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Biology-I-Section-A 5. All the following given differences between

fungi belonging to Phycomycetes and
1. Consider the given two statements: Basidiomycetes are correct except:
Statement Taxa can indicate categories at Phycomycetes Basidiomycetes
I: very different levels. Branched and Aseptate and
1. Mycelium
Taxonomic groups/categories are septate coenocytic
Statement not distinct biological entities but Asexual Zoospores or Generally not
2.
II: are merely morphological spores aplanospores found
aggregates. Notable Bread mould Rust and Smut
3.
examples and Albugo fungi
Statement I is correct and Statement II is Dikaryon
1. 4. Not seen Present
also correct stage
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
2.
correct
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is 6. The suffix to a biological name which is used
3.
also incorrect to indicate ‘family’ in plant classification is:
Statement I is correct and Statement II is 1. - ales 2. - onae
4.
incorrect 3. - aceae 4. - ae

2. Flagella are two in number and: 7. Which of the following acts as the final
one lies longitudinally and the other electron acceptor in aerobic respiration?
I: transversely in a furrow between the wall 1. pyruvate 2. carbon dioxide
plates in Euglenoids. 3. oxygen 4. water
one is shorter length and another longer in
II:
length in Dinoflagellates.
1. I is correct; II is incorrect 8. Taxonomy is the part of systematics that is
2. I is correct; II is correct concerned with:
3. I is incorrect; II is incorrect characterization and identification of living
4. I is incorrect; II is correct (a)
organisms
classification and nomenclature of living
3. Where are the carriers for the mitochondrial (b) organisms
electron transport system located?
establishing evolutionary relationships
1. within the cytoplasm of a cell (c)
between living organisms
2. on the cristae of mitochondria
3. within the matrix of mitochondria
4. on the outer membrane 1. Only (a) and (b) 2. Only (a) and (c)
3. Only (b) and (c) 4. (a), (b) and (c)

4. The members of which of the following

classes of fungi, predominantly, reproduce 9. Which fungus is used extensively in
sexually? biochemical and genetic work?
1. Ascomycetes 1. Aspergillus
2. Imperfect fungi 2. Neurospora
3. Basidiomycetes 3. Claviceps
4. Phycomycetes 4. Agaricus

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10. Who proposed the five kingdom 16. Consider the two statements:
classification? Systematics takes into account
1. Carolus Linnaeus Statement I: evolutionary relationships
2. Aristotle between organisms.
3. Bentham and Hooker Taxonomy takes into account
4. R. H. Whittaker only some easily observable
Statement II:
external characters of
11. Identify the incorrectly matched pair: organisms.
Component of 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
Name
ETC correct
1. Complex I NADH dehydrogenase 2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
Succinate correct
2. Complex II
dehydrogenase 3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
3. Complex III Cytochrome b f complex incorrect
6
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4. Complex IV Cytochrome c oxidase
incorrect

17. Members belonging to Solanaceae and

12. A hierarchy is an arrangement of items that Convolvulaceae will not belong to the same:
are represented as being "above", "below", or
I: Order
"at the same level as" one another. The correct
ascending order of taxonomic hierarchy is: II: Family
Species → Genus → Family → Order → Class III: Division
1.
→ Division → Kingdom
Species → Genus → Family → Class → Order 1. Only I and III
2. 2. Only II
→ Division → Kingdom
3. Only I
Species → Genus → Order → Family → Class
3. 4. I, II and III
→ Division → Kingdom
Genus → Species → Family → Order → Class 18. Sleeping sickness in humans is caused by
4.
→ Kingdom → Division a/an:
1. Amoeboid protozoan
2. Flagellated protozoan
13. Which one of the following belongs to the 3. Ciliated protozoan
family Muscidae? 4. Sporozoan
1. Cockroach 2. House fly
3. Fire fly 4. Grasshopper 19. Imperfect fungi include all the following
except:
1. Alternaria
14. Which of the following taxonomic category 2. Colletotrichum
is less general in characters as compared to the 3. Trichoderma
taxonomic category ‘Genus’? 4. Aspergillus
1. Species 2. Division
20. Cytochrome c in the mitochondrial ETS is
3. Class 4. Family
located:
1. within the inner mitochondrial membrane
15. The 5-C compound formed during TCA cycle 2. on the outer surface of the inner
is : mitochondrial membrane
1. α−ketoglutaric acid on the inner surface of the inner
3.
2. Oxalo succinic acid mitochondrial membrane
3. Succinic acid 4. in the mitochondrial matrix
4. Fumaric acid

