project management. Some of the powers are based on the project
manager’s experience, knowledge, perception, or even relationship. Which of the following scenarios is an
example of coercive power?
- A PM who has lunch with the PJ team every Thursday
- A PM who will openly punish any team member who is late with an activity
- A PM who has worked with the technology on the PJ for several years
- A PM who is friends with all the PJ team members
Coercive power is the power a project manager yields over the project team, which is essentially formal
authority.
Question 22:
Charles is the project manager for the WAC Project. The customer and a project team member are in
conflict over the level of quality needed on a sampling. Charles decides to split the difference between
what the two stakeholders want. This is an example of which of the following?
- A win-win slolution
- A win-lose solution
- A lose-lose solution
- A leave-lose solution
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When both parties give up something, it is a compromise. A compromise is an example of a lose-lose
solution.
Question 23:
Mike is the project manager for a project with a very tight schedule. The project is running late, and Mike
thinks that he does not have time to consider all the possible solutions that two team members are in
disagreement over. Mike quickly decides to go with the team member with the largest amount of seniority.
This is an example of which of the following?
- Problem solving
- Compromising
- Forcing
- Withdrawal
Forcing happens when the project manager makes a decision based on factors not relevant to the problem.
Just because a team member has more seniority does not mean this individual is correct.
Question 24:
You are a project manager in a project-oriented organization. Your job as a project manager can be
described best by which of the following?
- Full-time
- Part-time
- Expeditor
- Coordinator
Project managers are typically assigned to a project on a full-time basis in a project-oriented organization.
Question 25:
You are the project manager of the NHH Project for your organization. This project will span three countries
and utilize four languages: English, Flemish, French, and Spanish. In this project, you’ll rely heavily on a
virtual project. Of the following, which one is a benefit of using a collocated team?
- The PJ team is dispersed, so the team is self-led
- The PJ team is dispersed, so communication increases
- The PJ team is in the same physical location, so their ability to work as a team is enhanced
- The PJ team is in the same physical location, so PJ costs are greatly reduced
When a project team is collocated, all the project team members are in the same physical location, which
increases their ability to work as a team.

Quiz 10: Communications mgt

Question 1:
In the project communication model, many elements must be present to allow communication to occur.
One element, noise, can prevent the effectiveness of the communication message. Of the following, which
one is an example of noise?
- E-mail servers
- Ad-hoc conversations
- Contractual agreements
- Distance
Noise is anything that interferes with the transmission and understanding of the message. Distance is an
example of noise.
Question 2:
You are the project manager of a large technical project. You believe that Jose has received an important
message but does not agree with it based on his body language. This is known as what?
- Acknowledgement
- Transmission
- Negotiation
- Decoder
Acknowledgement means that Jose has received the message but may not agree with it.

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Question 3:
You are the project manager for the LKH Project. Management has requested that you create a document
detailing what information will be expected from stakeholders and to whom that information will be
disseminated. Management is asking for which one of the following?
- The roles and responsibilities matrix
- The scope mgt plan
- The communications mgt plan
- The communications worksheet
Management is requesting a communications management plan, which details the requirements and
expectations for communicating information among the project stakeholders.
Question 4:
You are the project manager of the HBQ Project in your organization. This project will last for six months,
and you must communicate with 35 stakeholders throughout the project. You and the project team will
create a communications management plan as part of project planning. Which of the following will help
you, the project manager, complete the needed communications management plan by identifying the
stakeholders’ communication needs?
- Identification of all communication channels
- Formal documentation of all communication channels
- Formal documentation of all stakeholders
- Lessons learned from previous similar PJs
Lessons learned and historical information from a previous project are ideal inputs to communications
planning.
Question 5:
You are the project manager for the JGI Project, which has 32 stakeholders involved. How many
communication channels do you have?
- Depends on the number of PJs team members
- 496
- 32
- 1
Using the formula N (N – 1) / 2, where N represents the number of stakeholders, you have 496
communication channels.
Question 6:
You are the project manager for the KLN Project. You had 19 stakeholders on this project and have added 3
team members. How many more communication channels do you have now compared to before?
- 231
- 171
- 60
- 1
This is a tough question, but it’s typical of the PMP exam. The question asks how many more
communication channels exist. You’ll have to calculate the new value, which is 231, and then subtract the
original value, which is 171, for a total of 60 new channels.
Question 7:
You are the project manager of the HQS Project for your organization. Your project will utilize push and pull
communications on a daily basis. A memo has been sent to you and project team members and the project
customers from the project sponsor. In this instance, who is the sender?
- PJ sponsor
- PM
- PJ team members
- PJ customers
The project sponsor is the source of the memo because this is the sender of the message.
Question 8:
Mary is a project manager of the JQL Project for her company. This project is a multinational project with
stakeholders in three countries: the United States, Belgium, and Germany. In this project, Mary will need to

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plan for project assumptions and constraints that affect how she and the other project stakeholders will
communicate. Which one of the following is an example of a project communication constraint?
- Ad-hoc conversations through web conferencing software
- Demands for formal reports
- Stakeholder mgt
- The geographical locales of the PJ team
Team members who are located physically close together can be a communications constraint because it’s
tougher to communicate when distance between team members exists.
Question 9:
Project managers can present project information in many different ways. Which one of the following is not
a method a project manager can use to present project performance?
- Histograms
- S-curves
- Bar charts
- RACI charts
RACI charts do not show project performance, but accountability of the resources involved in the project
Question 10:
How the message is communicated affects the meaning of the message. Of the following, which term
describes the pitch and tone of an individual’s voice?
- Paralingual
- Feeback
- Effective listening
- Active listening
Paralingual is a term used to describe the pitch and tone of one’s voice.
Question 11:
You are the project manager of the KMH Project. This project is slated to last eight years. You have just
calculated EVM and have a CV of –$3500, which is outside of the acceptable thresholds for your project.
What type of report is needed for management?
- Progress report
- Forcecast report
- Exception report
- Trends report
An exception report is typically completed when variances exceed a given limit.
Question 12:
You are presenting your project performance to your key stakeholders. Several of the stakeholders receive
phone calls during your presentation, and this is distracting from your message. This is an example of what?
- Noise
- Negative feeback
- Outsitde communications
- Message distracter
Noise is the correct answer because their phone calls are distracting from your message.
Question 13:
You are the project manager for the OOK Project. You will be hosting project meetings every week. Of the
following, which one is not a valid rule for project meetings?
- Schedule recurring meetings as soon as possible
- Allow PJ meetings to last as long as needed
- Distribute meeting agendas prior to the meeting start
- Allow the PJ team to have input to the agenda
Project meetings should have a set time limit.
Question 14:
As a PMP candidate, you must be familiar with the communication model and the structure of
communication in a project. The three basic elements needed for communication in project management
include which of the following?
- Words, sentences, paragrahps
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 - Proper grammar, spelling, ideas
- Verbal, nonverbal, action
- Sender, receiver, message
The three parts of communication are sender, receiver, and message.
Question 15:
Your project is slated to last three years and will include stakeholders from four countries. In this project,
you’ll rely on teleconferencing and web collaboration software to reduce the travel costs throughout the
project life cycle. Based on this information, which one of the following is a factor that may affect project
communication?
- Communications mgt
- Mgt by walking around
- The PJ length
- Variance analysis reporting
The project duration is the only factor that may affect project communication. Project communication is
always needed, but longer, larger projects will require more communications than shorter, smaller scoped
projects.
Question 16:
Your project team relies on telephone calls and e-mails to communicate information on a daily basis. As the
project manager, you’d like to see more interactive, face-to-face meetings for project team members that
are in the same geographical area. A team member asks why, and you say it’s because of the advantages
offered by nonverbal language. What percentage of a message is sent through nonverbal communications,
such as facial expressions, hand gestures, and body language?
- More than 50%
- 30 to 40%
- 20 to 30%
- 10 to 20%
More than 50 percent of a message is conveyed through nonverbal communications
Question 17:
One of the enterprise environmental factors that your project communications management plan must
address is the concept of lessons-learned documentation. When does lessons-learned identification take
place?
- At the end of the PJ
- At the end of each PJ phase
- Throughout the PJ life cycle
- Whenever a lessons learned has been learned
Lessons learned takes place throughout the project life cycle, not just at the end of the project or its phases.
Question 18:
Why should a project team complete lessons-learned documentation
- To ensure PJ closure
- To show mgt what they’ve accomplished in the PJ
- To show the PJ stakeholders what they’ve accomplished in the PJ
- To help future PJ teams complete their PJs more efficiently
Lessons-learned documentation helps future project teams complete their projects with more efficiency and
effectiveness.
Question 19:
Often as a project manager you will have to negotiate. Negotiations work best in which environment?
- Caution and yielding
- Sincerity, honesty, and extreme caution
- Mutual respect and admiration
- Mutual respect and cooperation
Mutual respect and cooperation is the environment needed for fair and balanced negotiations.

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Question 20:
You are the project manager for the PMU Project. Your project team has 13 members. You have been
informed that next week your project will receive the 7 additional members you requested. How many
channels of communication will you have next week?
- 1
- 78
- 190
- 201
The project currently has 13 team members, and next week 7 additional team members will come aboard,
thus making a total of 20 team members. Using the formula N (N – 1) / 2, where N is the number of
identified stakeholders, the communication channels equal 190.
Question 21:
You are the project manager of the NH Project for your company, and you’re required to use earned value
management in the project. The outcomes of earned value management contribute to the requirements
and targets for performance reporting. Performance reporting should generally provide information on all
of the following except for which one
- Scope
- Schedule
- Labor issues
- Quality
Labor issues are not part of performance reporting.
Question 22:
Sam is the project manager of the AZA Project for your company, and he is required to use earned value
management in the project. Management has created performance targets for CPI and SPI based on the
project team’s overall performance in the project. Sam must follow the enterprise environmental factors
for reporting all components of EVM. Which one of the following is an output from performance reporting?
- Trend analysis
- EVM
- Variance analysis
- Chane requests
Of all the answers, a change request is the only acceptable answer. Incidentally, there are two outputs of
performance reporting: change requests and performance report
Question 23:
As a PMP candidate you must be familiar with the project communications processes, the communications
model, and the terminology associated with communications. For instance, the process of sending
information from the project manager to the project team is called what?
- Functioning
- Matrixing
- Blended communications
- Transmitting
When information is sent, it is considered to be transmitted.
Question 24:
George is the project manager of the 7YH Project. In this project, George considers the relationship
between himself and the customer to be of utmost importance. Which one of the following is a valid
reason for George’s belief in this?
- The customer will complete George’s performance evaluation. A poor communication model
between George and the customer will affect his PJ bonus
- The customer is not familiar with PJ mgt. George must educate the customer about the process
- The customer is always right
- The communication between the customer and George can convey the PJ objectives more
clearly then can the language in the PJ contract
George and the customer’s relationship can allow clearer communication on the project objectives than
what may be expressed in the project contract. The contract should take precedence on any issues, but
direct contact is often the best way to achieve clear and concise communication.

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Question 25:
Betty is the project manager for her organization and she’s currently managing the HGF Project. Her project
has 45 stakeholders in two different time zones. According to the communications model, which one of the
following means that communications occur when Betty communicates with the project team?
- The transfer of knowledge
- The outputing of knowledge
- The presence of knowledge
- The transmission of knowledge
Betty is the project manager for her organization and she’s currently managing the HGF Project. Her project
has 45 stakeholders in two different time zones. According to the communications model, which one of the
following means that communications occur when Betty communicates with the project team?

Quiz 11: Project Risk management

Question 1:
Beth is the project manager for her company, and Marty, her supervisor, is concerned with the possibility
of Beth accepting one of the project risks. Beth explains that this is a risk that should be accepted within the
project. When is it appropriate to accept a project risk?
• It is never appropriate to accept a PJ risk
• All risk must be mitigated or transferred
• It is appropiate to accept a risk if the PJ team has never completed this type of PJ work before
• It is appropriate to accept a risk if the risk is in balance with the reward
Risks that are in balance with the reward are appropriate for acceptance.
Question 2:
Frances is the project manager of the LKJ Project. Which of the following techniques will she use to create
the risk management plan?
• Risk tolerance
• Status meetings
• Planning meetings
• Variance meetings
Planning meetings are used to create the risk management plan. The project manager, project team
leaders, key stakeholders, and other individuals with the power to make decisions regarding risk
management attend the meetings.
Question 3:
You are the project manager of the HQQ Project, and part of your requirement in this role is to create a risk
management plan. Which of the following is not part of a risk management plan?
• Roles and responsibilities
• Methodology
• Technical assessment board compliance
• Risk categories
The technical assessment board may be used as part of the change control system. It is not relevant to risk
management planning.
Question 4:
You are the project manager of the GHK Project. You and the manufacturer have agreed to substitute the
type of plastic used in the product to a slightly thicker grade should there be more than a 7 percent error in
production. The thicker plastic will cost more and require that the production slow down, but the errors
should diminish. This is an example of which of the following?
• Threshold
• Tracking
• Budgeting
• JIT manufacturing
An error value of 7 percent represents the threshold under which the project can operate. Should the
number of errors increase beyond 7 percent, the current plastic will be substituted.

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Question 5:
Hans is a project manager for his organization, and he’s working with his sponsor to identify the
organization’s risk tolerance. Understanding the risk tolerance and any associated enterprise
environmental factors will help Hans and the project team plan for risk responses. An organization’s risk
tolerance is also known as what?
• The utility function
• Herzberg’s theory of motivation
• Risk acceptance
• The risk-reward ratio
The utility function describes a person’s willingness to tolerate risk
Question 6:
As a project manager, you must understand the components of an identified risk, a risk response, a risk
trigger, risk thresholds, and issues. A risk trigger is also called which of the following?
• A warning sign
• A delay
• A cost increase
• An incremental advancement of risk
Risk triggers can also be known as warning signs. Triggers signal that a risk is about to happen or has
happened.
Question 7:
The customers of the project have requested additions to the project scope. The project manager brings
notice that additional risk planning will need to be added to the project schedule. Why?
• The risk planning should always take the same amount of time as the activities required by the
scope change
• Risk planning should always occur whenever the scope is adjusted
• Risk planning should occur only at the PM’s discretion
• The PM is incorrect. Risk planning does not need happen at every change in the PJ
When the scope has been changed, the project manager should require risk planning to analyze the
additions for risks to the project’s success.
Question 8:
You are the project manager of your organization, and you’re working with your project team and the
project stakeholders to identify the risks within the project. Some of the risks have not yet happened and
some of the risks are already issues. You tell the project team that all risks must be documented in the risk
register, but they are not familiar with this document. Which one of the following best describes the risk
register?
• It documents all the outcomes of the other risk mgt processes
• It’s a document that contains the initial risk identification entries
• It’s a system that tracks all negative risks within a PJ
• It’s part of the PJ’s PMIS for integrated change control
The risk register documents all the outcomes of the other risk management processes.
Question 9:
An understanding of the different types of risk events can help the project manager work better with the
enterprise environmental factors and the organizational process assets that affect the risk management in
a project. Based on this information, (a) _______________ include(s) fire, theft, or injury and offer(s) no
chance for gain.
• Business risks
• Pure risks
• Risk acceptance
• Life risks
Pure risks are the risks that could threaten the safety of the individuals on the project.
Question 10:
Complete this sentence: A project risk is a(n) _______________ occurrence that can affect the project for
good or bad.

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 • Know
• Dangerous
• Uncertain
• Known-unknown
Risks are not planned—they are left to chance. The accommodation and the reaction to a risk can be
planned, but the event itself is not planned. If risks could be planned, Las Vegas would be out of business.
Question 11:
Risk identification is an iterative process in the project and it requires participation from the project
manager, the project team, and other key stakeholders. Because of the nature of risk, when should risk
identification happen?
• As early as possible in the initiation
• As early as possible in the planning
• Throught the product mgt life cycle
• Throughout the PJ life cycle
Question 12:
You are the project manager of the KLJH Project. This project will last two years and has 30 stakeholders.
How often should risk identification take place?
• Once at the beginning of the PJ
• Throughout the execution processes
• Throughout the PJ
• Once per PJ phase
Risk identification happens throughout the project. Recall that planning is iterative—as the project moves
toward completion, new risks may surface that call for identification and planned responses.
Question 13:
You are the project manager of the HNN Project and you’re working with the project stakeholders,
including the project team and the project sponsor, to identify risks within the project. You have identified
an opportunity that the organization could take advantage of as an additional revenue stream. As the
project manager, what’s the best risk response to choose for this risk?
• Exploit
• Enhance
• Escalate
• Share
The best response for this positive risk event is to escalate the risk/opportunity. This risk is beyond the
boundaries of the project as it is to generate an additional revenue stream for the organization, not the
project.
Question 14:
You are the project manager for a project that will create a new and improved web site for your company.
Currently, your company has more than 8 million users around the globe. You would like to poll experts
within your organization with a simple, anonymous form asking about any foreseeable risks in the design,
structure, and intent of the web site. With the collected information, subsequent anonymous polls are
submitted to the group of experts. This is an example of _______________.
• Risk identification
• A trigger
• An anonymous trigger
• The delphi technique
An anonymous poll allowing experts to submit their opinion freely without fear of backlash is an example of
the Delphi Technique.
Question 15:
As a PMP candidate, you must be familiar with the different approaches to risk identification. One
approach is called SWOT. Which of the following describes SWOT?
• An analys of strengths, weakness, options, and timing
• An analysis of strengths, weakness, opportunities and threats
• An elite PJ team that comes in and fixed PJ risks and threats
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 • Ratings of 1 to 100
SWOT analysis is part of risk identification and examines the strengths, weakness, opportunities, and
threats of the project to make certain all possibilities for risk identification are covered.
Question 16:
You are the project manager of the GLI Project for your organization. Your project sponsor has asked that
you use an approach to measure the probability and impact of the risk events and then to rank the events
accordingly. Which risk analysis provides the project manager with a risk ranking?
• Quantifiable
• Qualitative
• The utility function
• SWOT analysis
The risk ranking is based on the qualitative values of very high, high, medium, low, and very low attributes
of the identified risks.
Question 17:
A table of risks, their probability, their impact, and a number representing the overall risk score is called a
_______________.
• Risk table
• Probability and impact matrix
• Quantitative matrix
• Quanlitative matrix
A table of risks, their probability, and their impact equate to a risk score in a risk matrix.
Question 18:
You are presented with the following: .40; $500. What is the Ex$V?
• -$200
• -$500
• $40
• $200
The risk event has a probability of 40 percent and a positive impact cost of $500, which equates to $200.
Question 19:
You have identified a risk in your project that can affect the whole organization’s success. This risk is
beyond your authority as a project manager. What should you do with the risk event?
• Unknown with this information
• Transfer it to mgt
• Escalate it to mgt
• Mitigate the risk event
For a risk, positive or negative, outside of the project manager’s authority, it should be escalated to
management.
Question 20:
The water sanitation project manager has determined that the risks associated with handling certain
chemicals are too high. He has decided to allow someone else to complete this portion of the project, so he
has outsourced the handling and installation of the chemicals and filter equipment to an experienced
contractor. This is an example of which of the following?
• Avoidance
• Acceptance
• Mitigation
• Transference
Because the risk is not eliminated but transferred to someone else or another entity, it is considered
transference.
Question 21:
A project manager and the project team are actively monitoring the pressure gauge on a piece of
equipment. Sarah, the engineer, recommends a series of steps to be implemented should the pressure rise
above 80 percent. The 80 percent mark represents what?
• An upper control limit
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 • Threshold
• Mitiation
• A workaround
The 80 percent mark is a threshold.
Question 22:
What would a risk be based on the following information: Marty is 60 percent certain that he can get the
facility needed for $45,000, which is $7000 less than what was planned for?
.060, $45,500, $27,000
.060, $52,000, $31,200
.060, $7,000, $4200
.060, -$7,000, -$4200
This is a tricky question as it's dealing with a positive risk of $7,000. Marty is 60 percent certain he can save
the project $7000. The $4200 represents the 60 percent certainty of the savings.
Question 23:
What can a project manager use to determine whether it is better to make or buy a product?
• A decision tree analysis
• A fishbone model
• An Ishikawa diagram
• An ROI analysis
A decision tree model can separate the pros and cons of buying versus building.
Question 24:
Which of the following can determine multiple scenarios, given various risks and the probability of their
impact?
• Decision trees
• Monte carlo simulations
• Pareto charts
• Gantt charts
Monte Carlo simulations can reveal multiple scenarios and examine the risks and probability of impact.
Question 25:
Gary is a project manager for his organization and he’s evaluating the risks within his project. Some of the
risk events have a high impact, while other risk events have a low probability. In this project, many risks
have high-risk impact scores but an overall low-risk score. How is this possible?
• The risk scores are graded on a bell curve
• The probability of each risk is low
• The impact of each risk is accounted for until it comes to fruition
• The risks are rated high, medium or low
A risk can have a very high impact on the project, but inversely have an extremely low probability score. For
example, the possibility of a tornado wrecking the project’s construction site would have a high impact if it
happened, but the probability of it happening is relatively low.

Quiz 12: PJ procurement mgt

Question 1:
You are the project manager of the GHY Project for your organization. A portion of this project includes
dangerous work; although members of the project team could likely complete the work, your sponsor
doesn’t want to accept the risk. In this situation, which of the following may be used as a risk mitigation
tool?
• A vender proposal
• A contract
• A quotation
• PJ requirements
A contract can be used as a risk mitigation tool. Procurement of risky activities is known as transference—
the risk does not disappear, but the responsibility for the risk is transferred to the vendor.

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Question 2:
As a PMP candidate you must understand the provisions of project procurement even if your typical
projects do not include procurements. Based on the information in this chapter, a contract cannot have
provisions for which one of the following?
• A deadline for the completion of the work
• Illegal activities
• Subcontracting the work
• Penalties and fines disclosure of intellectual rights
A contract cannot include provisions for illegal activities.
Question 3:
You are the project manager for the 89A Project. You have created a contract for your customer. The
contract must have what two things?
• An offer and considerations
• Signatures and the stamp of a notary public
• The value and worth of the procured item
• A start date and an acceptance of the start date
Of all the answers presented, A is the best. Contracts have an offer and a consideration.
Question 4:
The WBS and the WBS dictionary can help a project manager plan for purchases and acquisitions. Which
one of the following best describes this process?
• The WBS defines the specific contracted work
• The WBS defines the requirements for the specific contracted work
• The WBS defines the details and requirements for acceptance of the PJ
• Both parties must have retain their own copy of the WBS
The WBS defines the details and requirements for acceptance of the project. This information also serves as
valuable input to the process of determining what needs to be procured. The WBS defines what the end
result of the project will be. In dealing with vendors to procure a portion of the project, the work to be
procured must support the requirements of the project’s customer.
Question 5:
Yolanda has outsourced a portion of the project to a vendor. The vendor has discovered some issues that
will influence the cost and schedule of its portion of the project. How must the vendor and Yolanda update
the agreement?
• As a new contract signed by Yolanda and the vendor
• By submitting the change requests to integrated change control
• As a memo and SOW signed by Yolanda and the vendor
• By submitting the change request to the cost change control system
B is the best answer. Because the question is asking for the vendor to update the agreement, the change
should follow the details of the contract change requirements and integrated change control.
Question 6:
You are the project manager of the HHQ Project for your company. You have hired a vendor to complete a
portion of the project, but the vendor doesn’t seem to have met the project requirements as defined in the
contract. You have tried alternative dispute resolutions to no avail and you think the claims administration
may have to be escalated. The United States backs all contracts through which of the following?
• Fedaral law
• State law
• Court system
• Lawyers
All contracts in the United States are backed by the U.S. court systems.
Question 7:
Terry is the project manager of the MVB Project. She needs to purchase a piece of equipment for her
project. The accounting department has informed Terry she needs a unilateral form of contract. Accounting
is referring to which of the following?
• The SOW
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 • A legally binding contract
• A purchase order
• An invoice from the vendor
A unilateral form of a contract is simply a purchase order.
Question 8:
Bonnie is the project manager for the HGH Construction Project. She has contracted a portion of the
project to the ABC Construction Company and has offered a bonus to ABC if they complete their portion of
the work by August 30. This is an example of which one of the following?
• A PJ requirement
• A PJ incentive
• A PJ goal
• A fixed-price contract
A bonus to complete the work by August 30 is an incentive.
Question 9:
You are a project manager for your organization and are progressing through the procurement
management processes. Who should receive the procurement document package?
• Your client
• Your PJ sponsor
• Your accounting/finance department
• Each seller that will participate in the building
Each vendor that participates in the bidding will need to receive the procurement document package.
Question 10:
You are the project manager for a company that completes the installation of electrical fixtures in
manufacturing environments. Part of your typical contractual agreement included coverage of intellectual
rights and privity. Privity is what?
The relationship between the PM and a known vendor
The relationship between the PM and unknown vendor
The contractual, confidential information between the customer and the vendor
The professional information regarding the sale between the customer and the vendor
Privity is a confidential agreement between the buyer and the seller.
Question 11:
Sammy is the project manager of the DSA Project. He is considering proposals and contracts presented by
vendors for a portion of the project work. Of the following, which contract is least dangerous to the DSA
Project?
• Cost plus fixed fee
• Cost plus percentage of cost
• Cost plus incentive fee
• Fixed price
A fixed-price contract contains the least amount of risk for a project. The seller assumes all of the risk
because cost overruns are the seller’s responsibility.
Question 12:
Bennie is the project manager for his company and he’s working with his project stakeholder to determine
the pros and cons of the different contract types for a portion of his project. Of the following contract
types, which one requires the seller to assume the risk of cost overruns?
• Cost plus fixed fee
• Cost plus incentive fee
• Lump sum
• Time and materials
A lump sum is a fixed fee to complete the contract; the seller absorbs any cost overruns.
Question 13:
Benji is the project manager of the PLP Project. He has hired an independent contractor for a portion of the
project work. The contractor is billing the project $120 per hour, plus materials. This is an example of which
one of the following?
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 • Cost plus fixed fee
• Cost plus incentive fee
• Lump sum
• Time and materials
The contractor’s rate of $120 per hour plus the cost of the materials is an example of a time and materials
contract.
Question 14:
Mary is the project manager of the JHG Project. She has created a contract statement of work (SOW) for a
vendor. All the following should be included in the contract SOW except for which one?
• The items being purchased
• The signatures of both parties agreeing to the SOW
• The expected quality levels
• A description of the collateral services required
A signature of both parties agreeing to the SOW is not required. That stipulation will be included in the
contract.
Question 15:
You are the project manager for a software development project for an accounting system that will operate
over the Internet. Based on your research, you have discovered it will cost you $25,000 to write your own
code. Once the code is written, you estimate you’ll spend $3000 per month updating the software with
client information, government regulations, and maintenance. A vendor has proposed to write the code for
your company and charge a fee based on the number of clients using the program every month. The
vendor will charge you $5 per month per user of the web-based accounting system. You will have roughly
1200 clients using the system each month. However, you’ll need an in-house accountant to manage the
time and billing of the system, so this will cost you an extra $1,200 per month. How many months can you
use the system before it’s better to write your own code rather than hire the vendor?
• 3 months
• 4 months
• 6 months
• 15 moths
The monies invested in the vendor’s solution would have paid for your code in 6 months. This is calculated
by finding your outlay for the two solutions: $25,000 for your own code creation and zero cash outlay for
the vendor’s solution. The monthly cost to maintain your own code is $3000. The monthly cost of the
vendor’s solution is $7200. Subtract your cost of $3000 from the vendor’s cost of $7200, which equals
$4200. Divide this number into the cash outlay of $25,000 to create your own code, and you’ll come up with
5.95 months. Of all the choices presented, C, 6 months, is the best choice.
Question 16:
You are the project manager of a project that will span six years in Columbus, Ohio. You are negotiating
with your project customer for considerations for inflation, cost of utilities, and other cost factors that will
likely fluctuate over the course of the project. What type of contract should your project have?
• Cost plus award fee
• Fixed price with economic price adjustments
• Lump sum
• Fixed-price incentive fee
Projects that last for several years often use a fixed price with economic price adjustments for cost
categories that are likely to increase over the project duration.
Question 17:
A contract between an organization and a vendor may include a clause that penalizes the vendor if the
project is late. The lateness of a project has a monetary penalty. Thus, the penalty should be enforced or
waived based on which one of the following?
• Wether the PM could have anticipated the delay
• Wether the PM knew the delay was likely
• Wether the delay was because of an unseen risk
• Who caused the delay any the reason why

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This choice is the best answer because it answers the question fully. The party that caused the delay is
typically the party responsible for it. It would not be acceptable for the project manager to cause a delay
willingly and then penalize the contractor because the project was late.
Question 18:
A project manager is considering the marketplace and how it may affect the pricing on the procured
portion of her project. She determines that in her market, there is only a single-source seller. A single-
source seller means what?
• There is only one qualified seller.
• There is only one seller the company wants to do business with.
• There is a seller that can provide all aspects of the project procurement needs.
• There is only one seller in the market.
Question 19:
Thomas is the project manager for his organization, and he is preparing the procurement process for his
project. Several enterprise environmental factors and organizational process assets assist Thomas in
making the vendor selection. In the enterprise environmental factors are several evaluation criteria that
Thomas must consider when he chooses a vendor for the project. Which one of the following is not a valid
evaluation criterion for source selection?
• The age of the contact person at the seller
• The technical capability of the seller
• Financial capacity
• Price
The age of the contact person at the seller should not influence the source selection. The experience of the
person doing the work, however, can.
Question 20:
Henry has sent the ABN Contracting Company a letter of intent. This means which one of the following?
• Henry intends to sue the ABN contracting company
• Henry intends to buy from the ABN contracting company
• Henry intends to bid a job from the ABN contracting company
• Henry intends to fire the ABN contracting company
Henry intends to buy from the ABN Contracting Company.
Question 21:
Martha is the project manager of the MNB Project. She wants a vendor to offer her one price to do all of
the detailed work. What document should Martha create?
• A request for proposal
• A request for information
• A proposal
• An invitation for bid
An IFB is typically a request for a document that lists the seller’s firm price to complete the detailed work. A
bid is like a quote and offers just the price.
Question 22:
In your organization, all project procurement must pass through a centralized contracting office. All
correspondence between you and the vendors must be recorded and stored as part of the procurement
records management system. These rules also provide instructions for the project’s procurement document
packages from procurement planning through contract closure. Which one of the following is true about
procurement document packages?
• They offer no room for bidders to suggest changes
• They ensure the receipt of complete proposals
• They inform the performing organization why the bid being created
• The PM creates and selects the bid
Procurement document packages detail the requirements for the work to ensure complete proposals from
sellers.

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Question 23:
A key component of the project procurement management knowledge is the actual seller selection. Seller
selection is based on many inputs and enterprise environmental factors by which the project manager must
abide. From a PMP candidate’s perspective, in what process group does source selection happen?
• Initiating
• Planning
• Executing
• Closing
Question 24:
Within your organization, all project managers are required to document the performance quality ratings,
delivery performance, and contractual compliance of each vendor with which they interact. This is known
as what?
• A requirement
• A seller rating system
• Procurement selection
• An incentive contract
This scenario describes the seller rating system, which can help future project managers choose the best
vendor based on past performance.
Question 25:
You are the project manager for a seller, but you are managing another company’s project as well. Things
have gone well on the project, and the work is nearly complete. There is still a significant amount of funds
in the project budget. The buyer’s representative approaches you and asks that you complete some
optional requirements to use up the remaining budget. You should do which one of the following?
• Negotiate a change in the contract to take on the additional work
• Complete a contract change for the additional work
• Submit the proposed change through the contract integrated change control system
• Deny the change because it was not in the original contract
A, B, and D are not realistic expectations of the project. These questions could fall into the realm of the PMP
Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct. Typically, when a project scope has been fulfilled, the project work
is done. The difference in this situation is that the additional tasks are optional requirements for the project
scope.

