Serial Page

C O N T E N T S
No. No.
1. Living World & Biological Classification 1
BIOLOGY 2. Plant Kingdom 8
3. Animal Kingdom 12
4. Morphology of Flowering Plants 26
5. Anatomy of Flowering plants 30
6. Structural organisation in 33
animals/animal tissue
7. Cell - The unit of life 35
8. Protoplasm 41
9. Cell Cycle & Cell Division 48

NCERT 10. Plant Physiology 52

11. Digestion and absorption 61

BASED OBJECTIVE 12. Respiratory System / Breathing & 64

Exchange of gases

QUESTIONS 13. Circulatory System / Body fluid &

Circulation
66

14. Excretory products & their elimination 69

15. Locomotion & Movement 71
16. Neural Control & Coordination 73
17. Chemical Coordination & Integration 76
18. Reproduction in Organisms 78
19. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 80
20. Human reproduction & Reproductive 84
health
21. Ge netics 86
22. Evolution 97
23. Human Health & Disease 99
24. Strategies for Enhancement in Food 101
production Microbes in Human Welfare
25. Biotechnology -Principles, Processes & 106
E Its Application
26. Organism & Environment 115
 Serial Page
C O N T E N T S
No. No.
1. Living World & Biological Classification 1
BIOLOGY 2. Plant Kingdom 8
3. Animal Kingdom 12
4. Morphology of Flowering Plants 26
5. Anatomy of Flowering plants 30
6. Structural organisation in 33
animals/animal tissue
7. Cell - The unit of life 35
8. Protoplasm 41
9. Cell Cycle & Cell Division 48

NCERT 10.
11.
Plant Physiology
Digestion and absorption
52
61
12. 64
BASED OBJECTIVE
Respiratory System / Breathing &
Exchange of gases
13. Circulatory System / Body fluid & 66
QUESTIONS Circulation
14. Excretory products & their elimination 69
15. Locomotion & Movement 71
16. Neural Control & Coordination 73
17. Chemical Coordination & Integration 76
18. Reproduction in Organisms 78
19. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 80
20. Human reproduction & Reproductive 84
health
21. Ge netics 86
22. Evolution 97
23. Human Health & Disease 99
24. Strategies for Enhancement in Food 101
production Microbes in Human Welfare
25. Biotechnology -Principles, Processes & 106
H Its Application
26. Organism & Environment 115
 NCERT-Biology

THE LIVING WORLD AND BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION

1. Find the incorrect statement from the following:- 8. Nostoc can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialised
(1) Family is a group of related genera with still cell they are called :-
less number of similarities as compared to genus
(1) Harmocyst (2) Harmogonia
and species
(2) Lion, tiger, leopard and cat belong to the same (3) Heterocyst (4) Akinetes
genus. 9. Which process is not performed by bacterial ac-
(3) Systematics takes into account evolutionary tivity ?
relationship between organisms.
(1) Production of antibiotics
(4) Taxonomic aids are prime source for taxonomy,
systematics, and future studies. (2) Fixing nitrogen in legumes
2. Which group shows the most extensive metabolic (3) Making curd from milk
diversity ?
(4) Production of pseudomycelium
(1) Plantae (2) Animalia
10. Choose the correct set of bacterial disease :-
(3) Monera (4) Fungi
(1) Mumps, cholera, dengue
3. Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in hav-
ing :- (2) Chicken pox, typhoid, mumps

(1) Both do not have true nucleus (3) Mumps, tetanus, chicken pox

(2) Composition of cell wall (4) Cholera, typhoid, tetanus

(3) Composition of cytoplasm 11. Choose the incorrect statement regarding
(4) Composition of genetic material Mycoplasma :-

4. Which group of organisms is responsible for the (1) They lack cell wall
production of biogas from the dung of cows and (2) They are smallest living cells
buffaloes ?
(3) They can survive without oxygen
(1) Methanomonas (2) Methanogens
(4) They have mesosome for respiration
(3) Cyanobacteria (4) Mycoplasma
12. According to five kingdom system all single-celled
5. Choose the correct statement from followings:- eukaroytes are placed under :-
(1) Most of bacteria are autotrophs
(1) Plantae (2) Monera
(2) All bacteria are heterotrophs (3) Protista (4) Mycota
(3) Some bacteria are heterotrophs 13. According to five kingdom, kingdom protista in-
(4) Most of bacteria are heterotrophs cludes :-
6. Which of the following character is similar in (1) Dinoflagellates, Diatoms, Euglenoids, Slime
cyanobacteria and green plants ? mould, Porifira
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(1) Cell wall(composition) (2) Eunglenoids, Fungi, Slime mould, Dinoflagellates,

(2) Chlorophyll 'a' Protozoa
(3) Nif gene (3) Slime mould, Protozoa, Dionflagellates, Diatoms,
(4) 80s ribosome Euglenoids

7. Which phenomenon is not performed by (4) Protozoa, Porifera, Moss, Euglenoids, Slime
cyanobacteria ? mould, Diatoms

(1) Nitrogen fixation (2) Water bloom 14. Cell wall of diatoms are embedded with :-

(3) Gaudikov's effect (4) Bolting effect (1) Calcium (2) Silica
(3) Iron (4) Calcium carbonate

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NCERT-Biology
15. Which are chief producers of oceans ? 23. In fungi sexual reproduction is by :-
(1) Diatoms (2) Dinoflagellates (1) Fragmentation, Ascospores and Basidiosphres
(3) Euglenoid (4) Green algae (2) Budding, Conidia, and Basidiospores

16. Which organism is responsible for making the sea (3) Oospores, Ascospores and Basidiospores
appear red by rapid multiplication ? (4) Fission, Zoospores, Oospores
(1) Euglena 24. Mycelium of members of phycomycetes are:-

(2) Noctiluca (1) Septate and coenocytic

(3) Gonyaulax (2) Aseptate and coenocytic

(3) Septate and multicellular
(4) Trypanosoma
(4) Septate and unicellular
17. Euglenoids have a protein rich layer instead of a
25. Choose the incorrect statement about
cell wall. This layer is called as :-
phycomycetes :-
(1) Cellulose (2) Chitin
(1) Members are found in aquatic habitats
(3) Pellicle (4) Pectin
(2) Spores are endogenously produced in sporangium
18. Choose the incorrect statement from following:
(3) A zygospores is formed by reduction division
(1) Dinoflagellates have stiff cellulose plates on the (4) They show all type of syngamy
outer surface
26. Which is not a member of Phycomycetes ?
(2) Euglenoids have two flagella, one lies longitu-
(1) Albugo (2) Aspergillus
dinally and the other transversely
(3) Rhizopus (4) Mucor
(3) Slime mould's spores are dispersed by air
27. Which fungus is used extensively in biochemical and
currents
genetic work ?
(4) In diatoms the cell walls form two overlapping (1) Agaricus (2) Aspergillus
shells
(3) Claviceps (4) Neurospora
19. The cell walls of fungi are composed of :- 28. Choose the incorrect statement about
(1) Chitin and cellulose ascomycetes :-
(2) Cellulose and polysaccharides (1) Muycelium is branched and septate
(3) Chitin and polysaccharides (2) Sexual spores are produced endogenously

(4) Chitin, polysaccharid and glycogen (3) They have sac like structure in which karyogamy
takes place
20. Which group of organisms is used to make bread
(4) Reduction division occurs in fruiting bodies and
and beer ?
form conidia
(1) Rhizopus (2) Yeast
29. Which group of organism is related with
(3) Albugo (4) Neurospora basidomycetes ?
21. Fungus prefers to grow in :- (1) Mushroom, Ustilago, Aspergillus
(1) Warm and humid places
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(2) Puffballs, Agaricus, Aspergillus

(2) Cold and humid places (3) Mushroom, Ustilgo, Agaricus
(3) Warm and cold both (4) Ustilago, Aspergillus , Agaricus
(4) Warm, cold and humid places 30. Which set of diseases is caused by members of
basidiomycetes ?
22. In fungi when the hyphae are continuous and
branched tubes field with multinucleated cytoplasm (1) Rust and Smut
these are called :- (2) Ergot and Smut
(3) Downy mildew and rust
(1) Unicellular hyphae (2) Coenocytic hyphae
(4) Powdery mildew and rust
(3) Acellular hyphae (4) Multicellular hyphae
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 NCERT-Biology
31. Fungi imperfacti is called to :- 38. Which is incorrect statement ?
(1) Members of phycomycetes (1) The Mycoplasma are organisms that
(2) Members of Ascomycetes completely lack a cel wall
(3) Members of Basidiomycetes (2) Mycoplasma can survive without oxygen
(4) Members of Deuteromycetes
(3) Mycoplasma are the smallest living cells.
32. Which is not found in members of deuteromycetes ?
(4) Mycoplasma are sensitive to penicillin
(1) Asexual reproduction
39. Endomycorrhizal fungus is :-
(2) Mode of nutrition
(3) Structure of mycelium (1) Amanita (2) Boletus

(4) Sexual reproduction (3) Glomus (4) Pisolithus

33. Which disease is not caused by a fungus ? 40. Generally plant viruses are :-
(1) Orange rots (2) Wheat rust (1) Double stranded DNA viruses
(3) Red rust (4) Ergot
(2) Single stranded RNA viruses
34. Which of the following are noncellular organisms that
are characterized by having an inert crystalline (3) Single stranded DNA viruses
structure outside the living cell:- (4) Double stranded RNA viruses
(1) Bacteria 41. Which of the following are not included in the five
(2) Mycoplasma kingdom system of classification ?
(3) Virus (a) Viruses (b) Viroid (c) Lichen
(4) Lichen
(1) Only a & b
35. Select false statement :-
(2) Only b & c
(1) Lichens are symbiotic associations between
algae & fungi (3) Only a & c

(2) Viruses are smaller than bacteria (4) All a, b & c

(3) Virus name was given by Pasteur 42. Select true statement about Lichens :-
(4) Virus are facultative parasite
(1) These are very good pollution indicators
36. Which one of the following statement is true about
(2) The algal component of Lichen is known as
bacteriophages ?
phycobiont
(1) They are generally single stranded RNA viruses.
(3) The fungal component of Lichen is known as
(2) They are generally double stranded DNA vi- mycobiont
ruses
(4) All the above
(3) They are generally single stranded DNA viruses.
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43. Select incorrect statement :-

(4) They are generally double stranded RNA viruses
(1) W.M. Stanle showed that viruse s could be
37. Select incorrect statement about viroid :- crystallized.

(1) Free infectious RNA (2) In addition to protein coat viruses also contain
genetic material that could be either RNA or DNA
(2) It was discovered by T.O. Diener
(3) The small sub units of capsid called capsomeres
(3) It causes potato spindle tuber disease
(4) The small subunits of capsid are called peplomers
(4) It contains high molecular weight RNA

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NCERT-Biology
44. Growth can be taken as unique feature of living 52. In taxonomic hierarchy families are characterised
organism on behalf of this, which will be twin by
character of growth?
(1) Vegetative features
(1) Increase in mass and numbers
(2) Generative features
(2) Increase in height and width
(3) Both vegetative and floral features
(3) Increase in functional efficiency and biological
(4) Neither vegetative nor floral features
responses
(4) Increase in organs and tissue specificity 53. Which taxonomic category get identified on the basis
of aggregates of characters ?
45. If growth is to be taken as defining feature of living
beings, then it should be : (1) Genus (2) Species
(1) External (2) Intrinsic (3) Order (4) Family
(3) Quantitative (4) Appositional
54. In botanical gardens various plant species are grown
46. In respect of growth plants differ from animals in for which propose?
having
(1) Discontinuous growth during certain period of (1) Identification (2) Nomenclature
life (3) Classification (4) All the above
(2) Continuous growth during certain period of life
55. Key, a taxonomical aid, used for identification of
(3) Continuous growth, throughout the life span plants and animals based on similarities and
(4) Internal growth at protoplasmic level dissimilarities it’s each statement is called :
47. Reproduction as characteristic feature of living (1) Couplet (2) Le ad
beings cannot to be used in :
(3) Choice (4) Indented
(1) Mule
56. The actual account of habitat and distribution of
(2) Worker bees plants of given area is known as :
(3) Infertile human couple (1) Flora (2) Founa
(4) All of these (3) Manual (4) Monograph
48. Which of the following is defining feature of living 57. The taxonomic aid, which is useful in providing
beings? information for identification of names of species
found in an area, called :
(1) Growth (2) Metabolism
(1) Flora (2) Museum
(3) Consciousness (4) Both 2 & 3
(3) Manual (4) Monograph
49. The number of species that are known and described
ranges between : 58. Monographs are concerned with :
(1) 1-2 million (2) 1.7 - 1.8 billion (1) Information of any species only
(3) 1.7 - 1.8 million (4) 7 million (2) Information of any genus only
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50. Grouping of any thing into convenient categories (3) Information of any family only
based on some easily observable characters called:
(4) Information of any one taxon
(1) Nomenclature (2) Identification
(3) Classification (4) Taxonomy 59. A B is the diagramatical representation of

51. Branch of biology, which deals with study of geographical distribution of two species with broad
relationship among different kind of organisms, is : overlapping zone of distribution, they belongs to :

(1) Taxonomy (2) Systematics (1) Allopatric species (2) Sympatric species

(3) Ecology (4) Taximatrics (3) Parapatric species (4) Allochronic species

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 NCERT-Biology
60. Match the following : 65. From outermost body covering point of view, which
group of monera donot show resemblance with others
(a) ICNB (i) Virus
(1) Eubacteria
(b) ICTV (ii) Bacteria
(2) Archaebacteria
(c) ICNCP (iii) Cullivaled plants
(3) Mycoplasma
(d) ICZN (iv) Animals
(4) Cyanobacteria
(1) a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv
66. According to five kingdom theory single celled
(2) a–ii, b–i, c–iii, d–iv eukaryotes are placed under protista, members of
protista are primarily
(3) a–iii, b–i, c–ii, d–iv
(1) Terrestrial (2) Aquatic
(4) a–iii, b–ii, c–i, d–iv
(3) Saprophytic (4) Epiphytic
61. Plant Ocimum sanctum belongs to kingdom plantae. 67. Which kingdom out of five kingdoms proposed by
As per taxonomic terminology term kingdom and W hittaker, forms a link w ith others dealing with
plantae are respectively : plants, animals and fungi :
(1) Taxon & Category (1) Monera (2) Protista
(2) Category & Taxon (3) Plantae (4) Fungi
68. Group Chrysophytes involves :
(3) Taxon & Division
(1) Diatoms (2) Dinoflagellates
(4) Taxonomy & Systematics
(3) Desmids (4) Both 1 and 3
62. Which among the following was not the criteria for
69. Released toxins of which group of Protista is the cause
classification of organisms into 5 kingdoms proposed
of death of other marine animals such as fishes
by Whittaker ?
(1) Chrysophytes
(1) Reproduction
(2) Dianoflagellates
(2) Phylogenetic relationship
(3) Desmids
(3) Mode of nutrition
(4) Euglenoids
(4) Metabolism
70. In deprived of sunlight which group of Protista behave
63. Find out the wrong statement about kingdom fungi like heterotrophs by predating on other smaller
proposed by Whittaker : organisms
(1) Eukaryotic organism (1) Slime moulds
(2) Cellwall without cellulose (2) Protozoans
(3) Multicellular with well distint tissue system (3) Euglenoids

(4) Heterotrophic (Saprophytic or parastic) mode (4) Dinoflagellates

of Nutrition 71. All single celled eukaryotes placed under Protista
64. In Five kingdom classification of Whittaker, kingdom and they link with fungi, plants and animals. Slime
monera is the group of microorganisms. Among the moulds are saprophytic protists. What is incorrect
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following statements findout incorrect statement for about it :

Bacteria : (1) Body moves along decaying twigs and leaves
(1) Bacteria are gouped under four categories based engulfing organic matter
on their shape (2) Under suitable conditions they from plasmodium
(2) They are simple in structure, but complex in which may grow and spread over several feet
behaviour
(3) Under favourable conditions plasmodium
(3) They show most extensive metabolic diversity differentiate and form fruiting body
(4) The vast majority of bacteria are autotrophs (4) Their spores possess cell wall

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NCERT-Biology
72. Which among the following group of organisms show 7 8 . Ones perfect (Sexual) stages of members of
a great diversity in morphology and habitat deuteromycetes were discovered they were often
(1) Chrysophytes moved to
(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Dinoflagellates
(2) Ascomycetes
(3) Protozoan protists
(3) Basidiomycetes
(4) Fungi
(4) Both 2 & 3
73. Fungi constitute a unique kingdom of heterotrophic
79. Majority of members of deuteromycetes are
organisms. About their reproduction which
(1) Saprophytes
combination is not true :
(1) Fragmentation, Fission, Budding (2) Parasites

(2) Conidia, Sporangiospores, Zoospores (3) Decomposers

(3) Oospore, Ascospore, Basidiospores (4) Symbiotic

(4) Teleutospore, Chlamydospores, Oidia 80. In kingdom plantae alternation of generation is not
74. On the basis of intervening dikaryotic stage which associated with
of the following fungal group is odd : (1) Sporophytic and gametophytic phase

(1) Oomycetes (2) Length of haploid & diploid phases

(2) Basidiomycetes (3) Number of haploid and diploid phases

(3) Ascomycetes (4) Freeliving or dependent nature of haploid & diploid

phases
(4) Club fungi
81. Match the following
75. Classification of kingdom fungi into various classes
(a) D.J. Ivanowsky (i) Discovery of viroids
is based on some parameters except :
(1) Morphology of mycelium (b) Beijerinek (ii) Crystallisation of virus

(2) Mode of spore formation (c) W.M. Stanley (iii) Contagium virum fluidum

(3) Dikaryophase (d) T.O. Diener (iv) Discovery tobacco masaic

(4) Fruiting body of virus

76. The group of neglected plants, showing great (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
diversity in morphology and habitat, having various (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
classes. Which of the following is not applicable
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
on phycomycetes :
(1) Obligate parasites on plants (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

(2) Found in moist and damp places 82 . About pathogenecity of viruses which among the
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(3) Septate, Coenocytic mycelium following is not correct :

(4) Endogenously produced spores (1) Plant infecting viruses having ssRNA
77. In which class of fungi generally sex organs are
(2) Animal infecting viruses having single or double
absent but plasmogamy is brought about by fusion
stranded RNA or double stranded DNA
of two vegetative of somatic cells :
(1) Phycomycetes (3) Bacteriophages usually have double stranded
(2) Ascomycetes RNA

(3) Basidiomycetes (4) Bacterophages usually have double stranded

(4) Deuteromycetes DNA
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 NCERT-Biology
83. Virus is a connecting link between living and non 8 4 . Which among the following is the characteristic of
living organisms, when it attack on plant. Which viroids
among the following donot appear
(1) It is larger than viruses
(1) Gall formation
(2) It is free DNA
(2) Mosaic formation
(3) It causes potato spindle tuber disease
(3) Leaf rolling and curling
(4) RNA of viroids is of high molecular weight
(4) Yellowing and vein clearing