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21. A molecule of GTP is synthesized in Krebs 26. Regarding the transition [link] reaction:
cycle during: I: It occurs in the matrix of mitochondria.
1. the condensation of acetyl group with II: It links glycolysis to the Krebs cycle.
oxaloacetic acid
Two oxygen molecules are given off from
2. isomerization of citrate to isocitrate III:
glucose.
3. the conversion of succinyl-CoA to succinic
acid Four NADH molecules are formed from the
IV:
4. the regeneration of oxaloacetic acid reaction.

22. The number of correct statement(s) from 1. Only I and II are correct
the given statements regarding possible 2. Only III and IV are correct
respiratory substrates is/are: 3. Only I and III are correct
Glucose is the favoured substrate for 4. Only II and IV are correct
I:
respiration.
27. Select the correctly written complete
All carbohydrates are usually first
scientific name of Mango which was first
II: converted into glucose before they are used
described by Carolus Linnaeus:
for respiration.
1. Mangifera Indica
Glycerol would enter the pathway after 2. Mangifera indica Car. Linn.
III:
being converted to Acetyl CoA. 3. Mangifera indica Linn.
Proteins and amino acids cannot be used as 4. Mangifera indica
IV:
respiratory substrates.
1. 1 28. Consider the two statements:
2. 2 Statement No virus contains both RNA and
3. 3 I: DNA.
4. 4 Statement Bacteriophages are usually single-
II: stranded RNA viruses.
23. Diatomaceous earth is used as a heat
insulator in boilers and steam pipes because
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
the cell wall of diatom is 1.
correct
1. Composed of iron
2. Composed of silicon dioxide Statement I is correct; Statement II is
2.
3. a good conductor of heat incorrect
4. a bad conductor of electricity Statement I is correct; Statement II is
3.
correct
24. You discover a new fungus. On careful Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
examination you find that the mycelium is incorrect
septate and branched, they reproduce
asexually by conidia and you cannot identify
any sexual stage in its life cycle. To which
fungal class would you place this fungus?
1. Phycomycetes 2. Ascomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes 4. Deuteromycetes

25. A net gain of how many ATP molecules

occurs during aerobic respiration of one
molecule of glucose?
1. 30
2. 32
3. 36
4. 38

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29. Consider the two statements: 33. In case of plants, classes with a few similar
It is better to consider the characters are assigned to a higher category
respiratory pathway as an ideally called:
Assertion (A):
amphibolic pathway rather 1. Phylum 2. Division
than as a catabolic one. 3. Subphylum 4. Infra Class
The respiratory pathway is
Reason (R): involved in both anabolism
and catabolism. 34. Read the following statements.
Lower the taxon, more are the
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the (i) characteristics that the members within
1.
correct explanation of (A). the taxon share.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the Order is the assemblage of genera which
2. (ii)
correct explanation of (A). exhibit a few similar characters.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. Cat and dog are included in the same
(iii)
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. family Felidae.
Binomial Nomenclature was introduced by
(iv)
Carolus Linnaeus.
30. Identify the incorrect statement:
1. Viruses are obligate parasites Which of the following statements are
2. Prions are abnormally folded infectious not correct?
proteins
3. Viroids are free RNA and lack a protein coat 1. (i), (ii) and (iii) 2. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
4. Lichens grow very well in polluted areas 3. (i) and (iv) 4. (ii) and (iii)

31. In basidiomycetes:
The sex organs are absent, but 35. The number of times the Krebs cycle turns
plasmogamy is brought about by per glucose molecule will be:
Statement I: fusion of two vegetative or 1. 1 2. 2
somatic cells of different strains 3. 3 4. 6
or genotypes.
The basidiospores are
Statement II: exogenously produced on the
basidium. Biology-I-Section-B
36. Mycorrhiza is:
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is a fungus that lives on dead or decaying
correct 1.
organic matter.
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is 2. a fungus that parasitizes on an animal body.
correct
is a symbiotic association between a fungus
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is 3.
and a plant.
incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is 4. is a symbiotic association between a fungus
incorrect and a cyanobacterium