Quiz 13: PJ stakeholder mgt

Question 1:
You are the project manager of the Server Update Project for your organization. This project has 543
stakeholders, many of which are end users. Some of the end users are critical of the server update because
they’re concerned about where the data is stored, how they’ll access the data in the future, and their
mapped drives. You’ve communicated with all the users that the server update will change how the users
will access their files and home folders in the future. Now some of the end users have been complaining to
their functional managers about the change. In this scenario, what type of stakeholders are the end users?
• Uniformed
• Negative
• Unresponsive
• Low influence/Low interest
Negative stakeholders are people who do not want your project to succeed or even exist in the organization.
Question 2:
Beth is the project manager of a new construction project for her organization’s client. This project will
construct a new bridge in a major thoroughfare in her city. Beth is preparing for stakeholder identification
because she wants to capture all the internal and external stakeholders who may influence and be
influenced by this project. In her preparations, Beth will need all the following documents as inputs except
for which one?
• PJ charter
• Enterprise environment factors
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 • Organizational process assets
• Risk management plan
Beth will not need the risk management plan as part of the stakeholder identification process.
Question 3:
You are the project manager for a software development project for your company. This project will create
a web-based application that will allow users to create maps for different hiking trails in North America.
You’ll be working with developers who are employees of your company and developers who are contract-
based. Your project will also include information from the National Parks Service, local communities, and
hikers from around the United States. You and the project team will first complete stakeholder analysis to
make certain that you’ve captured all the project stakeholders. What are the three logical steps to
stakeholder analysis for this project?
• Identify the stakeholders, prioritize the stakeholders, anticipate stakeholder responses
• Identify the stakeholders, confirm the PJ scope, communicate the PJ plan
• Identify the stakeholders, anticipate stakeholder responses, create a response strategy
• Identify the stakeholders, meet with the stakeholders to address concerns, create a stakeholder
response plan
There are three logical steps to stakeholder analysis: First you need to identify the project stakeholders.
Next, you’ll prioritize the stakeholders based on their role and influence in the project. Finally, you’ll
anticipate stakeholder responses to issues, concerns, and requirements in the project
Question 4:
You have been working on a new project that will affect your entire organization of 1233 people. You and
the project team know that you should create a stakeholder register for the stakeholders, but is it
necessary to create 1233 entries in this register?
• Yes, all stakeholders should be identified
• Yes, but it is appropriate to group the stakeholders for easier mgt
• No, only the key stakeholders need to be indentified in the stakeholder register
• No, only negative stakeholders and key stakeholders must be identified in the stakeholder register
A project that has this many stakeholders is likely to create groups of stakeholders to manage. For example,
the stakeholders could be grouped by departments, roles in the organization, or even interests in the
project. Grouping stakeholders helps the project manager address a large group with a common message
rather than manage multiple messages to many stakeholders individually.
Question 5:
Mike is the project manager of a new software deployment project that will affect 3235 people in his
organization. He’s communicated the deployment and explained the effect the software will have on the
organization, and his plan includes training for the end users. Some of the stakeholders, especially the
functional managers, are worried about the deployment and how it will affect the organization’s
productivity. Anna, the project sponsor, asks Mike to create a visual diagram showing which stakeholders
can affect the project the most based on their power in the organization. What chart should Mike create?
• Power/Influence digram
• Pareto diagram
• Force field diagram
• Ishikawa diagram
Mike should create a power/influence diagram, which shows the correlation between power over the
project and the influence over the project for each key stakeholder. Stakeholders with high power and high
influence need to be managed more closely than stakeholders with low power and low influence, for
example. This chart helps the project team create a better defined stakeholder management strategy and
prioritization of stakeholders in the project.
Question 6:
Harold is the project manager for a large construction project his company is completing for a client. This
project has internal and external stakeholders, including members of the community who are opposed to
the project, although it has been approved by the city. Harold is preparing to create a stakeholder
engagement plan and he’s gathering several inputs for the plan’s creation. Which one of the following
inputs will most help Harold create a strategy for stakeholder management and engagement?
• PJ mgt plan
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 • Stateholder register
• Enterprise environment factors
• Communications mgt plan
Harold needs the stakeholder register to create a strategy for stakeholder management and engagement.
The stakeholder register defines the role, interests, contact information, and attitudes of the stakeholders
toward the project objectives.
Question 7:
You are the project manager of a large software deployment project for your organization. This project will
replace the operating systems on the computers of all employees. Many of the employees are in favor of
this change in operating systems while others are not. As part of your plan, you complete an analysis of the
stakeholders. In this analysis, you and the project team have discovered that some of the project
stakeholders didn’t know about the change in the company’s approved computer operating system. How
would you classify these stakeholders?
• Unaware
• Uninformed
• Lacking
• Target for positive
Stakeholders who don’t know about your project are classified as unaware. Unaware stakeholders have
been overlooked in the planning of the project and they may be offended, have requirements that the
project must add, or become resistant to the project’s existence because they have not been consulted
and included in the project planning.
Question 8:
You are the project manager of a large software deployment project for your organization. This project will
replace the operating systems on the computers of all employees. Many of the employees are in favor of
this change in operating systems while others are not. As part of your plan you complete an analysis of the
stakeholders. In this analysis, you and the project team have also learned that the functional managers are
not in favor of the change of the operating system for their employees’ laptops. How would you classify
these stakeholders?
• Neutral
• Resitant
• Leading
• Hesitant
These negative stakeholders can be accurately classified as resistant to the project goals. These functional
managers and employees are resistant to the goals of the project, and it’s part of stakeholder management
to determine the stakeholder objections and then create a strategy to overcome the resistance to change.
Question 9:
What is the purpose of the stakeholder engagement plan?
• To convert all stakeholders to positive, supportive stakeholders
• To identify the stakeholders who are opposed to the PJ
• To manage the stakeholders’ attitudes toward the PJ
• To communicate with the stakeholders about the PJ status
Stakeholder identification, a process, identifies all stakeholders, positive or negative, and records their
information in the stakeholder register.
Question 10:
Morgan is the project manager of a web site creation project for a client. Some employees at the client’s
site are excited about the change and they are helpful with Morgan’s plan for the new web site design. In
the stakeholder engagement plan, Morgan has identified the tactics for managing the stakeholders, and
she has identified the positive stakeholders with which categorization?
• Happy
• Leading
• Suppportive
• Informed
Supportive stakeholders, as in this example, are aware of the project and the changes the project will bring,
and are supportive of the project
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Question 11:
You are project manager for your company and you’ve just created the project’s stakeholder engagement
plan. This plan is based on organizational process assets and enterprise environmental factors that you’re
required to use in the project. The stakeholder engagement plan includes all the following components
except for which one?
• There relationships among the stakeholders
• The relationships among the PJ team
• The schedule of stakeholder information distribution
• Communication requirements for stakeholders
The stakeholder engagement plan doesn’t address the relationships among the project team. The staffing
management plan, part of human resources planning, may address team development and how the team
interacts.
Question 12:
Sam is the project manager of the GHQ Project for his company, and he’s recently discovered a scheduling
conflict with two of the vendors on the project. Sam knows that the conflict will likely cause a two-week
delay in the completion of the project. What should Sam do?
• Report the problem to mgt
• Report the problem to the stakeholders
• Say nothing unless the delay becomes grreater than two weeks
• Propose a solution to mgt
Problems will happen throughout a project, but the project manager should always present the bad news to
the appropriate stakeholders and be prepared with a possible solution.
Question 13:
You are the project manager of a large project in your company. Your project has been in motion for three
months and you’re about to move into the first phase of project execution. Your sponsor calls to report
that you’ve apparently overlooked some stakeholders during the project’s planning phase. What should
you do now?
• Immediately contact the stakeholders, apologize, and analyze the stakeholders.
• Begin the project execution but contact the stakeholders for a meeting.
• Determine whether the oversight has damaged the project’s objectives.
• Schedule a meeting with the stakeholders to catch them up on the project.
Although it’s imperative to identify all the project stakeholders as early in the project as possible, it’s not
uncommon for a project manager to overlook some of the stakeholders. When this happens, the project
manager should immediately deal with the problem and look for a solution. In this case, contacting the
stakeholders, apologizing for the oversight, and then analyzing the stakeholders’ attitudes toward the
project will be most helpful.
Question 14:
Steve is the project manager of a new project that will affect 4534 people in his organization. Some of the
stakeholders are not happy about the project, but they understand the need for the project work. How
should Steve manage these unhappy but compliant stakeholders?
• Ignore their complaints
• Explain the benefits of the PJ
• Categorize them as resistant
• Some stakeholders may just b unhappy
Steve should explain the benefits of the project and how the project will help the organization and the
individuals affected by the project.
Question 15:
Marvin is the project manager of a new project for his company. He’s been working with the project team
and the project sponsor to keep the stakeholders engaged. As part of this process, Marvin will need four
inputs to stakeholder engagement. Which one of the following is not one of the inputs for stakeholder
engagement?
• Change log
• Organizational process assets
• Communications mgt plan
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 • Quality mgt plan
The quality management plan is not an input to stakeholder engagement.
Question 16:
You are the project manager of a large project that will affect how your organization accepts and processes
orders from customers. Many of the stakeholders have strong opinions about the project and how it should
proceed. Thomas, the manufacturing manager, and Jane, the sales manager, have been in conflict with one
another over some of the project’s requirements. You’ve met with these two stakeholders to resolve the
conflict, negotiate the difference, and come to an agreement about the requirements in the project. What
stakeholder engagement tool and technique have you used effectively in this scenario? Choose the best
answer.
• Active listening
• Stakeholder resolution
• Management skills
• Interpersonal skills
Interpersonal skills include building trust, resolving conflict, active listening, and overcoming resistance to
change.
Question 17:
One of the tools you’ll have to use as a project manager in the stakeholder management knowledge area is
management skill. Management skills help you organize stakeholder concerns and keep the project moving
forward. All the following are examples of management skills except for which one?
• Presenting PJ information
• Negotiating with stakeholders
• Public speaking
• Anlyzing work performance information
Analyzing work performance information is not a management skill, but it is a facet of data analysis and
preparing for stakeholder engagement.
Question 18:
You are the project manager of the JNH Project for your company. This project is scheduled to last 18
months and will affect 435 stakeholders in your organization. The project has sensitive information that
only certain stakeholders should have access to, so you’ve created a plan for communicating the
information to the correct parties throughout the project through special e-mail bulletins. What type of
communication is secured e-mail considered to be?
• Push
• Interative
• Sensitive
• Passive
Push communication describes information that is sent out to an audience or stakeholders via e-mail,
memos, letters, or reports.
Question 19:
You are the project manager for your organization, and you’ve contracted two organizations to complete
parts of the project. The project requires that these two different companies work together on parts of the
project. One of the vendors will need to install network cables throughout a building, while the other
company is responsible for connecting the networking cables to a central patch panel and to the individual
networking receptacles. The vendors disagree about how the work should take place. What’s the best
approach to manage this scenario?
• The vendors are not stakeholders and must live up to the terms of their contract
• The vendors are stakeholders, and you should determine who’ll do what activities in the PJ
• Then vendors are not stakeholders, but you should use conflict resolution to find the best solution
for the contracted work
• The vendors are PJ stakeholders, and you should utilize conflict resolution to find the best solution
for the PJ
Vendors are stakeholders in the project, and the project manager must utilize conflict resolution to find the
best solution for the project. Although the project contracts may already define the order of the work and
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the terms of the agreement, the project manager should meet with the vendors to come to an agreeable
approach for all parties to work together and for the project to move forward smoothly.
Question 20:
You are the project manager for your company. Your project sponsor has asked you to include interactive
communications as part of your stakeholder engagement plan. Which one of the following examples best
describes the concept of interactive communications in stakeholder management?
• Sending e-mail message to select PJ stakeholders
• Creating a report on the PJ status
• Hosting a PJ status meeting
• Creating a secured PJ repository that only allowed stakeholders can access
Interactive communications means that the stakeholders can communicate with one another. Meetings,
video conferences, and teleconferences are good examples of interactive communications.
Question 21:
You are the project manager for your organization and you’re serving as a coach for several junior project
managers. You’re currently reviewing the inputs for Monitoring stakeholder engagement with your project
team. The team members are confused about some of the inputs needed for controlling stakeholder
engagement. One of the inputs to Monitoring stakeholder engagement is the issue log. How does the issue
log help you prepare to control stakeholder engagement?
• This is false, this issue log is not an input to control stakeholder engagement
• This issue log will help you determine which stakeholders are causing the PJ issues
• The issue log is needed only when issues are defined by stakeholders
• The issue log will help you track and respond to issues and communicate issue status
Issues are risks that have come into fruition. Once the issue exists, you’ll need to document it in the issue log
and then work to resolve the issues. Because issues will always affect stakeholders, you’ll use the issue log
as part of your stakeholder engagement to resolve conflicts, issues, and communicate with the
stakeholders.
Question 22:
Your project sponsor has requested that you find a software package to serve as a central repository for all
project information. They’d like for the software to capture, store, and provide data analysis on key
performance metrics. The software should be able to help complete reports, analyze data, and track overall
project performance. What is the project sponsor requesting?
• Reporting system
• Earned value mgt plan
• PJ mgt information system
• Integrated change control system
Management is asking for a project management information system. A PMIS is a software tool that helps
the project manager manage the project, including information storage, KPI metrics, and create reports.
Question 23:
As a project manager, you must use multiple types of communication with stakeholders to keep them
engaged with the project work. All the following are types of communications that are related to
stakeholder engagement except for which one?
• Pull communications
• Push communications
• Interative communications
• Ad hoc communications
Ad hoc communications is the best answer because it’s not a structured stakeholder management
communication type. You will, as a project manager, use ad hoc communications to facilitate quick,
informal communications, but it’s not a structured, planned approach to managing communication to and
from the project stakeholders.
Question 24:
Stakeholder engagement is key to a successful project, so you and the project team have created a
stakeholder engagement plan that includes many different methods for engaging stakeholders. As part of
your plan, you should also reference what other project management plan component?
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 • PJ communications mgt plan
• PJ procurement controls
• PJ scope statement
• Milestone charts for the PJ schedule
Stakeholder management and project communications are tightly linked together. You’ll need the project’s
communication management plan to help you communicate properly with the correct stakeholders, at the
correct time, with the correct message, and in the expected communication format.
Question 25:
You are the project manager of a new software development project in your company. Your company
operates in a matrix environment and utilizes a project management office to structure projects. This
current project has 78 stakeholders and will last for 18 months. Sam, one of the project stakeholders,
informs you that two of his employees will be leaving the organization and will no longer be available as
resources on your project. In addition to the project staffing management plan, what other document
should you update?
• Stakeholder register
• Risk register
• Change log
• PJ schedule
The stakeholder register is the best answer because it contains information about the stakeholders that are
currently involved in the project. When a stakeholder leaves the project, you should update the stakeholder
register so that you don’t include non-stakeholders in project communications and engagement.

Quiz 14: PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct

Question 1:
You are the project manager of the JKN Project. The project customer has requested that you inflate
your cost estimates by 25 percent. He reports that his management always reduces the cost of the
estimates, so this is the only way to get the monies needed to complete the project. Which of the
following is the best response to this situation?
• Do as the customer asked to ensure the PJ requirements can be met by adding the increase as
contingency reserve
• Do as the customer asked to ensure the PJ requirements can be met by adding the increase
across each task
• Do as the customer asked by creating an estimate for the customer’s mgt and another for the
actual PJ implementation
• Complete an accurate estimate of the PJ. In addition, create a risk assessment on why the PJ
budget would be inadequate
It would be inappropriate to bloat the project costs by 25 percent. A risk assessment describing how
the project may fail if the budget is not accurate is most appropriate.
Question 2:
You are the project manager for the BNH Project. This project takes place in a country different
from yours. The project leader from this country presents a team of workers who are all from his
family. You should do which one of the following?
• Reject the team leader’s recommendations and asseble your own PJ team
• Review the resume and qualifications of the proposed PJ team leader before approving the
team
• Determine whether the country’s traditions include hiring from the immediate family before
hiring from outsite the family
• Replace the PJ leader with an impartial PJ leader
You should first confirm what the local practices and customs call for in regard to hiring family
members before others.

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Question 3:
You are about to begin negotiations on a new project that is to take place in another country. Which
of the following should be your guide on what business practices are allowed and discouraged?
• The PJ charter
• The PJ plan
• Company policies and procedures
• The PMI code of ethics and professional conduct
The company policies and procedures should guide the project manager regarding the decisions he
makes in the foreign country.
Question 4:
One of your project team members reports that he sold pieces of equipment because he needed the
money to pay for his daughter’s school tuition. He says he has paid back the money by working
overtime without reporting the hours worked so that his theft remains private. What should you do?
• Fire the PJ team member
• Report the team member to his manager
• Suggest that the team member report his action to human resources
• Tell the team member you’re disapointed in what he did, and advise him not to do
something like this again
This situation calls for the project team member to be reported to his manager for disciplinary
action.
Question 5:
You are the project manager of the SUN Project. Your organization is a functional environment,
and you do not get along well with the functional manager leading the project. You are in
disagreement with the manager about how the project should proceed, the timings of the activities,
the suggested schedule, and the expected quality of the work. The manager has requested that you
get to work on several of the activities on the critical path even though you and she have not solved
the issues concerning the project. Which of the following should you do?
• Go to senior mgt and voice your concerns
• Complete the activities as requested
• Ask to be taken off the PJ
• Refuse to begin activities on the PJ until the issues are resolved
The project manager must respect the delegation of the functional manager.
Question 6:
PMI has contacted you regarding an ethics violation of a PMP candidate. The question is in regard
to a friend who said he worked as project manager under your guidance. You know this is not true,
but to save a friendship, you avoid talking with PMI. This is a violation of which of the following?
• The PMI code to cooperate on ethics violations investigations
• The PMI code to report accurate information
• The PMI code to report any PMP violations
• The law concerning ethical practices
By avoiding the conversation with PMI in regard to the ethics violation of a friend, you are,
yourself, violating the PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct
Question 7:
You are the project manager for the Log Cabin Project. One of your vendors is completing a large
portion of the project. You have heard a rumor that the vendor is losing many of its workers
because of labor issues. In light of this information, what should you do?
• Stop work with the vendor until the labor issues are resolved
• Communicate with the vendor in regard to the rumor
• Look to secure another vendor to replace the current vendor
• Negotiate with the labor union to secure the workers on your PJ
The project manager should confront the problem by talking with the vendor about the rumor.
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Question 8:
You are the project manager for the PMH Project. Three vendors have submitted cost estimates for
the project. One of the estimates is significantly higher than similar project work in the past. In this
scenario, you should do which of the following?
• Ask the other vendors about the higher estimate from the third vendor
• Use the cost estimates from the historical information
• Take the high cost to the vendor to discuss the discrepancy before reviewing the issue with
the other vendors
• Ask the vendor that supplied the high estimate for information on how the estimate was
prepared
Most likely, the vendor did not understand the project work to be procured, so the estimate is
skewed. A clear statement of work is needed for the vendors to provide accurate estimates.
Question 9:
You are the project manager of the LKH Project. This project must be completed within six months,
but after two months, the schedule has begun to slip. As of now, the project is one week behind
schedule. Based on your findings, you believe you can make some corrective actions and recover
the lost time over the next month to get the project back on schedule for its completion date.
Management, however, requires weekly status reports on cost and schedule. Which of the following
should you do?
• Report that the PJ is one week behind schedule but will finish on schedule based on cited
corrective actions
• Report that the PJ is on schedule and will finhish on schedule
• Report that the PJ is off schedule by a few days but will finish on schedule
• Report that the PJ is running late
The project manager should report an honest assessment of the project with actions on how he
plans to correct the problem.
Question 10:
As a contracted project manager, you have been assigned a project with a budget of U.S. $1.5
million. The project is scheduled to last seven months, but your most recent EVM report shows that
the project will finish ahead of schedule by nearly six weeks. If this happens, you will lose
$175,000 in billable time. What should you do?
• Bill for the entire $1.5 million since this was the approved budget
• Bill for the $1.5 million by adding more work at the end of the PJ
• Report to the customer the PJ status and completion date
• Report to the customer the PJ status and completion date, and ask if they’d like to add any
features to account for the monies not spent
An honest and accurate assessment of the project work is always required.
Question 11:
You are the project manager of the PMH Project. You have been contracted to design the placement
of several pieces of manufacturing equipment. You have completed the project scope and are ready
to pass the work over to the installer. The installer begins to schedule you to help with the
installation of the manufacturing equipment. Which of the following should you do?
• Help the installer place the equipment according to the design documents
• Help the installer place the equipment as the customer sees fit.
• Refuse to help the installer since the PJ scope has been completed
• Help the installer place the equipment, but insist that the quality control be governed by
your design specifications
When the project scope is completed, the contract is fulfilled and the project is done. Any new work
items should be sent through the proper channels within an organization to create a new project or
work order. In this instance, the contract change control system should be used or a new contract
should be created.
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Question 12:
You are the project manager of the 12BA Project. You have completed the project according to the
design documents and have met the project scope. The customer agrees that the design document
requirements have been met; however, the customer is not pleased with the project deliverables and
is demanding additional adjustments be made to complete the project. What is the best way to
continue?
• Complete the work as the customer has requested
• Complete the work at 1.5 times the billable rate
• Do nothing. The PJ scopeis completed
• Do nothing. Mgt from the performing organization and the customer’s organization will
need to dertermine why the PJ failed before adding work
When the project scope has been completed, the project is completed. Any additional work, without
a contract change or new contract, would be dishonest and would betray the customer or the
project manager’s company.
Question 13:
You are the project manager of the AAA Project. Due to the nature of the project, much of the work
will require overtime between Christmas and New Year’s Day. Many of the project team members,
however, have requested vacation during that week. What is the best way to continue?
• Refuse all vacation requests and require all team members to work
• Allow vacation requests only for those team members who are not needing during that week
• Divide takks equally among the team members so each works the same amount of time
• Allow team members to volunteer for the overtime work
D is the best choice for this scenario because it allows the project team to be self-led and is
sensitive to the needs of the project team.
Question 14:
You are a project manager for your organization. Your project is to install several devices for one of
your company’s clients. The client has requested that you complete a few small tasks that are not in
the project scope. To maintain the relationship with the client, you oblige her request and complete
the work without informing your company. This is an example of which of the following?
• Effective expert judgment
• A vilolation of ethics
• Contract change control
• Integrated change control
When the project manager completes activities outside of the contract and does not inform the
performing organization, it is essentially the same as stealing. The PMP must be held accountable
for all the time invested in a project.
Question 15:
You are completing a project for a customer in another country. One of the customs in this country
is to honor the project manager of a successful project with a gift. Your company, however, does
not allow project managers to accept gifts worth more than $50 from any entity. At the completion
of the project, the customer presents you with a new car in a public ceremony. Which of the
following should you do?
• Accept the car since it is a custom of the country. To refuse it would be an insult to your
hosts
• Refuse to accept the car because it would result in a conflict with your organization to
accept it
• Accept the car and then return it to the customer in priviate
• Accept the car and then donate the car to a charity in the customer’s name
Although this solution may seem extreme, it is the best answer because to accept the car in public
would give the impression that the project manager has defied company policy. In addition,
accepting the car would appear to be a conflict of interest for the project manager.
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Question 16:
A project team member is sabotaging your project because he does not agree with it. Which of the
following should you do?
• Fire the PJ team member
• Present the problem to mgt
• Present the problem to mgt with a solution to remove the team member from the PJ
• Present the problem to mgt with a demand to fire the PJ team member
The project team member who is causing the problems should be discussed with management along
with a solution to remove the team member from the project. Remember that whenever the project
manager must present a problem to management, she should also present a solution to the problem.
Question 17:
You are the project manager of a project in Asia. You discover that the project leader has hired
family members for several lucrative contracts on the project. What should you consider?
• Cultural issues
• Ethical issues
• Organizational issues
• Political issues
The project manager should first determine what the country’s customs and culture call for when
hiring relatives. It may be a preferred practice in the country to work with qualified relatives first
before hiring other individuals to complete the project work.
Question 18:
Of the following, which one achieves customer satisfaction?
• Completing the PJ requirements
• Maintaining the PJ cost
• Maintaining the PJ schedule
• Completing the PJ with the defined quality metrics
The largest factor when it comes to customer satisfaction is the ability to complete the project
requirements.
Question 19:
A PMP has been assigned to manage a project in a foreign country. Which of the following
describes the disorientation the PMP will likely experience as he gets acclimated to the country?
• The Sapir-Whorf hypothesis
• Time dimension
• Ethnocentrism
• Culture shock
Culture shock is the typical disorientation a person feels when visiting a foreign country.
Question 20:
You are the project manager for an information technology project. It has come to your attention
that a technical problem has stopped the project work. How should you proceed?
• Measure the PJ performance to date and account for the cost of the technical problem
• Rebaseline the PJ performance to account for the technical problem
• Work with the PJ team to develop alternative solutions to the technical problem
• Outsource the technical problem to a vendor
When problems arise that stop project tasks, the project manager should work with the team to
uncover viable alternative solutions
Question 21:
A PMP has been assigned to manage a project in a foreign country. What should be done to ensure
that the project’s success is not hindered by the fact that the project manager is working in a foreign
country?
• Tech the PM about the customs and laws of the foreign country

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 • Find a PM who is from that country
• Assign the PM a guidle to the foreign country
• Allow the PM to travel home on weekends
Training the project manager on the laws and customs of the foreign country is the best choice to
ensure the project’s success is not jeopardized.
Question 22:
Your company does not allow project managers to accept gifts of any kind from vendors. A friend
who you have known for years now works for a vendor that your company may be doing business
with. Your friend from the vendor asks you to lunch to discuss an upcoming project, and you
accept. When the check arrives at the lunch table, your friend insists on paying. You should do
which of the following?
• Allow the friend to buy because you’ve been finhishs for year
• All the friend to buy because luch isn’t really a gift
• Don’t allow the friend to buy because your company does not allow any gifts from the
vendors
• Insist that you purchase your friend’s lunch and your friend buys yours
Although you have been friends for years, the friend is now working with a vendor, and it would be
inappropriate for the friend to buy your lunch. This would clearly be a violation of your company’s
policies because you and your friend are discussing an upcoming project.
Question 23:
You are a project manager on a construction project. Your project needs an experienced mason to
repair and restore an old chimney that the customer wants to keep as part of the project. Your
brother, as it happens, is an expert at restoring historical chimneys, and you award the work to him.
This is an example of what?
• Networking
• A conflict interest
• Poor procurement
• Acceptable practice, because your brother is an expert
This is a conflict of interest—or it may appear to be a conflict of interest to others on the project.
The project manager can do several things in this scenario: excuse himself from the decision
because of the relationship with the brother, create a weighted scoring model, allow several
vendors to participate, and so on.
Question 24:
While studying for your PMP exam, you are invited to participate in a study group. At your first
meeting, another attendee announces that he has “real, live questions” from the PMP exam. What
should you do?
• Examine the questions
• Report the study group PMI
• Leave the stuy group
• Ask where the person got the questions so you can report the testing center to PMI
You should not participate in the study group.
Question 25:
You are a project manager within an organization that completes technical projects for other
entities. You have plans to leave your company within the next month to launch your own
consulting business, which will compete with your current employer. Your company is currently
working on a large proposal for a government contract that your new company could also benefit
from. What should you do?
• Resign from your current job and bid against your employer to get the contract
• Decline to participate due to a conflict of interest
• Help you employee prepare the proposal

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 • Inform your employee that you will be leaving the company within a month and it would be
inappopriate for you to work on the current proposal
Of the choices presented, this is the best answer. You should inform your employer of your intent to
leave the organization and work on similar projects to avoid a conflict of interest.

Quiz 15: Algile introduction

Question 1:
You’re the project manager for a new project that utilizes on-demand scheduling. It uses a backlog
of requirements, and as resources become available in the project, the next requirement is launched.
This pull-based approach to scheduling is used with what type of system?
• On-demand
• Iterative
• Kanban
• Accommodate
Kanban is Japanese for visual sign or card — as a “signboard” is used to show what’s being
worked on, how many requirements are completed, and how many requirements remain to be
worked on.
Question 2:
Kanban is Japanese for visual sign or card — as a “signboard” is used to show what’s being worked
on, how many requirements are completed, and how many requirements remain to be worked on.
Which project management life cycle is most likely to use a Kanban board?
• Predictive life cycle
• Adaptive life cycle
• Plan-driven life cycle
• Hybrid life cycle
Change-driven life cycles are also known as agile or adaptive cycles and are most likely to use a
Kanban board.
Question 3:
For your newest project, a stakeholder is requesting to see progress in increments. What
methodology manages projects in smaller portions of work that can be assigned and finished in a
short period of time?
• Waterfall
• Lean
• Iterative
• Agile
Agile project management is a way to manage projects in incremental portions of work that can be
managed and completed within a short period of time.
Question 4:
You’re the project manager working in an agile environment. You and your team are using the on-
demand scheduling with a Kanban system. What does a Kanban board show?
• What’s currently being worked on
• How many requirements are completed
• How many requirements remain to be worked on
• All of the above
Kanban boards show what’s being worked on, how many requirements are completed, and how many
requirements remain to be worked on. It shows all the requirements and phases until “done” is
reached in a work in process.
Question 5:
As a new project manager, you’re working to increase your knowledge of agile environments to
diversify your portfolio. Agile includes all of the frameworks and methods below, except for
which?
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 • Scrum
• Backlog mgt
• Feature-drive development (FDD)
• eXtreme Programming (XP)
Agile approaches and agile methods are umbrella terms that cover a variety of frameworks and
methods including Kanban, Scrum, eXtreme Programming (XP), Feature-Drive Development
(FDD), Dynamic Systems Development Method (DSDM), Agile Unified Process (AUP), and Crystal
versions.
Question 6:
As a project manager, you know a lot can change during a project. In the Agile Triangle of
Constraints, what are the three points?
• Time, cost, and scope
• Time, ROI and project team
• Cost, scope, and ROI
• Scope, budget, and deadline
Agile’s Inverted Triangle Model includes time, cost, and scope.
Question 7:
You’re a seasoned project manager, but your background is in traditional project management.
You’re leading a project in an agile environment. In this environment, which part of the Triangle
Model is considered to be a variable?
• Time
• Cost
• Scope
• Team
Agile’s Inverted Triangle Model turns the triple constraints upside down. Instead of viewing the
scope as fixed at the start, Agile sets time (iterations) and cost (team members) as fixed, and the
scope is adjusted to focus on the highest priorities. Agile is built with the expectation that scope will
evolve as the project continues.
Question 8:
You’re a seasoned project manager, but your background is in traditional project management. As
you work more in agile environments, what does it mean to “be agile”?
• It’s using s specific set of tools
• It’s following certain practices
• It’s following the agile methology
• It’s adapting to a new mindset based on the agile Manifest, including values and principles
Being agile isn’t simply a matter of using a certain set of tools, practices, or following a specific
methodology. Agility involves a new way of thinking based on the Agile Manifest, including values
and principles.
Question 9:
As the project manager for a long-term project, you’ve been observing your project team. You
notice they’re “doing agile” vs. “being agile.” Which of the following statements best describes this
scenario?
• The team has an agile mindset, but they are not embracing agile principles
• The team is following tailoring principles
• The team is participating in stand-up meetings but not iterations
• The team is following agile practices but does not have an agile mindset
Being agile isn’t simply a matter of using a certain set of tools, practices, or following a specific
methodology. Agility involves a new way of thinking based on the Agile Manifest, including values
and principles.