ANSWERS KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 3 2 2 4 2 4 3 4 4 4 3 3 2 1 3 3 2 3 2
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Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 1 2 3 2 3 2 4 4 3 1 4 4 3 3 4 2 4 4 3 2
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 4 4 4 1 2 3 4 4 3 3 2 3 3 1 2 1 3 4 2 2
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 2 4 3 4 3 2 2 4 2 3 3 4 4 1 3 3 3 4 3 3

Que. 81 82 83 84
Ans. 1 3 1 3

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NCERT-Biology

PLANT KINGDOM
1. Which group does not produce embryo ? 11. The megaspore mother cell in gymnosperms is
differentiated from :-
(1) Algae (2) Moss
(1) Integument (2) Embryosac
(3) Liver worts (4) Club moss
(3) Nucellus (4) Endosperm
2. Which group of plants does not conduct water and
minerals by xylem tissue ? 12. Which is the similarity in Chlorella an Spirullina ?
(1) Algae (2) Moss (1) Both are unicellular
(3) Liver worts (4) All of the above (2) Both are rich in protein
3. In which group of plants the male and female sex (3) Both are used as food supplement
organs are antheridia and archegonia respectively ?
(4) All of the above
(1) Blue green algae (2) Cyanobacteria
13. Majority of red algae tend to grow in :-
(3) Protista (4) Liver worts
(1) Marine and warmer areas
4. The plants in which body is differentiated into root,
(2) Marine and colder areas
stem and leaf are :-
(3) Freshwater and warmer areas
(1) Chlorophyceae (2) Phaeophyceae
(4) Brackish water and colder areas
(3) Lycopsida (4) Hepaticopsida
14. Pyriform, biflagellate gametes are produced in:-
5. Which is not an example moss plants ?
(1) Ectocarpus , Polysiphonia
(1) Funaria (2) Polytrichum
(2) Ectocarpus , Dictyota
(3) Sphagnum (4) Colletotrichum
(3) Ulothrix, Polysiphonia
6. Strobilli or cones are not formed in :-
(4) Fucus, Porphyra
(1) Lycopsida (2) Sphenopsida
15. Autotrophic aquatic organisms which usually repro-
(3) Cycadopsida (4) Fern
duce vegetatively by fragmentation, and perform
7. In which group of plants the male and female sexual reproduction also by the nonmotile gametes.
gametophytes do not have an independent living These organism are :-
existence ?
(1) Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Gracilaria
(1) Bryophytes (2) Pteridophytes
(2) Ectocarpus, Dictyota, Laminaria
(3) Gymnosperms (4) All
(3) Laminaria, Fucus, Sargassum
8. When sporophylls are arranged spirally along an
(4) Volvox, Chara, Spirogyra
axis, they form :-
16. Which is not true about agar ?
(1) Strobillus (2) Flowers
(1) It is obtained from red alga
(3) Inflorescence (4) Sporophyte
(2) It is used to grow microbes
9. The gametophyte of pteridophytes require to grow :-
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(3) It is used to make ice-cream and gellies

(1) Warm, damp, and shady place
(4) It is used as food supplement even by space
(2) Cool, damp, and shady place
travellers
(3) Warm, dry, and shady place
17. At present most acceptable system of classification
(4) Cool, dry, and place of well sunshine is :-
10. In which group the zygote first divides by meiotic (1) Artificial system
division ?
(2) Natural system
(1) Blue green algae (2) Hepaticopsida
(3) Phylogenetic system
(3) Pteropsida (4) Phaeophyceae
(4) Sexual system
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 NCERT-Biology
18. Fill in the blanks (a), (b) & (c) by observing the 21. In which member chlorophyll a, c and fucoxantin
characters given in table and choose the correct are present in ?
answer from the options :- (1) Ectocarpus (2) Gelidium
Class Major digmonts stored food flagella cell wall (3) Volvox (4) Vaucheria
(a) Chlorophyll Starch 2–8 equal Cellulose 22. Floridean starch is characteristic feature of :-
a&b and apical (1) Polysiphonia, Gracilaria, Porphyra
(b) Chlorophyll Mannitol 2, unequal Cellulose (2) Laminaria, Sargassum, Porphyra
a&c and lateral & algin (3) Polysiphonia, Laminaria, Porphyra
(c) Chlorophyll Floridean Absent Cellulose (4) Chara, Dictyota, Polysiphonia
a&d starch 23. Gemmae are the structures of :-
(a) (b) (c) (1) Asexual reproduction
(1) Chlorophyceae, Rhodophyceae, Phaeophyceae (2) Sexual reproduction mostly produced in moss
(2) Rhodophyceae, Chlorophyceae,Phaeophyceae (3) Asexual reproduction mostly produced in moss
(3) Chlorophyceae, Phaeophyceae, Rhodophyceae (4) Sexual reproduction mostly produced in liverworts
(4) Rhodophyceae, Phaeophyceae Chlorophyceae 24. Predominant stage of them is gametophyte, they
19. FIll in the blanks a, b, c & d by observing the vegetatively reproduce by fragmentation and bud-
characters given in the table and choose the cor- ding. They produce male and female gametes in
rect answer from the options :- antheridia and archegonia respectively. After fer-
Plant main Fertilisation Vascular Female tilisation zygote develops into a sporophyte consist-
group body tissue sex organ ing of foot, seta and capsule, in them spore formed
in their capsule form protonema on germination.
Bryophyta Gameto- Zoodio- Absent (c)
The above description is about the group :-
phyte gamy
(1) Lycopsida (2) Bryopsida
Pterido- (a) Zoodio- (b) Arche-
phyta gamy gonium (3) Hepaticopsida (4) Psilopsida
Gymno- Sporo- Siphono- present (d) 25. Integumented or enveloped megasporangia are
sperm phyte gamy and formed in :-
Zoodiogamy (1) Phanerogams (2) Cryptogams
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) Gymnosperms (4) Pteridophytes
(1) Sporophyte Present Archegonium Archegonium 26. Evolutionarily first terrestrial plants to possess
(2) Sporophyte Absent Oogonium Archegonium vascular tissues ; xylem and phloem are :-
(3) Gametophyte Present Archegonium Carpel (1) Psilopsida (2) Lycopsida
(4) Gametophyte Present Archegonium Carpel (3) Pteridophyta (4) Sphenopsida
20. A member of algae is having following characters:- 27. Needle like leaves to reduce the surface area, thick
(a) Chlorophyll a & b are present cuticle, ramenta and sunken stomata to reduce
(b) Chloroplast has one or many pyrenoids water loss etc. are the xerophytic characters present
in :-
(c) Cell wall made of cellulose and pectose
(1) Pteridophytes
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(d) Reserve food material is starch

(2) Gymnosperms
Which one of the following is also a very important
character to call it as a member of chlorophyceae ? (3) Angiosperms

(1) Plant body may be colonial or filamentous (4) Sphenopsida

(2) Plant body is made of haploid cells called 28. Most reduced gametophyte generation is found in :-
as gametophyte (1) Bryophyta
(3) Its flagellar character must be; 2–8 in number, (2) Pteridophyta
equal and apical (3) Gymnosperms
(4) It may occur in fresh water, brackish water or (4) Angiosperms
salt water

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NCERT-Biology
29. Examine the given characters :- 36. Which group of plants is of minimum economic
(A) Formation of only one functional megaspore in importance ?
a megasporangium (1) Gymnosperms (2) Angiospems
(B) Formation of hard covering around (3) Bryophyta (4) Pteridophyta
megasporangium 37. Normaly in gymnosperms how many archegonia
(C) Development of embryo from zygote within the are produced in an ovule ?
female gametophyte (1) One
(D) Retention of megaspore inside the (2) Two
megasporangium
(3) Two or more
These were very essential events occurred during the
(4) Always one
course of evolution for the phenomenon of:-
38. Find the false statement from the followings:-
(1) Heterospory
(1) Cyanobacteria, that are also referred to as blue-
(2) Seed habit
green algae are not algae any more
(3) Fruit formation
(2) Algae, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymno-
(4) Covered seed formation sperms and Angiosperms are described under
30. In gymnosperms the megaspore forms :- the kingdom plantae
(1) Endosperm (2) Female gamete (3) Artificial systems gave equal weightage to
(3) Archegonia (4) All of the above vegetative and sexual characteristics.
31. Which is the odd one among four with respect to (4) Cytotaxonomy uses the chemical constituents of
ploidy? the plant cells to resolve confusions of taxonomy.
(1) Spore (2) Sporophyte 39. The habitat where algae can not be found ?
(3) Archegonium (4) Antheridium (1) Moist stones (2) Moist wood
32. Which of the following is odd one from the follow- (3) Moist soil (4) No any
ing about liver worts ? 40. The most common type of spores produced in algae
(1) Foot, Seta, Capsule during asexual reproduction are :-
(2) Spore, Archegonium, Antheridium (1) Aplanospores (2) Conidia
(3) Protonema, Primary protonema & Secondary (3) Zoospores (4) Hypnospores
protonema 41. Fusion between a large, nonmotile (static) female
(4) Parenchyma, Gemmae, Scales gamete and a smaller, motile male gamete is termed
as :-
33. Which is not true about fern plants ?
(1) Isogamy
(1) They produce sori on sporophylls
(2) Oogamy
(2) They produce male or female cone by spiral
arrangement of sporophylls (3) Anisogamy
(3) Some fern plants are heterosporous also (4) Zoidogamy
(4) Some ferns are aquatic also 42. Non vascular archegoniate plants are :-
34. In a sphenopsid plant number of chromosome in (1) Thallophytes
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its scaly leaves is 24, what will be the number of (2) Bryophytes
chromosomes in its stem cells, spores, and prothallus (3) Pteridophytes
respectively :-
(4) Gymnosperm
(1) 24, 12, 12 (2) 24, 24, 12
43. Vascular plants produci ng integumented
(3) 12, 24, 12 (4) 24, 12, 24 megasporangia but not ovary are :-
35. No. of species is minimum in which plant group? (1) Pteridophytes
(1) Gymnosperm (2) Gymnosperms
(2) Angiosperms (3) Angiosperms
(3) Pteridophytes (4) Bryophytes
(4) Bryophytes
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 NCERT-Biology
44. The same type of relation occuring in magaspore (2) Very high water holding capacity of mosses is
mother cell and nucellus can also be seen in :- useful for trans-shipment of living materials
(1) Female gamete and antheridium (3) Mosses algong with lichens are the pioneering
(2) Male gamete and endosperm organisms to colonise rocks
(3) Egg cell and archegonium (4) Mosses form dense mats on the soil and reduce
the impact of falling rain.
(4) Neck canal cell and antheridium
47. In most of the plants meiosis results in formation
45. Which is not true about the uses of algae ?
of :-
(1) They increase the level of dissolved oxygen in
(1) Male gamete or female gamete
their immediate environment
(2) Male sex organ or female sex organ
(2) They are of paramount importance as primary
producer of energy (3) Microspore or megaspore
(3) Porphyra, Laminaria and Sargassum are used (4) Microsporangium or Megasporangium
as food 48. In most of the plants meiosis is performed in:-
(4) Certain marine brown algae produce agar which (1) Spore mother cells
is used to make ice-creams (2) Gamete mother cells
46. Which one of the following is not the ecological (3) Sporangium
importance of moss plants ?
(4) Gametangium
(1) Some mosses provide food for herbaceous
mammals birds and other animals
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ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 4 4 3 4 4 3 1 2 4 3 4 1 2 1 4 3 3 1 3
Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 1 1 1 2 1 1 2 4 2 4 2 3 2 1 1 3 3 4 4 3
Que . 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48
Ans. 2 2 2 3 4 2 3 1

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NCERT-Biology

ANIMAL KINGDOM
Protozoans, basis of classification and Phylum 9. Organ level of organisation is found in :-
porifera (1) Spongilla (2) Pleurobranchia
1. Pick the odd pair out :- (3) Taenia (4) Obelia
(1) Cellular level : Porifera 10. Spongilla and Euspongia are the members of
(2) Tissue level : Aschelminthes phylum porifera, bearing which of the following
characters?
(3) Organ level : Platyhelminthes
(1) They have a water transport or canal system.
(4) Organ system level : Annelida
(2) These are hermaphrodites with internal
2. Animals possess various type of symmetry, select
fertilization
the correctly matched :-
(3) Both 1 and 2
(1) Echinodermates – radial symmetry
(4) These are exclusively marine
(2) Arthropods – bilateral symmetry
11. Select the set of organisms which have metameric
(3) Sponges – mostly asymmetrical segmentation :-
(4) All of these (1) Physalia, Fasciola, Hirudinaria
3. Select the group of organism given below those have (2) Gorgonia, Aedes, Chaetopleura
diploblastic members only :-
(3) Asterias, Balanoglossus, Branchiostoma
(1) Ctenoplana, Taenia, Fasciola
(4) Pheretima, Periplaneta, Frog
(2) Euspongia, Physalia, Meandrina
12. Locomotory structure are absent in :-
(3) Wuchereria, Culex, Limulus (1) Flagellated protozoans
(4) Aedes, Ascaris, Hydra (2) Sporozoans
4. In Deuterostomia, blastopore formes :- (3) Ciliated protozoans
(1) Mouth (2) Anus (4) Amoeboid protozoans
(3) Both (4) None 13. Amoeboid protozoans are characterised by :-
5. Open blood vascular system is found in :- (1) Cilia
(1) Saccoglossus (2) Anopheles (2) Flagella
(3) Pila (4) All of these (3) Pseudopodia
6. Select the option with all pseudocoelomates animals ? (4) None of these
(1) Ascaris, Fasciola, Taenia 14. Which of the following pair is not correctly
(2) Culex, Locusta, Limulus matched ?

(3) Wuchereria, Ascaris, Ancylostoma (1) Entamoeba : Dysentry

(4) Nereis, Hirudinaria, Wuchereria (2) Plasmodium : Malaria

7. Closed blood vascular system is found in :- (3) Trypanosoma : Kala azar

(1) Bombyx (2) Sepia (4) Giardia : Diarrhoea

(3) Balanoglossus (4) Ascidia 15. The correct set for porifera is :-
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8. The members of phylum porifera are called (1) Acoelomate s, Fre sh water, Zooplanktonic,
sponges, having numerous distinguishable character, Triploblastic, Cell aggregate body plan
but which of the following is considered as their (2) Eucoelomates, Marine, Sedentary,
peculiar character? diploblastic, blind sac body plan
(1) These are diploblastic animals (3) Celluar level of organisation, Mostly Marine,
(2) Mostly members are marine and some are Sedentary, diploblastic
fresh water (4) Acoelomates, Marine, Sedentary,
(3) Choanocytes which line the spongocoel diploblastic, blind sac body plan

(4) Intracelluar digestion

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 NCERT-Biology
16. Which one of the following invertebrates is a 26. The phyla showing radial symmetry :-
protostomic, bilateral symmetric and (1) Echinodermata, Coelenterata and
pseudocoelomate :- Ctenophora
(1) Pila (2) Aphrodite (2) Porifera, Mollusca an Echinodermata
(3) Wuchereria (4) Hirudinaria (3) Protozoa and Coelenterata
17. Choose the correct statement from the following :-
(4) Coelenterata, Ctenophora and Annelida
(1) Poriferans are generally marine
27. The symmetry found in an animal which can be
(2) Mostly poriferans are asymmetrical divided into indentical left and right halves in only
(3) Choanocytes or collar cells line the one plane is:-
spongocoel and the canals. (1) Spherical (2) Bilateral
(4) All of the above
(3) Radial (4) Biradial
18. Sleeping sickness is caused by :-
28. Gullet of Paramecium is meant for :-
(1) Entamoeba (2) Trypanosoma
(1) Osmoregulation (2) Ingestion
(3) Plasmodium (4) Paramecium
(3) Egestion (4) Reproduction
19. Stage of Plasmodium infective to man and injected
29. Which one is monogenetic parasite ?
into human blood by mosquito is :-
(1) Trypanosoma
(1) Spore-like stage (Sporozoite)
(2) Plasmodium
(2) Trophozoite
(3) Entamoeba
(3) Cyst
(4) Liver fluke
(4) All of the above
30. Endoparasitic protistan protozoans belong to class ?
20. Digestion in Cnidarians is :-
(1) Mastigophora
(1) Extracellular (2) Intracellular
(2) Sporozoa
(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) None of these
(3) Sarcodina
21. Which of the following sponge is also known as 'Bath
(4) Ciliata
sponge' ?
Phylum Coelenterata to Hemichordata
(1) Spongilla (2) Scypha
(3) Euspongia (4) Leucosolenia 31. Echinodermates are considered as the first
deuterostomic animals. They possess which of the
22. Which of the following is not locomotory organelles
following common characters?
of protozoans ?
(1) Cilia (2) Flagella (1) The adult echinoderms are radially
symmetrical but larvae are bilaterally
(3) Tube feet (4) Pseudopodia
symmetrical.
23. Metamerism is found in :-
(2) Excretory system is absent
(1) Arthropoda, Annelida, Chordata
(3) Development is indirect with free
(2) Mollusca, Porifera, Echinodermata
swimming larva.
(3) Aschelminthes, Annelida, Chordata
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(4) All of the above

(4) Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca
32. Phylum Arthropoda considered as the largest
24. Trypanosoma belongs to group :-
phylum among the kingdom animalia. They possess
(1) Amoeboids protozoans
which of the following common characters?
(2) Sporozoans
(1) They have jointed appendages
(3) Flagellated protozoans
(2) Open blood circulation
(4) Ciliated protozoans
(3) Both1 and 2
25. Paramecium moves about by :-
(4) Excretion takes place through flame cells.
(1) Pseudopodia (2) Cilia
(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Flagella
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NCERT-Biology
33. Fasciola and Taenia are the members of phylum 38. Apis, Bombyx, Laccifer and Anopheles are the
platyhelminthes bearing which of the following members of phylum Arthropoda. Select the
characters ? characters those are exclusive to the members of
Phylum-Arthropoda :-
(1) They have organ level of organisation
(1) They have jointed appandages
(2) Flame cells help in osmoregulation and
(2) Excretion takes place through malpighian
excretion
tubules.
(3) They have dorso-ventrally flattened body
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) All of the above (4) Enterocoelomic coelom
34. The biological name of animals and their popular 39. Distinguishing character of hemichordate is :-
common name are given below, select the correctly
(1) Open circulatory system
matched among following :-
(2) Excretory organ is proboscis gland
(1) Ancylostoma - Hookworm
(3) They are dioecious
(2) Octopus - Squid
(4) All of the above
(3) Antedon - Brittle star 40. Select the distinguishable characters of
(4) Laccifer - Locust Echinodermates from Hemichordates :-

35. The members of phylum Aschelminthes are called (1) These animals have an endoskeleton of
round worms, having numerous distinguishable calcareous ossicles
character, but which of the following can not be (2) They have water vascular system
considered as their character? (3) The adult echinoderms are radially
(1) These are pseudocoelomate animals symmetrical

(2) They are bilaterally symmetrical (4) All of the above

41. An observer collect some sample like Pheretima,
(3) Organ system level of body organisation
Herudinaria and Bombyx , Select the common
(4) Round worms are monoecious. characters among them :-
36. Members of phylum annelida and Arthropoda show (1) Ventral Nerve chord
metamerism and have a lot of common features (2) They show metamerism
like?
(3) Both 1 and 2
(1) Solid, double ventral nerve cord
(4) Open circulatory system
(2) Schizocoelomate
42. Which of the following may be considered as the
(3) Both 1 and 2 unique feature of members of phylum Arthropoda?

