Answer Booklet

1. A team decided to use personas for writing user stories. What is the primary benefit
they can expect to get from this?
a) Better alignment between the story outcomes with the user's needs
and goals
b) Reduces the need to write long stories
c) Gives the team a go-to person in case they have queries and want to clarify a
requirement
d) Ensures that the story can be completed in a time frame expected by the
user

Explanation: A persona is an imaginary representation of a user role. Personas

help reduce waste. It ensures that all solutions are aligned with real end-users'
needs, goals, capabilities, attitudes, and behavior.

2. An HR team is writing the job description for a product owner. Which of the
following is NOT the responsibility of a product owner?
a) Ensuring one subset of a team does not receive more focus than the others
b) Describing and documenting the user roles
c) Identifying the user roles and personas
d) Being accountable for the delivery of the product as predicted

Explanation: The team is accountable for delivery, not the product owner.

3. If the team finds a problem in the story that they implemented as part of the
current iteration. What should be done about this?
a) They should write a story to fix the bug and ask the PO to prioritize it.
b) They should raise a defect and fix it within the current iteration.
c) They should flag a risk that the product may fail in some situations.
d) The team should ignore the defect until it is reported by the customer.

Explanation: Fixing defects is part of the normal work of a team in an iteration.

4. Which of the following projects will be most suitable for agile development?
a) Low technical complexity and low certainty of requirements
b) High technical complexity and high uncertainty of requirement
c) Establish priorities so that only the highest-valued functionality is being
worked on at any time.
d) Depends on the willingness of the development team.

Explanation: The project most suitable for agile development is where the
priorities are established, and feedback loops are established.
5. At the retrospective meeting, the team members highlighted few potential
improvement actions. What should be done about those issues?
a) The PO should convert these into user stories and prioritize for the next
iteration.
b) The team should start working on all the improvement actions in a self-
organized manner.
c) The scrum master should log the improvement actions and help the
team prioritize them for action.
d) The scrum master should assign responsibility to individual team members
and follow up until they are resolved.

Explanation: It is the responsibility of the team to find the solutions to the

issues raised. The scrum master should help them come up with an
improvement backlog and work through it.

6. Which of the following is NOT true about the daily standup meeting (also known as
the daily SCRUM?
a) Only active participants in the sprint may speak during the daily scrum
meeting.
b) A sprint planning meeting is held midway of each sprint.
c) The product owner may be present in the meeting but only as an observer.
d) The total time spent on the daily standup should not exceed 15 minutes per
day.

Explanation: A sprint planning meeting is held at the start of each sprint and not
midway.

7. Which of the following is NOT a reason for writing a spike story in the product
backlog?
a) To perform an urgent task, for which the entire team may need to work
harder than usual for a limited period
b) To gain more understanding about a feature or technology
c) To perform a proof of concept on an uncertain requirement
d) To get more reliable effort estimates

Explanation: It is not recommended to write a spike story to perform an urgent

task, for which the entire team may need to work harder than usual for a limited
period of time.

8. Which of the following techniques is most valuable for quickly estimating a large
number of stories during a release planning session?
a) Work breakdown structure
b) Function points
 c) Planning poker
d) Affinity estimations

Explanation: Affinity estimation helps generate fairly reasonable estimates for a

large number of stories in a short span of time.

9. How should the risks on an agile project be managed?

a) By creating a risk register at the beginning of the project
b) By asking the team to avoid working on risky items
c) By identifying specific actions to respond to risks and prioritize these
actions through the product backlog
d) By assigning an owner to each risk and holding them accountable for it

Explanation: The risks on an agile project be managed by identifying specific

actions to respond to risks and prioritize these actions through the product
backlog.

10. The primary difference between timeboxed projects and feature-driven projects is
that:
a) Time-boxed projects are never late, they incorporate a "feature buffer"
for any schedule overruns.
b) Time-boxed projects need a larger schedule buffer and should be managed
critically
c) The team working on time-boxed projects needs to be highly mature and
able to guarantee timely completion.
d) Time-boxed projects will only work in case the technical complexity is low.

Explanation: Time-boxed projects fix the time limit up-front and allow features
to vary.

11. Which of the following best expresses the reason for having a customer
representative embedded in a team (a practice known as "onsite customer" in
Extreme Programming)?
a) Ensure that all team members are not wasting time while they are workin
b) Establish priorities so that only the highest-valued functionality is being
worked on at any time.
c) Guarantee that the product will be delivered at the time it is needed in the
field.
d) Participate in the discussions and provide timely feedback.

Explanation: The role of the customer is to be a representative of the business

and provide timely feedback.
12. An agile coach was asked by the team about the causes of bad quality and how to
eliminate it. How should the coach respond?
a) Provide anecdotes and ideas that have worked on other projects.
b) Encourage the team to dive into the causes of the quality issues and
figure out how to solve them.
c) Discuss with the functional manager responsible for quality and come back
to the team with solutions.
d) Add more testers to the team.

Explanation: The coach should ideally put the question back to the team and
encourage them to analyze and come up with the appropriate solutions.

13. A team is planning on a group of iterations to predict the outcomes and

milestones over the next few months. The product owner will use this information
to set expectations with the customers. What is the type of planning mentioned in
this scenario?
a) Daily planning
b) Release planning
c) Iteration planning
d) Sprint planning

Explanation: A release plan is a plan for a packaged group of iteration

outcomes, designed to be delivered to end users and customers.

14. When you coach an agile team, there are different shades and styles of coaching.
Which level is more appropriate at the beginning of the sprint?
a) Individual-level coaching
b) Whole-team coaching
c) End user coaching
d) Product owner coaching

Explanation: Whole-team coaching is the most appropriate type of coaching at

the beginning of the sprint.

15. As the agile coach, you may be asked to help select a product owner for a team.
Which of the following is the least important qualities to look for in a product
owner?
a) Technical expertise
b) Business savvy
c) Domain knowledge
d) Availability to the team
 Explanation: Technical expertise may not be necessary for the PO as the team
has
technical expertise.

16. A team is considering various methods like scrum, XP, Lean, etc., to enable
adaptive development. What would be the best advice for the team?
a) Choose a starter methodology and blend practices from other methods
based on experience.
b) Use scrum as it is the most popular method and includes all the other
methods.
c) Choose a method based on the advice given by the agile coach.
d) It is better that the choice is suggested by the customer as they are the end
users of the product.

Explanation: Agile uses a philosophy from martial arts called Shu Ha Ri. Shu
means 'Follow the rule,' Ha means 'Break the rule,' Ri means 'Be the rule.' To
begin with, a prescription is needed but as the team starts working, they can
customize their ways of working by blending diverse set of practices.

17. An agile coach has a habit of providing opinions to the team with regard to
different questions and issues raised during the agile events. What is a potential
issue with this?
a) The team may not always appreciate a frank and open expression of ideas by
the coach.
b) It is better for the team to hear about the ideas from their own management
for it to be more effective.
c) The coach may become attached to their opinion and lose objectivity to
evaluate other ideas.
d) Unless the coach has personal experience and can guarantee that an
approach will work, they should not give it to the team.

Explanation: The coach should try not to inject their own ideas, but encourage
the team to come up with their own.

18. Who is the intended audience of an information radiator?

a) The team
b) The product owner and customers
c) The scrum master or project manager
d) All the relevant stakeholders

Explanation: The information radiator uses visible means to display information

and increase transparency with the relevant group of stakeholders.
19. During a retrospective, a team found that many of their issues were due to the
lack of a clear product vision. Which is the best way to resolve this?
a) Ask the product owner to write detailed requirements that provide maximum
clarity to the team.
b) Conduct an agile chartering exercise to clarify the vision and mission
c) Prioritize the requirements using the MoSCoW method
d) Provide coaching to the team about business issues

Explanation: Agile chartering will help provide a clear statement of purpose to

the team.

20. One of the recommended settings for a collocated team is a WAR room space.
Which of the following is NOT a factor for the ideal team space for a team?
a) Minimize distractions.
b) Make available necessary spaces.
c) Arrange seatings by job description.
d) Improve the hygiene factors.

Explanation: Seating arrangement by job description is a sign of bad team space

and not of ideal agile team space.

21. Which of the following is NOT one of the advantages of the planning poker
technique for estimation?
a) It is fun and gets the whole team involved.
b) It gives more accurate estimates and ensures timely completion of
stories.
c) It triggers discussion and clarifies assumptions.
d) It even contributes to clarifying design.

Explanation: Planning poker may not guarantee timely completion of stories.

22. When an agile team is distributed across multiple locations, which of the following
usually happens?
a) They tend to use more formal channels of communication.
b) They tend to skip the daily standup meetings.
c) They are unlikely to continue using agile as it doesn’t work very well with
distributed teams.
d) They will not be able to deliver high quality as it is harder to integrate
everybody's work.

Explanation: Agile teams which are distributed will have to be more formal in
exchanging information.
23. What is the value of osmotic communication in an agile team?
a) It helps management keep tabs on what is going on within a team.
b) It ensures complete trust and bonding between the team.
c) It helps reduce the time for receiving answers.
d) It keeps the customer informed about the technical solution.

Explanation: Osmotic communication is important because it reduces the time

between needing information and getting it.

24. What is the future value of $300,000 five years down the line at an interest rate of
10%?
a) 330000
b) 483100
c) 410500
d) 405100

Explanation: We can calculate the value at the end of the third year using this
formula - 300000(1+0.1) ^5.

25. Which of the following best expresses the criteria to be checked before a work
item is marked as complete?
a) Acceptance tests
b) Integration tests
c) Non-functional tests
d) Regression tests

Explanation: Acceptance tests validate that the functionality to be delivered

meets customer expectations.

26. Which of the following projects will you choose if you have a set of candidate
projects?
a) A project with the highest payback period
b) A project with the lowest IRR
c) A project with the highest NPV
d) A project with the highest future value

Explanation: The project with the highest NPV would be chosen as it provides
the highest economic value. NPV stands for net present value and is an
economic analysis to compare projects.

27. The value of a smartphone increases in proportion with the internal storage space
provided. In the context of the Kano Model, storage space provided will be termed
as a:
 a) Threshold
b) Linear
c) Exciters
d) Delighters

Explanation: Linear Features are those where customer satisfaction is

correlated linearly with the quantity of the feature.

28. Your prioritized feature list consists of 10 features. According to your customer
requirements, you need to deliver a minimum of five features to launch the
product. What are these features known as?
a) Prioritized feature list
b) Minimally viable product
c) Product backlog
d) Sprint backlog

Explanation: A minimally viable product or MVP is the smallest deliverable that

can add value to users.

29. Which of the following is probably the least important factor used in the
prioritization of backlog items?
a) Value of the work to customers
b) Cost of adding the features
c) Amount of risk removed by developing the features.
d) Cost of removing the new features

Explanation: The cost of removing the new features is not a factor used in
prioritization.

30. Which of the following information radiators is most useful for a team trying to
track the progress of work in an iteration?
a) Task board
b) Burndown bar chart
c) Impediment log
d) Test case completion

Explanation: A story or task board is actively used by the team to indicate

overall status.

31. A quantitative approach to managing projects is important even in agile projects.

Which of the following would be the least appropriate use of metrics on a project?

a) To focus attention on a problem and encourage solutioning

 b) To determine which team member is contributing the most to the
deliverables.
c) To quantify the extent of improvements made
d) To prioritize which issues, need to be addressed on a higher priority

Explanation: It is not a good idea to use metrics to compare between team

members as it will set up unhealthy competition and reduce collaboration within
a team.

32. If the product backlog is 200 points, velocity is 20 points per iteration, and cost per
sprint is $1,500; what is the expected cost of the project?
a) $15,000
b) $1,500
c) $20,000
d) $30,000

Explanation: The number of iterations is Product Backlog / Velocity = 200/20 =

10. At 1500 per sprint the cost is 1500 * 10 = $15,000.

33. In a manufacturing process, an average of eight finished products are delivered in

an eight-hour shift. This means that one hour is the:
a) Cycle Time
b) Velocity
c) Lead time is the amount of time it takes for a unit of work to proceed from
inception to production delivery. Cycle time is from when a requirement is
picked up for development to when it is completed.
d) Processing Time

Explanation: Cycle time is the average time between the delivery of successive
work items.
34. What is the cost variance(CV) when EV = $20,000 and AC = $15,000?
a) 5,000
b) -5,000
c) 2,000
d) -2,000

Explanation: CV = EV - AC = 20000 - 15000 = 5,000

35. In agile project planning, why is it not recommended to develop a detailed plan up-
front?
a) Because it is better to spend the time on execution
b) Because the actual may not follow the plan
c) Because agile methods believe in evolving or rolling wave plans
 d) Because agile methods only develop plans at the iteration level

Explanation: Planning too much detail up-front is not helpful because all the
insights will not be available in the beginning and the plan will evolve as details
emerge.

36. In a large complex system with multiple interfaces, which type of testing should
form the majority of the testing activity?
a) Integration tests
b) Unit tests
c) Non-functional tests
d) Acceptance tests

Explanation: Unit testing should form the bulk of the tests as per the testing
pyramid.
37. You have identified a technical risk with a 20% probability of a 12-day delay on the
project. What is the risk exposure?
a) 2.4
b) 0.2
c) 1.2
d) 0.6

Explanation: Risk exposure is the product of probability and size of loss; Risk
Exposure = 20% x 12 = 2.4

38. Which of the following best exemplifies "servant leadership"?

a) The product owner answers the questions from the team to clarify the
requirements
b) The team facilitator drops the task she was working on, in order to help
a team member resolve a blocking issue.
c) The technical expert in the team conducts a knowledge sharing session to
educate the other team members.
d) The team manager conducts performance appraisals rewarding the top
performers in the team.

Explanation: The team facilitator helps the team by unblocking their issues
before conducting their tasks, thereby putting the team's interest ahead of their
own tasks.
39. Which of the following metrics can be used to quantify customer value?
a) The customer achieves a 10% reduction in operating expense as a result
of automation of a business process.
b) The team productivity increases by 20% as a result of knowledge increasing
over some time.
 c) The number of defects reported in internal testing came down from 15 per
sprint to 10 per sprint.
d) The developer's estimate for stories was closer to the actuals as compared to
previous iterations.

Explanation: Customer value is achieved only when the customer perceives an

improvement or benefit.

40. "Find the budget for the following project.

The total release backlog is 100 points, velocity is 20 points per iteration, and
cost per unit is $1,500?"
a) $150,000
b) $100
c) $2,000
d) $30,000

Explanation: BAC = Cost per unit x Release Backlog = $1,500 x 100 = $150,000.

41. Warranty costs are rising for a particular product. Which of the following metrics
should the team track to address this issue?
a) Escaped defects found
b) Regression errors
c) Cycle time increases
d) Story defects

Explanation: Escaped defects are defects that are reported by the customer
after the delivery by the team. These are direct causes of warranty costs.

42. A team wants to see which of the identified risks poses maximum challenges to
the team. Which chart should the team look at?
a) Risk burn-up chart
b) Risk census
c) Risk burndown chart
d) Sprint burndown chart

Explanation: The risk burndown chart plots the sum of the risk exposure values
per the iterations.

43. Which of the following is one of the advantages of pair programming?

a) It reduces the manpower requirement for programming.
b) It increases the testing effort.
c) It is a good mechanism to enable knowledge sharing.
 d) It ensures a better understanding of customer requirements.

Explanation: Pair programming ensures two pairs of eyes work on a problem

and gives rise to knowledge sharing.

44. A team is using the velocity data from past iterations to forecast the amount of
work that can be done in a forthcoming sprint. In terms of responses to the
estimation or planning risk, what form of risk response action is this?
a) Avoid
b) Mitigate
c) Transfer
d) Accept

Explanation: Use of velocity reduces the probability of planning or estimation

risk. This is known as mitigation of the risk.

45. Agile teams generally produce more reliable plans. Which of the following is the
most important reason for this?
a) Better testing practices
b) Use of velocity for planning
c) Using NPV and IRR to assess business value
d) Use of good technical practices

Explanation: Velocity gives empirical measure of work done in a sprint, and

understanding it gives rise to more predictable plans.

46. Many agile teams make use of an evolutionary development approach to

programming where developers must write a test that fails before they write new
functional code. Which of the following describes this approach?
a) Test first development
b) Aile frequent verification
c) Agile frequent validation
d) Continuous refactoring

Explanation: Test first development is an agile evolutionary development

approach to programming where developers must write a test that fails before
they write new functional code.

47. Continuous integration helps in keeping the system integrated and in working
condition and all times. Which of the following is NOT a practice of continuous
integration?
a) Automate the build.
b) Keep the build fast.
 c) Deploy a build for testing at least once in every iteration.
d) Make your build self-testing.

Explanation: Continuous integration is where all the code is integrated at once

and the build is automated, so it is fast and self-testing. Therefore, the
deployment of the build is a continuous exercise, not once in an iteration.

48. The use of velocity is an important aspect of agile planning. Which of the following
statements is false about velocity?
a) Only completed work is counted towards velocity.
b) Once established, the velocity does not fluctuate from its mean.
c) Velocity is not directly related to customer satisfaction.
d) Velocity tracks early and continuous delivery.

Explanation: Velocity can always fluctuate from its mean, though it gives more
confidence about the planning.

49. In a release burndown bar chart, the top of the bar went down from 100 to 80
points at the end of one iteration. What does this indicate?
a) Work completed
b) Work to be completed
c) Work to be estimated
d) New work added

Explanation: A release burndown bar chart uses bars to indicate the amount of
work in the release. The top of the bar is lowered any time the work is
completed.

50. The budget of a project is $50,000 project. The earned value analysis shows that
the PV is $25,000, the EV is $20,000, and the AC is $15,000. What can be
determined from these figures?
a) The project is ahead of schedule and over budget.
b) The project is ahead of schedule and under budget.
c) The project is behind schedule and over budget.
d) The project is behind schedule and under budget.

Explanation: The project is behind schedule and under budget. The data
provided in this question is BAC=$50K, EV=$20K, PV=$25K, and AC=$15K. SV =
(EV-PV) = $20K-$25K=$-5K. CV = (EV-AC) = $20K-$15K=$5K. Looking at the data, it
is evident that the project is behind schedule but is under budget.

51. A team is making use of the release burndown chart to track and forecast project
progress. When should they update this chart?
 a) After the sprint review
b) During the retrospective
c) During the daily standup
d) During the release planning

Explanation: The release burndown chart is based on the following factors: the
remaining effort in the product backlog and time. The chart is best created and
updated in the sprint review meeting when the sprint outcome is known.

52. To keep track of the risks in an agile project, a project manager plotted a chart
showing the risk severity scores in an additive way to give a cumulative severity
profile of the project. What type of chart is this?
a) Risk graph
b) Risk board
c) Risk issue board
d) Risk profile graph

Explanation: The risk Profile Graph is a graph that shows the risk severity scores
plotted in an additive way to give a cumulative severity profile of the project.

53. Two sprints into an agile project, the present value was assessed at $13500 and
earned value at $15000. What is the schedule performance index at this stage?
a) 1.11
b) 0.9
c) 9
d) 11.1

Explanation: SPI = EV / PV = 15000 / 13500 = 1.11

54. A team member wants to bring up a technical issue that she is facing while
completing a user story. Which is an appropriate forum to bring this up?
a) Release planning
b) Sprint review
c) Sprint retrospective
d) Daily stand-up meeting

Explanation: A daily stand-up meeting is a good forum to bring up blocking

issues.

55. User stories express the requirements in an agile project. Which of the following is
NOT a clear story?
a) A recruiter can manage the ads placed.
b) A recruiter can review resumes from applicants for the ads.
 c) A recruiter can change the expiry date of the ads.
d) A recruiter can delete an application that is not a good match for a job.

Explanation: This is not a clear story because managing the ads placed does not
indicate which exact operation is being carried out.

56. A business analyst and a developer are working on understanding the usage
scenario for a transaction so that it can be developed properly. For this, they make
use of a ubiquitous language that can later generate automated tests. Which
practice is being followed here?
a) Behaviour driven development.
b) Test-driven development
c) Test first development
d) Verification and validation

Explanation: Behaviour driven development involves creating tests before code,

and these tests represent expectations of the software behaviour.

57. A 6-month project using agile methods has been completed. Which of the
following activities should be performed?
a) Cleaning up open items
b) Finalizing documentation
c) Producing or manufacturing support material
d) All the above
Explanation: Project closing involves cleaning up open items, finalizing
documentation, producing, or manufacturing support material, and
preparing required end-of-project administrative reports, release notes, and
financial reports.

58. During which stage of the agile project management framework does the team
start delivering completed features for a project?
a) Explore
b) Execute
c) Adapt
d) Speculate

Explanation: During the explore stage, the team starts delivering the completed
features

59. An agile team is following extreme programming practices. When should the team
refactor the code?
a) At any time that the need is felt
b) During hardening sprints
 c) During the testing cycle
d) Before starting any new development

Explanation: Continuous refactoring is one of the extreme programming

practices.

60. How many user personas can a typical system have?

a) One
b) One per development team member
c) Two personas - a customer and an end-user
d) As many as the number of primary users of the system

Explanation: The personas are based on primary users of the system.

61. Triple constraints in the traditional project management framework represent the
boundaries within which a project manager should conduct their projects. What is
the equivalent concept in agile projects?
a) Value, quality, and constraints
b) Schedule, cost, and value
c) Value, quality, and cost
d) Cost, quality, and constraints

Explanation: The dimensions in the agile triangle are value, quality, and
constraints.

62. A team working in a traditional, linear fashion wants to start introducing few agile
practices in its work. Which of the following practices can they start with
a) Weekly status meetings
b) Daily stand-up meetings
c) Iteration planning meetings
d) Iteration review meetings

Explanation: The daily stand-up meeting provides a forum for team members to
coordinate activities daily, monitor the status of work, focus on the work to be
done, and raise problems and issues.

63. A team delivered 30 story points in an iteration. How should the burndown bar
chart reflect this change?
a) The top will move up 30 points.
b) The top will move down 30 points.
c) The top will remain stable.
d) The bottom of the bar moves down by 30 points.
 Explanation: The top will move down 30 points in the release burndown chart.

64. Whether a project can apply agile methods should be determined at the beginning
of any project. Which of the following elements is least important in making this
determination?
a) Complexity and uncertainty in a project
b) Compliance factors
c) Cultural factors
d) Project duration

Explanation: Complexity and uncertainty, compliance factors, and cultural

factors are important to determine whether a project will be an agile project.

65. A team estimated story points during the sprint planning and reckoned that they
would not be able to complete a high-priority story in its entirety. What should be
done next?
a) Split the story into smaller stories.
b) Estimate the story.
c) Remove the story from the plan.
d) Estimate the story in ideal days.

Explanation: The solution is to split the stories into smaller stories to provide
finer estimates.

66. A distributed team is approaching a critical phase of the project which requires
intense collaboration between the team members. Which of the following
techniques will best help with increasing the collaboration?
a) Team meetings
b) Daily stand-up meetings
c) Team bonding activities
d) Team collocation

Explanation: Team collocation promotes effective communication and

collaboration among team members.

67. Approximately how much time of a sprint should be dedicated to sprint planning
activities?
a) 5-10%
b) 10-20%
c) Up to 5%
d) 20-30%
 Explanation: Up to 5% of sprint duration must be dedicated to spring planning
activities.

68. How should an agile team decide the allocation of tasks among the team
members?
a) Team members should self-assign the tasks based on availability,
interest, expertise, and other parameters.
b) The scrum master should assign the tasks to the team.
c) The product owner should approach the functional managers for resources
for each sprint.
d) The team members randomly assign tasks based on the draw of lots.

Explanation: The objective of workload management is to have team members

themselves manage the day-to-day tasks required to deliver stories at the end of
each iteration. To the greatest extent possible, teams should manage their
workload.

69. Which of the following is the most important attribute while selecting a team
facilitator (e.g., scrum master)?
a) Decision making abilities.
b) Emotional intelligence
c) Achievement orientation
d) Technical expertise

Explanation: Emotional intelligence is important for the team facilitator as they

act as servant leaders to the team.

70. Which metric can be used to determine the business value added through the
adoption of sprints?
a) Reducing the number of errors
b) Improving the team morale
c) Delivering completed features earlier
d) Leading the scrum adoption in the industry

Explanation: Delivering completed features earlier in the life cycle is a business

benefit of using agile methods.

71. Among collaboration methods, agile teams should favor synchronous methods as
far as possible. Which of the following is an example of synchronous
collaboration?
a) Centralized site for all released project documentation
b) Drawing, viewing, and editing website.
c) Web-based meetings
 d) Electronic exchange of drawings and model

Explanation: Synchronous collaboration is when participants view information

and provide feedback at different points in time, therefore, the web-based
meeting is a synchronous collaboration.

72. In the five levels of conflict, the intensity of conflict increases from Level 1 to Level
5. At what level of conflict do team members develop an aim to win whereby the
prior conflicts and problems remain unresolved?
a) Level 1 - Problem to solve
b) Level 2 - Disagreement
c) Level 3 - Contest
d) Level 4 - Crusade

Explanation: At level 3, during conflict, the aim is to win and team members
choose one side or the other to solve the conflict situation.

73. A servant leader leads by serving. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of
a servant leader?
a) Listening
b) Foresight
c) Healing
d) Decisiveness

Explanation: Decisiveness is not a characteristic of servant leadership while the

other three listed are characteristics of servant leadership.

74. An agile team is self-organizing. Which of the following will enable self-
organization and self-management within teams?
a) Empowerment
b) Clear directions
c) Prioritization
d) Technical Trainings

Explanation: Empowerment defines operating by oneself and with enthusiasm,

taking responsibility and ownership. An empowered team is more likely to
embrace self-organization.

75. Which of the following is NOT an objective of an agile retrospective meeting?

a) Assessing the contribution of individual team members
b) Identifying areas of improvement
c) Prioritizing the improvement actions
d) Assigning the prioritized improvement actions to the team members
 Explanation: Performance assessment of team members is not an objective of
the agile retrospective meetings.

76. Which response strategy can be successful for applying at Conflict Level 1:
Problem to Se
a) Strive for consensus.
b) Negotiate for middle ground.
c) Accommodate to one another.
d) De-escalate the conflict.

Explanation: Consensus is the strategy that includes learning where every team
member is focusing on the issue and time, arriving at a decision everyone can
back.
77. When team members are not in the same time zone and find it hard to exchange
information, they rely more on formal communication methods like the exchange
of documents. Among the various documentation options, which type of
communication is most effective?
a) Audiotape
b) Documentation
c) Videotape
d) Face-to-Face

Explanation: Videotape is the most effective communication under the

documentation options, while face-to-face communication is the most effective
under the modelling options.

78. Feedback is a continuous improvement process where the output of the process is
fed back into the input to be improved. Which of the following feedback
mechanisms are available in scrum that can lead to process or product
improvements?
a) Daily feedback on progress through standup meetings
b) Product feedback after each Sprint
c) Process feedback after each Sprint
d) All the above

Explanation: The feedback specific to SCRUM includes all options that is a, b,

and c.
79. A scrum master often makes use of different techniques to demonstrate their
listening skills. What method confirms understanding by repeating what the other
person said?
a) Active Listening
b) Reflective Listening
 c) Listening
d) Injected Listening

Explanation: Reflective listening confirms understanding by repeating what the

other
person said.

80. Which of the following development methods can have variable iteration lengths
and may not use iterations at all?
a) FDD
b) XP
c) Kanban
d) Scrum

Explanation: Kanban can be applied to any iteration length and may not even
use iterations.

81. What is the right time for a product owner to give feedback on the work results?

a) During the sprint review

b) At any time during a sprint
c) During daily standup
d) During lessons learnt meetings (retrospectives)

Explanation: The product owner does not have to wait until the sprint review
meeting to provide feedback on work results. It is often helpful to carry out just-
in-time reviews as the results emerge in the sprint. This gives the team an
opportunity during the sprint to adjust the results, if necessary.

82. During an iteration, the burndown chart for the iteration moved upwards from
one day to the next. Which of the following is NOT a reason for this?
a) Defects were found in the work completed previously.
b) Few tasks were completed by team members.
c) A task was underestimated during planning.
d) Team member discovered a hidden complexity in a story.

Explanation: When tasks get completed, the hours remaining should go down.

83. The sprint backlog comprises all activities necessary to reach the sprint goal.
During which scrum event is the sprint backlog created?
a) Sprint planning meeting
b) Sprint review meeting
c) Sprint retrospective meeting
 d) During backlog refinement

Explanation: The team creates the sprint backlog in the sprint planning meeting.

84. During a four-week iteration, the product vision changed drastically and many
work items in the iteration backlog were made obsolete. What is the best course
of action?
a) Brainstorm within the team about how to add the changed vision in the
current iteration.
b) Complete the current iteration before starting the new work.
c) Cancel the iteration and start a new iteration with the changed
priorities.
d) Raise defects for obsolete work items and correct them.

Explanation: If the product vision changes, the team should cancel the current
iteration and start a new one in alignment with the new vision.

85. Which phase in the agile project management life cycle delivers a release plan?
a) Envision
b) Speculate
c) Explore
d) Close

Explanation: The release plan is produced during the speculate phase of a

project.

86. The development team should assess the project's progress, technical risks, the
requirements evolution, and an ongoing competitive market analysis. Who is
primarily responsible for coming up with the product roadmap in alignment with
this assessment?
a) Product owner
b) Development team
c) Customer
d) Team facilitator

Explanation: The product owner should produce the roadmap after assessing
the following areas: product value, product quality, product status, and team
performance. If the product vision changes, the team should cancel the current
iteration and start a new one in alignment with the new vision.
87. Agile team members should usually be assigned full-time to a team. Which of the
following is NOT a reason why fractional assignment is detrimental to team
productivity?
a) It results in task switching.
b) It minimizes requirement for scarce resources.
c) Team members cannot focus on a particular task.
d) Other team members may be stuck when shared resources are not available.

Explanation: Fractional assignment is assigning people to multiple projects

simultaneously. This may reduce resource requirements, but it negatively
impacts productivity.

88. Which measure gives an idea about the time taken to deliver a single item of work
by a team?
a) Earned value
b) Velocity
c) Cycle time
d) Lead time

Explanation: Lead time is the average time taken to deliver a completed work
item.

89. A large product contains several work items and it is hard for the product owner to
convey the product priorities and explain the big picture to the team. Which of the
following classification schemes will help the product owner in this task?
a) Theme
b) Epic
c) Features
d) Business value

Explanation: Theme is the term for a group of related user stories that help
achieve a common goal for the customer.

90. Brainstorming is an effective technique used in many different areas of an agile

project. In which of the following tasks is it least likely to be effective?
a) To generate ideas
b) To solve complex problems
c) To identify risks
d) To analyze and narrow down choices

Explanation: Brainstorming is not used to narrow down ideas - rather to

generate maximum ideas.
91. In comparing story points to ideal days, which of the following is NOT true?
a) Story points are a pure measure of size.
b) Story point express the complexity involved in the requirement.
c) Story points help drive cross-functional behaviour.
d) Story point estimates have a longer shelf-life than ideal day estimates.

Explanation: An estimate expressed in story points has a longer shelf life than
an estimate in ideal days. An estimate in ideal days can change based on the
team experience with the technology, the domain, and themselves, among other
factors.

92. A team is struggling to arrive at a common understanding about a story and the
most effective technical solution. Which of the following is the most effective way
to solve this problem?
a) Document existing solutions and encourage offline analysis to shortlist ideas
b) Get the team into a meeting room to discuss the problem.
c) Provide training to the team in decision making.
d) Make use of collaborative technology like instant messaging and video
conferencing.

Explanation: The most effective medium would be to have a face-to-face

meeting to exchange ideas and come to a conclusion.

93. Timeboxing is a central principle of agile planning. It means limiting the time
available for an activity. Which of the following is NOT true about timeboxing?
a) It implies setting a fixed time limit to overall development efforts and letting
other characteristics such as scope vary.
b) It creates focus and urgency within the team.
c) It sets the length of the iteration and decides how much functionality can be
delivered in the fixed length of time.
d) It ensures that teams will stretch themselves and find a way to always
complete the task within the timebox.

Explanation: If you are running behind the schedule, move unfinished work
into next the timebox rather than stretch yourself, leading to unsustainable pace
of work.

94. Calculate the velocity for the project team that completes five stories in one
iteration with the following story points: Story A - 5, Story B - 8, Story C - 3, Story D
- 2, Story E - 10. Story F-8 (50% complete)
a) 26
b) 28
c) 18
 d) 25

Explanation: Velocity is the addition of the number of story points assigned to

each user story completed during the iteration, i.e., Velocity = 5+8+3+2+10 = 28

95. Which of the following tools indicate the different stages of work items at any
point in an agile project?
a) Cumulative flow diagrams
b) Burnup charts
c) Burndown charts
d) Product backlog

Explanation: A cumulative flow diagram is a tool for tracking and forecasting

agile project

96. During an agile retrospective, the team facilitator decided to use a different
technique. No team member is allowed to speak. All participants are invited to
stand up and slide cards representing improvement items on the whiteboard. This
technique is known as:
a) Result-based management
b) Mute mapping
c) Prime directive
d) None of the above

Explanation: Mute Mapping is a variant of affinity mapping where no one

speaks and all participants are invited to stand-up and slide cards on the
whiteboard.

97. During backlog refinement, it was discovered that some stories were too large to
be completed in an iteration. Which of the following should be done?
a) Establish an analogy.
b) Disaggregation to break down the stories into smaller units.
c) Defer the stories which are too large.
d) Prioritize the stories based on business value.

Explanation: Disaggregation is breaking down epics or large stories into smaller

user stories. If the stories are too large and cannot be completed in an iteration,
they must be disaggregated or broken down into smaller units.

98. In your project, the sum of all stories is 100 story points. Based on past
experience, it is known that the team velocity is 10 story points per one-week
iteration. How many iterations does the project need to complete the user stories?
 a) 10
b) 1
c) 0.1
d) 20

Explanation: Number of iterations = 100/10 = 10.

99. Which of the following charts shows the total work in a project and changes in the
total work?
a) Burnup charts
b) Burndown charts
c) Task board
d) Iteration graph

Explanation: The burnup chart, in addition to showing how much work is

completed, also shows the scope of the project.

100. One of the first requirements to follow a Kanban system is to visualize the work.
Which of the following tools is helpful in achieving this step?
a) Task board
b) Burnup charts
c) Burndown charts
d) Risk profile graphs

Explanation: The task board is a form of Kanban board that shows the current
status of the work-in-progress (WIP) and limits the amount of work in-progress
the team allows.

101. Planning poker is an important estimation technique commonly used in agile

teams. Which of the following best expresses a principle of estimation utilized in
planning poker?
a) Analogous estimation
b) Detailed estimation
c) Work breakdown structure
d) Three point estimation

Explanation: Planning poker combines the estimation techniques of expert

opinion, disaggregation, and analogy.

102. In order to prioritize the work items targeted in a given timebox, the team has
ranked them based on value and risk. Which of these features should be done
first?
a) High risk high value
 b) High risk low value
c) Low risk high value
d) Low risk low value

Explanation: High risk high value features are risky to implement, but are
desirable to the customer. In order to drive down the risk early, the team should
address them first.
103. The daily standup meeting is an important event in a sprint. Which of the
following represents a primary intention of the daily stand-up meeting?
a) Inspecting and adapting work plans
b) Discussing architectural issues
c) Prioritizing the feature requests from the project manager
d) Reporting progress to the team facilitator

Explanation: Stand-up meetings allow the team members to share information

among themselves and evaluate the progress of work to make changes as
needed.

104. Risks need to be tracked on any project including agile projects. Who is the most
appropriate person to monitor all the risks in an agile project?
a) Quality tester
b) Customer support
c) Developer
d) Project manager

Explanation: Anybody on the team can be chosen to monitor risks, but the
project manager is the most suited person for monitoring risks. Stand-up
meetings allow the team members to share information among themselves and
evaluate the progress of work to make changes as needed.

105. An agile retrospective needs to be facilitated by an experienced team member

who is perceived to be neutral and easily approachable to the team. Which of the
following is NOT the responsibility of the retrospective facilitator?
a) Create the agenda
b) Begin planning the next project
c) Observe the team
d) Ask questions of the team members

Explanation: The goal of the Retrospective facilitator is to look back at the

project to assess its successes and challenges. It is his role to create an agenda,
solicit feedback, and encourage open dialogue between the team members.
Stand-up meetings allow the team members to share information among
themselves and evaluate the progress of work to make changes as needed.
106. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of steps to be followed
typically in an agile retrospective meeting?
a) Set the stage, gather data, generate insights, decide what to do, close
b) Gather data, decide what to do, discuss, close
c) Set the stage, generate insights, gather data, develop, close
d) Gather data, generate insights, decide what to do, develop, close

Explanation: The facilitator should follow the following steps when conducting a
retrospective: set the stage, gather data, generate insights, decide what to do,
close
107. During an agile retrospective, the team members generated a number of
improvement suggestions to be worked on. The team facilitator noted the
suggestions in an improvement backlog. What should be the next step?
a) Start working on the improvement items.
b) Plan the next sprint with all the improvement items considered.
c) Discuss the suggestions with senior management and see which are
appropriate for implementation.
d) Prioritize the improvement backlog and decide who will work on the
highest priority items.

Explanation: The team should decide on the priority order for the suggestions
and assign ownership of the actions.

108. An escaped defect is one which was found by the customer instead of the team.
Which of the following is NOT a potential effect of an undetected or escaped
defect in product design?
a) Loss of comfort
b) Loss of life
c) Increase in the velocity of the team
d) Loss of discretionary or irreplaceable money

Explanation: An escaped defect will not result in an increase in team velocity.

109. INVEST is an acronym for a set of attributes used to create well-written user
stories. What does 'V' mean in INVEST?
a) Valuable
b) Verifiable
c) Validated
d) Virtual

Explanation: The 'INVEST' stands for Independent, Negotiable, Valuable,

Estimable, Small, and Testable.
110. How do teams utilize process tailoring and frameworks to deliver final products?

a) Teams begin by building their own framework and tailor it to the needs of the
project and stakeholders.
b) Teams start with a well-known method and tailor it to their needs
based on their experience.
c) Teams begin by appointing an external coach to advise them about a suitable
method.
d) Teams construct frameworks at the end of the projects to use in future
projects, which they can then tailor to their needs as it fits.

Explanation: Process tailoring involves tailoring the agile processes to cater to a

situation.

111. Large products require multiple agile teams working on the same product. How
can the work of such teams be coordinated in terms of resources and
dependencies?
a) Frequent all-hands meetings
b) Management meetings
c) Meta scrums
d) Product visioning sessions

Explanation: Meta scrum is a communication mechanism used in large projects

with multiple agile teams for the purpose of coordinating resources and
dependencies.

112. The core agile values state that responding to change is more important than
________________________.
a) Reacting to change
b) Conforming to a plan
c) Customer collaboration
d) Working product

Explanation: Agile values state that it prefers responding to change over

performing to plan.

113. The five stages of agile project management framework are:

a) Envision, plan, explore, adapt, close.
b) Initiate, speculate, explore, adapt, close.
c) Envision, speculate, explore, adapt, close.
d) Envision, speculate, execute, adapt, close.
 Explanation: The five stages of the agile project management framework are
envision, speculate, explore, adapt, and close.

114. Which of the following best expresses the term refactoring that is commonly
used by teams following extreme programming practices?
a) Reorganizing the working code to make it better without changing the
functionality
b) Regression testing to make sure existing functions are still working.
c) Assessing the relative importance of different features and adjusting
priorities
d) Elaborating requirements to a more granular level

Explanation: Refactoring is the process of reorganizing the working code to

make it more organized and more maintainable without changing the
functionality.

115. Agile teams often make use of a fixed set of values from a given series to limit the
choices while estimating stories. Which of the following is the best estimation
scale for estimating large units of work?
a) 10,11,13,15
b) 1,2,3,5,8
c) 1, 3, 5, 7, 9
d) 2, 4, 6, 8, 10

Explanation: Using non-linear sequences is better for estimating because these

sequences give a better-estimating result than linear sequences.

116. In the NPV formula, the term "r" is taken to equal the rate of discounting. What is
meant by "discounting"?
a) Providing discounts on the actual cost (AC)
b) Reducing the effort estimates of features
c) Working on the earned value (EV)
d) Mapping future amounts back to their present value

Explanation: Discounting is the process of mapping the future amounts back to

their present values.
117. A programming practice where developers work in pairs with one programmer
driving the keyboard and the other programmer helping from another perspective
is called ______.
a) Pair programming
b) Refactoring
c) Test-driven development
d) Continuous integration
 Explanation: Pair Programming is a programming practice where developers
work in pairs with one programmer driving the keyboard and another
programmer helping from another perspective.

118. It is good to use a standard set of metrics in different areas to track progress.
Which of the following metrics cannot be standardized across different teams?
a) Response time
b) Cycle time
c) Velocity
d) Process cycle efficiency

Explanation: Velocity is based on benchmarks that are unique for each team. So
it cannot be standardized across multiple teams

119. Teams are naturally hesitant to come to the retrospective meetings when it
comes to agile retrospectives. Which of the following is the least likely cause of
this hesitation?
a) Fear of wasting time
b) Fear of blaming
c) Fear of speaking up
d) Fear of failure

Explanation: Retrospective challenges are fear of wasting time, blaming, and

speaking up.

120. Which of the following practices best describes an iterative methodology?

a) Stopping to fix defects found during development
b) Rapid prototyping to arrive at the desired goal or solution quickly
c) Identifying the value-adding and non-value-adding steps to reduce waste
d) Delivering a product in multiple stages

Explanation: Iterative approaches focus on the correctness of the solution by

experimenting and prototyping

121. A team discussed potential improvements for the next iteration. The team
facilitator noted 15 action items for improvement that the team wanted to work
on. What should they do next?
a) The team should ask the manager for feedback.
b) The team should ask the product owner to list backlog items for the next
iteration.
c) The team should start fixing the bugs that they found in the previous
iteration.
 d) The team should identify the top priority action items and focus on
improving those in the next iteration

Explanation: The next step that the team must follow is to identify the top
priority action items and focus on improving those in the next iteration.

122. Which of the following best describes the purpose of a sprint review meeting?
a) Determining how to improve the performance of the team
b) Calculating the velocity of the team
c) Celebrating the achievements of the team
d) Assessing the readiness of the product for potential release

Explanation: The sprint review is primarily meant for gathering feedback and
deciding whether the product is ready for release.

123. Agile requirements are often expressed in terms of user stories. Which of the
following best describes a user story?
a) A story that captures the profile of a typical end user.
b) A day in the life of a user of the system.
c) A small, granular unit of work that results in added value to the
customer.
d) The collection of all the requirements that the customer wants in a project in
order of priority.

Explanation: A user story represents a customer requirement - something that

adds value to the customer. It is small and granular and not a big narrative about
the users. The collection of such stories makes up the backlog.

124. A user story has to be completed in the upcoming iteration. The work requires
multiple people with different skill sets and activities to come together. How
should the user story be divided among team members?
a) Child stories or tasks
b) Epics
c) Modules
d) Sprints

Explanation: Epics (option B) are collections of stories woven around a theme.

Modules (option C) are units within the system, not related to a story. Sprints
(option D) are timeboxes within which the work required for accomplishing the
sprint backlog is carried out. Stories can be further subdivided into child stories
(if the parent story is too large) or into tasks that fulfill the requirements stories.
125. Often, the priority of the work in an agile project (expressed as user stories) is
governed by the interplay of different factors. Which of the following best
describes the factors governing the priority of a story?
a) Stakeholder wishes
b) ROI and risk
c) Number of customers requesting it
d) Size estimate given by the team

Explanation: Higher the ROI from a story, higher is its priority. Similarly, higher
risk items should have a higher priority. Stakeholder perceptions may play a role,
but it is always better to have a clear view based on these parameters (ROI and
risk). The size estimate given by the team may play a role in determining the ROI,
but it is not sufficient to determine the priority. The product owner typically
determines priorities - it is not a majority wins exercise (number of requesters).

126. The product backlog is typically produced by the product owner. Which of the
following is correct regarding backlogs?
a) A backlog represents the things a team was supposed to complete but did
not.
b) Backlog is a collection of items that a team might do to add value for
the customer.
c) Backlog represents the extent to which a team is behind schedule.
d) Release backlog is a subset of the iteration backlog.

Explanation: Backlog represents all the different things that a team might do for
the customer to add value (which are not yet done). It does not indicate whether
or not a team is lagging behind schedule. An iteration backlog is a subset of the
release backlog (not the other way around).

127. Before the end of the sprint, a few team members along with the product owner
came together to look at possible stories for the upcoming sprint. They clarified
doubts about the story, provided rough effort estimates, and discussed the
potential sequence of work. What activity is the team performing?
a) Prioritization
b) Story mapping
c) Backlog refinement
d) Release planning

Explanation: Backlog refinement is an activity in which the team and the

product owner pay attention to the requirements (stories). Requirements and
approaches are discussed, estimations are arrived at, and the team gets more
clarity about requirements.
128. During an iteration planning session, three team members could not agree on
the estimate for a story even after several rounds. Whose estimate should be
considered during sprint planning?
a) Team member assigned to work on the story
b) Development lead
c) Product owner
d) Average of their estimates should be used

Explanation: A product owner should not ideally participate in the estimation -

the estimates have to come from the team. An expert (lead) opinion is valuable
and must be considered, but in the event of a disagreement, the estimate of the
person who is going to do the actual work should be respected.

129. Ideal time measure is often used as a unit of measure for size estimates. When
one uses the term "ideal days" it means:
a) The lowest possible time it would take to implement something - assuming
everything goes well.
b) The amount of time it would take for the best developer to complete a story.
c) The goal for a story or a project that is set by the management.
d) The amount of time it would take to complete a story, assuming there
are no distractions.

Explanation: Ideal days capture the amount of effort required to complete a

story after assuming that there will be no distractions. The conversion from ideal
to actual days is determined by factoring in the amount of distractions, the level
of experience of the developer, etc.

130. Which of the following information is normally NOT used in agile?

a) Burndown charts
b) Burnup charts
c) Scrum boards
d) Gantt charts

Explanation: Agile methodologies don’t normally use Gantt chart views.

131. In a test-driven-development approach:

a) Testers advise the developers on how to develop a story.
b) Test cases are written along with the story.
c) Development stops until all bugs found by testers are fixed.
d) Tests are written before development, code is written to pass the tests.
 Explanation: TDD refers to a way of working where tests are written even before
a single line of code is written. The developers then work to write code that pass
the tests. Testers and developers have to work hand-in-hand to develop a
common understanding of the code and tests that validate the code.

132. In a caves and commons arrangement for an agile work space, the commons
area refers to:
a) The area where the junior team members work.
b) The stories that are common to multiple teams that will be worked on first.
c) The common design patterns that are identified and implemented during
refactoring.
d) The space where team members are located when they are working on
the project.

Explanation: Commons is the common team space where all team members
normally work. Caves are private spaces used for any private work.

133. A team facilitator in an agile team observes that during the daily standup
meeting, two team members start discussing technical details about a potential
problem. What should the facilitator do?
a) Let the discussion continue as long as it adds value.
b) Timebox the conversation and suggest that the team members continue
it offline, after the meeting.
c) Invite participation from others.
d) Provide own opinion on the matter.

Explanation: The time of the entire team cannot be spent on discussing the
technical issue, even if it is very important. For the daily standup to be effective,
the facilitator must focus attention on the core agenda and timebox any side
conversations. The side conversations can always be conducted later (outside
the daily standup).

134. How do you select the metrics that should be tracked in an agile project?
a) Select metrics that showcase the achievements of the team.

b) Select metrics that highlight areas of improvement.

c) Select metrics that customers want to see.
d) Select metrics that drive the intended behavior within a team.

Explanation: The metrics must aim to achieve the "right behavior" within the
team. Therefore, the performance metrics you select need to be customized to
the particular situation that the team is in.
135. The 12 agile principles along with the agile manifesto form the basis on which
agile teams manage their day-to-day work. Which statement below is NOT a valid
agile principle?
a) Deliver software frequently - every couple of weeks or couple of months.
b) Simplicity is essential - the art of maximizing the work you do.
c) Be open to changing requirements, even late in the cycle.
d) Self-managing teams for best requirements, architecture, and design.

Explanation: The agile principle about simplicity says 'Simplicity - the art of
maximizing the work NOT done - is essential'. It recommends keeping solutions
simple, not trying to over-engineer or deliver more than what the customer
requires. Therefore, b is not a correct statement about agile principles.

136. A team found that the automated tests that are produced are taking too much
time to execute and slowing down the continuous integration and build process.
What should be done?
a) Remove the slow tests from the build.
b) Separate the test and build phases.
c) Retain only the regression tests and remove the unit tests from the build.
d) Find a way to speed up the testing.

Explanation: Testing an integrated build is the core purpose of continuous

integration. A solution must be found to do it without slowing down the
development process.

137. When should the team refine the product backlog while working on iterations?
a) Frequently during the project
b) During the iteration review
c) During the release planning
d) As soon as the story is added to the backlog

Explanation: The backlog needs to be refined frequently so that the team can
pick up relevant items for subsequent iterations. This needs to be done
frequently throughout the release.

138. Which of the following represents the ideal workspace for an agile team?
a) Open workspaces with no partitions
b) Desks with cluster seating to separate team members working on the same
part of the product
c) Workspaces with provision for privacy and individual thinking
d) Distributed teams that can follow the sun
 Explanation: An agile workspace should be designed to facilitate open
communication between the team members. Ideally, team members should be
within earshot and in sight of each other as far as possible.

139. You are working on a large project that will be executed using agile
methodologies. Ten scrum teams will be working on the same product. How many
product backlogs are to be created?
a) As many as the number of teams
b) Depending upon the functional areas of a product
c) One backlog per product
d) Approximately one PO per ten team members

Explanation: There should only be one product backlog per product.

140. You are working on a large project that will be executed using agile
methodologies. Ten scrum teams will be working on the same product. How many
product owners should be appointed?
a) One PO per product
b) As many as the number of scrum masters
c) One PO per team
d) One PO for each feature

Explanation: Agile recommends having one PO per team if multiple teams are
working on the same product.

141. Which of the following is most important to be an effective leader of an agile

team?
a) Empowering the team
b) Monitoring the progress of the team
c) Ensuring that every team member has just enough work and not too much
work
d) Ensuring that the deliverables committed to the team are being met

Explanation: A good agile leader should let the team self-manage, within a
certain set of core principles. Hence, it is the team which manages the project.

142. As a team facilitator, you are concerned that the team has committed to too
many work items in a given iteration. How should you respond to this?
a) Advice the team to set more realistic goals.
b) Ask the team questions about their proposed approach and assess how
confident they are about meeting the goals.
c) Ask senior team members to monitor progress closely.
 d) Tell the customer that although the team has committed, the goal is unlikely
to be met.

Explanation: The team facilitator should tactfully manage the team and not
impose their own ideas instead. If necessary, they can ask probing questions that
may give clues to the team.

143. One of the core practices of extreme programming is refactoring. Which of the
following practices greatly encourages continuous refactoring?
a) Pair programming
b) Continuous integration
c) Coding standards
d) Test-driven-development

Explanation: TDD assures that there is a robust set of tests available for the
team to detect problems. It encourages the team to refactor more frequently.

144. During a release planning discussion, the product owner and the team are
wondering which epic to prioritize. Epic A has the highest NPV. Epic B has the
highest IRR. Epic C has the highest ROI. Epic D has the highest payback period.
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D

Explanation: IRR is a superior measure and should be used for making decisions
in the benefit-cost analysis.

145. Which of the following best describes an incremental development method?

a) Incremental delivery provides early value to the customer by delivering
step-by-step and frequently during a release.
b) Incremental delivery relies on delivering the entire product increment
together.
c) Incremental delivery relies on low rate of change to plan the increments.
d) Incremental delivery is used when the team is not sure about the solution to
a problem.

Explanation: The incremental delivery method delivers step-by-step to increase

the value of visibility for customers.

146. User story describes the requirements for an agile project from a user
perspective. All of the following can be candidates for user stories except:
a) New features
 b) Testing for a bunch of features
c) Deletion of features
d) Technical activities

Explanation: Testing is part of the work required to complete a user story - not a
story in itself.

147. How do agile methods help in estimation?

a) By improving correctness of estimates
b) By providing quicker feedback about estimates
c) By making estimation a fun exercise
d) By assigning financial value to each estimate

Explanation: Agile projects provide faster feedback about estimates (literally

every iteration).

148. A team is using a Kanban system to manage its work. If the speed of working is
reduced at a particular step, what would be the result?
a) Increase in the amount of work-in-progress
b) Decrease in the amount of work-in-progress
c) Frequent changes in work-in-progress limits
d) Inability to predict from the given data

Explanation: If productivity is reduced at a particular step, then the amount of

work-in-progress will increase.

149. In agile estimation techniques, the size of a user story is usually measured by
story points. The story is then broken into several tasks which contribute to the
completion of the story. What would be the measure used for the size of a task?
a) Task points
b) Function points
c) Hours
d) None of the above

Explanation: Tasks are usually estimated in terms of hours taken to complete.

There is no such thing as task points. Function points are calculated for entire
projects.

150. Which practice is most useful for deciding the minimally marketable feature for a
product?
a) Story mapping
b) Backlog refinement
c) Brainstorming
 d) Value stream mapping

Explanation: Story mapping helps ascertain the MMF by tracking the bare
minimum set of stories needed to enable an end-to-end feature.

151. In the 3 Cs of good user stories, one C stands for card. What is meant by card?
a) Story is written (usually by hand) on a physical card.
b) Story should lead to a conversation within the team.
c) The acceptance criteria of a story that is written down.
d) A story that the customer pays for instead of the paying for the entire
backlog.

Explanation: In many collocated teams, stories are written by hand on physical

cards.

152. Which is the best forum to involve external stakeholders?

a) Iteration planning
b) Daily stand-up
c) Iteration review
d) Iteration retrospective

Explanation: The team demonstrates the new functionality during the iteration
review. This is the most appropriate forum for the team to invite stakeholders to
give them information and get their feedback. The other forums are internal and
may not be appropriate for external stakeholders.

153. Lean methods originated in the Toyota production system. Which of the following
is NOT a fundamental tenet of lean?
a) Eliminate waste
b) Amplify learning
c) Decide as early as possible
d) Deliver as fast as possible

Explanation: Lean actually advocates deciding as late as possible (i.e., taking a

lot of time to weigh the possible alternatives and detailed planning). Hence,
option C is an incorrect statement.

154. Though it is self-managed, an agile team needs to keep in mind some basic
principles to guide its behavior. Which of the following is most important for the
team?
a) Conforming to a plan
b) Negotiating contracts
c) Enforcing team discipline
 d) Adapting to change

Explanation: In keeping with the agile manifesto guidelines, an agile team

should be adept at adapting to change. Conforming to a plan is not a
fundamental value in agile, nor is contract negotiation or team discipline.

155. A team uses 2 weeks as a common sprint duration. How long should a sprint
planning meeting take for this team?
a) 1 hour
b) Half an hour
c) Four hours
d) Fifteen minutes or less

Explanation: The ideal amount of time for sprint planning is 1-2 hours per week
of iteration. For a two week sprint, this translates to 2-4 hours. Option c is the
only option available within this range.

156. A product manager needs to convey some important information related to a

task during an iteration. Where can the PM find out who is working on that task?

a) The daily stand-up meeting

b) In the iteration backlog
c) In the product backlog
d) By asking the scrum master

Explanation: During the iteration planning session, the iteration backlog is

created. It contains information such as the breakup of stories into tasks,
assignment of tasks to team members, etc.

157. What can you usually say about the velocity of a seasoned and functioning agile
team?
a) Their velocity should be greater than the industry average.
b) Their velocity should improve by 10% after each iteration.
c) There is no need to track the velocity as the team is self-managed.
d) Their velocity should be consistent and predictable.