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Question 10:
AJ is leading a project that’s being described as revolutionizing the mobile health tracking industry.
In order to be a successful PM in an agile environment, he must do all of the following, except:
• Embrace the agile mindset
• Communicate daily with all PJ stakeholders
• Understand agile principles
• Sell the idea of agile
A project manager in an agile environment must embrace the agile mindset, understand agile
principles, sell the idea of agile, and expect skeptics.
Question 11:
You’re a member of a project team that’s currently working on a new smartphone app. As a
member of a project team in an agile environment, you must do all of the following, except:
• Coach others
• See the value of the agile approach
• Experience the benefits that agile provides
• Have quick victories
Agile team members must see the value of the agile approach, experience the benefits that agile
provides, and have quick victories.
Question 12:
While you’ve been working as the project manager for the same company for several years, they’re
starting to bring in a diverse group of new clients. As the project manager in an agile environment,
you are about to meet with the project stakeholders. Stakeholders must do all of the following,
except:
• Expericen quick ROI
• Eat dessert last
• Be willing to try the agile approach
• Be convince on agile values
Project stakeholders in an agile environment must be willing to try the agile approach, be
convinced on agile values, experience quick ROI, and eat dessert first.
Question 13:
Karen is a principal project manager of Temptations, a specialty company that makes bonbons. As
an agile PM, she needs to follow all of the following principles and mindset tasks, except for which
one?
• Educate and influence agile
• Ensure common understanding of agile principles
• Discourage experimenting
• Advocate for agile principles and values in the organization
Agile principles and mindset tasks include advocating for agile principles and values in the
organization, ensuring a common understanding of agile principles, educating and influencing
agile, being transparent to gain trust, and creating a safe environment for experimenting.
Question 14:
Karri is a principal project manager of Temptations, a specialty company that makes bonbons. As
an agile PM, she needs to follow all of the following principles and mindset tasks, except for which
one?
• Emergent leadership
• Experiment with new techniques and processes
• Practice servant leadership
• Silo knowledge
Agile principles and mindset tasks include experimenting with new techniques and processes,
sharing knowledge and new collaboration, emergent leadership, and practice servant leadership.

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Question 15:
After working in traditional PM for years, you’re brushing up on your agile skills. The Agile
Manifesto includes four value statements and 12 guiding principles. Which of the following is not
one of the four value statements?
• Individuals and interactions over processes and tools
• Working software over comprehensive documentation
• Contract negotiation over customer collaboration
• Responding to change over following a plan
The four value statements are: Individuals and interactions over processes and tools; working
software over comprehensive documentation; customer collaboration over contract negotiation;
and responding to change over following a plan.
Question 16:
You have accepted a position in a new company and have spent the first 30 days observing your
team. Your findings, unfortunately, are not encouraging. The team focuses on processes and tools
over people, which is not in line with the agile mindset. Which of the following statements does not
reflect the “people first” mindset of agile?
• People complete projects
• People negotiate
• Agile is a machine
• People do knowledge work
Agile focuses on putting people first, which includes the understanding that people complete
projects, people negotiate, people do knowledge work, processes create repeatable results, and
agile is not a machine.
Question 17:
You have accepted a position in a new company and have spent the first 30 days observing your
team. Your findings, unfortunately, are not encouraging. The team focuses on comprehensive
documentation over working software, which is not in line with the agile mindset. Which of the
following statements does not reflect the mindset of agile?
• Value is about the purpose or business need that the project aims to deliver
• Documentation is the first option
• Documentation is barely sufficient
• Agile projects have to deliver value
Agile focuses on working software over comprehensive documentation, which includes the
understanding that agile projects have to deliver value, value is about the purpose or business need
that the project aims to deliver, documentation is barely sufficient, documentation is done just in
time — as the last responsible moment, and documentation might also be done just because of
industry and/or organizational requirements.
Question 18:
Tyra is working as the project manager on an infrastructure project that puts seven data centers into
a single building. Even though the project has just started, Tyra is already feeling worried about
how things will go. Which of the following does not reflect one of the nine keys of great agile
projects?
• Businesspeople and developers must work together daily throughout the project.
• The most efficient and effective method of conveying information to and within a
development team is face-to-face conversation.
• Working software a nice way to measure progress
• Build projects around motivated individuals; give them the environment and support they
need, and trust them to get the job done
Working software is the primary measure of progress.
Question 19:
Charlene is working as the project manager on an infrastructure project that puts seven data centers
into a single building. Charlene is only a few weeks into the project, but the focus is already shifting
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in the wrong direction. Which of the following doesn’t reflect one of the nine keys of great agile
projects?
• Continuous attention to technical excellence and good design enhances agility.
• The best architectures, requirements, and designs come from software.
• Agile processes promote sustainable development. The sponsors, developers, and users
should be able to maintain a constant pace indefinitely.
• Simplicity — the art of maximizing the amount of work not done — is essential
The best architectures, requirements, and designs emerge from self-organizing teams.
Question 20:
Blanche has managed projects for more than seven years and has mostly used the waterfall
method. She recently took a job for a company that builds pieces for smartphones, and she started
studying the Agile method that’s largely used by the company. She begins by focusing on Agile
principles. What is the formalized document called that identifies the principles of the Agile
approach?
• Agile principles
• Agile charter
• Agile Manifesto
• Book of Agile
The Agile Manifesto identifies 12 principles that describe the Agile approach. It came about
through a group of software developers who came together in 2001 to formalize the Agile
approach.

Quiz 16: Exploring Scrum

Question 1:
Of course, all projects are different in some ways. Which of the following is not a difference
between industrial and knowledge work projects?
• Machine-focused vs. people-focused
• Task-driven vs. value-driven
• Structure vs. less structure
• Visible vs. invisible
Industrial projects are task-driven, structured and visible versus knowledge work projects, which
are value-driven, have less structure, and invisible.
Question 2:
Lee has a project coming up. He’s starting to meet with stakeholders to understand the work that’s
ahead. Which of the following is not an example of definable work?
• Vehicle production
• New technology creation
• Creation of an electrical appliance
• Homebuilding
Project work can range from definable work to high-uncertainty work. Definable work projects
have clear procedures that have proved successful on similar projects in the past. This might
include the production of a car, electrical appliance, or home after the design is complete. The
production domain and processes involved are usually well understood, and there are typically low
levels of execution, uncertainty, and risk. Exploratory work includes new design, problem-solving,
and not-done-before work.
Question 3:
The characteristics of project life cycles vary and should be considered when determining which life
cycle is the best fit for a project. Which delivery life cycle approach is matched correctly with its
frequency of delivery and degree of change?
• Predictive = Low frequency of delivery, low degree of change
• Iterative = High frequency of delivery, high degree of change
• Incremental = Low frequency of delivery, high degree of change
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 • Agile = High frequency of delivery, low degree of change
Predictive and iterative life cycles tend to have low frequencies of delivery, whereas incremental
and agile have a high frequency of finished deliverables; both predictive and incremental
experience a few changes, while iterative and Agile experience very frequent changes based on
customer feedback.
Question 4:
A product owner attends a session with the team and other stakeholders to review a demonstration
of the deliverable produced. What is the frequency of this type of meeting when following an
iteration-based Agile approach?
• At the beginning of the iteration
• At the end of the iteration
• At the start of the project
• At the end of the project
This question describes an iteration review meeting, which can go by other names such as sprint
demo. The purpose of an iteration review meeting is to look at the working product to get feedback
directly from the product owner and other key stakeholders early so that any course corrections can
be made. In iteration-based Agile, this meeting is held at the end of a sprint/iteration, whereas flow-
based Agile encourages reviews to occur at least once every two weeks.
Question 5:
Mitch is a junior project manager who was recently hired to work on projects supporting the
networking team. His first project follows agile methodology. Which of the following is not a pro to
incremental delivery?
• Cost might exceed business value
• Allows for more targeted testing of each element
• Customer can respond to features and review the product
• Initial product delivery is faster and costs less
If the cost exceeds business value, that is a con of incremental delivery.
Question 6:
After reaching the end of a sprint, the Scrum team met to talk through what went well and what
could be improved. One engineer noted that the recent changes to daily stand-ups were working.
Which of the following describes the actions that the Scrum team carried out?
• Facilitated a collaboration session and a sprint retrospective
• Facilitated sprint planning
• Facilitated a sprint retrospective and a process improvement
• Facilitated process improvement
The Scrum team held a sprint retrospective. In Scrum, this meeting is held at the end of every sprint
and allows the team to identify what went well in the process during the recent sprint and what
could have gone better, and they commit to improving at least one thing in the upcoming sprint.
They are a combination of lessons learned and process improvement.
Question 7:
Nelson is leading a project that’s being described as “revolutionizing the mobile banking industry.”
After talking with his team of subject-matter experts, he decides to use Scrum. Nelson’s team
continues to build on the product through two-week iterations. Iterations are also called what?
• Phase
• Sprint
• Deliverable
• Stand-up
In Scrum, iterations are also known as sprints. Iterations or sprints are always time-bound and can
be any short period of time and defined and agreed upon by the team.
Question 8:
Brad is a new Scrum Master for a prominent book publishing company. He’s preparing for his first
project at the company. Which of the following is not a pre-sprint activity?
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 • Creating the vision statement
• Creating the product roadmap
• Developing the resource management plan
• Developing the product backlog
Pre-sprint activities include creating the vision statement, a product roadmap, stories, and the
product backlog.
Question 9:
Holly is a new Scrum Master for a software development company. She’s working with her
manager to discuss iterations and her project. Which of the following is not true about sprints?
• A sprint time box is usually 1-3 weeks
• Each story in the Product Backlog should normally be developed in a single sprint
• Everyone must agree on a Definition of Done at the beginning of the project
• The Product Owner and the Development Team select items from the top of the prioritized
Product Backlog
A Sprint Time Box is usually 2-4 weeks.
Question 10:
Maggie is a new Scrum Master and she is preparing for her first project. Which of the following
statements is not true about a sprint planning meeting?
• Timebox: Eight hours for a four-week sprint, less for shorter sprints
• Timebox: Four hours for a six-week sprint, less for shorter sprints
• Attendees: Complete Scrum team, including all roles
• Goal: Team capacity, Sprint Goal/Definition of Done, Sprint Backlog
A sprint planning meeting timebox is eight hours for a four-week sprint; less for shorter sprints.
Question 11:
Ken is the Scrum Master for Dream On, a research organization that specializes in sleep disorders.
He is working sprint planning. What is the Sprint Goal?
• An outline for the Development Team
• An objective that should be met within the Sprint; provides guidance to the Development
Team on why it is building the Increment
• A list of staffing requirements, which is the information needed when acquiring resources
• The Resource pool description, which is the information needed when planning out resource
requirements
The Sprint Goal is an objective that should be met within the Sprint; provides guidance to the
Development Team on why it is building the Increment
Question 12:
Ken is the Scrum Master for Dream On, a research organization that specializes in sleep disorders.
He is planning the work and timeline. What is not true about post-its?
• Tasks created from the Sprint Goal
• The whole team is responsible for preparing them
• They define what the Development Team will do
• Some are created at the Sprint Planning meeting
Post-its are tasks created by breaking down each user story.
Question 13:
Maggie is a new Scrum Master for a prominent magazine publishing company. She’s preparing for
her first project at the company. The Sprint Backlog consists of all of the following, except:
• The Sprint Goal
• The training plan
• Selected items from the Product Backlog
• A detailed plan for turning stories into “done” increment
The Sprint Backlog consists of the Sprint Goal, selected items from the Product Backlog, and a
detailed plan for turning stories into “done” increment.

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Question 14:
As the Scrum Master working with a new team, you conduct Daily stand-ups. All of the following
are true statements except for which one?
• Daily stand-ups are a critical component of planning.
• Daily stand-ups last no more than 15 minutes.
• Daily stand-ups are used to uncover problems.
• Daily stand-ups are used to ensure work is progressing well.
The purpose of the daily stand-up meetings, one of three key meetings and used within Scrum, is not
planning. Instead, daily stand-up meetings are used to uncover any obstacles to committed work
and as a way to ensure that work is progressing smoothly.
Question 15:
A Scrum master brings the team together at 9 a.m. sharp every morning. He asks the team the
following questions: What did you accomplish yesterday? What will you work on today? Do you
have any roadblocks or issues preventing you from doing your work? What activity is the team
engaged in?
• A status meeting
• A daily roundup
• A sprint planning meeting
• A daily scrum meeting
The question describes a daily stand-up, referred to as a Daily Scrum meeting. These meetings are
typically held every day at the exact same time and in the same spot. They are usually timeboxed to
typically no more than 15 minutes. The purpose of this meeting is to keep the team informed. The
meeting should also be used to alert the Scrum master of any obstacles that are getting in the way
of completing tasks.
Question 16:
A Scrum master brings the team together at 9 a.m. sharp every morning. He asks the team several
questions. The Daily Scrum meeting answers all of the following questions, except:
• What will be done before the next meeting?
• What has been accomplished since the last meeting?
• What obstacles are in the way?
• What needs to be updated on the resource calendar?
The Daily Scrum meeting answers three questions: What has been accomplished since the last
meeting? What will be done before the next meeting? What obstacles are in the way?
Question 17:
When you’re working with large scrum teams, there are four questions that are answered in the
Daily Scrum. Which one of the following questions is not a part of the Daily Scrum?
• What has your team done since we last met?
• Are there any roadblocks in your team’s way?
• What will your team do before our next meeting?
• What activity is your team starting next week?
With a large scrum team, four questions are answered: What has your team done since we last met?
What will your team do before our next meeting? Are there any roadblocks in your team’s way?
Will your team put anything in another team’s way?
Question 18:
AJ is leading a project that’s being described as revolutionizing the mobile health tracking industry.
He is preparing for a retrospective. Which of the following sequences depicts the correct order of
events regarding the Sprint Retrospective?
• Sprint Retrospective > Sprint Planning > Sprint Review
• Sprint Planning > Sprint Review > Sprint Retrospective
• Sprint Planning > Sprint Retrospective > Sprint Review
• Sprint Review > Sprint Retrospective > Sprint Planning

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The Sprint Retrospective occurs after the Sprint Review and prior to the next Sprint Planning. Of
the choices presented, Sprint Planning > Sprint Review > Sprint Retrospective is NOT the best
choice, because there is daily work and the daily scrum between the Sprint Planning and the Sprint
Review ceremonies.
Question 19:
The development team is working on user stories. How many days does the team take
(approximately) to deliver an agreed number of stories?
• 5
• 45
• 35
• 30
Teams takes 30 days or so to deliver an agreed number of stories. Remember, a sprint is four
weeks, 28 days. So the best answer is 30 as it's the closest answer. It's not unusual to see a question
where none of the choices are very good - this is one of those questions.
Question 20:
You’re planning an upcoming project, which will be completed using sprints. Which of the
following is not true regarding Sprint Duration Considerations?
• Sprint Zero is an option
• There is a risk of being disconnected from stakeholders
• The frequency that team composition can be changed
• All Sprints should be of the same duration
There is no such thing as Sprint Zero

90-Question Pre-Assessment Exam

Question 1:
Larissa is managing Project SOV at her firm. The execution phase of her project is complete and
she delivered the project deliverable at exactly the cost baseline amount, $220,000. She is currently
closing out procurements and has gained product acceptance from the customer. She plans to
review the other project baselines on Monday to evaluate their performances. What is the status of
Larissa’s project?
• Her project is not complete because the customer has not validated the scope.
• Her project is not complete because she has not completed the final performance
reporting.
• Her project is complete because she spent the allocated money in the cost baseline.
• Her project is complete because she has gotten product acceptance from the customer.

Larissa’s project cannot be called complete until she has completed the final performance
reporting. Because she will review the project baselines on Monday, we can assume that this has
not yet been done. The customer’s validation of the scope was done in the monitoring and
controlling stage of the project, not closing. Because the customer has accepted the deliverable, it
is understood that the scope had previously been validated. Larissa’s project is not complete until
this is done.
Question 2:
The image provided is an example of a _____________?

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 • User story
• Story point
• Scrum
• Kanban board
The image provided is an example of a Kanban board. A Kanban board is a visual representation
of the statuses of work items that a team is working on and has in the backlog. This is not a user
story; a user story is usually a short document, not a board. This is not a story point; a story point
is a metric. This is not Scrum; Scrum is a methodology, not a tangible, visible item.
Question 3:
Austin has been waiting on a response about a submitted change request to come in from the change
request board. After several days, the change request board informs him that the change request has
been rejected. This causes Austin to be concerned as this will lengthen the timeline of an activity in
his schedule. What should he do first?
• Update the change log.
• Find a vendor to perform the work.
• Find a workaround.
• Alert the project sponsor.
Before any other action is taken, Austin should update the change log. The change log serves as a
centralized place to monitor the status of change requests and should be the basis of truth
regarding changes to a project. Austin may need to find a workaround, hire a new vendor, or alert
the project sponsor. However, he should not take any of those actions without having updated the
change log.
Question 4:
John is an operator at a manufacturing plant. He is most productive when he feels challenged by his
work and is recognized by his supervisor. Which of McClelland’s Theory of Needs describes John?
• Responsibility
• Affiliation
• Power
• Achievement
John is motivated by achievement. Neither affiliation nor power describes John’s need category as
he is motivated by a challenge and recognition. Responsibility is a motivator, but it is not a
category in McClelland’s Theory of Needs.
Question 5:
Two web developers are arguing about the best way to address a technical challenge in a team
meeting. You can tell that the other team members are beginning to feel uncomfortable. What
should you do next?
• Cancel the team meeting and any team meetings with the two developers going forward
• Remind the team members of the rules and agreements outlined in the team charter
• Let the developers continue to argue as arriving at the technical decision is the biggest goal
• Write up the two web developers in the team meeting
Personal interactions causing other team members to feel uncomfortable should be addressed right
away. In the initial stages of team development, a charter should have been formed that outlines
expected behaviors in instances like this. The project manager is responsible for managing the team
and as such, you should remind them of the agreed-upon rules and behaviors. Letting the
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developers continue to argue would cause the team to feel more uncomfortable. This is bad for team
dynamics and morale. Writing up the developers publicly would never be recommended. We also
cannot assume that this is within your responsibilities as a project manager in this case. Canceling
the team meeting and team meetings with those developers going forward are not appropriate
actions and could lead to problems with the project’s implementation.
Question 6:
Which of the following is not a procedure done in the project’s closure phase?
• The project manager completes procurement closure.
• The project manager archives records.
• The customer provides project feedback.
• The customer validates the scope.
The customer’s validation of scope is not done in the project closure phase. The customer’s
validation is done in the monitoring and controlling stage of the project. This is done so that the
customer can provide feedback on the deliverables and the project can be adjusted as needed. The
customer provides feedback on the overall project in the closing phase. The project manager
archives records and completes procurement closure in the closing phase.
Question 7:
Joanna is the project manager for Project ICS. Marcey is the project manager for FSL. Both projects
have similar objectives that benefit the Development department of their firm. A portion of
Joanna’s project is experiencing some delays. This harms some resource availability requirements
for Marcey’s project. Who should be responsible for managing this issue?
• The program manager is responsible because related projects are impacted.
• The portfolio manager is responsible because related programs are impacted.
• Marcey is responsible because she needs to adapt her project to the impact.
• Joanna is responsible because her project is causing a negative impact.
Because there are related projects, the program manager should be responsible for managing this
issue. Programs are composed of related projects. The portfolio manager is not responsible
because there are not interrelated programs in this example; there are interrelated projects.
Joanna and Marcey are both independently responsible for their projects, but the program
manager is responsible for the interconnectedness of their projects under a program.
Question 8:
You are a new project manager at a local manufacturing plant. Because you are so new to the
organization, the only power you have over your project team is expressed formally in the project
charter, designating you as the project manager. What kind of power is this?
• Reward power
• Positional power
• Pressure-based power
• Referent power
This is an example of positional power. This power is formally prescribed by naming you the
project manager in the project charter, meaning it is positional. This is not pressure-based power
because the example does not mention your ability to restrict choices to the project, a quality of
pressure-based power. This is not referent power because you have no previous experience with
this team for them to have respect for you. This is not reward power because there is no mention of
your authority or ability to be able to reward the project team.
Question 9:
Which of the following represents a compliance risk?
• A rare material required for manufacturing may not be available in the quantity needed.
• A strike near the Panama Canal threatens a project’s on-time delivery.
• A software developer does not enable two-factor authentication in a database containing
customers’ financial data.
• A key technical contributor left the company for another job.

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Every example here is an example of a risk, however, only the lack of two-factor authentication is
an example of compliance risk. This is a compliance risk because of the lack of extra security, two-
factor authentication. This is a legal risk when handling customer data. All other examples here are
general project risks, not compliance risks.
Question 10:
Kate is a project manager at a construction firm. Her project team members enjoy working with her
for many reasons, but primarily because she empowers the team to act and innovate in the best way
they see fit. What kind of leadership style does Kate embody?
• Autocratic leadership
• Transactional leadership
• Bureaucratic leadership
• Transformational leadership

Kate is demonstrating transformational leadership. Transformational leadership is leading through

empowering the team. This is not transactional leadership because Kate is not motivating the team
through rewards or disincentives. This is not bureaucratic leadership because there is no reference
to procedures in this example. Bureaucratic leadership is the leadership style that is focused on
following procedures. This is not autocratic leadership because Kate is not telling the team what to
do, she is empowering them to decide that for themselves.
Question 11:
Courtney is new to your consulting firm and is asking for your mentorship. She would like to know
what your responsibility as a project manager is concerning project artifacts. What will you tell her?
• The project manager is responsible for sending out updated project artifacts to all
stakeholders.
• The project manager is responsible for updating all project artifacts.
• The project manager is responsible for ensuring that project artifacts are accessible to all
parties who may need them.
• The project manager is responsible for composing all project artifacts.

You should let Courtney know that project managers are responsible for ensuring that project
artifacts are accessible to all parties who may need them. The project manager must ensure that
knowledge and the information contained in project artifacts are available to stakeholders. The
project manager is not necessarily responsible for composing or updating a project’s artifact. This
can be done by anyone on the team. The same is true of sending out updated project artifacts to
project stakeholders. This would be determined in the communication management plan, but it is
not necessarily the responsibility of the project manager.
Question 12:
Which of the following is an example of a collaborative conflict resolution technique?
• One QA analyst suggests that a sample size of 30 is ideal. Another QA analyst suggests that
a sample size of 50 is better. The project manager suggests that the two analysts use sample
sizes of 40.
• Two senior engineers cannot agree on the best way to perform a complex technical task. The
project manager suggests that the two meet to come to an agreement on the best way to
perform the task for the project.
• A project team suggests a new way of doing an activity and the project manager tells the
team that they will continue to do the work as it has been done previously.
• The project team cannot decide on the best implementation method for an activity so that
activity is skipped.
A collaborative technique is oriented towards consensus. Therefore, the two engineers meeting to
come to an agreement is the best example of a collaborative conflict resolution technique. A project
manager telling the project team how to perform the work is an example of a forcing technique.
Skipping an activity that cannot be agreed upon is a withdrawal technique. Averaging out the
sample sizes for the QA Analysts is an example of a compromising technique.
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Question 13:
Work for the project that Gisela is managing is about to begin, after a long planning process. Gisela
is noting documents that she will need to create in the executing and monitoring and controlling
phases. Which document should Gisela consider?
• Change request log
• Scope management plan
• Assumption log
• Project charter
Gisela needs to create a change request log in the executing and monitoring and controlling stages
of the project. This would not happen before the executing stage, because there would be no change
requests to log. The project charter and assumption log should be created in the initiation phase.
The scope management plan should be created in the planning stage.
Question 14:
Rebecca is a senior software engineer who is responsible for training Joseph, a junior software
engineer. Rebecca asks Joseph to sit next to her while she programs a new feature. What kind of
knowledge sharing is Rebecca providing?
• Shadowing
• Seminar
• Workshop
• Lessons learned
This is an example of shadowing because Joseph is watching Rebecca perform the work and learn
by observing. This is not a seminar nor workshop, because this is an informal method of training
whereas a seminar or workshop would be more formal and involve many other people. This is not
an example of lessons learned because lessons learned is an output of knowledge sharing, not a
method of knowledge sharing.
Question 15:
Brittany’s IT project is going well. She meets with her team about once a week to review a board
that contains tickets that represent work items. There are columns that a card can fall under
Backlog, In Progress, Testing, and Done. When a developer is ready to start work, they pull a ticket
into their workflow from the Backlog pipeline into the In Progress pipeline. When the ticket has
been coded by a developer, a QA Analyst pulls the ticket into the Testing column. After testing, the
ticket is closed and goes into the Done column. What kind of project management approach does
Brittany’s project have?
• Predictive
• Kanban
• Hybrid
• Scrum
This is a clear example of a Kanban project. The workflow presented describes a Kanban board in
which work items are pulled into various statuses by the people doing the work. There is no
evidence to suggest that this project is a Scrum, hybrid, nor predictive project.
Question 16:
You are managing a project that is scheduled to end in 8 months. For the last two months, the
schedule baseline has been off but has not required an adjustment. When you review the baselines
today, you notice that the scope, schedule, and cost baselines are all significantly off track. What
should be reviewed?
• The change control process
• The project management plan
• The lessons learned from previous projects
• The project’s risk management process
Because the baselines are significantly off track, the project’s risk management process should be
reviewed. If only one baseline was off track, or perhaps the baselines were only mildly off track, the
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project management plan may require updating after an accepted change request was processed
through the change control process. The lessons learned documents should have been reviewed
before the executing stage of the project that this example presents. The change control process
may require review, but there is no evidence of this in this example.
Question 17:
What is represented in the provided image?

• Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix

• Stakeholder analysis
• Stakeholder engagement plan
• Stakeholder register
This is a stakeholder engagement assessment matrix. A stakeholder analysis is a general activity
that is performed, it is not a graph. An output of stakeholder analysis is a stakeholder engagement
assessment matrix. A stakeholder engagement plan is a document that outlines why stakeholders
need to be engaged and how they may be engaged; it is not represented graphically as the image
provided is. A stakeholder register is a document that contains a list of stakeholders and
information about them, typically in a list or similar fashion. The graphical representation provided
here is a stakeholder engagement assessment matrix that compares stakeholders’ current and
desired engagement levels.
Question 18:
Your project team is performing exceptionally well in the executing stage of the project. They are
delivering work bundles on time and within budget. The team morale is also at an all-time high.
What stage of Tuckman’s ladder is your team in?
• Storming
• Performing
• Norming
• Forming
This team is in the performing stage of Tuckman’s ladder. They are working together as a cohesive
unit. The team is not in the forming nor the storming phase, as they are not have already met,
established roles, and overcome conflict. The team is not in the norming phase as they are already
well underway with the new team norms as indicated by their success.

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Question 19:
The chart provided is an example of a/an:

• Ishikawa diagram
• Stoplight chart
• RACI chart
• Organization chart
This is an example of a RACI chart because the chart outlines the roles and responsibilities
assignments. This is not an organization chart because there is no information about the
organization nor the departments of an organization. This is not an Ishikawa diagram because
there is no information about a cause-and-effect relationship. This is not a stoplight chart because
there is not a work performance report.
Question 20:
Lindsey is a new project manager starting at your firm. She tells you that she has been asked to
work with the team on a lessons learned document. Lindsey is not familiar with this document and
asks you what should be included. Which of the following elements are you least likely to tell her to
include in the lessons learned document?
• Updates to the project documents
• The names of the individuals who were at fault and how they were reprimanded
• The impact of any actions that were taken to correct the situation
• An overview or summary of the situation
You should not include the names of individuals who were at fault in the lessons learned document.
If names must be included, then their reprimand should certainly not be as that is likely a human
resources violation. This is not good for team morale and will likely cause trust issues in the future.
An overview of the situation, the impact of the corrective action, and updates to project documents
should always be included as ascertaining this information is the main purpose of a lessons learned
document.
Question 21:
You have recently been hired at a consulting firm. After reaching a major project milestone, you
have been invited to a team retrospective. Which of the following is not a benefit of a retrospective
meeting?
• Pushing the team to further develop and grow
• Increasing team morale and spirit
• Determining who is responsible for any issues that occurred in the project
• Improving trust and transparency within the team
Retrospectives are designed to facilitate healthy team interactions. Therefore, determining who is
responsible for any issues that occurred in a project is not a benefit that a retrospective offers.
While it is important to discuss any impediments that a project faced, assigning blame should
always be avoided. Retrospectives do improve trust and transparency within a team, increase
morale and spirit, and push the team to further develop and grow.
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Question 22:
Upon reviewing the lessons learned documents from a previous project, you notice that quality was
sub-par because a builder did not have training on a particular process. You decide to train your
team on this process before a new project with similar deliverables is scheduled to begin. This is an
example of a:
• Defect repair
• Corrective action
• Preventative action
• Retrospective
This is an example of preventative action as you are addressing a possible deviation from a
performance baseline ahead of its occurrence. This is not a retrospective. A retrospective is a
meeting hosted at the end of a project or phase in which the team discusses the effectiveness of
processes. This is not an example of defect repair because there is no rework happening. This is not
corrective action, because the project is not yet underway.
Question 23:
Your supervisor has asked you to help train a new project manager, Joyce. You are reviewing
several lessons learned documents with Joyce that should help onboard her and familiarize her with
the way your organization manages projects. Which of the following lessons learned represents tacit
knowledge?
• Going forward, company policy states that projects over $5M will require signature
authority from the CEO.
• Jonathan, a senior project manager, often has a difficult time eliciting stakeholder feedback
from the marketing department at your company.
• The technical codebase will be outdated by 2027 and will need to be refactored by then to
adhere to new database policies.
• A key supplier, T9 Woodworking, has upped its pricing by 15% for future projects.
Tacit knowledge is knowledge that is difficult to communicate. This kind of knowledge is typically
related to experience, ability, or emotion. Therefore, Jonathan’s negative experience and strained
ability with the marketing department is a clear example of tacit knowledge. The other choices
represent examples of explicit knowledge. Explicit knowledge is fact-based knowledge that can
easily be communicated through words or symbols. T9 Woodworking’s pricing change, the
technical codebase’s expiration, and the new company policy are all examples of facts that can be
easily communicated. Jonathan’s experiences are more difficult to explain in general and are
difficult to qualify as facts. Therefore, this is tacit knowledge.
Question 24:
Midway through developing a complex software program, Alana, a senior developer, mentions that
there is a slight possibility that the server that the code relies on may crash. This could cause all of
the progress made in the last week to be lost. In which document should the project manager note
this?
• Risk register
• Resource management plan
• Issue log
• Risk management plan
Alana will note this in the risk register. The purpose of the risk register is to note all risks in a
project. This is not an issue yet, so it will not be noted in the issue log. This would not be noted in a
management plan because management plans are used for communicating how to manage a certain
domain of a project, for example, risk or resources. Management plans are also created in the
planning stage, not in a project’s execution. Either the risk or resource management plan can only
be altered through an approved change request.
Question 25:
The image provided is an example of a:
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 • Network diagram
• Resource breakdown structure
• Activity list
• Gantt chart
This is an example of a network diagram. A network diagram sequences the activities in the order
they should be performed. This is not a Gantt chart because a Gantt chart measures duration over
time. This is not an activity list because an activity list is not a diagram. This is not a resource
breakdown structure because this is not evaluating a resource or the categories of resources for a
project.
Question 26:
You are a Project Manager at a manufacturing company. Your PMO has instructed you to develop a
team assessment. Which of the following is not true of a team assessment?
• A team assessment is conducted in the Manage Team process
• A team assessment contains information regarding how the team deals with conflict
• A team assessment evaluates how team members’ skills have changed
• A team assessment is performed only at the end of a project
A team assessment can be performed at any time in a project’s life, not just the end. A team
assessment does contain information regarding how the team deals with conflict. It also evaluates
how team members’ skills have changed. Overall, the team assessment is conducted in the Manage
Team process.
Question 27:
Otto is new to your Scrum team. He has never worked in a Scrum environment and is wondering
how impediments are typically prioritized. What are you most likely to tell him?
• Impediments are analyzed by the Scrum team and the most impactful impediments are
addressed first.
• Every impediment is addressed in the subsequent release period, after reviewing the
impediments in the retrospective meeting.
• Impediments are addressed in the order that they come up with.
• Impediments are addressed in the duration order where impediments that take less time to
address are addressed first.
Impediments should be analyzed by the team who should prioritize the work along as a team and
then the ScrumMaster should take over the responsibility for ensuring that it is addressed. Note that
the team is not responsible for solving the impediment, they are responsible for assessing the
impact which affects how an impediment is prioritized. Impediments should not be addressed in the
order that they come up in because often, critical impediments come up and they cannot be sent to
the bottom of the backlog to be addressed in the future. The same case is true for prioritizing based
on duration. A critical impediment may present itself and it cannot be addressed later because it
takes longer than less critical impediments. This is also true of addressing impediments in the
subsequent release iteration. Sometimes impediments may need to be addressed the moment they
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are found, other times it may be appropriate to wait to address an impediment after several months
or maybe even accepting the impediment and doing nothing about it.
Question 28:
The head of your organization has announced that going forward, your organization will only be
required to work four days a week instead of five. As a project manager, what should you do next?
• Note this in your project’s issues log.
• Note this in your project’s assumptions log.
• Determine the impact on your project’s scope.
• Determine the impact on your project’s schedule.
Because the amount of available working days has decreased, the impact on your project’s
schedule must first be determined. Reducing the number of working days in a week would not likely
affect scope. While eventually, this may need to be noted in the assumptions log or the issues log, if
an issue presents itself, the priority lies in assessing the impact on the project’s success before
anything else.
Question 29:
According to Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory of Motivation, which factor is most likely to motivate
someone?
• Personal life
• Professional growth
• Salary
• Relationships at work
Professional growth is most likely to motivate someone as it is a motivating agent. Salary,
relationships ant work, and personal life are important, but these are simply hygiene factors.
Question 30:
In your scrum team’s daily standup meeting, several issues come up. Which issue is a blocker?
• The lead developer’s internet connection is slower than usual.
• A junior developer is out sick.
• A code bug is found in a testing environment of a new feature.
• The deliverable scheduled to go to production is broken and must be fixed.
The deliverable that was scheduled to go to production but needs fixing is an example of a blocker.
It is important to understand the difference between a blocker and an impediment. An impediment
slows down the progress of the team. A blocker completely stalls the team from delivering on time.
Here, the deliverable needing to be fixed before going to production is a blocker. The lead
developer’s slow internet connection, the junior developer’s absence, and the bug found in a testing
feature are all impediments because they are problematic, but they do not completely stall the
project.
Question 31:
The PMO at your firm has informed you that under certain circumstances, a typical, competitive
procurement process may not be necessary. Under which circumstances would this be the case?
• Project DIS has a large budget.
• The manager of project OIC is familiar with several vendors who specialize in the required
services.
• Project AKF requires standard woodworking skills and has a predefined scope and schedule.
• Project IDS has a scope component that requires a patent from a unique vendor.
Because project IDS requires a patent that is only available from one vendor, a competitive
procurement process is not necessary here. The skills required for Project AKF imply that many
vendors are capable of performing and would lead to a competitive procurement process. The same
is true of Project OIC where the project manager is already aware of many vendors. Because
Project DIS has a large budget, a competitive procurement process may be necessary. Typically,
when there is a small budget available, the procurement competition may not be needed.