(4) Open blood circulation (1) They have ventral nerve cord
(2) They have open circulatory system
37. The body cavity which is lined by mesoderm is called
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coelom, if the mesoderm is present as scattered (3) They have jointed appendages
pouches in between the ectoderm and endoderm, (4) Development may be direct or indirect
such a body cavity is called pseudocoelom, select 43. Nereis and Pheretima are similar to Sepia and
the pseudocoelomate phylum :- Octopus in which one of the following features?

(1) Annelida (1) Dorsal nerve cord

(2) Arthropoda (2) They are dioecious

(3) Echinodermata (3) Both 1 and 2

(4) Aschelminthes (4) Closed circulatory system

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 NCERT-Biology
44. In which one of the following organism its respiratory 51. Which of the following pair of animals comprise
organs are correctly matched ? 'Comb jellies'?
(1) Starfish - Pharyngeal Gills (1) Balanoglossus and Saccoglossus
(2) King crab - Book gills (2) Pleurobranchia and Ctenoplana
(3) Cuttle fish - Book lungs (3) Sea anemone and sea pen
(4) Earthworm - Tracheal system (4) Sea lily and brittle star
45. Which one of the following statements is correct 52. Select the incorrect statement among the following:-
either for Physalia or Pila or both. (1) Members of phylum ctenophora are commonly
(1) They have organ system level of known as "Comb Jellies".
organisation. (2) When any plane passing through the central
(2) They are bilaterally symmetrical. axis of the body divides the organism into two
identical halves, is called radial symmetry
(3) Pila has a rasping organs for feeding called
(3) Earthworm and Nereis are monoecious
radula
(4) Body of Balanoglossus is composed of
(4) Pila is also called as Fresh water mussel
proboscis, collar and trunk
46. Which one of the following statements about certain 53. What is common to Pheretima, Culex and Limulus?
given animals is correct?
(1) Ventral nerve cord
(1) Octopus shows metamerism
(2) Metamerism
(2) Flat worms are pseudocoelomates (3) Coelomate
(3) Insects are coelomates (4) All of the above
(4) Adult echinoderms are bilaterally 54. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
symmetrical (A) Flame cells - Taenia, Fasciola
47. Which one of the following animal is Deuterostomic (B) Notochord - Balanoglossus
and radially symmetrical?
(C) Metagenesis - Physalia and Obelia
(1) Pinctada (2) Pheretima (D) Open circulatory system - Apis, Pila and
(3) Ctenoplana (4) Asterias Laccifer
48. Which one of the following group of animals is (1) A, B and C
schizocoelomate and triploblastic? (2) A and C
(1) Round worms (2) Echinodermates (3) A, C and D
(3) Molluscans (4) Flat worms (4) A and B
49. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of 55. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a
phylum mollusca ? body feature and the animal possessing it?

(1) Coelomates (2) Segmentation (1) Canal system - Asterias

(3) Mantle (4) Shell (2) Metagenesis - Obelia

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(3) Dorsal nerve cord - Pheretima

50. Which one of the following phyla is correctly
matched with its general characteristics ? (4) Muscular pharynx - Taenia

(1) Porifera - Cellular level of organisation and 56. What is true about Neries, Apis, Columba,
Macropus and Chelone ?
external fertilisation
(2) Coelenterata - Diploblastic and internal fertilisation (1) Dorsal hollow nerve cord

(3) Aschelminthes - Pseudocoelomates and (2) Ventral solid nerve cord

dioecious (3) Closed circulatory system
(4) Hemichordata - Coelomates and closed (4) Metamerism
circulatory system

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NCERT-Biology
57. Which one of the following is a living fossil? 63. Which one of the following is a correct matching set
(1) Echinus (2) Pinctada of class and its examples?
(3) Hirudinaria (4) Limulus (1) Mammalia - Ornithorhynchus, Pteropus and
58. Which one of the following is a matching pair of an Aptenodytes .
animal and a certain phenomenon it exhibits :- (2) Reptilia - Chameleon, Calotes, Neophron
(1) Octopus - Metamerism (3) Amphibia - Rana, Ichthyophis, Crocodilus
(2) Hydra - Metagenesis (4) Osteichthyes - Clarias , Pterophyllum, Catla
(3) Ascaris - Sexual dimorphism 64. What is common about Corvus, Columba, Camelus
(4) Pheretima - Indirect development and Elephas ?
59. Fasciola belongs to a group of animals. Which are (1) They are viviparous and development is direct
best described as : (2) They are homiothermous animals and have 12
(1) Triploblast ic, bilateral ly symmetrical and pairs of cranial nerves.
Acoelomates. (3) The digestive tract of these animals has
(2) Dorso-ventrally flattened body additional chambers, the crop and gizzard.
(3) Mostly monoecious (4) They have dicondylic skull.
(4) All of the above 65. Which one of the following characters is not typical
60. Which one of the following group of animals is of the class Aves ?
correctly matched with their two characteristic (1) The long bones are hollow with air cavities.
morphological features?
(2) They are oviparous and development is direct.
(1) Pavo, Camelus, Delphinus - Dorsal hollow
nerve cord and poikilothermous (3) Air sacs connected to lungs supplement
respiration
(2) Asterias, ophiura , Balanoglossus and
Saccoglossus - Enterocoelomate and Deute (4) The Avian skin is moist with scales.
rostomic 66. What is true for Reptilia ?
(3) Ascaris, Ancylostoma and Pheretima - (1) They have external ear opening
Pseudocoelomates and metamerism
(2) Sexes are separate and fertilization is external
(4) Pila, Octopus, Apis and Bombyx - Open
circulatory system and Dorsal nerve cord (3) Both 1 and 2
Chordata
(4) Snakes and lizard shed their scales as skin cast
61. Which one of the following pair of animals belongs
67. Reptiles are considered as the first amniote
to 'Cartilaginous fishes'? animals.They possess which of the following common
(1) Labeo and Catla characters?

(2) Pterophyllum and Scoliodon (1) Tympanum represents ear. They do not have
external ear opening
(3) Pristis and Carcharodon
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(2) Heart is usually four chambered.

(4) Petromyzon and Myxine
(3) Both 1 and 2
62. Select the incorrect statement from the following : (4) They are oviparous and development is indirect.
(1) Cyclostomates have an elongated body bearing 68. Rana and Hyla are the members of class-Amphibia
6-15 pairs of gill slits bearing which of the following characters?
(1) A tympanum represents the ear.
(2) All chordates are vertebrates
(2) These are cold blooded animals.
(3) Bony fishes have four pairs of gills with operculum
(3) They have moist skin without scales.
(4) Reptiles are poikilotherms. (4) All of these
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 NCERT-Biology
69. The biological name and their popular common 75. Which one of the following statements about all the
name of animals are given below, select the four of Bufo, Rana, Rattus and Camelus is correct?
correctly matched among the following ?
(1) All are poikilotherms
(1) Trygon - Saw Fish
(2) All have 12 pairs of cranial nerve
(2) Carcharodon - Great white shark
(3) All have dicondylic skull
(3) Ornithorhynchus - Penguin
(4) Clarias - Fighting Fish (4) Sexes are separate and fertilisaion is internal
70. The members of class osteichthyes are called bony 76. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of
fishes having numerous distinguishable character but cyclostomates?
which of the following can not be considered as their (1) Cyclostomstes have a sucking and circular mouth
character? without jaws.
(1) Skin is covered with cycloid / Ctenoid scales. (2) Cranium and vertebral column are bony
(2) Air bladder is present which regulates buoyancy. (3) Circulation is closed type
(3) In males pelvic fins bear claspers (4) Cyclostomates are marine but migrate for
spawning to fresh water.
(4) Mouth is mostly terminal
77. Which of the following pair are correctly matched?
71. Members of class Reptilia, Aves and mammalia are
amniotes and have a lot of common feature, but they (A) Protochordates - Lancelet
differ from each other remarkably, select the (B) Amniotes - Struthio, Aptenodytes, Chelone,
common features among them :- Equus
(1) They have 12-Pairs of cranial nerves. (C) Cart ilaginous Fishe s - Scoliodon, Trygon,
Hippocampus
(2) One pair of metanephric kidney help in
(D) Tunicates - Salpa, Doliolum, Ascidia
excretion
(1) A, B and D (2) A, C and D
(3) They are dioecious and fertilization is internal
(3) A, B and C (4) Only A and B
(4) All of these
78. Which one of the following class is correctly matched
72. Corvus, Psittacula and Pavo are the members of with its general characteristics?
class Aves. Select the characters those are
(1) Aves - The hind limbs generally have scales and
exclusively found in class-Aves :-
are modified for walking.
(1) A cover of soft feathers is present all over the
(2) Reptilia - 10 pairs cranial nerves and dicondylic
body of all the birds.
skull
(2) They are warm-blooded.
(3) Cyclostomata - Skin is covered with scales.
(3) They are oviparous and development is direct.
(4) Osteichthyes - Gill slits are separate and without
(4) They have 4-chambered heart
operculum.
73. Distinguishing characters of mammals are :-
79. What is true about Psittacula, Ornithorhynchus and
(1) Diaphragm is present in the body cavity. Crocodilus ?
(2) Mammary glands are found in females for baby (1) Four - Chambered heart
feeding.
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(2) Oviparous
(3) Their body is covered by a coat of hair. (3) 12 paris of cranial nerve
(4) All of these (4) All of these
74. Select the distinguishable characters of Reptiles 80. Select the distinguishable characters of cyclostomata
from Amphibians ? from Pisces :-
(1) Cranial nerves are 12 pairs (1) Their body is devoid of scales and paired fins.
(2) Monocondylic skull (2) Cyclostomates include jaw less fishes.
(3) An amniotes (3) Internal ear contains one or two semicircular
canals
(4) All of these
(4) All of these

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NCERT-Biology
81. Which one of the following is a matching pair of body 86. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer
feature and the animal possessing it? using the codes given below the lists :-
List-I List-II
(1) Vertebral column – Salpa, Petromyzon
(Name of the Animal) (The group to which they belong)
(2) Gnathostomata – Corvus, Myxine A. Sting ray (i) Amphibia
(3) Air baladder – Labeo, Pristis B. Alligator (ii) Chondrichthyes
C. Ichthyophis (iii) Reptilia
(4) Pneumatic bones – Corvus, Columba
D . Doliolum (iv) Tunicata
82. Pristis and Carcharodon are the members of class
(v) Osteichthyes
chondrichthyes, bearing which of the following
A B C D
characters?
(1) (v) (ii) (i) (iv)
(1) Air bladder is present.
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) Respiration by 4-pairs of gills and these gills are (3) (i) (ii) (v) (iii)
covered by operculum. (4) (v) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) Male fishes have 'claspers' as copulatory organ 87. Amphibians are considered to be intermediate
so that fertilization is internal. between Pisces and Reptilia because :-
(A) They possess vertebral column
(4) All of these
(B) Both branchial and pulmonary respiration occur
83. Which of the following fish is also known as "Great in their life history.
white shark'?
(C) Oviparity and viviparity are represented.
(1) Pristis (D) They have 3-chambered heart.

(2) Trygon Select the correct answer using the codes given
below?
(3) Clarias (1) A and C (2) B and D
(4) Carcharodon (3) A and B (4) C and D

84. Select the correct statement from the following :- 88. Presence of notochord, dorsal tubular nerve cord
and pharyngeal gill slits are the three fundamental
(1) In Amphibians endoskeleton is fully ossified and characters of the phylum chordata.
the long bones are hollow with air cavities. In which one of the following chordate all the three
(2) Body of most of mammals is divided into head, characters are found throughout the life?
neck, trunk and tail. (1) Doliolum (2) Ascidia

(3) Reptiles and Birds are warm blooded. (3) Balanoglossus (4) Branchiostoma
89. Consider the following features :-
(4) All of the above
(A) Anadromous migration.
85. Which one of the following groups of animals each
(B) Absence of jaws.
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is correcly matched with their characteristic feature?

(C) Ectoparasites on Fishes.
(1) Ra na, Clarias, Te studo, Struthio -
(D) Larval stages are Fresh water
Poikilothermous
Which of the following animal has all the above
(2) Chameleon, Psittacula, Salamendra - Amniotes mentioned features?

(3) Corvus, Columba, Camelus, Elephas - (1) Doliolum

Dicondylic skull (2) Herdmania

(4) Naja, Bungarus, Viper - Poisonous snake (3) Petromyzon

(4) Amphioxus

18 E
 NCERT-Biology
90. Which one of the following is neither a Fish nor a 97. Consider the following statements :
snake but an amphibian? Hydra typically has
(1) Cuttle fish (2) Hag Fish A. A radially symmetrical body
B. A gastovascular cavity
(3) Ichthyophis (4) Horned toad
C. Both a polyp and medusoid form.
Animal Kingdom
(1) A, B and C are correct
91. Which one of the following animals requires (2) B and C are correct
comparatively less energy for body maintenance? (3) A and B are correct
(1) Camel (2) Bird (4) A and C are correct
98. Which of the following insects is/are consider as
(3) Fish (4) Elephant
vectors ?
92. Match list-I (Animals) with list-II (Organ of (1) Culex (2) Aedes
locomotion) and select the correct answer using the
(3) Anopheles (4) All of the above
codes gives below the lists :-
C B
List-I List-II
A. Star fish (i) Muscular foot
B. Apple snail (ii) Comb plates 99.
A
C. Nereis (iii) Tubefeet D
D . Sea walnuts (iv) Parapodia A schematic representation of a typical chordate is
shown in the above figure.
A B C D
The structures maked A, B, C and D are
(1) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
respectively :-
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (1) Notochord, Nerve cord, Intestine and gill slits
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (2) Postanal part, Gillslits, Nerve cord and
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) Notochord
(3) Postanal part, nerve cord, Notochord and Gill
93. Which one of the following is a molluscan?
(4) Post anal part, Notochord, Nerve cord and Gill
(1) Sea horse (2) Sea lily
slits.
(3) Sea mouse (4) Sea hare 100. Consider the following statements :-
94 Metameric segmentation in the animal hierarchy
(A) Aptenodytes belongs to the class Aves.
first developed in phylum?
(1) Ctenophora (2) Chordata (B) Locomotor y organelle of Tr ypa nosoma is
(3) Annelida (4) Arthropoda flagella.
95. Which of the following pairs of respiratory structures (C) Euspongia is common bath sponge.
and animals is/are correctly matched?
(D) Coelenterates are pseudocoelomates.
(A) Ctenidia - Honey bee
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(B) Book lungs - Scorpion
(1) C alone (2) B and C
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(C) Tracheal system - Sepia

(3) A, B and C (4) B, C and D
(D) Book gills - Limulus
101. Which one of the following feature is not applicable
(1) A and B (2) B and C to all the three helminthes - Taenia, Fasciola and
(3) B and D (4) B,C and D Planaria ?
96. Presence of calcareous plates in the dermis in the (1) Triploblastic forms
adult and a free swimming bilaterally symmetrical (2) Absence of metamerism
larva are typical characteristics of :- (3) Parasitism
(1) Annelida (2) Arthropoda (4) Absence of definite circulatory and respiratory
(3) Mollusca (4) Echinodermata systems.

E 19
NCERT-Biology
102. Which one of the following pair is not correcly 108. Echinoderms are considered to be the most evolved
matched? invertebrates because they :-
(1) Chaetopleura - Chiton (1) Are triploblastic and have organ system level of
(2) Ascaris - Round worm organisation

(3) Wuchereria - Filarial worm (2) Have a great power of regeneration

(4) Enterobias - Hook worm (3) Both 1 and 2

103. Most of lower aquatic animals such as protozoans, (4) Are enterocoelic and deuterostomic
poriferans, coelenterates etc. are ammonotelic, 109. Which one of the following is a bilaterally
because :- symmetrical, blind sac body plan and triploblastic
(1) Water available to these animals contains less and acoelomate invertebrate?
nitrogen. (1) Ascaris
(2) Ammonia can be converted into urea.
(2) Wuchereria
(3) Excretion of ammonia requires large amount
(3) Hydra
of water, which is available to these animals.
(4) Ammonia helps in checking inflow of water into (4) Fasciola
body. 110. With reference to scorpions, which one of the
104. Which of the following statements regarding following statements is correct ?
mammals are correct? (1) The body consists of head, Thorax and abdomen
1 . Delphinus and Balaenoptera are aquatic
(2) They display mosaic and stereoscopic vision.
mammals.
(3) They have book lungs which corresponds to the
2 . Ornithorhynchus is oviparous
gills of prawn.
3 . Mammals have double occipital condyles.
(4) All of the above
Select the correct answer :-
111. Consider the following characteristics of organisms
(1) 1, 2 and 3 (2) 1 alone
(3) 1 and 2 only (4) 2 and 3 only (A) Diploblastic body

105. Which one of the following endoparasite absorbs nutrients (B) Possessing cnidocytes
from the host directly through their body surface? (C) Presence of both intracellular and extracellular
(1) Fasciola (2) Ascaris digestion.
(3) Taenia (4) All of the above Which of the above are characteristics of organism
106. Reptiles, Birds and Mammals resemble in the of coelenterata?
character of their :- (1) A and B
(1) Occipital condyle (2) B and C
(2) Homeothermous (3) A and C
(3) Poikilothemous
(4) A, B and C
(4) Amnion
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112. Metagenesis in Obelia signifies by :-

107. The symmetry of coelenterates is similar to that of :-
(1) Alternation of generation between haploid
(1) Larvae of a phylum, whose members possess
medusa and diploid polyp.
canal system.
(2) Larvae and adults of a phylum whose member (2) Polyps produce medusae sexually and medusae
possess a water vascular system. form the polyps asexually.

(3) Adults of a phylum whose members possess a (3) Alternation of generation between diploid
spiny body wall and dermal calcareous ossicle. medusa and diploid polypoid.
(4) All of the above (4) All of the above

20 E
 NCERT-Biology
113. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer: 117. In the evolutionary history of the animal kingdom,
List-I List-II which of the following features have evolved for the
(Animal) (Type of coelom) first time in phylum annelida?