32. Regarding taxonomy and systematics,

which one is exclusive to systematics?
1. Internal structure
2. Development process
3. Evolutionary relationships between
organisms
4. Ecological information of organisms

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37. In taxonomy: 40. In the given figure showing taxonomic

Nomenclature is critical as it allows a hierarchy for living organisms:
I: particular organism to be known by the
same name all over the world.
Identification is critical as nomenclature or
naming is only possible when the organism
II:
is described correctly and we know to what
organism the name is attached to.
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
I: A would be Solanum for potato.
38. An intervening dikaryophase is seen during
the sexual reproduction in members of the II: B would be Muscidae for housefly.
fungal class: III: C would be Primata for humans.
1. Phycomycetes and Ascomycetes D would be phylum for animals and
IV:
2. Ascomycytes and Basidiomycetes division for plants.
3. Basidiomycetes and Deuteromycetes
4. Phycomycetes and Deuteromycetes 1. Only I, II and III are incorrect
2. Only I, III and IV are incorrect
39. Correct comparisons between fermentation 3. Only II, III and IV are incorrect
and aerobic respiration will include: 4. I, II, III and IV are incorrect
Fermentation accounts for only a partial
breakdown of glucose, whereas in aerobic 41. Identify the correctly matched taxonomic
I: category for humans:
respiration, it is completely degraded to
CO2 and H2O. 1. Family Hominidae
In fermentation, there is a net gain of only 2. Order Mammalia
two molecules of ATP for each molecule of 3. Class Primata
II: glucose degraded to pyruvic acid, whereas 4. Phylum Vertebrata
many more molecules of ATP are generated
under aerobic conditions.
NADH is oxidised to NAD+ rather slowly in 42. A bacteria with the given shape will be
III: fermentation, however, the reaction is very called as a:
vigorous in case of aerobic respiration.
1. Only I and II
2. Only I and III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

1. Bacillus 2. Coccus
3. Spirillum 4. Vibrios

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43. Two flagella are seen in: 49. The taxonomic category - Order Primata –
I. most dinoflagellates includes all of the following animals except:
II. euglenoids 1. Monkey
2. Gorilla
1. Only I 3. Gibbon
2. Only II 4. Tiger
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
50. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
44. Numbers of points in the Krebs cycle where Pathway for electron
Respiratory Complex
transport
NAD+ is reduced to NADH + H+ and where FAD+
is reduced to FADH2 respectively are: NADH NADH – FMN – [Fe-S] –
1.
dehydrogenase Q
1. 1 and 3
2. 3 and 1 Succinic FADH2 – FMN - Q
2.
3. 2 and 4 dehydrogenase
4. 4 and 2 3. Cytochrome bc1 Cyt b – [Fe-S] – Cyt c1
Cytochrome c CuA – Cyt a – Cyt a3 –
45. In the classification of plants, the taxonomic 4. oxidase CuB
unit ‘Division’ is equivalent to which taxonomic
unit in the classification of animals?
1. Order
2. Class
3. Phylum
Biology-II-Section-A
4. Genus 51. How many of the given statements
regarding leucocytes in human are true?
46. What process in aerobic respiration I. Neutrophils are the most abundant cells
generates maximum ATP? (60-65 percent) of the total WBCs.
substrate-level Basophils are the least (0.5-1 percent) of the
1. 2. chemiosmosis II:
phosphorylation total WBCs.
Pyruvate Neutrophils and monocytes (6-8 percent)
3. Krebs cycle 4. III:
decarboxylation are phagocytic cells.
Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin,
IV: heparin, etc., and are involved in
47. Glycolysis results in the production of: inflammatory reactions.
I: pyruvate Eosinophils (2-3 percent) resist infections
II: ATP V: and are also associated with allergic
III: NADH reactions.
1. Only I and II Lymphocytes (20-25 percent) are
2. Only I and III VI: responsible for immune responses of the
3. Only II and III body.
4. I, II and III
1. 3 2. 4
48. Both Dinoflagellates and Euglenoids: 3. 5 4. 6
1. have stiff cellulosic cell wall
2. have two flagella
3. can behave as heterotrophs when deprived
of sunlight
4. are mostly marine and photosynthetic