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Question 32:
Alyssa is a ScrumMaster at an engineering firm with a weak matrix. While on a break, she finds an
article from a business partner’s firm that states that they will be giving a large discount on the tools
that Alyssa’s organization relies on. How should Alyssa proceed?
• Alyssa should alert her PMO to this opportunity.
• Alyssa should do nothing as she does not have procurement responsibilities or authority.
• Alyssa should contact the business partner to take advantage of this opportunity.
• Alyssa should alert the product owners that rely on this software.

Because Alyssa is a ScrumMaster in a weak matrix organization, her best action would be to alert
the product owners that use these tools. This is because not only does Alyssa not have procurement
powers, neither would her PMO in a weak matrix. Alyssa does have the power to share this
knowledge with the product managers; doing nothing would cause the organization to miss this
opportunity.
Question 33:
Lauren has received validation from her product, has archived all project documents, and has gotten
product feedback from the customer. However, two outstanding invoices must be paid to vendors.
Can Lauren close this project?
• No, the project cannot be closed until all invoices are paid.
• No, the project cannot be closed until vendors approve the project closure.
• Yes, when all project documents are archived, the project can be closed.
• Yes, once the customer has validated and provided feedback on the product, the project can
be closed.
Lauren should not close the project until the invoices are paid. Vendors cannot approve of project
closure. Project closure is done by the organization, not external vendors. Even though several
steps of project closure have been completed, the project cannot be officially closed until the
invoices are paid and procurement is complete.
Question 34:
A stakeholder on your project emails you a request that the grade of material used in manufacturing
is not as optimal as it could be. In reviewing project assumptions, scope, and quality documents,
you find that the grade of the material is in fact acceptable to the sponsor. How should you proceed?
• Alert the sponsor to this feedback.
• Do nothing because the current grade of the material is acceptable.
• Add this information to the issue log.
• Note this information in the risk register because it may cause problems with the project.
This information should be noted in the issue log. The issue log serves to note anything that comes
up in the project that there may not be full alignment on, or may pose a problem in the future.
Doing nothing with the information is not respectful to the needs of the stakeholder who voiced this
information. Noting this in the issue log ensures the stakeholder that their concerns are being
heard. This information should not be in the risk register because there is no reason to note this as
a risk. After all, the grade is acceptable per project assumptions, scope, and quality. Because the
sponsor already mentioned that the grade is acceptable, there is no need to alert the sponsor.
Question 35:
Which of the following would not warrant the project closure activities?
• A project phase is complete.
• A project is complete.
• A customer has accepted the project’s deliverables.
• A project is terminated.
Project closing is not done when a customer accepts the project’s deliverables. The customer’s
acceptance of a project’s deliverables is done within project closure, not as a prelude to project
closure. Project closure activities should be done when a project is complete, when a phase of a
project is complete, or when a project is terminated.
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Question 36:
Mike is the project manager supervising the work of a software development project. Mike prefers
to encourage team members to direct their work and solve problems themselves. He is responsible
for the success of the project but mostly ensures that the team is collaborative. He is known to host
impactful team building workshops and enable team decision-making. Which management style
does Mike adhere to?
• Influencing
• Delegating
• Directing
• Coaching
Mike is using an influencing management style. He emphasizes teamwork and encourages the team
to work together to be successful. Mike is not coaching because he is not making recommendations
for the project. He is not delegating, as he is not telling anyone what to do or setting goals for the
team. He is not directing, because he is not using any expertise to guide the team.

Question 37:
The provided image is an example of a:

The provided image is an example of a:

• Salience model

• Stakeholder cube

• Power and interest grid

• Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix

This is an example of a stakeholder cube. A stakeholder cube is a three-dimensional model showing

aspects of a stakeholder or stakeholder group. This is not a power and interest grid because this
image also shows the influence. This is not a salience model because of a salience model groups
stakeholders by authority, involvement, and need for attention. This is not a stakeholder
engagement assessment matrix because this model is not assessing stakeholder engagement.
Question 38:
Which of the following is an example of a change driven project?
• A collocated team is responsible for building a skyscraper in downtown Denver.
• A virtual team is responsible for developing healthcare software with fixed cost and
schedule.
• A virtual team is responsible for manufacturing 10,000 pipeline components.
• A collocated team must fix bugs found in old software.
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A change driven project is a project that has a fixed cost and schedule but flexible scope. Therefore,
the virtual team developing healthcare software is an example of a change driven project. Both the
building of a skyscraper and the manufacturing of pipeline components are examples of plan-driven
projects because these kinds of projects have predetermined scope, cost, and schedule. The fixing of
bugs in software is not a project at all; this is operational work.
Question 39:
Which of the following is not a method to prevent conflicts:
• Follow project management practices
• Assigning work in a clear and transparent fashion
• Informing the team about project decisions
• Physically separate colleagues who are prone to conflict
Assigning work clearly and transparently, following project management practices, and informing
the team about project decisions all prevent conflict. Physically separating colleagues who are
prone to conflict does not prevent conflict.
Question 40:
Doug wants to ensure that his stakeholders are always referencing the most up to date project
artifacts. To accomplish this, he has documented version controls and policies for project
documents and artifacts. Where would Doug note this information?
• Requirements management plan
• Issue log
• Configuration management plan
• Lessons learned document
Doug should note this in the configuration management plan. The purpose of the configuration
management plan is to establish policies around naming conventions and versioning control.
Neither the lessons learned document, requirements management plan, nor the issue log set the
standard for version control or naming conventions.
Question 41:
Jesse is managing her first agile project. This is an iterative project that only involves stakeholders
internal to her organization. Her colleague asks her how she will gather feedback from the sponsor.
What should Jesse’s response be?
• Jesse will ask for feedback at the end of the project when the final deliverable has been
accepted.
• Jesse will not need to ask for feedback as she is familiar with the project requirements.
• Jesse will ask for feedback at the half-way point of the project and the end of the project.
• Jesse will ask for feedback at any point in the project.
Jesse should be continuously engaging the sponsor for feedback in an agile environment. She
should not wait until a predetermined point, nor should she skip asking for any kind of feedback.
Question 42:
Sarah is a business analyst at a manufacturing plant. Her supervisor calls her in for a meeting to
review the first draft of a project proposal. What stage of the project management lifecycle is this
project in?
• Planning
• Closing
• Origination
• Execution
This project is in the origination phase. A project proposal is a document assessing the viability of
a project before the project is committed to and begins. A project proposal is the first artifact of a
project and is created before a project charter. Therefore, doing this at any stage after origination
does not make sense.
Question 43:
Compliance at JL Consulting is ensured through the PMO office. What kind of PMO is JL
Consulting least likely to have?
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 • Controlling
• Primary
• Supportive
• Directive
A controlling PMO and a directive PMO are more likely to ensure and require compliance than a
supportive PMO. A supportive PMO could consult and advise about compliance, but not ensure
compliance. There is no such thing as a primary PMO. Therefore, JL Consulting is least likely to
have a supportive PMO
Question 44:
Raquel is responsible for managing the procurement for her project. Her PMO has instructed her to
only arrange contracts with vendors that pose a low risk for her firm. What type of contract should
Raquel use?
• Time and materials contract
• Cost contract
• Cost-reimbursable contract
• Fixed-price contract
Raquel should use a fixed-price contract. Fixed-price contracts pose the least amount of risk for the
buyer because the seller would bear any additional costs. A time and materials contract is not low
risk for the buyer because, under a time and materials contract, the buyer is responsible for the cost
behind any unplanned materials. The same is true for a cost-reimbursable contract and a cost
contract which is a form of cost-reimbursable contract.
Question 45:
Which of the following statements regarding developing a team is false?
• Developing a team results in decreased turnover.
• Developing a team leads to growth in an individual’s knowledge.
• Developing a team leads to better teamwork.
• Developing a team is done once in the project’s duration.
Developing a team is an ongoing process that is performed throughout the project. The benefits of
developing a team are decreased turnover, increased in an individual’s skills, and better teamwork.
Question 46:
Chris is deep into the planning process with his project team when a senior developer mentions that
a special server will be required to complete the project work. What should Chris do next?
• Update the issue log
• Identify a workaround
• Submit a change request to ask for additional funding for the server
• Update the resource requirements
Because Chris is in the planning stage, he should add this requirement to the resource requirements
and continue to plan with this information. He would not submit a change request, as he is in the
planning stage so no baselines need to be updated. He would not identify a workaround nor would
he update the issue log, because there is no evidence of a problem that would require a workaround
nor need to be reported as an issue.
Question 47:
What practice may help recognize when a risk may become an issue?
• Reviewing the risk register daily.
• Assigning risk owners to every risk that is known.
• Asking stakeholders to read the risk report and provide input.
• Assessing risk triggers with the team.
Risk triggers will alert the team when a risk is about to become an issue. Therefore, assessing and
setting risk triggers with the team will help establish clues as to when a risk may become an issue.
Assigning risk owners to every known risk is helpful if a risk does become an issue, but it is not
proactive in alerting the team ahead of the risk becoming an issue. Reviewing the risk register daily

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will not alert the team when a risk is about to become an issue; neither will having the stakeholders
read the risk report. These are not proactive actions.
Question 48:
What is most likely to signal to a project manager that an individual within the project team requires
more training?
• Project performance appraisal
• Team assessment
• Customer feedback
• Individual assessment
A project performance appraisal will indicate that an individual requires more training. In a
project performance appraisal, feedback is gathered from team members’ supervisors that may
point out a need for additional training. A team assessment will evaluate the effectiveness of the
team as a whole, not an individual. An individual assessment is used to determine information
about an individual about their decision-making process, interactions with others, and how they
prefer to be led. An individual assessment would not contain anything about an individual’s skillset.
While impactful, customer feedback would not be qualified enough to indicate an employee’s need
for training.
Question 49:
Phil is a project manager with many years of experience at his firm. His colleagues enjoy working
with him as he is a great communicator. Phil can communicate the vision of a project to all
stakeholders in a way that almost always leads to their support of the project. This is an example of
what type of interpersonal skill?
• Political Awareness
• Active listening
• Networking
• Leadership
This is an example of leadership. Leadership implies the ability to communicate the vision and
goals to all stakeholders to engage them in the project. Active listening is not evident in this
example, as Phil is the one who is talking to the stakeholders. This is not an example of networking,
because Phil is not trying to assess the engagement levels of stakeholders. He is simply
communicating the vision of the project. There is no evidence of political awareness in this example
as no differences in power or influence have been expressed.
Question 50:
Which of the following is an example of work performance information?
• A project manager realizes that a late shipment will delay the entire project by 4 days.
• A project manager shares a report with stakeholders that contains an updated project
schedule.
• A developer informs you that a task takes 3 hours to perform.
• A QA analyst writes a blog post containing tornado diagrams from the latest round of
testing.
The realization by the project manager about the impact that a late shipment has on the project is
work performance information. This is information because the raw data has been analyzed and
assessed for the impact on the project. The developer’s statement about duration is simply raw
data; there is no assessment of this data to qualify it as information. The report on the project
schedule and blog post containing diagrams are both examples of reports because this information
has been distributed and can be acted on.
Question 51:
Your company has recently hired a new Chief Operating Officer. She has asked you to provide her
with a list of organizational impediments as she is looking to make company improvements. Which
of the following would be considered an organizational impediment?
• The QA team now requires a new issue recording tool.
• The CEO will now take the last Friday of the month off.

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 • A coding audit will take place randomly to prevent software bugs from being delivered.
• The office’s internet is out.

The internet being out for the entire office is an example of an organizational impediment. An
organizational impediment impacts an entire organization. The other impediments listed are
examples of team impediments. These team impediments only impact a subset of the organization.
The recording tool needed by the QA team only impacts the QA team. The coding audit only
impacts the technical teams. The CEO’s schedule only impacts a small subset of the organization.
Question 52:
Which project team is most likely to be successful with a laissez-faire management style?
• A team that is hardworking, but inexperienced
• A team that is hardworking, but relies heavily on motivation
• A team that requires detailed requirements and instruction
• A team that is highly skilled with a great deal of experience
A highly skilled and experienced team would be successful with a laissez-faire management style
because this team can be trusted to do the work. A team that is hard-working but requires more
motivation would be better suited for a charismatic management style. A team that requires more
instruction would require an autocratic or even consultative-autocratic management style. A team
that is hardworking, but inexperienced would be better suited for a consultative-autocratic
management style as they will require more guidance.
Question 53:
You are the project manager for a high-profile project at a well-known consulting firm. Your
project team has been delivering on time and on budget for the last 4 months of the project. Lately,
you notice your junior developer’s pace slow dramatically. She is no longer attending team
meetings on time and she is very slow to reply to emails. You are beginning to worry that this may
lead to a delay in the deliverables that she is responsible for. What should your next step be?
• Meet with the junior developer to assess what the issue may be and work to resolve it.
• Ask the other developers on the project team to work on the weekends to catch the project
up.
• Email the junior developer a written warning for her poor attendance and communication.
• Email the junior developer’s supervisor to let them know of your concerns.
As a project manager, it is your responsibility to identify and deal with the root causes of any
conflict. As such, you should meet with the junior developer to try to assess what may be going
wrong and work to address it. You should not go directly to her supervisor, nor should you
reprimand her, without first attempting to identify the cause of the issue and resolve it. The project
team should not be asked to work more hours in this case. The first action taken should be to
identify the root of the issue.
Question 54:
A project team is wrapping up the first phase of a three-phased project. The project team’s morale is
low, deliverables are trailing in behind schedule, and the team had to conduct a great deal of
rework. What should the project manager do first?
• Host a retrospective with the project team
• Tell the project team that they need to increase their pace for the next phase
• Update the lessons learned documents with the sponsor
• Throw the project team a party to boost morale
The project manager should host a retrospective with the project team. A retrospective will allow
the team to reflect on the first phase and diagnose what went wrong. This will allow the team to
offer solutions for improvement in the future. While throwing a party may help with morale, it will
not address any of the issues that were encountered in the first phase and these issues may present
themselves in subsequent phases. The lessons learned documents should be updated, but with the
project team. Telling the team to pick up the pace will not be impactful if the root issues of the slow
pace are not addressed.

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Question 55:
The provided image is an example of a:

• Resource management plan

• Stakeholder register
• Power and interest grid
• Requirements traceability matrix
This is an example of a stakeholder register as it contains information about the stakeholder, their
expectations and requirements, as well as their levels of interest, influence, and power. This is not a
power and interest grid because it is not a graphical representation of varying levels of power and
interest. This is not a requirements traceability matrix because there is no specific information
about the requirements of the project and how the requirements are being managed. This is not a
resource management plan as there is no reference to resources in this document.
Question 56:
Marc prefers to lead his team through problem-solving in a very engaging way. He gathers all of the
team members in the war room and asks them to discuss the problem and arrive at a decision as a
group that the team then owns. Marc’s leadership style would be described as:
• Democratic
• Consensus
• Analytical
• Consultative
This is an example of democratic leadership as Marc is involving the group to make the decision
that the team will own together. Consultative leadership implies that Marc acted as a servant
leader, which cannot be gathered from the question. Analytical leadership relies on the technical
knowledge of the leader. Marc did not demonstrate any technical knowledge in this example.
Consensus leadership is a good option as the team is making the decision together, however, it is
specifically stated that the team owns the decision. This is a marked trait of democratic leadership.
Question 57:
Which of the following would not be found in a lessons learned register?
• What should have been done differently in a project
• What was done correctly in a project
• What was done incorrectly in a project
• Who was at fault for a mistake in a project
A lessons learned register would not name who is responsible for a mistake. Assigning blame
should always be avoided. A lessons learned register does contain information about what was
done correctly, what was done incorrectly, and what should have been done differently.
Question 58:
Pablo is a new project manager at your consulting firm. He asks for your advice on understanding
your firm’s culture. Which of the following would be the least helpful for Pablo to learn about your
firm’s culture?
• Interviewing employees
• Reviewing lessons learned documents
• Reviewing select project charters

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 • Shadowing other project managers at the firm
Project charters are not likely to contain deep cultural information. The project charter is narrow
and specific to a project and that project’s objectives. The lessons learned documents will have
information that spans an entire organization. Additionally, interviewing employees and shadowing
other team members with the similar role are great ways to learn about a firm’s culture.
Question 59:
Your firm has experienced a difficult quarter. All projects that were expected to be completed this
quarter have faced challenges. After meeting with several stakeholders, you have found that there is
a major bottleneck in procurement causing schedule impacts. There is only one person in the
procurement office who is authorized to approve any company charges. What should you do first?
• Alert all project sponsors to the delays
• Review project constraints
• Review the resource management plan
• Consult with the head of the procurement office
The first thing you should do is consult with the head of the procurement office. Addressing the
problem head-on is always best, and you may learn more information that may provide you with
another solution. While reviewing the resource management plan and the project constraints are
good ideas, this will not solve any organization-wide issues. Project sponsors will need to be
alerted. However, you should bring a solution to the sponsors and that solution should be
determined after meeting with the head of the procurement office.
Question 60:
Which of the following statements about conflict is false:
• Conflict can be a good thing.
• Conflict is addressed in transparency and problem-solving.
• Conflict is indicative of a failure of leadership.
• Conflict is always inevitable.
Conflict is not indicative of a failure of leadership. Conflict is inevitable as different groups of
people are required to work with others. When presented with a conflict, a leader will help resolve
the conflict through openness and problem-solving.
Question 61:
Andrew is a senior software engineer at a large design firm. His project manager, Abdul, will be on
vacation for the next two weeks and has asked Andrew to oversee the change control process in his
absence. A change request has just come into his queue. The change suggests that the coding
language standards be updated. This change would not take much time, and Andrew knows how to
perform this action. How should Andrew proceed?
• Andrew should ask the PMO to approve this change.
• Because Andrew knows how to do this and it would not take long, he should go ahead and
update the coding language standards.
• Andrew should ask his functional manager to approve this change.
• Andrew should assess the impact of this change and submit a change request to the change
control board.
Andrew must assess the impact of this change and submit a change request to the change control
board. While Andrew knows how to perform this action, it may be inappropriate and could cause
problems in the project if he does not go through the integrated change control process. Andre
should not ask his functional manager, nor the PMO, to approve the change as the change must go
through the change control process after Andrew analyzes any impact to the project.
Question 62:
Zoe is in the process of closing out her project. The customer validated the scope, she closed out
procurements, and she has started archiving documents. Zoe has looked at the product herself and
verified that it meets all requirements. What is Zoe forgetting to do?
• Confirm the product requirements are met.
• Compare the cost baseline with the actual cost.
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 • Gain final acceptance of the product.
• Update the project management plan.
Zoe needs to gain final acceptance of the product. Zoe has confirmed product requirements are met.
But the customer has simply validated the scope, they have not accepted the product. Zoe does not
need to compare the cost baseline with the actual costs nor does she need to update the project
management plan, as these are not activities that are done in the closing phase.
Question 63:
Max is a developer on a team that is developing software for lawyers. There is no set scope for this
software, but the team does have a budget and deadline. The team meets daily for about five
minutes to discuss what they have accomplished, what they hope to accomplish, and anything that
may be standing in their way. There is a person who facilitates the daily meetings, removes any
blockers a teammate may have and encourages the team to keep making progress. What kind of
project methodology approach does Max’s team have?
• Plan-driven
• Scrum
• Kanban
• Predictive
This is an example of a Scrum project methodology. In Scrum, the team meets daily for a Scrum
meeting to discuss what work everyone is doing and to work through any blockers. There is a
ScrumMaster who is responsible for facilitating this meeting and motivating the team. Kanban is
not evident in this example because there is no evidence of how project work is accomplished. This
would not be plan-driven nor predictive because there is no set scope for this project.
Question 64:
Which of the following statements belongs in a lessons learned register?
• The team’s lead engineer will be taking a leave of absence midway through project
execution.
• The server that the project team relies on has a 25% chance of exceeding capacity in this
project.
• The office’s internet connection is unreliable.
• Supplier #1903 is no longer in business so certain materials should be acquired from
supplier #2984 instead.
An example of a lessons learned register entry is “Supplier #1903 is no longer in business so
certain materials should be acquired from supplier #2984 instead.” This is a lesson learned
because it is indicative of something that was discovered in the project that caused some trouble,
that was resolved, and that may guide future projects. The server exceeding capacity is an example
of a risk that should be noted in the risk register. The absence of the team’s lead engineer should be
noted in the resource management documents and potentially the issue log if an issue results from
their absence. The office’s unreliable internet connection is an example of something that should be
noted in the issue log.
Question 65:
You are working to complete contract negotiations with vendors for your project. The contract with
American Metal Group is taking a great deal of time to be signed by all parties. The work that
American Metal Group is responsible for needs to start right away. What might you do to start the
work, on time?
• Continue to wait on the contract to be signed, as it is too risky to work without a contract.
• Try to find a new vendor to work with to perform this work.
• Issue a letter of intent with American Metal Group so that they can start working.
• Send American Metal Group a waiver to sign so that they can start working.
You should issue a letter of intent so the firm can start working. A letter of intent is used exactly for
situations such as this. When it takes a while for contracts to be signed, a letter of intent can be
used so that work can start without a contract, but ensures that a contract will be signed as soon as
possible. You should not wait for the contract to be signed, nor should you try to find a new vendor
as both of these options will take a long time. If the work that needs to be done is already
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approaching, you should try to move along as planned while still protecting both the buyer and the
seller. American Metal Group does not need a waiver. A waiver is used to waive rights, which is not
necessary for this situation.
Question 66:
Carly has recently been hired at an IT consulting firm. Her firm has a PMO office that is very rigid.
The PMO assigns project managers to all projects in a firm. Additionally, the PMO is directly
responsible for the success of every project, therefore, they can exert control over the projects. What
kind of PMO form does Carly’s firm demonstrate?
• Supportive
• Portfolio
• Directive
• Controlling
This is a directive PMO. A directive PMO is rigid and is responsible for the success of all projects.
A controlling PMO exerts a moderate level of control but is not accountable for the success of
projects. A supportive PMO provides OPAs and consultation for projects but has a very low level of
control over projects. A portfolio is not a kind of PMO.
Question 67:
In an agile, Scrum-based setting, who is primarily responsible for removing general team blockers?
• The ScrumMaster
• The sponsor
• The product owner
• The lead developer
If a team is adhering to a Scrum methodology, the ScrumMaster is the person who is responsible
for addressing and removing all team blockers. Neither the product owner, lead developer nor
sponsor are responsible for removing blockers. While others may present blockers to the team, the
ScrumMaster is ultimately responsible for the blockers.
Question 68:
Rose’s project team is developing a prototype of an online tutoring product. The team is utilizing
Kanban and has implemented work in progress (WIP) limits on the columns on the Kanban board.
There is a WIP limit of 3 on the coding column. Based on the image provided, what should Rose
do?

• Rose should move one ticket from coding into code review because the column violates the
WIP limit.
• Rose should tell the software developers to code more quickly because there are many
tickets in the coding column.
• Rose does not need to do anything, work items are moving along appropriately.

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 • Rose should have the team decide which ticket must move back into the backlog from the
coding column and have developers pair on the remaining 3 tickets.
Because the coding column is over the WIP limit, Rose should ask the team to decide which ticket
must move back into the backlog from the coding column and have developers pair on the
remaining 3 tickets. The pipeline should not be over the WIP limit. Rose needs to take action, she
should not encourage a practice of ignoring WIP limit violations. Letting the team continue to code,
even if it is faster, is a violation of the team’s WIP limit. Rose should not move a card forward in
the flow from coding into code review. This ticket may not be ready for code review. Additionally,
Kanban is designed to be a pull system, not a push system. Therefore, Rose pushing the work
forward is not appropriate.
Question 69:
You are setting knowledge transfer expectations with your project team. Due to the sensitive nature
of tacit knowledge, you ask the team to come to you in confidentiality to transfer tacit knowledge
rather than publicly voice it. What is an example of tacit knowledge?
• Lucia now reports to Johan, as evidenced by the organizational breakdown structure.
• Bryan, a junior developer on the team, makes $60,000 per year.
• Taylor works 35 hours per week, based on her contract.
• Symphonie has had negative interactions while working with David, so she prefers not to
work with him.
Tacit knowledge refers to knowledge that is more difficult to communicate as it is typically
subjective. The example of tacit knowledge here is that Symphonie has had negative interactions
while working with David, so she prefers not to work with him. This kind of knowledge or
information is experiential, as such, it is tacit knowledge. All other examples here are forms of
explicit knowledge as they are factual and can be easily communicated in words.
Question 70:
Why might you want to utilize an issue log while managing your project?
• To see how long it takes to resolve each issue
• To compare the count of issues in this project to previous projects
• To know who is the cause of issues in a project
• To track issue resolution
The main purpose of an issue log is to track issue resolution. The issue log assigns an issue owner
who is responsible for the resolution or maintenance of an issue and to convey the issue’s status to
relevant stakeholders. Comparing the count of issues across projects is not a helpful exercise as
projects vary in size and scope. The purpose of an issue log is not to assess who causes an issue. It
is not a good practice to assign blame in a project. While the duration of issue resolution may be
important, it is not the sole purpose of an issue log. Additionally, not all issues will be resolved.
Question 71:
Jacob’s PMO asks him to provide a report on the cost of conformance for his latest project. Which
of the following should he include?
• Inventory costs
• Scrap
• Rework of deliverables
• Quality training
Quality training is the only cost here that would be included in the cost of conformance. This can be
interpreted as a preventative measure to avoid costs in the future. Scrap, inventory costs, rework of
deliverables are all costs of non-conformance. These costs are the results of the problems that were
encountered in the project.
Question 72:
Alina is midway through developing software that her organization has prided itself on as being
entirely unique. While at lunch with a friend, he mentions that his firm is developing a similar
software, and plans to launch it next week. He shares a public article containing the press release
with Alina. How should Alina proceed?
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 • Alina should press her team to work faster to develop the software ahead of her friend’s
firm.
• Alina should do nothing as she is not supposed to know this information and it is unethical
to act.
• Alina should offer to buy the software from her friend for her firm to release.
• Alina should immediately let her project sponsor know about this.
When something jeopardizes a project’s viability presents itself, the project sponsor should be
immediately informed. Alina should not press her team to work faster, this does not negate the fact
that this software is no longer unique. Alina should not ignore this. Because the press release was
public, it is appropriate for her to share this information. It is not appropriate for Alina to buy the
software from her friend. It is very unlikely that this would be possible, nor can it be assumed that
this is within Alina’s power.
Question 73:
Which of the following statements regarding training is false?
• Training team members can decrease overall project costs.
• Training team members can decrease the overall project schedule.
• Training team members benefits project performance and individual performance.
• The training of team members is always paid for from the project budget.
Training is not always paid for from the project budget. In instances where the organization will
benefit from the training in the long term, the training may be an organizational cost. Overall,
training benefits individual performance, project performance, reduces project costs, and reduces
project schedule.