A. Echinodermata (i) Coelom absent 1 . Metameric segmentation

B. Arthropoda (ii) Haemocoel 2 . organ system level of organisation
C. Aschelminthes (iii) Enterocoelous coelom
3 . Closed circulatory system
D . Annelida (iv) Pseudo coelom
4 . True coelom
(v) Schizocoelous coelom
5 . Bilateral symmetry
A B C D
Select the correct answer -
(1) (iii) (i) (v) (iv)
(2) (iii) (ii) (v) (iv) (1) 1, 2 and 5

(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (v) (2) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (v) (3) 1, 3 and 4
114. Consider the following statements : (4) only 1 and 2
During the alternation of generation or Metagenesis 118. Select the correctly matched example of Bony fishes
in dimorphic coelenterates, the medusae are
with their common names :-
necessarily :
(1) Betta - Fighting fish
(A) Free living
(2) Clarias - Magur
(B) Sedentary
(3) Pterophyllum - Angel fish
(C) Mdusae form the polyps asexually
(D) medusae form the polyps sexually (4) All of the above

(1) A, C and D are correct 119. Select the incorrectly matched animals with their
common names :-
(2) A and D are correct
(1) Ophiura - Brittle star
(3) A and C are correct
(2) Ancylostoma - Hookworm
(4) B and C are correct
(3) Aptenodytes - Penguin
115. Which of the following types of protozoans may be
responsible for the origin of sponges? (4) Meandrina - Stag - horn coral
(1) Amoeboid protozoans 120. Exocoetus, Bufo and Labeo on one hand and
(2) Flagellated protozoans Elephas, Psittacula and Columba on the other differ
in the following ?
(3) Ciliated protozoans
(1) The body temperature of the former changes
(4) Sporozoans
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with environmental temperature, the

116. In which one of the following protochordate, temperature of the latter remains more or less
notochord present from head to the tail in adult
constant.
stage.
(2) The former have mesonephric kidney, The
(1) Ascidia
latter have metanephric kidney.
(2) Salpa
(3) Both 1 and 2
(3) Doliolum
(4) The former are oviparous, the latter are
(4) Branchiostoma viviparous

E 21
NCERT-Biology
121. Which of the following sets of animals belong to the 127. Identify incorrect statement with regard to
same group ? Coelenterata
(1) Bangarus, Testudo (2) Pavo, Hyla (1) Sea anemone is a polyp
(3) Clarias, Rana (4) Felis, Calotes (2) Jelly fish is free swimming Coelenterate
122. Identify true statements : (3) Meandrina exhibit two basic body forms called
(A) Cnidarians have blind-sac body plan polyp and medusa

(B) Digestion in Ctenophora is both intra as well as (4) Digestion is both extracellular and intracellular
extracellular 128. Identify correct statement :
(C) Agnathans are endoparasite in fishes. (1) Fertilization is internal in Ctenophora
(D) Ichthyophis belongs to tetrapoda group (2) Clasper is a modified form of scales in Scoliodon
(1) A, C and D (2) A, B and D (Dog fish)

(3) B and D (4) A and D (3) Cyclostomates have teeth and body is scale less

123. Identify the correct statements from the following (4) Radula is a rasping organ of Arthropods
with reference to the cartilaginous fishes : 129. In osteichthyes group :
(A) Male pectoral fin bears claspers (1) Fertilization is internal
(B) Teeth are modified cycloid scales (2) Placoid scales are more
(C) Air bladder is absent (3) Gill cover is found
(D) They have internal fertilization (4) Air bladder is absent
(1) A and B (2) B and C 130. Acraniates are those lower Chordates which posses
(3) C and D (4) A and D (1) Unpaired appendages
124. Over two third of all named species on earth are (2) Cranium and vertebrae
Arthropods. Identify their category which is not (3) Paired appendages
matching
(4) Jaws and exoskeleton
(1) Living fossil - King crab
131. A phylum which has triploblastic, Acoelomate and
(2) Vector - Culex Blind-sac body plan is :
(3) Gregarious pest - Limulus (1) Ctenophora (2) Platyhelminthes
(4) Economically important - Apis (3) Coelenterata (4) All of the above
125. Identify correct statements : 132. First phylum to have complete digestive tract can
(A) Fertilization is internal in Ascaris be represented by :
(B) Parapodia help in swimming in few Arthropods (1) Taenia (2) Wuchereria
(C) Nereis is an aquatic form and it is monoecious (3) Pheretima (4) Apis
(D) Radula is a rasping organ of star fish 133. Which of the following animals belong to same
group ?
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(1) A and C (2) B and C

(3) D only (4) A only (1) Hyla, Aedes, Crab,

126. In which of the following animals muscular pharynx (2) Sea urchin, Sea lily, Sea cucumber
is more distinct ? (3) Sea pen, Sea fan, Sea hare
(1) Taenia (4) Sand worm, Round worm, Earthworm
(2) Ancylostoma 134. The phenomenm of Autotomy and regeneration is
(3) Loligo well marked in :

(4) Fasciola (1) Mollusca (2) Annelida

(3) Arthropoda (4) Echinodermata
22 E
 NCERT-Biology
135. Which one is not a correct statement ? 143. Which one of the following statement is true?
(1) The Larva of Scoliodon exists (1) All members of Bilateria are always Deuterostomes
(2) Lateral line is absent in Bangarus (2) Eumetazoan are Deuterostomes
(3) Air bladder is present in Betta (3) All acoelomates are Diploblastic
(4) All Chordates are deuterostomes
(4) All Haemocoelomates are bilateral symmetrical
136. Which of the following trait does not relate to
144. The mammal which posses both reptilian and
Class-Reptilia ?
mammalian Characters is ?
(1) Calotes is a garden lizard
(1) Macropus (2) Scaly ant eater
(2) Fertilization is always internal
(3) Body is covered with glandular skin (3) Ornithorhynchus (4) Ichthyophis

(4) They have copulatory organs. 145. Identify false statements :

137. Which one of the followig bird is different from rest (A) Cyclostomates are ectoparasite on true fishes
of the birds ?
(B) Ctenophores are sessile and bear Cnidocytes
(1) Neophron (2) Aptenodytes
(3) Psittacula (4) Corvus (C) Aschelminthes included parasitic as well ss
non-parasitic round worms
138. Which of the following statement is/are true for birds
(A) Hind limb are partially modified into wings. (D) Arthropods are most abundant group with
(B) Humming bird is exceptionally viviparous Calcareous exoskeleton.

(C) Fertilization is internal. (1) B, D (3) A, B

(D) Air sac connected to lung supplement respiration (3) C, D (4) A, D
(1) A, B (2) B, C (3) A, D (4) C, D
146. Which of the following animal belongs to the correct
139. Which of the following is correct pair ? class ?
(1) Struthio – Vulture (1) Euglena – Ciliata
(2) Chameleon – Garden lizard (2) Paramecium – Flagellata
(3) Chelone – Turtle (3) Plasmodium – Sporozoa
(4) Betta – Flying fish (4) Entamoeba – Mastigophora
140. Which of the following is correct pair ? 147. Identify the true statement :
(1) Hyla – Coelenterate (1) Protozoans are mostly heterotrophic animals
(2) Pteropus – Flying fish
(2) Water enters inside the body through the osculum
(3) Doliolum – Protochordate in sponges.
(4) Carcharodon – Bony fish
(3) Ctenophores are fresh water animals
141. Which one of the following set of animal will have
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bronchial respiration ? (4) All parasites are triploblastic

(1) Prawn, Cyclops (2) Spider, Cyclops 148. Identified the incorrect statement from the following
(3) Clarias , Pavo (4) Fish, Ichthyophis with reference to round worm :

142. Which one of the following set of animal will have (A) Syncytial epidermis
tracheal respiration. (B) Most and free livings of ectoparasites
(1) Silk worm, Laccifer (C) All parasites are unisexual
(2) Limulus , Prawn (D) Incomplete alimentary canal
(3) Spider, Cyclops (1) A and B (2) B and C
(4) Apis , King crab (3) B and D (4) A and D
E 23
NCERT-Biology
149. Identify the correct statement : 157. Which of the following statement is correct for
hemichordates?
(1) Gills of the bony fishes are covered by operculum
(A) Fish like body
(2) Alimentary canal of amphibian opens outside (B) Body is triploblastic
through anus at posterior end (C) Body is devided into two parts
(3) Crocodile has three chambered heart (D) Excretion through probosis gland
(1) A and B (2) B and C (3) A and C (4) B and D
(4) Birds are poikilotherm animals
158. In which of the following group notochord is present
150. Presence of canal system is characteristic feature
in whole life?
of
(1) Hemichordata (2) Urochordata
(1) Ascaris (2) Euspongia
(3) Pila (4) Amphioxus (3) Cephalochordata (4) Vertebrata

151. In which of the following fishes, jaws are absent? 159. In which of the following animals respiration takes
place by book lungs?
(1) Exocoetus (2) Hippocampus
(1) Honey bee (2) Silk worm
(3) Myxine (4) Trygon
152. In which of the following flat worm, segmented body (3) Scorpion (4) Grass hopper
is found? 160. Which of the following is a correctly matched pair?
(1) Liver fluke (2) Tape worm (1) Ophiura - Sea lily
(3) Filarial worm (4) Sand worm (2) Octopus - Cuttle fish
153. Which of the following is not the feature of Mollusca (3) Torpedo - Electric ray
phylum?
(4) Aptenodytes - Ostrich
(1) It is the second largest phylum of animal kingdom.
161. Which of the following groups belongs to cold
(2) Muscular foot for locomotion. blooded animals ?
(3) They are acoelomate animals.
(A) Chondrichthyes (B) Amphibia
(4) Presence of shell around the body.
(C) Aves (D) Mammalia
154. Which of the following pair is correct ?
(1) A and C (2) B and D
(1) Parapodia - Leech
(3) C and D (4) A and B
(2) Flagella - Ascaris 162. Which of the following bird is flight less?
(3) Archacocyte - Obelia
(1) Pigeon (2) Ostrich
(4) Antenna - Anophelese
(3) Crow (4) Peacock
155. Which of the following phylum is pseudocoelomate?
163. Which of the following is not feature of Cartilaginous
(1) Cnidaria fishes?

(2) Ctenophora (1) Presence of placoid scales

(2) Notochord present whole life
(3) Platyhelminthes
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(3) Three chambered heart

(4) Aschelminthes
(4) Sexes are separate
156. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
164. In amphibians, cloaca is the common opening for
(1) Polyp is asexual stage
(1) Alimentary canal
(2) Photosynthesis take place in Englena during day
(2) Urinary tract
time
(3) Reproductive tract
(3) Sleeping sickness is caused by Leishmania
(4) All of the above
(4) Tentacles are locomotory organ of coelenterates

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 NCERT-Biology
165. Reptiles are most successful land vertebrate. Which 169. Which type of locomotory organ are found in "Soft
type of locomotion is found in them? bodied animals" ?
(1) Jumping (2) Saltatorial (1) Cilia (2) Tube feet
(3) Crawling (4) None of the above (3) Tentacles (4) Muscular Foot
166. Which of the following group of the animals belongs
170. Match the column-I with the column-II and find out
to the same class ?
the correct answer :
(1) Chelone, Corvus (2) Macropus, Myxine
Column-I Colum-II
(3) Loligo, Octopus (4) Bombyx, Peripatus
(A) Spongocoel (i) Arthropoda
167. Monkey, Lion, Bat, Kangaroo are classified in same
(B) Dorso-ventrally (ii) Cnidaria
(1) Order (2) Family
flattened body
(3) Class (4) None of the above
(C) Coelenteron (iii) Porifera
168. Binomial system of nomenclature is established by
(D) Chitinous exoskeleton (vi) Platyhelminthes
(1) Huxley (2) John Ray
(3) Lamarck (4) Linnaeus (1) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii (2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i (4) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i

ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 4 2 2 4 3 2 3 3 3 4 2 3 3 3 3 4 2 1 3
Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 3 3 1 3 2 1 2 2 3 2 4 3 4 1 4 3 4 3 4 4
Que . 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 3 3 4 2 3 3 4 3 2 3 2 3 4 3 2 4 4 3 4 2
Que . 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 3 2 4 2 4 4 1 4 2 3 4 1 4 4 3 2 1 1 4 4
Que . 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 4 3 4 2 4 2 2 4 3 3 3 4 4 3 3 4 3 4 4 3
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Que . 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 3 4 3 1 3 4 3 4 4 3 4 3 3 2 2 4 3 4 4 3
Que . 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans. 1 2 3 3 4 2 3 3 3 1 2 2 2 4 1 3 2 4 3 3
Que . 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans. 1 1 4 3 1 3 1 3 1 2 3 2 3 4 4 3 4 3 3 3
Que . 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Ans. 4 2 3 4 3 3 3 4 4 3

E 25
NCERT-Biology

MORPHOLOGY OF FLOWERING PLANTS

1. A slender lateral branch arises from the base of the 8. When single leaf arises at each node in alternate
main axis and after growing aerially for some time manner, phyllotaxy is called
arch downwards to touch the ground. Such type of (1) Alternate (2) Opposite
modification is
(3) Whorled (4) Superposed
(1) Runner (2) Sucker
9. Opposite phyllotaxy is present in
(3) Stolon (4) Offset
(1) Mustard (2) Guava
2. A lateral branch with short internodes and each
node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots (3) China rose (4) Alstonia
in aquatic plants, such type of modification is 10. In flower, different whorls arranged successively on
(1) Runner (2) Stolon the swollen end of the pedicel called

(3) Sucker (4) Offset (1) Thalamus (2) Calyx

(3) Peduncle (4) Corolla
3. Lateral branches originate from the basal and
underground portion of the main stem, grow 11. Ovary is superior in
horizontally beneath the soil and then comes out (1) Rose (2) Mustard
obliquely upward giving rise to leafy shoots, such (3) Peach (4) Guava
type of modification is
12. Ovary is inferior in
(1) Runner (2) Stolon
(1) Guava (2) Rose
(3) Sucker (4) Offset
(3) China rose (4) Peach
4. In some leguminous plants the leaf base may
13. If one margin of the sepal or petal overlaps that of
become swollen it is called
the next one and so on this aestivation is called
(1) Pulvinus (2) Lamina (1) Twisted (2) Imbricate
(3) Leaf margin (4) Stipule (3) Valvate (4) Vexillary
5. When the veins run parallel to each other within a 14. If the margins of sepals or petals overlap one
lamina, the venation is termed as another but not in any particular direction, the
(1) Parallel (2) Reticulate aestivation is called

(3) Both 1 & 2 (4) None of the above (1) Imbricate (2) Valvate

6. If the leaflets are present on a common axis, the (3) Twisted (4) Vexillary
rachis, leaf is called 15. Each ovary bears one or more ovules attached to
a flattened cusion like structure called
(1) Palmate compound leaf
(1) Stigma (2) Ovary
(2) Pinnate compound leaf
(3) Placenta (4) Style
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(3) Simple leaf

16. In this placentation the ovules develop on the inner
(4) Trifoliate leaf wall of ovary or on peripheral part it is called
7. If the leaf lets are attached at the tip of petiole, leaf (1) Marginal (2) Parietal
is called
(3) Axile (4) Basal
(1) Pinnate compound leaf 17. Mango and Coconut develop from
(2) Palmate compound leaf (1) Monocarpellary, inferior ovary
(3) Simple leaf (2) Monocarpellary, superior ovary
(3) Multicarpellary, inferior ovary
(4) Compound leaf
(4) Multicarpellary, superior ovary
26 E
 NCERT-Biology
18. Inflorescence in papilionatae is 28. A lateral branch with short internodes and each
(1) Racemose (2) Cymose node bearing a rosette of leaves and a tuft of roots
is found in
(3) Cyathium (4) Hypanthodium
(1) Ginger (2) Banana
19. Sesbania belongs to
(3) Eichhornia (4) Potato
(1) Liliaceae (2) Papilionatae
(3) Solanaceae (4) Cruciferae 29. Leaves are lateral, generally flattened structure
born on nodes. They originate from .............. and
20. In Solanum, inflorescence is arranged in ............ manner
(1) Cymose (2) Racemose (1) Apical meristem, Acropetal
(3) Umbel (4) Verticillaster
(2) Lateral meristem, Acropetal
21. Seeds in solanaceae are
(3) Apical meristem, Basipetal
(1) Non endospermic (2) Endospermic
(4) Lateral meristem, Basipetal
(3) Both 1 & 2 (4) None of the above
22. In monocots fibrous root system arise from 30. About leaf which of the following statement is not
correct ?
(1) Radicle (2) Apex of stem
(1) Axillary buds are present in axil of leaflets
(3) Base of stem (4) Any where from stem
(2) In pinnately compound leaf leaflets are present
23. Regarding to adventitious roots find out the odd on rachis, which represents the midrib
one
(1) Grasses (2) Monstera (3) In palmately compound leaf, leaflets are
(3) Banyan (4) Mustard attached at a common point, it is tip of the petiole
24. Find out the right sequence to various regions of
(4) In compound leaf incisions of lamina reach upto
root tip from apex to upwards
the mid rib, breaking it into number of leaflets
(1) Maturation zone, elongation zone, Meristematic
zone & root cap 31. Regarding to arrangement of leaves on the stem
or branch (phyllotaxy) which of the following is
(2) Root cap, Meristematic zone, elongation zone
odd
& Maturation zone
(1) China rose (2) Mustard
(3) Root cap, elongation zone, Meristematic zone
& Maturation zone (3) Sunflower (4) Alstonia
(4) Maturation zone, meristematic zone, elongation 32. When two leaves arise from same node, this type
zone & root cap of phyllotaxy called
25. Regarding to modification of root, find out the odd (1) Alternate (2) Opposite
match (3) Whorled (4) Spiral
(1) Storage of food – Potato 33. Arrangement of flowers on the floral axis is termed
(2) Support – Banyan as inflorescence. Regarding to inflorescence which
of the following statement is not correct
(3) Gaseous exchange – Rhizophora
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(1) In racemose – main axis is continues to grow

(4) Photosynthesis – Tinospora
26. Regarding to conversion of Axillary bud into tendril, (2) In cymose – main axis terminates into flower
which of the following is odd (3) In racemose – flowers are in basipetal succession
(1) Cucumber (2) Pumpkins (4) In cymose –growth of main axis is limited
(3) Watermelon (4) Bougainvillea 34. Regarding to symmetry of flower which of the
27. Fleshy cylindrical photosynthetic stem is found in following plant is odd
(1) Opuntia (2) Euphorbia (1) Pea (2) Mustard
(3) Bougainvillea (4) Cuscuta (3) Datura (4) Chilli

E 27
NCERT-Biology
35. Find out the wrong match 42. If margins of sepal or petals overlaps but not in any
(1) Actinomorphic – Datura particular direction is termed as

(2) Radial symmetry – Mustard (1) Valvate (2) Twisted

(3) Zygomorphic – Bean
(3) Imbricate (4) Vexillary
(4) Bilateral Symmetry – Chilli
43. Which type of aestivation is found in cotton ?
36. In which of the following plant flower can not be
divided into two similar halves by any vertical plane (1) Valvate (2) Twisted
(1) Mustard (2) Cassia (3) Imbricate (4) Vexillary
(3) Canna (4) Datura 44. Match the following
37. In which of the following plant gynoecium occupies (a) Epiphyllous (i) Citrus
the highest position while the other parts situated
below it ? (b) Monoadelphous (ii) Pea
(1) Brinjal (2) Plum (c) Diadelphous (iii) Chinarose
(3) Rose (4) Guava (d) Polyadelphous (iv) Lily
38. Match the following (1) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(a) Hypogynous (i) Lily (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(b) Perigynous (ii) Cucumber, Ray
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
flowets of sunflower
45. Variation in length of the filament of stamen can be
(c) Epigynous (iii) Plum, Peach seen in
(d) Perianth (iv) Chinarose, Brinjal (1) Salvia (2) Mustard
(1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (3) Chinarose (4) Both 1 & 2