Explanation: The velocity of a team is an important metric because it indicates

the normal rate at which the team completes stories. It is certainly an important
piece of information for a team. It is not advisable to compare the velocity across
teams, because each team will have a different definition for the story points and
the circumstances of each team are different. It is also not reasonable to expect
a continuous improvement in velocity. Being predictable (consistent) about the
rate of deliveries is probably the best goal to have.
158. A team member wants to implement a new tool to improve code quality. Which is
the best forum to talk about this?
a) Iteration retrospective
b) Ad-hoc meeting
c) Iteration review
d) Daily stand-up

Explanation: The iteration retrospective is a forum that provides an opportunity

to adapt procedures. Hence, it is the most appropriate forum to discuss this.

159. How does the customer communicate with the team in extreme programming?
a) By going on-site (with the team)
b) By appointing a single point of contact with the team
c) By participating in code reviews at random
d) By participating in the daily stand-up meetings

Explanation: The on-site customer is a fundamental element of extreme

programming or XP. XP does not have a product owner role. The customer is not
really expected to attend all the meetings or review codes. Rather, they are
supposed to work on requirements in conjunction with others in the customer
organization, come up with different user personas, answer questions from the
team, provide instant feedback if required on UI designs, etc.

160. In a scrum team, who is responsible for ensuring that the method is followed in
letter and in spirit?
a) The team product owner
b) The scrum master
c) The manager
d) The agile coach

Explanation: Scrum masters are supposed to be team gurus. They keep their
teams honest in terms of following the practices in the right spirit.

161. During backlog refinement, a team member felt that a story was too complex to
provide an estimate for it. What can be done?
a) Make suitable assumptions
b) Defer the story
c) Separate the story into a timeboxed research story and an
implementation story
d) Ask the expert to provide an estimate
 Explanation: If a story is too complex, it makes sense to first conduct time-
boxed research on it and then proceed with implementation.

162. During a daily stand-up meeting, a team member brought up a suggestion to

improve the utility of a feature. The scrum master should suggest that it should be
discussed instead during:
a) Sprint planning meeting
b) Backlog refinement
c) Sprint retrospective
d) Release retrospective

Explanation: Possible product enhancements can be discussed during backlog

refinement.

163. Why is diversity a desirable attribute for an agile team?

a) Diverse teams are less likely to disagree with the PO
b) Diverse teams guarantee timely delivery
c) Diverse teams comply with regulations
d) Diverse teams give rise to different points of view and innovation

Explanation: The main benefit of diversity in a team is the diverse perspectives

it brings to the table, which can lead to innovation. It may even be a mandate,
but option D better articulates the justification.

164. How are agile projects usually planned?

a) Scope and time are fixed, cost and size of the team are flexible.
b) Time and resources are fixed, scope is flexible.
c) Cost and scope are fixed, time is flexible.
d) Triple constraint is a waterfall concept - not applicable to agile projects.

Explanation: Agile projects usually operate within specific timeboxes and pre-
assigned teams. The scope, broken down into small increments of epics and
stories, is left flexible. You work on the scope in the order of priority.

165. Extreme programming gives excellent guidance on development practices. What

does XP recommend about code check-ins?
a) Developers check-in code every day at a fixed time.
b) Developers can check-in at any time but are responsible to make sure
their changes compile and pass unit tests.
c) Developers cannot check-in code till the end of the iteration or when all
features are complete.
d) Code is first submitted to the release manager, who approves check-ins.
 Explanation: Continuous integration is one of the practices of agile. This means
that the code is checked-in regularly. As soon as a developer is finished, the code
should be checked in and validated.

166. A product manager was newly appointed to an agile team and is looking for a
high-level description of the scope of the project. Which document can the
manager find it in?
a) The project charter
b) The work breakdown structure
c) The user stories
d) The epics

Explanation: The key words in the question are high-level description. This can
be found in the charter. The user stories and epics contain some of the
requirements, not the entire scope.

167. A team is embarking on a release planning exercise. Which of the following is

NOT a required output of a release planning exercise?
a) A release backlog with estimates
b) Stories tentatively allocated to iterations
c) An initial list of risks and open issues
d) A detailed project schedule

Explanation: Release backlog, stories, and risks are all outputs of the release
planning process.

168. A project manager is trying to establish a forecast for the end date of an agile
project based on the rate at which stories are getting completed. Which of the
following charts will show this information?
a) Iteration burndown chart
b) A progress chart
c) Cumulative flow diagram
d) A Kanban board

Explanation: The cumulative flow diagram shows the progress of stories

planned for a release through initial definition to completion. It gives a complete
picture of progress in a release. The iteration burndown chart pertains to a
specific iteration and deals with the task level. A progress chart is also typically
for a given iteration, whereas a Kanban board gives the picture as on a given
point in time of the stories being worked on.

169. Why is it that the product owner of a team should ideally not be the line manager
for any of the team members?
 a) The team will not be able to push back if the demands made by the PO
are not reasonable.
b) The PO is meant to act like a servant leader.
c) The PO will be too busy with customers to do performance appraisals for the
team.
d) The PO will not be able to solve blocking issues.

Explanation: The PO is naturally expected to be somewhat demanding and ask

for more work in a given timebox. If they are also line managing the team, the
team may not be able to push back, resulting in loss of self-organization.

170. For the last three iterations, a team completed the development tasks for the
planned stories, but the testing was lagging behind. What is the best thing you can
do?
a) Add more testers to the team
b) Encourage the team to be more cross-functional
c) Reduce the developers on the team
d) Plan for testing to lag development by one iteration

Explanation: We must make sure that the team is doing everything it can to help
remove the bottlenecks and help each other out. The team should collectively
deliver the near releasable product at the end of the release. Options A, C, and D
are all trying to mask or work around the problem, whereas the issue needs to
be addressed directly.

171. A team is unable to complete their committed work in iterations due to blocking
issues. This indicates that:
a) The team is not cross-functional enough.
b) The team facilitator is not effective.
c) The team needs to be more reasonable in estimating.
d) The team needs to modify their definition of done.

Explanation: The team facilitator is expected to remove blocking issues. If they

are not effective, stories are likely to remain incomplete.

172. Which of the following best explains the advantage of story points over ideal
days?
a) Story points are easier to explain outside the team.
b) Story points use separate estimates from each team member contributing to
the story.
c) Story points are based on the Fibonacci series.
d) Eventually, story point estimation becomes faster.
 Explanation: Since story points are analogous there is better chances of
estimates being arrived at faster through comparisons.

173. A team frequently finds that they get stuck within an iteration as some stories
have dependencies that are not met. What is the best way to address this?
a) Establish and follow a definition of ready that clarifies when a story can
be accepted in a given iteration.
b) Drop those stories and focus on those which can be completed.
c) Escalate the unmet dependencies and seek a timely resolution.
d) Product owner should ensure that external dependencies are met.

Explanation: Agile projects deal with the basic triangle of value, quality, and
constraints. Scope, cost, and time represent the constraints.

174. A team is encouraged to do value-based prioritization. All of the following

represents value derived from a piece of work except:
a) Additional team members inducted
b) Additional revenue
c) Operational cost reduction
d) Knowledge gained

Explanation: Inducting additional team members as such has nothing to do with

value to the customer.

175. The team is working on an agile project and the contract has a fixed price and
fixed scope. Midway through the project, the customer requests for a change.
What should you do?
a) Inform the customer that no changes are allowed on a fixed price contract.
b) Agile is about customer collaboration over contract negotiation - hence we
accept the change.
c) Negotiate with the customer to drop some low priority feature of same
size as that of the change requested.
d) Defer the decision to the management of the organization.

Explanation: If the customer requires a change, it must be accommodated. The

team should try to work out a way in which it can be delivered. Deferring to
management may be a tempting option, but before doing so, it seems that the
team would have to do some homework in compiling the relevant information.
There are many ways a change can be accommodated by an agile team. For
example, the team can always negotiate with the customer to drop a low priority
feature of same size as that of the change requested.
176. In an agile team, the developers are complaining that testers are not completing
their work on time, leading to the team not fulfilling its commitments in the
iteration. The testers complain that developers are delaying deliverables to test,
which is causing this problem. What is the level of conflict in the team?
a) Level-1
b) Level-2
c) Level-3
d) Level-4

Explanation: In the hierarchy of conflicts, when the team discovers a problem

it's level-1, when a disagreement comes to the fore it's level-2, when a
disagreement degenerates to a contest (generalizations, formation of groups) it's
level-3, crusade (open warfare between groups) is level-4, world war (all hell
breaks loose) is level-5. It is clear from the description that the team is at level-3.

177. One of the important attributes of agile teams is team self-organization. What is
NOT implied in self-organized teams?
a) Teams self-assign tasks
b) Technical decisions are made by the team
c) The team decides what commitments they want to make
d) The team dictates the priority decisions

Explanation: Priority decisions are taken by the PO and not the team.

178. In agile projects, "technical debt" is a term that refers to:

a) Loans taken by the organization to undertake the project
b) Technical team members offered on a temporary basis to the team
c) Deferring technical decisions till the last responsible moment
d) Technical tasks that are pending and will add to the backlog of the
product in the future

Explanation: Pending technical tasks are often called technical debt as over the
long term, they will come back and haunt the team.

179. A team found that it has a serious shortage of testing team members. As a result
the testing tasks remain open for many of the committed stories. What is the best
way to address this?
a) Break each story into development and testing tasks.
b) Perform testing in a subsequent iteration.
c) Find a way to test the story with the available resources.
d) Modify the definition of done for the stories.
 Explanation: Testing is required and the team must find a way to manage it with
the existing resources.

180. Which of the following is NOT one of the advantages of pair programming?
a) Team members get more freedom to think independently
b) Collective code ownership
c) Online review
d) Reduction in overall development time

Explanation: Pair programming is a practice in XP that brings two programmers

together to work on a task. It helps collective code ownership because each line
of code is known to at least two programmers. It helps get an online review and
results in cleaner code that will more likely work the first time. This leads to
reduction in the overall time. It may or may not lead to independent thinking.
Indeed, one of the risks in pair programming is that one of the members of the
pair may end up listening to and merely following the instructions of the other.

181. Lean and cycle time are two important metrics for any team practising Lean and
Kanban techniques. Which of the following best explains the terms lead time and
cycle time?
a) Lead time is the amount of time it takes for a unit of work to proceed
from inception to production delivery. Cycle time is the time it takes to
complete a requirement after it is picked up.
b) Lead time is the waiting time between processes. Cycle time is the total time
spent in processing.
c) Lead time is the amount of wait time before a process can start. Cycle time is
the total time spent in processing.
d) Lead time and cycle time mean the same thing.

Explanation: Lead time is the amount of time it takes for a unit of work to
proceed from inception to production delivery. Cycle time is from when a
requirement is picked up for development to when it is completed.

182. Which of the following represents the normal agenda for a daily stand-up
meeting?
a) What did you do yesterday? What are you planning to do today? When will
you finish your tasks for the sprint?
b) What did you do yesterday? What are you planning to do today? What
issues are blocking you?
c) What is the status of your tasks? When will you complete them? What are
your risks and issues?
d) What is the status of each task? What percentage of work is completed? What
is the projected end date?
 Explanation: The three questions you answer during a daily stand-up meeting
are: What did you do since the last meeting? What do you plan to do before the
next meeting? What is in your way (blocking issues)?

183. If you are an agile project manager, what is the best measure of success of your
project?
a) The project delivered maximum value to the customer.
b) The project was on time and on budget.
c) The customer received all the promised features.
d) The project was delivered with the documented scope.

Explanation: Agile aims to deliver the maximum value possible to the customer.
It is not about following a plan (scope, cost, time). It is about being flexible and
adaptable in order to achieve this goal.

184. What happens during iteration planning meetings?

a) Team members brainstorm the design for the iteration.
b) Activities and tasks are identified and story points are estimated.
c) The team is introduced to the iteration stories for the first time.
d) The product owner shares the goal of the iteration and lists the stories that
must be completed.

Explanation: Iteration planning does result in some clarity about the approach
or design, but it is not a design meeting. Some of the stories may be new, but in
general the team may already have been exposed to the stories before the
planning meeting (for example, during release planning). Indeed, it may be
necessary to have some exposure prior to the meeting in order to timebox it.
The product owner does set the goal for the iteration, but does not decide which
stories to complete - that requires buy-in from the team. In the iteration planning
session, stories are broken down into tasks, assigned to team members, and
story points are estimated.

185. If a team is looking for quick time-to-market, what should be the basis for
prioritizing features?
a) Cost of features
b) Risk to complete the features
c) Number and completeness of features
d) Creating complex stories

Explanation: Time-to-market is often a critical parameter. In order to reach the

market quicker, number of features may have to be compromised, along with
the extent to which they are implemented.
186. Project stakeholders have low confidence in the development team. Which of the
following gives the maximum benefit in terms of building stakeholder confidence?

a) More meetings with the stakeholders to boost communication

b) Reduction in number of defects
c) Induction of new team members
d) Delivering working software increments at the end of each iteration

Explanation: Stakeholders might value all options (A, B, and C) but what they
value the most is to see functionality delivered in the form of working software at
a good frequency.

187. If the burndown chart showed an upward trend for two days in a row in the
middle of the iteration, what might be the reason?
a) The team is not completing the stories fast enough.
b) Few team members were absent.
c) Tasks got added to the iteration backlog.
d) The team is working overtime.

Explanation: The burndown chart plots the number of hours of work remaining
in a given iteration. Slow completion of tasks or absenteeism may see this
number stagnate or move down slowly, but it would only move upward if new
tasks got added.

188. A scrum team wants the scrum master role to be re-defined so that it is more
useful for the team. What should be done in this situation?
a) It should not be done.
b) The topic should be discussed at the next scrum meeting.
c) Discuss the topic at the next sprint retrospective.
d) The project management office should be consulted for guidance.

Explanation: The philosophy of agile is flexibility and adaptability. It is legitimate

to re-define roles if the team agrees to it. The best forum to discuss bringing in
such changes is the sprint retrospective and not the daily scrum, which is more
of a sync-up meeting. It is also not appropriate to delegate judgment to a PMO
because a team should have the freedom to do what it needs in order to be
effective.

189. A team is practising Kanban and has reached the WIP limit on its constraining
step with regard to the number of work items in progress. Another work item
came up, which is extremely high priority. What should the team do?
 a) Refuse to accept the work item until the number of work items in progress
goes below the WIP limit.
b) Add team members to the team to address the urgent issue.
c) Request the removal of one of the existing items from the queue and
add the new high priority item in.
d) Discuss the topic at the next daily huddle.

Explanation: Kanban allows re-prioritization of items but doesn't permit

exceeding the WIP limit. So a reasonable approach is to add the urgent task in
exchange for another lower priority item.

190. Which of the following is usually not considered in the prioritization of stories?
a) The business value of the functionality added.
b) The effort needed to build the functionality added.
c) The risk in adding the new functionality.
d) The number of team members needed to work on the story.

Explanation: Value is a function of the business value (or return), the cost, and it
also needs to be viewed in conjunction with the risk (or variability). Number of
team members would be included in the cost so it is not really an additional
consideration.

191. A distributed team is facing challenges in collaboration, which is impacting

productivity. Which of the following is NOT likely to be helpful in increasing
collaboration?
a) Collocate at least those team members who are in the same location.
b) Add team members with the specific goal of coordinating across team
members.
c) Make use of tools for high bandwidth, direct communication.
d) Broadcast important project communication to everybody in the team.

Explanation: Adding team members will likely introduce more overheads in

communication.

192. Agile techniques are based on the well-known principles of empirical process
control and incorporate many concepts from process control theory. What is the
best representation of these principles?
a) Inspect and adapt
b) Deliver frequently
c) Plan in detail and execute rapidly
d) Introspect and retrospect
 Explanation: The agile principle of inspect and adapt adheres to the process
control principles of feedback loops.

193. Process tailoring and process instantiation are both very common in agile
methodologies, which advocate being flexible about the process being followed.
Which of the following best explains the difference between the two?
a) Tailoring introduces new processes and instantiation implements a new
process.
b) Tailoring is adapting the processes, instantiation is implementing the
adapted processes.
c) They are the same.
d) Tailoring scraps existing processes, instantiation maintains the status quo.

Explanation: Process tailoring is an important aspect of agile. It means that you

start on a process and tailor it in a way to best fit your team and its particular
situation. Process instantiation, on the other hand, takes a (often heavy and
prescriptive) process and implements it with little or no scope for adaptation.

194. Which of the following is least useful for the project management team in an
organization with widely adopted agile methodologies?
a) Collating data and establishing organizational baselines for average
productivity of scrum teams.
b) Reporting on the compliance requirements being met through agile
methods.
c) Providing guidelines for making decisions in uncertain environments.
d) Establishing job descriptions and career paths for typical agile team roles.

Explanation: Comparing productivity data across teams is not advisable in agile

because each team may have a different baseline.

195. A team is trying to come up with a charter for its agile project. What is least
important for the team at this stage?
a) Visualizing the customer need to think of the best solution
b) Building a solid business case to justify the project
c) Maintain the integrity of the agile process to be followed
d) Get maximum all possible details about the product backlog to add
clarity to the vision

Explanation: Options A, B, and C are all reasonable principles, activities, and

deliverables in an agile chartering process. Option D runs contrary to the
principle of rolling-wave-planning, or 'inspect and adapt' framework, while trying
to add too many details about the product backlog. The backlog will be in a state
 of flux and agile is all about being flexible to handle changing priorities. Hence,
option D is the right answer.

196. A sprint review is an important meeting in the scrum methodology. What is the
purpose of the sprint review?
a) The scrum master reviews progress and gives guidance about corrective
actions.
b) The team provides a working demonstration of the software and solicits
feedback.
c) The customer and other stakeholders carry out a thorough review of the
performance of the team members and provide the feedback to the manager
of the team.
d) The team members introspect on the sprint that went by and decide on
corrective actions.

Explanation: The sprint review is a meeting where the team demonstrates

progress (in the form of working software) to the product owner and other
stakeholders in order to get feedback.

197. A team has recently transitioned to scrum. The product owner wants to know the
level of detail to put in to the stories so that the team can work better. What
guidance would you give to this end?
a) Stories should be as detailed as possible, so that there is no room for
ambiguity.
b) There cannot be more than one index card and the details can be given in a
separate document.
c) The level of detail should be worked out between the team and the
product owner.
d) Stories can contain less details because agile relies on developing working
software more than comprehensive documentation.

Explanation: Level of detail in the requirements should be 'just enough' to

ensure clarity. Beyond this, finer level of guidance needs to be worked out by the
team along with the product owner. The product owner should not get
'perspective' on this and let them work it out.

198. A team finds that the product owner frequently reverses old decisions and many
features are started but never finished. What is a way to resolve this?
a) The team and PO should work closer together to understand the
priorities and make informed decisions.
b) The PO has final authority over the backlog so it is okay if they want to keep
changing the backlog.
 c) The team should go for longer sprints to accommodate the mid-sprint
changes.
d) The executives should step and override the PO decisions where appropriate.

Explanation: This situation calls for greater collaboration and communication

between the team and the PO.

199. Which of the following best explains internal rate of return?

a) It is the discount rate at which NPV is zero and represents the rate at
which the project adds value to the organization.
b) It is the average savings or profit per year divided by the initial investment.
c) It does not take into consideration the time value of money.
d) It calculates how many features or stories were rejected (returned) by the
customer.

Explanation: NPV is the summation of the cash flows of each time period,
reduced to their present value.

200. In the KANO model of prioritization, what are the priorities that you can assign to
stories?
a) Must, Should, Could, Would
b) High, Medium, Low
c) Threshold, Linear, Exciter
d) See if the stated quality level is really needed

Explanation: In the Kano model, Threshold features are must haves without
which a product is not acceptable. Linear features are good to have and the
more of these features you have, the better it is. Exciters are features that act as
clear differentiators from competition and help attract a price premium.

201. Which of the following is a good way to use the MoSCoW prioritization?
a) In a given time box, the team must only work on the MUST items.
b) Appropriate rewards and recognition policies must be in place for teams that
consistently deliver not just the M, but also the S, C and W.
c) A team must ensure that at least 50% of the work is classified as W (Won't) in
a given timebox.
d) While planning a timebox, a team must never fill an entire timebox with
only the MUSTs.

Explanation: In the MoSCoW model, M stands for must. As must items should
never be compromised, it makes sense that you plan to not fill up the entire
timebox with must items.
202. The project management office, in an organization that has adopted agile,
regularly issues best practices and records performance data. They just published
a comparison of velocity data (story points completed per iteration) for different
teams. As a scrum master for one of the teams, what would be your next steps?

a) Share this data with the team and discuss with them how to improve their
numbers in comparison with the rest of the organization.
b) Write back to the PMO stating that velocities should not be compared
across teams.
c) Write to the management justifying the difference between the
organizational benchmark and the figures for your team.
d) As the team is self-organizing, simply share the data with them and let them
figure out what to do.

Explanation: Comparison of productivity data across teams is useless because

each team works under different circumstances and captures story points on
different basis. Comparing velocity data is not healthy. Hence, it must be pushed
back to the PMO.

203. You are starting a new project with a new agile team. What would NOT be a good
approach to develop an initial estimation of the team velocity?
a) Take a guess.
b) Run a couple of initial iterations and extrapolate the data.
c) Use the desired velocity of the management as a starting point and go
from there.
d) Use historical data.

Explanation: Options A, B, and D are all legitimate ways of determining the

initial velocity of the team. The notion of management about the desired velocity
of the team is a poor starting point because it is completely uncorrelated with
the inherent capabilities of the team.

204. Teams following feature-driven development often use a parking lot chart. What
does a project parking lot chart indicate?
a) The features that you have decided to park for now for want of prioritization.
b) The overall backlog of features in the project.
c) The amount of time a feature is allowed to stay in the backlog before it is
automatically removed.
d) The progress made in each feature that the team is working on.

Explanation: The project parking lot diagram indicates the progress made in
each feature planned in the release.
205. Many organizations already have a business analyst's role separate from the PO.
What could be some tasks that the PO can delegate to the BA?
a) Writing detailed stories and communicating with the team on a daily
basis.
b) Developing business justifications for product releases and creating the
roadmap.
c) Communicating with the business users and assigning priorities.
d) Being a servant leader and helping the team with development activity.

Explanation: In general, the product manager focuses more on the external

stakeholders and tries to reflect their point of view in the roadmap. A product
owner has both an inward and outward focus. The outward focus is like that of
the product manager, and the inward focus calls upon the product owner to
work with the team in order to plan iterations and releases and build a roadmap
with team input.

206. A company is trying to transition to agile and is looking for a suitable project to
pilot the transition. Which project would be the most suitable for the pilot?
a) Project A: Estimated duration is 1 year. Team size is 10.
b) Project B: Estimated duration is 3 months. Team size is 10.
c) Project C: Estimated duration is 2 years. Team size is 50.
d) Project D: Estimated duration is 3 years. Team size is 55.

Explanation: A medium duration project with a reasonable team is best suited

for the pilot. Within the first couple of iterations, you can figure out whether the
methodology will work for you.

207. Although agile methodologies give a lot of flexibility to the team members to
tailor their processes, teams are also required to comply with standards or
regulations at the same time. Which of the following may be a good way to bring
the compliance angle into agile projects?
a) Let the external support teams like the PMO or SEPG handle the compliance
needs.
b) Make use of existing quality frameworks like ISO, CMMi.
c) Ask the customer to recommend a process.
d) Treat compliance also as a requirement and include in the product
backlog for prioritization and working.

Explanation: Compliance requirements may come in whenever you need to

comply with a certain process, standard, or a framework. It may be due to
government regulations, customer-mandated processes, or due to internal
requirements to comply with well-known quality frameworks. Compliance also
requires work, which needs to be prioritized like any other activity on the project.
208. The primary output of a sprint planning session is:
a) Product backlog
b) Release backlog
c) Sprint backlog
d) Project schedule

Explanation: Sprint planning sessions result in a sprint backlog. It may impact

the release backlog or the product backlog, but the primary output of the
session is the sprint backlog.

209. What is the primary purpose of the agile manifesto?

a) To outline the basic values and principles that are common across all
agile methods
b) To explain to people what agile can do for their organizations.
c) To make a detailed business case for adopting agile.
d) To enable organizations to scale an agile implementation.

Explanation: The agile manifesto was created by a few leaders in the software
industry, who came together to form an agile alliance.

210. To make a portfolio decision, senior management wants to know the

approximate cost of a project. At what stage can we estimate the cost of an agile
project?
a) You cannot estimate it until the last iteration because the backlog is
changeable.
b) It can never be known for sure because agile projects are flexible by design.
c) During release planning, the cost can be estimated by the team.
d) During the business case, the product owner can estimate the cost.

Explanation: Here we are talking about a budgetary estimate, which might be

known during the release planning stage based on the broad contours of the
release and the estimates assigned by the team. It is true that the release may
change up to the last sprint, but an approximate figure for budgeting purposes
can still be given. The business case is usually prior to the planning stages.
Hence, the estimates in the business case may not be suitable for budgeting
purposes since they are not likely given by the team.

211. You are the manager of an agile project. You find that a particular stakeholder is
proving to be a major distraction to the team. He frequently calls the team to ask
for status updates, get information, provide suggestions, and sometimes to
request changes. What should you do about this?
 a) Escalate the issue and keep the stakeholder off-limits.
b) Invite the stakeholder to the appropriate planning or review meetings
and request him to bring up his views at those meetings.
c) Listen to the stakeholder, but ignore his suggestions.
d) Tell the stakeholder directly not to disturb the team during the iteration.

Explanation: Although interest and involvement of the stakeholders is not a bad

thing, it must not be discouraged. Agile provides forums and platforms to listen
to and accept stakeholder input. The skill of the manager lies in utilizing these
forums to get positive involvement from the stakeholders while protecting the
team from distractions.

212. Which statement best describes the term self-organized in agile?

a) A team that has no external dependencies.
b) A team that can prioritize the backlog independently.
c) A team that is responsible for making and delivering on its
commitments.
d) A team that does not need a manager to get along.

Explanation: A team being self-organized does not mean there are no external
dependencies (option A). It still requires the product owner to prioritize the
backlog (option B). It also does not eliminate the need for a manager (option D).
What it means is that the team is able to make commitments and accept
responsibility and accountability for delivering their commitments.

213. How does pair programming work in extreme programming?

a) A developer and a tester team up to work on a story.
b) A customer representative and a developer jointly work on a requirement.
c) A tester writes the test while a developer writes the code.
d) Two developers work together on a task.

Explanation: In pair programming, two programmers work in parallel on any

piece of code, literally sharing a terminal. One of them works on the code and
the other does an online review, provides comments, suggestions, and also,
reviews alternative implementation methods.

214. During the estimation process, a team first ordered the stories from the smallest
to the largest and then slotted them in the appropriate buckets of estimates
(small, medium, large, extra-large). Which technique might be used here?
a) Story pointing
b) Affinity estimating
c) Parametric estimation
d) Expert estimation
 Explanation: In affinity estimating, stories are estimated by virtue of their
affinity to one or the other categories. It forces you to make fairly coarse-grained
judgments about the size, which is all you need for planning.

215. A team is experiencing a lot of conflicts. What is the best statement you can make
about conflict management in agile?
a) Conflicts are dangerous in agile and must be prevented at the source.
b) You must try your best to reach a consensus in all circumstances.
c) Conflicts may be healthy as long as they are resolved in a way that
enhances trust and collaboration.
d) The manager must act as the arbitrator in such conflicts to ensure a
satisfactory resolution.

Explanation: Conflicts may be good as it indicates that team members bring up

different ideas and feel free to disagree. The manager needs to make sure that
the conflicts are managed proactively and not allowed to degenerate into
something detrimental to the team cause.
216. What is the primary role of a product owner on an agile team?
a) To staff up the team and ensure that the morale of the team is good
b) To manage the delivery of the software in a timely manner
c) To estimate the size of the requirements
d) To coordinate with the team to ensure they are working on items that
are valuable to the customer

Explanation: The product owner is not a line management role (it is the job of
the line manager to staff up and ensure morale is good). It is not a delivery
management role (the team is responsible for the delivery). The product owner
relies on the team estimates and uses them to plan the releases. PO is
responsible for making sure that the team has a good set of requirements, and
that they are ranked in the right order of priority. The PO tries to deliver
maximum possible value to the customer in the shortest possible time.

217. "A team finds it difficult to comprehend story points and continues to use ideal
days to estimate tasks. Which of the following statements would you make to
convince the team about the value of story points as a measure of size?
• Story points drive cross-functionality in the team
• Story points estimate do not change with time
• Estimating tasks in story points can be faster
• Story points are a pure measure"
a) I and II only
b) I and III only
c) I, II, and IV only
 d) I, II, III, and IV

Explanation: All the statements (I, II, III, and IV) are true. While deriving the story
points, one has to take a holistic view of the work required to complete it (not
just development or testing). Hence, it encourages team members to think in
more cross-functional ways. Story point estimates are relative estimates; the
numbers remain constant over a period of time. It is usually quicker to estimate
in story points as one has good reference points to make comparisons against
(as opposed to agreeing upon the number of man days to complete work). Story
points help measure size purely because it is unit-less (and therefore less
susceptible to individual biases while deriving man day estimates).

218. The objective of lean methodologies for work-in-progress is to:

a) Maximize WIP
b) Minimize WIP
c) Have higher WIP for larger teams, and lower WIP for smaller teams
d) Be neutral to WIP considerations

Explanation: Work-in-progress means work that is lingering in the system, which

requires you to maintain inventories. Lean would emphasize a small WIP (only to
the extent that is required to ensure continuity).

219. What is a risk-burndown-chart?

a) It plots the risk exposure against time for the duration of the project.
b) It explains how to address the riskiest requirements first.
c) It indicates whether all the risks have been successfully identified or not.
d) It helps prioritize which risks to ignore and which to plan for.

Explanation: Risk exposure is calculated as the product of the probability of the

event and the impact of the event (in terms of money or time or whatever unit
you choose to track). The risk breakdown chart plots the sum of the risk
exposures on all the identified risks on a project. It basically is a measure of the
risk level on your project, which you should try to reduce over a period of time.

220. Your organization has outsourced work to a different organization, which follows
agile methodologies. As the leader of the customer organization, which of the
following is NOT your responsibility?
a) Ensuring that the right requirements are given
b) Ensuring that the requirements are drawn from a wide spectrum of users
c) Ensuring that clarifications about requirements are given in a timely manner
d) Ensuring that the vendor follows the agile methodologies correctly
 Explanation: The performing organization and the team performing the work
are probably best positioned to come up with the right interpretation of the
process to be most effective. This is in the spirit of having a self-organized,
empowered team. What the customer is responsible for is to give the right set of
requirements, provide clarifications and guidance as needed about the
prioritization of requirements.

221. What is the best way to facilitate communication between a pair of developers
who are pair programming?
a) Put them in the same cubicle.
b) Put them in adjacent cubicles.
c) Buy video cameras to facilitate video chats.
d) Send them for communication skills training.

Explanation: Pair programming involves two programmers sharing and working

on the same terminal, so adjacent cubicles will not work. It is not about being in
sight of each other (so video chat is immaterial). Communication training is
interesting but not directly related to pair programming, which requires being in
the same office or cubicle, working on the same terminal.

222. You are reading a business case for a project and are planning to release a new
version of a software product. You find that one of the figures mentioned in the
document is incremental revenue. What is your understanding of incremental
revenue?
a) Additional revenue from expansion in sales
b) Getting additional revenue by up-selling to existing customers
c) Revenue from annual maintenance contracts
d) A concept that emphasizes constantly growing revenues

Explanation: Incremental revenue means finding ways to get more revenue out
of the existing customer base (by up-selling, upgrading, or offering more value).

223. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of teams practicing extreme

programming?
a) On-site customer
b) 40-hour work weeks
c) Test-driven development
d) Ability to scale to large teams

Explanation: Extreme programming does not aim to scale to large teams. All
other options are features of XP teams.
224. At the end of the iteration, a team which committed to delivering 68 story points
ended up not delivering anything. What could most likely be the cause of this?
a) Most of the team members went on vacation.
b) The team was not self-organized.
c) The scrum master did not manage the team well.
d) The definition of done defined by the team was too stringent.

Explanation: If the team was going on a vacation, it would likely have known
beforehand, hence they would not have made the commitment. The scrum
master, in any case, does not manage or drive the team, so that is also unlikely
to be the cause. Self-organization is a desirable feature of an agile team, but the
lack of it does not seem likely to cause a drastic failure to deliver even a single
story point. What is more likely is that the definition of done (the criteria to
decide whether to accept a story or not) was so stringent that the team under-
estimated what was required to be done.

225. DSDM uses a variant of the Pareto principle to guide the development process.
Which of the following best expresses how the principle might be used in this
context?
a) 20% of the features can deliver 80% of the value
b) 20% of the value comes from 80% of the features
c) 20% of the team delivers 80% of the work
d) 20% of the features can deliver 100% of the value

Explanation: The underlying principle behind rapid application development

and DSDM is that 80% of the value that the customer is seeking really comes
from 20% of the features. The art of delivering applications rapidly comes from
understanding the 20% features and then relentlessly focusing only on those
features.

226. A product owner along with the team has categorized the items in the product
backlog in terms of value and risk. They decide to work on high value and high risk
items first, high value and low risk next, followed by low value and low risk. What
should be done about the low value and high risk?
a) Do them last, if at all.
b) Find ways to increase the value or reduce the risk.
c) Do not work on them.
d) Run some pilots to validate the assumptions about value and risk.

Explanation: Do them last. Before implementing such features, we need to

make informed decisions as it may actually derail the areas of your application
that are working well.
227. A team is wondering whether they should use off-the-shelf components,
shareware, or free-ware components instead of developing them from scratch.
What technique in agile project management will be useful to make that decision?

a) De Bono's 6 thinking hats

b) Planning poker
c) Make-or-buy analysis
d) Wide-band Delphi technique

Explanation: Make-or-buy analysis is used to determine what components

should be developed in-house and what should be externally procured.

228. A team is working on a product where the user experience is important. How will
agile methods help while working on this project?
a) They will help to maintain a consistent velocity and meet the user
expectations.
b) They will help deliver more with less due to the shorter iterations.
c) They will help reduce the cost of delivery.
d) They will help ensure the use of good design practices and frequent
involvement of the users in development.

Explanation: Agile facilitates frequent involvement of the users and the

implementation of good design practices. These will help to improve user
experience.

229. A team finds that the flow of work is often impeded by interruptions or delays.
What would be a good way to address this?
a) Discuss these issues in the sprint reviews and try to find a solution.
b) Allocate a higher buffer for estimates to make more reasonable
commitments.
c) Add more team members to deal with the interruptions.
d) Experiment with Kanban systems to make work visible and improve the
flow of work.

Explanation: Kanban systems allow you to visualize the workflow and improve
it.

230. Which of the following is characteristic of meetings in agile projects as opposed

to conventional projects?
a) Agile recommends allocating sufficient time for frequent meetings
b) Agile meetings are timeboxed and have a fixed agenda.
c) Side discussions are not allowed in any agile meeting.
 d) Agile recommends making notes in each meeting and then diligently
following up on them.

Explanation: All agile meetings are timeboxed (have defined time limits) with a
clear agenda and purpose.

231. Which of the following is most true about agile methodologies?

a) They focus on increasing process speed by eliminating waste.
b) They include an incremental and iterative life cycle for software development.
c) They rely on pull-based systems to deliver the product sooner.
d) They require people to be co-located.

Explanation: Agile methodologies emphasize an incremental and iterative

approach to software development. It takes inspiration from lean, but it is not
necessarily the same thing. The methodology relying on pull-based system is
Kanban, which is related to agile but not quite the same thing. It helps if the
team is co-located, but that is not really a central tenet of agile.

232. Agile teams are generally small. This is because smaller teams are:
a) Usually more productive and have less management overheads
b) More likely to deliver as per commitments
c) Unlikely to question the decisions of the product owner
d) Able to make suitable assumptions when the PO is not available

Explanation: Smaller teams are generally more productive as there is less

overhead to manage and less social "loafing".

233. Typical roles in an agile team are:

a) Team, scrum master, and customer
b) Team, manager, and customer
c) Team, leads, and architect
d) Cross-functional team, team facilitator, and product owner

Explanation: The team, team facilitator, and product owner are typical roles that
play an important part in agile methods (agile practice guide).

234. During iteration planning, a team committed to implementing 10 stories. Coding

has been completed and basic regression tests are passing. There are 12 bugs
pending. Some of them are blocking few tests that execute some of the paths in
the story. The fixes for these bugs were checked in on the last day of the iteration,
but they have not been tested. In such a scenario, the iteration is:
a) Successful because the basic functionality is implemented and is working
 b) Unsuccessful because all tests are not passed and few tests are still
blocked
c) Successful or unsuccessful depending upon the done criterion decided by the
team
d) Successful if the customer accepts it

Explanation: The code at the end of each iteration should be of 'near releasable'
quality. This has not happened or has not been validated yet, so the iteration
cannot be deemed successful.

235. The manager of a scrum team is also playing the role of a scrum master. Which
of the following things should the manager stop doing?
a) Protect the team from disturbances
b) Do performance appraisals for the team
c) Make sure that all the required tasks are assigned and being worked on
d) Think about growing the company business

Explanation: Ideally, a manager should not play scrum master's role. But if the
manager does, the following recommendation must be followed: A scrumMaster
does not (should not) assign tasks. A self-managing team should do that on its
own. All other functions are OK for a manager to do.

236. Which of the following ways would be useful to address poor quality of product
increments?
a) Cancel the iteration demo and continue working till the quality improves.
b) Make use of test-driven practices and other mistake-proofing methods.
c) Make use of shorter sprints.
d) None of the above

Explanation: Agile practice guide recommends making use of test-driven-

development and other mistake-proofing methods.

237. In planning poker estimation, apart from the estimates, what is the other
desirable outcome from the estimation process?
a) A guarantee that the sprint will be delivered as committed
b) The ability to estimate a large number of stories in a short span of time
c) Expertise in the business or domain
d) Team buys into the estimates after discussions

Explanation: The planning poker technique involves the entire team and
provides clarity on assumptions and the selected approach for project
management.
238. Which of the following is NOT an essential attribute of an agile team?
a) It is self-managing.
b) It is cross-functional.
c) It is co-located.
d) It is capable of delivering a potentially shippable product.

Explanation: A scrum team need not be co-located. Scrum works with virtual
teams as well. All the other options are characteristics of a scrum team.

239. In an agile team, who usually does NOT provide inputs for creating a backlog?
a) Product owner
b) Team
c) Customer
d) Competitor

Explanation: The product owner is ultimately accountable for the product

backlog. However, the PO may take inputs from several different sources, which
may include the team members, customers, subject matter experts, senior
management, etc. Competitive pressures may come into the definition of the
backlog but usually competitors are not consulted while making a product
backlog.

240. An agile team invited an external expert to provide inputs on what items they
should work on. What is wrong with this scenario?
a) Usually, it is the product owner who provides inputs to the team.
b) The team facilitator should have been involved in the decision-making
process.
c) Decisions should be made based on business value - not on technical merit
alone.
d) The team should be making its own decisions as a self-organized team.

Explanation: Product owner is the only person authorized to direct the team in
matters of the backlog (items to work on). All others, who want to influence the
activities of the team, need to first convince the product owner.

241. In a weak matrix setting, you're the project manager steering a cross-functional
team through a challenging project. Your team members don't functionally report
to you, and you lack the authority to directly acknowledge their efforts. The project
comes with tight deadlines and demanding quality benchmarks. In this situation,
which type of project management power is likely to prove most effective?
a) Expert
b) Penalty
c) Formal
 d) Referent

Explanation: There are numerous forms of power at the disposal of project

managers. Power and its use can be complex given its nature and the various
factors at play in a project. Various forms of power include but are not limited to:
Positional (sometimes called formal, authoritative, legitimate) (e.g., formal
position granted in the organization or team);Informational (e.g., control of
gathering or distribution);Referent (e.g., respect or admiration others hold for
the individual, credibility gained);Situational (e.g., gained due to unique situation
such as a specific crisis);Personal or charismatic (e.g., charm,
attraction);Relational (e.g., participates in networking, connections, and
alliances);Expert (e.g., skill, information possessed; experience, training,
education, certification);Reward-oriented (e.g., ability to give praise, monetary or
other desired items);Punitive or coercive (e.g., ability to invoke discipline or
negative consequences);Ingratiating (e.g., application of flattery or other
common ground to win favor or cooperation);Pressure-based (e.g., limit freedom
of choice or movement for the purpose of gaining compliance to desired
action);Guilt-based (e.g., imposition of obligation or sense of duty); Persuasive
(e.g., ability to provide arguments that move people to a desired course of
action); and Avoiding (e.g., refusing to participate).

242. As the project manager overseeing the creation of a novel power plant, your
project is advancing well and approaching the product acceptance milestone.
Which technique will play a crucial role in ensuring product acceptance?
a) Quality audit
b) Impact analysis
c) Team review
d) Inspection

Explanation: Inspection includes activities such as measuring, examining, and

validating to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and
product acceptance criteria. Inspections are sometimes called reviews, product
reviews, and walkthroughs. In some application areas, these different terms have
unique and specific meanings.

243. After progressing from project management to portfolio management in your

current organization, you now oversee multiple project managers. Your company
has secured a prestigious project similar to the one you executed years ago. You
request the current project manager to consult the lessons learned from the
previous project—where are these stored?
a) Projects record management system.
b) Organizational process assets.
c) Project performance reports.
d) Project status reports.
 Explanation: The organizational process assets include historical information
and lessons learned repository (e.g., project records and documents, information
about the results of previous project selection decisions, and information about
previous project performance).

244. In aiming to manage a project with a focus on identifying particular tasks

requiring closer monitoring and management, which method should the project
manager employ?
a) The GERT method
b) The PCDM method
c) The PERT method
d) The critical path method

Explanation: The critical path method is used to estimate the minimum project
duration and determine the amount of schedule flexibility on the logical network
paths within the schedule model.

245. Alice has engaged with Six Sigma in her workplace and observes similarities
between Project Management and Six Sigma. She strongly believes in reviewing
each project phase to assess whether it should proceed to the next stage. The
review and decision to continue with the project is:
a) A milestone
b) Based upon stakeholder expectations.
c) Time-consuming and unnecessary for small projects.
d) A kill point

Explanation: A phase gate is held at the end of a phase. The project's

performance and progress are compared to project and business documents
including but not limited to: Project business case, Project charter, Project
management plan, and Benefits management plan. A decision (e.g., go/no-go
decision) is made as a result of this comparison to: Continue to the next phase,
continue to the next phase with modification, End the project, Remain in the
phase, or Repeat the phase or elements of it. Depending on the organization,
industry, or type of work, phase gates may be referred to by other terms such as,
phase review, stage gate, kill point, and phase entrance or phase exit.
Organizations may use these reviews to examine other pertinent items that are
beyond the scope of this guide, such as product-related documents or models.

246. While reaching out to sellers for bids and proposals, you realize that ensuring a
clear and shared understanding of the procurement process and project needs
might be a time-consuming task. Which technique could assist in saving time in
this regard?
a) Advertising
b) Qualified sellers list
c) Four-eyes meetings
 d) Bidder conferences

Explanation: Bidder conferences (also called contractor conferences, vendor

conferences, and pre-bid conferences) are meetings between the buyer and
prospective sellers prior to proposal submittal. They are used to ensure that all
prospective bidders have a clear and common understanding of the
procurement and no bidders receive preferential treatment.

247. The customer is requesting a minor scope change and anticipates a prompt
resolution without incurring additional costs. While you believe you have sufficient
authorization to make the decision independently, there is some uncertainty.
What should be your next course of action?
a) Before making a decision you should have a look at the customer's parking lot. If
you find there many expensive, new models, it is likely that you can use the
requested change to increase the profit from the contract. Otherwise, you
should reject the request.
b) Handle the request according to the integrated change control processes
described in your management plans. Then make a decision together with
the appropriate change control body, whether the increased customer
satisfaction will be worth the extra costs, work, risks, etc.
c) A requested change is always an opportunity to get more money paid by the
customer and to secretly solve schedule and quality problems. You should make
some reasonable estimates on time, costs, risks, etc., and then add a nice margin
on top of that to calculate the new price.
d) Customer satisfaction is your top priority. The customer gives you an opportunity
to increase their satisfaction, which you should use to the maximum benefit.
Most project managers have contingencies to cover risks; these can be used to
pay the additional costs.

Explanation: Since the client is requesting a change in scope, the integrated

change control process should be initiated to evaluate the impact of the change.

248. As the deadline for a project, which has been accepted, draws near, the project
manager recognizes that only 75% of the work has been completed. In response,
the project manager initiates a change request. What should the change request
be authorized to do?
a) Escalation approval to use contingency funding.
b) Team overtime to meet schedule.
c) Corrective action based on causes.
d) Additional resources using the contingency fund.

Explanation: In this case, the change request should lead to corrective action
since the project is behind schedule.
249. In your role as the project manager, you've chosen to organize a team meeting to
identify and analyze lessons learned from quality control with stakeholders. What
actions should you take regarding these lessons?
a) Discuss them with management and make sure that they remain otherwise
confidential.
b) Publish them in the corporate newsletter.
c) Follow your strategic decisions, independent from lessons learned. These
decisions have been made and should be implemented whatever the
outcomes are.
d) Document them and make them part of the historical database for the
project and the performing organization.

Explanation: It's important information that will be used for upcoming projects
and to be considered in risk management.

250. Collaborating with your team, you utilized three-point estimation on a critical
path comprising two activities. The calculated duration uncertainties, based on a 3
sigma confidence interval, reveal that the first activity has a duration uncertainty
of 18 days, while the second has an uncertainty of 24 days. When applying the
PERT formula for paths, what is the overall duration uncertainty for the entire
path?
a) 30 days
b) 42 days
c) No statement is possible from the information given
d) 21 days

251. A few colleagues informed you that they are planning, executing, monitoring and
controlling a project solely based on milestones, each with durations ranging from
1 to 4 weeks. What are your thoughts on this approach?
a) It is a good approach as long as the milestones reflect fixed or imposed dates
during the project lifecycle only.
b) It is a good approach if the milestones are used for reviews between
consecutive project phases only.
c) It is a good approach because it saves progress measurement on activities
and work packages.
d) The approach is erroneous. A milestone is a significant point with zero
duration to highlight achievements in monitoring and controlling a
project.

Explanation: A project cannot be managed a monitored effectively by using

only the milestones.

252. After creating a schedule network diagram with your team, determining
estimates, defining durations, and identifying the Critical Path, you choose to
 perform a 'Forward Pass' through the Schedule Network Diagram. What specific
calculations would you be conducting in this process?
a) The latest start and latest finish for each activity.
b) The duration of the other paths.
c) The duration of the critical path.
d) The Early Start and Early Finish for each activity.

Explanation: The Early Start and Early Finish for each activity. Option c and d are
incorrect as the Forward Pass is not used to calculate the duration. Based on
duration the critical path is calculated. Option b talks about Late Start and Late
Finish - which are calculated using Backward Pass. Using 'Forward Pass' - we
calculate the Early Start and Early Finish of all the activities in the network
diagram.

253. Due to the diverse industries encompassed by the profession, many

organizations have varied definitions for Project Management. As a result, the
Project Management Institute (PMI) characterizes Project Management as:
a) Industry-specific because the definition changes based upon whatever
industry the company is involved with
b) Initiation, planning, execution, control, and closeout of a project
c) The processes and tools to complete a project
d) The use of knowledge, tools, and techniques to meet requirements

Explanation: Project management is the use of specific knowledge, skills, tools,

and techniques to deliver something of value to people.

254. Our team has successfully secured a software development project, bringing
great satisfaction to the executive management due to its prestigious nature.
However, you harbor concerns given the project's complexity. To address this, you
initiate efforts to identify potential risks by gathering relevant stakeholders for
extensive discussions. Despite generating a list of risks collaboratively, your
experience leads you to believe that not all risks have been accounted for. In
preparation for unidentified but anticipated risks, you opt to allocate a budget.
The question arises: where does this budget allocation originate?
a) Contingency Reserves
b) Management Reserve
c) Cost Management Plan
d) Cost Baseline

Explanation: Estimates may also be produced for the amount of management

reserve of schedule for the project. Management reserves are a specified
amount of the project budget withheld for management control purposes and
are reserved for unforeseen work that is within the scope of the project.
Management reserves are intended to address the unknown unknowns that can
affect a project. Management reserve is not included in the schedule baseline,
 but it is part of the overall project duration requirements. Depending on contract
terms, the use of management reserves may require a change to the schedule
baseline.

255. Materials management plays a pivotal role in the project's success, particularly
when resources must be available at a designated time and location to maintain
continuous progress. When assessing materials costs, it's essential to consider not
just the purchase cost but also ________.
a) Transportation, storage, and shortage.
b) Transportation, storage, and loss.
c) Transportation, deterioration, and storage.
d) Storage, damage, and deterioration.

Explanation: Transportation, storage, shortage and the cost of purchase should

be considered when evaluating the cost of materials.

256. The triple constraints of Project Management are often a topic of discussion in
various contexts, including marketing classes and other subjects. The interplay
among _______, _______, and _______ can be visualized as a triangle, where the three
sides influence one another.
a) Scope, quality, planning.
b) Time, scope, cost.
c) Quality, resources, time.
d) Money, resources, quality.

Explanation: The three constraints of a project are cost, schedule, and scope.

257. In the project planning phase, you decide to maintain a strong hold on project
risks. Collaborating with your team, you compile a list of potential risks and now
intend to prioritize them based on their probability and impact. In which process
does this activity occur?
a) Risk Identification.
b) Risk Register.
c) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.
d) Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

Explanation: After the Risks are identified, risk prioritization based on impact
and probability is done in the Qualitative Risk Analysis. The question states that
the risks are already identified, so Risk Identification is already done. Risk
Register is an output of the Risk Identification process, there is no such process
as Risk Register. Quantitative Risk Analysis deals with assigning a numerical value
to each risk, so the correct answer is Qualitative Risk Analysis.

258. For projects to be efficiently and successfully planned and executed, they should
encompass fundamental elements. Insufficient planning often leads to project
failures, resulting in the loss of money and resources. Among the documents
 listed below, one specifically authorizes and initiates the project, empowering the
project manager to commence work. This document is commonly referred to as a:

a) Project plan
b) Work authorization form
c) Project approval requisition
d) Project charter

Explanation: The project charter authorizes the project manager to start

working on a project.

259. Your management is implementing the 10 percent solution: it has asked you to
trim the budget for the project you are currently initiating by 10%. What
implications is this likely to have for your project?
a) If the project budget is an honest one, then a reduction in budget must
be accompanied by a trade-off in either time or performance.
b) A 10% reduction in the budget will be accompanied by a loss of performance
much less than the target reduction in cost.
c) Most projects have "padded" estimates and the budgetary reduction will
force out the padding from the project.
d) If the budget is cut by 10%, then the project will have an accompanying
degradation of quality by 10%.

Explanation: If the project budget is an honest one, then a reduction in budget

must be accompanied by a trade-off in either time or performance.

260. In managing a project, a project manager is handling a scenario where the initial
scope baseline was set at a budget of $100,000. Since the project commenced,
seventeen authorized and approved changes have been introduced, amounting to
$17,000. Additionally, the cost incurred for investigating these changes before
approval was $2,500. What is the current budget for the project?
a) 114500
b) 117000
c) 119500
d) 100000

Explanation: 100000+17000+2500=119500.

261. The PMIS serves as a valuable tool for the project manager, acting as a
communication mechanism throughout the project's duration. The
communication plan is often treated as a sub-project within the PMIS
development milestone. It is designed to collect, integrate, and disseminate the
_________ of the Project Management processes.
a) Outputs
b) Tools
c) Deliverables
 d) Scope changes

Explanation: The communication plan is frequently a sub-project of the PMIS

development milestone that is used to gather, integrate, and disseminate the
outputs of the Project Management processes.

262. While executing a project to construct a road bridge, your team discovered a
significant flaw in the technical drawings. To prevent delays and address technical
issues, they improvised a workaround on an ad-hoc basis. What should be your
next course of action?
a) The workaround was performed on a technical level only. As long as it does
not influence the function of the bridge or the organizational configuration of
the project, a change request will not be necessary.
b) A retroactive formal change request side is not reasonable. Create some
additional documents describing the workaround and sign them yourself,
you can present them during the next regular CCB meeting.
c) It is normal in projects that during project execution inconsistencies arise
between planning documents and actual implementation. This is no problem
as long as the functional status of the product is maintained.
d) Meticulously document the problem and the workaround to create a
requested change to the project management plan, which will then be
passed to the body responsible for the change control decision.

Explanation: A Meticulously document the problem and the workaround to

create a requested change to the project management plan, which will then be
passed to the body responsible for the change control decision.

263. The level of uncertainty, characterized by a lack of information in a project,

impacts the precision with which cost estimators can determine the total cost.
One approach to address this uncertainty is influence diagramming, employed to
assess ________.
a) Alternative outcomes, risk factors, and given quantities.
b) Risk factors, price, and alternatives.
c) Price, quantities, and time of purchase.
d) Price, net worth, and net present value.

Explanation: The Project Management Institute’s (PMI) PMBOK Guide defines

PMP influence diagrams as follows: “A graphical representation of situations
showing causal influences, time ordering of events, and other relationships
among variables and outcomes.” In other words, an influence diagram is: A
helpful diagramming technique using a chart, diagram, or other display of
information. A model showing how the events or activities in a project influence
each other. A representation of the chronological order in which a project’s
events occur. A depiction of any other relationships among a project’s variables
 and outcomes. Influence diagrams help PMPs illustrate and understand the
relationships and flows between influential project elements.

264. Over an extended period, CHINA SPACE worked on the development of a space
rocket. At the project's initiation, engineers had to create blueprints based on their
vision of the final product. Emphasizing the result is crucial for successful Project
Management. With each revision of the blueprints before final design approval,
the team faced additional challenges, yet they recognized that:
a) Progressive elaborations of the blueprints accurately defined the final
deliverable.
b) New subject matter experts would be needed.
c) The project sponsor would develop a change control document.
d) Scope creep was common in a large-scope project.

Explanation: Progressive Elaboration. The iterative process of increasing the

level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information
and more accurate estimates become available.

265. Confronted with a decision regarding an identified risk, a project manager is

addressing a concern related to the design of a bicycle. The risk involves the
potential corrosion of the bicycle's neck in a high salt environment, where the
steering bearing is located and the two supporting bars of the frame converge. In
response, the project team determined that the bicycle's design should be altered
by incorporating corrosion-resistant materials into the neck's design. This
modification aims to eliminate the risk from consideration. This technique is
commonly known as:
a) Risk acceptance
b) Risk rejection
c) Risk deflection
d) Risk avoidance

Explanation: Risk avoidance is when the project team acts to eliminate the
threat or protect the project from its impact. It may be appropriate for high-
priority threats with a high probability of occurrence and a large negative impact.
Avoidance may involve changing some aspect of the project management plan
or changing the objective that is in jeopardy to eliminate the threat, reducing its
probability of occurrence to zero. The risk owner may also take action to isolate
the project objectives from the risk's impact if it were to occur. Examples of
avoidance actions may include removing the cause of a threat, extending the
schedule, changing the project strategy, or reducing scope. Some risks can be
avoided by clarifying requirements, obtaining information, improving
communication, or acquiring expertise.

266. In a project budget, there are typically two types of reserves. The ________ reserve
is allocated for cost variances resulting from inaccurate estimates, pricing
 discrepancies, or cost overruns. Meanwhile, the ________ reserve is set aside to
cover costs related to project work that was inadvertently omitted from the plan
due to errors or oversights.
a) Management; contingency allowance.
b) Management; mismanagement allowance.
c) Project; budget overrun allowance.
d) Engineering; management allowance.

Explanation: Contingency reserves are associated with the known-unknowns,

which may be estimated to account for this unknown amount of rework.
Management reserves are intended to address the unknown-unknowns that can
affect a project. Management reserve is not included in the schedule baseline,
but it is part of the overall project duration requirements. Depending on contract
terms, use of management reserves may require a change to the schedule
baseline.

267. You find yourself in a joyous state today, having successfully completed all the
deliverables in a complex project fraught with challenges. Thanks to effective
management and a motivated team, everything has been accomplished. As a
project manager, what should be your next course of action?
a) Verify scope.
b) Disband the team.
c) Perform Quality Control.
d) Update lessons learned.