Question 74:
Rose has a student intern shadowing her for the day to learn about project management. Rose is
discussing change management with the intern when she is asked about the project manager’s role
in the change management process. Which of the following is not a responsibility of the project
manager?
• The project manager is responsible for assessing the impacts of proposed changes.
• The project manager is responsible for developing the change management plan.
• The project manager is responsible for approving or rejecting change requests.
• The project manager should prevent the root causes of changes.
The project manager is not responsible for approving or rejecting change requests; the change
control board or project sponsor is responsible for this. The project manager is responsible for
overseeing the change management process including developing a change management plan,
assessing the impacts of change requests, preventing the root causes of changes, and more.
Question 75:
Dom, your supervisor is asking you to send him a document that contains the scope management
plan, cost management plan, and serves as a guide to how your project will be managed. What
document will you send him?
• Feasibility study
• Project management plan
• Work breakdown structure
• Project charter
Dom is asking for a project management plan. A project management plan contains domain-
specific plans, for example, a scope management plan. The project management plan serves as a
guide to how the project will be managed. This is not a project charter because a project charter
does not guide on how a project is managed, nor does it contain information specific to scope nor
cost. A feasibility study is a document that assesses the viability of a project before it is executed. A
feasibility study does not guide how to manage a project. A work breakdown structure is a
document that is specific to scope. It does not contain cost information, nor guide the management
of a project.

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Question 76:
Colby has noticed that his project team’s morale is low, and colleagues are reluctant to work
together or meet to discuss the project work during execution after a large scope change was
approved. Colby decides to meet with the team’s lead engineer to discuss what may be the cause of
this behavior. The engineer informs Colby that the team feels stressed and unmotivated because
they do not properly understand the scope of their work or the requirements themselves. What
likely went wrong?
• Colby did not keep the project team informed about the project status and changes.
• The team members did not review the lessons learned from past projects and are making
similar mistakes.
• Colby did not plan the project appropriately with the entire project team.
• The lead engineer did not meet with the team members weekly to assess how they are
feeling.
As the project manager, Colby is responsible for keeping the team apprised of the project’s
direction and any changes that may have occurred. The team is not responsible for reviewing the
lessons learned, nor is the lead engineer responsible for meeting with every team member weekly.
We cannot assume that Colby did not plan with the project team in the planning stage, nor should
we assume that involving the entire project team would be required.
Question 77:
Crawford Manufacturing has a group of individuals who meet periodically to assess upcoming and
in-progress projects. The individuals in this group have diverse backgrounds including a legal
expert, a security architect, and an environmental scientist. This group is likely a:
• Board of directors
• Change control board
• Compliance council
• Community of practice

This is an example of a compliance counsel. Individuals who represent compliance-related groups

like legal, environmental, or security, assess project compliance as a member of a compliance
counsel. A change control board is a group of individuals responsible for evaluating and approving
or denying a change request to a project. A board of directors is usually a group of high-level
employees of a public company that supervises operational activities. A community of practice
refers to a group of individuals who have similar backgrounds or experiences that meet to discuss
best practices in a certain field or industry.
Question 78:
Mid-way through the execution stage of a project, you notice that morale in your team is at an all-
time low. Additionally, your project has fallen behind the schedule by 6 weeks. You meet with your
lead engineer and she expresses that the team feels stressed out because there is no clear delineation
of tasks across the engineers. This is leading to double-work in some cases and work being
forgotten in other cases. What should you do?
• Outsource the work to a third-party to be completed and move your engineers onto another
project.
• Have the engineers work overtime until the project is complete to bring it back on schedule.
• Meet with your engineers to develop a RAM chart.
• Continue along with the project because it is already half-way done and note the pain points
in the lessons learned document for the next project.
Creating a RAM chart is the best thing to do here because the root of the issue is a lack of task
accountability. In assigning responsibilities to each engineer, everyone will know what they are
responsible for. The project manager should not allow the project to proceed as is. This is bad not
only for the project but also for the team members who already have low morale. The work should
not be outsourced because that does not address the main issue of task accountability here. This
would not improve the team’s morale and it also cannot be assumed that it is within the project

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manager’s ability to outsource this work. The engineers should not be asked to work overtime.
Adding more hours will not solve the key problem of a lack of task accountability.
Question 79:
Bruce is managing a project to construct a bridge spanning a large river. Two months into this
project, the local government issues a new regulation that requires that bridge width be double in
width from what Bruce was initially planning. Which of the following will most likely not be
affected by this new regulation?
• Scope
• Schedule
• Quality
• Cost
It can be assumed that the same quality standards would apply throughout the project, regardless
of the bridge’s width. Because we are doubling the specs of the bridge, more than likely scope, cost,
and schedule will all need to be changed.
Question 80:
In closing her project, Theresa wants to ensure that the exit criteria for the project were met. What
should she consult?
• Change log
• Business Case
• Deliverables
• Project charter
The project charter will contain information about the exit criteria for the project. The business
case will validate that the business case was fulfilled, but not specific exit criteria. The change log
will only validate that changes were resolved, not the project’s acceptance criteria. While
deliverables will inform that product requirements were met, they will not inform you about the
meeting of the project’s exit criteria.
Question 81:
Your software development project requires continuity across the project work. Marvin has been a
contractor on your project for 1 year. His contract is about to expire. His work is imperative to the
project and he has indicated that he would like to continue working with you through the duration
of this project. What should you do?
• Hire Marvin on as a full-time employee.
• Let Marvin’s contract lapse and hire a new contractor.
• Issue a single-source contract with Marvin.
• Issue a sole source contract with Marvin.
Because continuity is important to this work, you should issue a single-source contract to Marvin as
he would be considered a preferred vendor. You would not issue a sole source contract here,
because Marvin is not the only software developer in the world. You should also not let Marvin’s
contract lapse and hire someone else as this will not bring the required continuity to the project.
Additionally, it may not be appropriate to hire Marvin as a full-time employee.
Question 82:
Chris’s PMO is very hands-off. He meets with the PMO when he needs training on certain project
management practices or would like to access a template for a project artifact. The PMO does not
have any control over the outcomes or success of his project. What kind of PMO does Chris’s office
have?
• Directive
• Controlling
• Supportive
• Hybrid
This is a supportive PMO. A supportive PMO provides OPAs and consultation for projects but has
a very low level of control over projects. A directive PMO is rigid and is responsible for the success

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of all projects. A controlling PMO exerts a moderate level of control but is not accountable for the
success of projects. Hybrid is not a kind of PMO.
Question 83:
What will allow you to ensure that all project benefits are identified in a project?
• Sharing all project reports with all stakeholders
• Composing a requirements traceability matrix
• Ensuring that all change requests are approved
• Conducting a stakeholder analysis
Conducting a stakeholder analysis will help ensure that all project benefits are identified. This
allows all stakeholders to voice what it is they hope that the project will achieve. Sharing all project
reports may be unnecessary and will not help identify project benefits. Composing a requirements
traceability matrix will help ensure that requirements are met, but these are only known
requirements. This may overlook unknown project benefits. Approving all change requests is
unnecessary and not helpful for identifying project benefits.
Question 84:
Bruce has been awarded a large bid project to construct a bridge spanning a large river in a
Colorado suburb. He will need to monitor all of the following groups for unexpected changes,
except:
• The competing firm who also bid on this project
• Cement providers for the bridge’s resources
• Townspeople in the suburb where the bridge will be built
• City officials in the town that the bridge is in
Because the project has already been awarded, Bruce does not need to monitor the competing firm.
The townspeople, city officials, and resource providers will all impact the project, so these groups
should be monitored continuously.

Question 85:
At your local PMI chapter meeting, a speaker suggests that Scrum teams create an impediment
backlog. Which statement would not be included in an impediment backlog?
• A new developer’s keyboard is broken and they require a new one.
• There is a technical dependency that has been discovered between two codebases.
• The project budget needs to be increased.
• The project’s customer submitted feedback requiring a small code change.
The project’s budget would not come up in an impediment backlog. If the budget needs to be
increased, this very well may be a blocker rather than an impediment if project at large is on the
line. The impediment backlog would contain impediments that are holding up activities or tasks, not
the entire project. A small code change, a technical dependency, a new keyboard are all examples
of impediments.

Question 86:
Lauren has been a web developer for 18 years. She is proficient in numerous programming
languages and has even won several industry awards for her development work. She is leading a
team of four developers and contributes to the development and programming herself. Her
developers on the project trust her due to her experience. What kind of power does Lauren exhibit?
• Expert power
• Informational power
• Ingratiating power
• Guilt-based power
Lauren is demonstrating expert power due to her technical expertise and skills. This is not
ingratiating power because there are no examples of Lauren using flattery to gain favor with the
team. This is not informational power as this example does not reference data gathering nor

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information distribution. This is not guilt-based power because Lauren is not making her team feel
guilty to gain compliance.
Question 87:
Marvin is a new project manager in your organization. He asks you when the lessons learned
register should be updated. What will you tell him?
• The lessons learned document should be updated at any point in the project.
• The lessons learned document should be updated in the retrospective meetings.
• The lessons learned document should be updated at the end of the project in the closing
phase.
• The lessons learned document should be updated when there is an update made to the issue
log.
You should tell Marvin that the lessons learned register is a living document that can be updated at
any point in the project. There is no predetermined point at which this document should be
updated.
Question 88:
One of your project management colleagues states that stakeholders can only be identified in the
initiating and planning phase of a project. Is this true?
• No, stakeholders can be identified in any phase of a project.
• No, stakeholders can be identified throughout the project - except for closing.
• Yes, stakeholders can only be identified in the initiating and planning phases of a project.
• No, stakeholders can only be identified in the planning and monitoring & controlling phases
of a project.
Stakeholders can be identified throughout the project except at the closing phase.
Question 89:
Ripal is the technical architect for your software development team. He informs you that a universal
coding language has had a new update. This coding language is used throughout the industry and is
used heavily in the team’s current project. What should you do next?
• Instruct Ripal to schedule a training session for the entire organization.
• Submit a change request to refactor the codebase into this new coding language.
• Instruct Ripal to inform other technical contributors to this change.
• Bring this up in the planning stage of the next technical project.
Ripal should inform the other technical contributors to this change. Knowledge transfer is critical,
and all technical contributors may be impacted by this information. Hosting a training session for
the entire organization is not necessary as only technical stakeholders will be impacted by this
information. Submitting a change request to refactor the codebase may be necessary, however, it is
unknown if this is necessary without proper analysis. Bringing this up in the next project is a good
idea, however, it should be done as quickly as possible as there may be impacts on the existing
project.
Question 90:
What would you recommend to a colleague who asks you how to ensure that impediments are
addressed?
• The product owner is responsible for addressing each impediment.
• Ask what the status of the impediment is at every daily standup meeting.
• Ensure that each impediment is assigned an impediment owner who is responsible for
addressing it.
• As long as every impediment is recorded in the impediment backlog, they will all get
addressed.
Each impediment needs an owner who is responsible for addressing it and understanding the status.
Without an impediment owner, impediments are very unlikely to be addressed promptly. This is why
simply noting the impediment in the impediment backlog or asking about the status in a daily
standup meeting is not sufficient. Additionally, it is not the responsibility of the product owner to
address each impediment. This is the responsibility of the Scrum team and ScrumMaster.
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Quiz 17: Agile Roles and Responsibilites

Question 1:
You’re taking your first job in project management as a Scrum Master. There is a specific number
of roles in a Scrum project. Additional roles can be harmful to team unity. How many roles are
there in a Scrum project?
• 4
• 9
• 6
• 3
Question 2:
You’re putting together your Scrum team for an upcoming project. The “Scrum Team” refers to all
of the project team members. Which of the following is not one of the roles on the Scrum Team?
• Scrum Master
• Product Owner
• Development Team member
• Iterative Leader

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The Scrum Team is made up of the Product Owner, the Scrum Master, and the Development Team
Members.
Question 3:
During the first project kickoff meeting, Dan introduces himself to key team members, noting that
he will work hard to minimize distractions that may keep them from their work at hand and will
serve in more of a facilitator role. What is Dan’s role?
• Scrum master
• Product owner
• Stakeholder
• Team member
Dan is a Scrum master. In Agile project management, the Scrum master coordinates the work of the
sprint and runs interference between the team and any distractions that may keep them from the
work at hand. They also support the product owner in maintaining the backlog, prioritizing work,
and defining when it is done.
Question 4:
Tyra is the Scrum Master on an infrastructure project that puts seven data centers into a single
building. The customer is a large software client that’s looking to expand. The team is working on-
track so far. When the project is not internal, who is considered a stakeholder?
• The team
• The Product Owner
• The customer
• The Scrum Master
When the project is not internal, the customer is a stakeholder.
Question 5:
Stan is putting together a new Scrum team. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the
Scrum Team?
• Cross-functional
• Self-organized
• Gets help from outside the team
• Not directed by others
The Scrum Team gets the job done without help from outside the team.
Question 6:
Pi is about to start working with a completely new Scrum team. In Bruce Tuckman’s Model, what is
the correct order of team formation and development phases?
• Forming, storming, norming, performing
• Storming, norming, performing, forming
• Norming, performing, forming, storming
• Performing, forming, storming, norming
In Tuckman’s model, a team goes through forming, storming, norming, and performing.
Question 7:
During the first week of a project, Lila’s team is getting to know each other and understanding how
everyone works. Which phase in Bruce Tuckman’s model is this?
• Norming
• Storming
• Forming
• Performing
The Forming phase is when people are getting to know each other.
Question 8:
Well into the project, Beth’s team can be found eating lunch together, chatting before meetings, and
working together. Which phase in Bruce Tuckman’s model is this?
• Forming
• Storming
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 • Norming
• Performing
The Norming phase is when people socialize more often, develop trust, and create team norms.
Question 9:
Mica is a Scrum Master at You’ve Got Cats, a specialty company that creates custom cat toys. For
this company, it’s not uncommon to have stakeholders involved in the project. In these projects,
what does that mean for the Scrum team?
• Stakeholders are a part of the Scrum team
• Stakeholders can be involved in the project, but are not considered internal to the team
• The Scrum team answers to the stakeholders
• The stakeholders lead certain projects
Stakeholders can be involved in the project but are not considered internal to the team
Question 10:
Brianna is planning for the next project. She’s put together the Scrum team, but it’s already looking
like the workload will be too much for this team. What should Brianna do next?
• Start the project and see how far they get
• Get the job done with the current team anyway
• Remove or change certain items and/or recruit new team members
• Recruit new team members
If the work is too large for the current team, remove or change certain items. You can also recruit
additional Development Team members before the work begins.
Question 11:
Mitch is a new Scrum Master. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Scrum Master?
• Manages the Scrum Team, not the Scrum process
• Fully understands Scrum
• Servant-leader for the Scrum Team
• Leads the organization in its effort to adopt Scrum
The Scrum Master manages the Scrum process, rather than the Scrum team.
Question 12:
Mary is a new Scrum Master. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Scrum Master?
• Is also a development team member
• Removes impediments to the Development Team
• Helps those outside the Scrum Team understand appropriate interactions with the Scrum
Team
• Helps Product Owner by consulting on finding techniques
It is possible for a single person to be a Scrum Master and a development team member, but it is
not recommended
Question 13:
Julia is leading a project that’s being described as revolutionizing the mobile health tracking
industry. She prepares for a meeting with the project’s sponsor to discuss how to approach the
project. During the meeting, she tells the project sponsor that she would like to promote self-
awareness, listening, and coaching versus controlling. Julia is promoting characteristics of what?
• Hygiene model
• Servant leadership approach
• Incremental approach
• Deming approach
According to the Agile Practice Guide, the servant leadership approach involves listening, respect,
promoting self-awareness, trust, promoting safety, coaching versus controlling, promoting the
energy and intelligence of others, and promoting safety.
Question 14:
Servant leadership is an important aspect of agile methodology. Which of the following is not a
characteristic of servant leadership?
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 • Speaking
• Coaching
• Promoting self-awareness
• Serving those on the team
Servant leadership characteristics include promoting self-awareness, listening, serving those on the
team, helping people grow, coaching over-controlling, promoting safety, respect, and trust, and
promoting the energy and intelligence of others.
Question 15:
Servant leadership is an important aspect of agile methodology. Servant leader responsibilities
include all of the following, except?
• Manage relationships to build communication
• Support the team through mentoring and encouragement
• Celebrate with the team and external groups
• Leave stakeholder meetings to team members
The servant-leader educates stakeholders around why and how to be agile
Question 16:
Servant leadership is an important aspect of agile methodology. Which of the following is not the
primary role of the servant leader?
• Shield the team from interruptions
• Delegate
• Remove impediments to progress
• Communicate and re-communicate the project vision
The primary role of the servant leader is to carry the food and water, shield the team from
interruptions, remove impediments to progress, and communicate and recommunicate the project
vision.
Question 17:
Grace is working on her leadership skills. She wants to be a leader, not necessarily a manager.
Leadership tasks include all but which of the following?
• Experiment with new techniques and processes
• Give transparency through visualization
• Create a safe environment for experimentation
• Give transparency through Daily Scrum
Leadership tasks include giving transparency through visualization, creating a safe environment for
experimentation, experiment with new techniques and process, and share knowledge through
collaboration.
Question 18:
Grace is working on her leadership skills. She wants to be a leader, not necessarily a manager.
Which of the following is not true about Management vs. Leadership?
• Management is more about getting things done
• Leadership is about getting things done
• Leadership is about getting people to do what needs to be done
• Management is more concerned with task control
Management is about getting things done, while leadership is more about getting people to do what
needs to be done.
Question 19:
Maggie is putting together her first Scrum team. In Scrum, who is the project manager?
• The Scrum Master
• Main stakeholder
• There’s no such role in Scrum
• Team Lead
There is no such role in Scrum. None of the roles act as a traditional project manager.

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Question 20:
A Scrum team has been working for months on a new software project. Even though things have
gone smoothly, not everything has gotten done. In Scrum, all of the following — except which —
happens when a team cannot finish all of the Sprint Backlog items?
• They do not include the items in the increment of current Sprint
• They do not show it in the Sprint Review
• They deliver additional features in a useable state
• They must estimate it and return it to the Product Backlog for the Product Owner to decide
what to do with them
If the team can’t finish all Sprint Backlog items, they do not include the items in the increment of
current Sprint, they do not show it in the Sprint Review, and they must estimate it and return it to
the Product Backlog for the Product Owner to decide what to do with them.

Quiz 18: Refining Requirements

Question 1:
Maggie’s team is starting to work on user stories for their newest project. How many hours of work
is a user story?
• 10
• 20
• 30
• 40
A user story should be 1-3 days of effort, or roughly 20 hours, 24 hours max.
Question 2:
Jake’s team is working on user stories for their newest project. Which of the following is not true
about user stories?
• Potential stories are called candidate stories
• Perspective of the user or the customer
• Potential stories are called evergreen stories
• Answer the questions: Who was asking for this? Why are we doing this?
Potential stories are called candidate stories.
Question 3:
Matthew’s team is working on user stories. Some of the team members are new to this. What are
the three C’s of user stories?
• Card, Control, Confirmation
• Card, Conversation, Confirmation
• Conversation, Control, Challenge
• Control, Challenge, Card
The three C’s of user stories are card, conversation, and confirmation.
Question 4:
Your team is creating user stories. Which of the following does not fit the INVEST characteristics
of effective user stories?
• Negotiable
• Testable
• Sharable
• Valuable
INVEST stands for independent, negotiable, valuable, estimate, small, and testable.
Question 5:
You’re thinking of hosting a workshop. Workshops can be in a variety of formats. All of the
following are tips for hosting a great workshop, except for which?
• Have a diverse group of people
• Facilitated for involvement
• Have all participants in the same room
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 • Get people involved early
Tips for hosting a great workshop include having a diverse group of people, facilitate for
involvement, and get people involved early.
Question 6:
Your team is about to have a brainstorming session. All of the following are brainstorming
methods, except for which?
• Round robin
• Free for all
• Lightning session
• Quiet writing
Brainstorming methods include quiet writing, round-robin, and free for all.
Question 7:
There are different modeling techniques for agile projects. Which of the following is not an agile
modeling value?
• Courage
• Feedback
• Discussion
• Simplicity
The agile modeling values are communication, simplicity, feedback, courage and humility.
Question 8:
A Use Case Diagram shows the functionality of a system. A Use Case diagram includes all of the
following components except for which?
• System
• Use case
• Relationships
• Boundaries
Use case diagram components include system, use case, actors, and relationships.
Question 9:
Data models are an important part of software projects. What is the purpose of defining data
models?
• It determines the structure of data
• It preps for analysis
• It determines the project foundation
• It determines the data value
Defining data models determines the structure of data and is sometimes called a data structure.
Question 10:
Mitch’s team is putting together wireframes for the smartphone app they’ve been working on. All
of the following statements are true about wireframes, except for which?
• A quick mock-up of a product
• Not a way to get feedback
• Could be screens, with data flowing between screens
• A form of low fidelity prototyping
Wireframes are a quick mock-up of a product, could be screens and data flows between the screens,
ensures that everyone has the same understanding of the product, a form of low fidelity prototyping,
and a quick way to get feedback.
Question 11:
A software company is wrapping up contracts for a new project. Which of the following is not true
regarding contracts?
• Contracts are a form of a constraint
• Contracts are constrained by an offer and a consideration
• Contracts balance time, cost, and scope
• Contracts are flexible
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Contracts are not flexible
Question 12:
An app developer has just started looking at new contracts for a possible project. Which of the
following is not a consideration for a contract?
• Group norms
• Priorities
• Time and cost
• Scope changes
Considerations for contracts include scope changes, priorities, and time and cost.
Question 13:
The latest project to come across at a large software company is a fixed-price contract. All of the
following describes a graduated fixed-price contract, except for which statement?
• Both parties share some of the risk and reward
• If the vendor delivers late, they get paid the same rate for their work
• If the vendor delivers on-time, they get paid the same rate for their work
• If the vendor delivers early, they get a bonus
If the vendor delivers late, they get paid for their work, but at a lower hourly rate
Question 14:
Your team is hiring outside help on a fixed-price contract. All of the following are benefits of
graduated fixed-price contracts, except for which?
• No sandbagging
• Focuses on results
• Only way to work effectively
• Celebrates success for working smart
A graduated fixed price contract often provides an initiative to work effectively, but it’s not the only
way to work effectively.
Question 15:
For the newest project, the buyer and the seller went back and forth before settling on an agreement.
What kind of agreement allows the buyer and the seller to make any agreement they want?
• Graduated fixed-price contract
• Fixed-price work packages
• Customized contracts
• Gulf contract
With a custom contract, the buyer and the seller can make any agreement they want.
Question 16:
Wes and TJ are creating software for Double Agent, a software platform that completes financial
transactions through a web portal. Wes begins the development of the application, designing the
portal with a one-click investment option allowing the end-user to easily buy stocks with one click.
TJ disagrees with the approach, stating that the product owner wants a pop-up box confirmation to
confirm the end user’s intention before the order is placed. Wes agrees that the product owner wants
a seamless easy transaction process, but without losing the double confirmation. This is an example
of what?
• The gulf of evaluation
• Recency bias
• Risk-based spike
• Difference programing
This is an example of the gulf of evaluation. The gulf of evaluation is when team members have
different interpretations of the customer’s product description.
Question 17:
Virginia is taking a closer look at a project’s value-based analysis. What is value-based analysis?
• Assessing and prioritizing the business value of work by subtracting the cost from the
benefit.
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 • It’s part of the project management plan
• It determines if the project is worth starting
• Data that supports a project’s worth.
A value-based analysis is assessing and prioritizing the business value of work by subtracting the
cost from the benefit.
Question 18:
Allen is taking a closer look at a project’s value-based analysis. What question does value-based
analysis answer?
• Will it be a high business value item?
• Will the item generate business value every week or month?
• Will it be a low business value item?
• What is it dependent on?
Value-based analysis answers how often the item will generate business value.
Question 19:
Charlie’s team is working on value-based decomposition. All of the following statements are true
about value-based decomposition, except for which one?
• Groups like features
• Develops requirements
• Breaks down features
• Ranks requirements
Value-based decomposition includes requirements elicitation, grouping of like features, breaking
down of features, ranking of requirements, and prioritization of requirements into development.
Question 20:
Many of the development projects that have come across Mitch’s desk lately are fixed-price work
packages. What is a fixed-price work package?
• The package is up to the vendor
• The estimate remains the same regardless of scope
• The price of work remains constant
• The price of work is flexible
Fixed-price work packages make it so the price of work remains constant. Individual work packages
are estimated for cost. Changes to the scope reflect a new estimate for those work packages.

Quiz 19: Estimating user stories nd iterations

Question 1:
Maggie is working on estimates to create the schedule and the budget. All of the following is true
regarding estimate ranges, except for which statement?
• Just as precise as predictive planning
• Not as precise as predictive planning
• More uncertainty in agile projects
• Includes a range of variance
Estimate ranges are not as precise as predictive planning
Question 2:
Larry’s team is wrapping up its second iteration of development. Which of the following statements
is not true regarding releases and iterations?
• Iterations usually last two to four weeks
• Iterations usually last three to six weeks
• Iterations are short periods of development
• Iterations are timeboxed
Iterations are two to four weeks long

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Question 3:
Maggie is planning a release planning meeting. Which of the following is not true when it comes to
hosting a release planning meeting?
• Happens before the final release
• All stakeholders are represented
• The goal is to find which stories will be done in which iterations for the release
• Defines future iterations for future releases
A release planning meeting happens before each release
Question 4:
Maggie is preparing to host a release planning meeting. Which of the following best describes what
should happen at a release planning meeting?
• Asses the backlog and define the road map for the release
• Review the stories for size and slice them as needed for the plan release
• Assess the backlog, review story sizing, sort the stories, define the outline, and slice the
stories as needed
• Review the backlog, assess the outline, and review story sizing
Assess the backlog, review story sizing, sort the stories, define the outline, and slice the stories as
needed
Question 5:
Ben’s team is about to perform affinity estimating. Which of the following is not a part of the
process for affinity estimating?
• Stories on sticky notes
• Review original road map
• Compare to proven reference stories
• Match stories to comparable reference stories
When affinity estimating, put stories on sticky notes, compare to proven reference stories, and
match stories to comparable reference stories.
Question 6:
Your team is using the Fibonacci sequence for story points. Which of the following is not a number
in the traditional Fibonacci sequence?
• 14
• 8
• 21
• 3.
The traditional Fibonacci sequence is 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, 34, and so on. In Agile projects, this
series is modified. The modified Fibonacci series is 0, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 20, 40, 100 – a sequence that
is used to estimate the relative size of User Stories in terms of Story Points.
Question 7:
Story points are vital for planning. Which of the following is NOT true regarding relative sizing for
story points?
• It’s difficult to make absolute estimate
• Story points are points assigned for story worth
• Story points are points assigned to story size
• Relative sizing assigns points to stories on a relative scale

Story points are points are not assigned based on the worth of the story, so this choice is correct.
Question 8:
Story points are vital for planning. Which of the following isn’t true regarding guidelines for story
points?
• The team owns the definition of their story points
• Story point estimates should be all-inclusive
• Point sizes should be relative
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 • When disaggregating estimates, the totals must match.
When disaggregating estimates, the totals don’t need to match
Question 9:
Mike’s team is using the Fist of Five method. The Fist of Five is a voting technique that allows the
team or stakeholders to vote on requirements when a clear decision can’t be made. Which of the
following is not true regarding the Fist of Five voting technique?
• The team facilitator asks the team to show their level of support for the item
• If a team member holds up less than four fingers, they are allowed to share their objections
• Each team member holds up the number of fingers that corresponds to their level of support
• The voting continues until everyone holds up three or more fingers or agrees to move
forward
If a team member holds up less than three fingers, they are allowed to share their objections
Question 10:
Jake is leading a team on a project that seems to have lots of mixed opinions. For the voting
process, Jake decides to go with the Highsmith Decision Spectrum. Which is this method useful for
this scenario?
• It’s the fastest voting method
• It’s a way to get everyone’s opinion without causing lasting disagreement among team
members
• It allows people to indicate support for a decision and air their reservations at the same time.
• It’s a good method that can be reused repeatedly
This is an effective model because it allows people to indicate support for a decision and air their
reservations at the same time. Giving people the opportunity to share their concern is an important
component of achieving agreement to go forward while respecting dissenting views and keeping
everyone involved. Often, just being able to register reservations is enough to allow people to
commit to a new idea or method.
Question 11:
Grace’s team has reached Iteration H. Which of the following is not true regarding Iteration H?
• Hardening sprint
• One stage of testing
• It documents the product
• It’s used to stabilize the code
Iteration H is the final testing
Question 12:
Stacey is the product owner for a new project that plans to produce a mobile phone application that
sends alerts when outdoor pollution levels have reached dangerous levels, alerting users to stay
indoors. What’s a method the team can use to see if the code they selected for the app is the right
one?
• Change log
• Quality testing
• Risk-based spike
• Quality reports
Stacey’s team can use risk-based spikes to see if they selected the right code. A risk-based spike is
carried out in response to a known risk. These can also be opportunities or threats. The team might
find out that using a different programming language can speed up development, or they might find
out that they can’t use the one they had planned to use. These spikes would be added to the backlog
as mitigation actions.
Question 13:
Stacey is the product owner for a new project that plans to produce a mobile phone application that
sends alerts when outdoor pollution levels have reached dangerous levels, alerting users to stay
indoors. The team is going to perform a risk-based spike. Which of the following is not a benefit of
risk-based spikes?
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 • Short effort to investigate risk
• Good for a majority of projects
• Reduces or eliminates through mitigation
• Good to do early in the project
Risk-based spikes are good for new technology. For example, a team might perform a spike to see if
they can code an application in one language as opposed to another. A risk-based spike is a spike
carried out in response to a known risk. These can also be opportunities or threats. The team might
find out that using a different programming language can speed up development, or they might find
out that they can’t use the one they had planned to use. These spikes would be added to the backlog
as mitigation actions.
Question 14:
Donna’s team is about to start estimating. Which of the following is not a technique used for
estimation?
• Car mileage
• Affinity estimating
• T-shirt sizes
• Relative sizing
There are many known techniques for estimating, but car mileage isn’t one of them.
Question 15:
Kate’s team is about to perform an architectural spike. What will they be doing?
• Performing customer research
• Testing the current status of the product
• Performing a series of investigations to find a solution to a problem
• Allowing the public to test the wireframe
An architectural spike is a series of investigations centered around finding solutions to one or more
problems. The deliverable is knowledge. A spike is usually like another sprint and won’t require the
entire team from the point of view of Scrum. It should always take less time than a Sprint.
Question 16:
Kate’s team is about to perform an architectural spike. How long should an architectural spike take?
• Same time as a Sprint
• Less than a Sprint
• Longer than a Sprint
• It depends on the reason for the spike
It is generally like another sprint and does not require the whole team from the point of view of
Scrum. It should always take less time than a Sprint.
Question 17:
Ben’s team is about to perform an architectural spike. What will the deliverable be?
• An updated schedule
• A new piece of code
• A finished product
• Knowledge in the form of a document or a presentation
The deliverable at the end is generally knowledge in the form of a document or a presentation.
Question 18:
Your team is about to create agile estimates. What is the purpose of creating these estimates?
• To create the budget
• To create a schedule and a budget
• To create the project plan
• To create tasks for the team
An estimate is needed to create the schedule and the budget.
Question 19:
Lee’s team is about to create agile estimates. How are the estimates created?
• Analogous estimating
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 • In stages of sizing and planning
• Based on previous projects
• Expert judgment
Estimates are created in stages of sizing and planning.
Question 20:
Lee’s team is about to create agile estimates. When are the estimates created?
• During the technical analysis
• Right before the project launch
• The last responsible moment and throughout the project
• During the risk review
The estimates are created at the last responsible moment and throughout the project

Quiz 20: Agile performance

Question 1:
David is a Scrum master working closely with Rita, the product owner, to release the latest version
of a digital music device. The team is currently in their fourth sprint. David joins the team near the
coffee machine, where their Kanban board was placed, to meet for 15 minutes and talk through
what each team member completed since yesterday, what they will complete, and any obstacles that
may get in the way of their commitment. What activity is David and the team engaged in?
• Sprint planning
• Daily Scrum
• Sprint retrospective
• Backlog refinement
The Daily Scrum is intended to keep the team functioning on the same page, micro commit to each
other, and address any impediments immediately. In her role as Scrum Master, David attends to
support the team and ensure they understand their roles and Scrum processes.
Question 2:
A project has already gone through several iterations, but there’s work to be done. Who determines
the progress of the project?
• The product owner
• Development team members
• The stakeholders
• Scrum Master
The Product Owner is responsible for monitoring the progress of the project. He or she determines
the amount of work remaining.
Question 3:
Lisa is a project manager who needs to put together the burndown chart for a new project that is
going to produce a new line of toys for Mr. Duncan’s Toy Chest. Which of the following is not a
benefit of a burndown chart?
• Plans for future events
• Communicates progress
• Reach work completion on time
• All of these are benefits of a burndown chart
A burndown chart communicates progress, tracks remaining work, takes corrective measures, plans
for future events, and helps the team reach work completion on time
Question 4:
You’re starting a new project management role with a well-known corporation. A few weeks into
the project, you need to check on the project’s scope. Which tool should you use?
• Kanban board
• Fulfilment chart
• Burndown chart
• Burnup chart
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Burnup charts are a good way to track how much you’ve already accomplished and check on the
project’s scope.
Question 5:
You’re creating the charts for the latest software development project. Which of the following is
true regarding burndown and burnup charts?
• Burnup charts highlight the work you’ve completed against the features
• A burnup chart shows the work remaining on a product
• A burndown chart shows the work remaining on a project
• A burnup chart contains a completed work line
A burndown chart shows the work remaining on a project.
Question 6:
You’re about to begin calculating your team’s velocity. Which of the following is not true regarding
team velocity?
• Velocity is the measure of a team’s capacity for work per iteration
• Velocity continues to rise over time
• Velocity tends to plateau
• Velocity is measured in the same unit that the team estimates the work
Velocity may increase early but will stabilize. Velocity does not continue to increase over time.
Question 7:
Your agile team is working on a project and they have just completed the fourth sprint. In the first
sprint they complete 24 story points. In the second sprint the team completed 32 story points. In the
third sprint they completed only 16 story points. And in this last sprint the team complete 38 story
points. What is the velocity for this agile team?
• 28
• 34
• 42
• 25
To find the velocity of the team you'll find the average story points completed for the four iterations.
This would be 24+32+16+38 for a total number of 110 story points. Then you'll divide 110 by four,
for an average of 27.5. The value is rounded up to 28 story points for their velocity. This means the
team is expected to completed 28 story points per sprint on average.
Question 8:
A new project begins tomorrow and is planned to be several months long. When is the Sprint
progress monitored?
• At the end of the sprint
• Once per week
• Daily Scrum
• At the end of each iteration
This should be done in each Daily Scrum
Question 9:
Jean is a product owner responsible for the company’s line of smart digital music devices. During
an afternoon working session, she works with the team to review user stories in preparation for the
next sprint. Her intention is to ensure the team knows enough about the stories and how large they
are in relation to each other. What activity is Jean performing?
• Sprint planning
• Backlog refinement
• Sprint retrospective
• Daily stand-up
Jean is in the process of refining the backlog in order to prepare for the next iteration. Engaging
the team allows everyone to be aligned on the stories, relative to one another.