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52. Regarding erythroblastosis fetalis: 57. Match each item in Column-I with one
The baby is Rh positive and the mother is given in Column-II and select the correct
I: match from the codes given:
Rh negative.
The mother's immune system has made Column-I Column-II
II: antibodies against the Rh factor present on A. Lub P. Closure of AV valves
the red blood cells of the previous baby. Closure of semilunar
B. Dub Q.
III: Anaemia and jaundice in a baby are rare. valves
There is no mechanism to prevent its Passive ventricular
IV: C. R. 70%
occurrence. filling
Active ventricular
D. S. 30%
1. I, II, III and IV are correct filling
2. Only I and II are correct Codes:
3. Only III and IV are correct A B C D
4. Only I is correct
1. Q P S R
53. The semilunar valves close at the beginning 2. P Q R S
of 3. P Q S R
1. atrial systole 4. Q P R S
2. atrial diastole
3. ventricular systole
4. ventricular diastole 58. During cardiac cycle:
all the four chambers of heart can never be
54. Which one of the following animals has two 1. in a relaxed state simultaneously.
separate circulatory pathways? as the tricuspid valve gets open, blood from
1. Frog 2. the pulmonary artery flows into the right
2. Lizard ventricle.
3. Whale
all the four chambers of heart can never be
4. Shark 3.
in a contracted state simultaneously.
55. Erythroblastosis foetalis is due to the 4. as the bicuspid valve gets open, blood from
destruction of the aorta flows into the left ventricle.
1. Foetal RBCs
2. Foetus suffers from atherosclerosis
3. Foetal WBCs 59. Identify the WBC:
4. Foetus suffers from minamata

56. Which enzyme is responsible for the

conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?
1. Epinephrine
2. Thrombokinase
3. Thrombin
4. Renin
1. Neutrophil
2. Basophil
3. Lymphocyte
4. Monocyte

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60. Person with blood group AB is considered 65. Which of the following recording of the
as universal recipient because he has: blood pressure in a human adult will not be
considered as abnormal?
both A and B antigens on RBC but no 1. 120/100 mm Hg
1. 2. 110/70 mm Hg
antibodies in the plasma
2. both A and B antibodies in the plasma 3. 170/80 mm Hg
4. 150/95 mm Hg
no antigen on RBC and no antigens in the
3.
plasma
66. Atrial systole increases the flow of blood
both A and B antigens in the plasma but no into the ventricles by about:
4.
antibodies 1. 30 %
2. 50 %
3. 70 %
61. Serum is 4. 90 %
1. Plasma without clotting factors
2. Blood without blood cells 67. The nodal musculature of the heart has the
3. Blood without clotting factors capability to generate impulse:
4. Blood without RBCs on stimulation by the sympathetic division of
1.
the autonomic nervous system
62. To prevent eryhtroblastosis fetalis in future
on stimulation by the parasympathetic
pregnancies: 2.
division of the autonomic nervous system
Anti-Rh Immunoglobulins must be given to
1. on stimulation by the somatic neural
Rh –ve mothers at the time of each delivery 3.
division of the peripheral nervous system
Anti-Rh Immunoglobulins must be given to
2. 4. without any external stimulus
new born at the time of each delivery
Rh Antigens must be given to new born at
3.
the time of each delivery
68. Arteries are best defined as the vessels
Anti Antigens must be given to Rh –ve which:
4.
mothers at the time of each delivery
carry blood away from the heart to different
1.
organs
63. The volume of blood pumped out by each
break up into capillaries which reunite to
ventricle per minute is called as the: 2.
form a vein
1. stroke volume
2. ejection fraction carry blood from one visceral organ to
3.
3. cardiac output another visceral organ
4. end diastolic volume supply oxygenated blood to the different
4.
organs
64. During an ongoing cardiac cycle, the atria of
the heart are in systole. Which of the following
will also be true?

1. The ventricles are also in systole.

2. The atrioventricular valves are closed.
Blood is being pumped into the aorta and
3.
pulmonary trunk.
4. Blood is being pumped into the ventricles.