Explanation: The question is looking for details related to the closing process
group. Scope verification is performed during the monitoring and controlling
process group. So is the case with Perform Quality Control. One of the most
important things to do during project closure is to create the lessons learned
prior to disbanding the team. Hence the answer is option b.

268. Meetings serve various purposes and involve different parties. They can be
categorized into types such as information sharing, problem-solving, decision-
making, planning, and evaluation. The definition of a problem-solving meeting
could be ________.
a) Organized exchange of data and information.
b) Selection of a course of action from options and alternatives.
c) Future options and alternatives.
d) Options and alternatives reviewed.

Explanation: Problem-solving meetings are oriented around solving either a

specific or general problem, and are perhaps the most complex and varied type
of meeting. At problem-solving meetings, the outcome is often an important
decision and thus these meetings can be crucial to the development of a team or
product.
269. The financing plan for a project should outline the strategies for acquiring and
allocating capital throughout the entire project duration. While formulating the
plan and taking into account risk and reward, management should guarantee the
preservation of participants' credit standing, utilize maximum leverage, optimize
tax benefits, incorporate flexibility into ownership, and ________.
a) Additional tax relief is pursued.
b) Lines of credit are opened.
c) Access to sources of new capital is maintained.
d) Maximum financing is used.

Explanation: Access to sources of new capital is maintained.

270. Regardless of the contract type, the owner (buyer) consistently prioritizes the
project's cost and the contractor's (seller's) expenditure rates. While a fixed-price
contract shifts a significant portion of the risk to the contractor, the owner still
faces substantial risks in achieving objectives. One of the most effective methods
for controlling contractor expenditure rates under any contract type is to ________.
a) Have an owner's representative" monitor and track all expenditures and have
the power to disapprove any expenditure that is not justified to him/her.
b) Track and pay the costs of the contract by phases or stages and
evaluate the costs at each review/decision point.
c) Hold back a portion of the payment until all work is completed to the
satisfaction of the technical inspectors.
d) Ensure that only fixed-price contracts are awarded, and that payment is only
upon satisfactory completion of the project.

Explanation: Tracking, paying, and auditing the invoices is a regular task

performed by the buyer irrespective of the type of contract.

271. Your team has recently secured a software development project, eliciting great
satisfaction from the executive management due to its prestigious nature.
However, your apprehension grows due to the project's complex nature. In
response, you take proactive measures to identify potential risks by convening all
relevant stakeholders for extensive discussions. Despite collaboratively
pinpointing several risks, your experience leads you to believe that not all risks
have been identified. Consequently, you make the decision to allocate a budget
for unidentified yet anticipated risks. The question arises: where does this budget
allocation originate?
a) Management Reserve.
b) Cost Management Plan.
c) Cost Baseline.
d) Contingency Reserves.

Explanation: Management reserves are intended to address the unknown-

unknowns that can affect a project. Management reserve is not included in the
 schedule baseline, but it is part of the overall project duration requirements.
Depending on contract terms, use of management reserves may require a
change to the schedule baseline.

272. The WBS and WBS dictionary have been finalized, and the project team has
initiated the identification of risks. The sponsor reaches out to the project
manager, asking for the responsibility assignment matrix. The project, with a
budget of $100,000, spans three countries and involves 14 human resources. The
anticipated risk for the project is minimal, and the project manager has
experience managing similar projects. What should be the next step?
a) Make sure the project scope is defined.
b) Complete risk management and issue the responsibility assignment matrix.
c) Understand the experience of the sponsor on similar projects.
d) Create an activity list.

Explanation: After the creation of the WBS, the deliverables have to be

decomposed into activities.

273. Engaged in a bridge construction project, you have reached the intended halfway
point. The total planned cost at this juncture amounts to five hundred dollars. The
tangible progress achieved thus far is valued at $400. However, the expenses
incurred on the project have already reached one thousand dollars. What is the
CPI (Cost Performance Index)?
a) 0.8
b) 1.2
c) 0.5
d) 0.4

Explanation: CPI = earned value (EV) / actual cost (AC)

274. You are currently in the Source Selection process for a contract related to your
project. In this context, you intend to employ a weighing process, with two crucial
factors being price (weighted at 40) and quality (weighted at 60). Four vendors are
under consideration, and their computed scores by your team are presented in
the table below:
• Vendor 1 (price, quality): 8, 12
• Vendor 2 (price, quality): 10, 10
• Vendor 3 (price, quality): 12, 8
• Vendor 4 (price, quality): 11, 11

Given this information, which vendor among the four should be selected?

a) Vendor 1
b) Vendor 2
c) Vendor 3
d) Vendor 4
 Explanation: Choose the one with the highest weightage factor (price*quality)

275. You are overseeing the project to organize a party for your company's
employees. A risk has been identified that the employees may not attend the
party. Assessing the low likelihood of this occurrence, you opt not to implement
any specific actions in response. What risk response strategy are you employing?
a) Avoidance
b) Mitigation
c) Transference
d) Acceptance

Explanation: Accepting risk, or risk acceptance, occurs when a business or

individual acknowledges that the potential loss from a risk is not great enough to
warrant spending money to avoid it.

276. In need of outsourcing work, a project manager encounters a considerable level

of risk associated with the task, making it challenging to find a contractor willing to
undertake the job. Among the following types of contracts, which would provide
the highest incentive to the contractor?
a) Cost plus fixed fee.
b) Cost plus incentive fee.
c) Firm fixed price.
d) Cost plus award fee.

Explanation: Cost plus award fee (CPAF). The seller is reimbursed for all
legitimate costs, but the majority of the fee is earned based on the satisfaction of
certain broad subjective performance criteria that are defined and incorporated
into the contract. The determination of fee is based solely on the subjective
determination of seller performance by the buyer and is generally not subject to
appeals.

277. Under a fixed-price contract, a contractor is committed to receiving a single lump-

sum payment upon the satisfactory completion of the contract. At the midway
point, the contractor's project manager communicates financial challenges,
hindering their ability to compensate employees and subcontractors. Seeking a
partial payment for completed work, the contractor requests intervention. Among
the buyer's potential actions, which is most likely to pose problems for the
project?
a) Adhering to the contract and making no early payments.
b) Paying for all work accomplished to date only.
c) Demanding penalty-free options to make early payments.
d) Starting partial payments for work accomplished.

Explanation: Adhering to contract at this scenario is not the best option since
this will create delays and bureaucracy in the project.
278. As the Project Manager tasked with constructing a next-generation vehicle, you
recognize a dependency: the vehicle must obtain approval from the Government
regulatory authority before it can be sold. This is an example of which type of
dependency?
a) Discretionary
b) Soft Logic
c) Mandatory
d) External

Explanation: External dependencies. External dependencies involve a

relationship between project activities and non-project activities. These
dependencies are usually outside of the project team's control. For example, the
testing activity in a software project may be dependent on the delivery of
hardware from an external source, or governmental environmental hearings
may need to be held before site preparation can begin on a construction project.
The project management team determines which dependencies are external
during the process of sequencing the activities.

279. Recently appointed as the Project Manager for the ABC project, you encounter
difficulty comprehending certain components of the Work Breakdown Structure
(WBS). What should be your initial step to gain a better understanding?
a) Refer to the scope statement.
b) Refer to the Project charter.
c) Contact the previous Project Manager.
d) Refer to the WBS dictionary.

Explanation: The WBS dictionary will contain all of the detailed information
related to each of the WBS work packages.

280. To manage the schedule effectively, a project manager is reanalyzing the project
to forecast project duration. This involves scrutinizing the sequence of activities
with minimal scheduling flexibility. Which technique is she employing?
a) Flowchart
b) Precedence diagramming
c) Work breakdown structure
d) Critical path method

Explanation: The critical path method is used to estimate the minimum project
duration and determine the amount of schedule flexibility on the logical network
paths within the schedule model.

281. As the project manager of the ABC project, you encountered a mid-project
discovery of a defective key component, which was not anticipated. The team
convenes after this event and successfully ensures the product functions without
the defective component. This is an example of:
a) Transfer of risk
 b) Workaround
c) Accepting the consequences passively
d) Risk mitigation

Explanation: Workarounds are responses to unidentified risks or passively

accepted risks. Put simply, if any unidentified risk occurs, you will manage it
through a workaround.

282. Your company has recently secured a project involving the layout and routing of
electric cables for a large shopping complex, and you've been assigned to provide
the cost estimates. Drawing on your past experience with similar projects, you
break down the costs into the cost per foot of cables and the unit cost of cable
trays. What type of cost-estimating technique are you employing?
a) Analogous cost estimate
b) Top-down cost estimate
c) Bottom-up cost estimate
d) Parametric estimates

Explanation: A parametric estimate is an estimate of cost, time, or risk that is

based on a calculation or algorithm. As the name suggests, parametric estimates
are based on parameters that define the complexity, risk, and costs of a
program, project, service, process, or activity.

283. Investors are frequently utilized to secure essential financing for significant
projects, potentially leading to the transfer of ownership to the investors.
Subsequently, the system is leased back for operation and use. The primary
benefit for the investors is ________, while the primary advantage for the system
user is ________.
a) Control of a business; low risk for operation and maintenance
b) High internal rate of return; favorable tax write-off
c) Favorable tax write-off; new source of funds
d) Ownership without risk of operation; favorable tax write-off

Explanation: A,B, and D do not make sense.

284. Imagine the project manager is called to an information meeting with the
customer, where a significant problem is brought up. This issue has substantial
implications for the project manager's company, but the customer is eager to
explore a solution during the meeting. In this situation, the project manager
should ________.
a) Collect as much information on the problem without committing
his/her company to a solution.
b) Tell the customer that he/she will not address any problems because this is
only an information exchange meeting.
c) Give the customer a range of solutions that might be acceptable to his/her
company.
 d) Give the customer an interim solution that must be approved by his/her
boss.

Explanation: At this stage the Project Manager has to collect client's feedback
and then analyze it internally. After the internal impact assessment on cost,
schedule, scope, he/she can come back with a proposed approach.

285. Entering as a project manager in the later stage of the project, you discover
numerous defects during the final testing phase. To address this, you decide to
prioritize and fix defects based on the schedule. In this scenario, which of the
following tools would be the most effective for you to use?
a) Flow Chart
b) Pareto Chart
c) Control Chart
d) Run Chart

Explanation: A Pareto chart is a histogram that divides discrete observations

into several categories to identify the “vital few.” The phrase “vital few” is used to
describe the elements that have the maximum impact on the solution.

286. You've been designated as the project manager for an international undersea
cable project, and a specific segment of the project has been subcontracted to
another company. What is the MOST probable result of this collaboration?
a) Number of communication channels will increase
b) Performance report will be more inclusive and detailed
c) Informal written communication will increase
d) Formal written communication will increase

Explanation: Since there is involvement of an external company this means that

there will be added more stakeholders in the project and thus, the
communications channels will increase.

287. A project is initially planned for 6 months with a budget of $9,000,000. By the end
of the 2nd month, the project is 30% complete, and the cost incurred is
$3,250,000. What is the Cost Performance Index (CPI) of the project?
a) 0.831
b) 0.746
c) 1.046
d) 0.946

Explanation: The Cost Performance Index (CPI) is a method for calculating the
cost efficiency and financial effectiveness of a specific project through the
following formula: CPI = earned value (EV) / actual cost (AC).

288. As the project manager overseeing a construction project spanning 3 years,

you're six months into the project when one of your contractors reveals a risk that
was previously unidentified and omitted from the risk register. In response, you
 engage with an expert to identify a workaround for the project. Which process are
you currently implementing?
a) Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
b) Plan Risk Responses
c) Control Risks
d) Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Explanation: Control Risks is the process of implementing risk response plans,

tracking identified risks, monitoring residual risks, identifying new risks, and
evaluating risk process effectiveness throughout the project.

289. A project team is diligently working towards project delivery, having dedicated
over a year and approaching the completion of the execution phase. During this
period, one team member uncovers a risk that was not previously identified. What
would be the BEST course of action for the manager of the project team?
a) Assess the Risk
b) Update the Risk Management Plan
c) Ignore the Risk
d) Find ways to Mitigate the Risk

Explanation: When a risk is first identified, the next course of action is to assess
the impact of the risk.

290. Michael serves as the project manager for a multinational project, with the team
distributed across four locations. In navigating this virtual team structure, Michael
has decided to extensively utilize video-conferencing technologies for
management purposes. Identify two true statements regarding the usage of
video-conferencing technologies for team management.
a) Body language and tone of voice play a vital role in effective communication.
b) Video-conferencing technology ensures faster decision-making.
c) Video-conferencing tools will eliminate the need for co-location of the project
team.
d) Face-to-face communications have a better impact.

Explanation: Teams have been demonstrated to communicate better face-to-

face, and there is also evidence of the criticality of being able to assess body
language and tone of voice for communication to be effective.

291. In your role as a project manager for a construction project, you've crafted the
initial project plan and presented it to the customer. The customer, however,
notifies you that the deadline date is incorrect, expressing the desire for the first
phase delivery to be completed within the initial 6 months. They explicitly state
that if the delivery cannot be achieved within this timeframe, they will not proceed
with the project. In which section of the project plan will you incorporate this
information?
a) Project Constraints
 b) Project Assumptions
c) Project Milestones
d) Project Goals

Explanation: Project constraints are limiting factors for your project that can
impact quality, delivery, and overall project success.

292. As the project manager overseeing the development of a new product with a
four-month project duration, the product building stage is presently underway. A
new regulation, applicable to this product, is set to take effect in six months.
Failure to comply with this regulation could necessitate the halt of product
production. In this situation, what is the responsibility of the project manager?
a) Continue with the original project plan and complete development of the
product.
b) Schedule a meeting with the key stakeholders. If it is agreed, issue a
change request for scope and other changes to comply with the new
law.
c) Inform the team to change the product design to consider compliance
requirements as per new law.
d) Meet with the legal team and seek guidance to claim exemption from the
requirements as per new law.

Explanation: Addressing regulatory requirements may require the

implementation of changes. The change control procedures should be followed.

293. In the development project for a solar energy park, the budget has been
determined by factoring in the government subsidy. However, during the project's
build stage, it becomes apparent that, due to a specific clause in the subsidy
policy, the project is ineligible for the anticipated subsidy. What should be the
project manager's immediate next step?
a) Log it as an issue in the issue log and schedule a meeting with the key
stakeholders.
b) Raise a change request to reduce the scope of the project to fit within the
available funds.
c) Raise a change request to revise the project cost baseline.
d) Recommend termination of the project as it cannot be completed without
receipt of subsidy.

Explanation: As this is a current issue, it should be handled, and appropriate

action taken by the project management team.

294. In a project with an approved budget of USD 400,000, the monthly status report
provides the following information: Planned value - USD 250,000, Actual cost - USD
275,000, Earned value - USD 240,000. Which of the following statements holds
true for this project?
a) It is over budget and behind schedule.
 b) It is under budget and ahead of schedule.
c) It is over budget and ahead of schedule.
d) It is under budget and behind schedule.

Explanation: When actual cost is more than earned value, the project is over
budget; and when planned value is more than earned value, the project is
behind schedule.

295. Shortly after the issuance of a project charter, the business analyst alerts the
project manager to a new regulation by the local government that could
potentially affect the financial viability of the project. What should be the project
manager's immediate course of action?
a) Update the risk register with the new risk identified.
b) Gather more details about the regulation and present your findings to
the sponsor and key stakeholders.
c) Inform the sponsor to cancel/terminate the project.
d) Go ahead with planning activities as the project has been authorized and a
project charter is issued.

Explanation: Any issue or concern relating to the project must be addressed by

collecting more information and assessing the impact on project objectives.

296. You've been designated as the project manager for a recently approved strategic
opportunity, and while the project charter is pending issuance, you have received
information about the high-level scope, key milestones, and risks of the proposed
project. At this stage, what other crucial documents or information should you
examine?
a) The reasons for selecting this project, the business case, and
information on key stakeholders.
b) The project management software and the knowledge repositories should be
used for managing the project.
c) The scope, schedule, and cost baselines.
d) The project management plan templates and lessons learned from previous
projects.

Explanation: The project charter will require a list of assumptions, the

preliminary scope, and some of the restrictions. Additionally, the project goals
and business case will also be needed.

297. The project team is engaged in upgrading banking software, with one of the key
constraints being the high level of data security needed. In addition to this, the
project team must ensure compliance with requirements about banking data
security. How should this requirement be addressed?
a) Organize more frequent unscheduled security audits and check for
compliance failures if any.
 b) Develop data security policies and standards to be followed by the
project team. Create awareness of the policies and standards, and
ensure compliance.
c) Outsource the project to a banking technology specialist organization.
d) Inform the stakeholders that the team will do its best and that they will not
be accountable for any security breaches.

Explanation: The quality management plan should identify the compliance

requirements and detail the processes and procedures to be adhered to.

298. The project management plan must incorporate details on how compliance
requirements are addressed. This may involve creating a separate project
compliance plan or integrating relevant sections into the subsidiary plans. Which
of the following is not specified as a compliance requirement in this plan or
section?
a) Team norms and ground rules
b) Quality and risk
c) Corporate policies
d) Government regulations

Explanation: Team norms and ground rules are part of the team charter.

299. In the process of project planning, the project management team is required to
formulate a plan for handling compliance requirements. Regarding project
compliance management, what is the most crucial aspect to evaluate when
processing changes requests?
a) The category and the type of change request.
b) The consequences of non-compliance.
c) The organization that requires compliance.
d) The knowledge of the project team in the relevant area.

Explanation: It is important to assess the consequences of non-compliance as

they may have a huge impact on the project.

300. You are managing a project involving the construction of a skyscraper. However,
in adherence to regulations, no work can commence until the government body
approves and provides the necessary clearance. This situation exemplifies what
type of dependency?
a) Discretionary Dependency
b) External Dependency
c) Mandatory Dependency
d) Hard Logic

Explanation: External dependencies involve a relationship between project

activities and non-project activities. These dependencies are usually outside of
the project team's control. For example, the testing activity in a software project
 may be dependent on the delivery of hardware from an external source, or
governmental environmental hearings may need to be held before site
preparation can begin on a construction project. The project management team
determines which dependencies are external during the process of sequencing
the activities.

301. Your organization is initiating a project that involves an investment of $1,000,000.

The projected revenues from the project are estimated to be $250,000 in the first
year after the project concludes and $420,000 in each of the two subsequent
years. What holds true for the net present value of the project over the three-year
cycle at a discount rate of 10%?
a) The net present value is negative, which makes the project
unattractive.
b) The net present value is positive, which makes the project attractive.
c) The net present value is positive, which makes the project unattractive.
d) The net present value is negative, which makes the project attractive.

Explanation: The NPV formula. It's important to understand exactly how the
NPV formula works in Excel and the math behind it. NPV = F / [ (1 + r)^n ] where,
PV = Present Value, F = Future payment (cash flow), r = Discount rate, n = the
number of periods in the future is based on future cash flows.

302. Alice is in charge of a project with a projected budget at completion of $500,000.

According to the schedule, her team should have accomplished 40% of the work
by now. Nevertheless, in the recent status meeting, the team disclosed that only
35% of the work has been completed. The project has incurred expenses totaling
$225,000. As a supervisor overseeing Alice's project, how would you MOST
accurately characterize the project?
a) The project is behind schedule and over its budget.
b) The project is behind schedule and within its budget.
c) The project is ahead of schedule and within its budget.
d) The project is ahead of schedule and over its budget.

Explanation: C is correct because SPI<1 & CPI<1.

303. Project A holds a net present value of $80,000 with an estimated completion time
of six months. Project B, with a net present value of $120,000, is projected to take
two years to finish. Project C boasts a net present value of $30,000 and a benefit-
cost ratio of 5:2. Lastly, Project D has a net present value of $45,000 and a
completion duration of 3 months. Which project would be the optimal choice?
a) Project A
b) Project B
c) Project C
d) Project D

Explanation: You select the project with the highest present value.
304. A project commences in accordance with the approved scope. During the
implementation of the project design, a team member raises concerns that the
product will not meet the requirements in specific situations. Rectifying this issue
would not only lead to an expansion of scope and increased costs but would also
result in missing the project deadline. Additionally, the project sponsors lack the
necessary additional funding to support the project. Given this information, what
course of action should the Project Manager take?
a) Enact the perform integrated change control process.
b) Resolve the issue to satisfy the customer.
c) Contact the customer and negotiate for risk acceptance.
d) Conduct a risk analysis and inform the project sponsor.

Explanation: The risk register exists for the project team and stakeholders to
understand potential problems with the project. Since the team member may
not have all the answers, it is necessary to first perform a full risk analysis and
inform the project sponsor before making any decisions.

305. The project manager recognizes that conflicting stakeholder interests are likely to
arise in a project and opts to employ a stakeholder engagement assessment
matrix. The matrix identifies a key stakeholder who holds a resistant stance
towards the project. In order to align with this stakeholder's expectations, what
actions should the project manager take to achieve this objective?
a) Convey the stakeholder engagement plan.
b) Gain consensus on project objectives by meeting with all stakeholders.
c) Ensure that the stakeholder register is complete and updated.
d) Produce a stakeholder engagement plan.

Explanation: Plan Stakeholder Engagement is the process of developing

approaches to involve project stakeholders based on their needs, expectations,
interests, and potential impact on the project. The key benefit is that it provides
an actionable plan to interact effectively with stakeholders. PMBOK Guide Sixth
Edition (2018) PMI/PMI/13.2/516

306. A medium-sized company is venturing into a new market without prior

experience. In this context, a Project Manager is tasked with collecting
requirements. What tool or technique should the Project Manager employ for this
purpose?
a) Prototypes
b) Expert judgment
c) Product analysis
d) Create requirements traceability matrix

Explanation: Experts come with many lessons learned. Given the increased risks
of a new and potentially complex market, using expert judgement is
recommended.
307. A project manager oversees a project with a mix of local and virtual team
members. To address scheduling priority conflicts among team members, the
project manager arranges a video conference call. Which statement accurately
describes this scenario?
a) It is an example of the Collaborate/Problem Solve conflict resolution
technique.
b) It demonstrates the Force/Direct conflict resolution technique.
c) It is an example of the Compromise/Reconcile conflict resolution technique.
d) It demonstrates the Smooth/Accommodate conflict resolution technique.

Explanation: Collaborate/problem solve. Incorporating multiple viewpoints and

insights from differing perspectives

308. A high-level manager within an organization expresses the desire to utilize a

critical project resource for a new project. What course of action should the
project manager pursue?
a) Request that the high-level manager provides a replacement.
b) Use the Legitimate form of power to deny the request.
c) Tell the team and reassign that resource's responsibilities to other team
members.
d) Contact the program manager to resolve the issue.

Explanation: The project management team’s ability to influence others plays an

important role in negotiating resource allocation, as does the politics of the
organizations involved. If getting to an agreement is not possible, the issue
needs to be escalated for resolution. PMBOK Guide Sixth Edition (2018)
PMI/PMI/3.3/52

309. To secure a stakeholder's approval when the stakeholder perceives that a

project's deliverables were not met, what steps should the project manager take?

a) Review the project charter thoroughly with this stakeholder on a conference

call.
b) Ensure that the stakeholder understands the quality management plan.
c) Perform a risk analysis after obtaining the stakeholder's new requirements.
d) Review the project scope while analyzing the stakeholder's needs and
expectations.

Explanation: Monitor Stakeholder Engagement is the process of monitoring

project stakeholder relationships and tailoring strategies for engaging
stakeholders through modification of engagement strategies and plans. The key
benefit of this process is that it maintains or increases the efficiency and
effectiveness of stakeholder engagement activities as the project evolves and its
environment changes. This process is performed throughout the project. PMBOK
Guide Sixth Edition (2018) PMI/PMI/13.4/530
310. During a status meeting, an employee from the client's side requested an
additional new product feature from the project manager. In order to identify the
individual with the authority to approve this request, which document should the
project manager consult first?
a) Change management plan
b) Responsible, accountable, consult, and inform (RACI) matrix
c) Change request document
d) Change log

Explanation: The change management plan describes the process for

submitting, evaluating and implementing changes to the project. PMBOK Guide
Sixth Edition (2018) PMI/PMI/4.2.3.1/87

311. Review the following steps:

1. Successful completion of a project.

2. The project manager is in the process of formal closure.

3. ______________________________________.

What is Step 3?

a) The project manager should obtain stakeholder acceptance.

b) The project manager should reassign the project team.
c) The project manager should reallocate the unused funds.
d) The project manager should update the bid documents.

Explanation: Deliverables that meet the acceptance criteria are formally signed
off and approved by the customer or sponsor. Formal documentation received
from the customer or sponsor acknowledging formal stakeholder acceptance of
the projects deliverables is forwarded to the Close Project process. PMBOK
Guide Sixth Edition (2018) PMI/PMI/5.5.3.1/166

312. Review the following project characteristics:

• The project is currently in its initiation phase.
• Due to insufficient funding, the project faces termination.
• The project manager is required to close the project.

What is the initial action the project manager should undertake?

a) Examine the organization's project closure guidelines.

b) Determine the potential impact of terminating the project by performing a
risk analysis.
c) Close all project procurement processes.
d) Rely on the communications management plan to properly inform all
stakeholders.
 Explanation: Project closure guidelines or requirements will contain the
organization's procedures to follow. PMBOK Guide Sixth Edition (2018)
PMI/PMI/2.3.1/41

313. A project exhibits the following characteristics:

• A functional manager serves as a project stakeholder.
• Due to time constraints, the functional manager delegates project
responsibilities to another member of the functional team.
• The newly assigned stakeholder is not actively participating in meetings.

To involve this new stakeholder, what actions should the project manager take?

a) Present the project schedule and the specific, assigned tasks to the new
stakeholder.
b) Request that the functional manager briefs this new stakeholder and ask that
they send them to all relevant meetings.
c) Ask the new stakeholder to pair with a more experienced stakeholder to
learn responsibilities.
d) Examine the project charter with the new stakeholder and assess their
level of engagement.

Explanation: The first version of the stakeholder engagement plan is developed

after the initial stakeholder community has been identified by the Identify
Stakeholder process. The stakeholder engagement plan is updated regularly to
reject changes to the stakeholder community. PMBOK Guide Sixth Edition (2018)
PMI/PMI/13.2.3.1/522

314. During a periodic review with stakeholders, the project manager receives a query
from the project sponsor regarding the verification and acceptance process for
deliverables. Where can the project manager locate this information within the
project documentation?
a) Requirements management plan
b) Quality management plan
c) Work performance reports
d) Scope management plan

Explanation: The quality management plan identifies the quality requirements

and/or standards for the project and its deliverables, and documents how the
project will demonstrate compliance with quality requirements and/ or
standards. PMBOK Guide Sixth Edition (2018) PMI/PMI/8.1.3.1/324

315. In the planning phase of a project set in a remote area with restricted vehicle and
equipment access, the project manager suggests that the company handle the
delivery of all heavy equipment, even though it entails substantial costs. The
project manager is willing to assume full responsibility for this undertaking. What
category of risk response is the project manager showcasing?
 a) Accept
b) Avoid
c) Transfer
d) Mitigate

Explanation: Risk acceptance is a risk response strategy whereby the project

team decides to acknowledge the risk and not take any action unless the risk
occurs. PMBOK Guide Sixth Edition (2018) PMI/PMI/11.5.2.4/443

316. Upon receiving the project charter, a project manager initiates the preparation of
the project management plan. In this context, the project management office
(PMO) lacks historical information. What should be the subsequent step for the
project manager in this scenario?
a) Utilize analogous estimating.
b) Seek advice from experts in the field.
c) Organize an initial kick-off call.
d) Request that the project sponsor provides input.

Explanation: If there is no historical information available, then consulting with

subject matter experts is the next best thing a project manager can do to
prepare the project plan. PMBOK Guide Sixth Edition (2018) PMI/PMI/8.1.2.2/281

317. The marketing team is in the process of creating a new website and has
established a target audience. The next step involves identifying the style
preferences of the target audience. In this situation, what would be a suitable tool
or technique to utilize?
a) Brainstorming
b) Product analysis
c) Benchmarking
d) Focus groups

Explanation: Focus groups bring together prequalified stakeholders and subject

matter experts to learn about their expectations and attitudes about a proposed
product, service, or result. PMBOK Guide Sixth Edition (2018)
PMI/PMI/5.2.2.2/180

318. A client introduces a Project Manager to a project during its execution stage. The
Project Manager examines the project scope for cost estimating and observes that
certain completed deliverables were omitted in the work breakdown structure
(WBS). What should be the subsequent step for the Project Manager in this
situation?
a) Include the work in the WBS, per the 100% rule, and recalculate the
total project cost.
b) Determine whether these deliverables are necessary by verifying with
experts in the field.
 c) Verify with the stakeholders to see if these missed deliverables should be
added.
d) Ask that the project management office (PMO) approve additional funds for
this work.

Explanation: The 100% rule states that any work package in the WBS should
consist of 100% of the work for that work package. Since the WBS is a work
package itself (the project) and since the WBS should contain only work packages
that are in-scope, any missing work packages should be added to the WBS and
recalculated.

319. A project manager is collaborating with three crucial stakeholders, each holding a
distinct perspective on the project and its objective. These stakeholders are firm in
their opinions. The project manager must secure approval for the project charter.
What actions should the project manager take in this situation?
a) Request that the project sponsor resolve the conflict.
b) Use the project kick-off meeting to settle the project goals.
c) Conduct a stakeholder analysis.
d) Use negotiation to ensure the three stakeholders are in agreement.

Explanation: Projects experiencing a high degree of change require active

engagement and participation with project stakeholders. To facilitate timely,
productive discussion and decision making, adaptive teams engage with
stakeholders directly rather than going through layers of management. PMBOK
Guide Sixth Edition (2018) PMI/PMI/12.2.2.5/488

320. Examine the following project attributes:

• A sponsor gives the green light to a project.
• The project manager assembles chosen team members, key stakeholders,
and the sponsor for a meeting.
• The principal objective of the meeting is to produce a document that will
assist the team in outlining the primary project deliverables.

What will be the ultimate outcome of this meeting?

a) Scope management plan

b) Requirements management plan
c) Milestone list
d) Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary

Explanation: The scope management plan is a component of the project

management plan that describes how the scope will be defined, developed,
monitored, controlled, and validated. PMBOK Guide Sixth Edition (2018)
PMI/PMI/5.1.3.1/137

321. A project is currently in the development stage, and during this phase, sensitive
client data will be handled. The compliance manager raises a concern about
 project non-compliance. What is the initial document the project manager should
examine?
a) Issue log
b) Business case
c) Risk register
d) Statement of work (SOW)

Explanation: After a new issue is raised, the issue log should be reviewed prior
to taking action. PMBOK Guide Sixth Edition (2018) PMI/PMI/4.3.3.3/487

322. A project is in progress and has reached 50% completion. A crucial project team
member requests a 1.5-month leave for personal reasons. What should be the
project manager's initial course of action?
a) Discuss the issue with the functional manager and request a replacement.
b) Assess how the leave will impact the project.
c) Refer to the resource management plan.
d) Check with this team member to see if the leave can be postponed.

Explanation: The FIRST thing the project manager needs to do is to understand

what impact (if any) this absence will have on the project. PMBOK Guide Sixth
Edition (2018) PMI/PMI/11.3.2.3/461

323. A project manager is employed by a company gearing up to create a new

product. The development of this new product necessitates skills that are
currently unavailable. What steps should the project manager take to kickstart this
project?
a) Focus on quality control
b) Focus on the assessment of high-level risks
c) Develop a competitor analysis
d) Develop detailed project requirements

Explanation: If you plan to deliver a product and do not possess the skills
required, this is a risk. PMBOK Guide Sixth Edition (2018) PMI/PMI/11.1.1.4/441

324. A project manager, facing uncertainty about the duration of a new product, seeks
input from various groups of subject matter experts (SMEs). The first group
suggests a completion time of 25 days, the second group identifies risks that may
extend it to 40 days, and the third group proposes a new development method
that could shorten the time to 10 days. What is the projected development
duration for the new product?
a) 30 days
b) 23 days
c) 25 days
d) 27 days
 Explanation: Using the PERT formula: [10 + 4(25) + 40]/6 = 25. PMBOK Guide
Sixth Edition (2018) PMI/PMI/7.2.2.5/245

325. In a new product development project with three main tasks, Task A must be
completed four weeks before Task C begins. Once Task B is finished, Task C will
commence. What type of relationship exists between Task A and Task B?
a) Finish-to-start (FS)
b) Finish-to-finish (FF)
c) Start-to-start (SS)
d) Start-to-finish (SF)

Explanation: While there is no DIRECT relationship between A and B, both must

be completed before C can start, so, of the choices, the only response that
makes sense is FF. PMBOK Guide Sixth Edition (2018) PMI/PMI/6.3.2.1/190

326. While a product deliverable undergoes acceptance testing, a senior-level

stakeholder expresses concern about the absence of a crucial product feature for
their department. To prevent such issues in the future, what is one approach the
project manager can take?
a) Prepare a change management plan.
b) Ensure a scope management plan gets approved.
c) Hold a product demo with stakeholders.
d) Properly manage stakeholder expectations.

Explanation: A scope management plan documents how the project and

product scope will be defined, validated, and controlled. PMBOK Guide Sixth
Edition (2018) PMI/PMI/5.1.3.1/137

327. A skincare company observes a growing number of customer complaints about a

product being underweight. To assess if changes are necessary in the production
line, what tool or technique can the project manager employ for this task?
a) Scatter diagram
b) Affinity diagram
c) Control chart
d) Histogram

Explanation: Control charts are used to determine whether or not a process is

stable or has predictable performance. PMBOK Guide Sixth Edition (2018)
PMI/PMI/8.3.2.5/304

328. A product meets 96% of the functional requirements outlined in the scope.
However, the customer refuses to accept the product, insisting on 100%. The
project manager is reviewing what could have been done differently to prevent
this situation. What action should the project manager have taken?
a) Reviewed the requirements documentation.
b) Assessed and evaluated the test management plan.
 c) Created the work breakdown structure (WBS).
d) Ensured that the quality metrics were defined.

Explanation: Quality metrics are a description of a project or product attribute

and how to measure it. PMBOK Guide Sixth Edition (2018) PMI/PMI/8.1.3.2/287

329. A Project Manager is involved in a data center migration project and is

formulating the schedule management plan. As per the project sponsor's
directive, the schedule must encompass the plan for all tasks at the earliest
opportunity. Additionally, the Project Manager is presented with modified
resource availability that should not violate schedule constraints. The Project
Manager needs to select the appropriate leads and lag relationships for this
situation. Which type should the Project Manager choose?
a) Early start equals the late start in some activities.
b) Early start equals the late start in all activities.
c) Early start is smaller than the late start in some activities.
d) Early start is smaller than the late start in all activities.

Explanation: The time between the early start and the late start is the amount
of float, or extra time before the activity starts where the critical path will not be
impacted. Since the sponsor has indicated they want all tasks to start as soon as
possible, there should be no float, which will make every task a part of the critical
path.

330. In the process of drafting a project charter for a project focused on automating
30 percent of product testing, the project manager receives guidance from the
project sponsor to engage senior test engineers in identifying automatable tests.
However, the test department manager is uncooperative due to concerns about
potential downsizing. In response, what should be the initial action of the project
manager?
a) Request for the project sponsor to provide a rationale for test automation.
b) Present data-driven, cost-benefit evidence of test automation to the test
department manager.
c) Raise the risk that the senior testing engineers will be unavailable for the
testing.
d) Have a meeting with the test department manager to review the
statement of work (SOW).

Explanation: The FIRST thing the PM need to do is to make sure the project
goals are clearly understood by the stakeholders. PMBOK Guide Sixth Edition
(2018) PMI/PMI/13.3/523

331. A company is gearing up to implement a new product incorporating cutting-edge

technologies and processes. The project manager has ensured that the individual
work packages for each component are clearly defined, and constraints for each
 component have been pinpointed. Which estimating technique should the project
manager employ to achieve an accurate cost estimate for the project?
a) Three-point
b) Bottom-up
c) Parametric
d) Analogous

Explanation: Bottom-up estimating is a method of estimating project duration

or cost by aggregating the estimates of the lower-level components of the WBS.
PMBOK Guide Sixth Edition (2018) PMI/PMI/6.4.2.5/202

332. A project exhibits the following features:

• It is currently in the planning phase.
• A crucial stakeholder is set to be unavailable for 2.5 weeks during the project.
• Upon discovering the key stakeholder's upcoming unavailability, the project
manager must determine the initial course of action.

What is the appropriate step to take?

a) Request that the finance department provide a replacement during the

stakeholder's absence.
b) Organize a meeting with the sponsor to evaluate the situation and identify
alternatives.
c) Continue with planning and acknowledge the impact the change may
have on the project schedule.
d) Ensure that the issue log is updated and inform the other stakeholders.

Explanation: The FIRST thing the PM needs to do is to capture this as an issue

and communicate this to the other stakeholders. Until then, no action can or
should be taken. PMBOK Guide Sixth Edition (2018) PMI/PMI/4.3.3.3/487

333. A project possesses the following attributes:

• It is currently in the execution phase.
• A regulatory law has recently been approved, necessitating immediate
compliance.
• This law will have implications for the project's scope, schedule, and cost.
• The project manager must decide the initial course of action.

What is the appropriate step to take?

a) Ensure the project management plan is updated.

b) Escalate the issue to senior management.
c) Begin the change request process.
d) Initiate mitigation of the risk.

Explanation: Since compliance is mandatory, a change request needs to be

submitted. PMBOK Guide Sixth Edition (2018) PMI/PMI/4.3.3.4/96
334. The deliverable on the critical path of a project is falling behind schedule. The
cost performance index (CPI) is 1.3. The Project Manager can restore the project to
its original schedule. What is the most probable result for the project?
a) There will be a revised scope.
b) There will be an increase in costs and risks.
c) There will be rework.
d) There will be activities performed in parallel.

Explanation: The cost performance index (CPI) is above 1, therefore the project
is spending money at a rate lower than planned. Since the project is behind
schedule, its schedule performance index (SPI) is less than 1. In order to increase
the SPI to 1, there is most likely an increase in cost (perhaps from crashing or
fast-tracking) that will lower the CPI to 1. This will most likely increase risks
associated with the project when trying to do more in less time.

335. In a complex project with key stakeholders situated in the United States, France,
and China, the project manager learns that a senior manager has requested
project information from a team member. What is the suitable next step to take?

a) Read the communications management plan.

b) Rely on the information in the stakeholder register.
c) Refer to the project management information system (PMIS).
d) Ensure that the senior manager attends the next team meeting.

Explanation: A communications management plan is developed to ensure that

the appropriate messages are communicated to stakeholders in various formats
and various means as defined by the communication strategy. PMBOK Guide
Sixth Edition (2018) PMI/PMI/10.1.3.1/377

336. Seven months into the project execution, the project manager calculates a cost
performance index (CPI) of 0.80. Upon conducting a trend analysis, it is observed
that the CPI has a downward trend. What should be the project manager's next
course of action?
a) Ask for additional resources.
b) Crash the project schedule.
c) Utilize the management reserve.
d) Issue a change request for cost re-baselining.

Explanation: Since the project is over budget and the trend analysis show that
will continue, the best course of action is to re-baseline the cost of the project
and manage to that. PMBOK Guide Sixth Edition (2018) PMI/PMI/7.3.3.1/254

337. The project is in the implementation phase when the research and development
department inform the project manager about unexpected changes in the
product's requirements. These changes, unforeseen initially, could have a
 substantial impact on potential sales numbers and may affect the project scope.
What would be the suitable action for the project manager in this situation?
a) Use forecasting methods.
b) Plan to use the contingency reserve and update the risk mitigation plan.
c) Utilize methods such as earned value management (EVM).
d) Anticipate risk responses and modify the risk register accordingly.

Explanation: These new requirements may pose additional risks. These risks
need to be documented and appropriate responses need to be identified.
PMBOK Guide Sixth Edition (2018) PMI/PMI/11.2.3.1/417

338. The project is currently in the execution phase, and due to the urgency for a swift
turnaround, the project manager must promptly allocate resources to form the
team and fulfill project requirements. What should be the next action for the
project manager?
a) Host a webinar.
b) Build library services.
c) Deliver workshops.
d) Train the new team.

Explanation: Develop Team is the process of improving competences, team

member interaction, and overall team environment to enhance project
performance. Training is a Tool & Technique of the Develop Project Team
process. PMBOK Guide Sixth Edition (2018) PMI/PMI/4.5/602

339. A new Project Manager takes over after the departure of the previous one and
aims to steer the team towards project success. What should be the initial step for
the new Project Manager?
a) Review the project diary and look for notes made by the former Project
Manager.
b) Modify the project schedule, adding a new activity related to the knowledge
transfer process.
c) Revisit the project budget to determine if extra time is required.
d) Look over the project charter to identify goals and deliverables.

Explanation: The project charter is one of the most important project

documents. It defines many aspects of the project which are critical to the new
Project Manager's understanding of the project strategy as well as the tactical
execution. Any other actions before reading the official project charter will be
made with a bias.

340. Project team members are unusually occupied and express their inability to
update lessons learned due to other project commitments. How should the
project manager address this concern?
a) Ensure there is an agenda item for discussion of lessons learned from
project activities as part of all project meetings.
 b) File a change request to the project management office (PMO) to change how
often lessons learned is collected.
c) Bring in a consultant to assist with collecting lessons learned to help reduce
the burden on project team.
d) Require submission of lessons learned documentation after each project
deliverable is accepted by the customer.

Explanation: The lessons learned collection must be present throughout the

project, using different facilitating techniques. PMBOK Guide Sixth Edition (2018)
PMI/PMI/4.4.3.1/104

341. A Construction Project Manager entered into a firm-fixed contract with a supplier
to acquire diverse construction materials. The supplier fulfilled the agreement by
delivering all the materials to the construction site on the agreed-upon delivery
date. What steps should the Project Manager take next?
a) Pay the supplier and close the contract
b) Start work using part of the materials while inspecting the rest
c) Inspect the materials to ensure their compliance with the requirements
stipulated in the contract
d) Start work using the provided materials to avoid having any delays

Explanation: The Project Manager should inspect the materials to ensure that
they meet the requirements stipulated in the contract. This is important to
ensure that the materials are of the right quality and quantity and that they meet
the project's specifications

342. A Project Manager is leading a team of engineers in constructing a packaging

machine. The machine underwent thorough internal verification. However, upon
the client receiving it, they contacted the Project Manager to inquire whether the
machine met the specified requirements or not. What steps should the Project
Manager take next?
a) Collaborate with the client to get their formal approval that the product
complies with the requirements
b) Send an engineer to the client’s site to double-check the product
requirements
c) Confirm that the product was internally tested and formally close the project
d) Perform the control quality process and use the contingency reserve to fix
any detected issues

Explanation: The Project Manager should collaborate with the client to get their
formal approval that the product complies with the requirements. This is
because the client is the ultimate authority on whether the product meets their
requirements or not. The Project Manager should work with the client to
understand their concerns and address them as necessary.
343. TechEdge, a San Francisco-based IT company, is currently engaged in a project to
develop a mobile app for online training. The Project Manager chooses to
construct a prototype for the app. What advantages do prototypes provide?
(Choose two)
a) Allow the project to be completed faster.
b) Allow for early feedback on the requirements.
c) Help to address ambiguities.
d) Reduce project costs.

Explanation: Prototypes provide added value by allowing for early feedback on

the requirements and helping to address ambiguities.

344. A Project Manager is overseeing a project utilizing a hybrid approach. In a cost

management planning meeting attended by the Project Sponsor and the CFO, the
Project Manager declared that they would document rounding to the nearest
thousand and utilize weeks for resource estimation. The Project Manager's
statement encompasses two elements of the cost management plan, which are
____________.
a) Level of accuracy and Units of measure
b) Units of measure and Control thresholds
c) Units of measure and Control thresholds
d) Level of accuracy and Rules of performance

Explanation: The Project Manager's statement describes two elements of the

cost management plan, which are level of accuracy and units of measure.

345. A Project Manager is overseeing a construction project for a shopping center.

After an inspection, the customer declined acceptance of certain deliverables
citing non-conformance to the acceptance criteria. What steps should the Project
Manager take next?
a) Issue a Change Request
b) Use their soft skills to convince inspectors to accept the deliverables
c) Document the reasons for nonacceptance
d) Assess the impact on project constraints

Explanation: Documenting the reasons for nonacceptance is the right answer

because it is important to understand why the deliverables were rejected and
what needs to be done to correct the non-conformance. This information will be
used to update the project management plan and to issue a change request if
necessary.

346. Working within a predictive environment, a Project Manager has chosen to

employ a three-point estimation with a beta distribution to assess the cost of
project activities. Which of the subsequent formulas will they utilize?
a) (Optimistic + Pessimistic + Most likely) ÷ 7
b) (Optimistic + Pessimistic + (4 × Most likely)) ÷ 6
 c) (Optimistic + Pessimistic + (3 × Most likely)) ÷ 5
d) (Optimistic + Pessimistic + (2 × Most likely)) ÷ 4

Explanation: The formula for three-point estimation with a beta distribution in a

predictive environment is (Optimistic + Pessimistic + (4 × Most likely)) ÷ 6. This
formula gives more weight to the most likely estimate, which is more accurate
than the optimistic and pessimistic estimates.

347. An organization designated a new Project Manager to take over the role of the
one who recently left. What should be the first action of the new Project Manager?

a) Consult the project charter to understand the project goals and its
business case
b) Consult the issues log and the lessons learned register to check if there is any
serious problem
c) Consult the project management plan to learn about the project baselines
d) Consult the stakeholders register to start interacting with the different
parties involved in the project

Explanation: The new Project Manager should first consult the project charter to
understand the project goals and its business case. This will provide a clear
understanding of the project's objectives and help the Project Manager align
their efforts with the organization's strategic goals.

348. A Product Owner creates a release plan based on an estimated team velocity of
50 story points. Nonetheless, in the initial two sprints, the team accomplishes 37
and 35 story points. What actions can the Agile Project Manager take in this
scenario? (Choose two)
a) Extend the duration of the sprint until completing 50 story points
b) Inform the product owner that, based on available empirical data, the
release plan could not be achieved
c) Study with the product owner the possibility of adding more resources
to the team
d) Use their leadership skills to motivate their team to reach the estimated
velocity

Explanation: The Agile Project Manager can inform the Product Owner that,
based on available empirical data, the release plan could not be achieved and
study with the product owner the possibility of adding more resources to the
team.

349. Upon concluding a release, the Scrum team is reviewing its burndown chart.
Despite no alterations in estimates, the chart indicates a rise in story point value
during the third sprint. How can this be elucidated?
a) Work was removed from the Product Backlog
b) The team's velocity decreased
 c) The team's velocity increased
d) Work was added to the Product Backlog

Explanation: The increase in story point value during the 3rd sprint can be
explained by the addition of work to the Product Backlog, which increased the
total amount of work to be completed.

350. A Project Manager is leading a team of engineers through a two-year project.

After a few months, the Project Manager observed a decline in the team's interest
in the project. What actions can the Project Manager take to sustain motivation?

a) Align the project with the organization’s goals

b) Align work assignments with the team members’ personal ambitions
c) Offer an immediate salary raise
d) Offer a bonus at the end of the project

Explanation: Aligning work assignments with the team members’ personal

ambitions is a way to maintain motivation. This will help the team members to
feel more connected to the project and will increase their interest in the project.

351. Despite establishing an agenda and timeboxing for the meetings they conduct,
the Project Manager struggles to engage all attendees. What steps can they take
to rectify this issue?
a) Change to remote meetings to make everyone feel more comfortable
b) Make meetings shorter to prevent boredom
c) Encourage all attendees to participate and share their thoughts by
asking for their opinions on the discussed matters
d) Limit the interventions of the most talkative attendees to allow others to
participate

Explanation: Encouraging all attendees to participate and share their thoughts

by asking for their opinions on the discussed matters is the right answer because
it helps to engage all attendees and make them feel valued. This can lead to
better collaboration and decision-making.

352. A Project Manager is overseeing a team with members spread across various
countries. Beyond facing cultural barriers, the team appears disconnected,
resulting in numerous instances of rework. What actions could the Project
Manager take to improve communication within the team?
a) Request from the team to only use emails for communication to avoid any
misunderstanding or misinterpretation
b) Hold short daily meetings with all team members to sync on what
everyone is doing
c) Offer team members training about overcoming cultural barriers
d) Collaborate with senior management to co-locate the team
 Explanation: Holding short daily meetings with all team members to sync on
what’s everyone is doing is the right answer because it helps to improve
communication within the team and ensure everyone is on the same page.

353. In a workshop about the Agile approach, the Project Manager asserted that Agile
teams ought to be cross-functional and self-organizing, clarifying that
_____________.
a) The Agile team should have complementary skill sets and be able to organize
the backlog by themselves
b) The Agile team should self-organize to acquire the necessary skills to be
cross-functional
c) Each member of the team should be cross-functional and self-organized
d) The Agile team should have all the required skills to deliver the product
on their own

Explanation: The Agile team should have all the required skills to deliver the
product on their own. This statement is correct because Agile teams are
expected to be self-sufficient and have all the necessary skills to deliver the
product without relying on external resources.

354. Amid a financial crisis, an organization opted to pause all internal projects to an
undefined date. Considering that a Project Manager within this organization holds
a weekly meeting with a subcontractor who supplies the majority of the project's
physical resources, what is the most effective form of communication to relay the
decision to discontinue the contract to this subcontractor?
a) Informal verbal
b) Formal verbal
c) Formal written
d) Informal written

Explanation: Formal written communication is the best type of communication

to inform the subcontractor of the contract discontinuation decision because it
provides a clear and documented record of the communication. This is
important in case of any legal disputes or misunderstandings in the future.

355. A Project Manager is overseeing a biodegradable packaging project. A team

member notified the Project Manager that he identified a risk wherein the printing
machine might require maintenance before the project concludes. The Project
Manager assesses the risk's probability of occurrence as 10% and its cost as
$5,000. The expected monetary value of this risk is _____________.
a) 4500
b) -4500
c) 500
d) -500
 Explanation: The Expected Monetary Value (EMV) of a risk is calculated by
multiplying the probability of the risk occurring by the cost of the risk. In this
case, the EMV is 10% x $5,000 = -$500 since it represents a potential cost to the
project.

356. A Project Manager is tasked with overseeing the project quality assurance report.
While examining a control chart, they noticed nine consecutive data points on one
side of the mean. What actions should they take in this scenario?
a) Identify the assignable cause
b) Make the necessary changes to the chart to reflect the new mean
c) Carry out a design of experiments
d) This is the rule of seven, meaning it can be disregarded

Explanation: The right answer is to identify the assignable cause. This is because
nine data points in a row on one side of the mean is an indication of an out-of-
control process, which means that there is an assignable cause that needs to be
identified and addressed.

357. A senior Project Manager joins an ongoing project after the resignation of its
former Project Manager. What should be the initial action for the new Project
Manager?
a) Add a new activity to the project schedule concerning knowledge transfer
b) Review the project budget to determine if more funding is required
c) Examine the project charter to understand the project goals and
deliverables
d) Go through the issue log to check the previous and current difficulties the
project is facing

Explanation: The new Project Manager should first examine the project charter
to understand the project goals and deliverables. This will help the new Project
Manager get a clear understanding of the project's objectives and ensure that
the project is aligned with the organization's strategic goals.

358. A Project Manager is leading a mobile app development project. Faced with
quality issues, the project team decided to employ a(n) _______________ to prioritize
quality problems.
a) Control chart
b) Pareto chart
c) Ishikawa diagram
d) Scatter diagram

Explanation: A Pareto chart is a quality management tool used to prioritize

problems by identifying the most frequent or significant issues. It helps the
project team to focus on the vital few problems that have the most significant
impact on the project's quality.
359. A Project Manager is overseeing a project outside her expertise field. In a
planning meeting, two team members engage in a heated debate regarding the
appropriate way to implement a specific project requirement. What should the
Project Manager do in this scenario?
a) Help team members decide the best way to implement the concerned
requirement
b) Put an end to the discussion to avoid getting the meeting out of control
c) Let the most experienced team member decide
d) Inform team members that the final decision should be taken by her after
listening to their opinions

Explanation: The Project Manager should facilitate the discussion and help team
members decide the best way to implement the concerned requirement. This
approach promotes collaboration and encourages team members to share their
ideas and opinions, which can lead to a better outcome for the project.

360. A Project Manager is in the process of identifying and evaluating risks for a
construction project. Encountering a risk that is complex and ambiguous, the
Project Manager opts to transfer it to the Program Manager for the latter to make
the appropriate decision. How did the Project Manager address this risk?
a) Mitigate
b) Avoid
c) Transfer
d) Escalate

Explanation: The Project Manager responds to the risk by escalating it to the

Program Manager for decision-making, which is a valid risk response strategy
when the risk is beyond the Project Manager's authority or expertise.

361. A Project Manager is overseeing a project that adopts a hybrid approach. Despite
ensuring that all iterations maintained a balanced workload, the Project Manager
observed that a specific team member was becoming overwhelmed, while others
appeared to be managing well. How should the Project Manager handle this issue?

a) Track the stressed team member’s tasks in a separate backlog for additional
analysis and reporting
b) Inform upper management and request additional resources for the project
c) Personally meet with the stressed team member to discuss ways to
better manage their time
d) Raise the issue with the team in the daily stand-up meeting

Explanation: The Project Manager should personally meet with the stressed
team members to discuss ways to better manage their time. This approach
allows the Project Manager to understand the root cause of the team member's
stress and work with them to find a solution that works for both parties. It also
 shows that the Project Manager is invested in the well-being of their team
members, which can help build trust and improve team morale.

362. While working on a new feature, a team member discovers that the original code
does not adhere to the organization's coding standards. What actions should the
team member take in this situation?
a) Ask the Product Owner to get a new item added to the product backlog
dedicated to technical debt
b) Ignore the code compliance work as it will be considered as Gold Plating
c) Discuss with the rest of the team members and add a new technical task to
the sprint backlog
d) Start refactoring the code and update the time estimate of the feature

Explanation: The team member should ask the Product Owner to get a new
item added to the product backlog dedicated to technical debt. This will ensure
that the technical debt is tracked and addressed on time.

363. A Project Manager is executing a project using the agile approach with two-week
sprints. At the one-week mark in the current sprint, the team has not finished any
of the sprint backlog items, rendering the attainment of the sprint goal impossible.
What steps should the Project Manager take?
a) Discuss with the self-organizing team the root cause of their poor
performance during the standup meeting
b) Cancel the sprint, hold an early retrospective meeting, and start over with a
new energy
c) Complete the sprint even though it will not achieve its goal, and help
the team overcome the encountered problems
d) Discuss with the product owner the possibility of updating the sprint goal to
make it more achievable

Explanation: The Project Manager should work with the team to identify the
root cause of the issues and help them find solutions to overcome them. This will
help the team learn from their mistakes and improve their performance in future
sprints.

364. A Project Manager is overseeing a one-year Agile project. A few months into the
project, the Sponsor expressed a desire to understand the overall progress of the
project, particularly the status of implemented vs. pending features. Which of the
following tools would provide this information? (Choose two)
a) Feature chart
b) Cumulative flow diagram
c) Iteration burn-down chart
d) Kanban board
 Explanation: Cumulative flow diagrams and Feature charts are Agile tools that
provide information about the big picture of the project progress, more
specifically, the implemented vs. pending features.

365. Despite being estimated at 2 and 3 story points consecutively, two user stories
each took two days to implement. How many story points do these two user
stories contribute to the team velocity when calculated at the end of the iteration?

a) 3 story points
b) 2 story points
c) 5 story points
d) 4 story points

The two user stories were estimated at 2 and 3 story points, which totals to 5
story points. However, their implementation took two days each, which means
that each story point took 2 days to complete. Therefore, the two user stories
contribute 4 story points to the team velocity.