(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) 46. In morphology of flower which of the following
statement is incorrect ?
39. Calyx is the outermost accessory whorl of flower.
(1) In Citrus plants more than two bundles of stamens
What is the funciton of calyx?
form
(1) Helps in pollination
(2) Apocarpous condition can be seen in lotus and rose
(2) Helps in protection of flower during bud condition
(3) Syncarpous condition can be seen in mustard
(3) Helps in fertilization and tomato
(4) Helps in seed dispersal (4) In Saliva filaments of stamens are of same length
40. The mode of arrangent of sepals or petals in floral 47. Match the following
buds with respect to other members of the same (a) Parietal (i) Dianthus
whorl is known as
(b) Axile (ii) Sunflower
(1) Adhesion (2) Cohesion
(c) Free central (iii) Mustard
(3) Aestivation (4) Plancentation
(d) Basal (iv) China rose
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41. Match the following

(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(a) Valvate (i) Chinarose
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(b) Twisted (ii) Calotropis
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(c) Imbricate (iii) Pea
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii)
(d) Vexillary (iv) Cassia
48. In which type of placentation, ovules are present
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
on central axis
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(1) Axile (2) Parietal
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) Free central (4) Both 1 & 3
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

28 E
 NCERT-Biology
49. In mango and coconut, the fruit is known as drupe, 53. Swollen placenta with oblique ovary can be seen in
it develop from
(1) Brassicaceae (2) Fabaceae
(1) Monocarpellary superior ovary
(3) Liliaceae (4) Solanaceae
(2) Multicarpellary superior ovary
54. Non-endospermous seeds can be seen in
(3) Monocarpellary inferior ovary
(1) Liliaceae (2) Solanaceae
(4) Multicarpellary inferior ovary
(3) Fabaceae (4) Poaceae
50. A dot on the top of the floral diagram show
55. Colchicine a mitotic poison can be obtained from
(1) Symmetry (2) Aestivation
(1) Brassicaceae (2) Fabaceae
(3) Mother axis (4) Position of ovary (3) Solanaceae (4) Liliaceae

51. In old classifications family leguminosae was made 56. Perianth condition is characteristic of
up of three subfamilies. Which of the subfamily of (1) Brassicaceae (2) Fabaceae
leguminosae is now considered as Fabaceae
(3) Solanaceae (4) Liliaceae
(1) Papilionoideae
57. Match the following
(2) Caesapinoidae
(a) Mustard (i) Liliaceae
(3) Mimosoidae
(b) Mulaithi (ii) Solanaceae
(4) All the above
52. Regarding to androecium of given families. Match (c) Ashwagandha (iii) Fabaceae
the following (d) Tulip (iv) Brassicaceae
(a) Brassicaceae (i) 2 + 4 (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(b) Fabaceae (ii) Diadelphous
(2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(c) Solanaceae (iii) Epipetalous
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(d) Liliaceae (iv) Six stamens in
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
two whorl 3+3
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
NODE2\E:\DATA\2014\NCERT_OBJECTIVE_BIO\ENGLISH.P65

ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 4 3 1 1 2 2 1 2 1 2 1 1 1 3 2 2 1 2 1
Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

Ans. 2 3 4 2 1 4 2 3 1 1 4 2 3 1 4 3 1 1 2 3
Que . 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57
Ans. 1 3 2 4 4 4 2 4 1 3 1 2 4 3 4 4 1

E 29
NCERT-Biology

ANATOMY OF FLOWRING PLANTS

1. Growth in plants is largely restricted to specialised 8. Consider the following statements.
regions of active cell division is called (a) Phloem fibres are made up of sclerenchy-matous
(1) Permanent (2) Meristems cells
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Xylem (b) Phloem parenchyma are generally present in
2. Tissue that produce woody axis and appear later monocots
than primary meristem is called (c) The first formed primary phloem consists of
(1) Apical meristem narrow sieve tube and is referred to as
protophloem and the later phloem has bigger
(2) Intercalary meristem
sieve tubes and is referred to as metaphloem
(3) Secondary meristem
Which statement(s) is/are false ?
(4) All are possible
(1) Only a (2) Only b
3. Which of the following are lateral meristems ?
(3) Only c (4) a, b, and c
(1) Intrafascicular cambium
9. The outside of the epidermis is often covered with
(2) Interfascicular cambium
a waxy thick layer, called
(3) Cork cambium
(1) Hypodermis (2) Cuticle
(4) All of the above
4. Permanent tissue, having all cells similar in structure (3) Root hair (4) Stem hair
and function is called 10. Cuticle is absent in
(1) Simple tissue (1) Roots (2) Stem
(2) Complex tissue (3) Leaves (4) All of the above
(3) Cambium 11. Parenchymatous cells with large intercellular spaces
(4) Apical meristem which occupy the central portion of the stem
constitute
5. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for
(1) Cortex (2) Pith
parenchyma?
(3) Hypodermis (4) Epidermis
(1) Cells are generally isodiametric
12. In grasses, certain adaxial epidermal cells along the
(2) Their walls are thin and made up of cellulose
veins modify themselves into large, empty, colourless
(3) They perform various functions like
cells. These cells are called :-
photosynthesis, storage etc.
(1) Bulliform cells (2) Starch sheath
(4) All of the above
(3) Hard bast (4) All are possible
6. Collenchyma cells are much thickened at the corners 13. In dicot stem, the cells of cambium present between
due to deposition of primary xylem and primary phloem is the
(1) Cellulose, hemicellulose, lignin (1) Interfascicular cambium
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(2) Cellulose, hemicellulose, pectin (2) Vascular cambium

(3) Cellulose, suberin (3) Intra fascicular cambium
(4) Suberin, ligin (4) Cork cambium
14. By the activity of cambium ring, the cells cut off
7. Sclereids are present in
toward pith, mature into
(1) Fruit wall of nuts
(1) Secondary phloem
(2) Pulp of guava, pear and sapota
(2) Primary xylem
(3) Seed coat of legume
(3) Secondary xylem
(4) All of the above (4) Primary phloem
30 E
 NCERT-Biology
15. During secondary growth in stem, At some places, 24. Collenchyma is consist of cells which are much
the cambium forms a narrow band of parenchyma, thickened at the corners due to deposition of
which passes through the secondary xylem and (1) Cellulose (2) Hemicellulose
phloem in radial directions are called (3) Pectin (4) All the above
(1) Sap wood 25. Regarding to collenchyma find out the incorrect
(2) Heart wood statement
(3) Secondary medullary rays (1) It's cells show deposition of pectin
(4) Primary medullary rays (2) Intercellular space absent
16. Bark that is formed early in the season is called (3) Provide mechanical support to petiole of a leaf
(4) Found in form of a layer below epidermis in
(1) Late bark (2) Soft bark
monocots
(3) Hard bark (4) All of the above
26. Match the following
17. At certain regions, the phellogen cuts off closely (a) Parenchyma (i) Root pericycle
arranged parenchymatous cells on the outer side
(b) Collenchyma (ii) Hypodermis of dicot
instead of cork cells are called
stem
(1) Phellem (2) Periderm (c) Sclerenchymatous (iii) Pericycle of stem
(3) Bark (4) Complimentary cells fibres of Linum
18. The cells of secondary cortex are (d) Sclerenchymatous (iv) Pulp of pear
(1) Sclerenchymatous (2) Parenchymatous sclereids
(3) Collenchymatous (4) Meristematic a b c d
(1) i ii iii iv
19. In dicot root the vascular cambium is.
(2) iv iii ii i
(1) Primary in origin
(3) i ii iv iii
(2) Completely secondary in origin
(4) i iii ii iv
(3) Both primary and secondary in origin
27. Obliterated central canal (cavity) is the characteristic
(4) Neither primary nor secondary in origin feature of
20. Which of the following is primary meristem ? (1) Tracheids (2) Vessels
(1) Apical meristem (2) Intercalary meristem
(3) Xylem fibres (4) Xylem parenchyma
(3) Lateral meristem (4) both 1 and 2
28. Select out the incorrect statement regarding to xylem
21. Select out the odd one with reference to origin
(1) On the basis of origin xylem is primary and
(1) Interfascicular cambium
secondary
(2) Cork cambium
(3) Wound cambium (2) On the basis of development, sec xylem is
differentiated in protoxylem & metaxylem
(4) Intrafascicular cambium
22. During the formation of primary plant body, specific (3) In stem protoxylem lies towards centre and
regions of the apical meristem donot produce metaxylem towards periphery
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(1) Dermal tissues (4) In root metaxylem lies towards centre &
(2) Ground tissue protoxylem towards periphery
(3) Secretory tissue 29. Phloem fibres are generally present in
(4) Vascular tissue (1) Primary phloem (2) Secondary phloem
23. Cells of parenchyma are generally isodiametric.
(3) Protophloem (4) All the above
Which of the following is not the shape of parenclyma
(1) Spherical (2) Fibrous 30. Classification of various tissue system is based on

(3) Oval (4) Elongated (1) Structure (2) Location

(3) Type of cells (4) Both 1 & 2

E 31
NCERT-Biology
31. The innermost layer of cortex of dicot root is 36. The activity of cambium is under the control of
characterised by presence of suberin thickening.
(1) Phloem activity (2) Physiological factors
This suberin thickening occurs on
(3) Environmental factors (4) Both 2 and 3
(1) Radial walls (2) Transverse wall
(3) Tangential wall (4) Both 1 & 3 37. Regarding to wood find out the wrong statement

32. The parenchymatous cells lies between xylem & (1) Vessels of spring wood have wider cavities
phloem of root is known as (2) Vessels of autumn wood have wider cavities
(1) Cambium (2) Conjunctive tissue (3) Spring wood is lighter in colour
(3) Pith (4) Pericycle (4) Autumn wood has a higher density
33. Regarding to stele which of the following statement 38. Match the following
is correct ? (a) Early wood (i) Innermost mass
(1) All the tissues lies inner to pericycle of wood
(2) All the tissue lies inner to endodermis (b) Late wood (ii) Wood just inner to
(3) All the tissue lies inner to hypodermis vascular cambium
(c) Heart wood (iii) Low density
(4) All the tissue lies inner to epidermis
(d) Sap wood (iv) High density
34. Due to continuous growth of secondary xylem
a b c d
which of the following get crushed gradually
(1) iii iv i ii
(1) Primary phloem (2) iii iv ii i
(2) Earlier formed secondary phloem (3) iv iii ii i
(4) iv iii i ii
(3) Either 1 or 2
39. Impervious nature of cork for water is due to
(4) both 1 and 2
deposition of which chemical ?
35. After secondary growth what is the actual future of
(1) Lignin (2) Suberin
primary xylem ?
(3) Pectin (4) Hemicellulose
(1) Converts into secondary xylem
40. During secondary growth in root, cambium ring arise
(2) Remains more or less intact
from
(3) Converts into secondary phloem
(1) Tissues located below phloem bundles
(4) Gets crushed partially (2) Portion of pericycle tissue above protoxylem
(3) Endodermis
(4) Both 1 and 2

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ANSWERS KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 3 4 1 4 2 4 2 2 1 2 1 3 3 3 2 4 2 2 4
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 3 2 4 4 1 3 2 2 4 4 2 2 4 2 4 2 1 2 4

32 E
 NCERT-Biology
STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS / ANIMAL TISSUE
1. Mark correct statements ? 7. Simple coiled tubular glads are best examplified by
(A) Tight junction facilitate to communicate cells with (1) Sweat glands (2) Mucous glands
each other (3) Gastric glands (4) Salivary glands
(B) Columnar cells are found in the lining of stomach 8. Best example of compound saccular gland is :
(C) Ciliated epithelium is present in the inner surface (1) Sebaceous gland (2) Salivary gland
of hollow organs. (3) Sweat gland (4) Mammary gland
(D) Compound epithelium has limited role in 9. When two or more organs perform a common
secretion. function by their physical and chemical interaction,
they form :
(1) A, C, D (2) A, B (3) B, C, D (4) B, D
(1) Body system (2) Organ system
2. In all connective tissues cells secrete fibre of
(3) Tissue system (4) None
structural protein except :
10. Which tissue faces either a body fluid or the outside
(1) Bone (2) Blood
environment ?
(3) Cartilage (4) All of the above
(1) Epithelium tissue (2) Muscular tissue
3. Which of the following statements is wrong ?
(3) Connective tissue (4) Nervous tissue
(1) Intercellular material of cartilage is solid 11. Which tissue is associated with filtration and
(2) The bone cells are present in the lacunae diffusion ?
(3) Communication junctions are present in cardiac (1) Simple squamous epithelium
muscles (2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(4) Bone has pliable ground substance (3) Simple columnar epithelium
4. Which one of the statements is not related with loose (4) All of these
connective tissue ? 12. Which of the following contributes maximum part
(1) Often serves as a support frame work for of our body weight?
epithelium (1) Epithelium tissue (2) Connective tissue
(2) It contains fibroblast, macrophages and mast cell (3) Muscular tissue (4) Nervous tissue
(3) Fibres and fibroblast are compactly packed 13. Which of the following statements are true ?

(4) Cells of this tissue are also specialised to store (1) Albumin helps in osmotic balance.
fats. (2) Plasma without the clotting factors is called
serum.
5. Which one of the intercellular junction will check the
flow of material from epithelial surface? (3) Globulins are involved in defence mechanism.

(1) Tight junction (4) All of these

14. A healthy individual has ...... gms of haemoglobin
(2) Desmosome
in every 100 ml of blood.
(3) Interdigitation
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(1) 12-16 gm (2) 16-20 gm

(4) Gap junction
(3) 10-12 gm (4) 9-12 gm
6. Which one of the statements is incorrect ?
15. ............ are the most abundant cells of the total
(1) Factors for blood clotting present in blood plasma WBCs and ............. are the least among them.
found in an inactive form (1) Acidophils, Basophils
(2) Plasma without clotting factor is called serum (2) Basophils, Neutrophils
(3) Basophils are involved in inflammatory reactions (3) Neutrophils, Monocyte
(4) Neutrophil are the most and eosinophils are the (4) Neutrophils, Basophils
least among leucocytes

E 33
NCERT-Biology
16. How many pores in the body wall are found 21. What is the function of spiracular nervous system in
concerned with reproduction in Pheretima ? cockroach?
(1) 11 (2) 8 (3) 3 (4) 2 (1) Regulate the activity of hindgut
17. What is the main function of prostomium in (2) Regulate the activity of gonads
earthworm ? (3) Regulate the activity of foregut
(1) Digging the soil (4) Control the activities of spiracles
(2) as a sensory organ 22. Function of Antennae in cockroach is :
(3) Both (1) & (2) (1) Tactile and olfactory receptor
(4) as a mouth (2) Gustato receptor
18. What is true for earthworm ? (3) Auditory receptor
(1) Cephalisation present (4) Olfactory receptor
(2) Usually hermaphrodite and no free living larva 23. In cockroach stink gland is found in ?
stage
(1) 4th and 5th terga
(3) Parapodia present
(2) 5th and 6th terga
(4) Excretory organ malpighi tubules
(3) 5th and 6th sterna
19. What is the principal role of blood glands in
(4) 4th and 5th sterna
earthworm ?
24. Male and female cockroach differ due to presence
(1) Produce blood cells and haemoglobin
or absence of which structure ?
(2) Produce RBC
(1) Anal cerci and anal style
(3) In digestion
(2) Anal cerci
(4) In reproduction
(3) Anal style
20. In which part of earthworm chemoreceptors are
(4) Anal setae
found ?
25. Which structure is absent in male cockroach ?
(1) Buccal cavity (2) Gizzard
(1) Labium (2) Phallomeres
(3) Intestinal caecae (4) Stomach
(3) Spermatheca (4) None of these

NODE2\E:\DATA\2014\NCERT_OBJECTIVE_BIO\ENGLISH.P65

ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 2 4 3 1 4 1 2 2 1 1 3 4 1 4 1 3 2 1 1
Que . 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. 4 1 2 3 3

34 E
 NCERT-Biology

CELL - THE UNIT OF LIFE

1. .............Was a German scientist, who observed that 7. Depending upon the........, membrane proteins can
all plant tissues are made up of cells. At the same be classified as integral or peripheral :-
time..........., British scientist studied different type (1) Size
of animal cells. Though he was able to observe the
(2) Sedimentation rate
nuclei, but he could not locate the cell wall, he
examined and realised that cell wall forms a unique (3) Ease of extraction
character of plants. (4) Molecular weight
(1) Rudolf Virchow and Nageli respectively 8. An improved model of the structure of cell membrane
(2) Mathias Schleiden and Theodore Schwann was proposed by Singer and Nicolson in.... , widely
respectively accepted as.....
(3) Theodore Schwann and Mathias Schleiden (1) 1959, Fluid mosaic model
respectively
(2) 1900, Lipoidal model
(4) Robert Hooke and Purkinje respectively
(3) 1938, Unit membrane model
2. Main arena of cellular activities in both plant and
animal cells is :- (4) 1972, Fluid mosaic model

(1) Nucleus (2) Cell organelles 9. According to fluid-mosaic model, the quasi-fluid nature
(3) Cytoplasm (4) Centriole of............enables lateral movement of..............within the
overall bilayer. This ability to move w ithin the
3. Who proposed "cell lineage theory" by stating that
membrane is measured as its...
"Omnis cellula e cellula" ?
(1) Karl Nageli (i) Carbohydrates (ii) Lipids