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Question 10:
Your team is reaching the halfway mark on their latest project. A team can show its completed
value with what tool?
• A project charter
• A product backlog burnup chart
• A sprint burndown chart
• Kanban Board
A team can show its completed value with a product backlog burnup chart.
Question 11:
A project has already gone through several iterations, but there’s work to be done. How often
should the project progress be monitored?
• Once each month
• Once per Sprint Review
• Every two weeks
• During the Daily Scrum
The correct answer is during the Daily Scrum. In Agile, particularly in Scrum, project progress is
monitored daily through the Daily Scrum (or Daily Stand-up) meeting. This short, focused meeting
allows the team to discuss progress, identify any impediments, and adjust plans to stay on track
toward the Sprint Goal. Monitoring progress frequently helps the team address issues promptly and
ensures continuous alignment with project objectives.
Question 12:
A project has already gone through several iterations, but there’s work to be done. What is the
purpose of monitoring the project’s progress?
• To check-in with stakeholders
• To confirm work completed
• To provide a status report
• It forecasts the completion date of the project
Monitoring the project’s progress forecasts the completion date of the project.
Question 13:
You’re putting together the burndown chart for your team’s next project. What is on the X-axis?
• The number of sprints
• The ideal timeline
• The work to be completed
• The start and endpoints
Question 14:
You’re putting together the burnup chart for your team’s next project. What is on the Y-axis?
• The number of sprints
• The ideal timeline
• The completed work.
• The start and endpoints
Question 15:
Your team’s velocity has been 25 story points per iteration. There are 175 story points left. Each
iteration is two weeks. How many weeks are left on the project?
• 7
• 14
• 20
• 21
175/25 is 7. 7 x 2 weeks is 14 weeks.
Question 16:
Your team’s velocity has been 30 story points per iteration. There are 700 story points left. Each
iteration is three weeks. Approximately how many weeks are left on the project?
• 70
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 • 35
• 52
• 27
700/30 is 23.33. 23.33 x 3 weeks is 70 weeks
Question 17:
A project has already gone through several iterations, but there’s work to be done. When
monitoring Sprint progress, which of the following is not a tool that you should use?
• Sprint burndown chart
• Progressive elaboration chart
• Sprint goal
• Kanban of user stories
When monitoring sprint progress, utilize a sprint board for transparency. This might be a sprint
burndown chart, a sprint goal, or a Kanban of user stories.
Question 18:
You’ve been transitioning from traditional PM to agile methodology. Which of the following is not
true regarding measurements in agile projects?
• Transitioning to agile means using different measurements
• Agile projects deliver finished work on a regular basis
• Agile projects deliver finished work when the project is done
• Project teams can use such data for improved forecasts and decision making
Agile projects deliver finished work on a regular basis
Question 19:
You’ve been transitioning from traditional PM to agile methodology. Which of the following is not
true regarding how agile teams measure results?
• Agile measures what the team delivers
• Agile measures what the team predicts it will deliver
• Agile teams limit their estimation to the next few weeks at the most
• There is evidence that the smaller the chunk of work, the more likely people are to deliver.
Agile measures what the team delivers, not what the team predicts it will deliver
Question 20:
You’re putting together a chart for your team’s next project. What is the feature burnup/burndown
charts may show?
• Revised project goals
• The project plan
• That requirements grew during the project
• The project or phase end
The feature burnup/burndown charts may show that requirements grew during the project.

Quiz 21: Exploring Different Agile Approaches

Question 1:
Your team is utilizing a Kanban board. Which of the following is not true regarding the Kanban
pull system?
• Kanban uses timeboxed iterations
• A pull system moves work through development
• Only so many items can be in each stage of the project
• Work moves from left to right
Kanban does not use timeboxed iterations
Question 2:
On a software development project, your team is following Extreme Programming. Which of the
following is not an XP core value?
• Simplicity

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 • Managing
• Communication
• Feedback
Managing is not a core value of XP
Question 3:
On a software development project, your team is following Extreme Programming. What are the
XP team roles?
• Team lead, Customer, Programmer, Testers
• Coach, Customer, Programmer, Testers
• Scrum Master, Customer, Programmer
• Scrum Master, Customer, Programmer, Testers
XP team roles include a coach, customer, programmer, and testers.
Question 4:
On a software development project, your team is following Extreme Programming. Which of the
following is not an XP core practice?
• Whole team
• Customer tests
• Individual code ownership
• Sustainable pace
An XP core practice is collective code ownership. Any pair of developers can improve or amend the
code, and multiple people will work on all the code. Knowledge is shared.
XP core practice:
➢ Whole team
➢ planning games
➢ small releases
➢ customer tests
➢ Collective code ownership
➢ code standards
➢ Sustainable pace
➢ Metaphor
➢ continous integration
➢ test-driven development
➢ refactoring
➢ simple design
➢ pair programming,

Question 5:
On a software development project, your team is following Extreme Programming. Which XP core
value reflects reducing complexity, extra features, and waste?
• Simplicity
• Communication
• Feedback
• Respect
Simplicity is an XP core value that encourages reducing complexity, extra features, and waste. Find
the simplest thing that could possibly work.
Question 6:
On a software development project, your team is following Extreme Programming. Which XP core
value ensures the project team knows what’s expected of them?
• Simplicity
• Feedback
• Communication
• Respect

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Communication is an XP core value that ensures the project team knows what is expected of them
and ensures the team knows what other people are working on.
Question 7:
You are a coach for the XP team. How would you describe your role?
• A mentor, guide, communicator similar to the Scrum Master
• A developer who writes the code
• The individual who provides requirements priorities and direction for the project, similar to
the product owner
• The one who defines and writes the acceptability test
The coach is a mentor, guide, facilitator, and communicator similar to the Scrum Master
Question 8:
You are a customer of the XP team. How would you describe your role?
• A mentor, guide, communicator similar to the Scrum Master
• A developer who writes the code
• The individual who provides requirements priorities and direction for the project, similar to
the product owner
• The one who defines and writes the acceptability test
The customer is the individual who provides requirements priorities and direction for the project,
similar to the product owner
Question 9:
There are two programmers using the same code and unit test cases, on the same system. One
programmer plays the pilot role — focusing on clean code, compiles and runs. The second
programmer plays the role of navigator and focuses on the big picture and reviews code for
improvement or refactoring. Every 45 minutes, they switch roles so that the pilot will play the role
of navigator and vice versa. The pilots and navigators are not fixed, and they are frequently
swapped, the main benefits of that over a period of time is that everyone gets to know about the
code and functionality of the whole system. What is this practice called?
• Collective code ownership
• Onsite customer
• Pair programming
• System metaphor
This practice is called Pair Programming
Question 10:
On a software development project, your team is following Extreme Programming. Which of the
following is not true regarding simple design?
• Looking for the simplest thing that could work
• Simple does not mean easy
• Simple = easy
• Simple design is a risk mitigation approach
Simple does not mean easy.
Question 11:
Your team is practicing lean product development. Which of the following is not one of the seven
lean core concepts?
• Empower the team
• Predictive planning
• Deliver fast
• Optimize the whole
The seven lean core concepts are eliminate, waste, empower the team, deliver fast, optimize the
whole, build quality in, defer decisions, and amplify learning.
Question 12:
Your team is practicing lean product development. Which of the following is not one of the seven
lean core concepts?
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 • Deliver fast
• Optimize individual parts
• Empower the team
• Amplify learning
The seven lean core concepts are eliminate waste, empower the team, deliver fast, optimize the
whole, build quality in, defer decisions, and amplify learning.
Question 13:
Your team is practicing lean product development. Which of the following is not one of the seven
wastes of lean?
• Task switching
• Extra features
• Phase exit
• Motion
The seven wastes of lean are partially done work, extra processes, extra features, task switching,
waiting, motion, and defects.
Question 14:
You’re learning more about other agile approaches. The Crystal Method is based on what two
critical assumptions?
• Every project is different; the Team Lead must determine customizations
• The team can make itself more efficient; Every project is different
• Every project is different; the customer must identify needs
• The team lead is responsible for the timeline; Communication must be clear between teams
The basis of the Crystal Method is on two critical assumptions. 1. That the team can make itself
more efficient by streamlining their work and the project, and 2. That every project is different from
others and requires some specific methods and strategies.
Question 15:
This crystal method is for a small team of 1-6 people, supports a fixed-price contract, is people-
oriented, requires documentation, and is the focus of project safety. Which method is this
describing?
• Crystal Yellow
• Crystal Clear
• Crystal Orange web
• Crystal orange
This is the Crystal Clear method.
Question 16:
This crystal method is for a team size of 7-20, and there’s a clear ownership of code areas.
Feedback is taken from users; prefers accessible and direct communication. Automated testing is
used to resolve bugs, and there are monthly improvement plans. Which method is this describing?
• Crystal Yellow
• Crystal Clear
• Crystal Orange web
• Crystal orange
This is the Crystal Yellow method
Question 17:
This crystal method is meant for a team of 21-40, with a project that lasts 1-2 years. Teams are split
up by their functional skills and a release is required every 3-4 months. Every release is called an
increment. This method is designed for a medium-sized project.
• Crystal Yellow
• Crystal Clear
• Crystal Orange web
• Crystal orange
This is the Crystal Orange method
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Question 18:
This crystal method is made for a team size of 21 to 40 people. It’s used in projects that have a
continually evolving code base that is being used by the public. It focuses on raising the minimal
defect.
• Crystal Yellow
• Crystal Clear
• Crystal Orange web
• Crystal orange
This is crystal orange web.
Question 19:
You’re learning more about other agile approaches. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
feature-driven development?
• Domain object modeling
• Irregular builds
• Configuration management
• Individual class code ownership
The characteristics of feature-driven development are domain object modeling, developing by
feature, individual class code ownership, feature teams, inspections, configuration management,
regular builds, and visibility of progress and results.
Question 20:
You’re learning more about other agile approaches. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
feature-driven development?
• Inspections
• Feature teams
• Regular builds
• Team code ownership
The characteristics of feature-driven development are domain object modeling, developing by
feature, individual class code ownership, feature teams, inspections, configuration management,
regular builds, and visibility of progress and results

Quiz 22: Testing and Verifying in Agile Projects

Question 1:
In an ideal situation, both verification and validation activities occur as close to simultaneously as
possible. Which of the following isn’t a benefit of verification and validation?
• Alternative dispute resolution
• Frequent verification and validation happen throughout the project
• Build a consensus between the project team and the stakeholders
• Tests checkpoints and review
Alternative dispute resolution isn’t a benefit of verification and validation.
Question 2:
In an ideal situation, both verification and validation activities occur as close to simultaneously as
possible. Which of the following is not an example of verification and validation?
• Predictive delivery
• Pair programming
• Unit testing
• Product release
Predictive delivery is not an example of verification and validation
Question 3:
Your team is about to conduct a unit test. What is a unit test?
• Observing an end-user working with the product. They are given a goal to reach but no
specific product instructions.
• Testers exploring the application to identify potential edge cases.
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 • A program fragment developer writes and maintained. This fragment exercises a narrow part
of the product’s source code and checks the results.
• A formal description of the behavior of a software product generally expressed as an
example of a scenario.
A unit test is a program fragment developer write and maintained. This fragment exercises a
narrow part of the product’s source code and checks the results.
Question 4:
There are several ways to verify and validate in XP. What is acceptance testing?
• A formal description of the behavior of a software product, usually expressed as an example
of a scenario.
• A program fragment developer writes and maintained. This fragment exercises a narrow part
of the product’s source code and checks the results.
• Observing an end-user working with the product. They are given a goal to reach but no
specific product instructions.
• Testers exploring the application to identify potential edge cases.
Acceptance testing is a formal description of the behavior of a software product, expressed as an
example of a usage scenario.
Question 5:
There are several ways to verify and validate in XP. What is exploratory testing?
• Testers exploring the application to identify potential edge cases.
• A formal description of the behavior of a software product generally expressed as an
example of a scenario.
• A program fragment developer writes and maintained. This fragment exercises a narrow part
of the product’s source code and checks the results.
• Observing an end-user working with the product. They are given a goal to reach but no
specific product instructions.
Exploratory testing is about testers exploring the application to identify potential edge cases. It’s
important the testers understand the different personas that are likely to use the application. This
will allow them to execute the exploratory tests with success.
Question 6:
There are several ways to verify and validate in XP. Which of the following is not an example of an
exploratory test?
• Tests created on the fly
• Automated design
• Investigation of the system/application
• Spontaneous test experiments
Automated design is not an example of an exploratory test, as they are created on the fly, an
improvement of test design (not automated), and spontaneous test experiments.
Question 7:
There are several ways to verify and validate in XP. What is usability testing?
• A program fragment developer writes and maintained. This fragment exercises a narrow part
of the product’s source code and checks the results.
• Observing an end-user working with the product. They are given a goal to reach but no
specific product instructions.
• Testers exploring the application to identify potential edge cases.
• A formal description of the behavior of a software product, expressed as an example of a
usage scenario.
Usability testing consists of observing a representative end-user interacting with the product, given
a goal to reach but no specific instructions for using the product.
Question 8:
Your team practices continuous integration. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
continuous integration?
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 • Incorporate new and changed code into the code repository
• Small code commits
• Relies on automated tools to integrate code when new code is checked in
• Infrequent integration
Continuous integration = frequent integration
Question 9:
Your team practices continuous integration. Which of the following is a disadvantage of continuous
integration?
• Early warning of broken or incompatible code
• Cost of a dedicated server
• Problems are fixed as they occur
• Easy to reverse the code
Disadvantages of continuous integration include the lengthy setup time, the cost of a dedicated
server, and the time it takes to build a suite of automatic tests.
Question 10:
Your team practices continuous integration. Which of the following is an advantage of continuous
integration?
• Frequent unit testing
• Cost of a dedicated server
• Lengthy setup time
• The time required to build a suite of automatic tests
Advantages of continuous integration include frequent unit testing to define issues quickly,
immediate feedback, and problems are fixed as they occur.
Question 11:
Your team practices test-driven development. What is test-driven development?
• A formal description of the behavior of a software product generally expressed as an
example of a usage scenario.
• A method of programming where three activities are interwoven: testing, design, and
coding.
• It consists of observing a representative end-user interacting with the product, given a goal
to reach but no specific instructions for using the product.
• It’s about testers exploring the application to identify potential edge cases. It’s important the
testers understand the different personas that are likely to use the application. This will
allow them to execute the exploratory tests with more success.
Test-driven development is a method of programming where three activities are interwoven: testing,
design, and coding.
Question 12:
Your team practices test-driven development. Which of the following is not a benefit of test-driven
development?
• Many teams report significant reductions in defect rates, at the cost of a moderate increase in
initial development effort
• The same teams tend to report that these overheads are more than offset by a reduction in
effort in projects’ final phases
• Partial adoption – only a few developers on the team use TDD
• Although empirical research has so far failed to confirm this, veteran practitioners report
that TDD leads to improved design qualities in the code, and more generally, a higher
degree of “internal” or technical quality, for instance, improving the metrics of cohesion and
coupling.
Partial adoption is actually a common team pitfall when it comes to test-driven development.
Question 13:
Your team practices test-driven development. In test-driven development, what color represents the
first step?
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 • Green
• Blue
• Orange
• Red
The Red step is the start of the cycle. We write a unit test that ‘drives’ us to create the desired
behavior in our implementation code. Since the behavior does not yet exist, the test is destined to
fail. Why red? Failing tests show up in red in UI unit testing runners. Please note that command-
line runners may not show failing tests in red.
Question 14:
Your team practices test-driven development. In test-driven development, what color represents the
second step?
• Orange
• Green
• Red
• Blue
Once we have our failing unit test, we move to the Green step. Our task consists of writing the
implementation code to pass the test. Unit test runners usually present passing tests in green.
Question 15:
Your team practices test-driven development. In acceptance test-driven development, what is the
testing focus?
• Business requirements
• Client needs
• Framework
• Functionality
In acceptance test-driven development, the testing focus is on business requirements.
Question 16:
Your team practices test-driven development. What is acceptance test-driven development?
• A short program fragment written and maintained by the developers on the product team,
which exercises some narrow part of the product’s source code and checks the results.
• It’s about testers exploring the application to identify potential edge cases. It’s important the
testers understand the different personas that are likely to use the application. This will
allow them to execute the exploratory tests with more success.
• It consists of observing a representative end-user interacting with the product, given a goal
to reach but no specific instructions for using the product.
• It helps with communication between the business customers, the developers, and the
testers.
Acceptance test-driven development (ATDD) helps with communication between the business
customers, the developers, and the testers.
Question 17:
Your team practices test-driven development. Who authors the acceptance test-driven development?
• The customer
• The tester
• The tests are authored by the triad of customer, tester, and developer.
• The developer and tester
The tests are authored by the triad of customer, tester, and developer.
Question 18:
Your team practices acceptance test-driven development. Which statement properly represents the
acceptance test-driven development cycle?
• Develop code > run test > demo > discuss results
• Distill test framework > develop code and run test > demo > discuss results
• Discuss requirements > distill test framework > develop code and run test > demo
• Develop code > demo > test framework
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Discuss requirements > distill test framework > develop code and run test > demo
Question 19:
Your team practices acceptance test-driven development. What happens during the first phase of the
cycle?
• Gets the test ready to be entered into the acceptance test tool
• Test initially fail because the code hasn’t been written completely
• Developers ask the product owner questions that are designed to gather acceptance criteria
• Testing scrips and demonstrations of the software
In the first cycle of acceptance test-driven development, you discuss the requirements – developers
as the product owner questions that are designed to gather acceptance criteria.
Question 20:
Your team practices acceptance test-driven development. What happens during the second phase of
the cycle?
• Gets the test ready to be entered into the acceptance test tool
• Test initially fail because the code hasn’t been written completely
• Developers as the product owner questions that are designed to gather acceptance criteria
• Testing scrips and demonstrations of the software
In the second cycle of acceptance test-driven development, distill test in a framework friendly
format – gets the test ready to be entered into the acceptance test tool.

Quiz 23: Agile Stakeholder Engagement

Question 1:
Collaboration is key in agile projects. Which of the following is not a benefit of collaboration?
• Generates wiser decisions
• Experimental
• Promotes action
• Builds social capital
The benefits of collaboration include generating wiser decisions, promotes problem-solving,
promotes action, builds social capital, and ownership of collective problems.
Question 2:
A work environment can be a green or a red zone. Which of the following is not representative of a
green zone?
• Seeks solutions
• Ignores feedback
• Firm, but not rigid
• Not easily threatened
In a green zone, feedback is welcomed.
Question 3:
A work environment can be a green or red zone. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a
red zone?
• Blames others
• Seeks excellence
• Short-term advantage
• Must win at any cost
Seeking excellence is a characteristic of a green zone
Question 4:
Sue is leading her team. During a meeting for the project, Sue notices her team isn’t inviting
feedback, they’re not listening, they respond defensively, and they’re not seeing the bigger picture.
What is this an example of?
• Crystal clear
• Red zone

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 • Crystal orange
• Green zone
Red zone means the team is not working well together and keeping an agile mindset. They can do
the mechanics of agile, but it's the needed collaboration and agile mindset that will make a project
successful.
Question 5:
Interpersonal skills are helpful in agile environments. Which of the following is not an interpersonal
skill for agile projects?
• Uncovering problems
• Emotional intelligence
• Conflict resolution
• Negotiation
Interpersonal skills for agile projects include emotional intelligence, active listening, facilitation
techniques, negotiation, conflict resolution, and participatory decision making.
Question 6:
As a leader, emotional intelligence can help you better work with your team. What is emotional
intelligence?
• Knowledge of one’s own character and motivation
• An awareness of your own feelings and desires
• Taking responsibility for your behavior
• The capability of a person to manage his/her emotions and the emotions of others.
Emotional intelligence refers to the capability of a person to manage and control his or her
emotions and possess the ability to control the emotions of others as well.
Question 7:
As a leader, emotional intelligence can help you better work with your team. What are the quadrants
of emotional intelligence?
• Self-management, self-awareness, social skills, influence
• Self-control, self-awareness, social skills, influence
• Self-management, self-awareness, social skills, social awareness
• Self-management, emotional self-awareness, influence, empathy
Self-management, self-awareness, social skills, social awareness
Question 8:
As a leader, emotional intelligence can help you better work with your team. Empathy,
organizational awareness, and understanding the environment are part of which emotional
intelligence quadrant?
• Social skills
• Social awareness
• Self-management
• Self-awareness
Empathy, organizational awareness, and understanding the environment are part of the social
awareness quadrant.
Question 9:
As a leader, emotional intelligence can help you better work with your team. Self-confidence,
emotional self-awareness, and accurate self-assessment are characteristics of which emotional
intelligence quadrant?
• Social awareness
• Social skills
• Self-management
• Self-awareness
Self-confidence, emotional self-awareness, and accurate self-assessment are characteristics of the
self-awareness quadrant.

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Question 10:
Many projects deal with negotiation. When do negotiations happen?
• At the beginning of the project
• At the end of the project
• In the middle of the project
• Throughout the project
Negotiations happen throughout the project.
Question 11:
Depending on the project, customer collaboration can be an important part. What form of customer
collaboration reduces the impact?
• Ameliorate
• Cover
• Resolve
• Accept
Ameliorate reduces the impact
Question 12:
Depending on the project, customer collaboration can be an important part. What form of customer
collaboration eliminates it once and for all?
• Cover
• Avoid
• Accept
• Resolve
Resolve eliminates it once and for all.
Question 13:
Even though your team has been working together for months, conflicts still arise as the project
continues. What is the name of a level one conflict?
• Disagreement
• Problem to solve
• Contest
• Crusade
A level one conflict is called a problem to solve.
Question 14:
Even though your team has been working together for months, conflicts still arise as the project
continues. What is the name of a conflict that has ideological language?
• Problem to solve
• Crusade
• Contest
• Disagreement
A crusade has ideological language.
Question 15:
Even though your team has been working together for months, conflicts still arise as the project
continues. What level is a conflict that’s characterized by its need to win more than resolve the
conflict?
• Crusade
• Contest
• Disagreement
• Problem to solve
A contest is characterized by the need to win so much that it trumps resolving the conflict.
Question 16:
Even though your team has been working together for months, conflicts still arise as the project
continues. Which of the following is not a conflict resolution method?
• Withdraw/Avoid
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 • Direct/Reconcile
• Collaborate/Problem Solve
• Compromise/Reconcile
Conflict resolution methods include withdraw/avoid, smooth/accommodate, compromise/reconcile,
force/direct, and collaborate/problem-solve.
Question 17:
Conflict resolution and decision making is a key part of leading a team. What is convergence?
• Testers exploring the application to identify potential edge cases.
• Combined data modeling
• A collective agreement
• Participating decision-making models in for conversions for collective agreements
Convergence is participating decision making models in for conversions for collective agreements
Question 18:
You want to be the leader of a high-performing team. Which of the following is not a characteristic
of high-performing teams?
• Set realistic goals
• Provide strong relationship
• Team size is 12+
• Build a sense of team identity
A high performing team is 12 or fewer people.
Question 19:
You want to be the leader of a self-organizing team. Which statement best describes a self-
organizing team?
• Command and control, uses their own knowledge to organize work, responsibility delegated
to the team
• Not command and control, uses their own knowledge to organize work, responsibility
delegated to the team
• The award stage, where the contract is awarded, is related to the Conduct Procurements
process.
• Two of the outputs of the Plan Procurement Management process are inputs to the Conduct
Procurements process.
A self-organizing team isn’t command and control, uses their own knowledge to organize work,
responsibility delegated to the team
Question 20:
You want to be the leader of a self-directing team. Which statement best describes self-directing
teams?
• Make mistakes, estimate project work, and work collectively
• Make local decisions and decide project work
• Empowered to work collectively, make local decisions, estimate and decide the project
work, and make mistakes but learn from mistakes
• Make mistakes but learn from them
Self-directing teams are empowered to work collectively, make local decisions, estimate and decide
the project work, and make mistakes but learn from mistakes.