366. A Project Manager presents the project plan to the stakeholders during the kick-
off meeting of their first project. While delving into the details, the Project
Manager observes that a majority of stakeholders appear dissatisfied with the
plan. One stakeholder, in particular, conveys frustration, citing the plan's
inaccuracy in capturing their expectations. What is the probable cause for the
Project Manager providing an inaccurate depiction of stakeholders' requirements?

a) The Project Manager did not explain the project well enough. A better
presentation of the plan would have prevented this misunderstanding.
b) The Project Manager did not engage the project stakeholders enough to
be able to accurately capture their requirements.
c) The Project Manager did not use the project scope as a guide when creating
the project plan.
d) The Project Manager only presented the first draft of the project plan, so it
can always be improved.

Explanation: The Project Manager did not engage the project stakeholders
enough to be able to accurately capture their requirements. This is the most
likely reason behind the inaccurate description of stakeholders’ requirements.
The Project Manager should have engaged the stakeholders more to understand
their requirements and expectations.

367. The Project Manager finds out they were not assigned the promised human
resources during the planning phase. Instead, they received a team lacking the
necessary skills for project execution. Given that they operate in a weak matrix
organization, what course of action should the Project Manager take?
a) Issue a change request to get a more qualified team
 b) Negotiate with the Functional Manager to obtain the required team
members
c) Use their legitimate power by informing the organization that they will not
perform the project without the needed resources
d) Take the matter to the Project Sponsor

Explanation: The Project Manager should negotiate with the functional manager
in order to obtain the required team members. In a weak matrix organization,
the Project Manager has limited authority over the project team, and the
Functional Manager has more control over the team members. Therefore, the
Project Manager needs to work with the Functional Manager to obtain the
necessary resources.

368. While planning a call center project, a stakeholder said that since the used
internet cable (DSL) can be slow, it should be considered a high risk to the project.
However, the Project Manager, drawing from past projects, believes the cable
internet would suffice. Another stakeholder steps in to clarify that internet cable
speed and reliability fluctuate based on geographical location. What should the
Project Manager's next course of action be?
a) Perform a quantitative risk analysis to determine the risk exposure
b) Perform a qualitative risk analysis by developing a risk mitigation plan
c) Set a contingency reserve to install fiber Internet cables if the threat occurs
d) Analyze and prioritize the risk by using a probability and impact matrix

Explanation: The Project Manager should analyze and prioritize the risk by using
a probability and impact matrix. This will help the project manager to determine
the likelihood and impact of the risk and prioritize the response accordingly.

369. Upon receiving a document from the customer outlining the requirements for
the new project, the Project Manager encounters difficulty in understanding
certain requirements, outputs, and, crucially, the project's ultimate goal. What
should be the Project Manager's next step?
a) Acquire a team to help analyze the project requirements
b) Ask the customer for clarifications
c) Start planning the first iteration
d) Reject the new project as it involves a lot of ambiguity

Explanation: The Project Manager should ask the customer for clarifications to
gain a better understanding of the project requirements and goals.

370. While executing the project, the project team faced an issue with an unreliable
vendor. Given that the incident significantly impacted the project scope, the
Project Manager opted to terminate the vendor's contract and abstain from future
dealings with them. Where should the Project Manager record this issue?
a) Change log
b) Lessons learned register
 c) Issue log
d) Risk register

Explanation: The Project Manager should record this issue in the issue log,
which is used to document and monitor issues that arise during project
execution. The issue log is a tool used to track and manage issues, including their
status, priority, and resolution. By recording the issue in the issue log, the Project
Manager can ensure that the issue is properly tracked and addressed.

371. As part of his role and through multiple visits to various countries, a Project
Manager realized the importance of avoiding ethnocentrism. What does
ethnocentrism mean?
a) The initial shock of arriving in a foreign country
b) The belief that your own culture is superior to others
c) Inability to get adjusted to the culture of a new place
d) Being unfriendly to strangers

Explanation: Ethnocentrism is the belief that your own culture is superior to

others. This can lead to a lack of understanding and respect for other cultures,
which can be detrimental to project success in a global environment.

372. A team member has demonstrated outstanding technical skills and consistently
completed tasks promptly. Consequently, the company's CEO chose to promote
the team member to a Project Manager role. The CEO's behavior is an example of
____________.
a) Halo Effect
b) Herzberg Theory
c) McGregor's Theory of X and Y
d) Expectancy Theory

Explanation: The CEO's behavior is an example of the Halo Effect, which is a

cognitive bias where a person's overall impression of a person, company, brand,
or product influences their feelings and thoughts about that entity's character or
properties. In this case, the CEO is promoting the team member based on their
exceptional technical skills and timely task completion, which is an example of
the Halo Effect.

373. A project manager ensures a healthy work environment for their team by
offering secure working conditions, job stability, and competitive salaries, with a
focus on recognizing and appreciating their work. According to Herzberg, which of
the following options represent examples of hygiene factors? (Choose three)
a) Appreciation
b) Job security
c) Safe working conditions
d) Salary
 Explanation: According to Herzberg's Two-Factor Theory, hygiene factors are the
basic necessities that must be met in the workplace to prevent dissatisfaction.
These factors include job security, salary, and safe working conditions. They are
not motivators, but their absence can lead to dissatisfaction among employees.

374. that was still in the negotiation stage. However, they observed that discussions
tended to drift into various unrelated topics, with attendees occasionally circling
back to the meeting's primary subject. What is lacking in this meeting? (Choose
two)
a) An agenda
b) A facilitator
c) Minutes
d) An objective

Explanation: The meeting is missing an agenda and a facilitator. An agenda

would help keep the discussion on track, and a facilitator would help steer the
conversation back to the main topic when it drifts off course.

375. A Project Manager is overseeing a pharmaceutical manufacturing project utilizing

a predictive approach. The project management team consistently communicates
with stakeholders to gather feedback and evaluate their involvement. In which
process group do stakeholders exert the most influence over the project?
a) Closing
b) Initiating
c) Planning
d) Executing

Explanation: In the Initiating process group, the project manager identifies

stakeholders and assesses their engagement level. This process group is where
stakeholders have the most influence over the project because their feedback
and input can shape the project's direction and objectives.

376. As per the client's request, the project manager for an e-commerce website
development project agreed to extend the scope while maintaining the original
delivery date. To meet this commitment, the project team must work 24/7. What is
the optimal course of action for the Project Manager?
a) Crashing the project
b) Using the resource leveling technique
c) Hiring virtual teams that work in different time zones and schedules
d) Starting a night shift for the collocated team members

Explanation: Hiring virtual teams that work in different time zones and
schedules is the best course of action for the Project Manager because it allows
the project team to work around the clock without overburdening the collocated
team members. This approach also provides the project manager with the
flexibility to scale up or down the team size as needed.
377. Invited to assist an organization's transition to the Scrum framework, an agile
coach discovers that, upon assessing the current situation, the cross-functional
team lacks a Single Point Of Contact (SPOC) for product-related inquiries. Which of
the following roles is absent in this scenario?
a) Project Manager
b) Product Owner
c) Sponsor
d) Scrum Master

Explanation: The Product Owner is responsible for defining and prioritizing the
product backlog items. The Product Owner is the single point of contact for the
team to refer to in case they have any questions about the product. Therefore,
the missing role in this situation is the Product Owner.

378. A Project Manager is overseeing a project utilizing a hybrid approach. After the
first week of the initial iteration, the customer conveyed dissatisfaction with the
deliverables. What should be the Project Manager's next course of action?
a) Investigate the cause of dissatisfaction and verify the deliverables
b) Ask the customer to submit a change request so that their dissatisfaction can
be addressed
c) Use soft skills to convince the customer that the deliverables conform to
project specifications
d) Implement adjustments and improvements in the next iteration

Explanation: The Project Manager should investigate the cause of dissatisfaction

and verify the deliverables to ensure that they meet the project specifications.
This will help the Project Manager identify the issues and make necessary
adjustments to improve the deliverables in the next iteration.

379. The project team comprises the following members:

Member A: enthusiastic about the project and willing to exert additional effort if
necessary.

Member B: consistently exceeds expectations.

Member C: well-liked by the customer and ready to invest extra effort as

required.

Member D: consistently meets the project's requirements.

Who among these members is the most valuable resource to the project?

a) Member A
b) Member B
c) Member C
d) Member D
 Explanation: Member D consistently achieves the project's requirements,
making them the most valuable resource to the project.

380. At the end of an iteration, a graphic designer working on a dairy brand project
informs the Project Manager that he couldn't complete one of his assigned tasks
due to a laptop issue. To avoid a recurrence of such situations in the future, the
Project Manager should ____________.
a) Handle the issue during the next daily standup meeting
b) Discuss the issue during the retrospective meeting
c) Address the issue during the following iteration planning meeting
d) Discuss the issue during the demonstration session

Explanation: The retrospective meeting is the best place to discuss issues that
occurred during the iteration and identify ways to prevent them from happening
again in the future.

381. In the planning phase, to acquire physical resources for a high-tech project, a
Project Manager received numerous proposals from qualified suppliers they had
collaborated with in previous projects, as well as proposals from other suppliers.
To evaluate and make the optimal choice among the various suppliers, which of
the following tools or techniques should the Project Manager utilize?
a) Selection criteria
b) Procurement performance review
c) Make or buy analysis
d) Procurement audit

Explanation: Selection criteria is a tool and technique used in the Plan

Procurement Management process to evaluate and rank proposals from
potential sellers. It is used to compare different proposals and make the best
choice based on predetermined criteria.

382. Upon receiving proposals from vendors for the new project they're overseeing,
and to reduce the impact of personal prejudice on source selection, a Project
Manager employs a method of quantifying qualitative data. This method is known
as ____________.
a) Selecting system
b) Screening system
c) Weighting system
d) All of the above

Explanation: The right answer is C because a weighting system is a quantifying

method for qualitative data that assigns numerical values to each criterion and
then calculates a total score for each vendor's proposal. This method helps to
minimize the effect of personal prejudice on source selection.
383. While overseeing the performance of a construction project, the Project Manager
observes that the project is at risk of deviating from the planned schedule.
Consequently, they implement ______________ to guarantee that the project aligns
with the established project baselines.
a) Defect repairs
b) Preventive actions
c) Corrective actions
d) Change request

Explanation: Preventive actions are taken to prevent a problem from occurring.

In this case, the Project Manager is taking preventive actions to ensure that the
project does not drift away from the planned schedule.

384. Overseeing an electric car manufacturing project, a Project Manager encounters

a complex quality issue for which they lack an understanding of its source and
causes. They schedule a meeting with their team to address the matter and
initially trace the problem back to its root cause. For this, they use _________.
a) Why Why diagram
b) Pareto diagram
c) Scatter diagram
d) Chain diagram

Explanation: The Why Why diagram is a tool used to trace a problem back to its
root cause. It is a simple and effective tool that helps identify the underlying
causes of a problem. By asking 'why' repeatedly, the team can identify the root
cause of the problem and develop a solution to address it.

385. A Project Manager was tasked with coordinating a national chess tournament.
The tournament project has been planned and approved for execution. Three
months stand between the Project Manager and the major event, during which
they will adhere to the Scrum approach with 2-week long sprints. Prior to
commencing any work, they convene a meeting with the sponsor, project team,
stakeholders, and key contractors. What type of meeting did the Project Manager
conduct?
a) Status meeting
b) Sprint planning meeting
c) Scoping meeting
d) Kick-off meeting

Explanation: The Project Manager held a kick-off meeting to initiate the project
and align all stakeholders on the project objectives, scope, and expectations.

386. A Project Manager is overseeing a project involving the implementation of an

accounting application for a pet store. In a project performance review meeting,
they presented the following figures: AC = $4,000, PV = $5,000, and EV = $5,500.
What does this signify about the project?
 a) Since the SV is negative, the project is behind schedule
b) Since the CV is negative, the Project Manager has probably spent more than
they initially planned to
c) Since both the CV and SV are positive, the project is under budget and
ahead of schedule
d) These numbers are insufficient to calculate the project SPI and CPI

Explanation: The correct answer is C because the CV and SV formulas are: CV =

EV - AC and SV = EV - PV. In this case, CV = $5,500 - $4,000 = $1,500 and SV =
$5,500 - $5,000 = $500. Since both the CV and SV are positive, the project is
under budget and ahead of schedule.

387. An organization is considering two prospective projects with identical payback

periods. Following a benefit measurement analysis, the Project Manager discovers
that Project A has a lower Internal Rate of Return (IRR) compared to Project B.
Which project should the organization opt for?
a) Project A
b) Project B
c) The available information is not enough to make a decision
d) There is no difference

Explanation: Project B has a higher IRR, which means it will generate more cash
flows over the life of the project. Therefore, it is the better choice.

388. A Project Manager is leading a complex project with a highly demanding Sponsor.
The Sponsor seeks to be informed about every update on the project’s progress
and all planned subsequent work. What is the most effective method for the
Project Manager to communicate with the Sponsor?
a) Schedule a fortnightly meeting and give the Sponsor access to the project
management software so they can check real-time updates concerning the
project status
b) Schedule a monthly face-to-face meeting to discuss the project status
c) Schedule a meeting once or twice a week and let the Sponsor know that
they can also attend daily standups
d) Send a comprehensive monthly report detailing all project progress aspects
regarding scope, schedule, cost, risks, etc.

Explanation: Option C is the right answer because it allows the Sponsor to stay
informed about the project progress without being too intrusive. The Project
Manager can provide regular updates, and the Sponsor can attend daily
standups if they wish to be more involved.

389. A Project Manager has recently assumed responsibility for an in-progress project
focused on establishing a brand for newborn essentials. Fabric-based items are
produced by external vendors. To familiarize themselves with all vendors
participating in the project, the Project Manager should explore ___________.
 a) Stakeholder register
b) Vendors’ proposals
c) Stakeholder engagement plan
d) RFQs

Explanation: The stakeholder register contains information about all

stakeholders involved in the project, including vendors. Therefore, it is the best
option for the Project Manager to check out to get to know all vendors involved
in the project.

390. An Agile Project Manager observed a loss in interest from multiple stakeholders
who rarely contribute input, provide feedback, or attend meetings for the project.
What actions can the Project Manager take to resolve this issue? (Choose two)
a) Inform stakeholders that they can provide their feedback anonymously
b) Send a reminder before each meeting
c) Demonstrate the working increments
d) Value and show appreciation of everyone's ideas

Explanation: The project manager can resolve this problem by valuing and
showing appreciation for everyone's ideas and demonstrating the working
increments. This will help to re-engage the stakeholders and encourage them to
participate more actively in the project.

391. As a part of the project, an outdoor ceremony event is scheduled. However, a day
before the event, weather forecasts indicate continuous rain for the entire week.
Understanding that changing the event date is not feasible, what actions can the
project manager take to mitigate the situation? (Choose two)
a) Ask all invitees to take the needed precautions by bringing their raincoats,
umbrellas, etc.
b) Get waterproof tents
c) Change the event location to an indoor space and inform all invitees of
the new location
d) Apply the risk response previously elaborated in the risk register

Explanation: Getting waterproof tents and changing the event location to an

indoor space are both valid risk responses to the situation. The project manager
can use the contingency plan to mitigate the risk of rain and ensure the event is
successful.

392. In the process of identifying risks, the Project Manager recognized resource
attrition as a major risk. In response, the Project Manager chose to implement
financial incentives to motivate team members. What type of risk response is
being employed?
a) Avoidance
b) Acceptance
c) Mitigation
 d) Acceptance

Explanation: The Project Manager is opting for a mitigation response by

providing financial incentives to motivate their team members. This response
aims to reduce the probability and/or impact of the risk.

393. A Project Manager was assigned to a new project. Before the project kick-off, the
sponsor introduces the Project Manager to the organization's C-level executives
and assures them that the project is destined for success. Who is accountable for
the project's success?
a) Project Manager
b) Project Sponsor
c) C-level Executives
d) All of the above

Explanation: The Project Manager is ultimately responsible for the success of

the project, as they are the ones leading and managing the project team and
making decisions that impact the project's outcome.

394. A Project Manager is overseeing an agricultural project with three high authority
stakeholders. After analyzing each stakeholder, the Project Manager determines
that Stakeholder A has the greatest interest in the project. What approach should
the Project Manager employ to manage Stakeholder A?
a) Keep informed
b) Monitor
c) Keep satisfied
d) Manage closely

Explanation: Stakeholder A has high interest in the project, which means that
the Project Manager should manage this stakeholder closely to ensure that their
needs and expectations are met.

395. A Project Manager is overseeing a construction project. During the initial

resource acquisition phase, the Project Manager requested the talent acquisition
manager to conduct an MBTI (Myers–Briggs Type Indicator) Personality Test for
the procurement manager position. The Project Manager specifically instructed
the talent acquisition manager to focus on candidates comfortable with
approaching providers and effective communication. To which personality type is
the Project Manager referring?
a) ISTJ
b) ESTP
c) INFJ
d) INFP

Explanation: The Project Manager is looking for a candidate who is comfortable

approaching providers and communicating with them. ESTP personality types
 are known for being outgoing, confident, and persuasive, making them ideal for
this role.

396. Despite having experience, a Project Manager is overseeing a remote team for
the first time. In meetings, the Project Manager occasionally needs to reiterate
their statements due to a poor internet connection or headphone issues. In a
standard communication context, factors that disrupt the transmission and
comprehension of the Project Manager's message are referred to as ___________.
a) Constraint
b) Medium
c) Noise
d) Decode

Explanation: Noise refers to any element that interferes with the transmission
and understanding of a message. In this case, the bad Internet connection and
headphone issues are causing noise in the communication process.

397. A Project Manager is overseeing the construction of a new bridge in Chicago. One
of the Subject Matter Experts informed them that, in next September, all bridge
construction work will need to stop, considering the historical occurrence of river
flooding during the hurricane season. Consequently, they concurred with the
expert and arranged to suspend work during that month. This decision is
regarded as ___________.
a) Mitigation
b) Acceptance
c) Transfer
d) Avoidance

Explanation: This decision is considered as avoidance because the Project

Manager has decided to stop the work during the month of July to avoid the risk
of river flooding due to hurricane season.

398. A Project Manager works together with the project team to develop the Work
Breakdown Structure (WBS) for their project. What functions does this document
fulfill? (Choose two)
a) Help the project team identify the project requirements
b) Help the project team define the project scope
c) Help the project team organize the project scope
d) Help the project team visualize the project work

Explanation: The WBS helps the project team visualize and organize the project
work into manageable sections or components.

399. Upon reviewing the project's progress, a Project Manager discovers that the
schedule variance is $0.00. Which of the following statements is true about the
status of this project?
 a) The project’s cost variance is $0.00 too
b) The project’s EV equals its PV
c) The project’s EAC equals its BAC
d) The project’s CPI equals 1

Explanation: Option B is correct because the Schedule Variance (SV) is

calculated by subtracting the Earned Value (EV) from the Planned Value (PV). If
the SV is zero, then the EV must equal the PV.

400. Three months into project execution, the Sponsor faces a financial crisis and
instructs the Project Manager to immediately terminate the project. What should
be the Project Manager's next course of action?
a) Start the close project process
b) Start the close procurement process
c) Talk to their management about the situation
d) Try to persuade the client to complete the project

Explanation: The right answer is A because the Project Manager should follow
the project closure process to ensure that all project activities are completed and
the project is closed in an orderly manner. This process includes obtaining
formal acceptance of the project deliverables, archiving project documents, and
releasing project resources.

401. A Project Manager is overseeing a construction project for a children's hospital.

The Project Manager receives an email from the quality control team, indicating
numerous issues with one of the project vendors. What steps should the Project
Manager take in response?
a) Raise the issue to the sponsor
b) Set up a meeting with the vendor and the control quality team
c) Penalize the vendor
d) Terminate the contract and discuss with the control quality team the
selection criteria of a new vendor

Explanation: Setting up a meeting with the vendor and the control quality team
is the best course of action as it allows the Project Manager to understand the
issues and work with the vendor to resolve them. Penalizing the vendor or
terminating the contract without understanding the issues may not be the best
course of action. Raising the issue to the sponsor may be necessary, but it
should be done after the project manager has a better understanding of the
situation.

402. The Management informed the Project Manager that they are dispatching a team
of experts to perform a risk audit. Despite the Project Manager having already
completed a risk review process without identifying any shortcomings, the
Management insisted on proceeding with the risk audit. Which of the following
statements are true risk audits and risk reviews? (Choose two)
 a) A risk review is conducted to investigate whether the risk response plan is
being followed
b) A risk audit is conducted to examine the risk response plan
c) A risk review is conducted to examine the risk response plan
d) A risk audit is conducted to investigate whether the risk response plan
is being followed

Explanation: A risk audit is conducted to investigate whether the risk response

plan is being followed, while a risk review is conducted to examine the risk
response plan. Therefore, both statements are true.

403. One of the crucial members of the project team left for personal reasons. The
Project Manager hadn't planned for such a scenario, but they managed to find a
replacement with the help of a staffing agency. However, they must pay them a
higher salary. This will lead to additional expenses categorized under the project's
___________.
a) Cost
b) Management reserve
c) Budget
d) Contingency reserve

Explanation: The replacement cost falls under the management reserve, which
is used to cover unforeseen events that are not part of the project budget.

404. Recognizing the importance of leadership in project success, a Project Manager

enrolls in a training program to acquire the skills necessary to become an effective
leader. Which of the following activities should the Project Manager learn to
employ to achieve their desired leadership role?
a) Learning more about project management by obtaining a PMP certification
b) Learning more about the specific domain of their project to be able to
technically support the project team
c) Improving their project’s performance
d) Guiding, motivating, and directing the project team

Explanation: Leadership involves guiding, motivating, and directing the project

team to achieve project success. Therefore, the Project Manager should learn
how to apply these activities to become a good leader.

405. A Project Manager oversees a project with team members located globally. The
project incorporates innovative technology that has never been utilized before. In
this context, what is the primary advantage of having a virtual team?
a) Allows work to continue around the clock
b) Reduces the cost of setting up a workplace
c) Widens the potential resource pool
d) Promotes cultural inclusiveness
 Explanation: Having a virtual team widens the potential resource pool, as the
Project Manager can select the best talent from around the world without being
limited by geographical location.

406. A Project Manager employs various forms of power to gain support from project
stakeholders. Which of the following represent types of power? (Choose three)
a) Seeking consensus
b) Coercive
c) Relational
d) Situational

Explanation: The three forms of power used by a Project Manager to gain

support from project stakeholders are relational, situational, and coercive.
Relational power is based on the Project Manager's personal relationships with
stakeholders. Situational power is based on the Project Manager's position or
role in the project. Coercive power is based on the Project Manager's ability to
punish or reward stakeholders.

407. A Project Manager gained insights from professional experience that, when
interacting with the project team, it's crucial to consider the distinct characteristics
of each member. These individual differences in characteristic patterns of
thinking, feeling, and behaving are referred to as _________.
a) Personality
b) Interpersonal skills
c) Integration
d) Seeking consensus

Explanation: Personality refers to the individual differences in characteristic

patterns of thinking, feeling, and behaving. A Project Manager should take into
consideration the personality of each team member when interacting with them.

408. A project manager is encountering challenges after joining a new company. His
superiors observed that during a kick-off meeting, he had difficulty addressing
questions about how the project aligns with the organization’s objectives. What
essential skill is the project manager lacking?
a) Communication skills
b) Business acumen
c) Power skills
d) Ways of working

Explanation: The project manager lacks business acumen, which is the ability to
understand and align the project with the organization's objectives.

409. A project manager is tasked with an eco-friendly packaging project. To effectively

handle the involved stakeholders, the project manager begins by assessing their
 power, urgency, and legitimacy. Which analytical method is the project manager
employing?
a) Power/influence grid
b) Power/interest grid
c) Salience model
d) Stakeholder cube

Explanation: The project manager is applying the salience model to analyze the
power, urgency, and legitimacy of stakeholders. The salience model is a
technique used to identify and prioritize stakeholders based on their power,
urgency, and legitimacy.

410. A project manager observes that his colleague, also a project manager, arrives at
the office with new high-tech gadgets regularly. This triggers his suspicions that
his colleague might be receiving gifts from hardware vendors who will be bidding
on one of their company’s upcoming multimillion-dollar contracts. What action
should the project manager take?
a) Convince his colleague to return the items and stop accepting any gifts from
vendors
b) Report his colleague to the organization so that a conflict-of-interest
investigation can take place
c) Warn the concerned colleague that such gifts aren’t appropriate and leave it
at that
d) Directly ask his colleague whether these items were gifts from vendors
or he purchased them himself

Explanation: Directly asking the colleague whether the items were gifts from
vendors or he purchased them himself is the right answer because it is the most
appropriate way to address the situation. It is important to clarify the situation
and ensure that there is no conflict of interest or ethical violation.

411. Deciding to enhance the organization's project management capabilities, the CEO
of ChicLife, a luxury lifestyle gadgets company, established a PMO to enforce
compliance with a set of project management standards. What type of PMO is the
CEO implementing?
a) Controlling
b) Agile
c) Directive
d) Supportive

Explanation: The CEO is implementing a controlling PMO because the PMO is

established to ensure compliance with a set of project management standards.

412. A project manager is hired to lead the marketing department of a financial

institution. Initially, the project manager meets with the project management
 team to assess the project portfolio. Following this, they concentrate on
understanding the governance framework in place, which is regarded as:
a) Agile Manifesto principles
b) Organizational process assets
c) Project management framework
d) Enterprise environmental factors

Explanation: The governance framework in place is considered to be an

enterprise environmental factor, which refers to external factors that can impact
the project. In this case, the governance framework is an external factor that can
impact the project.

413. A project manager is employed by a construction company that has recently

undergone significant organizational changes. The new manager of the
organization appears to be closely monitoring employees' arrival and departure
times, expressing concern about the team's motivation. What type of
management style is demonstrated by the new manager?
a) Theory X
b) Theory Y
c) Theory Z
d) Theory XY

Explanation: The new manager is exhibiting Theory X management style, which

assumes that employees are inherently lazy and need to be closely monitored
and controlled to ensure they are working. This is evident from the manager's
concern about the team's lack of motivation and closely monitoring when
employees arrive and leave work.

414. The risk manager is working alongside the project manager to conduct a risk
analysis. Which tool can be employed to simulate thousands of potential scenarios
and determine the most likely project completion date, taking into account known
risks?
a) Influence diagrams
b) Sensitivity analysis
c) Monte Carlo analysis
d) Decision-tree analysis

Explanation: Monte Carlo analysis is a simulation technique used to estimate

the probability of completing a project within a certain time frame. It is used to
determine the most likely project completion date based on known risks.

415. A project manager following the servant leadership style is onboarding a new
team member to manage skill-level gaps in the current project team. The project
manager provides the new team member with a copy of the project charter and
commits to share with them a document that covers team values, ground rules,
and working agreements, known as ________________.
 a) The team charter
b) The communication management plan
c) The resource management plan
d) The employment contract

Explanation: The team charter is a document that outlines team values, ground
rules, and working agreements. It is a critical document that helps to ensure that
all team members are aligned and working towards the same goals. Providing
the new team member with a copy of the team charter is an excellent way to
onboard them and ensure that they are aware of the team's values and
expectations.

416. With the project expanding significantly in size, involving multiple teams, a
lengthy duration, and a substantial budget, the project manager finds the sponsor
replaced by a steering committee. What steps should the project manager take to
accommodate this change?
a) Share an updated status report with the new steering committee
b) Acknowledge that the stakeholders’ structure has changed and tailor
communication accordingly
c) Hold a meeting with the new steering committee and continue working on
the project
d) Work according to the original plan while keeping in mind that the project
may now include additional stakeholders

Explanation: The project manager should acknowledge that the stakeholders’

structure has changed and tailor communication accordingly. The steering
committee is a new stakeholder group that has replaced the sponsor. The
project manager should communicate with the steering committee in a way that
is appropriate for their level of authority and responsibility. This may include
providing more detailed reports, attending more meetings, and providing more
frequent updates.

417. In choosing between two projects with same budgets but varying returns and risk
levels, which tool or technique should the company employ to ensure the correct
decision is made?
a) Tornado diagram
b) Sensitivity analysis
c) Decision tree
d) SWOT Analysis

Explanation: A decision tree is a tool used to evaluate multiple options with

different outcomes and risks. It is a useful tool for selecting the best option when
there are multiple alternatives with different risks and returns.

418. A government contractor aims to manage costs effectively in their new project,
shifting the risk to the vendor. Additionally, they seek to enforce legal obligations
 on the seller for contract completion to mitigate potential financial liabilities. What
type of contract aligns with the contractor's requirements and minimizes risks as a
buyer?
a) Time and Materials (T and M)
b) Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)
c) Cost-reimbursable
d) Fixed-price

Explanation: A fixed-price contract is a type of contract where the buyer agrees

to pay the seller a set amount of money for a specific product or service. In this
type of contract, the seller bears the risk of cost overruns and is legally obligated
to complete the contract. Therefore, a fixed-price contract best conforms to the
contractor’s needs and represents the least risk for them as a buyer.

419. A project manager is overseeing a small team of developers using project

management software that includes a Kanban board. In response to numerous
inquiries from team members regarding the creation, review, and validation of
tasks or issues, the project manager decides to generate the following chart. This
chart is referred to as:
a) Scatter diagram
b) Flowchart
c) Pareto chart
d) Context diagram

Explanation: The chart described in the question is a flowchart, which is a

graphical representation of a process or system that shows the steps involved
and their sequence. Kanban boards are often used in Agile project management
to visualize the flow of work and identify bottlenecks, and flowcharts can be used
to further clarify the process.

420. Tasked with a 3D home design project, a project manager encounters challenges
in scheduling daily standup meetings due to inconvenience for some remote team
members. In addressing time zone differences, which conflict resolution technique
should the project manager employ?
a) Withdrawal
b) Avoid
c) Accommodate
d) Compromise

Explanation: Compromise is the right answer because it involves finding a

solution that partially satisfies both parties. In this case, the project manager can
adjust the meeting time to a more convenient time for the remote team
members while still ensuring that the meeting is held daily.

421. A project manager at CreatiVista, an innovative design, web, and marketing

agency, suggests creating a drop shipping e-commerce project, citing its current
 trend and profitability. However, his manager declines, pointing out CreatiVista's
lack of experience in this field. Excited about the prospect of exploring this new
venture and confident in his project management skills, what steps should the
project manager take to persuade his manager to select the project?
a) Calculate the Net Present Value (NPV)
b) Conduct a what-if analysis
c) Conduct a cost-benefit analysis of the business case
d) Calculate the Return On Investment (ROI)

Explanation: Conducting a cost-benefit analysis of the business case is the right

answer since it will help the project manager to present the potential benefits of
the project and compare them with the costs. This will help the manager to make
an informed decision based on the analysis.

422. A project manager oversees a project involving both remote and local resources.
The remote team expresses dissatisfaction, claiming insufficient information on
the project's status, leading to rework. In response, the project manager arranges
a conference call between the two teams and decides to switch to a more
advanced enterprise chat platform to enhance communication. Which conflict
resolution technique did the project manager employ?
a) Compromise
b) Force
c) Smooth
d) Collaborate

Explanation: The project manager used the Collaborate conflict resolution

technique by involving both teams in a conference call and switching to a
sophisticated enterprise chat platform to optimize communication. This
technique aims to find a mutually beneficial solution that satisfies both parties.

423. In gaining a deeper comprehension of the project's system flows and

representing the scope in abstraction, facilitating communication among
stakeholders regarding both the system and its external boundaries, a project
manager employs a visual depiction illustrating how people and other systems
interact with the new system. Which tool is utilized by the project manager?
a) Influence diagram
b) Context diagram
c) Affinity diagram
d) Flowchart

Explanation: The project manager uses a context diagram to better understand

how the project’s system flows, depicting the scope in abstraction, and enabling
stakeholders to communicate about it, and what lies beyond its boundaries.
424. Noticing that her project is deviating from initial estimates, a project manager
suspects that Student Syndrome may be a contributing factor. What does this
syndrome indicate?
a) People who begin to apply themselves only at the last possible moment
before the deadline
b) People who experience a learning curve whenever they are working on a
project
c) Professional project managers who consider themselves continuous learners
d) People who proceed with their studies during their professional careers but
are unable to balance both

Explanation: Student Syndrome implies that people begin to apply themselves

only at the last possible moment before the deadline. This is the right answer
because Student Syndrome is a term used to describe the tendency of people to
procrastinate and delay their work until the last minute, just like students who
wait until the night before an exam to study.

425. A project manager, implementing the Scrum framework for a project, gets a call
from the product owner requesting a meeting with the team to discuss potential
approaches for implementing user stories and provide initial size estimations.
What kind of meeting is the product owner alluding to?
a) Story mapping
b) Backlog refinement
c) Sprint planning
d) Brainstorming

Explanation: The product owner is referring to a Backlog Refinement meeting,

which is a Scrum event that occurs regularly to discuss and estimate user stories.

426. Three manufacturing lines are manufacturing cylindrical steel bars with a
diameter of 5 mm. To conduct a quality inspection, the project manager randomly
selects 10 bars from each line. The measurements in mm for Line 1 inspection
results can be characterized as:
a) Precise
b) Accurate
c) Both precise and accurate
d) Neither precise nor accurate

Explanation: The inspection results are consistent with each other, indicating
precision. However, there is no indication that the measurements are accurate.

427. A project manager is employed in a large organization with a matrix structure,

characterized by intricate and cross-functional communication channels. Each day,
the project manager engages in communication with the executive team and
reports back to the manager. What type of communication is being described
here?
 a) Triangular communication
b) Vertical communication
c) Parallel communication
d) Horizontal communication

Explanation: Option B is the right answer because the project manager is

communicating with the executive team and reporting back to the manager,
which is an example of vertical communication.

428. A project manager encounters difficulty in getting a team member to complete

assigned tasks. To address this, the project manager invites the concerned
member to watch a football game and subsequently discusses his performance
issues after the game. What type of communication is the project manager
employing?
a) Visual
b) Para-lingual
c) Informal verbal
d) Formal verbal

Explanation: The project manager is using informal verbal communication by

inviting the team member to watch a football game and then discussing his
performance issues. This type of communication is not planned or structured
and is used to build relationships and trust with team members.

429. Upon the completion of a rebranding project's execution, several key

stakeholders, including the sponsor, hesitated to accept deliverables and officially
close the project. What actions should the project manager take in this situation?
(Choose three)
a) Formally close the project. Stakeholders will get well-acquainted with the new
brand by that time.
b) Identify and resolve any open issues. Then, be firm on formal closure.
c) Identify and openly discuss the reasons for reluctance.
d) Invite earnest feedback from all sides and try to identify any
misunderstanding.

Explanation: The project manager should identify and resolve any open issues,
openly discuss the reasons for reluctance, and invite earnest feedback from all
sides to identify any misunderstanding. This will help to ensure that all
stakeholders are satisfied with the deliverables and that the project can be
formally closed.

430. A project manager holds the view that being an active listener is challenging. She
perceives active listening as more of an art than a skill, prompting her to frequently
advise her team members to utilize a checklist outlining the key elements of active
listening before crucial meetings with stakeholders. Which of the following are
considered elements of active listening? (Choose three)
 a) Paraphrasing
b) Making eye contact
c) Interrupting when appropriate
d) Interpreting information

Explanation: These elements help the listener to understand the speaker's

message and respond appropriately.

431. Typically, the company executives make the ultimate decision on project
selection for execution. Nevertheless, a project manager consistently leverages
their experience to aid the organization's decision-makers in selecting the most
suitable project using an appropriate benefit measurement project selection
method. Which of the following is not considered a benefit measurement method?

a) Scoring model
b) 5 Whys
c) Internal Rate of Return
d) Scoring model

Explanation: The 5 Whys is a root cause analysis technique and not a benefit
measurement method.

432. A project manager at Steel Foundations has joined the project in its initial phases
and has been tasked to write its charter. In the last week, the project manager met
with several stakeholders, gathered their input, and is now prepared to have the
charter signed. Who holds the responsibility for signing the project charter?
a) Project stakeholders
b) Senior Management
c) Project Sponsor
d) Project Manager

Explanation: The project sponsor is responsible for signing the project charter.
The project manager is responsible for developing the charter, but the sponsor is
the one who authorizes it.

433. The authority and influence of a project manager vary based on whether they
operate within a functional, matrix, or projectized organization. Upon assuming
the role of a project manager, certain inherent forms of legitimate power are
conferred upon them. What are the three manifestations of legitimate power?
a) Formal, reward, and penalty
b) Absolute, direct, and indirect
c) Formal, informal, and persuasive
d) Formal, reward, and direct

Explanation: The right answer is option A because the three forms of legitimate
power are formal, reward, and penalty.
434. While discussing the decision to utilize remote resources with the project
sponsor, a project manager listed numerous benefits of collaborating with remote
teams. They highlighted all of the following advantages except:
a) Reduction of time spent commuting
b) Utilization of a war room
c) Less travel and relocation expenses
d) Access to more skilled resources

Explanation: The project manager did not mention utilization of a war room as
an advantage of working with remote teams.

435. A project manager is overseeing a predictive project. After identifying a risk, they
choose to transfer it to another party by:
a) Asking the sponsor to deal with the risk
b) Accepting a lower profit in case of cost overrun
c) Eliminating the risk through beta testing
d) Buying insurance

Explanation: Transferring risk to another party can be done through buying

insurance, which is a common method of transferring risk.

436. A project manager gives team members the autonomy to make decisions,
anticipating that they will solve issues on their own. Which of the following
leadership approaches is adopted by the project manager?
a) Interactional leadership
b) Laissez-faire leadership
c) Transactional leadership
d) Servant leadership

Explanation: The project manager adopts the Laissez-faire leadership approach,

which is characterized by giving team members the freedom to make decisions
and solve issues on their own.

437. After being assigned to oversee a distressed project, a project manager examines
the schedule and identifies that the previous project manager failed to account for
procurement delays. Which of the following options represents this situation?
a) Assumption
b) Constraint
c) Schedule variances
d) Critical path activity

Explanation: The scenario represents an assumption because the previous

project manager did not consider procurement delays while creating the
schedule, which is an assumption that turned out to be incorrect.

438. A project manager is tasked with overseeing a software development project.

Upon encountering a key stakeholder from the company in the hallway, the
 project manager took advantage of the opportunity to seek their feedback. The
key stakeholder, impressed with the project's progress, urgently asked the project
manager to add a new user story for marketing the product. How should the
project manager respond to this request?
a) Refuse to create the user story since it’s the product owner’s responsibility to
maintain and refine the product backlog
b) Add the user story to the product backlog and let the product owner
decide its priority
c) Welcome the stakeholder’s request and add the user story to the sprint
backlog
d) Add the user story to the product backlog and schedule it for the next sprint
to protect the team from disruptions

Explanation: The project manager should add the user story to the product
backlog and let the product owner decide its priority. The product owner is
responsible for maintaining and refining the product backlog, and they are the
ones who should decide the priority of the user story. The project manager
should not make decisions that are outside their scope of responsibility.

439. You, as a Project Manager working under a strict deadline, come across a
complex work package on the critical path with the potential to delay the
final product delivery. After consulting your customer, you decide to
remove this work package from the project. What risk response strategies
do you employ in this case?
a) Avoid
b) Sharing
c) Retention
d) Reduction

Explanation: Dropping the work package is an example of avoiding the

risk. This strategy is used when the risk is too high, and the project team
decides to eliminate it completely.

440. When developing the probability and impact matrix, what factors should
the team and Project Manager consider to support the project risk analysis?

a) Project scope and project deliverables

b) Possible effects on the objectives of the project
c) Contingency reserve for budget and schedule
d) Project quality and resources

Explanation: The team and project manager should consider the possible
effects on the objectives of the project while creating the probability and
 impact matrix to support the project risk analysis. This helps in identifying
the risks that could have a significant impact on the project objectives and
prioritize them accordingly.

441. As a result of analyzing risks with the project team, you, as the Project
Manager, opt to establish a contingency reserve to address the potential
threat. What category of strategy does this represent?
a) Active mitigation
b) Passive acceptance
c) Active acceptance
d) Passive transference

Explanation: Establishing a contingency reserve is an active acceptance

strategy. This strategy involves taking proactive steps to prepare for a risk
event and having a plan in place to deal with it if it occurs.

442. What Processes should be employed to implement agreed-upon risk

response plans? The advantage of this procedure is that it guarantees the
execution of agreed-upon risk responses as intended.
a) Implement risk responses
b) Plan risk management
c) Monitor risk
d) Identify risk

Explanation: The Implement Risk Response process is used to execute

agreed-upon risk response plans, ensuring that they are carried out as
planned.

443. A company faces recurring quality problems with a sole-source supplier.

Late deliverables on a new project will result in substantial penalties from
the customer. What actions should the Project Manager take?
a) Identify high-level risks prior to developing contingency plans
b) Escalate the issue to top management
c) Negotiate with other vendors with better quality-control methods.
d) Review incoming inspection reports and quality logs

Explanation: Establishing a contingency reserve is an active acceptance

strategy. This strategy involves taking proactive steps to prepare for a risk
event and having a plan in place to deal with it if it occurs.

444. A buyer, upon sending the proposal (RFP) to potential vendors, received
inquiries from some vendors regarding the terms and conditions after a
 few days. As a Project Manager, what steps should you take to ensure that
all vendors have a clear and common understanding?
a) Conduct one-to-one meetings with vendors
b) Resubmit the RFP
c) Send a clarification to the vendors via email
d) Conduct a bidder conference

Explanation: Conducting a bidder conference is the best way to ensure

that all vendors have a clear and common understanding of the terms
and conditions of the RFP. This allows all vendors to ask questions and
receive answers at the same time, ensuring that everyone has the same
information.

445. The Project Manager finds that the concrete for a project arrives on time
but realizes that its composition is incorrect. Which document should the
Project Manager review to confirm the concrete's adherence to
performance and quality requirements?
a) Procurement management plan
b) Quality management plan
c) Request for Proposal (RFP)
d) Procurement statement of work

Explanation: The procurement statement of work outlines the specific

requirements for the product or service being procured, including
performance and quality requirements. Therefore, the project manager
should review the procurement statement of work to verify the concrete's
performance and quality requirements.

446. Upon receiving an email from a vendor indicating a one-month delay in

key deliverables, what should be the Project Manager's initial course of
action?
a) Meet with the team to identify ways to absorb this delay
b) Update the management and obtain their advice
c) Assess the impact of the delay on the project plan
d) Call the vendor to obtain a justification for the delay

Explanation: Assessing the impact of the delay on the project plan is the
first thing the project manager should do. This will help the project
manager understand the extent of the delay and determine what actions
need to be taken to mitigate the impact of the delay on the project.
447. A project is on a Cost-Plus-Fixed-Fee (CPFF) contract with a fixed fee of US
$5,000. The estimated cost is US $50,000. If the project ends up costing US
$60,000 without any changes to the project scope, what will be the total
cost of the contract?
a) US$65,000
b) US$80,000
c) US$55,000
d) US$75,000

Explanation: The total cost of the contract is the sum of the fixed fee and
the actual cost. Therefore, the total cost of the contract is US$65,000
(US$60,000 + US$5,000).

448. A seller has completed all the work according to the contract, but the
buyer contends that the seller's performance falls outside the acceptable
range for one of the buyer's internal metrics. Consequently, the buyer opts
to deduct a portion of the payment to the seller. In accordance with the
contract terms, what is the buyer allowed to do?
a) The buyer must pay the seller for the work performed
b) The buyer is allowed to deduct a small sum from the payment to the
seller due to non-compliance with the buyer's internal metric value
range
c) The buyer should go to court, or else the seller may sue them for non-
payment
d) The seller should complete the work again to meet the buyer's internal
metric value range

Explanation: As per the contract, the buyer must pay the seller for the
work performed.

449. As a Project Manager representing the buyer, the CEO of a company

inquires whether the vendor is meeting the deliverables to assess if the
contract should be terminated early. What information should be provided
to the CEO?
a) Performance requirements
b) Procurement management plan
c) Proposal evaluation techniques
d) Seller performance evaluation

Explanation: The right answer is d because the seller performance

evaluation provides information on whether the vendor is meeting the
 deliverables or not. This information can be used to determine if the
contract should be terminated early.

450. As a Project Manager representing the buyer, you've given a contract to a

small startup company. During the project, the supplier informs you that
they won't be able to deliver all the required deliverables. The regular
monthly payment for this supplier is scheduled for this week. What should
you do next as a Project Manager?
a) Update the schedule baseline to incorporate the delay
b) Delay the payment to the supplier
c) Hold a meeting with the supplier to understand delivery problems
and possibly solve them.
d) Remove the supplier from your project

Explanation: Holding a meeting with the supplier to understand delivery

problems and possibly solve them is the right answer. As a project
manager, it is important to understand the root cause of the problem and
work with the supplier to find a solution. Delaying the payment or
removing the supplier from the project may not solve the problem and
could lead to further delays and complications. Updating the schedule
baseline is not the right answer, as it does not address the root cause of
the problem.

451. As the Project Manager, you've faced quality issues in your project,
primarily due to a supplier. Despite a final invoice of $20,000, including
rework prompted by their quality problems, you revised the payment to
$18,000. After sending this payment with justification, the supplier issued a
new invoice, indicating a balance due of $2,000. What should be your next
course of action?
a) Alternative dispute resolution (ADR)
b) Ignore the supplier's second invoice and consider your payment of
$18,000 payment in full
c) Negotiate with the supplier
d) Contact the legal team about pursuing legal action against the supplier

Explanation: Negotiating with the supplier is the best course of action.

The supplier has billed for rework that was created by their quality issues,
and the project manager has arrived at a revised amount of $18,000 to be
paid. However, the supplier has reinvoiced with a balance due of $2,000.
 Negotiating with the supplier is the best course of action to resolve the
issue and come to a mutually agreed-upon solution.

452. After concluding procurements and issuing a formal written notice stating
that the contract has been fulfilled, what should be the subsequent actions
taken by the Project Manager?
a) Inform the stakeholders
b) Write the final project report
c) Update the lessons learned register
d) Initiate procurement audits

Explanation: Updating the lessons learned register is the next step after
closing procurements and providing a formal written notice that the
contract has been completed. This is because the lessons learned register
is a key output of the project closure process, and it captures the
knowledge and experience gained during the project, including
procurement-related lessons learned.

453. As a Project Manager, to verify if your project still aligns with the
organizational goals, which document would be beneficial?
a) Business Case
b) Business need
c) Product scope description
d) Issue log

Explanation: The Business Case document outlines the justification for

the project and how it aligns with the organizational goals. Reviewing the
Business Case can help the project manager ensure that the project is still
aligned with the organization's goals.

454. The Project Manager notices a delay in the project due to differences in
views between the organization's senior management and external
stakeholders regarding contracts. What actions should the Project Manager
take in response?
a) Rebaseline the scope and project's schedule to take into account
delays in decision making
b) Review the sufficiency of the project's governance and ensure
that an appropriate structure is in place
c) Isolate the project team members from senior management and
stakeholders so that decisions can be made more quickly
d) Review the stakeholder register and ensure that communications
plans are being followed
 Explanation: The project manager should review the sufficiency of the
project's governance and ensure that an appropriate structure is in place.
This will help to identify the root cause of the delay and take corrective
actions to address the issue.

455. In a project status meeting, a team member notifies the Project Manager
about an unforeseen rise in the price of a crucial component needed to
complete the deliverable. What steps should the Project Manager take in
response?
a) Analyse the impact of the price increase on the project
b) Include the increased price in the project budget
c) Update the risk management plan to adapt to the new scenario
d) Refer to the procurement management plan

Explanation: The project manager should analyze the impact of the price
increase on the project to determine the best course of action. This
includes assessing the impact on the project budget, schedule, and scope
and identifying any potential risks or issues that may arise as a result of
the price increase.

456. In a project with multiple iterations, a Project Manager is facing challenges

in obtaining consensus on the issues encountered by the delivery team.
These issues are extensive and involve the majority of the project and
stakeholder teams. What actions should the Project Manager take to gain
consensus?
a) Conduct a retrospective
b) Conduct a stakeholder barnstorming session
c) Hold a stakeholder analysis meeting
d) Hold a lesson's learned session

Explanation: A retrospective is a meeting held at the end of an iteration

to discuss what went well, what didn't go well, and what can be improved.
It is a great way to gain consensus on issues and to identify areas for
improvement.

457. You are a Project Manager responsible for a crucial project in your
company. Within your project team, there are frequent technical
disagreements among members and the lead. What conflict management
technique should be used by the Project Manager to resolve this?
a) Withdraw/avoid
b) Compromise/reconcile
c) Force/direct
 d) Collaborate/problem solve

Explanation: Collaboration is the best conflict management technique to

use in this situation because it involves working together to find a
mutually beneficial solution. This technique is especially useful when
there are technical disagreements among team members and the lead.

458. You're in the norming stage of the Tuckman model, and there's a tough
choice needs to be made about a scope change. The senior team lead
prefers option X because of their experience, while the rest of the team
prefers option Y for its new technology that will reduce the complexity of
the implementation. You decide to go with the senior member's
suggestion. What is this an example of?
a) Forcing
b) Compromising
c) Withdrawal
d) Win-win

Explanation: This is an example of forcing because the project manager

is using his or her authority to make a decision without considering the
input of the team.

459. In a team meeting, team members frequently deviate from the topic and
interrupt each other, leading to the meeting exceeding the planned
duration. What actions should the Project Manager take in response to this
situation?
a) Direct the meetings
b) Better manage the communication channels
c) Conduct the ground rules
d) Co-locate the team members in a place that is suitable for the team

Explanation: Conducting ground rules is the right answer because it

helps to establish guidelines for the meeting and ensure that everyone
stays on topic and respects each other's opinions. This can help to make
the meeting more efficient and effective.

460. The project is behind schedule and over budget, leading to increased
stakeholder pressure and placing the project team under serious stress.
This results in a conflict between the quality and production managers,
each accusing the other of the delay and cost overruns. What actions
should the Project Manager take in response?
 a) Meet with both managers and ask them to immediately end the
conflict to avoid negatively impacting the project
b) Discuss the situation with the stakeholders and follow their
suggestions for dealing with the conflict
c) Meet with the managers' supervisors to discuss possible actions
d) Refer to the team charter for guidelines on how to deal with this
conflict

Explanation: The project manager should meet with both managers and
ask them to immediately end the conflict to avoid negatively impacting the
project. This is the best course of action as it addresses the conflict
directly and encourages the managers to work together to find a solution.
It also helps to reduce the stress on the project team and can help get the
project back on track.

461. As the Project Manager for an industrial design project, concerns about
inadequate project communications management are raised by some
stakeholders during project execution. Despite thorough preparation of
project management plans, particularly the Communications Management
Plan, you are surprised by these claims, considering your efforts. In this
scenario, who is currently accountable for managing the expectations of
these stakeholders?
a) Project Team
b) Project Sponsor
c) Project Manager
d) Project Stakeholders

Explanation: The Project Manager is responsible for managing

stakeholder expectations, including those related to project
communications management. The Project Manager should investigate
the concerns raised by stakeholders and take appropriate action to
address them.

462. A new influential stakeholder enters the organization and will be

accountable for certain aspects of the project. What should the Project
Manager prioritize as the initial step to effectively engage with this
stakeholder?
a) Schedule a meeting with the new project stakeholder
b) Submit a change request to update the stakeholder engagement plan
c) Revise the stakeholder engagement assessment matrix
d) Update the RACI chart with the responsibilities of the new stakeholder
 Explanation: The Project Manager should schedule a meeting with the
new stakeholder to introduce themselves, explain the project, and discuss
the stakeholder's role and expectations. This will help to establish a
positive relationship and ensure that the stakeholder is engaged and
committed to the project.

463. As a Scrum Master leading a retrospective for a sprint that didn't meet its
goals, the development team and Product Owner are arguing about who is
responsible for the failure. You uncover the conflict's source after
performing a root cause analysis. What is the most probable discovery
among the following options?
a) The development team decided how many user stories were to be
completed during the sprint
b) The Gantt chart did not include enough story points
c) You, as the Scrum Master, failed to assign user stories to the
development team
d) The Product Owner determined how many user stories were to be
completed during the sprint

Explanation: The Product Owner is responsible for determining the user

stories to be completed during the sprint. Therefore, if the sprint failed to
meet its objectives, it is likely that the Product Owner did not provide clear
or realistic goals for the development team to work towards.

464. You are collaborating with research associates to assess the potential
benefits of implementing a WiFi system in the residents. As part of this
initiative, you will work with authorities to obtain relevant government
documents. Additionally, you will conduct an extensive survey on how
people use the system and generate reports based on the survey. What
term is commonly used to describe this effort?
a) A survey
b) An operation
c) A research study
d) A project

Explanation: This effort involves working with a team to achieve a specific

goal, which is to determine if implementing a WiFi system in the
neighborhood is going to benefit residents. This effort is temporary,
unique, and has a defined start and end date, which makes it a project.
465. The business case outlines the business needs and the cost-benefit
analysis that supports the project. Which of the following most accurately
describes the Project Manager's responsibility in the project business case?
a) Development of the project business case
a) Making changes on the business case if necessary
b) Update the business case at the end of each phase

Explanation: The Project Manager may make recommendations to keep

the project business case in alignment with the goals and objectives of the
organization.

466. As a part-time manager in a weak matrix organization, your Functional

Manager increases your workload by appointing you as the Project
Manager for a new business idea. Upon reviewing the business case, you
realize that recruiting new personnel is necessary to execute the project.
What constraints will you be operating under in terms of hiring additional
staff?
a) You, as project manager, would be responsible for hiring staff
b) Senior management would be responsible for hiring staff
c) The functional manager would be responsible for hiring staff
d) All stakeholders would be responsible for hiring staff

Explanation: As per the weak matrix organization, the Functional

Manager has more control over the project than the Project Manager.
Therefore, the Functional Manager would be responsible for hiring staff.

467. You are the Project Manager for a project where team members maintain
a dual reporting structure. In addition to reporting to you, they also report
to their functional manager. Moreover, team members are required to
balance project tasks with departmental responsibilities. In what form of
organization are you working?
a) Matrix
b) Tight Matrix
c) Project-oriented
d) Functional

Explanation: In a matrix organization, team members have a dual

reporting structure where they report to both the project manager and
their functional manager. This structure allows team members to work on
both project work and department work.
468. During your project meetings, you consistently observe that project staff
nod their heads but do not speak much or ask questions. Which of the
following training options will be beneficial in addressing this situation?
a) Interpersonal skills
b) Presentation skills
c) Active listening skills
d) Body language training

Explanation: Active listening skills will help improve this situation because
it will help project staff to better understand the information being
presented and ask relevant questions.

469. A Portfolio Manager notifies the Project Manager of the termination of

their project. The Project Manager intends to communicate this
information to stakeholders and team members. Which document should
the Project Manager refer to for guidance?
a) Change Management Plan
b) Communication management plan
c) Responsibility assignments matrix (RAM)
d) Resources Management Plan

Explanation: The Project Manager should refer to the Communication

Management Plan to inform stakeholders and team members about the
termination of the project. This plan outlines the communication
requirements and expectations for the project, including who needs to be
informed, what information needs to be communicated, and how it
should be communicated.

470. Micheal, serving as the project manager for a research and development
project, has faced challenges in recent meetings where more time was
dedicated to arguments and less to decision-making, leading to prolonged
sessions. What actions should be taken to prevent this situation?
a) Use listening techniques
b) Invite only team members boss
c) Set a virtual conversation
d) Set a meeting agenda before the meeting

Explanation: Setting a meeting agenda before the meeting helps to keep

the meeting on track and focused on the topics that need to be discussed.
This can help prevent arguments and ensure that decisions are made
efficiently.
471. You have just finished the initial phase of a multi-phase project, and after
calculating earned value measurements, you discovered that the current
CPI is 0.79 and the current SPI is 1.08. In planning the next phase, the
primary focus should be on which element of the project?
a) Cost
b) Schedule
c) Scope
d) Quality

Explanation: The current CPI of 0.79 indicates that the project is over
budget, while the SPI of 1.08 indicates that the project is ahead of
schedule. Therefore, the next phase plan should focus on cost
management to bring the project back on track and within budget.