(2) Rudolf Virchow (iii) Proteins (iv) Fluidity

(3) Schwann (v) Selective permeability
(4) Anton Von Leeuwenhoek Correct sequence is :-
4. Algal cell wall is made of :- (1) ii, iii, iv (2) iii, i, iv
(1) Cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin
(3) iii, ii, v (4) i, ii, iv
(2) Cellulose, galactans, mannans and minerals
10. The fluid nature of the membrane is also important from
(3) Hemicellulose and xylan
the point of view of functions like :-
(4) Cellulose, Hemicellulose, protein and pectin
(i) Cell growth
5. Plasmodesmata are fine cytoplasmic canals, which
(ii) Formation of intercellular junctions
are lined by plasma membrane and often has ER
tubule called......... The plasmodesmata, help in (iii) Secretions
maintaining continuity of living matter and the (iv) Endocytosis (v) Cell division
cytoplasm in such condition is often called........ (1) i, iii, iv (2) ii, iii, v
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(1) Desmosomes, apoplasm respectively (3) i, iii, iv, v (4) i, ii, iii, iv, v
(2) Desmosomes, symplasm respectively 11. One of the most important functions of the plasma
(3) Desmotubules, apoplasm respectively membrane is :-
(4) Desmotubules, symplasm respectively (1) Formation of nuclear membrane
6. The detailed structure of the cell membrane was
(2) Transport of molecules across it
studied only after the advent of electron microscope
in the year :- (3) Export of macromolecules
(1) 1931 (2) 1913 (4) Detoxification
(3) 1950 (4) 1973
E 35
NCERT-Biology
12. ........can not pass through the lipid bilayer, they require 20. Which cell organelle divides the intracellular space into
a carrier protein of the membrane to facilitate their two distinct compartments, i.e. luminal (inside) and extra
transport across the membrane luminal (cytoplasm) compartments ?
(1) Nonpolar molecules (1) Golgibody
(2) Polar molecules (2) Mitochondria
(3) Hydrophobic molecules (3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Both (2) and (3) (4) Lysosome
13. Na+/K+ pump is an example of :- 21. Which one of the following is not a component of
endomembrane system ?
(1) Passive transport (2) Osmosis
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Active transport (4) Simple diffusion
(b) Golgibody
14. Mark the incorrect match :-
(c) Lysosome
(1) Neutral solute – simple diffusion
(d) Vacuole
(2) Water – osmosis
(e) Nucleus
(3) Non polar molecules – facilitate diffusion
(1) Both a and c (2) Only c
(4) ATP utilized – active transport (3) d and e both (4) Only e
15. Mitochondria :- 22. Membrane bound vesicular structures formed by the
(a) are easily visible under the microscope process of packaging in the Golgi apparatus and
(without specifically stained) filled with hydrolytic enzymes, are called :-
(b) are typically sausage-shaped or cylindrical (1) Vacuoles
(c) are double membrane bound structures (2) Transitional vesicles
(d) have two aqueous compartments (3) Lysosomes
(1) a, d correct and b, c incorrect (4) Centrosome
(2) a, b correct and c,d incorrect 23. (a) granular structure
(3) a incorrect and b, c, d correct (b) first observed under the electron microscope
(4) a, d incorrect and b, c correct as dense particles by George Palade
16. Inner mitochondrial membrane forms infoldings called (c) composed of RNA and proteins
:- (d) not surrounded by any membrane
(1) Caveolae (2) Cisternae Above given statements are true for which cell
(3) Oxysomes (4) Cristae organelle ?
17. The number of mitochondria per cell is variable, (1) Nucleolus
depending on :- (2) Ribosomes
(1) Size of cells (3) Cristae
(2) Shape of cells (4) Chloroplast
(3) Physiological activity of cells 24. Eukaryotes have 80S, while prokaryotes have 70S
(4) Type of genes Present in mt DNA ribosomes. Here "S" explains :-
18. Diameter of Golgi cisternae is :- (a) Sedimentation coefficient
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(1) 0.5 m – 1.0 m (2) 0.2 – 1.0 m (b) Measure of density

(3) 1.0 – 4.1 m (4) 10 – 50 nm (c) Measure of size
19. A Golgi complex has :- (1) a only (2) a and b
(1) Fixed number of cisternae (3) b and c (4) a, b and c
(2) Varied number of cisternae 25. In r-RNA, ''r'' stands for :-
(3) One cisterna in higher plants (1) Ribophorins (2) Ribozyme
(4) Convex trans face and concave cis face (3) Ribosomal (4) SRP
cisternae

36 E
 NCERT-Biology
26. Find incorrect statement with regard to centrosome and 33. A single human cell has approximatelly.....long thread
centrioles :- of DNA distributed among its....chromosomes:-
(a) Centrosomes are surrounded by amorphous (1) 2 cm, 46 (2) 2 metre, 46
pericentriolar material
(3) 2 cm, 23 (4) 2 metre, 23
(b) In centrosome, both centrioles lie parallel
to each other in which each has an organisation 34. Size of nucleus depends upon :-
like the cartwheel (1) Ploidy (2) Cell maturity
(c) Centrioles are made up of nine unevenly (3) Cell functions (4) All of these
spaced peripheral fibrils of tubulin
35. Important site for formation of glycoproteins and
(d) Hub is the central proteinaceous part of
glycolipid is :-
centriole
(e) Proteinaceous radial spokes connect hub (1) Vocuole (2) Golgi apparatus
to peripheral triplets (3) Plastid (4) Lysosome
(1) a,b, e (2) only b 36. Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in :-
(3) b, c (4) All are correct (1) Chloroplast (2) Mitochondria
27. An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous
(3) Chromoplast (4) Ribosomes
structures present in the cytoplasm which helps in
37. Which one of the following organisms is not an
the maintenance of cell shape is called :-
example of eukaryotic cells?
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Plasmalemma (1) Paramecium (2) Escherichia
(3) Thylakoid (3) Euglena (4) Amoeba
(4) Cytoskeleton 38. In eubacteria, a cellular component that resembles
28. Carotenoid pigments are found in :- eukarotic cell is :-
(1) Chromoplast (2) Chloroplast
(1) Plasma membrane (2) Nucleus
(3) Leucoplast (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Ribosome (4) Cell wall
29. Interphase nucleus has a loose and indistinct network
of nucleoprotein fibres called chromatin, but during 39. Basic unis of life is :-
different stages of cell division, cells show "structured (1) Cell (2) Tissue
chromosomes " in place of the:- (3) Organ (4) System
(1) Nucleus (2) Nucleosome 40. Cristae are found in :-
(3) Solenoid (4) Plasmosome
(1) Golgi apparatus (2) ER
30. Nucleus as a "cell organelle" was first described
by.....as early as........ (3) Both 1 and 2 (4) Mitochondria
(1) Robert Hooke, 1665 41. The physio-chemical approach to study and
(2) Robert Brown, 1831 understand living organisms is called -
(3) Flemming, 1931 (1) Physiochemical biology
(4) Strasburger, 1831 (2) Reductionist biology
31. Term "chromatin" was given by Flemming, after
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(3) Fundamental biology

staining of nucleus with.....dyes :-
(4) Understanding biology
(1) Acidic (2) Basic
42. Which of the following scientist explained that cells
(3) Neutral (4) Both (2) and (3) divided and new cells are formed from pre existing
32. Space between parallel nuclear membranes is called cells-
perinuclear space which is :- (1) Schwann (2) Schleiden
(1) 10–50 nm (2) 0.1 – 0.4 m (3) Rudolf virchow (4) Swammerdam
(3) 10 – 50 Å (4) 1 – 4 nm 43. Which of the following scientist give the cell theory a

E 37
NCERT-Biology
final shape - 50. W hich type of solutes may move across plasma
(1) Leeuvenhoek membrane from higher to lower concentration along
concentration gradient
(2) Scheiden & Schwann
(1) Positively charged solutes
(3) Swammerdam
(2) Negatively charged solutes
(4) Rudolf virchow (3) Neutral solutes
44. Which among the following is not one of the function (4) Any of the above ar per requirement
of mesosome - 51. Select out the wrong statement -
(1) Synthesis of food (1) Neutral solute can move according to
(2) Helpin cell wall formation concentration gradient
(3) Helpin DNA replication (2) Water can also move according to concentration
gradient
(4) Distribution of DNA in daughter cells
(3) Non polar molecules can not pass through non
45. In prokaryotes like cyanobacteria, beside mesosome
polar lipid bilayer
other membranous extensions into cytoplasm is/are-
(4) Na + & K + move across membrane through
(1) GERL active transportation
(2) Chromatophores 52. Which of the following is not a function of cell wall -
(3) Ribosomes (1) Protection from mechanical damage and
(4) Mitochondria infection
(2) Cell to cell interaction
46. Regarding to inclusion bodies - find out the incorrect
statement (3) Barrier to undesirable macromolecules
(4) Secretion
(1) It is site of food storage
53. Which of the following component is not a
(2) It is single membrone bounded constituent of algal cell wall -
(3) They lie freely in cytoplasm (1) Cellulose (2) Galactans
(4) Found only in prokaryotic cells (3) Mannans (4) Hemicellulose
47. In plasma membrane of human erythrocyte which of 54. Membranous organelles are considered together as
the following is ratio of proteins and lipids respectively- endomembrane system because of their -
(1) 50 & 50 (1) Coordinated structure
(2) 60 & 40 (2) Coordinated functions
(3) 52 & 40 (3) Coordinated origin
(4) 40 & 52 (4) Coordinated composition
48. Fluidity of plasma membrane is due to - 55. Which of the following constituent group is right for
endomembrane system -
(1) Lipids
(1) ER, Golgi complex, lysosome & Nucleus
(2) Proteins (2) ER, Golgi complex, lysosome & vacuole
(3) Carbohydrates (3) ER, Golgi complex, lysosome & microbodies
(4) ER, Golgi complex, Plastids & Vacuole
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(4) Cholesterol
56. Regarding to endoplasmic reticulum which of the
49. Regarding to cell membrane find out the odd one -
following statement is wrong -
(1) Fluid mosoic model is widely accepted model
(1) ER divides the intra cellular space into two distinct
(2) Quasi fluid nature of lipids enables the lateral
compartments
movement of proteins
(2) RER frequently observed in cells actively involved
(3) Ability to move in between membranes is
in secretion
measured as its fluidity
(3) In animals lipid like steroidal hormones are
(4) Fluid nature of membrance is also important for
synthesized in RER
cell growth & formation of intercellular junctions
(4) SER is the major site of lipid synthesis

38 E
 NCERT-Biology
57. Golgi complex receives proteins for modification form surrounds the central core, that is known as -
RER at which face - (1) Shaft (2) Axonema
(1) Cis face (3) Radial spoke (4) Arms
(2) Trans face 66. Radial spokes of flagella helps in connection between-
(3) Concave face (1) Peripheral doublets
(4) Maturing face (2) Central singlet microtubules
58. Which of the following reasons explains best, the close (3) One of the peripheral doublet and central sheath
association of Golgi complex with ER -
(4) Two successive peripheral doublets
(1) Its enzymes works close to ER
67. What is the orientation of centrioles in centrosome-
(2) It receives material from ER for packaging
(1) Parallel
(3) It becomes active close to ER
(2) Perpendicular
(4) More than one is correct
(3) Oblique
59. Golgi apparatus is the important site of formation of-
(4) None of the above
(1) Glycoproteins (2) Glycolipids
68. Match the following -
(3) Nucleoproteins (4) Both (1) & (2)
(A) Robert brown (I) Ribonucleoproteins
60. In plant cells how much volume of cell can be occupy by
(B) Flemming (II) Nucleus as cell organelle
vacuole -
(C) Palade (III) Packaging of materials
(1) 10% (2) 50%
(D) Camillo Golgi (IV) Staining of nucleus material
(3) 90% (4) 80%
(1) A - (II) B - (IV) C - (I) D - (III)
61. Classification of plastids into chloroplast, chromoplast
(2) A - (II) B - (IV) C - (III) D - (I)
and leucoplast is based on -
(3) A - (I) B - (II) C - (III) D - (IV)
(1) Stored food (2) Pigments
(4) A - (IV) B - (III) C - (II) D - (I)
(3) Structure (4) Size
69. Nueleolus is the site of -
62. Chloroplast contains -
(1) Synthesis of r - RNA
(1) Only chlorophyll
(2) Synthesis of m - RNA
(2) Only carotenoids
(3) Synthesis of t- RNA
(3) Both chlorophyll and carotenoids (4) Synthesis of g- RNA
(4) Chlorophyll 70. Classification of chromosomes with regardes to shape
63. In ribosome nomenclature 'S' stands for sedimentation based on -
coefficients, it indirectly is a measure of (1) Structure
(1) Density (2) Size (2) Arm ratio
(3) Shape (4) Both (1) & (2) (3) Position of centromere
(4) Angular divergence
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64. Regarding to cilia and flagella which of the

following statement is incorret - 71. Chromosome with centromere slightly away from
(1) Cilia is small and flagella is large center is known as -
(1) Metacentric
(2) Cilia can move either cell or surrounding fluid
(2) Submetacentric
(3) Flagella is responsible for movement of
(3) Acrocentric
surrounding fluid
(4) Telocentric
(4) Cilia works like oars
72. Match the following -
65. Plasma membrane covering of flagella and cilia
(A) Metacentric (I) Terminal Centromere

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NCERT-Biology
(B) Submetacentric (II) Centromere very close (2) Constant position
to its end (3) Secondary constriction
(C) Acrocentric (III) Centromere nearer to (4) Present in all chromosomes
one end
(D) Telocentric (IV) Middle centromere
(1) A - (IV) B - (II) C - (III) D - (I)
(2) A - (IV) B - (III) C - (II) D - (I)
(3) A - (I) B - (II) C - (III) D - (IV)
(4) A - (I) B - (IV) C - (III) D - (II)
73. Find out the incorrect statement about satellite -
(1) Non staining

ANSWERS KEY
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Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 3 2 2 4 3 3 4 1 4 2 2 3 3 3 4 3 1 2 3
Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 3 2 4 3 3 4 4 1 2 2 1 2 4 2 4 2 1 1 4

Que . 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 3 4 1 2 2 3 1 3 3 3 4 4 2 2 3 1 2 4 3
Que . 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73
Ans. 2 3 4 3 2 3 2 1 1 3 2 2 4

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 NCERT-Biology

PROTOPLASM
1. The genetic code determines : 8. Viruses having RNA genome and having shorter life
(1) The sequence of nucleotide in m-RNA span and evolve faster because :

(2) The sequence of amino acid in proteins (1) RNA is unstable and mutate at a faster rate

(3) The sequence of amino acid in m-RNA (2) RNA is stable and mutate at a slow rate

(4) The sequence of nucleotide in DNA (3) RNA contains deoxyribose sugar

2. A nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar (4) RNA contains thymine base
through : 9. Which one is not the criteria of genetic material ?
(1) Phosphodiester linkage (a) It should be able to generate its replica
(2) N-glycosidic linkage (b) It should be chemically and structurally unstable
(3) Ester linkage (c) It should be single stranded
(4) Phosphoester linkage (d) It should have ability of mutation.
3. Which of the following is a nucleoside of DNA ? (e) It should not be able to expressed it self in the
(1) Adenosine form of nendelian characters.
(2) Guanine (1) a, b, c (2) a, b, c, d, e
(3) Deoxyguanosine
(3) b, c, e (4) d, c, e
(4) Deoxyguanylic acid
10. DNA is better genetic material than RNA because:
4. Which of the following is not the feature of double
helix structure of DNA ? (1) DNA is chemically less reactive and structurally
(1) It is made of two polynucleotide chains more stable

(2) The two chains have anti-parallel polarity (2) Prsence of thymine in the place of uracil also
(3) The bases in two strands are paired through confers additional stability to DNA
N-glycosidic bond.
(3) DNA is double stranded
(4) The two chains are coiled in a right handed
fashion. (4) All the above
5. In which of the following virus, the flow of 11. The RNA used to act as :
information is in reverse direction, that is from RNA (1) Genetic material
to DNA ? (2) Catalyst
(1) TMV (2) HIV (3) Adapter
(3) Reovirus (4) All the above (4) All the above
6. Euchromatin is said to be : 12. Any mistake during replication would results in to :
(1) Transcriptionally active chromatin
(1) Crossing over (2) Mutation
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(2) Transcriptionally inactive chromatin

(3) Linkage (4) Interference
(3) Both (1) and (2)
13. At the time of DNA replication, deoxyribonucleoside
(4) None of these
triphosphate serves dual purposes, which are :
7. Which of the following enzymes did not affect
(1) These are acting as substrate
transformation in Griffith's experiment :
(2) They provide energy for polymerisation
(1) Proteases (2) RNAase
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(3) DNAase (4) 1 and 2 both
(4) None

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NCERT-Biology
14. In long DNA molecule, two strands of DNA can not 22. What would happens if both the strands of DNA
be separated in entire length because : copied during transcription ?
(1) Requirement of very high energy (1) They would code for two RNA molecules with
(2) Requirement of high acidic medium different sequence

(3) Requirement of low Mg +2 concentration (2) They would code for two RNA molecules with
same sequence
(4) All the above
(3) Both (1) and (2)
15. The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses
polymerisation only in one direction, that is : (4) Uncertain

(1) 5' 3' (2) 3' 5' 23. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by:

(3) 5' 5' (4) 3' 3' (1) UTR and TR region
16. The replication occurs within a small opening of the (2) A promotor, structural gene and a terminator
DNA helix, referred to as :
(3) Only promotor and terminator
(1) Transcription fork
(4) Only terminator
(2) Replication fork
(3) Starting codon 24. In transcription unit, the promoter is said to be
located towards :
(4) Terminator site
(1) 5' end of structural gene
17. On the DNA template with polarity 3'–5', the
(2) 3' and of structural gene
replication is:
(3) 3' end of coding strand
(1) Continuous (2) Discontinuous
(4) All the above
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Uncertain
25. In a transcription unit the terminator is located
18. At the time of replication the discontinous
towards :
synthesised fragments are later joined by :
(1) 3' end of the coding strand
(1) RNA polymerase (2) DNA polymerase
(2) 5' end of the coding strand
(3) DNA ligase (4) Phosphatase
(3) 3' end of the template strand
19. If E.coli was allowed to grow for 80 minutes in N15
(4) All the above
medium then what would be the percentage of
26. At the time of translation, r-RNA plays :
hybrid density DNA molecule ?
(1) Only structural role
(1) 25% (2) 50%
(2) Only catalytic role
(3) 100% (4) 12.5%
(3) Structural and catalytic role
20. A piece of DNA if needed to be propagated during
(4) Adapter
recombinant DNA procedure require s a vector,
because vector provides : 27. In bacteria :
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(1) Transcription and translation take place in same

(1) Origin of replication site
place (cytosol)
(2) Origin of transcription site
(2) Transcription in nucleus and translation in cytosol
(3) Origin of translation site
(3) Transcription and translation are uncoupled
(4) All the above
(4) None
21. The process of copying genetic informations from 28. Which of the following codons has dual function ?
one strand of DNA in to RNA is termed as :
(1) AUG (2) UAG
(1) Replication (2) Transcription
(3) UAC (4) VAA
(3) Translation (4) Transduction

42 E
 NCERT-Biology
29. Which of the following is the features of genetic 39. Which of the following is stop codon?
code ? (1) UAG (2) UGA
(1) Unambiguous (2) Degenerate (3) UAA (4) All
(3) Mostly universal (4) All the above 40. How many sites are found in larger subunit of
30. DNA sequence which provides binding site for RNA ribosome where t-RNA binded with one or more
polymerase at the time of transcription known as: amino acid is present?