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69. Arrange the following formed elements in 72. During ventricular diastole:
the decreasing order of their abundance in I: closure of semilunar valves occurs.
blood in humans : the tricuspid and bicuspid valves are
(a) Platelets II:
pushed open.
(b) Neutrophils 1. Only I is correct
(c) Erythrocytes 2. Only II is correct
(d) Eosinophils 3. Both I and II are correct
(e) Monocytes 4. Both I and II are incorrect
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below : 73. The most active phagocytic white blood cells
1. (c), (a), (b), (e), (d) are:
2. (c), (b), (a), (e), (d)
1. neutrophils and eosinophils
3. (d), (e), (b), (a), (c)
4. (a), (c), (b), (d), (e) 2. lymphocytes and macrophages
3. eosinophils and lymphocytes
70. The cell shown in the given diagram: 4. neutrophils and monocytes

74. Which vitamin plays a crucial role in the

maturation of red blood cells in humans?
1. Thiamine 2. Vitamin K
is a bone marrow stem cells committed to
1. 3. Ascorbic acid 4. Cyanocobalamin
produce RBCs
2. is the megakaryocyte
3. is the commonest WBC and is phagocytic 75. A person has a cardiac output of 6000 ml
is responsible for acquired immunity in per minute. 20% of this is received by kidneys.
4.
humans What is the
renal plasma flow in this person?
1. 480 ml
71. Fibrinogen, globulins and albumins are the 2. 660 ml
major proteins and their primary functions are: 3. 800 ml
Fibrinogen – clotting of blood; Globulins – 4. 1200 ml
1. colloid osmotic pressure; Albumins – defence
mechanisms 76. Which of the following events is usually not
Fibrinogen – clotting of blood; Globulins – seen in a standard ECG?
2. defence mechanisms; Albumins – colloid 1. Depolarisation of atria
osmotic pressure 2. Depolarisation of ventricles
3. Repolarisation of ventricles
Fibrinogen – prevention of clotting of blood;
4. Repolarisation of atria
3. Globulins – colloid osmotic pressure;
Albumins – defence mechanisms
77. Identify the incorrect statement regarding
Fibrinogen – prevention of clotting of blood; transport of respiratory gases in humans:
4. Globulins – defence mechanisms; Albumins –
Blood is the medium of transport for O2 and
colloid osmotic pressure 1.
CO2.
About 97 per cent of O2 is transported by
2.
RBCs in the blood.
Nearly 70 per cent of CO2 is transported by
3.
RBCs.
About 7 per cent of CO2 is carried in a
4.
dissolved state through plasma

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78. The sino-atrial node is the normal 82. When compared to the wall of a typical
pacemaker of the human heart primarily vein, the wall of a typical artery will show a
because: well developed:
1. it is made up of special cardiac muscle. 1. Tunica intima 2. Tunica media
it is richly innervated by autonomic nerve 3. Tunica externa 4. Tunica albuginea
2.
fibres.
it is located in the posterior wall of the right
3.
atrium. 83. Identify the correctly matched pairs
it depolarizes at the fastest rate out of the regarding an ECG tracing:
4. I: P wave - atrial depolarization
whole nodal tissue.
II: QRS complex - ventricular depolarization
III: T wave - atrial repolarization
79. How many of the given blood parameters 1. Only I and II
are matched to a value that will be considered 2. Only I and III
normal for a healthy human being? 3. Only II and III
I: RBC count – 5.0 million per cubic mm 4. I, II and III
II: Neutrophils – 60% of total WBCs
III: Platelets – 200000 per cubic mm
1. Only I and II 84. Consider the given two statements:
2. Only I and III Neural signals through the
3. Only II and III sympathetic nerves (part of
Assertion (A)
4. I, II and III ANS) can increase the cardiac
output.
Neural signals through the
80. Consider the two statements: sympathetic nerves can increase
Heart failure is sometimes Reason (R): the rate of heart beat and the
Assertion (A): strength of ventricular
called congestive heart failure.
Heart failure means the state of contraction.
heart when it is not pumping
Reason (R): Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
blood effectively enough to 1.
meet the needs of the body. explains (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
2.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly correctly explain (A).
1.
explains (A). 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. (A) is True but (R) is False. 4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
3.
correctly explain (A).
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. 85. The QRS complex in a standard ECG
represents:
1. Depolarisation of auricles
81. Both heart rate and stroke volume in a 2. Depolarisation of ventricles
human get doubled during exercise. His cardiac 3. Repolarisation of ventricles
output will: 4. Repolarisation of auricles
1. double 2. become four times
3. become eight times 4. remain the same