472. While gathering requirements and defining the project's products, you've
hired an external consultant to offer advice on enhancing the process and
boosting the standards for associated methods. The consultant possesses
extensive knowledge of industry best practices in this regard. What will be
the consultant's primary focus?
a) Administer a questionnaire with key stakeholders in your project about
their best practices
b) Teach requirements analysis techniques to the project management
team
c) Perform benchmarking by recommending best-in-class practices
in the industry related to collecting requirements and defining
products
d) Brainstorm among your team members to define the best practices for
requirements gathering and product definition

Explanation: The consultant is mainly going to perform benchmarking by

recommending best-in-class practices in the industry related to collecting
requirements and defining products. This will help the project
management team to raise the standard for their associated methods.

473. While running a software development project, the project stakeholders

are currently in the process of accepting deliverables. As they perform this
task, they wish to assess whether the deliverables meet non-functional
requirements such as the level of service, performance, and supportability.
Where are these non-functional requirements usually documented?
a) Issue Log
b) Requirements Management Plan
 c) Work Breakdown Structure
d) Requirements Documentation

Explanation: Non-functional requirements such as level of service,

performance, and supportability are usually documented in the
Requirements Documentation.

474. As a Project Manager organizing a project for a new payroll system, you
are presently engaged in identifying, documenting, and managing
stakeholder needs to achieve project objectives. One of the stakeholders
has proposed incorporating a visual representation illustrating how
individuals and other systems will interact with the new payroll system. You
find the suggestion valuable and wish to incorporate it. How can you best
implement this stakeholder's suggestion?
a) Build a matrix diagram
b) Design an affinity diagram
c) Develop a context diagram
d) Create a fishbone diagram

Explanation: A context diagram is a visual representation of the system

and its environment, showing the system as a single process and its
interactions with external entities. It is used to show the scope of the
system and its boundaries, and how it interacts with other systems and
people. Therefore, it is the best way to implement the stakeholder's
suggestion.

475. A Project Manager has successfully delivered a significant project

deliverable. However, a week after the release, the customer expressed
dissatisfaction with the deliverable. What should be the Project Manager's
next course of action?
a) Do a scope verification of this deliverable to check if it satisfies
project objectives
b) Continue with the next deliverable, as the project has to be finished on
time
c) Talk to the Senior Manager to discuss the customer's concern and
resolution
d) Ensure that the next deliverables have the features that the customer
specified and exceed his expectations

Explanation: The Project Manager should do a scope verification of the

deliverable to check if it satisfies project objectives. This is because scope
verification is the process of formalizing acceptance of the completed
 project deliverables. It is important to ensure that the deliverable meets
the project objectives and requirements before it is accepted. If the
deliverable does not meet the requirements, the Project Manager can
take corrective action to address the customer's concerns.

476. The Project Manager is presently involved in identifying, documenting,

and managing stakeholder needs and requirements. Given the sensitive
nature of the project, there is a worry that certain stakeholders may
withhold honest feedback unless confidentiality is maintained. What is the
optimal course of action for the Project Manager?
a) Conduct interviews to elicit information from stakeholders by
talking to them directly
b) Hold a focus group to learn about stakeholder expectations and
attitudes about the project
c) Use multicriteria decision analysis to provide a systematic analytical
approach for establishing criteria
d) Use brainstorming to generate and collect multiple ideas related to
project requirements

Explanation: Conducting interviews to elicit information from

stakeholders by talking to them directly is the best course of action for the
Project Manager. This approach allows the Project Manager to obtain
candid feedback from stakeholders while maintaining confidentiality.

477. A project scope statement is created outlining project deliverables,

constraints, and assumptions related to the project objectives. What is the
subsequent step for the Project Manager?
a) Take a formal acceptance of the completed project deliverables
b) Establish a hierarchical breakdown of the total scope to be carried
out by the project team
c) Determine the products, services, and results to be delivered
d) Monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing
changes to the scope baseline

Explanation: Establishing a hierarchical breakdown of the total scope to

be carried out by the project team is the next step after defining the
project scope statement. This is done through creating a Work Breakdown
Structure (WBS), which is a hierarchical decomposition of the total scope
of work to be carried out by the project team to accomplish the project
objectives and create the required deliverables.
478. A Project Manager possesses a good understanding of the Project
Stakeholders' expectations. What should be the Project Manager's next
step to plan the project effectively?
a) Assess required competencies against resource availability
b) Discover needs and decompose them into requirements
c) Determine the project budget and funding sources
d) Conduct a kick-off meeting with the team

Explanation: Discovering needs and decomposing them into

requirements is the next step in the project planning process after
understanding the expectations of the project stakeholders. This helps to
ensure that the project requirements are clearly defined and understood
by all stakeholders.

479. You are responsible for the construction of a high-rise residential building.
After creating a network diagram, you've identified the critical path. While
work has started, there is an unexpected delay in the plinth work due to
inclement weather. The plinth work activity was on the critical path. As the
manager driving this project, would this situation concern you, and if so,
why?
a) Yes - you will now have to relay this bad news to the client
b) No - It will not matter if the Plinth work is delayed.
c) Yes - Any delay in activities on the critical path would lead to a
delay in the entire project
d) No - Activities on the critical path do not impact the schedule

Explanation: The right answer is C because any delay in activities on the

critical path would lead to a delay in the entire project. The critical path is
the longest path in the network diagram, and any delay in the activities on
the critical path will delay the project's completion date.

480. As the Project Manager leading a crucial project for your company, a
contractor submits a high-level project schedule for a three-year project,
which includes a detailed design-phase schedule. What does this describe?
a) Schedule management plan
b) Expert judgment
c) Rolling wave planning
d) Decomposition

Explanation: Rolling wave planning is a technique used in project

management to plan and execute projects in waves as work is being done.
It is a form of progressive elaboration, where the project is planned in
 phases, and each phase is planned in more detail as the project
progresses. In this case, the contractor has submitted a high-level project
schedule for a three-year project, including a detailed design-phase
schedule, which is an example of rolling wave planning.

481. The specified upper and lower control limits are 12 and -12, respectively,
and you have recorded the following data point readings: 1.6, 3.7, 7.8, 9.1, -
6.8, 14, 8.9, 4.2, 0.0, -5.2. How would you assess this process?
a) Out of control
b) In control
c) It has a predictable performance
d) Can't be determined

Explanation: The process is out of control because some of the data

points are beyond the established control limits.

482. During the construction of a new water treatment plant, the government
introduced more stringent water quality requirements for treatment plants.
What should be the subsequent steps for the Project Manager?
a) Submit a change request to update the quality management plan
b) Ask the project sponsor to update the project charter
c) Update the scope baseline to reflect the changes
d) Submit a change request to update the scope management plan

Explanation: The Project Manager should submit a change request to

update the quality management plan because the new water quality
requirements will impact the quality standards of the project.

483. The vendor you chose for supplying materials to your project is facing
numerous issues with the quality control department, and there has been
significant conflict with them in the past. As a Project Manager, what should
be your next course of action?
a) Perform quality audits
b) Raise the issue to sponsor
c) Directing the Quality Department to reject all materials related to the
vendor
d) Bring the vendor to meet the control quality department and
follow the quality procedures

Explanation: As a Project Manager, it is important to ensure that all

stakeholders are aligned and working together towards the project
 objectives. In this case, the project vendor has had issues with the quality
control department in the past, so it is important to bring them together
to ensure that they follow the quality procedures and work together to
resolve any issues that may arise. This will help to ensure that the project
materials meet the required quality standards and are delivered on time
and within budget.

484. To enhance the quality of project deliverables, the Project Manager

decides to engage the project team in establishing project standards,
policies, and guidelines. However, the team perceives this as unnecessary
effort and prefers to proceed with the project as originally planned. What
should the Project Manager do next?
a) Organize a project team meeting to create a shared vision.
b) Meet with individual team members and force them to comply.
c) Produce the quality management plan and distribute it to
stakeholders.
d) Log an issue with the team and discuss it with the human resources
department.

Explanation: The project manager should organize a project team

meeting to create a shared vision. This will help the team understand the
importance of defining project standards, policies, and guidelines and
how it can improve the quality of project deliverables. By involving the
team in the process, they will feel more invested in the outcome and be
more likely to comply with the new standards.

485. The end-user rejects certain deliverables, even though many

requirements are fulfilled. After conducting a root cause analysis, the
Project Manager discovers that a particular quality control process was
omitted due to resource constraints. What actions could the Project
Manager have taken to prevent this situation?
a) Held quality control process meetings
b) Created quality checklists
c) Requested more resources for quality control activity
d) Ensured that quality was managed

Explanation: The Project Manager should have ensured that quality was
managed to avoid this issue. This includes performing quality control
processes and ensuring that all requirements are met.

486. During a software project, the Project Manager observes that one
developer's coding quality is statistically lower than another developer
 assigned the same task. Which tool should the Project Manager employ to
identify the actionable root cause of this problem?
a) Scatter diagram
b) Ishikawa diagram
c) Histogram
d) Control chart

Explanation: The Ishikawa diagram is a tool used to identify the root

cause of a problem. It is also known as a fishbone diagram or cause-and-
effect diagram. By using this tool, the Project Manager can trace the
problem's source back to its actionable root cause.

487. A Project Manager is managing a project with an expectation of extreme

weather. The project is exceeding its budget, and the project sponsor is
unwilling to allocate additional funds. To reach the milestone before the
extreme weather begins, which of the following techniques should the
Project Manager employ?
a) What-if scenario analysis
b) Crashing
c) Resource leveling
d) Fast-tracking

Explanation: Fast-tracking is a technique used to shorten the project

schedule by overlapping activities that would normally be done in
sequence. In this case, the Project Manager can use fast tracking to
complete the remaining work before the extreme weather begins, without
additional funding.

488. Sam, the Project Manager of a software project initially projected to be

finished in 12 months, receives reports of a higher-than-expected failure
rate during the testing phase. What should Sam do in response?
a) Create a fishbone diagram
b) Create a product flowchart
c) Perform integrated change control
d) Create Scatter diagram

Explanation: Creating a fishbone diagram is a tool used in quality

management to identify the root cause of a problem. In this case, the
higher-than-expected failure rate during testing is a problem that needs
to be addressed. By creating a fishbone diagram, Bill can identify the root
cause of the problem and take corrective action to address it.
489. A project faced a significant team conflict during the final sprint. However,
the Agile team succeeded in delivering a product that was accepted by the
customer. What should the Project Manager do at the end of the sprint?
a) Meet individually with the involved team members to express
concerns regarding their behavior
b) Conduct a retrospective meeting with the team to discuss what
happened
c) Disregard the conflict since the team succeeded in achieving the
project goals
d) Disregard the conflict since the project is coming to an end

Explanation: The Project Manager should conduct a retrospective

meeting with the team to discuss what happened. This will help the team
to identify the root cause of the conflict and come up with ways to prevent
it from happening in future projects.

490. In a retrospective meeting, certain Agile team members mentioned that it

can be confusing to track who is handling each work item and at which
stage they are. What steps can the Project Manager take to address this
issue?
a) Guide the team on how to use the Kanban board and update it
regularly
b) Coach the team on how to be more attentive during the daily standup
meeting
c) The Project Manager shouldn’t do anything since agile teams are self-
organizing
d) Send a daily status report to all team members to remove the
impediment

Explanation: The Kanban board is a visual tool that helps the team to
track the progress of work items. By updating the board regularly, the
team can easily see who is working on each item and at what stage they
are. This will help to eliminate confusion and improve transparency.

491. The project team's morale has been low ever since a key project
stakeholder, who provided significant support and motivation, left. What
should the project manager do as the first step?
a) Perform team-building activities to strengthen team bonds
b) Set objectives and encourage the team to attain them
c) Understand the team’s needs and what motivates them
d) Try to prevent the departure of the key stakeholder
 Explanation: The Project Manager should first understand the team's
needs and what motivates them to address the low morale issue. This will
help the Project Manager identify the root cause of the problem and
develop a plan to address it.

492. To guarantee the cross-functionality of their Agile team, a Project Manager

hires in a new team member with a focus on testing tasks. After a few days,
the new member informs the Project Manager that they are struggling to
perform their tasks effectively due to lacking the necessary permissions to
access a section of the code. What should the Project Manager do in
response?
a) Tell the team member to adjust the acceptance criteria of their
pending tasks and then inform the Product Owner
b) Explain to the team member that they cannot access the whole code
due to security restrictions
c) Ask the team member to raise the issue during the retrospective
meeting
d) Reach out to the appropriate stakeholder to either confirm or
update the team member’s privilege

Explanation: The Project Manager should reach out to the appropriate

stakeholder to either confirm or update the team member’s privilege. This
is the right answer because the project manager needs to ensure that the
team member has the necessary permission to access the code to
perform their tasks effectively.

493. In the middle of the sprint, an Agile team encountered so many obstacles
that it became impossible to produce any working increments. What steps
should the Project Manager take in response?
a) Cancel the sprint
b) Continue supporting the development team even though the
sprint goal will not be achieved
c) Ask the development team to work on the less difficult work items first

d) Proceed with resource-leveling or smoothing

Explanation: The Project Manager should continue supporting the

development team even though the sprint goal will not be achieved. This
is because the Agile methodology encourages continuous improvement
and learning, and the team can use the experience gained from the failed
sprint to improve future sprints.
494. During sprint zero, a Scrum team undertakes some preliminary work
before officially starting a new project. Which of the following items cannot
be defined by the Scrum team during this stage?
a) Product vision statement
b) Release plan
c) Baselined product backlog
d) Product roadmap

Explanation: During the sprint zero, the Scrum team can define the
product roadmap, product vision statement, and release plan.
However, the product backlog is not baselined during this stage.

495. While discussing the technical choices for their new project during the
zero sprint, an Agile team had a senior member recall a previous project
with significant challenges, resulting in exceeding the budget and falling
behind schedule. What should the Project Manager's next step be?
a) Since the mentioned past project followed a predictive approach, its
performance details are irrelevant
b) Look for the performance details of the mentioned past project in
the Organizational Process Assets (OPAs)
c) Look for the performance details of the mentioned past project in the
issue log
d) Look for the performance details of the mentioned past project in the
Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEF)

Explanation: The Project Manager should look for the performance

details of the mentioned past project in the Organizational Process Assets
(OPAs) to learn from the past project's challenges and avoid repeating the
same mistakes.

496. During one of the initial project meetings, a stakeholder conveyed to the
Project Manager that the video editing software they intend to create
should incorporate a free subscription plan. They specified that this plan
should only permit users to edit videos of less than 5 minutes and that all
exported videos must be watermarked. Where should this information be
documented? (Choose two)
a) Scope management plan
b) Project charter
c) Product backlog
d) Project scope statement
 Explanation: The information provided by the stakeholder should be
captured in the project scope statement and the product backlog. The
project scope statement defines the project scope and the product
backlog contains the requirements for the product. The stakeholder's
request for a free subscription plan with certain limitations is a
requirement that should be captured in the product backlog. The project
scope statement should also capture this requirement as it defines the
project scope.

497. While reviewing an important Epic, members within the self-organizing

team had varying interpretations of how it should be decomposed,
highlighting a lack of shared understanding regarding the project's
purpose. What steps should the Project Manager take?
a) Ask the team to check the release plan
b) Remind the team of the project vision
c) Ask the team to check the acceptance criteria of the Epic
d) Remind the team of the sprint goal

Explanation: The Project Manager should remind the team of the project
vision to ensure that everyone has a common understanding of the
project's purpose. This will help the team to align their interpretations and
work towards the same goal.

498. With 8 years of experience in the same role, a Project Manager is

promoted to the position of Portfolio Manager. What is the definition of a
portfolio among the following options?
a) Creates a common vision and helps senior management to see the
potential strategic implications of corporate decisions
b) Following methods, processes, and tools to ensure that projects are
managed as designed
c) A number of projects, programs, or operations that are all
managed as a collection with the aim of achieving the
organization’s strategic goals
d) Analyzing IT requirements and ensuring regulatory requirements are
followed

Explanation: A portfolio is a collection of projects, programs, or

operations that are managed as a group to achieve the organization's
strategic goals. This is the correct definition of a portfolio.

499. Before initiating a new project, a Project Manager conducts a cost-benefit

analysis to evaluate potential costs and revenues. The outcome of the
 analysis will decide if the project is likely to be profitable or if the
organization should consider an alternative project. The Project Manager
discovers that the project's Benefit-Cost Ratio is 1.3. What does this
indicate?
a) The project’s revenue is 1.3 times its cost
b) The project’s revenue is 1.3 times its profit
c) The project’s profit is 1.3 times its cost
d) The project’s cost is 1.3 times its profit

Explanation: The Benefit-Cost Ratio (BCR) is a financial metric that

compares the benefits of a project to its costs. A BCR of 1.3 means that for
every dollar invested in the project, the organization will receive $1.30 in
benefits. Therefore, the project's revenue is 1.3 times its cost.

500. In a weak matrix organization, employees collaborate on multiple projects

and across various company departments to enhance interaction and
foster a team spirit. If additional employees are required, who is
responsible for the hiring process in this matrix structure?
a) The Project Manager
b) The Functional Manager
c) The Sponsor
d) The Project Team

Explanation: In a weak matrix organization, the Functional Manager is

responsible for the hiring process. This is because the Functional Manager
has control over the resources and personnel within the department, and
can allocate them as needed to various projects.

501. The Project Manager in charge of a digital marketing project has some
stakeholders who don't support the project and others who want the entire
project planned out before it starts. Meanwhile, the Sponsor aims for a
quick win to support majority stakeholder backing and ensure the project's
continuation. Considering these circumstances, what approach should the
Project Manager adopt?
a) An Agile approach, as it would please the majority of stakeholders
b) A predictive approach, since Agile is only used for software
development projects
c) A predictive approach, as it would give more clarity to the project
d) An Agile approach, as it would produce functioning deliverables
quickly
 Explanation: An Agile approach would produce functioning deliverables
quickly, which would please the Sponsor and ensure the project's
continuation.

502. A Project Manager was given the task of creating a mobile app with a
team of five members. Which of the following project lifecycles can a
project manager follow?
a) Wireframing, prototyping, designing, developing, testing, and
deploying
b) Development, introduction, growth, maturity, and decline
c) Initiation, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing

Explanation: The wireframing, prototyping, designing, developing,

testing, and deploying project life cycle is the most appropriate for
developing a mobile app as it is a software development project. This life
cycle involves the creation of wireframes, prototypes, designs,
development, testing, and deployment of the mobile app.

503. An organization underwent a transformation to adopt the Kanban

approach for managing its new projects. The Kanban board consists of four
columns: To do, Doing, Testing, and Done. How should the Project Manager
handle the items in these various lists?
a) Increase the number of items in the Doing list
b) Limit the items in the Testing list
c) Limit the items in the To-do list
d) Increase the number of items in the Testing list

Explanation: The Project Manager should limit the items in the Testing
list to ensure that the team focuses on completing the work in progress
before starting new work. This helps to prevent multitasking and
improves the flow of work through the system, which is a key principle of
the Kanban approach.

504. Shortly after introducing a new release to the market, the Product Owner
received a user complaint about an irritating defect in the product. What
should the Product Owner's next steps be?
a) Estimate the effort required to fix the defect, then decide what to do
accordingly
b) Ask the development team to fix the defect immediately since the
product has already been released
 c) Ask the development team to roll back the last release in order to work
more on exploring undetected defects
d) Create a task to fix the defect, add it to the product backlog, then
prioritize it

Explanation: The Product Owner should create a task to fix the defect,

add it to the product backlog, and then prioritize it. This is the right
answer because the Product Owner should not interrupt the development
team's work on the current release. Instead, the Product Owner should
prioritize the defect and add it to the product backlog to be addressed in
the next release.

505. Midway through a sprint, the development team recognized that they had
scheduled more work than they could complete. What guidance should the
Project Manager advise to the development team for their next steps?
a) Inform the Product Owner during the sprint review that some features
could not be completed
b) Ask the Product Owner to remove some work items from the
sprint backlog
c) Collaborate with the Product Owner to reprioritize the product backlog
items
d) Continue work and put off discussing this issue to the sprint retros

Explanation: The Project Manager should advise the development team

to ask the Product Owner to remove some work items from the sprint
backlog. This will help the team to focus on the most important work
items and complete them within the sprint timeline.

506. The Project Manager is leading a software project, and the project team
completed all tasks in the iteration backlog ahead of schedule. They
decided to focus on code clean-up for the rest of the iteration with the aim
of reducing technical debt, ultimately saving the customer maintenance
fees in the future. However, both the customer and the Project Manager
appear dissatisfied. What could be the cause of the customer's
dissatisfaction?
a) They wanted to avoid gold plating
b) They wanted to minimize costs by ending the iteration earlier
c) They wanted to avoid scope creep
d) They wanted to prioritize the scope
 Explanation: The customer wanted to prioritize the scope, which means
that the team should have focused on delivering the agreed-upon scope
instead of working on code clean-up.

507. A contracted Project Manager is leading a project using a predictive

approach. The Project Sponsor expresses disappointment with the current
progress, claiming that a crucial deliverable has been overlooked. Despite
approving all project stages thus far, they request the Project Manager to
pause the project for a reevaluation. To facilitate a resolution, the Project
Manager can employ arbitration and mediation as which of the following
techniques? (Choose two)
a) Direct negotiation techniques
b) Dispute resolution techniques
c) Coaching techniques
d) Assisted negotiation techniques

Explanation: Arbitration and mediation are two of the most common

dispute resolution techniques used in project management. They are used
to resolve conflicts between parties in a neutral and impartial way without
the need for litigation. By using these techniques, the Project Manager can
help the Sponsor and other stakeholders reach an agreement and move
forward with the project.

508. Upon recently joining a new organization, a Project Manager observed a

lack in collaboration within the team. What is the optimal approach to
foster a collaborative work environment?
a) Conducting soft skills development training
b) Organizing team-building activities
c) Opting for a pull-based system for work assignments
d) Adopting an Agile work approach

Explanation: Organizing team-building activities can help create a

cooperative work environment by fostering trust, communication, and
collaboration among team members.

509. A Project Manager aims to establish a work environment that encourages

creativity, innovation, and the sharing of ideas. They schedule regular
meetings with the team to address project risks and issues. What type of
leadership is the Project Manager employing?
a) Interactional
b) Laissez-faire
c) Transactional
 d) Transformational

Explanation: Here, the Project Manager is applying transformational

leadership by promoting creativity, innovation, and idea-sharing. They are
also setting up regular meetings with the team to discuss project risks and
issues, which is a characteristic of transformational leadership.

510. A Project Manager working for a kitchen equipment manufacturer has

been instructed by their superiors to prepare for the adoption of Lean
practices. What type of power is being utilized by the Project Manager's
superiors?
a) Situational
b) Referent
c) Legitimate
d) Expert

Explanation: The right answer is C because the superiors are using their
formal authority to make a decision and direct the Project Manager to
prepare for the transition to Lean practices.

511. During a retrospective meeting, the development team expressed their

interest in receiving training in Python programming. While the Project
Manager was exploring established training providers, they came across a
new one offering the same training at appealing prices. However, the
Project Manager hesitated due to uncertainty about the new provider's
quality. What actions should the Project Manager take to mitigate the risk?
a) Share the risk with senior management and let them decide
b) Get the training for all of the team since it’s not expensive
c) Look for another accredited training agency that has a good reputation
d) Enroll one developer to assess the training quality before
enrolling the rest of the team

Explanation: The Project Manager should enroll one developer to assess

the training quality before enrolling the rest of the team. This approach
will help mitigate the risk of getting low-quality training for the entire
team. By enrolling one developer, the Project Manager can evaluate the
quality of the training and decide whether to continue with the new
provider or look for another accredited training agency.

512. Many quality issues have been affecting a project, posing a risk. What type
of meeting should the Project Manager organize with the team to discuss
how to prevent or handle such problems in the future?
 a) Team building
b) Kick-off
c) Lessons learned
d) Risk review

Explanation: Lessons learned meetings are conducted at the end of a

project to identify what went well and what didn't go well. The team can
then use this information to improve future projects. In this case, the
Project Manager should conduct a lessons learned meeting to identify the
quality issues that have hampered the project and figure out how to avoid
or deal with such problems in the future.

513. At the end of a sprint retrospective, a team member stated that the
meeting's outcomes were nearly identical to previous ones, proposing
either cancelling it or reducing its frequency. What actions should the
Scrum Master take in this situation?
a) Keep the same frequency of retrospectives and reflect on how to
make them more relevant and actionable
b) Extend the sprint timebox in order to allow for more improvements to
be discussed in the retrospective
c) Reduce the frequency of retrospectives to once every two sprints
d) Go with voting, and if all team members agree, then skip
retrospectives

Explanation: The right answer is A because the Scrum Master should not
cancel or reduce the frequency of retrospectives based on one team
member's feedback. Instead, the Scrum Master should reflect on how to
make the retrospectives more relevant and actionable.

514. A Project Manager chooses a seller to deliver specific services, and both
parties decide to utilize a Fixed Price Incentive Fee contract (FPIF). What
aspects should be defined next? (Choose two)
a) What hourly, daily, or weekly rate the seller will charge
b) What legitimate costs will be reimbursed by the buyer
c) The extra financial incentive the seller will get and when they will
get it
d) How much the seller will get for their predetermined services
 Explanation: The financial incentive and the amount to be paid for the
predetermined services are the two key elements that need to be defined
in a Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF) contract.

515. While leading a retrospective meeting, a Scrum Master receives a

suggestion from a team member to change the sprint timebox from three
weeks to two weeks. What steps should the Scrum Master take in response
to this suggestion?
a) Accept the implementation of any suggestion provided by self-
organizing team members
b) Investigate the cause behind the team member’s suggestion to
tailor the process
c) Decline the team member’s suggestion since it can reduce the team’s
velocity
d) Decline the team member’s suggestion since the sprint timebox is set
at the beginning of the project and should never be changed

Explanation: The Scrum Master should investigate the cause behind the
team member’s suggestion to tailor the process. This is because the
Scrum Master should facilitate the team’s decision-making process and
encourage self-organization. The Scrum Master should not make
decisions for the team, but rather help the team make informed
decisions.

516. In one of the meetings with their remote team, a Project Manager faced
difficulty hearing a specific team member. Initially, the Project Manager
thought it to be internet or equipment issues. However, upon inquiry, the
team member turned off their cooling fan, resulting in clearer
communication. What kind of knowledge did the team member employ to
address the issue? (Choose two)
a) Tacit knowledge
b) Implicit knowledge
c) Explicit knowledge
d) Codified knowledge

Explanation: The team member is using tacit knowledge to fix the

problem by turning off the cooling fan, which is an unspoken
understanding or skill that is not easily transferred to others. Additionally,
the team member is using implicit knowledge, which is knowledge that is
not easily articulated or codified, to identify the issue and resolve it.
517. A Project Manager is tasked to lead a large construction project. In the
procurement process, they aim to guarantee that all potential providers
have a thorough and clear understanding of the project's procurement
requirements and specifications. How can the Project Manager accomplish
this?
a) Conduct face-to-face meetings with each seller
b) Conduct a negotiation meeting with each seller
c) Conduct a bidder conference
d) Conduct a virtual meeting with each seller

Explanation: A bidder conference is a meeting between the project team

and all potential sellers to ensure that they fully understand the project
procurement requirements and specifications. This is an effective way to
ensure that all potential providers fully and clearly understand the project
procurement requirements and specifications.

518. A stakeholder included a user story in the product backlog, and the Scrum
team found it clear. However, during execution, the team member assigned
to it becomes confused about one of its implementation scenarios. What
should the development team member do in this situation?
a) Ask the Product Owner for clarification
b) Ask the Stakeholder for clarification
c) Wait for the next standup meeting to report the issue to the Scrum
Master or Product Owner if they do attend the meeting
d) Convey their confusion to the Scrum Master, who will help get
clarification from the Product Owner

Explanation: The Product Owner is responsible for the product backlog

and is the best person to provide clarification on the user story. The
development team member should ask the Product Owner for
clarification to ensure that the user story is implemented correctly.

519. In the planning phase, the Project Manager speculated no alterations in

the composition of the project steering committee. However, recognizing
the potential significance of any changes, the Project Manager designated a
team member to monitor for triggers. Where should the name of the
person responsible for monitoring the steering committee be recorded?
a) Stakeholder register
b) Change log
c) Issue log
 d) Risk register

Explanation: The name of the person responsible for monitoring the

steering committee should be recorded in the risk register because any
change in the composition of the steering committee could be a risk to
the project.

520. A senior software engineer has been newly assigned to manage a project
using the Agile approach. To ensure successful project delivery, the Project
Manager should initially _____________.
a) Define quality metrics
b) Define the project success criteria
c) Identify all risks
d) Determine all of the sprints’ activities

Explanation: Defining the project success criteria is the first step in Agile
project management. This helps the team to understand what they are
working towards and what the end goal is. It also helps to ensure that the
project is aligned with the organization's goals and objectives.

521. To guarantee that the project aligns with the organization's requirements,
the Project Manager conducts a tailoring process. In this context, what is
Tailoring?
a) The selection of the appropriate processes, inputs, tools,
techniques, and life cycle phases for managing a project
b) The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques needed to
meet a program's requirements
c) The knowledge and practices which are applicable to most projects in
most cases
d) The application of a set of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to
the project activities in order to meet its requirements

Explanation: Tailoring is the selection of the appropriate processes,

inputs, tools, techniques, and life cycle phases for managing a project.
This ensures that the project is performed in accordance with the
organization's requirements.

522. A team member observes that some team members confuse projects and
operations, and oftentimes treat operations as continuous projects. In
response, the Project Manager clarifies that there is no concept of an
ongoing project, highlighting the distinction between a project and an
operation by defining operations as _________________.
 a) The application of a set of skills, knowledge, tools, and techniques in a
project to meet its requirements
b) An undertaken temporary endeavor with the aim of making a
distinctive product, service, or result
c) Ongoing endeavors that generate repetitive outputs
d) A collection of programs that have been grouped to achieve strategic
business goals

Explanation: The right answer is C because operations are ongoing

endeavors that generate repetitive outputs, while projects are temporary
endeavors with a defined beginning and end that aim to create a unique
product, service, or result.

523. A Project Manager is in a meeting, presenting his project to the company's

committee for approval. The committee, consisting of Senior Managers and
Subject Matter Experts, poses challenging and critical questions. What
project selection technique is exemplified in this scenario?
a) Scoring model
b) Benefit analysis
c) Brainstorming
d) Murder board

Explanation: This scenario describes the murder board technique, which

is a process where a project manager is subjected to a rigorous and
challenging questioning session by a group of experts to identify potential
weaknesses in the project plan and to ensure that the project is viable and
feasible.

524. An Agile team desires to examine a visual summary of all the required
features and functionality of the product. Therefore, the Project Manager
recommends to look at _________________.
a) Story map
b) Themes
c) Product backlog
d) Epics

Explanation: A story map is a visual representation of the product

backlog that helps the team understand the product's features and
functionality. It is a great tool for Agile teams to examine the visual
overview of all of the product's required features and functionality.
525. An Agile Project Manager is worried about the duration of time their team
spends planning. Which of the following planning activities should the team
refrain from participating in?
a) Daily planning
b) Portfolio planning
c) Release planning
d) Iteration planning

Explanation: Portfolio planning is not a planning activity that the team

should be involved in. It is a high-level planning activity that is typically
performed by senior management or executives.

526. In the process of hiring an electrical engineer, a Project Manager

conducted only one behavioral interview. Subsequently, it was found that
the candidate's technical skills did not align with the job requirements.
Therefore, the decision was made to enhance the recruitment process by
incorporating a technical test and an additional technical interview. Which
risk response strategy did the Project Manager employ?
a) Avoid
b) Accept
c) Mitigate
d) Transfer

Explanation: The Project Manager applied the mitigate risk response

strategy by adding a technical test and an additional technical interview to
the recruitment process to reduce the probability of hiring a candidate
with inadequate technical skills.

527. A Project Manager was tasked with leading a project for the development
of a flight booking website. The airline specified that the website should be
capable of accommodating one thousand visitors per hour. This
requirement is referred to as ________________. (Choose two)
a) Acceptance criterion
b) Requirement
c) Deliverable
d) Scope

Explanation: The condition of supporting one thousand visitors per hour

is a requirement that the project manager must meet. It is also an
 acceptance criterion that the project must satisfy to be considered
successful.

528. After product release, the organization encountered customer claims

regarding poor quality. What types of non-conformance costs might the
organization incur?
a) External costs
b) Internal costs
c) Risks and issue response costs
d) Appraisal costs

Explanation: The organization might incur external costs as a result of

poor quality claims from the customer. External costs are costs that are
incurred after the product has been delivered to the customer.

529. A Project Manager is leading a high-risk project that has recently

experienced varying performance and a high defect rate. In a meeting, the
Sponsor requests an overview of work performance and the current status
of the project. Which of the following documents should the Project
Manager provide to the Sponsor?
a) Project management plan
b) Quality report
c) Risk report
d) Status report

Explanation: The Project Manager should send the status report to the
sponsor as it provides an overview of the project's current standing and
performance. This report includes information on the project's progress,
budget, schedule, and risks.

530. Zenith Bank is renowned for providing outstanding online services to its
customers. As a part of their new project, customers will have the ability to
electronically submit a loan request. During the third week of project
execution, the Project Manager discovers that a crucial resource has been
overallocated. This project is in need of ____________.
a) Resource loading
b) Resource calendar
c) Resource leveling
d) Resource smoothing
 Explanation: Resource leveling is the process of resolving resource
conflicts by delaying tasks or splitting them into smaller parts. This
technique is used to balance the workload of resources and ensure that
no resource is over-allocated. In this scenario, the Project Manager has
discovered that an important resource has been over-allocated, so
resource leveling is the appropriate technique to use.

531. Experienced Project Managers always conduct a kick-off meeting before

the start of a project. What’s the purpose of conducting such a meeting?
a) Ensuring the allocation of the required project resources
b) Obtaining approval to proceed with project execution
c) Reassuring the stakeholders that execution is on track
d) Informing and engaging stakeholders to ensure their
commitment

Explanation: The purpose of conducting a kick-off meeting is to inform

and engage stakeholders to ensure their commitment to the project.

532. A Product Owner picked several user stories totaling 110 points for the
upcoming release. Considering the team's velocity is 20 story points, what
is the estimated duration to finish the release?
a) 6 sprints
b) 5 sprints
c) 5.5 sprints
d) It’s impossible to calculate the estimated number of sprints to
complete a release in Agile

Explanation: The estimated duration to complete the release is

calculated by dividing the total number of story points by the team's
velocity. In this case, 110/20 = 5.5 sprints. Since the team cannot complete
half a sprint, the answer is rounded up to 6 sprints.

533. A Product Owner, who is new to the agile approach, prepared the
following user story: "As a customer, I want a new functionality so that I can
achieve a 50% increase in sales." The Project Manager identified
shortcomings in the user story and contacted the Product Owner to clarify
that __________________.
a) The user story should not include financial values
b) The user story should be time-bounded
c) The user story should be specific and testable
d) The user story should follow a common structure
 Explanation: The user story should be specific and testable because it
should be clear what the customer wants and how it can be tested to
ensure that the functionality meets the customer's needs.

534. A Project Manager is examining the investment efficiency of two potential

projects. Recognizing that the discount rate is unknown, what action should
the Project Manager take?
a) Select the project with the highest NPV
b) Select the project with the lowest NPV
c) Select the project with the highest ROI
d) Select the project with the lowest ROI

Explanation: Selecting the project with the highest ROI is the best option
when the discount rate is unknown because ROI is a relative measure that
does not depend on the discount rate.

535. A Project Manager is leading an Agile project with a virtual team, and their
daily 15-minute standup is scheduled for 9 a.m. In the last meeting, the
Project Manager observed a 5-minute delay. Following that, the team
engaged in 5 minutes of casual conversation before officially commencing
the meeting. Towards the end of the standup, an extra 5 minutes were
spent brainstorming an issue that had arisen the previous day. What is the
total cycle time for this occurrence?
a) 15 minutes
b) 30 minutes
c) 10 minutes
d) 25 minutes

Explanation: The total cycle time of the event is 30 minutes. The standup
was delayed by 5 minutes, followed by 5 minutes of chit-chatting, and
then an additional 5 minutes were spent brainstorming. Therefore, the
total cycle time is 5 + 5 + 5 + 15 = 30 minutes.

536. Encountering several quality issues, the Project Manager decided to

identify high-priority defects using the 80/20 rule (also known as the Pareto
Chart). What should be the Project Manager's next course of action?
a) Find out the frequency of each quality issue
b) Find out the impact of each quality issue
c) Find out the cause of each quality issue
d) Find out the urgency of each quality issue
 Explanation: The Project Manager should find out the frequency of each
quality issue to identify the top priority defects by applying the 80/20 rule
(aka the Pareto Chart). This is because the Pareto Chart helps to identify
the vital few from the trivial many, and the frequency of each quality issue
helps to determine which issues are occurring most frequently and,
therefore, require the most attention.

537. A Project Manager is leading a project using an adaptive approach. In the

sprint review, the Product Owner requests an acceptance document for
signing off to demonstrate approval of the deliverables. What should be
the Project Manager's next course of action?
a) Ask the Product Owner to create a task in the product backlog and
prioritize it so that the development team can create the acceptance
document
b) Create an acceptance document and share it with the Product Owner
to sign off
c) Inform the Product Owner that an acceptance document is
unnecessary
d) Ask the Product Owner to create the acceptance document and sign it
off

Explanation: An acceptance document is not required in an adaptive

approach. The Product Owner's approval is demonstrated through their
acceptance of the deliverables during the sprint review.

538. A Project Manager is leading a team unfamiliar with the adaptive

approach. After several weeks, the project has reached a stage where there
is an accumulation of Work In Progress (WIP). What steps should the
Project Manager take to determine whether the team is adhering to
procedures appropriately?
a) Check relevant Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)
b) Review the notes of the previous retrospective meetings
c) Check the Kanban board
d) Perform a process evaluation

Explanation: Performing a process evaluation is the right answer because

it will help the Project Manager to identify whether the team is following
the procedures or not. The process evaluation will help the Project
Manager to identify the root cause of the accumulation of WIP and take
corrective actions.
539. In the middle of the project, the information security department informs
the Project Manager that they have recently become aware of the design
changes. They also express concerns about the compliance of these
changes with the organization's standards, as they were not involved when
the changes were made. How should the Project Manager overcome this
issue?
a) Conduct a meeting with the information security department to
go over all design changes and ensure their compliance with the
organization’s standards
b) Undo all design changes since the information security department
wasn’t involved in the process
c) Ask the security department to raise the issue with the Product Owner
d) Allow the information security department team to attend all of the
following daily stand-ups to ensure all made changes comply with
security requirements

Explanation: The Project Manager should conduct a meeting with the

information security department to go over all design changes and ensure
compliance with the organization’s standards. This will help to identify any
potential issues and ensure that the project is in compliance with the
organization’s standards.

540. In the sprint review of the project's latest iteration, the Product Owner
conveyed satisfaction with the product, deeming it "fit for purpose."
Nevertheless, a senior team member stated the necessity for another
iteration to address bugs and enhance the user experience. The Sponsor,
present at the meeting, mentioned that additional work on the product
would recommence if more funding is secured in the next quarter. What
steps should the Project Manager take next?
a) Keep the project open since work could be resumed in the next
quarter
b) Release all resources
c) Continue work on fixing bugs to satisfy the client, then close the
project
d) Close the project but keep one developer to fix any major bugs

Explanation: The right answer is B because the Sponsor has indicated

that further work on the product will resume if they get more funding in
the next quarter. Therefore, the Project Manager should release all
resources and close the project until further notice.
541. The Project Manager was notified by the Project Sponsor that there are
concerns about the satisfaction of business demands by the resulting
product. Consequently, there is a desire to minimize costs. What course of
action should the Project Manager take?
a) Gather all requirements and execute the project using an incremental
approach
b) Identify and implement the requirements for making a Minimum
Viable Product (MVP)
c) Sign with the sponsor a fixed-cost contract in order to limit project
costs
d) Exclude certain stakeholders from the scope definition process in
order to limit requirements

Explanation: The Project Manager should identify and implement the

requirements for making a Minimum Viable Product (MVP) in order to
satisfy the Sponsor's concerns about costs and business demands. An
MVP is a product with just enough features to satisfy early customers and
provide feedback for future product development. This approach can help
to keep costs low while still delivering a product that meets business
needs.

542. In the midst of the project, the Project Manager observed a decline in
stakeholder engagement and recognized the necessity to assess their
satisfaction. Which two tools or techniques could the Project Manager
employ for this purpose? (Choose two)
a) Power/interest grid
b) Engagement assessment matrix
c) Net promoter score
d) Mood chart

Explanation: Net promoter score and mood chart are tools that can be
used to measure stakeholder satisfaction. Net promoter score is a metric
used to measure customer loyalty and satisfaction, while mood chart is a
tool used to track stakeholder emotions and feelings over time.

543. The Project Manager is leading the second phase of a project with a
hybrid approach. To establish a shared understanding among stakeholders
and resolve any disparities, the Project Manager moves forward by defining
the project requirements through ______________.
a) Inviting all concerned stakeholders to a requirements workshop
to develop user stories
 b) Sending a questionnaire to all of the involved stakeholders in order to
determine the project requirements
c) Setting up a meeting with each stakeholder to identify their needs
d) Conducting a survey of the project’s current users

Explanation: A requirements workshop is a collaborative approach to

defining project requirements. It allows stakeholders to work together to
develop user stories and build a common understanding of the project
requirements. This approach is particularly useful in hybrid projects
where there may be differences in stakeholder needs and expectations.

544. Midway through the project, the Sponsor appoints an Inspector to assess
the quality of the delivered work up to that point. While the Project
Manager is not personally acquainted with the inspector, they have heard
that the inspector is typically inflexible and challenging to work with. How
should the Project Manager best handle this situation?
a) Ignore the Inspector’s designation since they are an external
stakeholder
b) Ask the Sponsor to designate another Inspector
c) Use their soft skills to talk the Inspector into looking past any quality
issues and not reporting them to the Sponsor
d) Collaborate with the Inspector and provide them assistance when
needed

Explanation: Collaborating with the Inspector and providing them

assistance when needed is the best way to handle the situation. This will
help build a relationship with the Inspector and ensure that they
understand the project's goals and objectives. It will also help the Project
Manager to identify any potential quality issues early on and address
them before they become major problems.

545. The Project Manager received notification from a customer stating their
intention to initiate a new project, assigning the same Product Owner as
the current ongoing project. How should the Project Manager respond to
the customer's decision?
a) Ask the customer to reconsider their decision to avoid a conflict-of-
interest situation
b) It’s ok to have the same Product Owner for both products as long
as they can fulfil their duties
 c) Ask the customer to reconsider their decision since a Product Owner
should handle one product at a time
d) Ask the customer to add another Product Owner to the current project
as a backup

Explanation: It is okay to have the same Product Owner for both

products as long as they can fulfil their duties. There is no rule that a
Product Owner should handle only one product at a time. The Product
Owner should be able to manage their time and responsibilities
effectively.

546. In the product validation phase, a key stakeholder declines to approve the
acceptance document, asserting that certain functionalities do not meet
their expectations. What actions could the Project Manager have taken to
prevent this situation?
a) Involve the key stakeholder during the planning phase
b) Involve the key stakeholder during the quality control phase
c) Involve the key stakeholder during all project phases
d) Involve the key stakeholder during the project initiation phase

Explanation: The right answer is C because involving the key stakeholder

during all project phases ensures that their expectations are met and that
they are satisfied with the final product. This approach helps to avoid any
surprises during the product validation phase.

547. While working on the identification of risks, a Project Manager observed a

disagreement among team members regarding the optimal approach to
execute a significant work item. What steps can the Project Manager take to
mitigate this risk?
a) Enroll the team in training about the technologies related to
executing that work item
b) Let the team self-organize and figure out how to execute the work item
c) Escalate the issue to the Functional Manager
d) Outsource the concerned work item

Explanation: The Project Manager can enroll the team in a training about
the technologies related to executing that work item to mitigate the risk of
disagreement among team members concerning the appropriate way to
execute an important work item. This will help the team members to have
a common understanding of the work item and how to execute it.
548. The Project Manager overseeing a software development project
following an Agile approach receives a customer request to modify a
requirement during project execution. What course of action should the
Project Manager take?
a) Take the change request to the Change Control Board (CCB)
b) Block the change request
c) Welcome the change request
d) Avoid the change request

Explanation: In Agile, change is expected and welcomed. The Project

Manager should welcome the change request and work with the
customer to understand the impact on the project scope, schedule, and
budget.

549. A Project Manager joins a project to replace the previous Project Manager,
who has suddenly departed from the organization. In the first week, they
observed a lack of trust and support among team members for each
other's ideas, and the work environment was counterproductive. According
to Tuckman's model, in which development stage is this team?
a) Norming
b) Adjourning
c) Storming
d) Forming

Explanation: The team is in the storming stage, where team members are
competing for ideas and leadership. The lack of trust and
counterproductive work climate are typical of this stage.

550. A Project Manager is leading a groundbreaking medical research project.

In a meeting with the Sponsor, the Project Manager outlines his approach
to handling the project, expressing a desire to promote self-awareness,
active listening, and coaching. The Project Manager emphasizes that
facilitating the growth of the project team is one of his top priorities. What
style of leadership does the Project Manager aim to adopt?
a) Transactional leadership
b) Transformational leadership
c) Authentic leadership
d) Servant leadership

Explanation: This style of leadership encourages self-awareness,

listening, and coaching, which are all aimed at helping the team members
grow and develop.
551. A Project Manager employed at a national bank opts to utilize the
power/interest grid for planning stakeholder engagement. How should he
handle a Stakeholder who shows interest but possesses limited authority?
a) Keep informed
b) Monitor
c) Manage closely
d) Keep satisfied

Explanation: The interested stakeholder with little authority should be

kept informed as they have a low level of power but a high level of
interest in the project. Keeping them informed will ensure they are aware
of the project progress and any changes that may affect them.

552. A Project Manager overseeing a branding project for a fast-food

restaurant chain encounters a disagreement between two team members
regarding a design task. The Project Manager decides to hold a meeting
with the two members, and after discussing the issue, they collectively
agree that outsourcing the activity is the most suitable course of action.
Which conflict resolution technique did the Project Manager employ?
a) Smoothing
b) Forcing
c) Collaborating
d) Compromise

Explanation: The Project Manager used the collaborating conflict

resolution technique by bringing the two team members together to
discuss the issue and come up with a mutually beneficial solution.

553. Organizations frequently attempt to deliver projects with constrained

budgets and incomprehensive requirements. To navigate such
complexities, an Agile approach can be adopted. However, effective
communication is essential for this approach to realize its objectives. In this
context, how should a Project Manager communicate?
a) Daily
b) Informally
c) Formally
d) Frequently

Explanation: Frequent communication is necessary to ensure that the

Agile approach is successful in delivering projects with limited budgets
and incomprehensive requirements. This allows the Project Manager to
 keep the team informed of any changes and to ensure that everyone is on
the same page.

554. A senior Project Manager is employed by a medical devices firm that has
recently experienced substantial organizational changes. One of the key
team members conveys her apprehensions to the Project Manager
regarding a new team member, expressing doubt about their technical
competence to effectively fulfil assigned tasks. Given the Project Manager's
trust in the team member's judgment, what action should be taken
concerning the new team member?
a) Provide the new member with training and mentoring
b) Keep the new team member, but reassign their tasks to someone
else
c) Release the new team member
d) Nothing should be done since the concerned team member has
already been assigned

Explanation: The Project Manager should provide the new team member
with training and mentoring to improve their technical proficiency. This
will help the new team member to better understand their assigned work
and perform better in the project.

555. Shortly after commencing a new project, a Project Manager observed that
a team member, previously highly productive on their last project,
exhibited decreased productivity. The Project Manager invited her to a one-
on-one meeting, during which she disclosed that her frustration stemmed
from the unfulfilled expectation of receiving a performance bonus in the
last project. Which theory is manifested in this situation?
a) Anticipation Theory
b) Expectancy Theory
c) Theory X
d) Theory Y

Explanation: The right answer is Expectancy Theory because the team

member's frustration is due to her expectation of receiving a performance
bonus, which did not happen. Expectancy Theory suggests that people are
motivated by their belief that their effort will lead to a certain level of
performance, which in turn will lead to a specific outcome or reward.

556. One month into project execution, the Project Manager observes that the
sponsor consistently arrives late for their weekly meetings. However, the
Project Manager decides not to confront the sponsor's behavior directly.
 Instead, they document the recurring tardiness in the meeting notes. Which
conflict resolution technique is the Project Manager utilizing?
a) Withdrawal
b) Information recording
c) Smoothing
d) Problem-solving

Explanation: The Project Manager is using the conflict resolution

technique of withdrawal by choosing not to address the sponsor's
behavior and instead documenting the frequent tardiness in the
meetings' notes.

557. A Project Manager is overseeing an educational project. After assessing

the power levels of the project's four stakeholders, they discovered that
Emily and Alex possess high power, whereas Rahul and Sophia have low
power. Seeking further insight, the Project Manager developed the
stakeholder engagement assessment matrix below. Given this analysis,
which stakeholder should be given priority in terms of engagement?
a) Emily
b) Alex
c) Rahul
d) Sophia

Explanation: Emily has high power and high interest, which means they
should be prioritized for engagement according to the stakeholder
engagement assessment matrix.

558. An organization requiring accounting software performs a make-or-buy

analysis. Opting for in-house development, the organization decides based
on the analysis indicating a payback period of less than 3 years. However,
during resource acquisition, the Project Manager discovers that the
developer's rate considered in the make-or-buy analysis is only half the
current market rate. What should the Project Manager do first?
a) Update the make-or-buy analysis report
b) Submit a change request
c) Inform the sponsor about their findings
d) Nothing; as long as the project’s SPI and CPI are on track, this shouldn’t be
a problem

Explanation: The Project Manager should inform the Sponsor about their
findings since the make-or-buy analysis was based on an incorrect
assumption. The Sponsor should be informed of the new information, and
 a new analysis should be conducted to determine the best course of
action.

559. Two agile teams are engaged in developing the same product. Team A
comprises 5 members, using 2-week sprints, and successfully finished all
sprint backlog items with a velocity of 50 story points. Meanwhile, Team B,
consisting of 4 members and using 3-week sprints, achieved a total of 70
story points without completing the entire sprint backlog. In terms of
performance, which team performs better?
a) Team A, taking into consideration their velocity, can achieve 75 story
points in a 3-week sprint, which is better than what Team B achieved
b) Team B, since they achieved more story points with fewer team
members
c) Team A, since they completed all sprint backlog items
d) Team B, since they have a better velocity

Explanation: Team A completed all sprint backlog items, which is the goal
of each sprint. Therefore, they have better performance.

560. In a project status meeting, the Project Manager provided the Sponsor
with an update on the project performance, stating that the SPI is 0.75, and
the CPI is 1.05. What does this information signify?
a) The project is within budget but behind schedule
b) The project is over budget but on schedule
c) The project is behind schedule and over budget
d) The project is on schedule and within budget

Explanation: The CPI is greater than 1, indicating that the project is under
budget. The SPI is less than 1, indicating that the project is behind schedule.
Therefore, option 2 is correct.

561. A Product Owner and team members hold different interpretations of a

specific user story. To resolve the disagreement, the Project Manager
proposes the development of personas. What is the most likely reason for
creating personas in this scenario?
a) To identify and describe real users of the solution
b) To use it as a wireframe to help clarify project outcomes
c) To engage stakeholders who don’t know much about the project
d) To help the development team empathize with the users of the
solution
 Explanation: Personas are fictional characters created to represent the
different user types that might use a solution. They help the development
team empathize with the users of the solution, which can help resolve
disagreements and ensure that the final product meets the needs of the
users.

562. Upon introducing a new foreign developer to the team, the Project
Manager observed that a specific senior team member appeared to be
deliberately avoiding any engagement with them. What actions should the
Project Manager take to address this matter?
a) Look past the senior team member’s behavior since no conflict between
the two has occurred, and work seems to be going just fine
b) Talk to the senior team member privately to try and find out the
reason behind their behavior while making it clear that
discrimination is neither tolerated nor accepted
c) Address the issue in the next team meeting by scolding the senior team
member and lecturing everyone about the importance of an inclusive
work environment
d) Notify the Functional Manager of the senior team member’s behavior and
ask them to take the appropriate disciplinary action

Explanation: The Project Manager should address the issue by talking to the
senior team member privately to try and find out the reason behind their
behavior while making it clear that discrimination is neither tolerated nor
accepted. This approach allows the project manager to understand the root
cause of the issue and take appropriate action to resolve it.

563. Despite the recent transition to the agile approach, project team
members consistently rely on the Project Manager to assign them work.
What steps can the Project Manager take to facilitate their team in
becoming self-organized?
a) Support the team by removing encountered impediments
b) Ensure that the team includes different functional expertise
c) Mentor the team on how to make their own decisions
d) Take a few weeks off to force the team to act on their own

Explanation: The Project Manager can mentor the team on how to make
their own decisions. This will help the team to be self-organized and take
ownership of their work.

a) Leading a multi-year software project, a Project Manager faces a

situation where, after a few months, a senior team member started
 losing motivation. The team member begins expressing dissatisfaction,
claiming that their assigned tasks could be effectively handled by a
junior team member. In this scenario, what actions should the Project
Manager take? Be proactive and start looking for a replacement for
the senior team member
b) Find more challenging tasks for the senior team member to tackle

c) Incentivize the senior team member by increasing their salary or rate

d) Increase the engagement of the senior team member by holding team-

building activities

Explanation: Finding more challenging tasks for the senior team member
to tackle is the right answer because it addresses the root cause of the
senior team member's loss of motivation. By providing more challenging
tasks, the senior team member will be more engaged and motivated to
work on the project.

564. A Project Manager is under contractual obligation to present a monthly

report detailing the accomplishments of the previous month and specifying
the preventive measures that will be implemented in the upcoming month.
Initially responsible for delivering the status update presentation, the
Project Manager, now on vacation, had a team member step in as a
volunteer. Subsequently, key stakeholders provided feedback indicating
dissatisfaction with the latest presentation. How should the Project
Manager handle this situation with their team member?
a) Ask the team member what happened with the presentation that
resulted in the stakeholders’ dissatisfaction
b) Send an email to the team member to use their reply as a justification
for any ulterior decisions
c) Ignore the issue since it only occurred once, and it won’t happen again
now that they’ll be back to delivering the upcoming status
presentations
d) Reproach the team member to let them know how disappointed they
are

Explanation: The Project Manager should ask the team member what
happened with the presentation that resulted in the stakeholders’
dissatisfaction. This will help the Project Manager understand what went
wrong and how to prevent it from happening again in the future. It also
 shows that the Project Manager is willing to listen to their team member
and work together to improve the situation.

565. Over the past three daily standup meetings with the team, the Project
Manager observed that a new team member was facing challenges with
one of their designated tasks, displaying little progress toward its
completion. How should the Project Manager address this situation?
a) Ask the new team member to check the team ground rules
b) Ask an experienced team member to take over the task
c) Check whether other team members can help their new colleague
with the task after the standup meeting
d) Express their disappointment to the new team member and
encourage them to make more effort

Explanation: Option C is the right answer because the Project Manager

should first check whether other team members can help the new team
member with the task after the standup meeting. This approach is in line
with the principle of teamwork and collaboration, which is essential for
project success.

566. A Project Manager is in charge of a project within a functional

organization. In the midst of project implementation, a team member left
from the organization. What should be the Project Manager's initial course
of action?
a) Update the project’s resource breakdown structure
b) Collaborate with the functional manager to get a replacement
c) Evaluate the impact of the team member’s departure on the
project
d) Reassign their workload to the project team member

Explanation: The Project Manager should evaluate the impact of the

team member’s departure on the project first. This will help the Project
Manager to understand the impact of the team member’s departure on
the project and take necessary actions to mitigate the impact.

567. Before initiating the project and identifying all individuals and groups
involved or impacted by the project, the Project Manager went a step
further by categorizing stakeholders based on their levels of power,
interest, and influence. This step is known as ____________.
a) Stakeholder engagement
b) Stakeholder analysis
c) Stakeholder identification
 d) Stakeholder monitoring

Explanation: Stakeholder analysis is the process of identifying and

analyzing stakeholders according to their level of power, interest, and
influence. This step is taken after identifying all of the individuals and
groups involved or affected by the project and before engaging with them.