Quiz 24: Agile Project Risk and Issues Overview

Question 1:
Julie is a product manager responsible for a line of smart water bottles that connect to a mobile app
to capture data and provide suggestions regarding your drinking habits. Julie meets with the Scrum
team to talk through a major issue that threatens the latest release. Together, the team decides to
focus collectively on the issue at hand until it is resolved. What is this an example of?
• Collaboration
• Value-focused work
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 • Issue management
• Swarming
Swarming is a strategy where the team, or several team members, focus collectively on resolving a
blocker.
Question 2:
An agile approach can alleviate issues that result when high uncertainty exists. Which statement
below shows a pain point that Agile addresses under these circumstances?
• Unclear purpose and unclear requirements
• Low defects and unclear purpose
• Unclear requirements and low defects
• Technical debt, unclear purpose, and unclear requirements
Project teams may experience many pain points when a project contains a high degree of
uncertainty, change, and complexity. Agile approaches directly address these pain points by
performing activities such as creating clear team charters, among other activities.
Question 3:
After reaching the end of a sprint, the Scrum team met to talk through what went well and what
could be improved. One engineer noted that the recent changes to daily stand-ups were working.
Which of the following describes the actions that the Scrum team carried out?
• Facilitated a collaboration session and a sprint retrospective
• Facilitated sprint planning
• Facilitated a sprint retrospective and a process improvement
• Facilitated process improvement
The Scrum team held a sprint retrospective. In Scrum, this meeting is held at the end of every sprint
and allows the team to identify what went well during the recent sprint and what could have gone
better, and they commit to improving at least one thing in the upcoming sprint. They are a
combination of lessons learned and process improvement.
Question 4:
If requirements aren’t defined from the beginning, there’s a chance new additions will fall into the
mix. What is this an example of?
• Highly predictive
• Crystal clear
• Scope creep
• Waterfall method
Scope creep is a common issue when requirements aren’t properly defined from the start.
Question 5:
If requirements are not properly defined from the start, when features are being built, there’s a good
chance new additions that were not originally agreed on will slip into the mix, leading to scope
creep. Which of the following is not a method for preventing scope creep?
• Prepare a clearly detailed scope of the project
• Get stakeholders to sign off on the agreement
• Create a vague task description
• Monitor the project progress against the scope
Prevent scope creep by preparing a clearly detailed scope of the project, defining requirement
specifications and acceptance criteria, getting the stakeholders to sign off on this scope agreement,
determining what requirements need to be involved in the phase you are working on vs. future
phases or versions, developing and implementing a change control process that the stakeholders
are aware of and agree to, monitoring the project progress against the scope.
Question 6:
You are creating the project’s budget and schedule for your team. What common issue deals with
the project’s schedule?
• Phase sequencing
• Timeline planning
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 • Scope creep
• Program management
Another important aspect of a project is the timeline that is set for it. This timeline can be
determined based on the number of available resources to do the work and the amount of effort it
will take to meet the requirements of the project. Like any schedule planning, things can go awry
that may delay the progress of a project causing it to finish late or sooner than planned.
Question 7:
A new project is about to begin, and you’re looking at all of the requirements. Hours, resources,
quality, and value are all factors that affect what part of a project?
• Timeline
• Scope
• Budget
• Risks
If the true effort to do the work is accurately determined. This can be used to estimate the budget
based on hours and resources. Quality and value are also other factors that can be considered for a
budget estimate. Creating the budget and tracking the cost throughout the project progress is
important.
Question 8:
What is a BART?
• A techique to track issues using post-its on the wall
• The information documented to the PJ’s sponsor
• A technique to help optimize life-cycle costs
• A BART analysis evaluates four dimension of team dynamics: boundary, authority, role and
task analysis. Agile coach Dan Mezick (Mezick, 2009) applied BART to Scrum
For example, a Boundary Authority Role Task (BART) can be used to identify problems with team
dynamics, and the pain snake can be used to determine the root cause of interruptions. A BART
analysis evaluates four dimensions of team dynamics: boundary, authority, role, and task analysis.
Agile coach Dan Mezick (Mezick, 2009) applied BART to Scrum.
Question 9:
A new project is about to begin, and you’re looking at all of the requirements. When are the
elements of a project scope agreed upon?
• At the launch of the project
• At the launch of each iteration
• At the end of each iteration
• Before the project begins
In an adaptive or agile life cycle, the project scope and the deliverables are defined through
iterations of planning and executing. The elements of the project scope are agreed upon at the
launch of each iteration.
Question 10:
Sue is hosting a meeting to create an iteration backlog for the current sprint. The meeting will also
identify any assumptions, risks, and activity dependencies for ordering, and it will assign actions to
the project team. What is this meeting called?
• Project kickoff
• A sprint planning session
• Sprint launch
• Work planning meeting
A sprint planning session has a goal to identify any assumptions, risks, and activity dependencies
for ordering, and it will assign actions to the project team.
Question 11:
Unlike predictive life cycle projects, agile projects usually don’t have which of the following?
• The explanation for how benefits will be created, maximized, and sustained by the project
• The in-depth planning and estimating approaches
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 • Critical success factors of the project
• An outcome of actions, behaviors, products, services, or results
Agile projects usually don’t have the in-depth planning and estimating approaches that predictive
life cycle projects use.
Question 12:
You’re about to perform a quality review. In agile and adaptive environments, when are quality
reviews performed?
• At the end of the project
• A month after the project
• At the beginning of each iteration
• They are built into the process
In order to navigate changes, agile methods call for frequent quality and review steps built in
throughout the project rather than toward the end of the project.
Question 13:
You’re about to perform a quality review. Quality — in agile projects — is based on what?
• The number of stories
• Creating business value
• Meeting customer needs
• Meeting the project requirements
Quality in agile projects is still about meeting the project requirements.
Question 14:
Sue leads a PMO that is in the process of shifting the organization from using predictive to more
adaptive approaches to delivering project outcomes. While coaching one of her project managers on
Agile practices, she explains that Agile teams focus on rapid product development. What reason is
Sue likely to provide for carrying out this approach?
• Rapid product development allows for a reduced amount of change.
• Rapid product development allows for globalization of the project team.
• Rapid product development allows for early project completion.
• Rapid product development allows the team to obtain feedback.
One of the benefits of Agile approaches is the ability to obtain feedback continuously throughout
the project. This allows the team to incorporate the feedback early.
Question 15:
Frank is a project manager performing Closing activities. He is currently focused on looking at the
highest business value items first. What life cycle is Frank using to deliver his project?
• Highly predictive
• Adaptive
• Highly adaptive
• Waterfall
Frank is using a highly adaptive (Agile) life cycle, where Closing activities involve addressing the
highest business value items first versus closing out the project or phase as in a highly predictive
life cycle.
Question 16:
In agile, what’s a communication consideration that’s not looked at with added value?
• Documentation
• Meetings
• Rules
• Transparent communication
Documentation is not considered an added value in agile projects.
Question 17:
Communication is vital in any project. Which of the following is not an accurate representation of
communication in agile environments?
• Face-to-face
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 • Formal
• Fast
• Transparent
Communication in an agile environment is often more face-to-face and informal, but it’s still
important to keeping the project moving forward. Agile communication must be fast, accurate, and
transparent.
Question 18:
Issues must be resolved in order for a project to move forward. Which of the following is not a
tactic agile coaches use to resolve issues?
• He/She attempts to limit outside interference in the team’s work.
• He/She can also facilitate moving a newly formed team from a group of the individual team
members into a self-organizing team.
• He/She has a selection of tools, techniques, and methods for educating the organization on
agile practices and supporting the team and the Product Owner in identifying and resolving
problems and conflicts.
• They help align stakeholders
The Agile Coach also resolves issues for the team and attempts to limit outside interference in the
team’s work. Experienced Agile Coaches have a selection of tools, techniques, and methods for
educating the organization on agile practices and supporting the team and the Product Owner in
identifying and resolving problems and conflicts. They can help to avoid issues such as identifying
the root cause for interruptions or too many unplanned tasks. They can support the group through
the stages of development from unwilling to willing team members and from inexperienced to
confident team members.
Question 19:
You’re creating a plan for the largest agile project of your career, so far. What are the four themes
to manage when setting up large agile projects?
• People, product owners, ground rules, process
• Process, practices, product, project
• Process, product, planning, process
• People, project, product, process
There are four themes to manage when setting up large agile projects: people, product, project, and
process.
Question 20:
Issues have to be resolved in order for a project to move forward. When issues arise with the team,
stakeholders, or customers, what should the project manager do?
• Pause the iteration
• Review the Kanban board
• Host a retrospective
• Review the agile manifesto
When issues arise with the team, stakeholders, or customers, hold a retrospective and tune the
processes. Review often what is working well and worth repeating, what could use optimizing, and
what should never be repeated. There is no cookbook for going agile. Options have to be tried and
then process adapted as you go.

End of Course Assessment Exam

Question 1:
Jack is training a new project manager, Charles, on the procurement processes at their firm. Jack
informs Charles that as the project manager, he is expected to participate in the negotiations of a
contract. Charles asks why this is the case when the firm has a centralized procurement office. What
should Jack’s response be?
• The project manager always has authority over the contract terms.
• The project manager should set the price of a contract.

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 • The project manager should protect the relationship with the seller.
• The project manager should be present only to introduce the seller to the staff in the
procurement office.

Overall explanation
The project manager should participate in the negotiation stage of a contract to protect the
relationship with the seller. The contract must be beneficial for the buyer and the seller to protect
the quality of the project, but also the relationship between the seller and the buyer. The project
manager does not always have authority over the contract terms. This is especially true if the firm
has a centralized procurement office. The project manager cannot always set the price of a
contract. Price is one of the key elements that is often negotiated. The buyer and seller should work
together to set a price that is beneficial for both parties. The project manager will likely connect the
seller to the procurement office, but the project manager’s role should be much stronger than this.
The project manager should work in the negotiation stage to maintain a beneficial relationship
between the buyer and seller.
Question 2:
In a weekly meeting with your project’s sponsor, you are informed that a large portion of the scope
will be cut from the project. The work that was to be done was originally going to be provided with
a contractor. The contract has already been signed by your organization and the contractor. What
should you do first?
• Review the contract terms with your procurement office.
• Tell the contractor to stop all work.
• Tell the procurement office not to issue payment to the contractor.
• Issue payment for the work that has been provided, but not for the work that hasn’t been
done yet.
• Overall explanation
• While all of these options seem good, none of these are appropriate until you review
the contract terms. Ideally, the contract terms should be reviewed with someone
from the procurement office or with a legal understanding. Depending on the terms,
you may be able to tell the contractor to stop work, you might not need to issue any
payment, or you may only need to issue partial payment. However, it is impossible
to know what the options are until the contract is reviewed.
Overall explanation
While all of these options seem good, none of these are appropriate until you review the contract
terms. Ideally, the contract terms should be reviewed with someone from the procurement office or
with a legal understanding. Depending on the terms, you may be able to tell the contractor to stop
work, you might not need to issue any payment, or you may only need to issue partial payment.
However, it is impossible to know what the options are until the contract is reviewed.

Question 3:
What is the main purpose of team ground rules?
• Supervisors know what to refer to when reprimanding their direct reports.
• The ground rules ensure that no one is late to meetings.
• The ground rules ensure that the project does not exceed the budget.
• The ground rules make the team aware of what is expected of them.

Overall explanation
Team ground rules make the expectations of team members very clear. With clear ground rules in
place, team members know what is expected of them. While supervisors may bring up a violation of
the team rules, this is not the primary purpose of the team ground rules. Stipulating team ground
rules does not ensure that they will be enforced. Team members may still violate these ground rules.
Team ground rules are typically used to eliminate conflicts within the team and are not used to
control the budget.
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Question 4:
You are having lunch with Martha, another project manager at your firm, when she mentions her
team’s charter. She asks what the process is for altering a team charter. What will you tell her?
• Altering the team charter requires an approved change request in the integrated change
control process.
• The team charter cannot be altered once the project has begun.
• The team charter can only be altered by the project manager when the project is underway.
• The team charter can be altered by any team member at any time.

Overall explanation
The team charter is a working document that the entire project team owns and can alter at any
point in time. Making a change to the team charter does not require a change request in the
integrated change control process. The integrated change control process is typically used for
adjusting project management plans that include baselines such as the cost baseline. The team
charter should be owned and maintained by the entire team and can be altered at any point.
Question 5:
What is a potential benefit of a virtual team?
• Virtual teams are less expensive than collocated teams
• Virtual teams broaden market reach
• Virtual teams make expertise from other locations available
• Virtual teams give most organizations a text break
Overall explanation
The primary benefit of a virtual team is making expertise more widely available. Through virtual
teams, organizations can access the best expertise in the world. Virtual teams are not inherently
more or less expensive than collocated teams, nor do they broaden market research nor provide a
tax break.

Question 6:
In which situation is a virtual team necessary for a project?
• An American company is manufacturing products that will be sold in Asia.
• A niche software development project by a Spanish team requires specific development by a
full-time developer in Croatia.
• A Mexican manufacturing plant is purchasing raw materials from Brazil.
• A multinational corporation is sponsoring a project with all stakeholders in the office
headquarters.

Overall explanation
A virtual team has team members spread apart, not sharing a workspace. The developer being
located in Croatia while the other team members are located in Spain means this team is a virtual
team. The American company selling products in Asia does not imply that there is a virtual team
just because their market is in another country. A Mexican manufacturing plant purchasing raw
materials from Brazil is also not an example of a virtual team because the Brazilian material
provider is not a project team member. The multinational corporation’s project is contained in the
office headquarters, meaning the team members are collocated. Therefore, this is not a virtual
team.
Question 7:
What is the best communication tool to engage a virtual team?
• A team blog that all team members can contribute to that contains team information
• Instant messaging team members daily
• Hosting teleconference meetings
• Emailing important notices
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Overall explanation
The most engaging method of communication for a virtual team is teleconferencing. This allows
team members to speak in real-time and, actually hear, and in some cases see, their teammates. A
team blog and emailing do not allow for real-time communication. While instant messaging is great
for quick responses, it is still not always real-time and doesn’t allow for the personalization that a
teleconference would provide.
Question 8:
Which of the following is not an example of a virtual team?
• A team of software developers that are located in the United States and Polan
• A team of publishers that are located in Houston and Dallas
• A remote team of marketing agents in New your city
• A team of telemarketers who work in an office in Delhi

Overall explanation
A virtual team represents a team that is not collocated. A virtual team can be comprised of team
members in the same city. However, if the team members are not in the same space, they are a
virtual team. The telemarketers in Delhi represent a virtual team. These team members work in the
same office space. All other choices represent teams that do not share the same workspace.

Question 9:
You’re responsible for training a new junior project manager at your firm. They ask you what to
expect when managing a virtual team rather than a collocated team. Which of the following would
you not mention to the junior project manager?
• Virtual teams can have communication issues due to differences in schedules.
• Virtual teams can have communication issues due to different cultures.
• Virtual teams are often more expensive than collocated teams.
• Virtual teams can be challenging to manage due to differences in languages.
Overall explanation
Virtual teams are not necessarily more expensive than collocated teams. Managing a virtual team is
difficult and presents communication challenges due to differences in cultures, languages, and
schedules. However, one cannot assume that a virtual team is more or less expensive than a
collocated team.
Question 10:
Mikayla is a project manager with many years of experience in the construction industry. After
moving into the software development industry, she is responsible for managing her first lean, agile
project. What might she want to ensure her project team understands in a lean, agile project more so
than in a traditional, waterfall project when planning for potential problems?
• The definition of the problem
• The triggers and signals of an upcoming problem
• The roles of those involved in the problem
• The strategy for addressing the problem
Overall explanation
Because agile projects are adaptive, it is more critical to be aware of triggers and signals of an
upcoming problem. In agile projects, the scope is not defined for the entire project upfront,
meaning the team will need to have a shared understanding of what potential problems may arise
and how to get ahead of them. While understanding the definition of the problem, the roles of those
involved in the problem, and the strategy for addressing the problem are all critical in any project,
these are done similarly across agile projects and waterfall projects. Because waterfall projects
involve more scope definition upfront, the triggers and signals of an upcoming project can be better
anticipated in a waterfall project than in an agile project. Therefore, in an agile project, the team
should have a greater shared understanding of what they may look for to catch an upcoming
problem.
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Question 11:
Liza is the project manager responsible for the success of a five-phased project. The project is mid-
way through the third phase when she realizes that two major requirements compete with one
another. What is should Liza use to help evaluate what requirement is best for her project?
• The requirement that will generate the most ROI
• The requirement that is stipulated from a stakeholder with more experience
• The requirement that will shorten the schedule
• The requirement that is most aligned to the project’s business case

Overall explanation
Liza should work with the requirement that is most aligned to the business case. The requirement
that will generate the most ROI, the requirement that will shorten the schedule, and the requirement
coming from the stakeholder with more experience all have the potential to be unrelated to the
project’s rationale. The requirement that is most aligned to the project’s business case is the
requirement that is most closely related to the project’s rationale.

Question 12:
Larissa is managing a project that is over budget and has exceeded the schedule. Stakeholders are
very unhappy and team morale is low. Which of the following options is the least likely to have
contributed to this?
• Unclear project objectives
• Conflicting stakeholder needs
• Not gathering all stakeholder requirements
• Interpersonal conflict within the project team

Overall explanation
While all of these options can cause severe issues for a project, interpersonal conflict within the
team is the least likely to be the main cause. In fact, interpersonal conflict within the team is likely a
result of the other options: unclear project objectives, conflicting stakeholder needs, and missing
stakeholder requirements. These issues can all result in tension within the team and project strain.

Question 13:
What is the primary goal of facilitation?
• Guiding the group towards a shared and successful solution
• Recording meeting minutes for future reference
• Ensuring that all attendees can attend the meeting as scheduled
• Making sure that everyone speaks at least once
Overall explanation
The primary goal of facilitation is ensuring that the group reaches a solution or decision. While
ensuring that everyone can participate is helpful, the purpose of doing this is to ensure that a
decision is made and everyone is aware of the decision. Recording meeting minutes and having
everyone in attendance is helpful, however, this is not the objective of facilitation.

Question 14:
Nathan, an experienced software developer, has been asked to step in and facilitate a meeting for
the project manager who is out sick. Which of the following is not expected of Nathan as the
facilitator?
• Helping the group reach consensus around a decision
• Ensuring that there is effective participation across team members
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 • Allowing all, even critical, contributions to be heard
• Providing technical knowledge to inform decisions
Overall explanation
The facilitator is responsible for helping the group reach consensus around a decision, maintaining
effective participation across team members, and allowing all contributions to be heard--including
negative or critical feedback. The facilitator is not responsible for technical contributions. While
Nathan is a software developer, the facilitator is not expected to have technical knowledge.

Question 15:
Midway through the negotiation of a contract, your project sponsor asks that a relatively small
feature be added to the scope. How should you proceed?
• Email the contractor letting them know that the scope has been changed.
• Mention this scope addition in a call with the contractor after the contract has been signed.
• Issue a new contract that includes this scope change for the vendor to sign.
• Tell the project sponsor that this addition to scope cannot be accommodated.

Overall explanation
Because the contract is not yet finalized, this addition to the scope should be included in the
contract for the contractor to sign off on. Simply mentioning it to the contractor in an email is not
enough to ensure that the new scope is added. The expectation should be clearly stated in a
contract that has been signed by both parties. Bringing up the scope in a meeting after the contract
is not appropriate. The contractor is not obligated to perform the work if it is not clearly stated in
the contract. Because the contract has not yet been signed, the project’s scope can be changed and
the project sponsor’s request should be accommodated.

Question 16:
Which of the following is not a reason to include the project manager in a contract’s negotiation?
• The project manager represents the best interests of both the buyer and the seller.
• The project manager can prevent future contract changes by responding to bidders’
questions upfront.
• The project manager can help vet the sellers’ abilities to successfully deliver the project’s
deliverables.
• The project manager can write the contract.

Overall explanation
The project manager should not write the contract between a buyer and a seller. The procurement
office is responsible for writing a contract. The project manager should be present in the
negotiation stage to protect the best interests of both the buyer and the seller. The project manager
should also be present to answer any of the bidders’ questions about the project. This will prevent
changes to the contract in the future if these questions can be addressed initially. The project
manager can also attest to a seller’s suitability and skillset. The project manager should understand
all aspects of the project and what sellers can or cannot perform adequately to meet the project’s
goals.

Question 17:
Janet is responsible for negotiating a high-profile, $20,000,000 project for her agency. She has
identified a contractor and must negotiate the terms. Which of the following is she likely to
negotiate first?
• Schedule
• Price
• Scope
• Risk
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Overall explanation
The scope should be evaluated and negotiated first. This is because the price, schedule, and risks
are dependent on the scope. Therefore, schedule, price, and risk should be negotiated after the
scope.
Question 18:
Craig is a junior software developer with relatively low influence at your organization. However,
Craig is extraordinarily interested in a web design project that you are managing. In fact, Craig
worked on a very similar project at his previous organization. Craig’s project was fraught with risk,
but his team was able to deliver the project’s deliverables successfully. How would you best
manage Craig’s engagement as a stakeholder?
• Ensure that you understand what Craig needs, include him in all team meetings, and ensure
he receives project reports.
• Train Craig on the technical requirements for the project.
• Meet with Craig periodically and keep him informed of risk reviews.
• Invite Craig to help analyze project risks.

Overall explanation
Because Craig has little influence, he should not be included in all team meetings nor receiving all
project reports. Ideally, Craig will be able to provide information on risk analysis. After Craig
helps the team analyze the project list, his involvement with the project should decrease and he
should not need to attend periodic meetings. Craig does not require training as he is very familiar
with the technical work.

Question 19:
Your PMO has asked you to provide a stakeholder engagement plan by the end of the week. What
should you be sure to include in your stakeholder engagement plan?
• When communication needs to be shared with stakeholders
• How communication needs to be shared with stakeholders
• Why certain information needs to be shared with stakeholders.
• What information needs to be shared with stakeholders.

Overall explanation
The purpose of the stakeholder engagement plan is to express why information needs to be
communicated to certain stakeholders and how that information will manage stakeholders’
expectations and engagement. When communication is shared, how it is shared, and what
information is shared is expressed in the communications management plan, not the stakeholder
engagement plan.

Question 20:
Your software project is getting a record number of change requests. The development team is
beginning to feel fatigued by constantly changing course. What likely went wrong?
• The developers do not possess the skills required to execute the project.
• Stakeholders were not identified or engaged in the planning stages.
• There is a problem in the integrated change control process.
• The project manager lacks the authority to successfully manage the project.

Overall explanation
While all of these choices are plausible, more than likely some stakeholders were not identified or
engaged in the planning stages of the project. Should stakeholders have been engaged early on, the
scope would have been well defined and the team would not be receiving many change requests.
Change requests are very rarely due to a problem with developers’ skills. Change requests are
typically a result of incomplete scope or functionality that needs to be corrected. While it is possible
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that there is a problem within the integrated change control process or that the project manager
does not have sufficient authority to manage the project, the volume of change requests is not tied
to the project manager’s authority.

Question 21:
Jesse’s project is a multi-national project with hundreds of stakeholders. Of course, there is not
enough time for Jesse to meet with every stakeholder individually. Which stakeholder should Jesse
prioritize meeting with?
• An influential stakeholder who is resistant to the project
• The project sponsor who is very supportive of the project
• The engineers who will be completing the project work
• A new employee who requires technical training to contribute to the project

Overall explanation
Jesse should prioritize meeting with the stakeholder who is resistant to the project. This individual
influences the project and should be reassured by Jesse to ensure that the project is successful.
Negative influence has the potential to disrupt a project. Therefore, Jesse should meet with this
stakeholder to prevent any disruption and learn why the stakeholder is resistant, and try to work
with them. Because the project sponsor is already supportive, there is no need to invest much time
in meeting with this stakeholder. While the work of the engineers and employees is critical, Jesse
will not have time to meet with all stakeholders with little influence.
Question 22:
Theresa is facilitating a meeting with four developers. The goal of the meeting is to reach a
consensus regarding a technical path for delivering a new software feature. Which of the following
not a result of consensus?
• All four developers agree on one technical path.
• Three developers agree on one technical path and the fourth does not support the decision
but is willing to accept the decision.
• The team cannot agree, so the project manager must decide for the team.
• Two developers support one option while the other two support another. One group is
willing to try the other group’s suggestion.
Overall explanation
Without agreement and willingness to support a decision, there is no consensus. Therefore, the
team not reaching an agreement, and having the project manager decide for them is not consensus.
All in agreement or all willing to at least support a decision is an example of consensus. The group
of two being willing to try out the other group’s suggestion is an example of consensus.
Question 23:
You are onboarding a new project manager to your software development firm. You are explaining
how the teams decompose their work into user stories. Which of the following is an example of a
user story?
• Notes from a meeting with the project sponsor that contains project requirements.
• An issue noted in the project’s issue log that needs to be resolved.
• A work ticket stating “As a software user, I want this button to be clickable so that I can
access the webpage.”
• An entry in the WBS dictionary containing all information for one work package.

Overall explanation
A user story is a short description of a feature told from the perspective of the user. Therefore, a
work ticket stating “As a software user, I want this button to be clickable so that I can access the
webpage,” is an example of a user story. Notes from a meeting do not qualify as a user story. An
issue in the issue log is also not an example of a user story as it is not a request from the user. An
entry in the WBS dictionary is not an example of a user story because it is also not written from the
perspective of the user.
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Question 24:
The head of your quality assurance department, Stephanie, has just inspected a prototype of a work
package ahead of meeting with the customer. Stephanie has informed you that the prototype looks
good, and she expects the customer to be pleased. At this point:
• The prototype is a verified deliverable.
• The prototype is a validated deliverable.
• The project is complete as soon as the prototype is given to the customer.
• No more change requests can be received.
Overall explanation
At this point, the prototype is a verified deliverable. A verified deliverable is a deliverable that has
been completed before meeting with a customer. This is not a validated deliverable, because it has
not yet been accepted by the customer. The project will not be complete when the prototype is
delivered to the customer, because several other processes need to take place (IE: archiving
documents) before a project can be closed. Change requests could also still be received at this
point. This is especially true if the customer is not pleased with the deliverable. Change requests
can happen at any point in the project before a deliverable has been validated by the customer.
Question 25:
Curtis is an intern shadowing you at your consulting firm. You are reviewing project management
processes and practices with him when he asks you who should validate the scope of a project.
What will you tell Curtis?
• The project manager must validate the scope.
• The customer must validate the scope.
• The head of the PMO must validate the scope.
• Either the customer or project sponsor can validate the scope.

Overall explanation
Only the customer or project sponsor can validate the scope of a project. Scope validation is when
the customer or project sponsor formally accepts the deliverables of a project. Neither the project
manager nor PMO can formally accept the project deliverables as this must always be done by the
customer or project sponsor.

Question 26:
Phoebe, your project sponsor, has asked you to relate the project requirements and activities to the
project’s strategic objectives. What could you send Phoebe that contains this information?
• Scope statement
• Requirements traceability matrix
• Context diagram
• Mind map
Overall explanation
The requirements traceability matrix will contain information that relates to project requirements
and strategic objectives. While helpful, a context diagram does not relate the project requirements
to the strategic objectives; it simply defines the scope. Similar to the purpose of a context diagram,
a mind map is useful to collect requirements but does not necessarily relate them to strategic
objectives. A project’s scope statement will not necessarily explicitly state the relationship between
a project’s requirements and the strategic objective; it will simply state the scope.
Question 27:
The head of your PMO has asked you to alert them to any cost of nonconformance (chi phí không
tuân thủ) Which of the following would you need to report?
• You provide training to the entire manufacturing team to ensure quality standards are met,
totaling about $200 per staff member.
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 • You spend $400 to circulate a survey to customers to measure satisfaction.
• A customer voids a $100 purchase order and decides to do business with a competitor.
• Your firm hires a team of researchers for $20,000 to evaluate areas of the organization that
can be improved.
Overall explanation
The voiding of a purchase order by a customer is an example of a cost of nonconformance.
Nonconformance costs include the cost of lost business as is the case here. Training, studies, and
customer satisfaction are all examples of the cost of conformance.
Question 28:
Natasha is reviewing quality reports for her manufacturing project. Upon studying the reports, she
begins to question the validity and accuracy of these reports. What should Natasha do next?
• Perform a quality audit.
• Submit a change request.
• Train the project team in quality principles.
• Revise quality metrics.
Overall explanation
Natasha should perform a quality audit. In the future, she may need to submit a change request,
train the team in quality principles, or revise quality metrics. However, she cannot determine what
needs to be done until she conducts a quality audit.

Question 29:
In managing a software development project, you realize that your project is slipping behind
schedule. You do not have many funds left in the budget, but some of the activities in the schedule
can be done in differing orders. What is the best option for getting this project back on schedule?
• The project cannot get back on schedule without extra funding for hiring.
• Cut scope out of the project.
• Fast track some of the activities.
• Hire more software developers.
Overall explanation
You should fast track some of the activities. Because funds are low, you cannot hire more
developers. You should not cut scope out of the project when you could easily mitigate the problem
by fast-tracking some of the activities. The project can be brought back on schedule if activities are
fast-tracked.

Question 30:
Nikki is evaluating the network diagram and comparing this to the project schedule and milestone
plans. She is worried about falling behind schedule, so she decides to bring on some extra staff to
ensure that the project is not late. This is an example of:
• Resource leveling
• Resource smoothing
• Fast-tracking
• Crashing

Overall explanation
This is an example of crashing. Crashing refers to adding or resources to compress the schedule.
This is not an example of fast-tracking because fast-tracking means that tasks are done in parallel.
This is not an example of resource smoothing or leveling because resource leveling or smoothing
reduces the time that a resource is on a project.
Question 31:
Carrie is reviewing her project’s network diagram and she comes across a task that can be delayed 3
days without impacting the delivery milestone date. This task is said to have:
• Total float

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 • Free float
• Project float
• Lead

Overall explanation
This task has total float. Total float refers to a task that has room to be delayed without impacting
the target completion date of the project or milestone. This is not free float because free float refers
to a delay between two tasks. This example specifically references the milestone delivery date, not a
task. The same is the case for the project float. Project float refers to how much a task can be
delayed before impacting the customer. Because the example references a milestone date, this
would not necessarily impact the customer. This is not an example of lead, because we do not know
if this task can start without the completion of the task before it.
Question 32:
If a task requires waiting until its predecessor is complete before it can be started, it is said that the
task has:
• Lead
• Lag
• Free float
• Project float

Overall explanation
A task that must wait for its predecessor to complete before it can be started has lag. There is no
lead here because lead implies that a task can begin without waiting for its predecessor to finish.
We cannot say if there is evidence of float here without knowing the specific duration of the tasks in
the network diagram and understanding how they relate to one another.
Question 33:
In estimating durations with your project team, you must calculate the expected duration with a beta
distribution. Your senior technical architect tells you that more than likely, the activity will take 8
days. He is hopeful that he can get it done in 6, however worst-case scenario, it is done in 14 days.
What is the beta distribution estimate for this work?
• 9.33 days
• 8.66 days
• 28 days
• 8 days
Overall explanation
This beta distributed estimated duration is 8.66 days. The beta distribution is calculated by
multiplying the most likely case by 4 (4 * 8) then adding the optimistic and pessimistic estimates (6
days and 14 days) then dividing that sum by 6.
Question 34:
Your project has a CPI of 1.3 and the SPI is 0.5. How should you proceed?
• Do nothing as your project is currently under budget and ahead of schedule.
• Suggest that additional labor is hired to speed up delivery.
• Remove contracted labor as you are over budget.
• Give the team some time off because you are ahead of schedule.
Overall explanation
You should suggest that additional labor is hired. Your project is under budget (CPI > 1) so you
could use additional funds to pay for labor to speed up the project which is behind schedule (SPI <
1). You should not do nothing because your project is significantly behind schedule as is indicated
by the SPI that is less than 1. You should not remove labor because you are behind schedule and
need to catch up. Additionally, you are under budget, so you do not need to save money here. You
should not give the team time off because you are behind schedule.

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Question 35:
In monitoring your project, you’re reviewing your project’s budget report. The report informs you
that your project has a CPI of 1.2. What does this mean?
• Your project is ahead of schedule.
• Your project is behind schedule.
• Your project is under budget.
• Your project is over budget.

Overall explanation
The CPI of 1.2 tells you that your project is under budget. This is not SPI so any choices relating to
the schedule are incorrect. A CPI over 1 means that the project is under budget. A CPI under 1
means that the project is running over budget.
Question 36:
A developer on your team has pointed out a problem with the server that your project relies on to
deliver code. The server will have to be replaced. This was not foreseen in the planning stages.
What should be done about the cost of the new server?
• The new server should be paid for out of the contingency reserve.
• The new server should be paid for out of the management reserve.
• The team will have to find a workaround as they cannot purchase a new server.
• The project will have to be canceled as a new server cannot be purchased.

Overall explanation
The new server should be paid for out of the management reserve. The management reserve covers
the cost of unforeseen issues. This new server should not be charged to the contingency reserve
because this was an unforeseen issue that the team did not account for. The team does not need to
develop a workaround nor should the project be canceled. This kind of situation is addressed by a
management reserve to keep the project going on track.

Question 37:
David’s project team has been planning a project for about 2 weeks. They have a thorough
understanding of the scope and expectations. David asks the team to provide a cost estimate range
that is very refined after several rounds of discussion. What should the team provide to David?
• Rough order of magnitude estimate
• Three-point estimate
• Budget estimate
• Definitive estimate

Overall explanation
The team should provide David with a definitive estimate. A definitive estimate is typically within
+/-10% and is the most accurate estimate range. A rough order of magnitude is the least accurate
estimate range. This choice is incorrect because a rough order of magnitude is usually estimated in
the initiation stage and is not refined. The budget estimate is also not very refined. The budget
estimate is usually around -10 to +25% and is a slightly more refined estimate from the rough
order of magnitude. A three-point estimate is not a budget range. A three-point estimate is an
average of the optimistic, likely, and pessimistic cost associated with an item.
Question 38:
Which one of the following is not a key component to you passing the PMP exam?
• Preparation
• Mindset
• Dedication
• All of the above are needed

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Overall explanation
You need preparation, which you have by finishing this course. Mindset - a positive mental attitude
will help you pass, not just take, the PMP exam. Dedication - commit to doing the work, like
completing this course, is a key asset in your quest to earn the PMP. Keep moving forward!
Question 39:
Your project’s sponsor has asked that you report any indirect costs to the PMO. Which of the
following is an example of an indirect cost?
• Salaries for engineers on your project’s team
• Wood required for construction
• Bill for the pizza that you ordered for a project team party
• Cost of the internet for the office

Overall explanation
Indirect costs are costs that are incurred for more than one project or an organization’s overhead.
Therefore, the internet for the office is an example of an indirect cost. Every other option, the
salaries for the team members, the wood for the project, the pizza for the project team’s
celebration, are all examples of direct costs as they are strictly for your project.
Question 40:
Tracey’s project is underway and on track towards a successful completion after 6 months of
progress. There is one critical project constraint that stipulates that Tracey must purchase resources
from a preferred vendor, Diaz Lumber. Tracey is in the negotiation stage with Diaz Lumber when
she is informed that there will be an unexpected 3-week delay in acquiring the necessary resources.
This will impact Tracey’s planned schedule. What should Tracey do next?
• Submit a change request after assessing the impacts on the project.
• Look for a new vendor to provide the necessary resources.
• Continue to work as planned as there is nothing that can be done.
• Tell the customer that the project will be delivered 3 weeks after originally planned.
Overall explanation
Tracey must submit a change request to alter the project baselines. She should not look for a new
vendor to do business with, because she has been instructed to do business with Diaz Lumber as a
project constraint. She should not proceed without submitting the change request. Tracey should
alert the customer to any changes in the project’s completion, but she should first submit a change
request.
Question 41:
You have been instructed to deliver your project’s value as early as possible. Going over the
allotted budget is acceptable, so long as the value is delivered as soon as possible. What metric will
help you determine if you are on track to delivering value early?
• SPI
• CPI
• BAC
• EAC

Overall explanation
The SPI will help you determine if you are ahead, behind, or on schedule. The CPI will not help
here, as this specifies if the project is over, under, or on budget. The BAC and EAC are both related
to the budget, not the schedule.
Question 42:
John’s project has a schedule variance of $63,000. The planned value for his project at the 6-month
milestone is $100,000. The project has a CPI of 0.7. What is the earned value of John’s project so
far?
• $163,000
• $36,000

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 • $70,000
• $44,100

Overall explanation
The earned value can be calculated by adding the schedule variance and planned value, yielding
$163,000.
Question 43:
Kate’s project sponsor has asked her to deliver project value as quickly as possible. She is to begin
planning early next week. How should Kate deliver value, quickly?
• Manage the project with an incremental development life cycle.
• Manage the project with waterfall development.
• Ask her team to work overtime to develop a prototype.
• Contract out some development to bring in the schedule.
Overall explanation
Kate should manage the project with an incremental development life cycle. This allows for the
product to be useable earlier on. A waterfall development will take development much longer and
prevent the value from being delivered early. Asking her team to work overtime to develop a
prototype, or contracting out development, are not necessary yet as the project has not yet entered
the planning stages.
Question 44:
Your project sponsor has asked you to deliver the benefits management plan. Which of the
following will not be included in the benefits management plan?
• Intangible benefits that a project should achieve
• A plan for how benefits will be sustained
• Metrics for measuring success
• Justification for a project

Overall explanation
A benefits management plan would not include a project’s justification. Justification for a project is
included in the business case, not the benefits management plan. Intangible project benefits, a plan
for sustaining benefits, and metrics to measure a project’s success are all included in the benefits
management plan.
Question 45:
Rodrigo, a Senior Project Manager in your PMO, has asked you to send him a list of all regulations
you must be in compliance with for your project. Which of the following would be included in this
list?
• Updates to the risk register should be submitted before 12 pm on Thursdays.
• A building permit must be attained from the city hall before any construction can begin.
• A project charter must be signed by the project sponsor and COO.
• A 10% gratuity (tiền boa) should be provided to contractors when deliveries are completed
ahead of schedule.