(1) Promoter site (2) Terminator site (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

(3) Ori (4) None of these 41. Replication of DNA takes place in which phase of
31. Which of the following factors is responsible to cell cycle ?
terminate transcription ? (1) G-1 (2) S (3) G-2 (4) M

(1) Sigma factor (2) Rho factor 42. DNA replication is :

(1) Semi discontinuous
(3) Transcription factor (4) None of them
(2) Bidirectional
32. 28S r-RNA is transcribed by :
(3) Semi conservative
(1) RNA polymerase -I (2) RNA polymerase -II
(4) All
(3) RNA polymerase -III (4) None
43. Who, finally proved that DNA is genetic material?
33. HnRNA is transcribed by : (1) Griffith (2) Hershey and Chase
(1) RNA polymerase I (3) Khurana (4) Kornberg
44. Which of the following compound is present in acid
(2) RNA polymerase II
soluble pool when we analyse chemical
(3) RNA polymerase III composition?
(4) None (1) Protein (2) Lipid
34. Which term is not appropriate in splicing of (3) Glucose (4) Carotenoid
HnRNA? 45. Which of the following elements is present in most
(1) Capping (2) Tailing abundant in earth crust?
(3) Ribonuclease (4) DNA polymerase (1) Carbon (2) Hydrogen
35. Genetic code is : (3) Oxygen (4) Silicon
(1) Doublet (2) Triplet 46. If –NH2 group and –COOH group are attached on
(3) Quadraplet (4) All same carbon in any amino acid, then these types
of amino acids are known as :
36. Which of the following is known as adaptor RNA?
(1) -AA (2) -AA
(1) r-RNA (2) m-RNA
(3) -AA (4) All
(3) t-RNA (4) None
47. Variations in amino acids depend on :
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37. A-site, P-site, E-site, terms are related to :

(1) Side group (2) Ester group
(1) Smaller subunit of ribosome
(3) Complexity of cell (4) None of them
(2) Larger subunit of ribosome
48. How many carbon atoms are found in arachidonic
(3) Pribnow box
acid?
(4) TATA box
(1) 16 (2) 18 (3) 20 (4) 22
38. Which of the following is starting codon?
49. Which of the following AA is basic ?
(1) GGU (2) AUG
(1) Valine (2) Lysine
(3) UAG (4) UGA
(3) Glutamic acid (4) Glycine

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NCERT-Biology
50. How many total carbons are found in palmitic acid? 60. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) 15 (2) 16 (1) 3' end of polynucleotide chain will be present
(3) 17 (4) 18 where –OH group of 3' carbon of pentose sugar will
be free.
51. Lipid may be :
(2) Both the strands of DNA are antiparallel due to
(1) Monoglyceride (2) Diglyceride
opposite directing phosphodiester bond.
(3) Triglyceride (4) All the above
(3) DNA is more stable than RNA
COOH (4) All
52. H–C–NH2 This amino acid is :
61. Which N-base is odd in the case of DNA?
CH3
(1) Cytosine (2) Guanine
(1) Serine (2) Alanine (3) Uracil (4) 5-Methyl uracil
(3) Glycine (4) Arginine
62. How many H-bonds are present bewteen cytosine
53. Which functional group is common in fatty acid & and guanine in double stranded DNA formation?
amino acid ?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1
(1) –COOH (2) –NH2
63. DNA RNA Protein, this phenomenon is related
(3) –OH (4) All to :
54. Which of the following is micromolecule ? (1) Central dogma (2) Taminism
(1) Lipid (2) DNA (3) Only transcription (4) None of them
(3) Protein (4) All A B
64. DNA RNA Protein, Name the
55. Antibiotics are :
process 'B'
(1) Primary metabolites
(1) Replication (2) Trancription
(2) Secondary metabolites
(3) Translation (4) Taminism
(3) The product obtained from virus
65. Which of the following is not a character of genetic
(4) None of them
material?
56. In proteins, amino acids are attached together by :
(1) It should be stable
(1) Peptide bond (2) Amide bond
(2) Mutations should not be occurred
(3) Ester bond (4) 1 & 2 both
(3) It should have replicating property
57. Proteins can act as :
(4) All the above
(1) transporter of nutrients across cell membrane
66. Which enzyme is responsible in DNA replication, in
(2) Hormones joining small fragments of DNA to form lagging
(3) Enzymes strand :
(4) All (1) DNA polymerase (2) DNA gyrase
58. Which of the following is homopolysaccharide? (3) DNA lygase (4) All
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(1) Cellulose (2) Starch 67. Which part of gene does not appear in mature
(3) Glycogen (4) All RNA?

59. How many nucleotides are found in the DNA of (1) Exon (2) Intron
X174 bacteriophage? (3) Promoter (4) None of them
(1) 3.3 × 10 9 bp 68. Which RNA is required in protein synthesis?
(2) 48502 bp (1) m-RNA (2) t-RNA
(3) 5386 (3) r-RNA (4) All the above
(4) 4.6 × 10 pb 6

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 NCERT-Biology
69. Which of the following statement, is correct? 75. Which of the following is maximum in human body
(1) Polycistronic m-RNA is present in bacteria. (1) Hydrogen (2) Carbon
(2) Cistron is a segment of DNA that codes for
(3) Oxygen (4) Nitrogen
polypeptide.
(3) The DNA sequence coding for t-RNA or r-RNA, 76. Inuli is a polymer of
called gene. (1) Glucose (2) Amino acids
(4) All the above
(3) Fructose (4) Nucleotides
70. Function of t-RNA at the time of translation is :
(1) Carrier of amino acid 77. When a dry piece of tissue is fully burnt, all the
(2) Reads genetic code carbon compounds are oxidised to gaseous form
(3) Catalytic role and the remaining is called 'ash'. The ash contains
(4) Both 1 & 2 all of the following, except.
71. There is a wide diversity in living organism in our (1) Calcium (2) Magnesium
biosphere and all living organism made of the same (3) Sulphure (4) Nucleic acid
chemical. This statement can be justified by all of
78. Pigments are considered as the secondary
the following statement except :
metabolites, having some particular functions.
(1) Plant tissue, animal tissue and a microbial paste
Which of the following is an example of pigments?
having same elements
(2) Organisms having similar mode of genetic (1) Carotenoids (2) Codeine
transfer mechanism. (3) Concanavalin-A (4) Curcumin
(3) Mechanism of energy transfer process are
79. Which of the following is/are good source of
almost similar in all organism
different type of secondary metabolites?
(4) Mechanism of energy production is similar in all
organism. (1) Plants (2) Fungi
72. All the elements present in a sample of earth's crust (3) Animals (4) Both (1) and (2)
are also present in a sample of living tissue, but which 80. Which of the following can not be considered as the
of the following element is higher in any living example of polymeric substances?
organism than in earth's crust?
(1) Rubber (2) Gums
(1) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Carbon.
(2) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Carbon and Nitrogen (3) Cellulose (4) Vinblastin
(3) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Carbon, Nitrogen and 81. Match the following with their suitable groups.
Sulphur.
Column-A Column-B
(4) Hydrogen, Oxygen, Carbon, Nitrogen, Sulphur
(a) Drugs (i) Morphine
and Sodium
73. Which of the following compounds is used in the (b) Toxins (ii) Lemon grass oil
chemical analysis of living tissue? (c) Terpenoides (iii) Abrin
(1) CH3COOH (2) Cl3CCOOH
(d) Alkaloides (iv) Vinblastin
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(3) HCHO (4) C 6H12O 6

74. Which of the following can be included alongwith (v) Diterpens
biomolecules? (1) a-iv, b-iii, c-v, d-i (2) a-v, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(a) Carbohydrate (b) Protein
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (4) a-iv, b-i, c-v, d-iii
(c) Lipids (d) Nucleic acid
82. Select the correctly matched.
(e) Vitamins (f) Minerals
(g) Water (1) Anthocyanins - Alkaloids
(1) a, b, c, d, e, f, g (2) a, b, c, d, e, f (2) Carotenoids - Toxins
(3) a, b, c, d, e (4) a, b, c, d (3) Ricin - Drugs
(4) Lemon grass oil - Essential oils.
E 45
NCERT-Biology
83. Which of the following amino acid having 91. Which of the following structures represents serine?
H(Hydrogen) as R group? COOH COOH
(1) Glycine (2) Alanine (1) H–C–NH2 (2) H–C–NH2
(3) Serine (4) Leucine H CH3
84. Which of the following statements is correct with COOH
reference to amino acids? (3) H–C–NH2
(1) These are substituted methane CH2OH
(2) They contains -carbon hance called -amino
H H COOH
acids
(3) Variable group of amino acid is designated as (4) OH CH2–C–H
R-group H H NH2
(4) All of the above 92. Which of the following is the structure of -D-glucose?
85. Amino acids are basically classified into different
CH2OH CH2OH
groups; mainly bassed on which of the following? O H O OH
H H
(1) Nature of R group H H
(1) OH H (2) OH H
HO OH HO H
(2) Number of of amino group
H OH H OH
(3) Number of caboxylic group
(4) All of the above CH2OH CH2OH
HO O H H O H
86. Physical and chemical properties of amino acids H H
(3) OH H (4) OH OH
depend on H OH HO OH
(1) Amino group (2) Carboxylic group H HO H H
(3) R-group (4) All of the above 93. Which of the following represents the structure of
87. Which of the following is acidic amino acid. Ribose ?
HOCH2 H
(1) Glutamic acid (2) Aspartic acid O
H H
(3) Ascorbic acid (4) Both (1) and (2) (1)
H OH
88. Which of the following amino acid is/are basic in HO H
nature? HOCH2 H
O
(1) Lysine (2) Arginine H H
(2)
H OH
(3) Histidine (4) All of the above OH
HO
89. Which of the following is not the example of
CH2OH
aromatic amino acid? CH2OH
O
(1) Tyrosine (2) Tryptophane (3) H OH
H OH
(3) Threonine (4) Phenylalianine OH H
90. Which of the following statements is not correct with
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CH2OH
reference to amino acid? H O CH2OH
(1) NH 2 group of amino acids having ionizable (4) H HO
HO OH
nature.
OH H
(2) COOH group of amino acids having ionizable
94. Which of the following is the molecular formula of
nature.
Palmitic acid ?
(3) The structure of amino acids changes in solutions
of different pHs (1) CH3(CH 2)2COOH (2) CH 3(CH 2) 14COOH

(4) Amino acids found in protein belong to D-forms (3) CH 3(CH 2) 16COOH (4) CH 3(CH 2) 18COOH
mostly
46 E
 NCERT-Biology
CH2–OH (3) Fatty acids only.

95. CH–OH is the structure of which of the following (4) Amino acid, Glucose & Lactic acid respectively.
CH2–OH 97. The structure given below is the structure of which
compounds? of the following compounds.
(1) Glyceraldehyde (2) Glycerol O
(3) Glyceric acid (4) Triglycerides O CH2–O–C–R1
O R2–C–O–CH O
O CH2–O–C–R1 CH2–O–P–O–CH2–CH2
96. R2–C–O–CH O HO N+

CH2–O–C–R3 H3C CH3

CH3
The given structure represents the structure of tri- (1) Lecithin (Phosphatidyl chlorine)
aster derivative while R 1, R 2 and R 3 is/are :
(2) Cephaline (Phosphatidyl serine)
(1) Fatty acid, Amino acid & Adenylic acid
(3) Kephaline (Phosphatidyl ethanol amine)
respectively.
(4) Phosphosphingomyelins.
(2) Amino acid, Fatty acid and Phosphoric acid
respectively.

ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. 2 2 3 3 2 1 4 1 3 4 4 2 3 1 1 2 1 3 4 1
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Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

Ans. 2 1 2 1 1 3 1 1 4 1 2 1 2 4 2 3 2 2 4 2

Que . 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

Ans. 2 4 2 3 3 1 1 3 2 2 4 2 1 1 2 4 4 4 3 4

Que . 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

Ans. 3 2 1 3 2 3 2 4 4 4 4 3 2 3 3 3 4 1 4 4

Que . 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97

Ans. 1 4 1 4 1 4 4 4 3 4 3 1 2 2 2 3 1

E 47
NCERT-Biology
CELL CYCLE & CELL DIVISION
1. Prophase–I of meiotic division is typically longer and 6. Mark incorrect statements :-
more complex, it is subdivided into five phases, on (A) Meiosis involves only a single cycle of DNA
the basis of :- replication
(1) Staining (B) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of
meiosis–I
(2) Behaviour of chromosomes
(C) Mitosis usually restricted to diploid cells only
(3) Duration
(D) In yeast, cell cycle takes about 90 minutes.
(4) Events of cell cycle
(1) A and B (2) A and C
2. Match the columns :-
(3) Only B (4) All are correct
Column–I Column–II
A. Leptotene (i) Compaction of 7. It is significant to note that in the 24 hour average
B. Zygotene chromosomes duration of cell cycle of human cell, cell division
C. Pachytene (ii) Recombination proper lasts for only about :-
D. Diplotene nodule (1) Four hours (2) 90 minutes
E. Diakinesis (iii) Synapsis (3) An hour (4) 10 hours
(iv) Terminalisation of
8. Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA
chiasmata
replication is called :-
(v) Dissolution of
synaptonemal (1) G2 – Phase (2) G1 – phase
complex (3) Karyokinesis (4) s–phase
(1) A–i, B–iii, C–ii, D–v, E–iv 9. In which stage of mitotic division, cells donot show
Golgicomplex, ER, nucleolus and nuclear
(2) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–v, E–iv
envelope ?
(3) A–v, B–iii, C–ii, D–i, E–iv
(1) Metaphase (2) Late prophase
(4) A–iii, B–ii, C–v, D–iv, E–i (3) Anaphase (4) All of these

3. Leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene and 10. Karyotype of chromosomes is prepared at :-

diakinesis are 5 phases of prophase–I. Which one (1) Prophase (2) Interphase
is the longest in human oogenesis?
(3) Metaphase (4) Anaphase
(1) Zygotene (2) Leptotene 11. In which phase of mitosis, cell does not have
(3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis nucleolus ?

4. Interkinesis is stage between :- (1) Interphase (2) Telophase

(3) Late prophase (4) All of these
(1) Two mitotic divisions
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12. "Spireme stage" occurs during which phase of

(2) Two meiotic divisions
mitotic division ?
(3) Two division phases (1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(4) Leptotene and zygotene (3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
5. In which phase of mitosis, chromosomes loose their 13. Find odd one out with regards to 4 daughter cells
individuality ? from meiosis are equal in size.
(1) Sporogenesis in bryophytes
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (2) Sporogenesis in vascular plants
(3) Spermatogenesis in animals (humans)
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
(4) Oogenesis in animals (humans)

48 E
 NCERT-Biology
Q. No. 14 to 19 are based on given figure : 26. 'Diad of cell' related with :
(1) Anaphase-I (2) Telophase-I
(3) Telophase-II (4) Anaphase-II
27. The movement of homologous chromosomes
towards opposite poles occur by contraction of
spindle fibre during :-
(1) Anaphase-II (2) Anaphase-I
(3) Telophase (4) Metaphase-I
28. Diploid human cell, in which cell division does not
occur :
14. DNA replication occurs in ......... phase :- (a) Heart cell (b) Muscle cell
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) E (c) Nerve cell
15. Which phase has chromosomes ? (1) only a (2) a and c
(1) B (2) D (3) C (4) E (3) a and c (4) a, b and c
16. Heart cells are found in ...... phase :- 29. Cell cycle involves -
(1) E (2) D (3) C (4) B (1) Duplication of genome
17. Quiescent stage is :- (2) Synthesis of other cell constituents
(1) A (2) B (3) D (4) E (3) Division of cell
18. Centriole duplicates in ...... phase :- (4) All the above
(1) B (2) C (3) A (4) D 30. Regarding to cell cycle which of the following
19. Cell differentiates in ...... phase :- statement is wrong ?
(1) C (2) E (3) B (4) D
(1) Cytoplasmic increase is a continuous process
20. A single human cell has approximately
........................long DNA thread distributed (2) DNA synthesis occurs only during one specific
among its ........................ chromosomes :- stage
(1) 2 cm, 46 (2) 2 m, 46
(3) replicated chromosomes distributed to daughter
(3) 2 m, 23 (4) 2 cm, 23
nuclei by complex series of events
21. In which stage of mitosis, Golgi complexes ER,
nucleolus and nuclear envelope begins to (4) events for replicated chromosomes distribution
disappear? are not under genetic control
(1) Early prophase (2) Late prophase 31. Which of the following phase corresponds to interval
(3) Prometa phase (4) Metaphase
between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication ?
22. Chiasmata appear in which stage?
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene (1) G1 phase (2) G2 phase
(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene (3) S - phase (4) M - phase
23. Which phase is marked by terminalization of
32. Centriole duplicates in cytoplasm during which of the
chiarmata?
following phase ?
(1) Diakinesis (2) Pachytene
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(3) Diplotene (4) Zygotene (1) G 1 (2) S - phase

24. Desynapsis of homologous chromosomes is started (3) G 2 (4) M
and chiasmata are first seen during?
33. If there are 14 chromosomes in each root cell of
(1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene
onion, then what will be the number of
(3) Diakinesis (4) Zygotene
chromosome in G 2 phase and G 1 phase
25. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex occurs
respectively -
during :-
(1) Pachytene (2) Diplotene (1) 28 & 14 (2) 14 & 28
(3) Diakinesis (4) Zygotene
(3) 14 & 14 (4) 28 & 28