568. A Project Manager is formulating the business case for a green

transportation project and opts to utilize the SWOT technique. How should
the Project Manager apply this technique?
a) Identify the project's strengths and weaknesses
b) Assess the business model using expert judgment
c) Follow a Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle (PDCA Cycle)
d) Conduct a benefit/cost analysis

Explanation: SWOT analysis is a technique used to identify the project's

strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. It is a useful tool for
developing the business case of a project.

569. A Project Manager overseeing an online e-learning platform is utilizing the

Scrum framework with the project team. At regular intervals, they release
new versions containing additional features, user interface modifications,
bug fixes, security patches, etc. To prevent user confusion amid the
ongoing changes, the Project Manager chose to provide all release
information to platform members through the "News" section on the
website. What form of communication does the Project Manager aim to
employ?
a) Interactive communication
b) Push communication
c) Proactive communication
d) Pull communication

Explanation: The Project Manager intends to use pull communication

because the release information is made available to the platform
members under the 'News' section on the website, and they can access it
whenever they need it.

570. A Project Manager called off a lessons-learned review meeting due to time

constraints. The potential consequences of this decision may involve
_______________.
 a) The project may not be accepted by the Project Management Office
(PMO)
b) Project management will get more difficult
c) Issues faced throughout the project could reoccur due to the
missed opportunity to identify preventive actions
d) Project cost will be greater

Explanation: Cancelling the lessons learned review meeting will prevent

the identification of preventive actions that could have been taken to
avoid issues that may arise in the future. Therefore, the potential
consequences of this decision might implicate that issues faced
throughout the project could reoccur due to the missed opportunity to
identify preventive actions.

571. Despite having a well-elaborated project management plan, the Project

Manager believes that unexpected events could significantly impact the
entire project. What should be the next course of action for the Project
Manager?
a) Ensure that a management reserve is allotted
b) Identify these events and update the project management plan
c) Perform a qualitative risk assessment to define the priority of each of
these events
d) Discuss these events with the Sponsor in order to develop a fallback
plan

Explanation: The right answer is A because a management reserve is

allotted to cover unforeseen events that may impact the project. This
reserve is used to mitigate the impact of these events and ensure that the
project stays on track.

572. In the course of a planning session, a project management team

concluded that acquiring new equipment in November was necessary. The
Project Manager suggested leveraging Black Friday discounts, which occur
in the final week of November. How should the project team deal with this
opportunity?
a) Accept
b) Exploit
c) Share
d) Enhance

Explanation: The project team should exploit the opportunity of Black

Friday discounts to purchase the new equipment in November. Exploit is a
 risk response strategy that aims to take advantage of opportunities that
may arise during the project. In this case, the project team can take
advantage of the Black Friday discounts to save money on the purchase of
the new equipment.

573. An Agile team is engaged in the development of an innovative digital

product. The Product Owner introduced a user story into the product
backlog, specifying that it should be incorporated in the upcoming release. In
a refinement session with the Product Owner, the development team
expressed uncertainty about implementing the user story, citing the need for
specific inputs from the current release. What should be the next step for the
development team?
a) Give the user story a final estimation based on the current
understanding and available information
b) Further study the different implementation scenarios of the user story
c) Stop spending more time trying to figure out how to implement
the user story until they collect more information
d) Prioritize the user story since it involves a high level of ambiguity and
risk

Explanation: The development team should stop spending more time

trying to figure out how to implement the user story until they collect
more information. This is because the team is not sure about the user
story implementation since it requires particular inputs from the current
release. Therefore, they should not prioritize the user story since it
involves a high level of ambiguity and risk. Instead, they should further
study the different implementation scenarios of the user story and collect
more information before giving the user story a final estimation based on
the current understanding and available information.

574. A Project Manager is overseeing a project with remote team members

situated in various geographical areas. In a virtual bi-weekly retrospective
meeting, the Project Manager discovers that some members either forgot,
missed, or did not fully comprehend the previous meeting's discussions.
What actions can the Project Manager take to tackle this issue? (Choose
two)
a) Change the meeting frequency to weekly rather than fortnightly so that
team members do not forget what has been discussed
b) Record meeting sessions and send the recordings to everyone
involved
 c) Create a new group norm requiring meeting attendees to raise their
hands when they don’t understand something
d) Ask all team members to try to speak English with an American accent

Explanation: Recording meeting sessions and sending the recordings to

everyone involved can help team members who missed the previous
meeting to catch up. Creating a new group norm requiring meeting
attendees to raise their hands when they don’t understand something can
help team members who did not fully understand what was discussed in
the previous meeting.

575. A Project Manager certified with PMP possesses extensive project

management knowledge and boasts over two decades of experience as a
designer in the automotive industry. In her most recent role, she led a team
of designers in creating a new design for a futuristic car model. Given the
team's confidence in her decision-making, which of the following powers
does the project manager possess?
a. Persuasive
b. Formal
c. Expert
d. Referent

Explanation: The Project Manager possesses expert power because of

her extensive knowledge and experience in project management and the
automotive industry. The team trusts her decisions because of her
expertise.

576. After transitioning to the Agile approach, a Project Manager has been
promoting self-organization within their team by granting them to decide
how to carry out their assigned tasks. What constitutes the primary
characteristic of a self-organizing team?
a. It gives more responsibility to the Agile team
b. It gives more responsibility to the Project Manager
c. It gives team members higher visibility of the product
d. It allows the team to deliver a working product without external
dependencies

Explanation: Self-organizing teams are responsible for deciding how to

execute their work, which gives more responsibility to the Agile team.
577. As the project approaches completion, a crucial stakeholder inquired with
the Project Manager about any apprehension regarding the approval
process for project deliverables. In response, the Project Manager
expressed confidence that the customer would be satisfied with the result.
What factors can guarantee the satisfaction of the project's customer?
a) The efficiency of the warranty service
b) How good the Project Manager’s relationship is with the project’s end-
users and stakeholders
c) Delivering value and conforming to project requirements
d) The project’s low running costs

Explanation: Delivering value and conforming to project requirements is

the most important factor in ensuring customer satisfaction. If the project
delivers what was promised and meets the customer's requirements, they
are more likely to be satisfied with the result.

578. Four months into project execution, the Project Manager observed a
reduction in the performance of certain team members, while others
maintained a satisfactory level of performance. What actions should the
Project Manager take to realign the entire team?
a) Identify the causes of bad performance, solicit systematic
feedback, and implement adequate solutions based on
findings
b) Openly discuss the poor performance of certain team members
with the whole team in order to come up with a joint solution
c) Motivate underperforming team members by incorporating a
competitive reward system that offers a bonus for top performers
d) Avoid interfering in order to give team members a chance to
improve their performance

Explanation: Identifying the causes of bad performance, soliciting

systematic feedback, and implementing adequate solutions based on
findings is the right approach. This will help the Project Manager
understand the root cause of the problem and take corrective actions to
improve the performance of the team.

579. A Project Manager introduced a stadium construction project, anticipating

significant benefits for the community. Although the mayor approved the
project, the Project Manager faced substantial opposition from various
stakeholders right from the start. What steps should the Project Manager
take to resolve this issue?
 a) Create an organizational diagram to assign each stakeholder to the
appropriate project role, allowing or disallowing certain lines of
communication
b) Create a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) to indicate which
stakeholder is responsible for what aspects of the project and who
needs to be consulted or informed
c) Schedule a meeting with the concerned stakeholders to
thoroughly explain the project, discuss and establish ground
rules, ensure their involvement, and identify any personal or
organizational issues that might surface later on
d) Avoid contacting these stakeholders at the start of the project and,
instead, create a “faits accomplish” to pressure them to support the
project due to a lack of alternatives

Explanation: The Project Manager should schedule a meeting with the

concerned stakeholders to thoroughly explain the project, discuss and
establish ground rules, ensure their involvement, and identify any
personal or organizational issues that might surface later on. This will help
to address the concerns of the stakeholders and ensure their buy-in for
the project.

580. A project encompasses numerous stakeholders, with the majority

requiring high-level information and updates on the project status, while
others necessitate more detailed information and frequent updates. In
response to these varied requirements, what should the Project Manager
create?
a) Salience Model
b) Power/interest grid
c) Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix
d) Stakeholder engagement plan

Explanation: The Project Manager should create a stakeholder

engagement plan to respond to the different requirements of the
stakeholders. This plan should outline the level of engagement required
for each stakeholder, the frequency of communication, and the type of
information to be shared.

581. In the sprint review, the Product Owner notifies the Scrum team that the
meeting is being recorded to share it with a crucial stakeholder. A day later,
the stakeholder contacts the Product Owner, expressing dissatisfaction with
 the product and stating that it doesn't align with their expectations. What
should the Scrum Master do in response?
a) Meet the stakeholder to review the product backlog items
b) Ask the development team to have more frequent backlog refinement
sessions with the Product Owner
c) Facilitate a meeting between the Product Owner and the
concerned stakeholder
d) Ask the development team to collaborate with the key stakeholder

Explanation: The Scrum Master should facilitate a meeting between the

Product Owner and the concerned stakeholder to discuss the
stakeholder's concerns and expectations. This will help the Product Owner
to understand the stakeholder's requirements and expectations better
and make necessary changes to the product backlog items.

582. A Project Manager is overseeing an adaptive project utilizing an online

project management system that visually presents real-time progress for
iterations and the overall project through various charts. However, a key
stakeholder has a preference for receiving a weekly status report via email.
In this scenario, what actions should the Project Manager take? (Choose
two)
a) Ignore the stakeholder request since they have access to the online
system and, therefore, can easily check the project status
b) Take this in charge in order to let the team focus on achieving
deliverable
c) Add a small recurring task of “1” story point in the product backlog to
send the weekly report
d) Check if there is a way to automatically send the weekly report through
the project management system

Explanation: The Project Manager should take charge of the situation

and ensure that the stakeholder receives the weekly status report in their
preferred format. Checking if there is a way to automatically send the
report through the project management system is also a good idea to
save time and effort.

583. A Project Manager consistently receives adverse feedback regarding one

of the project suppliers. Recently, conflicts between the project team and
the supplier's team have escalated, negatively impacting the project. What
should be the next course of action for the Project Manager?
a) Proceed with Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR)
 b) Send an email to the supplier’s team manager explaining the alarming
situation
c) Meet with the supplier’s team manager to discuss the issue
d) Call the supplier’s team manager and urge them to commit to the
procurement agreement

Explanation: Meeting with the supplier’s team manager is the best course
of action as it allows the project manager to discuss the issue and work
towards a resolution. This approach is more effective than sending an
email or making a phone call as it allows for a face-to-face conversation
and the opportunity to build a relationship with the supplier’s team
manager.

584. A Project Manager is assigned with overseeing a megaproject that

demands expertise and resources from various countries. Given the
unpredictability of global epidemics, the project team is concerned about
encountering another event similar to the Coronavirus, potentially resulting
in delays and cost overruns. What actions should the Project Manager take
during the risk planning phase? (Choose two)
a) Add the risk to the issue log
b) Monitor the development of the risk
c) Add the risk to the risk register
d) Perform a qualitative risk analysis

Explanation: The Project Manager should add the risk to the risk register
and perform a qualitative risk analysis during the risk planning phase.
Adding the risk to the risk register ensures that it is documented and
tracked throughout the project, while performing a qualitative risk
analysis helps to identify the likelihood and impact of the risk on the
project objectives.

585. A Project Manager is overseeing a maintenance project for an energy

supply company. During project execution, an engineer discovers that a
spare part needs immediate replacement to prevent an impending power
outage. However, obtaining a new spare part through the organization's
procurement process is expected to be time-consuming. What should the
Project Manager do in this situation?
a) Escalate the problem to the Project Sponsor
b) Buy the spare part without following the procurement process
 c) Update the organization’s procurement process in order to be able to
get the spare part as soon as possible
d) Follow the procurement process, regardless of the risk results

Explanation: The Project Manager should escalate the problem to the

Project Sponsor, as this is a critical issue that requires immediate
attention. The Project Sponsor has the authority to make decisions that
can help the project team overcome the issue and avoid the power
outage.

586. In the middle of the sprint, the development team faced a disruption in
their work due to a sudden issue with a malfunctioning software feature. In
the subsequent retrospective meeting, the Project Manager opted to
employ the Five Whys method to investigate the problem. Why did the
Project Manager specifically choose to utilize this technique?
a) To identify the five steps to take to resolve the issue
b) To identify the five main factors that caused the issue
c) To identify the five members responsible for the issue
d) To identify the root cause of the issue

Explanation: The Project Manager chose to use the Five Whys method in
order to identify the root cause of the issue.

587. A Project Manager ensured the completion of all necessary tasks.

Nevertheless, during an external post-completion audit, the performing
organization incurred a substantial penalty. What alternative actions could
the Project Manager have taken to prevent any liabilities arising from the
audit?
a) Ensure that all closing formalities were followed as per the
defined contractual procedures
b) Verify that all of the tasks indicated in the scope statement were
completed
c) Verify that all identified defects were fixed
d) Ensure that all documents were updated before closing the project

Explanation: The Project Manager should ensure that all closing

formalities are followed as per the defined contractual procedures to
avoid any liabilities following an audit.

588. Forecasting the financial value of a theme comprising a set of features is the
responsibility of:
a) Analysts
b) Product owner
 c) Project manager
d) Sponsor

Explanation: Forecasting the financial value of a theme is the responsibility of

the product owner.

589. A team decided to work on a set of features that are already present in a
competing product and are highly desired by customers. Which of the following
reasons to justify project work is exemplified in this scenario?
a) Revenue due to a new opportunity
b) Additional incremental revenue from existing customers
c) Revenue that an organization will lose if the project is not performed
d) Revenue due to streamlining a process

Explanation: Retained revenue refers to the revenue an organization will lose if

the project is not performed.

590. A product owner realizes that a software used to serve hospital customers, with
some enhancements, can also be used to serve health insurers. The product
owner asks the development team to make the changes and is able to create a
new source of revenue to the company from the new software. Under what
revenue stream is this feature classified?
a) New Revenue
b) Incremental Revenue
c) Retained Revenue
d) Operational Efficiencies

Explanation: Correct Answer: a) New Revenue is the revenue from a new

opportunity after a project is completed.

591. Which of the following are the responsibilities of the scrum master?
a) Achieving initial and ongoing funding for the project
b) Teaching the product owner about the business or domain
c) Being responsible for developing the functionality of the product
d) Facilitating communication by removing the barrier between the team
and the product owner

Explanation: The scrum master is responsible for removing impediments and

facilitating communications between the team.

592. Which of the following is NOT a good way to split a large story into smaller
stories?
a) Decomposing the story along operational boundaries
b) Making design, development, and testing as separate stories
c) Limiting the amount of data being processed
d) Separating the exceptions and cross-cutting concerns
 Explanation: A story should deliver value to the customer. Just design or
development without testing will not deliver value

593. Which one of the following phases of project management includes developing a
capability and/or feature-based release plan for the product?
a) Envision
b) Speculate
c) Explore
d) Adapt

Explanation: Speculate phase includes developing a capability and/or feature

based release plan to deliver the vision.

594. Which of the following is a unit of measure to express the estimated difficulty or
the effort of a user story that is based on an analogous estimation technique?
a) Days
b) Years
c) Story Points
d) Iterations

Explanation: A story point is a unit of measure to express the estimated

difficulty or the effort of a user story and is arrived at by a comparison (analogy)
with benchmark stories.

595. A team needs to be very responsive to changes and improve the product and
process rapidly. How should the agile process be tailored for this team?
a) Hire more technically capable teams.
b) Spend more time in the design of the system to make it more flexible.
c) Clarify all the requirements upfront to limit the extent of change
encountered.
d) Work in shorter increments and retrospect more often.

Explanation: Agile practice guide Table 3-1. The team should retrospect more
often and work in shorter increments

596. A team is conducting the daily standup but the team member's updates don’t
conclude within 15 minutes. What should the scrum master do at this point?
a) Declare the meeting as closed and encourage the team to be more
focused next time.
b) Limit the remaining updates to just half minute by each team member.
c) Provide the remaining updates in brief on behalf of the rest of the team.
d) Ask the team to provide the updates over email.
 Explanation: If the scrum meetings extend beyond 15 minutes, the scrum
master should declare the meeting as closed and encourage the team to be
more focused next time.

597. "In a project, all the user stories are estimated and the sum of those estimates is
200 story points. Based on past experience, it is known that the team velocity is 25
story points per two-week iteration. How many iterations does the project need to
complete the user stories? "
a) 9
b) 8
c) 5
d) 1

Explanation: Iterations = 200/25 = 8

598. Who should participate in iteration review?

a) Team members and product owner
b) Team members and team facilitator
c) Team members, product owner and anybody who can give feedback
about the product
d) Product specialists, customers, iteration manager, developers, and testers

Explanation: Iteration review is a good forum to collect feedback so anybody

whose inputs are valuable may be invited to the meeting.

599. Who should participate in an iteration retrospective session?

a) Team, product owner, and managers of the team members
b) Team, customers, and team facilitator
c) Team and the team facilitator
d) Team, team facilitator, and subject matter experts

Explanation: Inviting external participants to the retrospective may affect the

free exchange of ideas within the team.

600. Technical debt is the gap between a product's actual Cost of Change (CoC) and its
optimal CoC. What is a good way to keep technical debt low?
a) Devoting every alternate iteration to "hardening" activities
b) Selecting more technically capable team members
c) Invoking strict penalties for not following good design practices
d) Performing frequent refactoring and following good development
practices at all times

Explanation: Performing frequent refactoring and following good development

practices at all times is the best way to keep technical debt low.
601. The team working on a product has become too large and the product demands
are increasing. This is resulting in increasing the team size beyond manageable
levels. What can be done?
a) Split the teams into a development and test team to keep the size of each
team manageable.
b) Split the teams into feature teams, each taking care of a manageable
chunk of user-visible product.
c) Grow the team size to the desired level and follow a hybrid model combining
agile and waterfall practices.
d) Sacrifice some productivity in the interest of meeting the customer goals.

Explanation: Feature teams are a good way for a team to scale to the
requirements of the product.

602. Team 1 has been asked to complete work on Item 10's story and deliver it to
Team 2 so that they can initiate work on Item 12's story, which is dependent on
the completion of Item 10's story. The leader of Team 1 decides to add a buffer
that protects the start date on Item 12's story against delays in the completion of
Item 10's story. This buffer is known as:
a) Feeding buffer
b) Iteration buffer
c) Story buffer
d) Release buffer

Explanation: The feeding buffer protects the start date on Item 12's story
against delays in the completion of Item 10's story.

603. A meeting where a team reflects and looks back to adapt and learns to improve
future projects is popularly known as:
a) Retrospective
b) Planning
c) Review session
d) Status meeting

Explanation: Retrospective is the meeting where a team reflects and looks back
to adapt and learn to do future projects better.

604. In the agile methodology, decisions are mostly taken by consensus. Consensus in
this context means:
a) Everybody is onboard and agrees with the decision.
b) Everybody is able to live with the decision.
c) The decision is taken by one or two people after consulting with the team.
d) The decision is taken by majority of the team members present and voting.
 Explanation: In agile methodology, decisions are taken in the spirit of "I can live
with that". Whether it is estimates or technical approach or priorities - it is
virtually impossible to reach 100% agreement

605. When should be the best time for the team to estimate a task?
a) Throughout the iteration
b) During iteration planning
c) During the release planning and baselining the plan
d) During the time of planning and whenever additional information is
available

Explanation: Project team will estimate a task at the time of planning and
reestimate whenever necessary

606. Which of the following charts show the number of tasks completed each day of
the iteration to monitor the progress?
a) Progression charts
b) Task burnup chart
c) Task check-off charts
d) Task charts

Explanation: Many agile practitioners use a task burnup chart, which shows the
number of tasks completed each day of the iteration to monitor progress.

607. Self-organization implies a reliance on internal motivation of the team rather

than external motivation. This is referred to as:
a) Delegatory management
b) Measurement-based management
c) Democratic management
d) Autocratic management

Explanation: Self-organization implies a reliance on internal motivation of the

team rather than external motivation (i.e., a measurement target). Author Austin
calls this delegatory management as contrasted with measurement-based
management. He goes on to say, "measurement-based management is in
conflict with delegatory management. There is a negative interaction because of
the implicit message of distrust that a measurement system conveys by the fact
of its existence."

608. When is the definition of done first used by the team?

a) During iteration reviews
b) During retrospectives
c) During iteration planning
d) During feature estimation of user stories

Explanation: The estimate must take into consideration all the work needed to
complete the story - codified in the definition of tone
609. What is the Japanese term for a technique used to perform root cause analysis
using a fishbone diagram?
a) Lean
b) Sashimi
c) Ishikawa diagram
d) Kaizen

Explanation: Root cause analysis can be performed using Ishikawa diagrams or

fishbone diagrams

610. How would risk be managed in an agile project?

a) Decision tree
b) Risk-adjusted backlog
c) Risk assessment matrix
d) Risk management plan

Explanation: In an agile project, risk would be managed using the risk-adjusted

backlog.

611. Which methodology deals with the movement of a product from development to
operational environment?
a) DevOps
b) ITIL
c) Kanban
d) Scrum

Explanation: DevOps helps in moving development product to operations

612. Which of the following charts shows how much work remains in an iteration?
a) Iteration burndown chart
b) Burndown chart
c) Daily burndown chart
d) Burnup chart

Explanation: A burndown chart shows how much work remains in an iteration.

613. A story that was planned as one story point, actually took two days to complete.
How much does it contribute to the velocity when calculated at the end of the
iteration?
a) One Point
b) Three Points
c) Two Points
d) Cannot be calculated

Explanation: Only the original planned effort of one story point is used to
calculate the Velocity at the end of the iteration.
614. A good approach for small stories is to combine them into larger stories that
represent from about a half-day to several days of work. The combined story is
given a name and is scheduled and worked on just like any other story. Which of
the following is an example of a small story?
a) Major database architecture changes
b) Updating over one hundred automated reports
c) User interface changes
d) Status updates

Explanation: Bug reports and user interface changes are common examples of
stories that are too small for an individual story.

615. Who specifies acceptance tests in an agile project?

a) Product owner
b) Programmer
c) Developer
d) Scrum master

Explanation: As the software is being written to fulfill a vision held by the

product owner, the acceptance tests need to be specified by the product owner.
The product owner can work with a programmer or tester to actually create the
tests, but the product owner needs to specify the tests that will be used to know
when a story has been correctly developed.

616. What does the lean principle "amplify learning" mean?

a) Emphasize trainings to the team members.
b) Hire employees with good academic records.
c) Encourage team members to learn from their seniors by pairing.
d) View every problem encountered as a learning opportunity to make the
process better.

Explanation: Lean is based on the principle of "amplify learning" where every

incident or problem is a learning opportunity.

617. When can a plan be changed in agile management?

a) At the end of the Iteration
b) When something new is learned
c) At the daily meeting
d) Cannot be changed

Explanation: In agile, you can change the plan when something new is learned
or when it is known that a mistake is to be avoided.

618. You have been assigned a new project that is large, complex, and uncertain. As a
project manager, you will be using agile project management. Which of the
following would you select while creating your team?
a) A team that is expandable with the project
 b) A large team
c) A functional manager who is responsible for the team
d) A small cross-functional team

Explanation: As per agile methodology, it is best to work with small teams

staffed by cross-functional skills and increase the number of team members only
when necessary.

619. Assuming one-week iterations and a team of four developers, how many
iterations will it take for the team to complete a project with 27 story points if they
have a velocity of 4?
a) 4
b) 6
c) 7
d) 24

Explanation: Number of Iterations = 27/4 = 6.75 ~7

620. Which of the following defines a complex story?

a) A user story that contains multiple stories
b) A user story that users can mark as inactive
c) A user story that is large by nature and cannot easily be dissected into
smaller stories
d) A user story that is not executable

Explanation: A complex story is a user story that is large by nature and cannot
easily be dissected into smaller stories.

621. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a good story?

a) Testable
b) Large
c) Independent
d) Negotiable

Explanation: A good story has six attributes - Independent, Negotiable, Valuable to

users or customers, Estimable, Small, and Testable.

622. When a team of people work together, the team goes through a specific
sequence of group dynamics called the Tuckman model. Which of the following
depicts the correct sequence of this process?
a) Forming, Norming, Performing, Storming
b) Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing
c) Forming, Performing, Storming, Norming
d) Storming, Norming, Performing, Forming
 Explanation: The Tuckman model has the following stages: Forming, Storming,
Norming, Performing.

623. Name the XP technique where two people work: one person who codes is the
driver and the other person who thinks is the navigator?
a) Pair programming
b) Planning poker
c) Planning technique
d) Coding technique

Explanation: Pair programming is when two developers work on the same code
together to improve efficiency.

624. An informative and collaborative workspace makes information easily

communicated by just being in the room. Which of the following is least likely to
be present in an informative workspace?
a) Big visible charts
b) Process improvement charts
c) Hand-drawn charts
d) Project charter

Explanation: Big visible charts, process improvement charts, hand-drawn charts are
all examples that might be found in an informative workspace. A project charter
would be a project document that would be stored in the project archive and not
visible to the team in a workspace.

625. There are different types of retrospectives: release retrospectives, project

retrospectives, iteration retrospectives, and surprise retrospectives. What are
surprise retrospectives?
a) Retrospectives conducted when an unplanned event changes the situation
b) Retrospectives conducted at the end of each iteration
c) Retrospectives conducted half way of each project
d) Retrospectives suggested by the scrum master

Explanation: Surprise retrospectives are conducted when an unplanned event

changes the situation.

626. The red team finished 38 story points in their last two-week iteration. The blue
team has half as many developers on a different project and completed 38 story
points in their last two-week iteration. What can be determined from this
information?
a) The story points of one team are not comparable to the story points of any
other team
b) Team A is twice as productive as Team B.
c) Team A should have more people in the team.
d) Team B has the management support.
 Explanation: The story points of one team are not comparable to the story points of
any other team.

627. Four developers are estimating a story. The estimates provided are two, three,
six, and ten story points. Which estimate should be used?
a) The one given by the expert
b) The majority view
c) The average of the estimates
d) The team should decide by consensus

Explanation: The team consensus should be used to estimate the story points.

628. A stand-up meeting is conducted in the morning every day. Each person
describes the new information that the team should know. Which of the following
is NOT discussed?
a) What did I do yesterday?
b) What are my tasks for the coming week?
c) What do I plan to do today?
d) What issues are preventing my progress?

Explanation: In the daily stand-up meeting, the tasks for next week would not be
discussed, only yesterday's activity, today's activity, and current issues are discussed.

629. Which of the following most appropriately describes a task board?

a) Appears on a whiteboard
b) Show the project trends
c) Organizes work and communicates what work is left
d) Displays the velocity

Explanation: The task board organizes work and communicates what work is left.

630. Some stakeholders are interested in viewing the project progress, but are not
interested in the details. Which of the following should you share with these
stakeholders?
a) Weekly demo
b) Vision Statement
c) Release plan
d) Burnup chart

Explanation: The burnup chart shows progress towards project completion and the
expected completion date.

631. Which of the following is NOT included in the story cards information'?
a) Estimated value points
b) Story description
c) Story dependencies
d) Velocity
 Explanation: Story cards information includes story name, story description,
estimated work effort, estimated value points, requirements uncertainty, story
dependencies, and acceptance tests. Velocity is the number of user stories that are
delivered in iteration.

632. Which of the following will NOT assist in critical problem solving during the
project?
a) Ask probing questions
b) Use active listening
c) Use reflective listening
d) Injecting ideas

Explanation: During critical problem solving, you can ask probing questions and use
active and reflective listening to find an answer, but one should avoid injecting their
ideas.

633. One of your stakeholders wants more details than the vision statement provides,
but not the overwhelming details of the release and iteration plans. Which of the
following progress report will you share with this stakeholder?
a) Roadmap
b) Status email
c) Iteration plan
d) Productivity chart

Explanation: A roadmap is the best report when stakeholders want more details
than the vision statement provides. It summarizes planned releases and the
significant features in each one.

634. With whom should a team share information about the progress and
impediments?
a) All interested stakeholders
b) Team members, team facilitator and subject matter experts
c) Team members, team facilitator and product owner
d) Senior management and customer

Explanation: Transparency is a key principle of scrum. Therefore the information

must be made transparent to all interested stakeholders

635. Which of the following is NOT true about the Iteration demos?
a) It demonstrates the team progress.
b) It realistically reports progress.
c) It is shown only to a select set of stakeholders.
d) It solicits feedback from customers.
 Explanation: Iteration demos are not shown only to select set of stakeholders, but
all stakeholders and are invited to provide feedback.

636. During which project management phase is the product backlog changed based
on feedback received?
a) Envision
b) Speculate
c) Explore
d) Adapt

Explanation: It is during the adapt phase, the team adjusts based on feedback
received.

637. Which of the following is true about the throughput of a team?

a) Throughput = WIP * Cycle time
b) Throughput = 1 / Cycle Time
c) Throughput = WIP / Lead Time
d) Throughput = Lead time /Cycle time

Explanation: Throughput is the number of features the team can develop in a

particular amount of time and is the inverse of the cycle time

638. Which of the following does NOT explain refactoring?

a) Organizes the working code
b) Improves code quality
c) Makes the code more maintainable
d) Reduces bugs dramatically

Explanation: Refactoring is the reorganization of code to make it more organized,

of higher quality, and more maintainable. It does not reduce bugs.

639. If your release is 12 iterations away, your velocity is 14 points, your risk exposure
is 1 iteration and with a 10% chance, how many points will you have finished?
a) 154
b) 110
c) 86
d) 92

Explanation: Using the following formula, risk_adjusted_points_remaining =

(iterations_remaining - risk_exposure) X velocity / risk_multiplier --> points remaining
= (12 - 1) X 14 = 154 points
10 percent chance: 154 / 1 = 154 points.

640. The retrospective meeting on previous iteration should NOT focus on:
a) What we did well in the previous iteration
b) What should be planned for the next iteration
c) What we did not do well in the previous iteration
 d) What we need to change as a team

Explanation: The retrospective meeting on previous iteration should not get

distracted by planning the next iteration.

641. What is wrong with the story - "As an administrator, I want to manage
assignments so that I can control the workload"?
a) The word manage does not provide enough detail about what exactly is
needed.
b) The story does not say who needs it.
c) The story does not specify the reason.
d) The story is too small.

Explanation: The word manage does not provide details - it may potentially consist
of multiple stories bunched together

642. Which of the following is NOT a principle from the agile Manifesto?
a) Responding to change
b) Customer collaboration
c) Technical excellence
d) Working software

Explanation: The four principles of the agile Manifesto are individuals and
interactions, working software, customer collaboration, and responding to change.

643. In a design the box activity, the objective is to design the product box front and
back. Which of the following would NOT be included in the activity?
a) Graphic design
b) Feature description
c) Operating requirements
d) Competitor's product name and features

Explanation: In a design-the-box activity, the objective is to design the product box

front and back and would include the graphic design, feature description, and
operating requirements.

644. In an iteration, the team committed 10 stories but completed only eight. What
can be done about the remaining two stories?
a) They move back to the product backlog.
b) They move to the next iteration.
c) The iteration is extended till all stories are completed.
d) The team performs a short iteration to complete them.

Explanation: Incomplete stories move to the backlog and are prioritized against the
rest of the items.

645. Which of the following factors will NOT assist in improving the project velocity?
a) Pay down technical debt.
 b) Offload programmer duties.
c) Reduce customer involvement.
d) Provide needed resources.

Explanation: Improving customer involvement will assist in improving the project

velocity (not reducing).

646. What financial return parameter will be best for comparing the values of two
different cash flow streams?
a) Internal rate of return
b) Payback period
c) Discounted payback period
d) Compound interest

Explanation: Internal rate of return (IRR) is used to express the return on project in
percentage when comparing the two different cash flow streams.

647. In the relative weighting prioritization technique, what is the relative contribution
of feature X to the project if it has a value of 12 and the total value of all features is
35?
a) 0.38
b) 0.34
c) 2.91
d) 14.91

Explanation: To calculate the relative contribution of each feature, divide its value
by the sum of the Total Value of all features. Hence, relative contribution of feature X
= 12/35 = 0.34.

648. Which of the following is NOT true about agile retrospectives?

a) The team decides how they will work together to complete the project.
b) The team reflects on past work and learns from the project history.
c) The team decides how to drive the development process.
d) The team decides who will be part of the team for the next project.

Explanation: Retrospective is a meeting in which a team learns from their project

history and discusses how they worked together and what they can learn from their
progress on the project. This helps the team members to continue the development
process and resolve issues when they arise.

649. After completing the calculation using the relative weights method, the numerical
priority value for feature A was 0.92, B was 0.88, C was 0.97, and D was 0.41.
Which of the features should be implemented first?
a) A
b) B
 c) C
d) D

Explanation: The order of the feature is determined by dividing priorities. Since C

has highest priority value, it should be picked up first.

650. What is NOT true about participatory decision making?

a) It is a technique that involves all the affected parties.
b) It is a style of making decisions where timeliness of decision is important.
c) It ensures that all interested parties agree with the decision.
d) In it many concerned parties are consulted before making a decision.

Explanation: Participatory decision making is a technique that involves all the

affected parties. It does not mean all have to agree with the decision. They have to
be able to "live with" the decision.

651. A team's average billing rate is $2,000 per iteration. They plan to work in thirteen
two-week iterations during the project a team velocity of twenty story points per
iteration. What will be the budget for the overall project?
a) 52,000
b) 13,000
c) 26,000
d) 520,000

Explanation: 13 iterations * 2,000 per iteration = $26,000

652. A team is wondering whether a given user story meets its intended scope. Which
of the following is NOT true regarding scope in agile projects?
a) Scope in agile is primarily a function of rolling wave planning.
b) Scope creep doesn't exist in agile projects.
c) Scope is controlled using the product backlog.
d) Scope is verified by the scrum master.

Explanation: Scope is verified by the product owner and not the scrum master.

653. A team often starts the retrospective with each participant declaring allegiance to
the prime directive. Why is this important?
a) To ensure that the retrospective does not degenerate into a blame game.
b) To ensure that the team achieves the goals set up during sprint planning.
c) To reaffirm the commitments made by the team during the planning.
d) To get the right feedback about the product from the customers and other
stakeholders.

Explanation: The prime directive ensures that the retrospective is conducted

without blaming each other for what happened. It ensures that the focus is instead
on improvements.
654. A product owner is discussing prospective features that will be added in the near
future with customers. According to the planning onion, the PO is describing the
_______.
a) Strategy
b) Release plan
c) Roadmap
d) Iteration goals

Explanation: PO's often present product roadmaps to customers to give them a

glimpse of the upcoming product features.

655. A product owner felt that the "performance" of the product in terms of response
time needed to be improved. The team then discussed what modifications were
necessary in the product to achieve this. They came up with a bunch of work
items. According to the product backlog, these work items can be collectively
referred to as a ______.
a) Theme
b) Epic
c) Story
d) Task

Explanation: Theme is the main purpose behind a group of stories, an iteration, or

a release.

656. A project uses a version control system to mediate changes, which includes
updating codes, testing the code, and then checking-in the changes, which may
occur several times in a day. This process is known as:
a) Version control management
b) Continuous integration
c) Simple integration
d) Configuration management

Explanation: Continuous integration is the development practice of updating codes,

testing the code, and then checking-in the changes, which may occur several times
in a day.

657. When a team uses ideal days as a unit of estimation, which of the following is
NOT true?
a) There won't be any distractions.
b) All dependencies are met.
c) The team will focus only on the work.
d) A relative size unit is used.

Explanation: Ideal time is an absolute measure of size. Story points is a relative

measure of size.
658. Agile teams may use Planning Poker for estimation. Which of the following is NOT
true about Planning Poker?
a) It combines expert opinion, analogy, and disaggregation to obtain reliable
estimates.
b) Participants include all the developers in the team.
c) The team for Planning Poker should not exceed more than 10 participants.
d) The highest estimate is considered the final estimate.

Explanation: The highest estimate is not necessarily considered the final estimate
because the players with high and low estimates must explain their estimates and
then a decision is taken by the players as to the final estimate value

659. When the estimates of a team practising Planning Poker estimation do not
converge, how can a decision be made?
a) Ask the team to come to a decision.
b) Take the majority view.
c) Take the highest of the estimates.
d) Take an expert opinion.

Explanation: The team has to decide how to arrive at a decision regarding

estimates. This is true regardless of the technique used.

660. Which of the following chart indicates the scope changes made during an agile
project?
a) Burndown bar chart
b) Sprint burndown chart
c) Scrum board
d) Parking lot chart

Explanation: The burndown bar chart indicates the scope changes in addition to
the work completed.

661. A team is wondering whether to use Planning Poker or affinity estimation to

estimate a subset of the product backlog. Affinity estimation is preferred over
Planning Poker when:
a) A team-based approach is necessary.
b) A large number of items need to be estimated.
c) When the unit of estimation is ideal days instead of points.
d) When the design or approach is unclear.

Explanation: Affinity estimation is most valuable when there are a large number of
items to be estimated.

662. The ideal time estimate for a given piece of work does not automatically translate
into the elapsed time. A conversion factor is often necessary. Which of the
following defines elapsed time?
a) It is the same as ideal time.
 b) The actual amount of time that the team spent on developing a feature.
c) The amount of time without any interruptions.
d) The amount of time that the team spent on the iteration.

Explanation: Elapsed time is the actual amount of time that the team spent on
developing a feature.

663. A Kanban system for managing work is often used by teams. Which of the
following is one of the essential steps of putting into place a Kanban system?
a) Creating a value stream map
b) Identifying the waste and removing it
c) Visualizing the workflow
d) Managing work in iterations

Explanation: Visualizing the work is an essential part of a Kanban system.

664. The MoSCoW technique is used to create a prioritized requirements list and is
popularly used in the DSDM agile technique. In the MoSCoW technique, 'M' stands
for:
a) Medium
b) Must
c) Must Not Have
d) Minimum Marketable Features

Explanation: The MoSCoW prioritization scheme derived its name from the first letters
of its labels: must, should, could, won't.

665. Pair programming is a the widely used practice in the extreme programming
method. This method allows two people to work on a task instead of one. The
primary advantage of this method is that _____.
a) It optimally utilizes the available development effort.
b) It leads to knowledge sharing and collective code ownership.
c) It generates self-testing code.
d) It leads to greater commitment and ownership from the team.

Explanation: The pair programming method leads to knowledge sharing across the
team.

666. Many contract types are used on agile projects, including fixed price contracts. In
a fixed price contract, the risk of cost escalation is borne mostly by the:
a) Supplier
b) Customer
c) Product owner
d) Project team
 Explanation: In a fixed price contract, the risk is mostly assumed by the supplier
because if the estimate is incorrect the supplier must still honor the price fixed with
the customer.

667. Teams utilizing unfamiliar technology may need time for training prior to a
project's launch and time to establish a development environment. The best way
to account for this is to include the training time ____.
a) In iteration 0.
b) As a new story.
c) Outside the scope of the project as such.
d) As a part of the functional manager's budget.

Explanation: Iteration 0 is used to prepare the team for the project and need not
deliver direct customer value.

668. A user story must be properly described so that the readers can understand what
is the underlying requirement. Such a story is often called a closed story. Which of
the following is NOT a closed story?
a) A recruiter can review resumes from applicants to one of their ads.
b) A recruiter can delete an application that is not a good match for a job.
c) A recruiter can manage ads.
d) A recruiter can change the expiry date of an ad.

Explanation: A recruiter can manage the ads that they place is not a closed story
because it is an ongoing activity.

669. Stories are prioritized based on many factors. In a release planning exercise, the
primary task is assigning stories to iterations. This is done primarily on the basis
of:
a) Value and risk
b) Risk and cost
c) Customer direction
d) Team capabilities

Explanation: The primary task in release planning is assigning stories to iterations,

chiefly on the basis of value and risk.

670. Agile methods are not uniformly applicable to all kinds of projects. Broadly
speaking, one can say that agile is most suitable when:
a) The team is largely inexperienced.
b) The teams are distributed geographically.
c) The requirements are changing and the technology is moderately complex.
d) The customer prefers to work in a linear or incremental fashion.
 Explanation: Agile methods are most appropriate when the complexity of
requirements and/or technology is moderate.

671. "Having problems does not indicate a problem in itself, so welcome problems
because they bring with them the chance for the team to overcome, grow, and
become stronger together." As an agile coach, which of the following is NOT a
perspective to analyze and detect the symptoms of a problem?
a) Process level
b) Quality and performance level
c) Team dynamics dimension
d) Management of team members

Explanation: The multiple perspectives to analyze include the process level, the
quality and performance angle, and the team dynamics dimension, not the
management of team members.

672. A newly appointed product owner is looking for a list of all the known features
that are to be implemented in the future. Where can this information be found?
a) Prioritized sprint
b) Vision box
c) Product backlog
d) Sprint review meet

Explanation: The product backlog documents all the known features that are to
be implemented throughout the project.

673. During the second level of conflict, disagreement, the team members distance
themselves from one another, except in one-on-one conversations to obtain
advice and support. What becomes as important as solving the problem?
a) Self-protection
b) Satisfying self-ego
c) Aiming to win
d) Aiming to grow

Explanation: During disagreement, self-protection becomes as important as

solving the problem or the conflict situation.

674. John and Joseph are working in the same room. John is programming and Joseph
is discussing with Kim. John overhears their conversation enough to know that
Joseph has discussed an idea with Kim. What kind of communication is this
referred to as?
a) Push communication
b) Osmotic communication
c) Pull communication
d) Active listening
 Explanation: Osmotic communication occurs when people in the same
environment hear and comprehend information without it being communicated to
them directly.

675. Which of the following is NOT included on information radiators?

a) Work breakdown
b) Project status
c) Automated build report
d) Performance analysis of team members

Explanation: Information radiators may display the work breakdown, project status,
and automated build report, but not the performance analysis of individual team
members.

676. Spike solutions are small experiments to answer a question and determine a
path forward. Which of the following types of spikes will you use if you need to
test an approach to solve a particular problem?
a) Development spikes
b) Design spikes
c) Scheduling spikes
d) Iteration spikes

Explanation: A design spike is used to test the appropriateness of a particular

solution or approach.

677. Which of the following statements about lean, Kanban and agile is not true?
a) Lean thinking is a superset that encompasses both Kanban and agile
approaches.
b) Kanban approaches are less prescriptive than agile methods as it advocates
"start where you are".
c) Agile methods are a superset that include both lean and Kanban.
d) Agile approaches encompass many approaches like scrum, DSDM, etc.

Explanation: Lean thinking is the superset of agile and Kanban methods, not the
other way around.

678. A team is experiencing conflict while solving a particular issue. It can be said that
the level of conflict is 1 (a problem to solve). What is the appropriate response
option at this level?
a) Collaboration and consensus
b) Accommodate
c) Safety
d) Root case analysis

Explanation: Successful response options at level 1 are collaboration and

consensus.
679. As per the Kano model of customer satisfaction, which features are most
important for the product to be ready for the marketplace?
a) Exciters
b) Linear Features
c) Delighters
d) Threshold

Explanation: Threshold features are the must-have features present in the product.

680. A predictive life cycle uses the traditional approach to project management. All
activities are performed in sequence and typically only once throughout the
project. The predictive life cycle is suitable when:
a) Requirements are highly dynamic.
b) Small deliveries are frequently required.
c) Requirements are more or less fixed.
d) The solution is repeated until it is correct.

Explanation: Predictive life cycles are best when requirements are more or less
fixed.

681. A pharmaceutical product development process includes getting a mandatory

FDA approval at the end. What would you recommend as an agile coach for the
team?
a) A hybrid process should be used in which the development is agile but the
approval process is linear or predictive
b) Agile should not be applied to projects when regulatory approvals are necessary
c) Modify the process to get regulatory approvals in the middle of the life cycle
d) Write a separate story for the regulatory requirements and schedule it
throughout the life cycle

Explanation: As an agile coach, you should recommend the use of a hybrid process
in which the development is agile but the approval process is linear or predictive.

682. The primary difference between iteration-based agile and flow-based agile is
that:
a) Iteration-based agile may have different iteration durations for each feature
b) Flow-based agile is based on time boxed iterations
c) Flow-based agile may have different iteration durations for each feature
d) Iteration-based agile relies more on feature teams

Explanation: Flow-based agile relies on teams picking up features for development

and completing them based on their ability - rather than fixed set of time boxes.

683. A team facilitator in an agile team is an example of a servant leader. Which of the
following is not a servant leader's responsibility?
a) Enabling people to contribute
b) Ensuring that the team delivers on commitments
 c) Removing impediments
d) Facilitating collaboration

Explanation: Servant leaders help, unblock, and enable, but they do not ensure that
the team delivers on commitments.

684. To detect problems at the process level, the team uses a questionnaire that lists
required elements and qualities that are the basic ingredients of agile. Using it, we
can estimate the maturity of the agile process in the organization and how well
the team follows the agile process. This questionnaire is referred to as:
a) Health check
b) Compliance requirement
c) Audit
d) Acceptance criteria

Explanation: The questionnaire is referred to as a health check.

685. Extreme programming is a collection of practices that enable high quality

products. Which of the following is NOT one of the XP Practices?
a) Programmer welfare
b) Shared understanding
c) Fine-scale feedback
d) MoSCoW prioritization

Explanation: MoSCoW is a part of the DSDM method.

686. What is the primary output of the sprint planning meeting?

a) Sprint backlog
b) Product backlog
c) Working product
d) Refined product backlog

Explanation: The outcome of the sprint planning meeting is the sprint backlog.

687. When would you consider changing the team composition of an agile team?
a) When the team lacks a critical skill that is needed to deliver a product
b) When the functional manager wants to replace a team member
c) When the team wants to add or remove members
d) When the project is completed and a new project is about to start

Explanation: The team needs all the skills required to complete the product
increment.

688. At a retrospective meeting, few issues are highlighted by the team. Who is
responsible for solving the issues?
a) Scrum master
b) Product owner
c) Stakeholders
 d) Team

Explanation: Agile teams are self-organizing and need to find solutions to their
problems.

689. Which of the following is NOT done as part of planning in agile project
management?
a) Risk management
b) Product vision
c) Buffer and slack management
d) Done-done

Explanation: The term done-done is used when the user story that the team is
developing is completed. Done-done is part of releasing, not planning.

690. An important criterion for an agile team is to understand the market which is
served by the product that they are working on. Which of the following best
describes Horizontal Market Software?
a) Developed for many organizations
b) Developed and used across many industries
c) Developed for a dedicated customer
d) Developed for one organization

Explanation: Horizontal Market Software is intended to be used across a wide

range of industries.

691. What is the best indicator of progress in a project?

a) Completion of a sprint
b) Delivery of working product increment
c) Delivering all the committed features
d) Releasing on schedule and within budget

Explanation: Working software and delivery of working product increment is the

primary measure of progress.

692. An agile method is both incremental and iterative. What is the primary value of
an iterative life cycle?
a) Allows faster delivery of value
b) Allows the team to reflect on feedback and correct issues
c) Makes it easier to develop
d) Reduces overall cost of development

Explanation: The iterative nature of the life cycle allows the team to inspect and
adapt.

693. What is the process of adding more details as they become better defined during
planning called?
a) Burndown chart
 b) Release
c) Rolling wave
d) Roadmap

Explanation: The process of planning in waves as project details become more

defined is called rolling wave.

694. A team finds that the process of integrating a complex product is always
problematic and time consuming. Which of the following approaches will help
solve the problem?
a) Delay the integration until all the components have been fully developed
b) Move towards a continuous integration setup
c) Appoint a separate team for integration
d) Note the integration risk and make allowances in the plan

Explanation: Continuous integration will help detect and solve integration issues
early in the life cycle.

695. Which report should NOT be shared with your stakeholders?

a) Defect reports
b) Status reports
c) Throughput reports
d) SLOC reports

Explanation: Source Lines of Code (SLOC) reports should not be shared with your
stakeholders as they are flawed productivity metrics.

696. In a complex product consisting of multiple components and subcomponents,

the vast majority of tests should be:
a) Unit tests
b) Acceptance tests
c) Exploratory tests
d) Usability tests

Explanation: The vast majority of tests for any product should be unit tests.

697. A retrospective can be as short as 15 minutes or as long as 3 hours. The duration

of the retrospective can be dependent on all of the following except:
a) Length of the iteration
b) Level of conflict or controversy
c) Size of the team
d) Participation of the functional managers

Explanation: Functional managers ideally should not participate in the

retrospectives as it may impede the free flow of ideas and feedback.
698. A team wants to increase the duration of the iteration. The coach of the team
doesn’t agree. What would be a scenario where increasing the iteration duration
may be justified?
a) When there is a recurring problem that causes the iteration goal to be
compromised
b) When the team has too many dependencies on others
c) When the team lacks technical competence to complete the iteration on time
d) When the iteration demos are critical delivery milestones

Explanation: When the problem impacting the completion of the iteration is a

recurring one, the team could consider increasing the duration of the iteration.

699. What is a valid scenario for a product owner to cancel a sprint or iteration?
a) When the team is not on track to complete the deliverables
b) When the iteration backlog is no longer valuable to the customer due to a
major change
c) When the product owner wants a different feature instead of those that are
planned
d) When the customer changes the priorities of the backlog

Explanation: When the entire iteration backlog becomes useless, it may be worth
cancelling an iteration and starting a new one with revised priorities.

700. Activities are timeboxed processes that help the team move through the phases
of a retrospective. Activities provide structure to help your team think together
and have several advantages over freewheeling discussion. Activities do not have
to be elaborate to be effective. Which of the following are NOT examples of
activities that are useful in retrospectives?
a) Brainstorming
b) Voting with dots
c) Pair interviews
d) Synergy

Explanation: Activities do not have to be elaborate to be effective. Examples of

activities that are useful in retrospectives include brainstorming, voting with dots,
doing check-ins, and performing pair interviews.

701. For a retrospective meeting, the seating arrangement should be such that there
is enough space for people to move comfortably. Which of the following is a
suitable seating arrangement for a retrospective meeting?
a) Circle or semicircle of chairs
b) Theatre-style arrangement
c) Tables arranged in U-shape
d) Meeting room
 Explanation: A circle or semicircle of chairs encourages participation because
people can see each other. Classroom or theater-style arrangements stifle
participation. Staring at the back of someone else head is not conducive to
conversation. Tables can be a physical barrier that becomes a psychological barrier.
Avoid rooms with an immovable conference table in the middle. That big table will
inhibit creative collaboration. This is not a board meeting, after all. Tables arranged
in a U-shape with a big gulf in the middle create distance and make it hard to move
around.

702. Which of the following is most helpful in implementing collective code ownership
in a team?
a) Version control
b) Pair programming
c) Continuous integration
d) Probability distribution

Explanation: Pair programming is helpful in implementing collective code

ownership in a team.

703. How do you best describe the primary role of an agile leader?
a) Manage WBS, schedule, and cost of project
b) Manage stakeholders
c) Manage work allocation to team members
d) Manage teams without managing their tasks

Explanation: Agile leaders do not have to manage the tasks of the team members.

704. Which of the following is NOT a critical skill for a product owner of a team?
a) Business acumen
b) Communication skills
c) Ability to generate consensus
d) Technical excellence

Explanation: Technical excellence is not necessary for the PO as they can rely on
the team for technical abilities.

705. Performing agile development in geographically distributed teams is a challenge

in itself. Which of the following is an arrangement that will help them overcome
communication challenges?
a) Fishbowl window - with long live video conferences
b) Formal communication through designated representatives only
c) Restricting access to each other's repositories across locations
d) Following more waterfall practices in distributed teams

Explanation: Modern communication tools help geographically dispersed teams

overcome challenges in agile teams.
706. Who performs value point estimating?
a) Finance team
b) Scrum team
c) Product team
d) Development team

Explanation: Value point estimation is done by the product team.

707. In the absence of the product owner, who should assume the product owner's
responsibilities at the sprint planning meeting?
a) Scrum master
b) Team
c) Person selected by the product owner
d) Person selected by the team

Explanation: When the product owner is not present, the scrum master should take
the responsibility to prepare the product backlog in the sprint planning meeting.

708. Who has the role of refocusing the team when they have drifted away from agile
practices?
a) The functional manager
b) The team facilitator
c) The product owner
d) The cross functional project team

Explanation: It is the job of the team facilitator to remind the team about agile
practices.

709. The agile team has collective responsibility of the following, except
_________________.
a) The quality of the product
b) The code
c) The product vision
d) The speed at which stories are completed

Explanation: The product owner maintains the product vision.

710. After an iteration is planned, who manages the iteration backlog?

a) The team
b) The sponsor
c) The product owner
d) The scrum master

Explanation: The team manages the iteration backlog and the product owner
manages the product backlog.
711. An important characteristic of any project (including agile projects) is progressive
elaboration. Progressive elaboration is used to:
a) Document all the requirements at once
b) Detail progress on the project
c) Gather characteristics of the product over time
d) Test the requirements

Explanation: Progressive elaboration is used to gather characteristics of the

product over time.

712. Effective project management starts with the definition of requirements. In agile
projects, requirements are expressed from the user perspective in the form of
user stories. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of good user stories as per
the INVEST model?
a) Negotiable
b) Acceptable
c) Testable
d) Estimable

Explanation: INVEST stands for independent, negotiable, valuable, estimable, small,

and testable.

713. An agile team is both cross functional and empowered. Which of the following is
not one of the characteristics of an agile team?
a) Decision-making manager
b) Clear communication
c) Customer involvement
d) Shared vision

Explanation: Empowered teams do not require a manager to make decisions. The

teams cooperate with each other to make decisions.

714. Quality management in agile projects focuses on both verification and validation.
Ensuring that the functionality meets specifications is _________________.
a) Review
b) Ad-hoc testing
c) Verification
d) Validation

Explanation: Verification ensures that the functionality meets specifications.

715. One of the important purposes of retrospective meetings is:

a) Planning
b) Doing work
c) Checking compliance
d) Continuous improvement
 Explanation: Retrospectives enable continuous improvement.

716. Daily stand-up meetings are used by most agile teams. These meetings should
be:
a) Used for the manager to tell the team what to do
b) Kept short and to the point
c) Used to stand-up the software implementation
d) Used to review weekly project status

Explanation: Stand-ups should be kept short and to the point and only held when
necessary.

717. The velocity of a team is an important metric for enabling reliability in planning.
Velocity refers to _________________.
a) The number of story points that a team can complete in an iteration
b) How fast the pair of programmers can switch off between programming and
integration
c) The number of fixes the team can make in an iteration
d) The number of story points that a team can complete in a release

Explanation: Velocity is the number of story points that a team can complete in an
iteration.

718. Kanban is a popular system for managing work that originated from the Toyota
Production System. The closest synonym for Kanban is _________________.
a) Process
b) Signal
c) Pull
d) Box

Explanation: Kanban is the Japanese word for signal.

719. Agile teams should focus on delivering value early. This means that they should:
a) Keep options open to improve the ability to respond to change
b) Be empowered to make decisions
c) Deliver working features as quickly as possible
d) Refactor the code frequently

Explanation: Agile teams should focus on delivering value even in the earlier phases
of a project. This can be done by delivering working features at every iteration.

720. A project has a firm delivery deadline. Which of the following will be most helpful
in managing the project?
a) Timeboxing
b) Decomposition
c) Detailed planning upfront
d) Using ideal time
 Explanation: Timeboxing is the practice of limiting the time available and delivering
in short time windows.

721. A chicken stakeholder in an agile project is _________________.

a) Someone who is committed
b) A stakeholder who refuses to get involved
c) Someone who is involved
d) Part of the core team

Explanation: A chicken is someone who is involved, but not committed. Chickens

should not be on the core team but may give inputs.

722. In an agile project, which of the following is more important than processes and
tools?
a) Individuals and interactions
b) Comprehensive documentation
c) Working product
d) Responding to change

Explanation: As per the agile manifesto, individuals and interactions are more
important than processes and tools.

723. A team is developing a product using the agile methodology. The customer is
very particular about quality and will not easily forgive any mistakes in
development. How should the team proceed with development?
a) Spend a lot of time in planning up-front and establish delivery milestones
b) Plan frequent demos to get customer feedback
c) Get a detailed design approved by the customer before developing
d) Set up a continuous integration system before starting development

Explanation: "Inspect and adapt" is an important principle that advocates early

direction validation.