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Biology-II-Section-B
89. What will be true if we compare the
anatomy of a typical artery and a typical vein
86. Erythrocytes, or RBCs: in human body?
lack both a nucleus and mitochondria 1. The pressure of blood in vein will be higher.
I: 2. The tunica media is comparatively thin in the
organelles.
are much more common than leukocytes in veins.
II: 3. The colour of the blood will be blue in a vein.
the blood.
4. The venous RBC will have a lower chloride
require dietary iron and vitamin B12 for
III: content.
normal production.
have a circulating life span of about twelve 90. Identify the correct statements:
IV:
months. I: Humans have a closed circulatory system.
Arthropods have an open circulatory
1. Only I, II and III are correct II:
system.
2. Only I, III and IV are correct
3. Only II, III and IV are correct
1. Only I
4. I, II, III and IV are correct
2. Only II
3. Both I and II
87. Identify the correctly matched pairs:
4. Neither I nor II
Layer in the wall of
Made up of
artery/vein
91.
Squamous Absence of mitochondria in
I: Tunica intima
epithelium mature human RBCs increases
Skeletal Assertion(A):
II: Tunica media the efficiency of oxygen delivery
muscle/elastic fibres at tissues by them.
Fibrous connective Reason (R): RBCs do not need ATP
III: Tunica externa
tissue
1. Only I and II are correct Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
2. Only I and III are correct 1.
correctly explain (A).
3. Only II and III are correct
2. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. I, II and III are correct
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
3.
88. How many of the given statements are explains (A).
correct: 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
Fishes have a 2-chambered heart with an
I:
atrium and a ventricle.
Amphibians and the reptiles (except 92. The end of systole is marked on the ECG by:
II: crocodiles) have a 3-chambered heart with 1. Beginning of P wave
two atria and a single ventricle. 2. End of the Q wave
3. End of the T wave
Crocodiles, birds and mammals possess a 4-
4. Beginning of S wave
III: chambered heart with two atria and two
ventricles.
The only vertebrates where the heart
IV:
pumps out deoxygenated blood are fishes.

1. 1 2. 2
3. 3 4. 4

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93. Consider the given two statements: 98. Blood pumped by the heart is always
The type of antigen present on the RBCs of a circulated through a closed network of blood
I: vessels in:
person with blood group type A is A
The type of antibodies present in the plasma a. arthropods
II: b. molluscs
of a person with blood group type A is anti-A
c. annelids
d. chordates
1. Only I is correct
1. Only a and b
2. Only II is correct 2. Only c and d
3. Both I and II are correct 3. Only a and c
4. Both I and II are incorrect 4. Only b and d

99. Identify the correct statement:

94. Match the items given in Column I with 1. Both heparin and streptokinase are
those in Column II and select the correct option anticoagulants
given below: 2. Both heparin and streptokinase are
Column I Column II thrombolytics
Tricuspid Between left atrium and 3. Heparin is an anticoagulant and
(a) (i) streptokinase is a thrombolytic
valve left ventricle
4. Heparin is a thrombolytic and streptokinase
Bicuspid Between right ventricle
(b) (ii) is an anticoagulant
valve and pulmonary artery
Semilunar Between right atrium and
(c) (iii)
valve right ventricle 100. Consider the given two statements:
SA node is called the pacemaker
Options: (a) (b) (c) Assertion (A):
of the human heart.
1. iii i ii Reason (R): SA node is auto-excitable.
2. i iii ii
3. i ii iii Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
1.
4. ii i iii explains the (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
2.
correctly explain the (A).
95. What is incorrect regarding human heart? 3. (A) is True; (R) is False.
1. It is neurogenic 4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
2. It is derived from embryonic mesoderm
3. It is a muscular pump
4. It is located in thorax between the lungs

96. A healthy male has a resting cardiac output

of 6000 ml per minute with a stroke volume of
80 ml. What is the heart rate of this person?
1. 72 per minute 2. 75 per minute
3. 80 per minute 4. 100 per minute

97. Which part of the nodal tissue in the human

heart functions as the normal pacemaker?
1. SA Node 2. AV Node
3. Bundle of Hiss 4. Purkinje Fibres

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