Overall explanation
The only example of a regulation is that of attaining a building permit from the city hall. This must
be done to legally comply with the city. Updating a risk register by a certain time, signature
authority for a project charter, and gratuity stipulations are all examples of policies within an
organization. These policies are not regulations that must be complied with in order to avoid legal
action.
Question 46:
Luke is 8 weeks into a 12-week project. The team is meeting all of its goals and morale is high.
Luke’s firm is stressing the importance of compliance. What should Luke be focusing on for
compliance in his project?
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 • Defining processes and policies for his team.
• Establishing a communications plan and policy for all stakeholders.
• Monitor and control the existing processes and procedures.
• Define software usage procedures for team members.
Overall explanation
Note that Luke’s project is already underway. At this point, Luke should be monitoring and
controlling processes and procedures. Every other task like defining processes and policies,
establishing a communications plan, and defining procedures should have been done in the
planning stage of the project.
Question 47:
Which of the following represents a compliance risk?
• A strike near the panama canal threatens a PJ’s on-time delivery
• A software developer does not enable two-factor authentication in a database containing
customer’s finalcial data
• A rare material required for manufactoring may bot be available in the quantity needed
• A key technical contributor left the company for another job
Overall explanation
Every example here is an example of a risk, however, only the lack of two-factor authentication is
an example of compliance risk. This is a compliance risk because of the lack of extra security, two-
factor authentication. This is a legal risk when handling customer data. All other examples here are
general project risks, not compliance risks.
Question 48:
Your PMO has asked you to send them a document that outlines (phác thảo) how changes will be
managed and controlled. What will you send them?
• Change control system
• Configuration management plan
• Change management plan
• Requirements management plan

Overall explanation
You will send them a change management plan. A change management plan outlines how changes
will be managed and controlled. A change control system may be specified within a change
management plan, but it is not a document that contains information about how changes will be
managed and controlled. A requirements management plan specifies how requirements, not
changes, will be managed and controlled. A configuration management plan outlines naming
conventions and version control systems and conventions for documentation, not change
management.
Question 49:
In the middle of planning, Evan, a software engineer asks what the purpose of a WBS is after
planning is over. All of the following statements about a WBS are true except:
• A WBS helps control scope creep.
• A WBS helps define team members’ roles.
• A WBS determines if change requests should be approved or rejected.
• A WBS can be used as a communication tool to discuss the project.
Overall explanation
A WBS does not determine if a change request should be approved or rejected. While a WBS serves
to help evaluate the effects of a change request, it does not relegate what should be approved or
rejected. A WBS does help control scope creep, define team members’ roles, and serve as a
communication tool to discuss the project.

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Question 50:
Midway through a software development project, a programmer approaches you and lets you know
that she has found an alternate method of performing a task that will save the project and company a
great deal of money. What should you, the project manager, do next?
• Revisit this idea is the project retrospective to implement this for future projects.
• Do nothing as the project budget has already been finalized.
• Evaluate this alternate method and submit a change request.
• Implement the change to the method of performing a task since it will save money.
Overall explanation
The project manager should always evaluate any suggested changes for project impacts. Once
these impacts are assessed, the project manager should submit a change request. The project
manager should not wait until the project retrospective to discuss this because then the project
would not benefit from potential savings. The project budget can be altered through a change
request, therefore, the project manager should not do anything. The project manager should not
implement this proposed change until a change request has been submitted and approved.
Question 51:
You are presenting drafted project management plans to your supervisor. Your supervisor tells you
to “beware of the law of diminishing returns,”. What is your supervisor warning you about?
• The more time you spend on a project, the less valuable it becomes.
• The same amount of depreciation is taken out every year.
• After a certain point, adding more resources will not yield a proportional increase in
productivity.
• After you have spent the estimated project budget, the project loses value.

Overall explanation
The law of diminishing returns is a law that states that after a certain point, adding more resources
will not yield a proportional increase in productivity. This is true of all projects. Project value
concerning elapsed time or budget varies on a project by project basis. The law of diminishing
returns has nothing to do with depreciation values.
Question 52:
Mathew’s PMO is looking to be more granular in their project selection method and move to a more
mathematical approach to evaluate projects. Which project management method will be most
successful for Mathew’s PMO?
• Peer review
• Scoring models
• Murder board
• Dynamic programming
Overall explanation
The only example of a mathematical evaluation approach is dynamic programming. This is a
quantitative evaluation approach. Peer review, scoring models, and a murder board are all
examples of qualitative comparative approaches. Dynamic programming is the only option that
utilizes a formulaic approach to evaluate projects.
Question 53:
At the start of your project’s execution, you identify an opportunity to lower the interest rate for
your project. Initially, the project had a future value of $4M with an interest rate of 8% over 2 years.
You were able to negotiate the interest rate down to 5%. What is the effect on the present value of
your project?
• The present value has decreased by $199,000.
• The present value has increased by $199,000.
• The present value has increased by $3,800,000.
• The present value has increased by $3,200,000.

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Overall explanation
The present value has increased by $199,000 based on the calculations for present value. The
present value is calculated by adding the interest rate to 1 and then exponentially multiplying this
by the number of time periods. From here, the future value should be divided by this amount.
Initially, the present value would have been about $3.429M. With the new interest rate, the present
value is now about $3.629M. Therefore, the present value has increased by about $199,000.
Question 54:
Your PMO has presented you with a project, Project A, that has a present value of $1.2M. You
must decide if this project will be more valuable than an existing project, Project Z, with a future
value of $1.4M and an interest rate of 10% over 2 years. Which project is more valuable?
• Project A is more valuable as it has a higher present value.
• Project Z is more valuable as it has a higher present value.
• Project A is more valuable as it has a higher internal rate of return.
• Project Z is more valuable as it has a higher internal rate of return.
Overall explanation
Project A has a higher present value. The present value is calculated by first adding 1 to the
interest rate (r) and then exponentially multiplying this value by the number of time periods (n) -
[PV=FV/(1 + r)^n]. For Project Z, this gives us (1.10)^2, which is 1.21. Next, divide 1.4M by 1.21
which gives you a present value of about $1.15M. Therefore, Project A has a higher present value.
There is not enough information in this example to calculate the internal rate of return.
Question 55:
In a seminar at your local PMI chapter’s meeting, the topic of integration comes up. Which of the
following statements about project integration is true?
• Integration is done in all project management process groups except for closing.
• Integration is done in all project management process groups except for initiating.
• Integration is done in all project management process groups.
• Integration is done only in planning, executing, and monitoring and controlling process
groups.
Overall explanation
Integration is done in all project management process groups; it is the only knowledge area that
spans all process groups. All other statements are false.
Question 56:
Kendra is starting to begin her project planning. She has determined that her project will have a
traditional, predictive life cycle. Additionally, her sponsor and several key stakeholders have
provided her with clear, prioritized requirements. What should Kendra do next?
• Develop a schedule.
• Create an activity list.
• Create a project scope statement.
• Develop a project charter.
Overall explanation
Kendra should create a project scope statement. After the development approach has been
determined and requirements have been provided, a project scope statement should be created.
From here, the project scope statement will inform the development of a schedule and an activity
list. Note that Kendra is ready to begin planning. Therefore, the project charter should already be
developed.
Question 57:
Your PMO has tasked you with hiring a new project manager for the organization. They’ve asked
that you specifically find someone with mentorship experience. What core competency deals most
with mentorship?
• Industry-specific skills
• General management
• Project management

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 • Lengthy experience

Overall explanation
Mentorship is encompassed by general management. While other competencies can include
mentorship, mentorship is a form of general management that is not constrained by an industry,
project management, nor years of experience.
Question 58:
The COO of your software development company has asked you to develop a rough prototype
(nguyên mẫu) of a piece of software to test a proof of concept for her team. Which development
approach is best suited for this project?
• Predictive development
• Waterfall development
• Incremental development
• Hybrid development
Overall explanation
The best development approach for this project would be an incremental development approach.
This is because the COO asked for a prototype to test a proof of concept. An incremental approach
is best to deliver a usable portion of a product after a small period of development. Predictive
development, also called waterfall development, is not suitable for this project because
predictive/waterfall development requires a great deal of planning and scoping upfront. This level
of planning is not necessary when only the testing of a proof of concept is needed. Hybrid
development refers to a mix of incremental and predictive development. This is not necessary for a
project that is only to test a proof of concept.
Question 59:
Over lunch with your colleague, Bruce, the topic of iterative development arises. Bruce says that
iterative development is better than incremental development when a useable delivery is needed
early on for a project. Which of the following is true?
• Incremental development and iterative development mean the same thing and can be used
interchangeably.
• Iterative development is planned in complete detail in the planning stage, while incremental
development plans at a high level and develops the scope more and more over time.
• Incremental delivery yields a useable piece of the project in each iteration.
• Iterative delivery yields a useable piece of the project in each iteration.

Overall explanation
Incremental delivery yields a useable piece of the project in each iteration. Incremental and
iterative development have similar, but not identical definitions and therefore cannot be used
interchangeably. Iterative development means that the project is built in successive levels, but it is
not always useable in the first few iterations. Neither iterative nor incremental development
involves detailed planning in the initial stages. Detailed planning is typical of waterfall
development.
Question 60:
Jan is a humble introvert and a key performer for your team. She has recently delivered a critical
software bundle to a client on time and under budget. The client is extraordinarily impressed with
her work. As Jan’s project manager, how should you praise her work in an emotionally intelligent
way?
• At the next team meeting, give Jan a round of applause.
• Give Jan a $100 bonus for completing the project under budget.
• Have a private meeting with Jan where you thank her and express to her the importance of
her contributions.
• Mention Jan’s accomplishments in the employee newsletter.

Overall explanation
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While all of these options are nice ways to reward a high achiever, a project manager must be
emotionally intelligent enough to understand how certain team members prefer to be rewarded. Jan
being a humble introvert implies that she likely does not like public praise. Therefore, mentioning
her in a public newsletter or in front of the entire team may cause her to feel uncomfortable.
Financial incentives are helpful, but these are not emotionally intelligent rewards. Understanding
that Jan may be shy, she should be praised privately. A private discussion of her contributions is the
most appropriate praise for Jan.
Question 61:
Your PMO would like to meet with you to discuss your project team. The PMO has noticed that
your team has the lowest staff turnover in the entire organization. What is likely to be the cause of
this?
• Your team members earn higher salaries than others.
• The work that your team is responsible for is easier than other teams’ work.
• The leaders on your team are highly emotionally intelligent.
• Your team members get a bonus for each additional year they remain at the organization.
Overall explanation
Emotional intelligence leads to less staff turnover. Highly emotional team leaders will retain
employees for longer. Financial incentives like higher salaries and annual bonuses do not relate to
a lack of turnover. The difficulty of the work that a team does is not related to turnover. The
difficulty of work is also subjective to those doing the work.
Question 62:
Jason wants to improve his emotional intelligence while still reward (phần thưởng) the team for
their hard work and keep them on track to deliver the project on time. What is the best way Jason
can reward his team?
• Promise his team a $500 bonus at the end of the project.
• Gather the team and individually thank each team member for their important contributions.
• Let the supervisors of each team member know how well each team member is doing.
• Reward the top 2 contributors of the team with an early dismissal on Friday.

Overall explanation
Jason should gather the team and individually thank each team member and stress the importance
of their contributions. This is a clear example of demonstrating emotional intelligence while
praising and rewarding the team. While the team may like a bonus at the end, this is not
demonstrative of emotional intelligence. The team’s supervisors should know about their good
work, however, this is not emotional intelligence on Jason’s part. Rewarding a subset of the team is
rarely a good idea. This may cause conflict within the team and derail the project.
Question 63:
Which of the following is not a direct result of emotional intelligence?
• Reduced tension within the team
• Increased cooperation within the team
• Increased productivity within the team
• Increased trust within the team
Overall explanation
Emotional intelligence does not directly result in increased productivity. Emotional intelligence
results in reduced tension, increased cooperation, and increased trust within the team. While
productivity may increase tangentially through emotional intelligence, it is not a direct result.
Question 64:
Jennifer is an emotionally-intelligent team leader. Which of the following conflict resolution
techniques is she most likely to embody?
• Smoothing
• Withdrawal
• Forcing

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 • Compromising
Overall explanation
Emotionally intelligent leaders are more likely to use a smoothing conflict resolution technique.
Smoothing involves making some concessions but focuses on an agreement. Withdrawal, forcing,
and compromising all result in a “lose-lose” for those involved in the conflict. With smoothing,
there is likely to be more involvement by all parties and result in some form of agreement.
Question 65:
Which of the following elements does not relate to emotional intelligence?
• Communication
• Observation
• Authority
• Interpersonal skills
Overall explanation
Authority is not related to emotional intelligence. Emotional intelligence utilizes observation,
communication, and interpersonal skills to understand and manage emotions.
Question 66:
In a planning meeting, Jill asks “how can we lower the project cost and still achieve the same
scope?”. What kind of analysis is Jill conducting?
• Quality analysis
• Value analysis
• Stakeholder analysis
• Scope analysis
Overall explanation
Jill is conducting a value analysis. Value analysis refers to trying to get the most scope for the least
financial spend. There is no reference to quality nor stakeholder analysis in this example. While this
example does refer to scope, the comparison between scope and cost is directly related to value.
Question 67:
Your teammate, Dan, has expressed his interest in mentoring a junior developer. He asks you what
the most important element of a successful mentorship is. What would you tell him?
• A trusting relationship between the mentor and mentee is critical.
• You must have technical expertise to ensure that your mentee will learn from you.
• Your mentee must be your direct report.
• You must be able to commit several hours a week to mentorship.
Overall explanation
The most important element to a successful mentorship is a trusting relationship between the
mentor and mentee. Mentorship is not restricted to a supervisor and direct report relationship. A
mentorship can exist between any individuals. Technical expertise is not a requirement of
mentorship. A mentor can demonstrate any kind of quality, for example, professionalism, that a
mentee can learn. A mentorship is not restricted to technical expertise. Mentorship does not have to
require a great deal of time. Mentorship should be organic and natural. It is not necessarily on a
set schedule.
Question 68:
Which of the following is an example of mentorship?
• John’s supervisor enrolls him in a course to learn a new programming language
• Jose attends an industry-wide conference
• Brittany meets regularly with Beth to learn more about a career path in finalcial planning
• Sarah has been hired as an intern by a well-renowned business consultant
Overall explanation
Keep in mind that mentorship leads to career clarity and confidence. Therefore, the best example of
mentorship here is Brittany learning about the financial planning career path from Beth. John
learning a new programming language is an example of training, not mentorship. Training results
in a new skillset. Jose attending a conference will likely result in him learning about an industry,
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but is not personalized as mentorship is. Sarah’s internship will likely result in new knowledge for
her, but we cannot assume that she will be mentored by the consultant who hired her.
Question 69:
Katelyn wants to ensure that her team members receive appropriate mentorship. She approaches
you because she does not know how to begin the mentorship process. What would you tell her?
• Wait for a team member to approach you asking to be mentored.
• Conduct 360-degree assessments of team members.
• Register the project team to attend an industry conference.
• Tell each project team members’ supervisor to continue training their reports.
Overall explanation
The most effective first step in mentorship is to conduct a 360-degree assessment. This allows each
individual to assess their own strengths and weaknesses. Katelyn can then use this information to
determine where mentorship would be the most impactful. Katelyn should not wait for a team
member to approach her and ask for mentorship. Often, people are not aware of their weaknesses
and would therefore not know to ask for any mentorship. While industry conferences can be very
enlightening, enrolling your team members as conference attendees are not mentorship. Katelyn
should not direct supervisors to provide more training for multiple reasons. The supervisors may
not act on Katelyn’s request or they may not be able to provide training to team members.
Additionally, it is important to understand the difference between training and mentorship. Training
usually results in a new skillset. Mentorship results in career clarity and confidence. This question
specifically mentions mentorship.
Question 70:
Which of the following is not a benefit of mentorship?
• Over time, mentorship provides more authority to the mentee
• Mentorship improves the mentee’s competencies
• The mentee’s problem-solving ability is improved through mentorship
• The mentee gains greater communication skills through mentorship
Overall explanation
Mentorship is beneficial for many reasons, however, mentorship does not relate to authority. A
mentee cannot expect to gain more authority through a mentorship. A mentorship allows a mentee
to gain competencies, improve their communication skills and their problem-solving abilities.
Question 71:
Which of the following statements about ground rules (quy tắc cơ bản) is false?
• Ground rules will increase team productivity.
• Ground rules will increase team satisfaction.
• Ground rules are provided by the team’s project manager.
• Ground rules help to set expectations of team members.
Overall explanation
Ground rules are not provided by the team’s project manager. The ground rules should be created
and agreed upon by all team members. Ground rules help increase team productivity, satisfaction,
and clarify expectations of team members.
Question 72:
Ralph is reviewing suggestions for ground rules with his project team. What suggested rule is
inappropriate (không phù hợp) as a team ground rule?
• The team will meet on Tuesday’s to distribute work items across team members.
• The team will share bi-weekly status updates with the project manager.
• The team will award a $500 bonus every month to the team member who contributes the
most.
• The team will appoint a team member to direct contractors.

Overall explanation

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It is not appropriate for the team to financially reward another team member. Not only is it unlikely
that the project team has the authority to provide a financial reward, but it is also likely that this
would pose a conflict of interest. All other options are appropriate suggestions as team ground
rules. The team should be able to distribute work across team members; it should be able to decide
how and when to update the project manager; and, the team should be able to direct contractors.
Question 73:
You are managing your first virtual team. What will be the most helpful towards managing a
diverse (đa dạng), virtual team that works well together?
• Hosting a team building event at the start of a three-year-long project.
• Mandating that the team attend every status check-in meeting.
• Developing team ground rules with the project team.
• Have the entire team work overlapping hours.
Overall explanation
Of these options, the most helpful tool for managing a virtual team is developing ground rules.
Ground rules, especially those developed by the team itself, serve to prevent conflicts in the team.
Hosting a team building event at the start of a project is a great idea. However, this will not sustain
team cohesion over the life of a long project. Additionally, mandating the team’s status check-in
attendance and work hours may seem helpful, however, this will not ensure that the team will work
well together.
Question 74:
You are having lunch with a student intern who is interested in learning about project management.
She asks you what she should gain expertise (chuyên môn) in to be a successful manager. What will
you tell her?
• Management methodologies
• Communication
• Business strategy
• Technical industry skills
Overall explanation
As a Project Manager, communication expertise is key to being effective. While understanding
management methodologies, business strategy and technical industry skills are all beneficial,
having these skills would be meaningless without the ability to be an expert communicator.
Question 75:
What is the purpose of managing stakeholders’ activity?
• Meet the requirements of as many stakeholders as possible.
• Enact the stakeholders’ requirements that will make the most money for the organization.
• Keep stakeholders’ expectations in check.
• Gather requirements from stakeholders.

Overall explanation
The purpose of managing stakeholders is to keep their expectations in check. Not every
stakeholders’ requirements will be feasible nor necessary for the project. Therefore, it not
appropriate to meet as many requirements as possible; many of these requirements may be
conflicting. The same is true of trying to make the most money for the organization. While that may
be a project’s goal, that is not the goal or purpose of managing stakeholders. Managing
stakeholders takes place in the executing stage of a project. The requirements should have been
gathered from the stakeholders before the executing stage.
Question 76:
Rocky is a senior architect at your firm. You’re consulting with Rocky because he was the original
architect for a building that your project will renovate. Your project team is made up of designers
and building construction workers. What kind of stakes does Rocky have in this project?
• Ownership
• Knowledge

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 • Rights
• Contribution
Overall explanation
Rocky has knowledge stakes in this project. As the original architect of the building, he understands
the building’s composition. He does not have ownership, because he is not the owner of the
building. Rocky also does not have rights as a stake in this project. Rocky is not being asked to
contribute to the renovation, so he does not have contribution stakes in this project.
Question 77:
Elsie is a junior Project Manager at your firm and you are responsible for training her on risk
management and monitoring policies. She asks what should result from risk monitoring. What will
you not tell her to expect as a result of risk monitoring?
• Changes to the business case
• Updates to the risk register
• Changes to the risk management plan
• Budget change requests
Overall explanation
The business case would not change as a result of risk monitoring. The business case is established
before the project begins, therefore cannot be changed during the project. Updates to the risk
register, risk management plan, and budget change requests are expected results from risk
monitoring.
Question 78:
Your project sponsor has asked that you send him a list of secondary risks for your project. What
will you send him?
• A list of risks that are created by the implementation of enacted (đã ban hành) risk responses
• A list of warning signs of a risk’s occurrence
• A list of actions that will be performed if the initial risk responses do not work
• A list of risks that remain after the team has planned risk responses
Overall explanation
Secondary risks are risks that are created by the implementation of enacted risk responses; this is
what should be sent to the project sponsor. A list of warning signs of a risk’s occurrence is a risk
trigger, not a secondary risk. An action that will be performed if the initial risk response does not
work is a fallback plan, not a secondary risk. A risk that remains after a team has planned risk
responses is a residual risk, not a secondary risk.
Question 79:
Sharon is planning her resource distribution for a medical software development project. She
considers putting Robert on the project but has recently heard that Robert is incredibly disruptive
and bad for team morale. Sharon decides to proceed with the project plans without Robert as a team
member as she wants to ensure that her project is successful. What kind of risk response strategy is
this?
• Transfer
• Mitigate
• Avoid
• Accept
Overall explanation
This is an example of risk avoidance. By not putting Robert on the team, Sharon has avoided the
risk of having Robert be disruptive to her project. This is not an example of transferring the risk,
because she has not moved the risk anywhere, she has simply avoided it. This is not an example of
risk mitigation, because no actions were taken to lessen the probability of the risk; it was avoided
altogether. This is not an example of acceptance because Sharon has decided to proceed without
Robert, not include him in her team.

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Question 80:
In a team meeting, an engineer points out that the price of leasing a required server is on sale if an
agreement is signed within the month. If the team decides to go ahead and sign an agreement to
lease the server within the month, what kind of risk response strategy is this?
• Exploiting
• Sharing
• Enhancing
• Mitigating
Overall explanation
This is an example of exploiting a positive risk. Exploiting means action is taken to ensure that the
positive risk will happen. Enhancing a positive risk is similar, but the result is not as definite, such
as a discount if 100 people enroll for a seminar and you currently have 95. With just five more
people you'll get the discount, so you send an email out trying to recruit five more people. Sharing
means you'll share the risk with another entity, such as partnering on a venture that's too big for
your organization to take on its own. Mitigating is for negative risks, and it aims to reduce the
probability and/or impact of the risk.
Question 81:
You are responsible for prioritizing project risks. The risks should be prioritized so that they
correspond to their expected monetary value where the risk with the highest expected monetary
value is the highest priority. Which risk is the lowest priority?
• A risk with a 25% probability of costing the organization $100,000
• A risk with a 30% probability of costing the organization $109,000
• A risk with a 10% probability of costing the organization $700,000
• A risk with a 2% probability of costing the organization $3,000,000

Overall explanation
The expected monetary value is calculated by multiplying the probability times the impact. The
option with a 25% probability has an expected monetary value of $25,000. The option with a 30%
chance of occurring has an expected monetary value of $32,700. The risk with 10% of happening
has an expected monetary value of $70,000. The risk with a 2% chance of happening has an
expected monetary value of $60,000. Therefore, the risk with a 10% chance of happening should be
the highest priority due to the highest expected monetary value.
Question 82:
You are a Project Manager responsible for the success of a $6,000,000 project. Your team’s
technical lead identifies a potential risk in one step of the production workflow that has a low
probability but high impact. What would be an example of risk mitigation?
• Cancel this step of the production workflow and proceed along with the project without this
work.
• Discuss risk triggers with the team and strategize to develop a workaround should this issue
present itself.
• Outsource this step of the production workflow to a contracted group.
• Do nothing as the probability of this occurrence is low.

Overall explanation
To mitigate the risk, you should address risk triggers with the team. Risk mitigation means that you
try to get ahead of the risk, not avoid it, accept it, nor transfer it. Canceling this step of the
workflow would avoid the risk, not mitigate it. Outsourcing this step of the workflow would be
transferring the risk, not mitigating it. Doing nothing would be accepting the risk, not mitigating it.
Question 83:
Lucia needs to look up how Joe, a key stakeholder, prefers to be communicated with. Where would
Lucia find this information?
• Resource management plan

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 • Stakeholder register
• Stakeholder engagement plan
• Project charter
Overall explanation
This information can be found in the stakeholder engagement plan. While it is tempting to select the
stakeholder register, this isn't the best answer because the stakeholder register only contains details
about the identified stakeholders to help understand the knowledge they may have, while the
stakeholder engagement plan is used to understand stakeholder communication requirements and
the level of stakeholder engagement in order to assess and adapt to the level of stakeholder
participation in requirements activities.
Question 84:
You’ve received feedback from your project team that it is difficult to find important policy
documentation. To address this, you decide to create a website for internal use that your team
members can log in to and access all documentation. What kind of communication method is this?
• Interactive communication
• Push communication
• Pull communication
• Verbal communication
Overall explanation
This is an example of pull communication. Pull communication refers to a method where the sender
puts the information in a central location that the receivers must be responsible for accessing. This
is not push communication because the sender is not pushing the documentation out to the team, the
team must access it on their own accord. This is not an example of interactive feedback because
there is no evidence of communication going both from the Project Manager and from the team
members. This is not verbal communication because verbal communication is not a communication
method, it is a kind of communication itself. Additionally, there is no verbal communication in this
example as the documentation and website is written communication.
Question 85:
Rodger needs to ask his junior developer about the technical implementation of a low priority
feature. Rodger sees the junior developer at the water cooler in the office and decides to approach
him for a quick chat. What type of communication is this?
• Informal written
• Formal written
• Formal verbal
• Informal verbal

Overall explanation
This is an example of informal verbal communication. Rodger is communicating face to face and it
is not a planned meeting, it was happenstance. This is not written communication because it is
happening in person and it is not formal communication because it is not planned.
Question 86:
You are meeting with Jessie, a project stakeholder with low interest and low influence. You need to
account for Jessie in the communications management plan, so you ask him how he would like to
be communicated with. He tells you that you can simply send him an instant message (IM) about
project developments. What type of communication is this?
• Formal written
• Informal written
• Formal verbal
• Informal verbal
Overall explanation
This is an example of informal written communication because communication is taking place over
instant messaging. Formal written requires an update to something formal like a project

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management plan, not an IM. This is not verbal communication because it is not taking place face
to face or over a phone.
Question 87:
Brooke’s project team is well underway in the development of a complex technical project. A team
member informs Brooke that a functional manager is receiving the weekly status report, but not the
monthly progress report. He expressed that he must receive the monthly progress report. What
should Brooke do next?
• Brooke should update the communications management plan to include sending the monthly
progress report.
• Brooke should send the monthly progress report to all stakeholders and team members.
• Nothing; The stakeholder does not need to receive the monthly progress report because he is
receiving the weekly status report.
• Brooke should note this in the issue log and send the monthly progress report to this
stakeholder.
Overall explanation
Brooke should update the communications plan. Anytime a change to a communication method or
stakeholder is needed, the communications plan must be updated. Sending the monthly progress
report to all stakeholders and team members may not be necessary; therefore, this is not the best
option. Brooke ignoring the problem is never appropriate and not providing the manager with this
information may be detrimental to the project; therefore, doing nothing is not appropriate. Noting
this in the issue log and then sending the monthly progress report to the manager is not the best
option because this change must be reflected in the communications management plan.
Question 88:
You have been tasked with managing a project that must deliver value as quickly as possible. Your
budget and scope are relatively flexible, but you must deliver some sort of value by the end of the
year. Which development methodology are you least likely to use for this project?
• Iterative development
• Incremental development
• Predictive development
• Hybrid development
Overall explanation
Because emphasis has been placed on delivering value early, the option that is least likely to be
used is predictive development. Predictive development focuses on early, meticulous planning and
delivering value much later than iterative, incremental, and hybrid development approaches.
Question 89:
Your PMO has sent you a project portfolio that contains 4 projects that have not yet been started.
They have asked that you manage the project that has the highest current value of future cash flows.
Which project will you select?
• The project with the highest present value (PV).
• The project with the highest net present value (NPV).
• The project with the highest internal rate of return (IRR).
• The project with the highest benefit-cost ratio.
Overall explanation
The current value of future cash flows is the net present value (NPV). Therefore, you should select
the project with the highest NPV. The project with the highest present value, PV, does not account
for the value of future cash flows, as the question states. The internal rate of return and the benefit-
cost ratio have nothing to do with the current value of future cash flows.
Question 90:
Your organization has multiple ongoing projects, spreading your time and efforts very thin. You
meet with your PMO to ask where you should focus your time. Your PMO informs you that you
should focus your time on the project with the most value being to the organization. Which project
should you focus on?
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 • The project with the highest SPI.
• The project with the highest benefit-cost ratio.
• The project with the CPI of exactly 1.0.
• The project with the lowest payback period.
Overall explanation
The project with the highest benefit-cost ratio will deliver the most value to the organization. The
project with the SPI relates to schedule, not value. The project with the highest CPI relates to
budget, not value. The project with the lowest payback period indicates the quickest turnaround in
recovering the investment before making a profit. This is related to time, not value.

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