724. A team member states that a high priority user story is too complex and it is
difficult to provide an estimate for it or to complete it in one iteration. How should
the team respond?
a) Drop the story and replace it with a simpler one
b) Give a couple of iterations to complete the story instead of one
c) Break the story into a spike and implementation story
d) Accept the story for the iteration as a "stretch goal"

Explanation: Decomposing the story into a spike and implementation story is a

sensible idea when a story is too complex.

725. One of the patterns of writing good code is DRY (Don't Repeat Yourself). What
does this mean?
a) Keep agile meetings focused
 b) Write a user story only once
c) Keep common code in one place for easy maintenance
d) Never assign the same name for more than one variable

Explanation: DRY is an acronym for Don't Repeat Yourself. It is a reminder to

maximize the work not done.

726. A very large story that may span several iterations is _________________.
a) Very difficult to implement
b) An epic story
c) Requires a large team
d) Should be dissected before starting iterations

Explanation: An epic story is a very large story that may span iterations.

727. Engaging stakeholders early and often is an important facet of an agile project.
Which of the following is the best ways to involve external stakeholders?
a) Invite them for the iteration demos
b) Take their inputs for planning iterations
c) Consulting them during iteration retrospectives
d) Selectively calling them for the daily stand-up meetings

Explanation: Stakeholder inputs are sought during iteration demos. The other
forums are more appropriate for the team.

728. Incremental life cycles are often employed by teams working on product delivery.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of incremental life cycles?
a) Prioritization of functionality
b) Planning everything up-front
c) Delivering value quickly
d) The customer working with the system before the project is complete

Explanation: Incremental delivery does not involve planning everything up-front.

729. What role does the sponsor play in an agile project?

a) Provides project funding and resources
b) Decides on product features and functions
c) Approves a high-level project plan
d) Helps define customer value

Explanation: The role of a sponsor in an agile project is to provide funding and

resources.

730. Each release in an agile project is made up of _________________.

a) One or more iterations
b) A waterfall process
c) Multiple approvals from stakeholders
d) A detailed plan
 Explanation: A release, by definition, is made up of one or more iterations.

731. Information about stakeholders should be captured in a _________________.

a) Requirements document
b) Project charter
c) Stakeholder register
d) Project plan

Explanation: The stakeholder register is the place to store relevant information

about stakeholders.

732. If the uncertainty about requirements and technology is low and detailed
planning is desirable, which methodology is useful?
a) Extreme
b) Waterfall
c) Scrum
d) Lean

Explanation: The waterfall methodology favors heavy up-front planning in order to

remove project uncertainty.

733. At what stage in a project does an agile team produce a release plan?
a) Envisioning
b) Speculation
c) Exploration
d) A release plan is not produced in an agile project

Explanation: The available information is used to produce a release plan in the

speculation stage.

734. Which value is NOT in the Agile Manifesto?

a) Comprehensive documentation
b) Process improvement
c) Contract negotiation
d) Processes and tools

Explanation: The values of the Agile Manifesto are: individuals and interactions over
processes and tools, working software over comprehensive documentation,
customer collaboration over contract negotiation, and responding to change over
following a plan.

735. A definition of done clarifies when a particular work item can be marked as
"done". When does the definition of done need to be defined?
a) At the end of the project
b) Just prior to the testing phase of the project
c) At the beginning of the project
d) In the middle of the project
 Explanation: The definition of done needs to be defined very early in the project.

736. A team agrees that all project-related emails will be cc'd to the entire
development team. This is an example of:
a) Team building
b) Organizational mandate
c) Compliance requirement
d) Ground rules

Explanation: Ground rules are rules that each team member is expected to follow.

737. The role of the product owner in an agile project is to _________________.

a) Run the business
b) Choose the stakeholders to participate in the project
c) Act as a single point of contact from the stakeholders to the agile
project team
d) Finance the agile project

Explanation: The role of the product owner is to act as a single point of contact
for the agile project team right from the stakeholders.

738. Extreme programming is a system of practices that lets you create high quality
products. Which of the following is NOT a practice of XP?
a) Planning game
b) Planning Poker
c) Refactoring
d) Small releases

Explanation: Planning Poker is not a practice of XP. It is an estimation

techniques.

739. "See the whole" is a lean principle. The purpose of seeing is _________________ .
a) Focus on the big picture and optimize globally
b) Involve the whole team in every problem
c) Ensure that the team is continuously learning and improving
d) Empower the team

Explanation: Lean recommends focusing on the big picture and look for global
optimization rather than local optimization

740. Creating focus while working is an important productivity enabler in an agile

workspace. Reducing or eliminating distractions is an example of _________________.
a) The cone of silence
b) Removal of problems
c) Information Refrigerator
d) Closed work area

Explanation: The cone of silence refers to reducing or eliminating distractions.

741. Which of the following is NOT a practice of agile management?
a) Empowerment
b) Self-organizing teams
c) Command and control
d) Scrum

Explanation: Command and control is a traditional principle where the decisions

are made by individuals higher up in the organizational chart.

742. A spike is _________________.

a) A problem in the way of completing work
b) An experiment designed to help the team decide the next step
c) A team member who determines the course of action
d) Growth period in the project

Explanation: A spike is an experiment that is designed to help the team

determine the next step and is a throwaway work.

743. Who is ultimately responsible for the team regularly refining the product backlog
and has a clear set of requirements to work according to?
a) The product owner
b) The scrum master
c) The development team
d) The project manager

Explanation: The product owner is responsible for making sure the backlog is in
good shape and that backlog refinement is taking place regularly.

744. While planning a product release spanning across several iterations, which of the
following should be a logical first step?
a) Decompose the epics into smaller, more granular stories
b) Define the conditions of satisfaction or goals of the release
c) Estimate the stories
d) Prioritize the targeted stories

Explanation: Defining the release goals should be the logical first step.

745. A team is working on a product on behalf of a supplier organization, which is in

turn working on a contract with a customer. The team should share the burndown
charts and other progress indicators with ___________.
a) All the relevant stakeholders
b) The team, team facilitator, and product owner
c) The supplier organization
d) The customer organization discreetly

Explanation: Transparency in sharing progress information is important.

746. A theme is a group of _________________.

 a) Related stories
b) Iterations
c) Releases
d) Features

Explanation: A theme is a group of related stories.

747. While agile is a good way of working for most teams, there are some formidable
challenges in practising agile. The most important organizational challenge facing
an agile team is:
a) Complex technology
b) Lack of experienced team members
c) Geographically dispersed teams
d) Presence of an influential sponsor

Explanation: Geographically dispersed teams make life difficult for an agile

team.

748. A charter gives the project manager authority to begin a project. What types of
projects should begin with a charter?
a) Scrum projects
b) Waterfall projects
c) Agile projects
d) All types of projects

Explanation: All types of projects should have a charter to formally begin them.

749. After 3 iterations, an agile team found that the earned value was $1500 while the
planned value was $1200. What is the cost variance?
a) -$300
b) Can't be said
c) $300
d) $0

Explanation: Cost variance requires knowledge of the earned value and actual
cost. Since actual cost is not given, no inference can be drawn about the cost
variance.

750. A team performing the retrospective is trying to determine the root causes of a
failed iteration. Which of the following techniques will be useful to them?
a) Affinity diagrams
b) Five whys
c) Burn rate chart
d) Skeleton diagram

Explanation: The five whys technique and the cause and effect diagram are
useful in root cause analysis.
751. In which year was the Agile Manifesto developed?
a) 1989
b) 2004
c) 2001
d) 2006

Explanation: The Agile Manifesto was developed in 2001.

752. Story point, as a size measure, relies on the principle of relative sizing. This
means that _________________.
a) Similar stories are grouped together
b) A precise estimate is arrived at for each story
c) An estimate is given only after performing a complete analysis of user stories
d) One user story size is ranked in relation to another user story

Explanation: In relative sizing, the size of a user story is estimated in relation to

another user story.

753. What term or phrase means a team should make decisions as late as possible in
order to preserve all options for as long as possible?
a) Negotiation
b) Backlog
c) Last responsible moment
d) Refactoring

Explanation: Last responsible moment means that a team should make

decisions as late as possible in order to preserve all options for as long as
possible.

754. During which meeting is the team likely to revisit its working agreement?
a) The review meeting
b) The retrospection meeting
c) The sprint planning meeting
d) The daily Meeting

Explanation: The team is likely to revisit its working agreement during the
retrospection meeting.

755. One of the lean principles is to decide as late as possible. This means
_________________.
a) Keep options open for better ability to respond to change
b) Deliver functionality as quickly as possible
c) Empower the team to make decisions
d) Refactor the code

Explanation: Deciding as late as possible helps keep options open, which

improves the ability to respond to change.
756. Swarming is the act of _________________.
a) Deploying the entire team on a single user story
b) Buzzing around the solution
c) Grouping user stories together
d) Reacting to change

Explanation: Swarming refers to placing the entire team on a single user story.

757. Test-driven development relies on having an executable test before any code is
written. What kind of testing is TDD most suitable for?
a) Integration testing
b) Regression testing
c) Unit testing
d) Ad-hoc testing

Explanation: TDD is most suitable for unit testing.

758. A team member estimated to complete a user story in four days with no
interruptions. The team member is _________________.
a) Timeboxing the user story
b) Giving an ideal time
c) Not following agile principles
d) Decomposing

Explanation: Ideal time is an estimate of time without interruptions or

distractions.

759. Which of these do you need to implement agile projects?

a) Planning
b) A large team
c) Hierarchical managers and team
d) Cross-functional teams

Explanation: Planning is required when using the agile methodology. There is

no excuse for chaos.

760. Which of the following is represented in the Y-axis of a burnup chart?

a) Time
b) Completed work
c) Resources
d) Quality

Explanation: The burnup chart shows story points on the Y-axis, which refers to
completed work.

761. The main advantage of continuous integration is that:

a) Feedback is received quickly and code is integrated at all times
 b) Knowledge is spread across the team
c) Good quality code is written
d) Deliveries are continuous

Explanation: Continuous integration provides instant feedback on every change.

762. Which of the following estimation scales is most appropriate for a team
performing story pointing?
a) 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, 34, 55, 89
b) 1, 3, 5,7, 9, 11, 13, 15
c) 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12
d) 1, 10, 100, 1000, 10000

Explanation: The Fibonacci sequence is frequently used as an estimation scale

by agile teams.

763. Which of the following is an important prerequisite for continuous integration?

a) A mature team
b) Co-located teams
c) A fast build process
d) Error free code

Explanation: A fast build process is essential for continuous integration.

764. Traditional managers view the plan as the goal, whereas agile leaders view
________________ as the goal.
a) Release
b) Customer value
c) Common sense
d) Backlog

Explanation: Agile leaders view customer value as the goal.

765. An information radiator is an artifact that radiates information and keeps

everybody well-informed. The information radiator should do the following,
except _________________.
a) Be kept in a closed space
b) Be updated regularly
c) Posted publicly
d) Show important information

Explanation: The information radiator should be visible to everyone and must

be in the open.

766. A sign of a bad agile team space is:

a) No partitions
b) Lack of conversation
c) Healthy food and drink in the pantry
 d) Private spaces for private work

Explanation: Lack of conversation is a sign of a bad agile team space.

767. A team is making use of a flow-based agile practice that takes up a certain piece
of work at a time and completes it - no matter how long it takes. Such a team is
most likely to be:
a) Cross functional team
b) Component team
c) Feature team
d) Self-empowered team

Explanation: A feature team makes use of a flow-based agile practice that takes
up a certain piece of work at a time and completes it - no matter how long it
takes.

768. One of the recommended XP practices is continuous refactoring. The purpose of

refactoring is to _________________.
a) Create multiple solution factors
b) Redesign the process
c) Determine the root cause
d) Make the code more maintainable

Explanation: The purpose of refactoring is to reorganize the code and make it

more maintainable.

769. You constructed a building valued at $750,000, which cost $500,000 to build. The
net present value is _________________.
a) $1,250,000
b) $0
c) $250,000
d) $750,000

Explanation: The net present value equals $750,000 - $500,000 = $250,000.

770. Which one of the following options is NOT a primary role in scrum?
a) Scrum master
b) Project manager
c) Product owner
d) Team

Explanation: The three primary roles of scrum are product owner, team, and
scrum master.

771. What is the primary objective of amplify learning?

a) Ensuring that the team is continuously learning and improving
b) Creating a unified solution
c) Aligning the code conceptually with the solution
 d) Empowering the team

Explanation: Amplify learning makes sure that the team is continuously

learning and improving.

772. What is the main objective of lean?

a) See the whole
b) Empower the team
c) Amplify learning
d) Eliminate waste

Explanation: The main objective of lean is to eliminate waste.

773. The discount rate at which the present value of benefits equals the present value
of costs is known as the ____________.
a) NPV
b) BCR
c) IRR
d) ROI

Explanation: The IRR is the internal rate of return. It is the rate of discounting at
which the present value of benefits is equal to the present value of costs.

774. An agile team is discussing the pros and cons of a system change during a
retrospective meeting. To help them with this process, the coach should ask them
to use _________________.
a) Cause and effect diagram
b) Force field analysis
c) Brainstorming
d) Pareto diagram

Explanation: The force field diagram is used to understand the forces for and
against a system change.

775. Ensuring quality of a product also involves ensuring that the product does what it
was intended to do. This is known as _________________.
a) Quality control
b) Testing
c) Verification
d) Validation

Explanation: Validation makes sure that the product does what it was intended
to do.

776. Agile project management does NOT focus on _________________.

a) Prioritizing the work so that the most important work gets done
b) Providing product direction
 c) Setting up the team and ensuring they have the right environment to
work in
d) Delivering value to the customer

Explanation: Agile project management uses a different approach that focuses

more on enablement.

777. Wideband Delphi estimating has all of the following attributes, except
_________________.
a) Using large numbers of experts
b) Creating group thinking
c) Preparing estimates away from the group
d) Experts discussing ranges of estimates

Explanation: Wideband Delphi estimating is used to reduce group thinking by

anonymously obtaining estimates.

778. A team found that they will not be able to complete all the stories they
committed to in one of the iterations. What is the best thing to do?
a) Let the product owner know and request for reordering of the items
planned
b) Work overtime to complete the goals
c) Extend the iteraton to complete the required items
d) Accept fewer stories in the next iteration

Explanation: It is sensible to reassess priorities and complete at least the most

important items.

779. The risk burndown chart is _________________.

a) The number of reduced risks on a project
b) Where the risk to project success that is associated with each feature is
displayed
c) Shows the number of resources that are used in the Agile project
d) Amount of mitigation needed to handle risks

Explanation: The risk burndown chart is where the risk to project success that is
associated with each feature is displayed.

780. A one-year project executed using agile methods is in the last iteration when a
major change was requested by the customer. What should the team do?
a) Add it to the backlog and figure out a way to accommodate the change
b) Include the request in the backlog for the next release
c) Request the customer to withdraw the change until the current project is
completed
d) Add few sprints to the project to include the change

Explanation: Changes are expected and accepted in the agile process.

781. A scrum-of-scrum is a forum for integrating the work of multiple scrum teams
working on the same product. Which of the following is NOT included in a scrum-
of-scrums?
a) Progress discussion
b) Coordination of multiple teams
c) Attendance by the scrum master
d) Product demos and feedback by stakeholders

Explanation: Scrum-of-scrums includes discussions of progress and

coordination of multiple teams and are attended by the scrum master. This
technique is used to scale very large scrum projects.

782. The customer is the most important part of agile management. What is the most
important role of the customer in an agile team?
a) Write the requirements for the product
b) Manage changes in the product backlog
c) Provide timely feedback about the product
d) Test the product to make sure it meets requirements

Explanation: Customers must be closely involved in agile development because

their feedback is useful in improving product functionality.

783. A sprint is a timebox. It is also called an iteration. Which of the following is the
most important factor in determining the appropriate sprint duration for a team?
a) Industry standard of sprint durations across different organizations
b) Ease of getting feedback from the customer
c) The average time taken to complete the largest of product features
d) The velocity of the team

Explanation: Ease of getting feedback from the stakeholders is an important

factor in determining the sprint duration.

784. An organization is wondering whether there is any point in estimating the

features of a project that has a fixed deadline. What is a prudent approach in this
situation?
a) Use the estimates that were provided during the bidding process as a
guideline for making the project plan
b) Renegotiate the deadline with the customer on the basis of detailed
estimation
c) Use relative weights technique to arrive at a reasonable plan
d) Team needs to estimate the work to determine the feasibility, negotiate
features, and decide the timeline.

Explanation: Estimation is a must to ensure that plans are reasonably made.

785. A team completed 8 out of 10 stories committed during an iteration. What should
be done about the remaining 2 stories?
 a) It should be moved to the next iteration
b) It should be moved back to the product backlog
c) The team should extend the iteration to complete them
d) The team should plan a special short sprint to complete the two items

Explanation: The incomplete items go back to the product backlog.

786. A product owner is an important stakeholder in an agile team. Which of the

common agile events or meetings is optional for the product owner to attend?
a) Iteration planning meeting
b) Daily stand-up meeting
c) Iteration retrospective
d) Release planning meeting

Explanation: The daily stand-up meeting is optional for the product owner.
However, if the team requests, the product owner should attend.

787. An agile project was completing the third (out of ten planned) iteration. After
reviewing the progress during an iteration demo, the customer requested that
they would like to start using the product as it is. What should the team do?
a) Make the product available to the customer with appropriate quality
checks
b) Tell the customer that the product will be released only after ten
iterations as planned
c) Ask the customer to make a formal request and put it in front of the senior
management
d) Release the product but tell the customer that no liabilities will be accepted if
it does not perform as expected

Explanation: Every iteration should have a releasable product.

788. An agile project was completing the third (out of ten planned) iterations. After
reviewing the progress during an iteration demo, the customer requested that
they would like to start using the product as it is. Who is responsible for making a
decision about this request?
a) Team facilitator
b) Team
c) Product owner
d) Senior management

Explanation: Product owner is responsible for making product release decisions

789. A timeboxed period when the team prepares for a project and makes high-level
technical choices and release plans is called:
a) Hardening iteration
b) Iteration zero
c) Beta project release
 d) Sprint planning

Explanation: Iteration zero is used to prepare for a long project.

790. Which of the following prioritization schemes explicitly specifies which work
items will not be worked on?
a) MoSCoW
b) Kano model
c) Relative weights
d) Value-based prioritization

Explanation: W in MoSCoW stands for Won't. It highlights the features that will
not be worked on in a given timebox.

791. In a burndown bar chart, the movement in the bottom of the bars indicate:
a) Work added or removed to a project
b) Work added or removed to an iteration
c) Work remaining in the project
d) Work completed in an iteration

Explanation: Movement in the bottom of the burndown bar chart indicates

work that is added to or removed from a project.

792. A team found that the CPI was 0.9 and the SPI was 1.1 after 4 iterations. This
means that the project is:
a) By and large on track
b) Ahead of schedule and under budget
c) Ahead of schedule and over budget
d) Behind schedule and over budget

Explanation: CPI < 1 means that project is over budget; SPI > 1 means that the
project is ahead of schedule.

793. Managers, who participate with the team, are hands-on in projects, and get
involved with the team every day, are _________________.
a) Adaptive leaders
b) Servant leaders
c) Directive leaders
d) Active leaders

Explanation: A servant leader is someone, who participates with the team, is

hands-on in projects, and gets involved with the team daily.

794. A user story is often written on a physical card called a story card. The main
advantage of the story card is that:
a) It limits the space available and forces the author to be brief and to the
point
b) It prevents the possibility of changing the story at a later date
 c) It allows to discard stories that don’t add value
d) It prevents an electronic audit trail that may be problematic in a compliance-
heavy environment

Explanation: Story cards are physical and have limited space. Moreover, the act
of writing by hand forces one to reflect deeply before writing a story.

795. A good user story follows the INVEST model and the 3 Cs. Which of the following
is NOT included in a user story?
a) Clear and demonstrated value
b) Technical specifications
c) Scenarios
d) Customer value documentation

Explanation: Users think in terms of value, scenarios, features, and stories.

Technical specifications are used by technical experts and are not in user stories.

796. The return on investment indicates the average savings or profits realized by
making an investment. The main drawback of using RoI as a measure for making
decisions is that:
a) It does not consider the time value of money
b) It does not specify who exactly gets the value
c) It is difficult to calculate
d) It does not say what happens after the savings are realized

Explanation: The return on investment (ROI) is the return made by investing in a

project. The primary drawback of ROI is that it does not consider the time value
of money.

797. Brainstorming is used to generate ideas and get inputs from many people in a
short amount of time. Which of the following is NOT a good practice while
brainstorming?
a) Critiquing ideas when they are being collected
b) Writing down the ideas immediately
c) Allowing people to provide creative ideas
d) Involving the entire team

Explanation: Ideas should only be critiqued after they are collected and not
during the brainstorming process.

798. Making decisions in complex situations is not easy. On agile projects, the
decisions that should be made on a project should be based on _________________.
a) Providing many functions to the customers
b) Giving the customer all the features that they requested
c) Net present value
d) Providing value to the customer
 Explanation: Decisions for a project should be made based on providing value
to the customer.

799. After an iteration began, the product owner wanted to add an important item to
the iteration backlog. How should the team respond?
a) Accept the new item as agile believes in welcoming change
b) Ask the product owner to wait until the next iteration
c) Recommend cancellation of the current iteration
d) Accept the new item as a stretch goal without making any commitment

Explanation: Iteration backlog should be stable to let the team focus and
complete it. The PO can always make changes to upcoming iterations by
reordering the product backlog.

800. Items in product backlog tend to be:

a) Smaller than the items in the sprint backlog
b) Larger than the items in the sprint backlog
c) Usually smaller than sprint backlog items, but depends on the context
d) The same size as the items in the sprint backlog

Explanation: Items in product backlog are usually larger than the items in the
sprint backlog

801. Which of the following cannot be inferred from an agile story map?
a) Order in which the stories are required in the actual user workflow
b) Detailed breakdown of the tasks in each story
c) Minimally marketable features and priorities
d) Suggested order of execution to complete a usable feature

Explanation: Decomposition to level of tasks is not shown in story maps.

802. After the process of refactoring, what step should be performed next?
a) Update documentation
b) Perform root cause analysis
c) Complete regression test
d) Fire the programmer who wrote the original code

Explanation: Refactoring is implemented to reorganize code that has already

been written. After refactoring, a complete regression test is required to ensure
that the updated code behaves as it should.

803. Scrum is among the most popular agile methods. What is the ideal team size of a
scrum team?
a) Over 50 people
b) A single person
c) About 15 team members including product owner and scrum master
 d) About seven people

Explanation: A scrum team should have around three to nine members.

804. Earned value management is a well known project management technique.

Earned value _________________.
a) Can only be used for traditional projects
b) Should never be used for agile projects
c) Can be calculated for agile projects
d) Is too difficult to calculate to be useful

Explanation: Earned value can be calculated for agile projects with some slight
modifications.

805. A Kanban board can be used to show all of the following except _________________.
a) Work in progress
b) Schedule and cost variance
c) High priority work items
d) Who is working on a work item

Explanation: A Kanban board is a WIP view that is posted publicly and shows
important task information.

806. The product roadmap should be used to _________________.

a) Communicate the plan
b) Articulate the product design
c) Determine the path to meet the objectives
d) Document the vision statement

Explanation: The product roadmap is used to communicate the plan on a

moderate level of detail. It communicates more than the vision statement and
less than a release plan.

807. The average velocity of a team is 20, maximum is 25, and minimum is 12. If the
release backlog is 125 points, how many iterations are required to complete the
release?
a) 7
b) 5
c) 6
d) 11

Explanation: 125/20 = 6.25. It rounds off to 7. Seven iterations are required to

complete the release.

808. One of the work items in an agile project is meant to prove compliance with a
regulatory requirement. In terms of the Kano model, this requirement will be
classified as:
a) Exciter
 b) Linear
c) Threshold
d) Utility

Explanation: Compliance on a project is not optional, but is mandatory to

complete the project.

809. War rooms are co-located team spaces where teams get together to work on a
project. The primary benefit of a war room setting is that it:
a) Reduces the stress level of the team
b) Promotes debates about features and functions
c) Makes it easier to manage the team
d) Promotes osmotic communication

Explanation: Osmotic communication is when information is picked up by

merely being in a certain environment. The war room is a good place for this to
happen.

810. An information radiator should do have all of the following characteristics except
it's _________________.
a) Plenty in number
b) Concise
c) Displayed in a public space
d) Transient - removed when irrelevant

Explanation: The information radiators should be few in number.

811. An important metric used in Lean and Kanban teams is the cycle time. The cycle
time is _________________.
a) The number of days to complete a project phase
b) The average time between two agile deliveries
c) The amount of time for a feature to move from start to completion
d) The number of iterations to complete a project

Explanation: Cycle time is the average time between two agile deliveries.

812. Which of the following is not valued highly in the Agile Manifesto?
a) Processes and tools
b) Working software
c) Customer collaboration
d) Responding to change

Explanation: Individuals and interactions, not processes and tools are part of
the Agile Manifesto.

813. If the burndown chart indicates that the team is likely to finish the iteration goals
earlier than planned, what should be done?
a) The team should slow down till the trend is corrected
 b) The team should perform extra checks to improve product quality
c) The team should plan some team building activities to effectively use the
time
d) The team may either finish the iteration early or ask the product owner
to add a few items to the iteration

Explanation: If an iteration finishes early, it is acceptable for the team to pull in

new items or declare an early completion.

814. The X-axis of a burnup chart represents which of the following?

a) Time
b) Functionality
c) Resources
d) Quality

Explanation: The X-axis represents time.

815. A product owner has a habit of detailing every story in the product backlog as
soon as the details become available. The agile coach does not agree with this.
The primary reason for this could be that the backlog should be:
a) Emergent
b) Detailed appropriately
c) Prioritized
d) Estimable

Explanation: Details should be added to the backlog only when the items are
near to being picked up for working

816. The project charter is _________________.

a) Still required in agile
b) Not required in agile
c) Written by the product owner
d) A detailed project document

Explanation: The project charter is still required in agile. The charter is needed
to document and get consensus on the project.

817. Why is daily scrum held at the same time and place?
a) Rooms are not normally available, hence they are booked in advance.
b) The team demands it
c) Consistency reduces complexity and overhead
d) The product owner demands it

Explanation: The daily stand-up meeting is held at the same place and time to
reduce complexity.

818. Which of the following is not an appropriate discussion item at a daily stand-up
meeting?
 a) What has been done since the previous meeting
b) What would be done before the next meeting
c) An approach to improve product performance
d) Blocks and challenges

Explanation: The approach to improve performance is a discussion that should

take place outside of the stand-up.

819. In an agile team, the developer should focus on ______________________ and NOT
______________________.
a) Working software; comprehensive documentation
b) Architecture; lines of code
c) Customer; processes
d) Comprehensive documentation; working software

Explanation: The developer should focus on working software and not

comprehensive documentation.

820. During an agile retrospective, a suggestion came up that would improve the
productivity of the team. However, this requires implementation of a tool that
requires a significant amount of effort. What should be done about this?
a) Document it, but don’t work on it immediately
b) Drop the suggestion and work on simpler suggestions first
c) Discuss with the product owner if the work should be prioritized
d) Ask management to provide funding for the tool

Explanation: The work needs to be discussed with the product owner and
prioritized.

821. The project team released a software to the customers. The escaped defects are
_________________.
a) Ignored by the core team
b) Errors that are discovered by the customer
c) Discovered by the developers
d) Not tracked

Explanation: Escaped defects are errors that are discovered by the customer
and missed during testing and quality control.

822. Cumulative flow diagrams are designed to show _________________.

a) The build-up toward completion as the project progresses
b) The sum of all the resources on a project
c) When to add more people to the project
d) Process flow of the system

Explanation: Cumulative flow diagrams show the build-up toward completion of

the project.
823. On an agile team, each team member is _________________.
a) A generalizing specialist
b) Responsible for their own part
c) A controller of their domain
d) A specialist

Explanation: In agile, team members are collectively responsible for everything

and therefore, can be a generalist.

824. In a value stream mapping exercise, a step is marked either as a value adding
step or waste based on:
a) Whether the step is necessary
b) Whether the step is optimized to the extent possible
c) Whether the step adds to customer value
d) Whether the step is on the critical path

Explanation: Lean manufacturing uses the concept of Value Stream Mapping to

eliminate waste.

825. The main job of the agile coach of a team should be _________________.
a) To bring about appropriate level of Agile tooling
b) To help the team follow the Agile processes
c) To maximize customer value
d) To maximize the work not done

Explanation: The coach is one who keeps the team focused on learning and the
agile processes.

826. The product owner is not comfortable writing a particular user story as the
content is too technical. In such a situation:
a) A technical consultant may be hired to write specific technical stories
b) The product owner may test the story but need not write it
c) The product owner may write it and get it reviewed by the technical team
d) The technical team may write the story and the product owner can
prioritize it

Explanation: It is not necessary that the PO should write all the stories but they
must accept ownership for vetting and prioritizing them.

827. An agile team does not have enough bandwidth to serve the requirements for a
large product and is being expanded. It was decided to form multiple agile teams
to serve the same product. What would be the best way to divide responsibility
among the teams
a) Responsibility for each technical area (for example, databases, UI, reporting)
with a specific team
b) Responsibility according to the team roles (for example, developers, testers,
document writers) with different teams
 c) Responsibility for a specific feature or module with each team
d) Co-located team members who preferably are part of the same team

Explanation: The new team members should be chosen based on interviews

and selections conducted by existing team members.

828. A project manager is tasked with overseeing a software development project.

Upon encountering a key stakeholder from the company in the hallway, the
project manager took advantage of the opportunity to seek their feedback. The
key stakeholder, impressed with the project's progress, urgently asked the project
manager to add a new user story for marketing the product. How should the
project manager respond to this request?
a) Refuse to create the user story since it’s the product owner’s responsibility to
maintain and refine the product backlog
b) Add the user story to the product backlog and let the product owner
decide its priority
c) Welcome the stakeholder’s request and add the user story to the sprint
backlog
d) Add the user story to the product backlog and schedule it for the next sprint
to protect the team from disruptions

Explanation: The project manager should add the user story to the product
backlog and let the product owner decide its priority. The product owner is
responsible for maintaining and refining the product backlog, and they are the
ones who should decide the priority of the user story. The project manager
should not make decisions that are outside their scope of responsibility.

829. A project manager is leading an agile project for the first time. Considering their
choice of the Scrum framework, which of the following describes the project
team?
a) All of the team members are dependent on the Scrum master
b) All of the team members are I-shaped
c) All of the team members have a technical background
d) The team size ranges from three to nine members

Explanation: The right answer is D because the Scrum framework recommends

a team size of three to nine members.

830. A senior business analyst has been appointed to lead the project selection
committee within their organization. After shortlisting a list of projects, the
committee will decide on the project to pursue by evaluating each project's
benefit-to-cost ratio. Which project should the committee opt for?
a) Project A has a BCR of 6:3
b) Project B has a BCR of 6:2
c) Project C has a BCR of 8:2
 d) Project D has a BCR of 3:1

Explanation: Project C has the highest BCR of 8:2, indicating that it will generate
the most benefits for the least cost.

831. A project manager is overseeing an Agile web application project. In the first
sprint, the team completed tasks with story points of 3, 5, 8, and 2, along with
completing half of a 13-story points task. What is the team's velocity?
a) 24.5
b) 18
c) 31
d) 13

Explanation: Velocity is the total number of story points completed in a sprint.

The team completed 3+5+8+2+(13/2) = 18 story points in the first sprint.

832. Faced with a quality concern, a project manager decides to utilize the
_______________, a fundamental quality management tool that applies the 80/20
Rule to pinpoint high-priority defects.
a) Fishbone Diagram
b) Pareto Chart
c) PERT Chart
d) Flowchart

Explanation: The Pareto Chart is a basic quality management tool that uses the
80/20 Rule to identify top-priority defects. It helps to identify the most frequent
defects or issues, which can then be addressed to improve overall quality.

833. A project manager is submitting several potential projects to management for

selection and approval. Given the organization's existing financial constraints, the
project manager has been informed that each project's investment must not
exceed $350,000, with a permissible variation of 5% on either side. The 5% leeway
is a component of:
a) Threats
b) Risks
c) Enterprise Environmental Factors (EEFs)
d) Organizational Process Assets (OPAs)

Explanation: The 5% leeway is a factor that is external to the organization and is

beyond the control of the project manager. Therefore, it is considered an
Enterprise Environmental Factor (EEF).
834. A product owner initiated the day with a sprint planning meeting to discuss and
define the goal and backlog for the forthcoming sprint. Which of the following
accurately describes the sprint planning meeting?
a) A discussion between the cross-functional team members only
b) A discussion between the product owner and the scrum master
c) A discussion between the scrum master and the cross-functional team
members
d) A discussion between the product owner, the scrum master, and the
cross-functional team

Explanation: The sprint planning meeting is a discussion between the product

owner, the scrum master, and the cross-functional team to define the goal and
backlog of the upcoming sprint.

835. A project manager is overseeing a hotel construction project in a foreign country

where corruption is pervasive. Encountering difficulties in obtaining necessary
construction permits from local authorities, a team member suggested offering a
bribe to the local officials to expedite the process and ensure smooth project
execution. How should the project manager react?
a) Refuse to give a bribe
b) Give the smallest amount of money possible
c) Negotiate a non-monetary bribe
d) Ask the team member to give the bribe on their behalf

Explanation: Giving a bribe is illegal and unethical. Project managers should

always act with integrity and follow the laws and regulations of the country they
are working in. Refusing to give a bribe is the right thing to do in this situation.

836. A project manager was assigned to a park redevelopment project, encompassing

the cleaning and enhancement of the park for the benefit of local families and
residents. Due to the project's multiple phases and various tasks, it involves a lot
of stakeholders. What should the project manager do?
a) Disregard low-power stakeholders
b) Only engage the high-interest stakeholders
c) Analyze all stakeholders in order to prioritize engagement
d) Report the issue to the project sponsor

Explanation: The project manager should analyze all stakeholders in order to

prioritize engagement because it is important to identify all stakeholders and
their level of interest and power in the project. This will help the project manager
prioritize engagement and ensure that all stakeholders are satisfied with the
project outcome.
837. A product owner for a high-quality clothing project joins a meeting with the
project team and other key stakeholders to assess a demonstration of a produced
deliverable. This type of meeting is conducted in accordance with the
________________ approach, which is iteration-based Agile.
a) At the beginning of every iteration
b) At the end of every iteration
c) At the end of the project
d) At the start of the project

Explanation: Since the project adopts an iteration-based Agile approach, this

type of meeting is held at the end of every iteration to review the produced
deliverables.

838. MomentumCo is a company operating in the Oil and Gas industry. They had
signed a subcontracting agreement with GlobalTech Solutions to obtain experts,
technical know-how, and mechanical spare parts. Since MomentumCo's projects
involve constructing innovative high-tech machines, the specific details of the work
are not clear. In this situation, what type of contract should they enter into with
GlobalTech Solutions?
a) Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)
b) Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF)
c) Time & Materials (T&M)
d) Firm Fixed Price (FFP)

Explanation: Since the exact description of the work involved is not clear, Time
& Materials (T&M) contract should be signed with SPM Inc. This type of contract
is used when the scope of work is not clear and the buyer wants to have
flexibility in terms of the amount of work to be done and the resources required
to complete the work.

839. Tasked with leading a significant project crucial to their organization, a project
manager is under pressure to avoid any delays in completion. Upon obtaining the
signed project charter, the project manager begins the process of identifying and
categorizing stakeholders, employing various data representation tools. Which of
the following tools can the project manager utilize? (Choose three)
a) Brainwriting
b) Stakeholder cube
c) Direction of influence
d) Salience model

Explanation: The project manager can use the stakeholder cube to categorize
stakeholders based on their level of interest, power, and influence. The direction
of influence tool can be used to identify the direction of influence between
 stakeholders. The salience model can be used to prioritize stakeholders based
on their power, urgency, and legitimacy.

840. A project manager decides to obtain his PMP certification within two months. He
creates the following exam preparation plan: dedicating 4 weeks to studying,
taking mock practice tests in weeks 5 and 6, and then taking the 7th week off
before the exam in week 8. However, at the conclusion of week 5, the project
manager gets into an accident, resulting in one week of hospitalization. To
compensate for the lost time, the project manager decides to forgo his week off
and instead focuses on mock tests during weeks 6 and 7, originally planned for
weeks 5 and 6. This serves as an example of:
a) Adaptability
b) Risk mitigation
c) Workaround
d) Corrective action

Explanation: This is an example of a workaround, which is a response to an

unexpected event that is not part of the original plan. The project manager had
to adjust her plan to make up for the lost time due to the accident, and the new
plan involved working on mock tests during weeks 6 and 7 instead of weeks 5
and 6.

841. You are simultaneously overseeing six projects within the company. Two of these
projects are of a similar type, while the remaining four are entirely different. You
work as a ______________.
a) Portfolio manager
b) Program manager
c) Project manager
d) Program coordinator

Explanation: As a portfolio manager, you are responsible for managing multiple

projects that are related to each other in some way. In this case, two of the
projects are of a similar type, while the other four are entirely different. As a
portfolio manager, you would oversee the projects and ensure that they align
with the company's overall strategy and goals.

842. During the iteration review, the project team demonstrated new features to the
Product Owner. The product owner maintained a relaxed and open posture,
occasionally fiddling with his pen or coffee mug on the table without directly
looking at the speaker. What types of communication is the product owner
exhibiting? (Choose two)
a) Paralingual communication
b) Active listening
 c) Implicit message
d) Non-verbal communication

Explanation: The product owner is using non-verbal communication and implicit

messages. The relaxed and open posture with occasional fiddling with the pen or
coffee mug without looking directly at the speaker indicates that the product
owner is not fully engaged in the conversation but is still interested in the new
features being demonstrated.

843. A project manager is implementing an internal design project and requires a

driller with a rental cost of $25 per day, which she considers relatively high. Given
the extended duration of use, a team member proposes purchasing a driller for
$500. What is the minimum number of rental days required for it to be more cost-
effective to buy a driller?
a) 2
b) 5
c) 10
d) 20

Explanation: The minimum number of rental days is calculated by dividing the

cost of the driller by the daily rental cost and rounding up to the nearest whole
number. In this case, $500 divided by $25 per day is 20 days. Therefore, if the
project manager needs the driller for more than 20 days, it is more
advantageous to buy it.

844. An experienced project manager is assigned to lead a new hybrid development

project. Thus, management enrolled the project manager in training to teach them
how to combine agile principles with predictive techniques. Which aspect of the
PMI talent triangle does this training target?
a) Business Acumen
b) Power Skills
c) Working Methods
d) Ways of thinking

Explanation: The training targets working methods because it aims to teach the
project manager how to combine agile principles with predictive techniques,
which are two different approaches to project development.

845. For forecasting purposes, the project manager can use the following methods to
predict the project's future performance based on its current performance.
(Choose three)
a) Scenario building
b) Simulation
 c) Time series method
d) Variance analysis

Explanation: The project manager can use scenario building, simulation, and
time series method to forecast the project's future performance based on its
current performance.

846. An organization is overseeing multiple projects, each with its designated

deadline. Resources need to be allocated concurrently to various projects.
Concerned about potential delays in her project, a project manager consults with
the functional manager to discuss additional resource allocation for her project.
Which of the following is the most crucial skill that the project manager will need
for this situation?
a) Planning
b) Negotiating
c) Facilitating
d) Documenting

Explanation: The project manager will need negotiating skills to convince the
functional manager to allocate additional resources to her project.

847. An experienced project manager believes managers should embrace

transparency in their projects because it has many advantages over its
disadvantages. However, the project manager recognizes that, although it is
beneficial to communicate many aspects with the project team, there are specific
details that should not be disclosed to everyone. As a project manager, it is
imperative to be transparent about:
a) Confidential information
b) Proprietary information
c) Unproven information and gossip
d) Decision-making processes

Explanation: As a project manager, it is important to be transparent about

decision-making processes to ensure that the project team understands how
decisions are made and can provide input when necessary. This helps to build
trust and collaboration within the team, which can lead to better project
outcomes.

848. A manufacturing company is implementing lean principles, conducting quarterly

internal audits to ensure project adherence to these principles. In the most recent
audit, auditors observed that the project manager is prioritizing fast delivery but
deferring decisions until the last possible moment. Given this observation, is the
company in alignment with lean principles?
 a) Yes, it is
b) No, the project manager should both deliver and decide as late as possible
c) No, the project manager should both deliver and decide as fast as possible
d) No, the project manager should deliver as late as possible but decide as fast
as possible

Explanation: The project manager is delivering as fast as possible, which is in

line with the lean principle of delivering value quickly. However, the project
manager is taking decisions as late as possible, which is also in line with the lean
principle of delaying decisions until the last responsible moment to avoid waste.
Therefore, the company is complying with lean principles.

849. A project manager is overseeing an international project with team members

from diverse cultural backgrounds and nationalities. Despite the team members'
fluent English proficiency, what actions should the project manager take?
a) Due to cultural differences, the project manager should create a separate
code of conduct for each nationality.
b) The project manager may have to just accept that some team members may
face some difficulties when working with colleagues of other nationalities.
c) The project manager should take into consideration that spoken
communication may give rise to certain misunderstandings that may
not occur in written communications and that such misunderstandings
are hard to identify.
d) The project manager should keep in mind that certain groups won’t mind
late-night meetings and video conferences.

Explanation: The project manager should take into consideration that spoken
communication may give rise to certain misunderstandings that may not occur in
written communications and that such misunderstandings are hard to identify.
This is because even though all team members speak English fluently, cultural
differences can still lead to misunderstandings.

850. A project manager is overseeing an industrial project and requires a set of 1000
custom-made identical filters. Given their crucial significance, the project manager
opts for a trustworthy and reputable supplier to manufacture these filters.
Recognizing that a tested filter must be discarded as it cannot be reused, what
course of action should the project manager take?
a) Skip inspection since he trusts that the supplier will deliver the filters
according to his specifications
b) Order more than 1000 filters to perform acceptance sampling on the
batch surplus
c) Require the seller to provide a conformance certificate of the filter’s raw
materials
 d) Conduct a 100% inspection upon delivery, then order another batch of 1000
filters if he’s satisfied with the quality

Explanation: Ordering more than 1000 filters to perform acceptance sampling

on the batch surplus is the right answer because it allows the project manager to
test a sample of the filters to ensure they meet the project's specifications. This
is a common quality control technique that helps to ensure that the entire batch
of filters is of acceptable quality.

851. While executing the project, the project manager discovered that tasks were not
being carried out in the correct sequence and at the appropriate times, leading to
rework and a bad in morale among the project team. Which project management
tool should the project manager employ to handle this issue?
a) Organization chart
b) RACI matrix
c) Communications management plan
d) Work authorization system

Explanation: The project manager should implement a work authorization

system to ensure that tasks are performed in the right order at the right time. A
work authorization system is a project management tool that ensures that work
is done in the right sequence and at the right time. It is used to prevent rework
and ensure that the project team is working efficiently.

852. A project manager has taken over the management of a climate-smart

agriculture project, stepping in for the manager who resigned. In the initial stages
of the execution phase, the project manager observes varying opinions among
team members regarding project tasks, deliverables, and the overall complexity
level. What steps should the project manager take in response to this situation?

a) They should not intervene. Instead, they should allow the team enough time
to get familiar with the project scope
b) They should identify and assess potential risks caused by this divergence of
opinion, then develop a plan to manage and respond to these risks
c) They should organize a meeting involving all team members to identify
and resolve misunderstandings in order to avoid issues, disintegration,
and rework.
d) They should talk to each team member separately to explain the project
requirements

Explanation: The project manager should organize a meeting involving all team
members to identify and resolve misunderstandings in order to avoid issues,
 disintegration, and rework. This will help to ensure that everyone is on the same
page and has a clear understanding of the project scope and deliverables.

853. A project manager at Data Innovate has recently completed her final project
report and is preparing to meet with her manager. Over the past few weeks, she
has conducted several lessons-learned sessions to gather feedback from project
participants for the final report. What are the motivations behind the project
manager organizing lessons learned sessions? (Choose three)
a) Lessons learned databases are an important element of the
organizational process assets
b) Lessons learned meetings focus on identifying individuals accountable for
failures and errors
c) Lessons learned meetings include recommendations for future performance
improvements
d) Phase-end lessons learned workshops represent a good team-building
exercise for project members

Explanation: Lessons learned sessions are held to identify what went well and
what didn't go well in the project, and to document recommendations for future
performance improvements. They also represent a good team-building exercise
for project members.

854. After a long wait, a project manager receives a phone call from the project
sponsor, confirming the allocation of the budget and signaling the
commencement of the project. The sponsor also emphasizes the need for the
project development approach to be defined promptly and insists on the kick-off
meeting occurring within the next two weeks. In response, the project manager
asserts that he must first obtain the project charter. What is the role of a project
charter?
a) To document the project
b) To formally authorize the project and document its initial requirements
c) To be used as a reference during the project kick-off meeting
d) To set up the project code of conduct

Explanation: The project charter is a document that formally authorizes the

project and documents its initial requirements. It is usually created by the project
sponsor or initiator and provides the project manager with the authority to apply
organizational resources to project activities. It also defines the project's high-
level objectives, scope, and stakeholders, and outlines the project manager's
authority level and responsibilities. Therefore, the project charter is essential for
the project manager to start the project.
855. As a part of the project quality control process, the project manager at AYZ
Electric Motorcycles chose to inspect only 10% of the produced motorbikes for
environmental control. Which technique is the project manager employing?
a) Sample Selection
b) Control Charts
c) Statistical Sampling
d) Pareto Diagram

Explanation: The project manager is using statistical sampling, which involves

selecting a sample of the population to test and make inferences about the
entire population. In this case, the project manager is testing only 10% of the
manufactured motorbikes for environmental control, which is a form of
statistical sampling.
856. A local school plans to employ a screening system to choose suppliers of
vegetables and fruits for their "NourishWell" organic meals initiative. Which of the
following exemplifies a screening system?
a) You interview all the vendors and make your decision based on these
interviews
b) You only consider vendors with more than $10,000 in revenue in the last
financial year
c) You negotiate with all the vendors and engage the one who offers the best
price
d) You engage the vendor who responds first to your announcement

Explanation: Lessons learned sessions are held to identify what went well and
what didn't go well in the project, and to document recommendations for future
performance improvements. They also represent a good team-building exercise
for project members.

857. The business analyst for the project is conducting Earned Value Reporting. With a
CPI of 0.9 and a budget at completion of $900, what is the estimated cost at
completion for the project?
a) 819
b) 810
c) 900
d) 1000

Explanation: The project's estimated cost at completion is calculated by dividing

the budget at completion by the CPI. In this case, the estimated cost at
completion is $1000 (900/0.9).

858. A project manager is evaluating the potential of an industrial project. In order to

ascertain whether the projected financial benefits surpass the current investment,
 the project manager employs the Net Present Value (NPV) as a valuable tool to
gauge the project's profitability. For instance, if NPV > 0, it indicates:
a) The project will lose money
b) The project will break even
c) The project is profitable
d) We can’t know until the ROI is calculated

Explanation: NPV > 0 means that the present value of the anticipated cash
inflows is greater than the present value of the anticipated cash outflows, which
indicates that the project is profitable.

859. In an attempt to enhance agile knowledge, a project manager has been teamed
up with other Agile project managers to observe their team leadership practices.
The project manager observes that the project team bears the responsibility for
many project decisions, and project managers adopt a facilitative rather than
authoritative role. They cultivate a shared vision and enable the team to
concentrate on their tasks. What leadership approach does this exemplify?
a) Participative leadership
b) Autocratic leadership
c) Transformational leadership
d) Servant leadership

Explanation: This depicts servant leadership as the project manager is

facilitating the team and sharing a common vision, allowing the team to focus on
their work.

860. A project manager leads a project with an exceptionally skilled team. The team
members possess varied skills and expertise, prompting the project manager to
foster an environment where they can leverage their knowledge to make optimal
decisions on project issues. Which leadership style is most appropriate for the
project manager's objective?
a) Democratic
b) Laissez-faire
c) Autocratic
d) Directive

Explanation: The laissez-faire leadership style is characterized by a hands-off

approach where the leader delegates decision-making power to the team
members. This style is suitable for highly skilled and experienced teams who can
make optimal decisions concerning project issues. The project manager wants to
encourage the team members to use their knowledge to make optimal decisions
concerning project issues, hence the most suitable leadership style is laissez-
faire.
861. Over the past few years, an organization has expanded into a corporate group by
acquiring several companies in the same industry. This has notably elevated the
number of its projects, programs, and portfolios. How many portfolios should an
organization manage simultaneously?
a) One portfolio at a time
b) Based on the size of human resources allocated to portfolio management
c) Each portfolio manager should handle one portfolio at a time
d) As many as the organization can handle

Explanation: An organization can manage as many portfolios as it can handle.

There is no specific limit to the number of portfolios that can be managed
concurrently by an organization. The number of portfolios that can be managed
depends on the organization's capacity and capability to manage them
effectively.

862. A project manager at Clinica Labs, a biopharmaceutical corporation, intends to

talk to her manager about obtaining additional resources for complex activities
that her team is unable to perform. These resources will roll off the project as
soon as the activities are completed. Which of the following skills does the project
manager need the most in this situation?
a) Planning skills to identify resource requirements
b) Interpersonal skills to convince her manager of her need for additional
resources
c) Interviewing skills to hire the required resources
d) Technical skills to respond to the risk associated with adding more resources

Explanation: The project manager needs strong interpersonal skills to effectively

communicate and persuade her manager about the necessity of obtaining
additional resources for complex activities in order to ensure project success.

863. A Project manager ensures that the project team documents all assumptions.
The team records assumptions on an ongoing basis and then validates these
assumptions. Which of the following helps the team validate a project
assumption?
a) Organizational policies
b) Historical data
c) Constraints
d) Team members recollection

Explanation: Historical data helps validate project assumptions by providing

past evidence and trends, allowing the team to assess the reliability and accuracy
of their current assumptions based on previous experiences.
864. A project manager has just joined a new organization. A majority of the
organization’s projects are conducted by experienced project managers. What
should be the primary focus of the new project manager in order to ensure his
efficiency?
a) Acquire a skillful team
b) Learn about the organization’s culture
c) Get to know the organization’s executive managers
d) Get to know the organization’s project managers

Explanation: Understanding the organization's culture is crucial for the new

project manager to navigate existing workflows, communication styles, and
stakeholder expectations, ensuring efficient integration into the experienced
project management environment.

865. A project manager is facilitating a meeting to define the user stories of the next
iteration. Two team members, Charlotte and Sam, get too vocal during the
meeting. Charlotte believes that user story #2 is clear enough, while Sam thinks
it's ambiguous and needs further elaboration. The team moves on to the next
user story, ignoring Sam’s point of view. Sam accepts the team’s decision and
remains quiet for the rest of the meeting. At the end of the meeting, the project
manager tells Sam that user story #2 could be reviewed during the iteration’s first
week when more information is available. Which of the following conflict-
resolution techniques did Sam use in this scenario?
a) Smoothing
b) Compromising
c) Forcing
d) Withdrawal

Explanation: Sam used the conflict-resolution technique of Withdrawal by

accepting the team's decision, remaining quiet, and agreeing to review the user
story later.

866. A project manager chose for their new project a management framework that is
a hybrid of two Agile approaches. The work will be organized in sprints, and the
team will use a board to display and monitor work progress. Which of the
following frameworks is the project manager using?
a) Scrumfall
b) eXtreme Programming
c) Dynamic Systems Development Method
d) Scrum ban
 Explanation: The project manager is using Scrumban, a hybrid management
framework that combines elements of Scrum and Kanban, incorporating sprints
and a board for work visualization and monitoring.

867. A project manager and their Agile team are demonstrating a potentially
shippable product increment to the project stakeholders. What type of Agile
meetings is the project manager conducting?
a) Review meeting
b) Standup meeting
c) Retrospective meeting
d) Deliverables meeting

Explanation: The project manager is conducting a Review meeting in Agile,

showcasing a potentially shippable product increment to project stakeholders
for feedback and validation.

868. A project manager is leading a project that was supposed to last 6 months. The
project is currently in its second year. Which of the following statements best
describes the situation?
a) The project scope was not clearly defined
b) The project should have been divided into subprojects
c) The project team didn’t protect the scope from changes
d) The project should have been halted after 6 months

Explanation: The project's extended timeline suggests inadequate scope

definition, leading to unforeseen challenges and delays.

869. While performing beta testing with a small number of users, the project manager
noticed that the web application had defects due to the following: User interface
and responsiveness issues (20%) User experience issues (25%) Bugs in
functionalities (40%) Missing important features (10%) Others (5%). To illustrate
these problems, the project manager can use a:
a) Histogram
b) Quality checklists
c) Scatter diagram
d) Flowchart

Explanation: The project manager can use a histogram to visually represent the
distribution of defects in the web application, categorizing them based on their
respective percentages in user interface and responsiveness issues, user
experience issues, bugs in functionalities, missing important features, and
others.
870. After facing endless issues with one of the project suppliers, the project manager
decided to put an end to the disputes by concluding their professional
collaboration. Which document should the project manager refer to in order to
examine the termination clause and the alternative dispute resolution
mechanism?
a) Source selection criteria
b) Supplier bid
c) Agreement
d) Project charter

Explanation: The project manager should refer to the Agreement document to

examine the termination clause and alternative dispute resolution mechanism
for concluding the professional collaboration with the problematic supplier.

871. A project manager engaged Outsource, an offshore software development

company, to develop an e-learning platform using the adaptive approach. During
the second iteration, the project manager wasn’t satisfied with the company’s
work and decided to immediately terminate the contract. The project manager
only had to pay the incurred costs with no additional fees. What type of Agile
contract did the project manager sign with the supplier?
a) Incremental delivery contract
b) Time and materials contract
c) Target cost contract
d) Early termination contract

Explanation: The project manager signed a Time and Materials contract,

allowing termination at any phase with payment based on incurred costs without
additional fees.

872. A Project Manager is leading a software project using a hybrid approach. During a
lessons-learned meeting, one of the team members complained that every time
she submits a new piece of code, she finds many errors caused by the code
changes made by her fellow developers. The Project Manager suggested testing,
updating, and integrating new software code more frequently in order to reduce
such errors. Which of the following techniques did the Project Manager suggest?

a) Constant Integration
b) Consecutive Integration
c) Consistent Integration
d) Continuous Integration
 Explanation: The Project Manager suggested Continuous Integration, a
technique involving frequent testing, updating, and integration of new code to
minimize errors caused by code changes made by different developers.

873. A Project Manager is assigned to a packaging project. The organization purchased

a custom-built laser printing machine for $130,000 for the project, which was later
found to be useless. The $130,000 amount represents a(n) _______ cost.
a) Fixed
b) Sunk
c) Indirect
d) Opportunity

Explanation: The $130,000 cost for the custom-built laser printing machine is a
sunk cost because it has already been incurred and cannot be recovered,
regardless of the project's outcome.

874. During an iteration review meeting, the product owner rejected one of the
features demonstrated by the development team. What will happen next to the
rejected user story?
a) It will be automatically moved to the next sprint backlog
b) It will be deleted from the product backlog and from the project
c) It will be updated to address the reasons why it was rejected
d) It will be moved back to the product backlog for reprioritization

Explanation: The rejected user story will undergo updates to address the
reasons for rejection in response to the product owner's feedback.

875. In order to assess the project performance, a Project Manager calculates both its
CPI and SPI. Knowing that it has a high CPI and a low SPI, what is the project
status?
a) Behind schedule and under budget
b) Ahead of schedule and under budget
c) Behind schedule and over budget
d) Ahead of schedule and over budget

Explanation: The project is progressing behind schedule but is under budget,

indicated by a high Cost Performance Index (CPI) and a low Schedule
Performance Index (SPI).

876. A project manager is running a multinational organization. They want to learn the
difference between high and low-context cultures in order to ensure effective
communication and avoid doing anything offensive or embarrassing. What is a
typical characteristic of communication in high-context cultures?
 a) The use of technical means of communication that focus on transferring
spoken and written language.
b) Communication is preferred to avoid missing out on a great part of additional
information.
c) A conveyed message has little meaning without a full understanding of
the surrounding context.
d) There is no need for history or personal opinions to understand a message.

Explanation: In high-context cultures, messages rely heavily on contextual cues,

and understanding the background and relationships is crucial for accurate
interpretation.

877. During the risk identification phase, the project manager and their team
identified more than 100 risks. The project manager believes that the quantitative
evaluation of each of these risks will take a lot of time, whereas not all of the
identified risks are important enough to justify such a measure. What should the
project manager’s next step be?
a) Identifying risk triggers, then performing a quantitative analysis of risks that
have no triggers
b) Using qualitative risk analysis to qualify and prioritize risks for the
quantitative risk analysis
c) Conducting a qualitative assessment of each risk’s probability, then perform a
quantitative analysis of risks with a high probability
d) Conducting a qualitative assessment of the potential impact of each risk, then
perform a quantitative analysis of risks with a high impact

Explanation: The project manager should prioritize and qualify risks through
qualitative analysis before conducting quantitative risk analysis to focus on
significant risks efficiently.

878. A Project Manager is leading a 3-year project that involves upgrading and
improving an electric engine for industrial use. Since the majority of the project
activities are hazardous, the project team will receive extensive safety training.
The training will ensure the safety of workers and prevent delays caused by
unsatisfactory work. The cost of the conducted safety training falls under:
a) Cost of regulations
b) Cost of quality
c) Cost of conformance
d) Cost of nonconformance

Explanation: The cost of the conducted safety training for the hazardous project
activities falls under the Cost of conformance, as it is an investment to ensure
adherence to safety standards and prevent unsatisfactory work delays.
879. While leading agile release planning with a newly assembled team, a project
manager is dedicated to achieving outstanding results. However, due to a lack of
technical knowledge, the client requests a product with minimal requirements.
What steps should the project manager take to ensure the client's satisfaction
with the final product?
a) Add more features to the final product
b) Have the client provide their own technical engineer
c) Engage the client in every iteration
d) Set the requirements in a signed contract

Explanation: Engaging the client in every iteration is a key principle of agile

methodology. This ensures that the client is satisfied with the final product and
that their requirements are met throughout the project.

880. As a project manager in a construction project, you encounter disagreements

among the project team regarding their assigned tasks, leading to a decline in
overall performance. Which tool or technique would you employ to address the
team's issues?
a) Recognition and rewards
b) Conflict management
c) Training
d) Networking

Explanation: Conflict management is the right answer because it helps to

resolve disagreements and conflicts between team members, which can lead to
a reduction in performance across the project.

881. In an agile team assigned to develop a robot, the project manager aims to ensure
early feedback on requirements and adaptive design before constructing the
actual robot. Which approach should the project manager employ to achieve this
objective?
a) Business case
b) Prototyping
c) Design review
d) Checklists

Explanation: Prototyping is an agile technique that allows the team to create a

working model of the robot early in the development process. This model can be
used to gather feedback from stakeholders and users and to make changes to
the design before the actual robot is built.
882. A buyer has engaged a vendor to create a new device. The vendor emphasized a
comprehensive contract capturing device specifications, while the buyer lacks
clear upfront requirements and prefers an Agile approach. Despite delivering per
the contract, the buyer is dissatisfied. Which Agile Manifesto value was likely not
adequately applied?
a) Pair programming over continuous integration
b) Customer collaboration over contract negotiations
c) Individuals and interactions over processes and tools
d) Business people and developers must work together

Explanation: The Agile Manifesto value of customer collaboration over contract

negotiations was not appropriately applied in this scenario because the buyer
insisted on a contract that thoroughly captured the device specifications, rather
than collaborating with the vendor to develop the device using agile.

883. A project team accustomed to the waterfall project management approach is

transitioning to their initial agile project, retaining some waterfall elements for a
smoother shift. In the iteration review, a misunderstanding among the
development team resulted in duplicated efforts. How should the project manager
resolve this situation?
a) Do nothing since the team members are transitioning from waterfall to agile.
b) Submit a change request to update the communications management plan.
c) Bring up the topic during the upcoming iteration retrospective.
d) Fallback to a waterfall project management framework going forward.

Explanation: The project manager should address the issue during the
upcoming iteration retrospective to identify the root cause of the
misunderstanding and prevent it from happening again in the future. This is a
key aspect of the agile approach, where continuous improvement is encouraged
through regular retrospectives.

884. While overseeing a complex web development project, upon scrutinizing the
project's statistics, you calculate that the team consistently completes an average
of 50 story points per iteration. After assessing the backlog, you find
approximately 500 points yet to be addressed. With each iteration time-boxed at
two weeks, when do you anticipate completing the project?
a) Agile teams cannot predict project completion
b) ln about 10 weeks from now
c) ln about 20 weeks from now
d) ln about 75 weeks from now
 Explanation: The project has 500 story points remaining, and the team
completes 50 story points on average per iteration. Therefore, it will take
approximately 10 iterations (20 weeks) to complete the remaining work.

885. Which method is employed to present a concise, high-level timeline spanning 3-6
months, derived from the product roadmap and vision, during the Develop
Schedule process?
a) Root cause analysis
b) Data analysis
c) Agile release planning
d) Project management information system

Explanation: Agile release planning is a technique used in the development

schedule process to provide a high-level summary timeline of the 3-6 month
schedule based on the product roadmap and the product vision for the product
evolution.

886. In this complex project scenario, after a scope modification necessitates

additional expertise, you've requested consultants from your company. However,
these experts are dispersed in various locations. How do you plan to gather their
input?
a) Ask management to bring them to you
b) Recruit new members with the same skills
c) Create a virtual team
d) Take no action

Explanation: Creating a virtual team is the best option in this situation as it

allows the experts to work remotely and still provide their input to the project.
This saves time and money compared to bringing them to the project location.

887. As the project manager overseeing a critical organizational project that's lagging
behind schedule and exceeding the budget, the project sponsor proposes the idea
of team members working on weekends. How can you effectively encourage and
persuade your team members to dedicate their weekends to the project?
a) Ignore the sponsor
b) Ask the management what should you do
c) Recognition and rewards
d) Update the issue log

Explanation: Recognition and rewards are a good way to persuade team

members to work during their weekends. This will motivate them to work harder
and achieve the project goals.
888. The project manager aims to document details concerning roles and
responsibilities, release plans, training requirements, resource availability,
recognition, and rewards. Which document would be the most suitable for
capturing this information?
a) Project Management Plan
b) Resource Management Plan
c) Project Team Assignments
d) Issue Log

Explanation: The Resource Management Plan includes information related to

roles and responsibilities, resource calendar, and training needs. It also includes
information on recognition and rewards for the project team.

889. Within your project team, you observe heightened emotions due to the
competition among team members. Instead of understanding each other's needs,
there's a tendency for quick reactions, hindering collaboration toward project
goals. Disturbed by this, you consult your sponsor, who recommends a specific
training. What type of training is likely being suggested?
a) Team building
b) Emotional intelligence
c) Goal setting and results management
d) Active listening

Explanation: Emotional intelligence training can help team members

understand and manage their emotions, as well as recognize and respond
appropriately to the emotions of others. This can lead to better communication,
collaboration, and conflict resolution within the team.

890. A project manager overseeing the development of a new retail banking product
faces schedule delays due to a lack of motivation among team members. What
strategies could the project manager employ to boost motivation within the
project team?
a) Offer recognition and rewards
b) Use coaching and monitoring skills
c) Delegates the responsibilities
d) Apply creative problem solving

Explanation: Offering recognition and rewards is a good way to motivate the

project team. It can help to increase their morale and encourage them to work
harder to achieve the project goals.
891. The project manager incorrectly categorized a stakeholder as a supporter,
leading to reluctance. What steps should the project manager take to avoid such
misclassification in future projects?
a) Identify stakeholders
b) Develop interpersonal skills to manage stakeholder expectations
c) Create the stakeholders engagement assessment matrix
d) Conduct a meeting with senior management

Explanation: Creating a stakeholders engagement assessment matrix helps in

identifying the stakeholders and their level of support or opposition towards the
project. This will help the project manager to avoid misclassifying stakeholders in
future projects.

892. A key stakeholder in your construction project has recently stepped down from
their role due to personal reasons. What is the appropriate action to take in terms
of stakeholder management?
a) Contact the sponsor
b) Remove all changes suggested by the stakeholder
c) Update stakeholder register
d) Initiate an investigation into his resignation

Explanation: Updating the stakeholder register is the right answer because it is

a key output of the identify stakeholders process, and it helps to keep track of
the stakeholders' information and engagement levels throughout the project
lifecycle.

893. Throughout an organization-wide project, certain stakeholders seem to have

diminished expectations for the product. Consequently, their performance is not
meeting the anticipated standards, posing a risk to project objectives. What steps
should the project manager take?
a) Speak with the problematic stakeholders to increase their performance
b) Follow the stakeholder engagement plan
c) Ask the project sponsor to intervene and motivate the underperforming
stakeholders
d) Submit a change request

Explanation: The stakeholder engagement plan is a key component of the

project management plan and should be followed to ensure that all stakeholders
are engaged and their expectations are managed. By following the plan, the
project manager can identify the stakeholders' needs and expectations and
develop strategies to address them. This will help to ensure that all stakeholders
are performing as expected and that project objectives are not at risk.
894. "A company traditionally employs a predictive project management approach,
but the project management office intends to integrate agile best practices for
quicker revenue realization. The project manager is set to initiate planning for the
upcoming project and is worried about the team's readiness for a hybrid
environment. What should be the project manager's optimal approach?
a) Empower the team to self-organize and study agile best practices
b) Check the lessons learned repository for agile best practices
c) Request the training from the Project Management Office (PMO)
d) Add the risk of the team's inadequate agile skills to the risk register

Explanation: The project manager's best course of action is to request training

from the Project Management Office (PMO) to equip the team with the necessary
skills to work in a hybrid environment.

895. In recent iterations, an agile team dedicated additional hours to produce product
documentation and scrutinize contracts with the customer. How could the team
have utilized their time more effectively?
a) Developing functionality as requested by the project sponsor
b) Creating the product increment and working with the product owner
c) Reporting the extra hours in the company's time and attendance tools
d) Building features according to the initial project management plan

Explanation: The team's time would have been better spent creating the
product increment and working with the product owner because this is the core
of agile development, and the team's main focus should be on delivering a
working product increment at the end of each iteration.

896. A few days before the conclusion of the last iteration, the team notifies the
project manager that they are unable to complete two work packages, A and B,
due to insufficient refinement in the WBS. The team believes they can potentially
finish package A on schedule but requires an additional week for package B, which
holds higher priority. What should the project manager do in this situation?
a) Instruct the team to complete package A since it can be done on time
b) Instruct the team to complete package B since it has a higher priority
c) Consult with the product owner and make a decision accordingly
d) Extend the iteration length in order to finish both packages A and B

Explanation: Consulting with the product owner is the best course of action as
they are the ones who can make the final decision on the priority of the work
packages. The project manager should not make this decision alone.

897. A project involves a senior stakeholder whose input holds significance, and
staying informed about the project's status is crucial. Instead of receiving updates
 directly from the project manager, this stakeholder prefers to contact team
members directly. The stakeholder has personal connections with these team
members unrelated to the project and believes it's a means to obtain authentic
information about the project's actual status. What steps should the project
manager take in this situation?
a) Leave the connection in place since the information from the team member
is unofficial and will not create problems.
b) Tell the team member not to accept calls from the stakeholder because these
calls adversely affect the team member's productivity.
c) Keep the team member properly informed about the project status so that
the stakeholder receives the same information from both sources.
d) Ask the stakeholder how the additional information that they feel is
missing from current communications may be provided.

Explanation: Option 4 is the right answer because it addresses the root cause of
the stakeholder's behavior and seeks to find a solution that benefits both
parties. By asking the stakeholder how they would like to receive additional
information, the project manager can work to establish a communication plan
that meets the stakeholder's needs while also ensuring that all project
information is communicated through official channels.

898. A project manager oversees a substantial construction project valued at 4 billion

USD. Multiple teams from diverse countries are engaged in the project, requiring
seamless collaboration for success. The responsibilities of individual team
members are interdependent. What factor is crucial for ensuring the overall
success of project integration?
a) Detailed definition of the work packages
b) Adherence to professional code of conduct
c) Communication management plan
d) Change management

Explanation: The communication management plan is important for the overall

success of project integration because it ensures that all stakeholders are
informed about the project status, issues, and risks. It also helps to ensure that
all team members are aware of their roles and responsibilities and that they are
working towards the same goals.

899. "A project manager collaborating with another company in a joint venture needs
to disclose confidential information related to intellectual property rights. To
determine the individual authorized to release this confidential information, she
should consult which project document?
a) Project Charter
b) Stakeholder Management Plan
 c) Organizational Breakdown Structure
d) Project Communication Management Plan

Explanation: The Project Communication Management Plan outlines the

procedures for sharing project information, including confidential information. It
identifies the person responsible for authorizing the release of confidential
information.

900. In the middle of project execution, multiple stakeholders expressed concerns

about team performance and delivery. Despite the project manager's belief that
the project is progressing according to the approved scope, budget, and schedule,
what should the project manager do?
a) Email the stakeholders to assure them of action.
b) Ask stakeholders to escalate their concerns to the CEO.
c) Ask the project sponsor to interview.
d) Consult the communications management plan to manage
stakeholders' expectations.

Explanation: The project manager should consult the communications

management plan to manage stakeholders' expectations. This will help the
project manager to understand the stakeholders' concerns and communicate
the project status effectively.

901. Alice is overseeing a project. The new project sponsor often meets with
functional managers to discuss the project's status due to missed weekly status
meetings. Despite regularly sending meeting minutes, it seems they go unread.
What should Alice do next?
a) Direct the functional managers to stop discussing project status.
b) Resend the weekly meeting minutes to the sponsor.
c) Meet with the sponsor individually.
d) Send the communication management plan to the sponsor.

Explanation: Alice should meet with the sponsor individually to discuss the issue
and find out why the minutes are not being read. This will help her understand
the sponsor's concerns and expectations and address any issues that may be
causing the sponsor to miss the weekly status meetings.

902. The client has entered into a contract with your organization for the development
of a product upgrade. The current product is no longer effective for their
operations due to changes in the business environment. In a scheduled meeting,
you discover that they are struggling to articulate their revised requirements
clearly. What approach will you use to gather the requirements?
a) Observation/job shadowing
 b) Interviews
c) Context diagram
d) Facilitation workshop

Explanation: Observation/job shadowing is the right approach to gathering

requirements when the customer is not able to articulate their revised
requirements clearly. This approach involves observing the customer's work
environment and processes to understand their needs and requirements.

903. As a project manager, you have several team members who are new to the
project. Although they are collaborating effectively as a team, you are worried
about whether they are adhering to the procedures correctly. What tool or
technique could assist you in identifying any potential issues?
a) Ishikawa diagrams
b) Histogram
c) Quality audit
d) Inspection

Explanation: A quality audit is a structured review of the quality management

activities that help identify lessons learned that could improve performance on
current or future projects. It is a tool used to determine if the project is following
the procedures correctly and to identify areas for improvement.

904. The project manager wants to determine whether the variance relative to the
scope baseline has been improving or deteriorating as the project progresses.
What should the project manager do next?
a) Conduct product analysis
b) Perform variance analysis
c) Perform trend analysis
d) Complete stakeholder analysis

Explanation: Trend analysis is used to determine if the variance has been

improving or deteriorating over time. It involves comparing the actual project
performance to the planned performance over time to identify trends.

905. In the fiercely competitive technology market, delivering a product swiftly is

crucial for the success of a tech start-up. An agile team opts to release the product
with minimal features and intends to gather insights from early adopters'
feedback. What agile tool or technique is the team employing in this scenario?
a) WBS
b) Product Analysis
c) Kano Analysis
d) Minimum Viable Product (MVP)
 Explanation: The team is embracing the Minimum Viable Product (MVP)
approach, which is a key agile tool or technique. This approach involves
launching a product with minimal features and then learning from the early
adopters' feedback to improve the product.

906. While enhancing the layout of a screen in a mobile application, a developer

within an agile team proposes an idea to improve the screen, enhancing usability
and potentially increasing customer satisfaction. This improvement introduces a
new requirement. The developer's initial motivation is to impress the client. What
is the appropriate next step for the developer?
a) Implement this requirement to show the product owner the improvement in
terms of the application's usability
b) Do nothing since this requirement is out of scope and it should not be added
to the product
c) Collect the supporting information for this requirement and present this
information to the product owner
d) Suggest this requirement to the product owner for possible inclusion in
the next iteration

Explanation: The developer should suggest this requirement to the product

owner for possible inclusion in the next iteration. This is the right answer
because the developer should not make unilateral decisions to add new
requirements to the product without consulting the product owner. The product
owner is responsible for prioritizing requirements and deciding which ones
should be included in the product. The developer should present the idea to the
product owner and let them decide whether to include it in the next iteration or
not.

907. In a daily stand-up meeting, a programmer mentions having additional time and
incorporating functionality not part of the original design. She believes the
customer will value the added features. What is the most appropriate course of
action?
a) Update the cost baseline since the project will run over budget due to the
cost of adding new functionality
b) Accept the added functionality, but ask the programmer to build only what
has been designed going forward
c) Remove the added functionality and ensure that the project team
builds the software as designed
d) Thank the programmer for the extra effort and notify the customer of the
new functionality that has been added
 Explanation: The added functionality was not included in the original design,
and therefore, it is considered scope creep. The best course of action is to
remove the added functionality and ensure that the project team builds the
software as designed.

908. "Following three iterations, the agile team achieves an average velocity of 50
story points. With 300 more story points remaining for the project, how many
additional iterations will be required for the team to complete the project?
a) 5 iterations
b) 6 iterations
c) 7 iterations
d) 10 iterations

Explanation: The team's average velocity is 50 story points per iteration.

Therefore, the team can complete 150 story points in three iterations. To
complete the remaining 300 story points, the team will need 6 more iterations
(300/50=6).

909. The finance group collaborates with the project manager on large construction
projects for a logistics company, establishing timelines for expenses and exploring
options to even out spending, preventing concentrated expenditures in one
quarter and none in the next. This is an example of:
a) Funding Limit Reconciliation
b) Rescheduling
c) Resource leveling
d) Crashing

Explanation: Funding Limit Reconciliation is the process of determining when

expenses will be incurred in a given project and whether there are ways to
smooth out or level the spending to avoid a single large expenditure in one
quarter and none in the next. This is exactly what is described in the question.

910. Commencing a project with a hybrid approach, the project manager encounters a
major design change approved by the customer. However, the software team
leader, operating under an agile approach, hesitates to commit to final delivery
dates. Given the interdependence with the hardware team, the project manager
must now navigate the situation. What steps should be taken?
a) Escalate this to higher management and ask for help to resolve the issue.

b) Ask the software team leader to use a predictive approach and commit
to the delivery date.
c) Update the risk register with this risk and monitor it according to the risk
management plan.
 d) Impose the delivery dates on the software team leader and notify the
functional manager about the situation.

Explanation: The correct answer is B because the software team leader is using
an agile approach, which means that the delivery dates are not fixed. The project
manager should work with the software team leader to understand the scope of
the change and the impact on the project schedule. The project manager should
then work with the hardware team to adjust their schedule based on the
software team's delivery dates.

911. In the retrospective ceremony, the agile team discusses unmet expectations from
the product owner. What actions should the project manager have taken at the
project's outset?
a) Communicated project vision and sprint goals clearly to the team
b) Defined the expected agile team contribution in the creation of the backlog
c) Defined the team ground rules and shared project vision
d) Assessed the capabilities of the agile team and planned for the required
training

Explanation: Communicating project vision and sprint goals clearly to the team
at the beginning of the project helps ensure that the product owner's
expectations are met. This allows the team to understand what is expected of
them and what they need to deliver.

912. A recently assigned junior staff member expresses confusion to the project
manager, stating a lack of familiarity with project expectations. How should the
project manager assist the new team member?
a) Advise the new team member to enroll in project management training.
b) Review the resource management plan and provide mentoring to the new
team member if necessary.
c) Instruct the new team member to review the responsible, accountable.
consult. and inform RACI matrix before asking for help.
d) Advise the new team member to review the project charter and stakeholder
engagement plan.

Explanation: The correct answer is C because the RACI matrix is a tool that
defines roles and responsibilities for project team members. By reviewing the
RACI matrix, the new team member can understand what is expected of them on
the project and who they should go to for help.

913. The sponsor has approved the schedule management plan for an integrated
project involving both hardware and software. The project team has assessed the
 functionality feasibility of the product and expedited testing. What actions should
the project manager take in their role as a servant leader?
a) Submit a change request to the project sponsor for accelerated testing.
b) Develop the product as per the schedule to perform integration and testing.
c) Amend the project budget to include minimum viable product (MVP)
d) Support the team as necessary to find the minimum viable product
(MVP)

Explanation: As a servant leader, the project manager should support the team
as necessary to find the minimum viable product (MVP). This approach aligns
with the Agile methodology, which emphasizes collaboration and flexibility to
deliver value to the customer. By supporting the team in finding the MVP, the
project manager can ensure that the project stays on track and meets the
sponsor's approved schedule management plan.

914. In the implementation phase of a project, a new regulation impacts the project,
necessitating a crucial status meeting to discuss scope changes. The project
manager realizes that a key stakeholder is unable to attend the planned meeting.
How should the project manager proceed?
a) Meet with the stakeholder prior to the meeting to obtain their opinion
b) Meet with the project sponsor to discuss how to address the situation
c) Call for a change control board (CCB)
d) Update the communications management plan and implement the change.

Explanation: Meeting with the stakeholders prior to the meeting to obtain their
opinion is the right answer because it allows the project manager to gather the
stakeholder's input and perspective before the critical status meeting. This will
help ensure that the stakeholder's concerns are addressed and that the meeting
is productive.

915. A client approaches a design team member, asking to halt a current task and
develop a new concept, which would substantially alter the design and affect the
project budget and schedule. The team member seeks guidance from the project
manager on the next steps. What should the project manager do?
a) Ask the client to refrain from directly contacting team members
b) Accept the request and make the changes
c) Refer to the perform integrated change control process
d) Hold a team meeting to discuss the request

Explanation: The integrated change control process is the appropriate process

to follow when a change request is received. This process ensures that all
changes are properly reviewed, evaluated, and approved or rejected before they
 are implemented. The project manager should refer to this process to determine
the impact of the change request on the project budget and schedule.

916. A specific stakeholder consistently requests changes to the project scope that
deviate from the original project requirements. One of these changes was
proposed just one month before the project launch date, and it is anticipated to
result in significant project delays. What course of action should the project
manager take?
a) Inform the project steering committee about the project delay risk.
b) Update the change management document.
c) Submit a change request to the change control board (CCB)
d) Continue with the launch date as per the approved project management
plan.

Explanation: Submitting a change request to the change control board (CCB) is

the right thing to do because the change is not consistent with the original
project requirements and is projected to cause significant project delays. The
CCB will evaluate the change request and determine whether to approve or
reject it based on its impact on the project's scope, schedule, and budget.

917. Some team members are not cooperating and lack mutual support, often turning
to you for decisions on minor issues. How can you improve this situation?
a) Involve them in project management work to increase their motivation
b) Initiate team building to increase trust among team members
c) Involve them in your decision making activities
d) Check whether there are any issues due to diverse cultures

Explanation: Initiating team-building activities can help increase trust among

team members and improve their cooperation. This can lead to better decision-
making and problem-solving within the team.

918. In the executing phase of a project, you, as the project manager, observe conflicts
within the team arising from the inclusion of subject matter experts working
remotely. What will be your initial step to enhance the situation?
a) Exchange the locations of the other geography resources with the local
resources
b) Improve the communications plan for the project
c) Bring the other geography resources to the local office for a day every month
to meet the local members face to face
d) Hold frequent meetings with the other geography resources
 Explanation: Improving the communications plan for the project is the best
option to address the conflicts in the project team due to remote work. This will
help to ensure that all team members are on the same page and have a clear
understanding of their roles and responsibilities, as well as the project goals and
objectives.

919. Having conducted surveys, interviews, assessments, and focus groups within
your project team, you've compiled a team performance assessment. This report
includes observations on skills, competencies, turnover rate, and cohesiveness.
How do you intend to utilize this report moving forward?
a) Make changes to the team members who are performing poorly
b) Identify specific training, coaching, mentoring or other changes
required to improve the team's performance
c) Estimate the cost of improving the team's performance
d) Estimate the revised project schedule based on the team's performance

Explanation: The team performance assessment report will help identify specific
training, coaching, mentoring or other changes required to improve the team's
performance. This will help the project manager to take corrective actions to
improve the team's performance.
920. A customer has been consistently tardy with approvals on design documentation.
Despite John, the project manager, addressing the issue previously, the habit of
delayed approval persists. John has been meticulously documenting these delays.
Which conflict resolution technique is he employing?
a) Compromising
b) Collaborating
c) Smoothing
d) Withdrawal

Explanation: John is following the withdrawal conflict resolution technique by

avoiding the conflict altogether and documenting the delays instead of
confronting the customer.

921. While executing a project, the project manager identifies that a team member in
one branch is exerting counterproductive influence on tasks. What should the
project manager employ to ensure positive working relationships among team
members?
a) Ground rules
b) Recognition and rewards
c) Interpersonal skills
d) Team-building activities
 Explanation: Team-building activities can help improve communication and
collaboration among team members, which can help resolve conflicts and
improve working relationships. In this case, the project manager can use team-
building activities to address the issue with the team member who is causing
problems.

922. You're the project manager in charge during the execution phase, and one of
your team members left the site early on a Friday at 3:00 pm, displaying
inappropriate behavior towards colleagues. To prevent such incidents in the
future, you should establish clear expectations by creating:
a) Management skills
b) Team-building activities
c) The team charter
d) Interpersonal skills

Explanation: The team charter is a document that outlines the expectations and
responsibilities of the project team. It includes guidelines for acceptable behavior
and can be used to address situations like this.

923. On a sizable project, a lead business analyst consistently works late to finalize
requirements for the upcoming sprint. During the weekly team lead meeting, the
project manager discovers that several other business analysts on the team have
available time. To ensure an equitable workload, what should the project manager
do?
a) Facilitate a discussion within the team to redistribute the work within
the project team.
b) Delay the start date of the next sprint to allow more time for gathering
requirements.
c) Direct the business analysts with free cycles to take more ownership of the
project.
d) Review the list of open requirements and reassign them to team members
with free cycles.

Explanation: Facilitating a discussion within the team to redistribute the work

within the project team is the right answer because it ensures an even workload
and makes use of the available resources.

924. You're overseeing a software upgrade project for your company. A crucial
stakeholder holds significant decision-making authority but is resistant to changes
resulting from the project. Continuous support from this stakeholder is vital for
project success. Which stakeholder management strategy should you employ with
this influential participant?
a) Keep the key stakeholder satisfied
 b) Manage the key stakeholder closely
c) Keep the key stakeholder informed
d) Monitor the key stakeholder actions

Explanation: Managing the key stakeholder closely is the right answer because
this stakeholder has a great deal of authority and is resistant to changes.
Therefore, it is important to keep him engaged and informed throughout the
project to ensure his continuous support.

925. Certain stakeholders in your project are not reacting as expected to your
strategies. To address this, you're intending to explore the underlying reasons.
What would be the most effective approach for this investigation?
a) Mind mapping
b) Root cause analysis
c) Stakeholder prioritization
d) Funding limit reconciliation

Explanation: Root cause analysis is the best methodology for investigating the
reasons for stakeholders not responding appropriately to strategies. It helps to
identify the underlying causes of the problem and develop effective solutions.

926. Six months into its anticipated nine-month duration, the project manager reports
a delay of at least three months due to key stakeholders resisting changes
resulting from the project. What could have been adjusted in the project planning
phase to prevent this scenario?
a) Creation of a comprehensive stakeholder register
b) Establishment of a more robust communications management plan
c) Better execution of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process
d) Development of a stakeholder engagement assessment matrix

Explanation: The development of a stakeholder engagement assessment matrix

would have helped identify the key stakeholders and their level of influence and
interest in the project. This would have allowed the project manager to develop a
more effective stakeholder management plan and address any resistance to
change early on in the project.

927. The government sponsors a project for the construction of a new highway. The
project manager informs stakeholders that the project charter has been
approved. While working on the project management plan, the project manager
receives an email from an environmental organization inquiring about the
project's objectives and start date. What steps should the project manager take to
handle the situation?
 a) Conduct a stakeholder analysis and communicate to stakeholders
accordingly.
b) Update the communication management plan accordingly.
c) Conduct a brainstorming session with the stakeholders and the team.
d) Respond to the email with the requested information.

Explanation: The project manager should conduct a stakeholder analysis to

identify the stakeholders and their needs, interests, and expectations. This will
help the project manager to communicate with the stakeholders effectively and
efficiently. The project manager should then communicate the objectives and
start date of the project to the environmental organization and any other
relevant stakeholders.

928. Project team members are collaborating on a document outlining key values
crucial to the team's success, including sharing best practices, maintaining open-
minded listening, and fostering respectful communication during meetings. What
term characterizes this document?
a) Resource calendars
b) Team charter
c) Communication management plan
d) Resource management plan

Explanation: The document described in the question is a team charter, which

outlines the team's values, goals, and roles. It is an important tool for
establishing a shared understanding among team members and promoting
collaboration and accountability.

929. A project manager, emphasizing systems and structure to achieve project goals,
experiences strained relations with the project team. Despite the current project
aligning with its objectives, a high team turnover jeopardizes success. To enhance
personal skills, what type of skills should the project manager prioritize for
development?
a) Communication skills
b) Management skills
c) Operational and problem-solving skills
d) Leadership skills

Explanation: The project manager should spend time developing leadership

skills to improve their relationship with the project team and reduce turnover.
This will help them to better motivate and inspire the team to achieve project
goals.
930. While overseeing a software development project that demands proficiency in
various programming languages, a developer is reassigned by her functional
manager, and a replacement is provided. What initial steps should you take in
response?
a) Introduce the new developer to the project sponsor
b) Provide the new developer with an ability test
c) Assign the developer the next user story in the backlog
d) Schedule training for the new developer

Explanation: Providing the new developer with an ability test is the first thing to
do because it will help you assess the new developer's skills and knowledge of
the programming languages required for the project. This will help you
determine if the new developer is a good fit for the project and if additional
training is required.

931. Assigned as the leader of an agile project, your aim is to facilitate the swift
identification of misalignments, dependencies, or issues related to the dynamic
requirements. What would be the most effective approach to ensure the sharing
of project information within and across the organization?
a) By promoting aggressive transparency
b) By inviting stakeholders to daily standups
c) By distributing the project report weekly
d) By sharing comprehensive documentation

Explanation: Agile promotes aggressive transparency, which means that all

information is shared within and across the organization. This helps to surface
any misalignments, dependencies, or other issues related to the frequently
changing requirements as quickly as possible.
932. In an agile project led by a scrum master, the development team has fallen short
of the sprint goal in the last three iterations. Following the sprint retrospective, the
team has chosen to implement various changes to enhance velocity. What actions
can the scrum master take to confirm any improvement in performance?
a) Study the Gantt chart
b) Review the burnup chart
c) Calculate the project's TCPI
d) Create Pareto chart

Explanation: The burnup chart is a tool used in agile project management to

track progress and forecast completion. It shows the amount of work completed
over time and compares it to the total amount of work planned for the project.
By reviewing the burnup chart, the scrum master can verify any performance
improvement resulting from the changes implemented by the development
team.
933. With years of collaboration, the project manager and team have cultivated a
strong sense of community. Each member is proficient and continually enhances
their skills with each project. In this context, which leadership style does the
project manager employ to enhance these connections effectively?
a) Communications leadership
b) Servant leadership
c) Transformational leadership
d) Charismatic leadership

Explanation: Servant leadership is a leadership style that emphasizes

collaboration, trust, empathy, and the well-being of the team members. It is
particularly effective in deepening connections and building a sense of
community among team members.

934. Your organization's PMO routinely requests project artifacts across all projects to
ensure adherence to corporate project management standards. Additionally, they
readily provide templates and guidelines upon request. What type of PMO is being
described in this scenario?
a) Controlling PMO
b) Governing PMO
c) Supporting PMO
d) Directing PMO

Explanation: The PMO described in the question is a Controlling PMO because it

is focused on ensuring that corporate standards are being followed and
periodically checking project artifacts to ensure compliance.

935. The Project Manager, aiming to construct a concrete waterfall at a theme park,
prefers thorough upfront planning and follows the waterfall method. However,
the customer desires flexibility, anticipating potential changes during the project
and seeking assurance that the Project Manager can accommodate such
adjustments. What type of project life cycle should the Project Manager employ?

a) Explicit
b) Predictive
c) Adaptive
d) Tacit

Explanation: The Project Manager should use an adaptive project life cycle,
which allows for changes and adjustments to be made throughout the project.
This will enable the customer to change her mind in certain areas without
causing significant delays or issues in the project.
936. You've recently assumed the role of Marketing Manager in an organization.
Informed about a new product requiring swift market entry within the next
month, involving various promotional channels and a significant launch event, you
seek guidance from a project manager. However, you discover that the
organization lacks a dedicated Project Manager, only having a part-time Project
Coordinator. What is the organizational structure of the organization?
a) Balanced matrix
b) Project-oriented
c) Strong matrix
d) PMO

Explanation: The organizational structure of the organization is a balanced

matrix because it has a part-time Project Coordinator who will be responsible for
coordinating the project, but the Marketing Manager will be responsible for the
project's success.

937. A project manager is overseeing the design and development of a state-of-the-art

computer system, currently in the second phase of a five-phase project. Facing
delays and substantial budget overruns due to a force majeure event, the project
is being conducted internally to retain control over proprietary technology,
offering a competitive edge. The project has now reached a phase gate. What is
the purpose of conducting the phase gate?
a) Determine how many resources are required to complete the project
according to the project baseline
b) Obtain customer acceptance of project deliverables
c) The project's performance is compared to the business documents to
determine if the project should be Continue to the next phase, End the
project. or Repeat the phase
d) Adjust the schedule and cost baselines based on past performance

Explanation: The purpose of performing the phase gate is to compare the

project's performance to the business documents to determine if the project
should continue to the next phase, end, or repeat the phase. This helps to
ensure that the project is still aligned with the business objectives and that it is
still feasible to continue with the project.

938. A project manager has recently assumed control of a project aiming to create a
product through a hybrid life cycle. In this scenario, the hardware component has
well-defined requirements, while the software requirements are still undergoing
refinement. How should the project manager implement the hybrid life cycle in
this project?
 a) Develop the hardware with a predictive life cycle and use an adaptive
life cycle for the software
b) Both the hardware and software should have their scope defined during
initial project planning
c) Develop the software with a predictive life cycle and use an adaptive life cycle
for the hardware
d) Both the hardware and software should have their scope defined iteratively

Explanation: The hardware has fixed requirements, so it can be developed using

a predictive life cycle. The software requirements are still evolving, so an
adaptive life cycle should be used for software development. Therefore, the
project manager should apply a hybrid life cycle by developing the hardware
with a predictive life cycle and using an adaptive life cycle for the software.

939. In your project, the supplier provides equipment that does not meet customer
requirements. Upon investigation, it becomes clear that the supplier
misunderstood the requirements and made incorrect assumptions without
seeking clarification from the customer. As a project manager, what
communication methods could you have employed to prevent this?
a) Pull communication
b) Push communication
c) Interactive communication
d) Manual communication

Explanation: Interactive communication is a two-way communication method

that allows for clarification and feedback. By using interactive communication,
the project manager could have ensured that the supplier understood the
customer's requirements and had no incorrect assumptions.

940. You are overseeing an agile software project after previously managing non-agile
projects. What type of meetings would you identify as distinct in your current
project compared to your previous ones?
a) Sprint meetings
b) Design meetings
c) Vendor performance review meetings
d) Quality review meetings

Explanation: Sprint meetings are unique to Agile projects and are not found in
traditional project management methodologies.

941. In overseeing a multinational project with team members spanning different

countries and time zones, you aim to select a communication medium that best
 aligns with project needs. What would be the most suitable approach to tackle
this?
a) Discuss the communication requirements and the available options
with stakeholders to seek their inputs
b) Use a combination of communication technology as is done in your peer's
project
c) Explore communication tools available in the market. and ask for quotation
exclusively for your project instead of using existing tool in the organization
d) Use the most cost effective technique, and involve everyone to explain its
usage

Explanation: Choosing the communication media that is most efficient for

project requirements is a critical aspect of project management. The best way to
address this is to discuss the communication requirements and the available
options with stakeholders to seek their input. This will help in identifying the
most appropriate communication media that meets the project requirements.

942. In the course of a new product development project, the project manager
recognizes that the requirements are conceptual, making it challenging to
establish a shared understanding among all stakeholders. What actions can the
project manager take to foster a shared understanding of the project's
requirements?
a) Build a prototype
b) Hold brainstorming sessions with the stakeholders
c) Conduct a requirements walkthrough
d) Benchmark with the other organizations

Explanation: Building a prototype can help stakeholders visualize the

requirements and provide feedback, leading to a shared understanding of the
project's requirements.

943. On your project, there is a diverse range of stakeholders representing various

functional areas. As you gather requirements from each of them, you aim to
delineate cross-functional requirements and reconcile any differences among
stakeholders. What requirement collection techniques would be most effective in
accomplishing this objective?
a) Interviews
b) Focus Groups
c) Facilitation
d) Brainstorming
 Explanation: Facilitation is the best technique to use when there are multiple
stakeholders with different perspectives and requirements. It helps to bring
everyone together and reconcile differences.

944. As a Project Manager, you're utilizing the triangular distribution formula to

estimate the duration of a project activity. For a specific activity, your Optimistic
estimate is 14 days, the Pessimistic estimate is 49 days, and the Most Likely
estimate is 27 days. What would be the anticipated duration of this activity?
a) 25
b) 30
c) 32
d) 50

Explanation: The expected duration of an activity using a triangular distribution

formula is calculated as (Optimistic + 4 x Most Likely + Pessimistic) / 6.
Substituting the values, we get (14 + 4 x 27 + 49) / 6 = 30. Therefore, the expected
duration of the activity is 30 days.

945. As a project manager overseeing a complex construction project, you seek a five-
year schedule for the endeavor. Despite conducting numerous brainstorming
sessions with your project team, you encounter challenges in furnishing specific
details for the project management plan. This results in a delay in securing
approvals for the project management plan. What steps could you have taken to
prevent this situation?
a) Used the rolling wave planning technique for activity planning
b) Used decomposition techniques
c) Created a high level Gantt chart to represent the milestone only
d) Used subject matter expert to develop the detailed schedule

Explanation: Using the rolling wave planning technique for activity, planning
would have allowed the project manager to develop a high-level plan for the
entire project and a detailed plan for the near-term work. This would have
allowed the project manager to obtain the project management plan approvals
on time.

946. A software development project has been assigned to a selected vendor. Your
company and the vendor have reached an agreement to execute the project using
the Waterfall Methodology. Upon inquiring about progress and the start of
development, the vendor communicates that the actual development can only
commence after the completion of the design. What type of relationship most
accurately characterizes the dependency between design and actual
development?
a) Finish-to-Start
 b) Start-to-Start
c) Start-to-Finish
d) Finish-to-Finish

Explanation: The dependency between design and actual development is a

finish-to-start relationship because the actual development can only start after
the completion of the design.

947. The central emphasis of a project is maintaining adherence to the schedule. In

order to oversee this aspect, the project manager solicits monthly progress
reports from the contractor. What specific details should the project manager
request the contractor to incorporate into these reports?
a) Gantt chart
b) Schedule attributes
c) Work breakdown structure (WBS)
d) Network chart

Explanation: A Gantt chart is a visual representation of a project schedule,

which shows the start and end dates of each task, as well as dependencies
between tasks. By including a Gantt chart in the monthly progress reports, the
project manager can easily monitor the project's progress and identify any
delays or potential issues.

948. As a project manager in a manufacturing company overseeing the production of

piston rings on a specific line, you aim to assess the output. Your goal is to
differentiate between variations inherent to the process and those indicating a
need for adjustments. In this scenario, which tool would be the most beneficial?

a) Pareto charts
b) Statistical sampling
c) Control charts
d) Trend analysis

Explanation: Control charts are used to determine whether the variations in the
jobs are inherent to the process or if the process is in need of adjustment. They
are used to monitor the stability of a process over time and to identify any
unusual variations that may indicate a problem.

949. The goal of a sprint should be to:

a) Deliver and deploy the product to production
b) Complete as many features as possible

c) Produce a product increment of a releasable quality

 d) Fix all the defects in the product

Explanation: A sprint is supposed to produce a product increment with a

releasable quality

950. Continuous integration is:

a) When the development happens in real time
b) When code is integrated after the feature is updated
c) When all code changes are checked and tested every day
d) When the team works on a single set of code

Explanation: Continuous integration is executed when code changes are

checked and tested daily.

951. A definition of done clarifies when a particular work item can be marked as done.
When is the definition of done first used by the team?
a) While estimating the work
b) While marking a work item as complete
c) During the sprint to ascertain what all needs to be done
d) By the tester while checking the stories

Explanation: While estimating the work the team should know what needs to be
done, so that they can make informed commitments.

952. How frequently should the test-code-test cycle repeat itself in test-driven
development?
a) At least once a day
b) At the end of an iteration
c) Every few minutes
d) For each line of code

Explanation: Test-driven development means the code should follow the tests
and the cycle should repeat frequently

953. A team assigned 3 story points to a story. The manager wanted to know how this
can corelate to the time required to complete it. How should the team respond?
a) A story point is roughly one hour of work
b) A story point is roughly one day of work
c) Story points are not directly correlated to time, rather through velocity,
which specifies how many points a team can complete in an iteration
d) A team will establish a standard ratio between points and hours, which is
constant for a specific team
 Explanation: A story point is a unit of measure to express the estimated effort
of the user story.

954. In order to implement Lean, the first step should be to:

a) Eliminate waste
b) Limit work-in-progress
c) Draw a value stream map
d) Continuously improve the process

Explanation: Value stream mapping is a way of analyzing a chain of processes

and is the first step to achieve elimination of waste.

955. A team facilitator (aka scrum master) facilitates the daily stand-up meeting for a
team. The facilitator is going on a leave for 2 weeks. What should be done about
the daily stand-up meetings in this period?
a) The product owner should facilitate for that period
b) The stand-up meetings should be deferred until the scrum master returns
c) The stand-up meetings should happen regardless of whether the
facilitator is present or not
d) The team should inform each other about the status through emails or other
means of communication

Explanation: Daily stand-up meeting is important to the flow of communication

and for early detection of any issues. This should not be skipped even if the
scrum master or facilitator is absent.

956. The process of test-driven development has the following steps:

a) Test, Code, Deliver, Refractor
b) Code, Refactor, Test, Deliver
c) Code, Test, Refactor, Deliver
d) Test, Code, Refactor, Deliver

Explanation: The steps for the process of test-driven development are test,
code, refactor, and deliver.

957. Agile approaches are becoming very popular in every industry today because of
their flexibility to adapt to change. This is important because:
a) Reducing the extent of change is important for success
b) Planning is greatly hampered if there is excessive change
c) Changes bring about a competitive advantage to the customer
d) Teams need to gear up to handle change to improve their technical abilities
 Explanation: Changing requirements brings about a competitive advantage to
the customer.

958. Agile focuses on iterative, incremental development, whereas Kanban focuses on:
a) Minimizing waste
b) Maximizing WIP
c) Maximizing Lead Time
d) Flow of work

Explanation: Kanban focuses on flow of work

959. A PMO (Project Management Office) can be a key enabler for an agile
transformation. What could be an area that the PMO can help an agile team with?

a) How to deliver the work

b) Guidelines to ensure compliance with established frameworks
c) Standards and benchmarks for team velocity
d) Technical expertise required to deliver

Explanation: The PMO can help the team stay on the right side of required
compliance needs

960. The developers in a team felt that all the stories were completed. A tester in the
team disagreed with this. What is the best way to resolve this issue?
a) Redefine the stories after each iteration
b) Approach the customer
c) Don't change the stories. The team agreed on the definition in advance
d) Rewrite ground rules

Explanation: Done must be explicitly defined and agreed upon by the entire
team.

961. A team is debating about the effectiveness of two different design approaches.
How to arrive at a conclusion?
a) Approach the customer to clarify requirements
b) Conduct small experiments to help the team determine a course of
action
c) Add a story to finalize the design
d) Set aside one iteration for design

Explanation: Spike is a quick experiment used to help the team answer a

question and determine a path forward.
962. Which of the following is the best description of the 5 Whys technique?
a) Ask why while selecting the team, scrum master, and product owner
b) Ask why questions while understanding and analyzing user stories
c) Asking the why question at least 5 or as many times as necessary to
understand the deeper root causes
d) Five people asking the why question to see if the answers are consistent

Explanation: Toyota used the 5 Whys in their manufacturing processes to detect

and correct deeper root causes of issues

963. A team is estimating the time needed to create a software package by posting
stories on the wall in the order from of least to greatest. This is an example of:
a) Relative sizing
b) Top down estimating
c) Wireframes
d) Game player

Explanation: Relative sizing is estimating the size of a function or user story

based on the size of another one.

964. The most important job of a scrum master is:

a) To keep the team focused on agile principles
b) To manage the projects
c) To be a liaison with the customer
d) To report status to executives

Explanation: The scrum master is responsible for helping the team to follow the
scrum process.

965. Senior management would like to keep tabs on progress of a project. What is the
best demonstration of progress that the team can come up with?
a) Burn down chart
b) Information radiators
c) Value points delivered
d) Working product

Explanation: Working software is the primary measure of progress as per the

Agile Manifesto

966. Extreme programming believes in programmers working in pairs. Which of the

following is an exception to this rule?
a) When the team works on a SPIKE
b) When there is an emergency
 c) When programmers are fixing defects
d) When programmers implement minor features

Explanation: SPIKE is an experiment, and therefore need not be written in pairs.

967. Distributed agile teams often make use of live video conferences to stay in touch
with the remote team members. This is important because these methods enable:
a) Information radiation
b) Face-to-face communication
c) Brainstorming
d) Conflict resolution

Explanation: Face-to-face communication is the most effective type of

communication and therefore colocation is the best arrangement for the team.

968. Who is primarily accountable for delivery of the work in an agile team?
a) Development team
b) Product owner
c) Scrum master
d) Functional managers

Explanation: The team is collectively accountable for delivery of the work

969. In a given iteration, a team completed 5 stories of sizes 1, 3, 5, 8, and 13

respectively. Two other stories of size 5 each were almost complete but narrowly
missed the definition of done. What is the velocity of the team in the iteration?
a) 20
b) 30
c) 35
d) 40

Explanation: Velocity only accounts for completed stories as per the definition
of done

970. Iteration retrospective is used to:

a) Shape product roadmap
b) Improve processes in future iterations
c) Resolve team conflicts
d) Allow the opportunity to re-organize the team

Explanation: An iteration retrospective is focused on process improvement.

971. Project A has an NPV of $15,000 and IRR of 15%. Project B has an NPV of $20,000
and IRR of 13%. Project C has an NPV of $18,000 and IRR of 12.5%. Project D has
an NPV of $25,000 and IRR of 14%. Which project should be selected if only one
can be funded?
a) A
b) B
c) C
d) D

Explanation: IRR is a superior measure and should be used for making decisions
in benefit-cost analysis

972. Which attributes should be attached to user stories?

a) Validated, Economical
b) Vital, Large
c) Valuable, Estimable
d) Verifiable, Editable

Explanation: User stories should add value to the user and be small in effort
and therefore, estimable.

973. The scrum master of a team is working on a critical task when another team
member approached him for help. The scrum master should:
a) Complete the critical task and then help the team member
b) First help the team member and then return to his task
c) Ask another team member to help
d) None of the above

Explanation: Scrum master duties always come first - before any other task that
the scrum master is performing

974. What is the appropriate level to measure earned value management in an agile
project?
a) Feature
b) Release
c) Iteration
d) Continuous

Explanation: Earned value management in an agile project should be measured

at the iteration level, because this is the level where velocity is measured and
resources are applied.
975. During the iteration review, a customer representative pointed out that the
addition of a few features would add a lot of value to the product. Who should
take this into consideration first?
a) The sponsor
b) The product owner
c) The scrum master
d) The team

Explanation: The product owner maintains the product backlog.

976. In a scrum planning meeting, the team had a few questions about the features
with the highest priority. This should be resolved by:
a) The project manager
b) The customer
c) The product owner
d) The scrum master

Explanation: The product owner leads the first part of each iteration planning
meeting where the features are discussed.

977. You see a burndown chart, burnup chart, feature backlog, and a velocity chart on
the wall. What are they?
a) Enterprise Environmental Factors
b) Organizational process assets
c) Agile status
d) Information radiator

Explanation: The information radiator is used to communicate project status to

the team and other stakeholders.

978. The charter for an agile project is a bit different from the charter for a traditional
project in that:
a) It is not mandatory for an agile project to have a charter
b) Agile charter may not require a business case
c) Agile charter is more lightweight, recognizing the inevitability of
changes
d) Traditional charter is more high level, agile charter is revised per iteration

Explanation: The charter is still important for the success of an agile project but
is relatively lightweight as compared to traditional charters.
979. Simplicity - the art of maximizing the work not done - is essential. What is the
most appropriate interpretation of this agile principle?
a) Working in short iterations automatically leads to simplicity.
b) Look for simpler solutions to avoid overengineering and prevent
unnecessary work.
c) Simplicity is more important than avoiding maximum work.
d) None of the above

Explanation: Simpler solutions help prevent unnecessary work.

980. At a stakeholder meeting, all stakeholders are given fake money to purchase the
features they like and need. This is an example of:
a) An innovation game
b) Product mapping
c) Economic analysis
d) Market analysis

Explanation: An innovation game is used to frame the process of requirements

gathering in a creative way.

981. What are the questions asked during daily stand-up meetings?
a) What did you do today?
b) What are the impediments to getting work completed?
c) What are you planning to do tomorrow?
d) All of the above

Explanation: The questions asked during the daily stand-up meetings are what
did you accomplish yesterday, what do you plan to do today, and are you
encountering obstacles?

982. The expected time for planning a four-week iteration is:

a) 1-2 hours
b) 2-4 hours
c) 4-8 hours
d) 12-24 hours

Explanation: Typically an iteration planning should take 1-2 hours for each week
of sprint duration (5-10% of effort)

983. The iteration review or demo is an important meeting for the team to bring the
iteration to a logical conclusion. Which of the following should NOT be part of this
meeting?
a) A demonstration of the working product
 b) A detailed overview of the challenges encountered during the iteration
and how they were overcome
c) Feedback by the participants about the product
d) Discussion about the potential release of the product

Explanation: Discussion about challenges is probably more appropriate for the

retrospective.

984. Which of the following is NOT very consistent with agile principles?
a) Large teams
b) Incremental delivery
c) Small releases
d) Progressive elaboration

Explanation: Large teams are not optimal for using agile principles.

985. During an iteration, an end user keeps calling the team members requesting to
include more work items to the iteration. What should be done?
a) The team should talk to the end user asking them not to be disturbed.
b) The coach should talk to the end user and explain how an agile project
is planned.
c) The end user should be asked to join the team.
d) Senior management should be brought in to solve the problem.

Explanation: The coach is the person who keeps the team and end users
focused on learning and using agile processes.

986. A developer has not created a detailed documentation for a code that is only
understood by him. Why is this a problem?
a) Code should be collectively owned by the team.
b) Conflict should be handled immediately.
c) Documentation should be written immediately.
d) The team should demand the coder be fired.

Explanation: In an agile project, the code is collectively owned by team and each
team member should understand the code.

987. Extreme programming believes in deeper involvement of the onsite customers in

the team. Which of the following is NOT a customer role in extreme programming?
a) Interaction designer
b) Business analyst
c) Product manager
d) Programmer
 Explanation: Programmer is a developer role, not a customer role.

988. Mary is the scrum master for a new project and is working with the product
owner and team on selecting the user stories for the first sprint. The team has
committed to 30 story points for the sprint, but the product owner wants the team
to deliver more. The team is uncomfortable committing more as it hasn’t
understood the stories well. What should Mary do?
a) Explain to the product owner that the team determines their commitment
and she needs to accept what they have identified.
b) Encourage the product owner to review the stories and add more
details and acceptance criteria to help the team better determine if
they can deliver more stories
c) Ask the team to identify two additional stories for the sprint as a stretch goal.
d) Add a story for the next sprint and add more details to the stories.

Explanation: The product owner needs to provide the details that the team
requires to make their commitments.

989. Team workspace should be arranged so the team members can:

a) Form smaller groups
b) Face the information radiator
c) Face each other
d) Have privacy

Explanation: Team workspace should be arranged to maximize the interaction

between team members for the best results.

990. Refactoring should produce software that is:

a) Better organized
b) Regression tested
c) Finished
d) Just passing acceptance tests

Explanation: Refactoring is the reorganization of working code to bring the

organization in line with its functionality and maintain it better.

991. During an iteration, there was a major reorganization and the team is in a flux
about future direction for the product. They feel that the iteration should be put
on hold or cancelled until clarity emerges. Who is responsible for making this
decision?
a) Scrum master
b) Product owner
 c) Team facilitator
d) Team

Explanation: Product owner decides whether it is appropriate to cancel an

iteration.

992. A team is analyzing factors that drive change and restrict change. This is called
__________.
a) Change management
b) Product mapping
c) Force field analysis
d) Root cause analysis

Explanation: Force field analysis is a technique for analyzing the forces that are
encouraging and resisting potential or real change and the strength of these
forces.

993. After the team has removed the bottlenecks in a Kanban system and established
WIP limits, what should they focus on next?
a) Introduce iterative development
b) Prioritize the requirements
c) Hand over to operations
d) Continuous improvement

Explanation: Kaizen means continuous improvement and prevents inertia from

becoming a constraint.

994. Pruning the Product Tree is a technique for:

a) Release planning
b) Iteration planning
c) Requirement gathering
d) Integration testing

Explanation: The act of pruning the product tree is a technique for requirement
gathering.

995. A team completed 10 work items in a five-day week and each item took about
five days to complete. What is the cycle time?
a) 5 days
b) 0.5 day
c) 1 day
d) 2 per day
 Explanation: Cycle time is the average time between the delivery of completed
work items. 10 items in 5 days means half day per item.

996. The number of story points a team can complete in a single iteration is known as
_________________.
a) Velocity
b) Time to value
c) Value points delivered
d) Cycle time

Explanation: Velocity is the number of features or user stories that a team

delivers in a fixed iteration.

997. All of the following are common ways to enable osmotic communication in
distributed agile teams except:
a) Appointing a spokesperson for each location
b) Looping the entire team in all project-related communications
c) Conducting live video conferences
d) Traveling frequently between locations and meetings

Explanation: Appointing a spokesperson restricts the channels of

communication available.

998. Who is responsible for updating the Kanban board?

a) The product owner
b) The scrum master
c) The tester
d) The team

Explanation: The Kanban board is an artifact that shows work in progress (WIP)
that can only be updated by the team doing the work.

999. Which technique helps in analyzing how different groups interact with the
product?
a) Stakeholder analysis
b) Creating personas
c) Wireframes
d) Risk analysis

Explanation: A persona is an imaginary person or identity created by the team,

to model interactions with the system to gather requirements. Creating personas
helps in analyzing how different groups interact with the product.
1000. A product owner is very pushy and tends to compel the team members to
accept more work than they can accomplish. This is is causing team burnout. What
is the best way to resolve this issue?
a) The team facilitator should talk to the product owner and explain the
dangers of team burnout.
b) The team should pad their estimates with buffers.
c) The product owner should be replaced.
d) More team members should be added so that work can be evenly
distributed.

Explanation: The team facilitator should talk to the product owner and explain
the dangers of team burnout. This is the best way to resolve the issues in the
given scenario.