E 49
NCERT-Biology
34. About cell - cycle, which of the following statement is 41. Precursor of cell wall is -
correct ? (1) Cell membrane (2) Cell fragments
(1) In Go phase cells are metabolically inactive (3) Cell Plate (4) Nuclear membrane
(2) In Go phase there is longer proliferation 42. Which of the following is not a significance of
(3) Diploid somatic cells of animals divide by only mitosis
mitotic division (1) Maintenance of identical genetic complement
(4) In plants only diploid cells can show mitotic (2) Cell repair
divisions (3) Restore nucleo cytoplasmic ratio
35. The most dramatic period of cycle, involving a major (4) Genetic variability
reorganisation of virtually all components of cell is - 43. Meiosis ensures the production of ........... phase in
(1) G 1 (2) S life cycle of sexually reproducing organism, where
(3) G 2 (4) M as fertilisation restores ......... phase.
36. Chromatin condensation and movement of duplicated (1) diploid, haploid (2) haploid, triploid
centriole towards opposite pole can be observed (3) diploid, triploid (4) haploid, diploid
during- 44. Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase and cell division called meiosis - I & meiosis - II, but
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase how many cycles of DNA replication can be seen
37. Which of the following organelles or components can during this type of division ?
be observed in cell even after completion of (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
prophase? 45. Regarding key features of meiosis select out the
(1) Golgi complex wrong one -
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum (1) Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear
(3) Nucleolus (4) Mitochondria and cell division called meiosis- I & meiosis- II
38. Regarding arrangement of chromosome on equator (2) Meiosis is initiated after the parental
during metaphase, which of the following statements chromosomes have replicated to produce
is incorrect ? identical sister chromatids at the S - Phase
(1) Each chromatid remains connected by one (3) Meiosis involves pairing of homologous
chromosomes and recombination between non
spindle fiber
homologous chromosome
(2) Each chromosome remains connected by two
(4) Four haploid cells are formed at the end of meiosis-II
spindle fibres
46. Subdivision of prophase - I of meiosis is based on-
(3) Each spindle fibre remains attached on
(1) Chromosomal structure
kinetochore of both chromatids
(2) Chromosomal number
(4) Each chromosome remains connected at both poles
(3) Chromosomal behaviour
39. During poleward movement of chromosomes in (4) All the above
anaphase centromere of each daughter chromosome
47. Select the odd one -
facing towards -
(1) Zygotene - Synaptonemal complex appearance
(1) Pole (2) Equatorial plate
(3) Lateral (2) Pachytene - Appearance of recombination
(4) It is random , sometimes towards pole and nodule
sometimes towards equatorial plate (3) Diplotene - Terminalisation of chiasmata
40. Match the following - (4) Diakinesis - Assembly of meiotic spindle
(a) Prophase (I) Decondensation
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48. About " Recombination nodule" find out the correct

of chromosome
statement -
(b) Metaphase (II) Division of centromere
(c) Anaphase (III) Attachment of spindle fibres (1) Group of enzymes involved in crossing over
on kinetochores of (2) Group of homologous chromosomes
chromosomes participating in crossing over
(d) Telophase (IV) Initiation of assembly (3) Site at which crossing over occurs between sister
of mitotic spindles chromatids of homologous chromosomes
(1) a (IV) b (III) c (I) d (II)
(4) Site at which crossing over occurs between non
(2) a (IV) b (III) c (II) d (I)
sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
(3) a (III) b (IV) c (II) d (I)
(4) a (III) b (IV) c (I) d (II)
50 E
 NCERT-Biology
49. Appearance of Diad of cells is key feature of, which 51. Match the following -
of the following phase ? (a) Prophase- II (I) Enclosure of
chromosomes in
(1) Prophase - I
nuclear envelope
(2) Metaphase - I
(b) Metaphase - II (II) Separation of
(3) Telophase - I sister chromatids
(4) Anaphase - I (c) Anaphase- II (III) Chromosome
50. Match the following - alignment on equator
(a) Metaphase- I (I) Splitting of centromere of (d) Telophase -II (IV) Disappearance of nuclear
each chromosome membrane
(b) Anaphase - I (II) Separation of homologous (1) a (IV) b (III) c (I) d (II)
chromosomes (2) a (IV) b (III) c (II) d (I)
(c) Telophase - I (III) Alignment of bivalents on (3) a (IV) b (II) c (III) d (I)
equatorial plate (4) a (IV) b (I) c (II) d (III)
(d) Anaphase -II (IV) Appearance of diad of cells 52. Which of the following is not a significance of
meiosis ?
a b c d (1) Conservation of specific chromosome number
(1) III II IV I in each species
(2) II III IV I (2) Increase in genetic variability
(3) IV III II I (3) Helps in evolution and adaptation
(4) I II III IV (4) Helps in growth of organism
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ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 1 3 2 4 3 3 2 4 3 3 1 4 2 2 1 4 1 2 2
Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 4 1 2 2 2 2 4 4 4 1 2 3 3 4 1 4 3 1 2
Que . 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52
Ans. 3 4 4 1 3 3 3 4 3 1 2 4

E 51
NCERT-Biology

PLANT PHYSIOLOGY
TRANSPORT IN PLANTS 6. All the following statement are correct except that :
1. Over small distances, substances move by : (1) the symplastic movement of absorbed water may
(1) Diffusion be aided by cytoplasmic streaming

(2) Cytoplasmic streaming (2) the xylem vessels and tracheids are non living
conduits so are parts of the apoplast
(3) Active transport
(3) the movement through the apoplast does not
(4) All of the above
involve crossing the cell membrane
2. Substances that have a....... moiety, find it difficult
(4) the apoplatic system is the system of
to pass through the membrane.
interconnected protoplasts that is continuous
(1) Hydrophilic
through the plant, except at the casparian strips
(2) Hydrophobic of the endodermis in the roots.
(3) Neutral 7. As various ions from the soil are actively transported
(4) Lipophilic into the vascular tissues of the roots, water follows
and increases the pressure inside the xylem. This
3. Transport methods those require special membrane
pressure :
proteins also show :
(1) is responsible for water loss from leaves in liquid
(1) Uphill movement
phase
(2) Movement according to concentration gradient
(2) may re-establish the continuity of water column
(3) Transport saturation
in xylem
(4) ATP expenditure
(3) is considered as positive pressure
4. Which of the following statements are correct?
(4) All of the above
(A) If two systems containing water are in contact,
8. The cause of the opening or closing of the stomata is:
random movement of water molecules will result
(1) a change in the turgidity of the guard cells
in net movement of water down a gradient of
free energy is called diffusion. (2) the crescent shape of thick and nonelastic outer
wall of the guard cells
(B) The less the solute molecules in a solution, the
lower is the solute potential (3) the longitudinal orientation of cellulose
microfibrils in the inner walls of guard cells
(C) If a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure
is applied to a solution, its water potential (4) All of the above
increases. 9. Most of the nitrogen in plants, transported in :
(D) By convention, the water potential of pure water (1) Organic form via phloem
at standard temperature which is not under any (2) Organic form via xylem
pressure, is taken to be zero i.e. minimum value
(3) Inorganic form via phloem
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of water potential.
(4) Inorganic form via xylem
(1) A and B (2) A and C
10. In plants the accepted mechanism for the
(3) B and D (4) C and D
translocation of sugars from source to sink :
5. Imbibition :
(1) involves the modest push by root pressure
(1) is a special type of osmosis
(2) involves the transport according to pressure
(2) involve adsorbtion potential gradient
(3) is the characteristic feature of lipophilic coloids (3) is completely based upon transpiration pull
(4) occurs against the water potential gradient (4) not requires metabolic energy

52 E
 NCERT-Biology
11. Mineral translocation in plants is carried out by : 18. Regarding mycorrhiza select out the incorrect
(1) Xylem exclusively statement :

(2) Phloem exclusively (1) they have large surface area

(3) Mainly by xylem & little bit by phloem (2) the fungus provides minerals & water

(4) Mainly by phloem & little bit by xylem (3) roots provide nitrogenous compounds

12. Diffusion is very important to plants since it is the (4) it can never be of obligate nature
only means for : 19. Which of the following is not observed during
stomatal opening ?
(1) Water translocation in root
(1) High turgidity of guard cells
(2) Gaseous exchange within plant
(2) Radially oriented microfibrils
(3) Mineral translocation in root
(3) Outer wall bulge out
(4) Sugar transport from phloem to sink (4) Low osmotic pressure of guard cells
13. Which of the following is not a similarity between 20. Which of the following is not a significance of
facilitated diffusion and active transport ? transpiration ?
(1) Transport saturation (1) Absorption of water
(2) Sensitivity towards protein inhibitors (2) Absorption of minerals

(3) Selectivity (3) Cooling of leaf surface

(4) Maintains the shape and structure of plant
(4) Uphill transport

14. In which of the following plant structure there is MINERAL NUTRITION

negative pressure potential ?
21. Which of the following is the method by which
(1) Root xylem (2) Stem xylem essential elements were identified in plants ?

(3) Leaf xylem (4) Leaf mesophyll (1) Plant ash analysis (2) Hydroponics

15. Water will move from it's region of : (3) Plant tissue culture (4) Nitrogen fixation

(1) higher to lower 22. Which of the following essential elements is required
p p
by plants in excess of 10 m mole kg–1 of dry matter?
(2) higher s
to lower s
(1) Magnesium (2) Manganese
(3) higher g
to lower g
(3) Molybdenum (4) Selenium
(4) higher w
to lower w
23. Choose the pair from the following in which one
16. Which of the following is ultimately responsible for
element is essential to plant while other is beneficial
enlargement and extension growth of cells ?
but not essential.
(1) Osmotic pressure
(1) Copper and Molybdenum
(2) Turgor pressure
(2) Sodium and Silicon
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(3) Wall pressure

(3) Chlorine and Cobalt
(4) Osmotic potential
(4) Selenium and Cobalt
17. Beside water potential gradient, which of the
24. Which of the following elements is an activator for
following is also prerequisite for imbibition ?
both ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase oxygenase
(1) permeable membrane enzyme and phosphoenol pyruvate carboxylase
(2) impermeable membrane enzyme?
(3) affinity between adsorbant & liquid (1) Zinc (2) Copper
(4) difference of free energy (3) Magnesium (4) Chlorine

E 53
NCERT-Biology
25. Choose the pair from the following in which both 31. In hydroponics why purified water and mineral
the elements share common function during nutrients salts are required ?
photosynthesis in plants. (1) Purified water and mineral do not allow diseases
(1) Chlorine and Magnesium (2) They allow more vigrous growth
(2) Potassium and Phosphorus (3) They help to determine the mineral nutrients are
(3) Boron and Molybdenum essential for plants
(4) They favour more root respiration
(4) Manganese and Chlorine
26. If deficiency symptoms of any element appear first 32. Which of the following is not a beneficial element
in the senescent leaves, this element should not be : for plant life ?

(1) Calcium (1) Na (2) Sr

(2) Nitrogen (3) Si (4) Co

33. Water potential of a cell is mainly determined by
(3) Potassium
which of the following element ?
(4) Magnesium
(1) Mg ++ (2) Ca ++
27. Which of the following bacteria oxidise the ammonia
(3) K + (4) Fe 2+
into nitrite?
34. The element is said to be deficient, when present:
(1) Nitrococcus
(1) below critical concentration
(2) Nitrobacter
(2) above critical concentration
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(3) at critical concentration
(4) Thiobacillus (4) both below and above critical concentration
28. Which of the following is correct regarding non 35. Deficiency symptoms of element can be visualise by
leguminous plant Alnus ? what kind of changes ?
(1) Free living nitrogen fixation by Beijernickia (1) Physiological changes
(2) Free living nitrogen fixation by Frankia (2) Morphological changes

(3) Symbiotic nitrogen fixation by filamentous (3) Chemical changes

microbe (4) Anatomical changes

(4) Symbiotic nitrogen fixation by Rhizobium 36. Deficiency symptoms for which of the following
element are tend to appear first in young tissues?
29. During biological nitrogen fixation the energy input
(1) N & P (2) N & Ca
is :
(3) Ca & S (4) S & K
(1) 16 ATP for each NH3
37. Mn toxicity leads to Ca deficiency by :
(2) 8 ATP for two NH3
(1) compete with Ca uptake
(3) 32 ATP for two NH3
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(2) inhibiting translocation in shoot apex

(4) 8 ATP for each NH3
(3) competetive inhibition for enzymes
30. During nitrogen metabolism in plants, transaminase
(4) all the above
enzyme is used in conversion of :
38. What is the major future of NH 3 produced by
(1) Glutamic acid into other amino acids
ammonification :
(2) -Ketoglutaric acid into glutamic acid (1) Volatilise to re-enter in atmosphere
(3) Glutamic acid into glutamine (2) Absorbed by plant
(4) NH4 into glutamic acid
+
(3) Converted into nitrates
(4) Denitrification
54 E
 NCERT-Biology
39. In which of the following root tissues nodule 46. Which of the following statements are correct
formation initiated after successful infection ? regarding synthesis of ATP in chloroplast during
(1) Epidermis (2) Cortex photosynthesis ?
(3) Endodermis (4) Root hairs (A) Splitting of water in stroma helps in creation of
40. First stable product of biological nitrogen fixation is: proton gradient

(1) HN = NH (2) H 2N – NH 2 (B) Cytochrome complex helps in the release of

protons in the lumen of thylakoid by accepting
(3) NH 3 (4) NO 3– pr NO 2 –
electrons from hydrogen carrier.
PHOTOSYNTHESIS
(C) Movement of protons across the membrane to
41. During photosynthesis, plants mainly utilise the red
and blue regions of visible spectrum, for the first time the stroma through the F 0 of the ATPase
it was concluded by : coupled with ATP synthesis.
(1) Jan Ingenhousz (D) Reduction of NADP + to NADPH+H + is also a
(2) Joseph Priestley cause for creation of proton gradient.

(3) T.W. Engelmann (1) All statements are correct

(4) Cornelius Van Niel (2) C and D

42. Which of the following conclusions regarding (3) A and B (4) B, C and D
photosynthesis was proved by using radioisotopic
47. What is the correct ratio of ATP utilisation in steps
tachniques ?
of Calvin cycle?
(1) Light is essential
(1) Reduction : Regeneration :: 1 : 1
(2) O2 comes from H2O not from CO2
(2) Reduction : Regeneration :: 2 : 1
(3) Glucose is stored as starch
(3) Reduction : Regeneration :: 2 : 2
(4) Exchange of gases with environment
(4) Reduction : Regeneration :: 1 : 2
43. The dark reactions of the photosynthesis :
48. The cells of C4 plants those are rich in RuBisCO
(1) occur in darkness
enzyme, also have which of the following
(2) are not light dependent characteristic (s)?
(3) are not directly light driven
(1) Intercellular spaces absent
(4) occur in membrane system of chloroplast
(2) Thick walls impervious to gaseous exchange
44. Electrons from which of follwing reduces NADP+ to
NADPH+H+ during Z-scheme of photosynthesis? (3) Large number of chloroplast

(1) Photosystem-I (2) Water (4) All of the above

(3) Carbon dioxide (4) Photosystem-II 49. The productivity is better in C4 plants because :
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45. During photosynthesis the stroma lamellae of (1) they increase the intracellular concentration of
chloroplast could perform : CO2 in mesophyll cells
(1) the process of dark reaction in which ATP utilised (2) in these plants RuBisCO has much greater
(2) the process of light reaction which produce affinity for O2 than for CO2
NADPH+H + (3) these plants can prevent an competitive binding
(3) the process of dark reaction which utilise phenomena related to RuBisCO
NADPH+H + (4) these plants minimise the carboxylase activity of
(4) the process of light reaction which produce ATP RuBisCO

E 55
NCERT-Biology
50. C3 plants respond to higher CO2 concentration by 55. Which of the following is not required for
showing increased rates of photosynthesis because: chemiosmosis ?

(1) Current availability of CO2 levels is limiting to the (1) Membrane

C3 plants (2) Proton pump

(2) C3 plants show saturation at about 360 L –1 (3) OEC

concentration of CO2
(4) ATPase
(3) these plants responds to high CO2 concentration 56. Classification of biosynthetic phase of dark reaction
even in low light conditions as C3 & C4 is primarily based on.

(4) in these plants RuBisCO shows only carboxylation (1) Initial CO2 fixation

(2) Final CO2 assimilation

51. 2H 2A + CO 2 light 2A + CH 2O + H 2
(3) First CO2 receptor
in this given equation H2A represents to :
(4) Number of ATP get consumed
(1) Suitable reducible compounds 57. Which of the following is not special about C4 plants?
(2) Suitable oxidisable compound (1) Responsiveness to high light intensities

(3) Suitable buffer (2) Lack of photorespiration

(4) Both (1) and (2) (3) Greater productivity

52. The membrane system of chloroplast is responsible (4) Scotoactive stomata

for : 58. In C4 plants there is no photorespiration, because :

(1) Trapping the light energy (1) The have large number of chloroplast

(2) Synthesis of ATP & NADPH (2) increased CO 2 concentration at enzyme site

(3) Concentric arrangement of mesophyll

(3) Enzymatic reactions for CO2 incorporation
(4) Greater affinity of rubisco for CO2
(4) Both (1) and (2)
59. Which of the following is not a plant factor regulating
53. In which of the following aspect PS-I and PS-II do photosynthesis ?
not differ to each other ?
(1) age of leaf
(1) Reaction centre
(2) Number of mesophyll cells
(2) Location on thylakoid membrane (3) atmospheric CO2 concentration
(3) Redox behaviour (4) amount of chlorophyll
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(4) Number of photon required for per electron 60. Increase in CO2 concentration upto .......... percent
excitement can cause an increase in CO2 fixation rate, beyond
54. How does PS-II supply electrons continuously ? this the level can become damaging over log periods.

(1) by removing electrons from photon (1) 0.03 percent

(2) by removing electrons from H 2O (2) 0.04 percent
(3) by removing electrons from CO2 (3) 0.045 percent
(4) by removing electrons from constituent
(4) 0.05 percent
carotenoids

56 E
 NCERT-Biology
RESPIRATION IN PLANTS 66. Fermentation is differ from aerobic respiration :
61. The energy released by oxidation of respiratory (1) in having partial breakdown of glucose
substrates : (2) in producing less ATP per glucose
(A) Comes out in a single step to increase the
(3) in having slow oxidation of NADH2 to NAD+
possibility of maximum ATP production
(4) All of the above
(B) is not used directly
67. Complete oxidation of which of the following
(C) is used directly in the energy requiring processes
respiratory substrate evolve less volume of CO2 as
of the organisms
compare to volume of O2 consumed ?
(D) is trapped as chemical energy in the energy
(1) Fats (2) Proteins
currency of the cell
(1) C and D are incorrect (3) Carbohyrates (4) Both (1) and (2)

(2) B and D are correct 68. Enzymes are differ from inorganic catalysts because
enzymes get damaged at high temperatures. This
(3) A and B are correct
difference :
(4) A and D are incorrect
(1) is applicable to all enzymes
62. How many ATP molecules and during which steps,
are directly synthesised in EMP pathway from one (2) is not applicable to thermolabile enzymes
glucose molecule? (3) is not applicable to the enzymes of thermophilic
(1) 4 ATP, 2 in each PEP to pyruvic acid and BiPGA organisms
to PGA (4) is applicable to thermostable enzymes
(2) 2 ATP, 1 in each PEP to pyruvic acid and BiPGA 69. An enzyme catalysing a transfer of a group, G
to PGA between a pair of substrate S and S' as follows :
(3) 2 ATP, 1 in each Glucose to Glucose-6-P and
S – G + S' S + S' – G
Fructose-6-P to Fructose 1, 6 BiP
G = phosphate or hydrogen or any other group, the
(4) 4 ATP, 2 in each Glucose to Glucose-6-P and enzyme is related with which of the following class?
Fructose-6-P to Fructose 1, 6 BiP
(1) Transferases (2) Dehydrogenases
63. Which of the following enzyme(s) is/are involved in
the conversion of pyruvic acid into CO2 and ethanol? (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Either (1) or (2)

(1) Pyruvic acid dehydrogenase 70. Enzyme, which catalyze the breakdown of hydrogen
(2) Alcohol decarboxylase peroxide to water and oxygen, has which type of
cofactor?
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Pyruvic acid decarboxylase (1) Tightly bound inorganic compound

64. The complete oxidation of one molecule of pyruvate (2) Tightly bound organic compound
by the stepwise removal of all the hydrogen atoms: (3) Loosely bound inorganic compound
(1) leaving six molecules of CO2
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(4) Loosely bound organic compound

(2) leaving two molecules of CO2
71. What is the significance of respiration ?
(3) leaving four molecules of CO2
(1) Production of cellular energy currency
(4) leaving three molecules of CO2
(2) Provides carbon skeleton as precursor for
65. In aerobic respiration, the ultimate or final electron
synthesis of various chemicals
acceptor is :
(3) loss of weight
(1) Atomic oxygen (2) Molecular oxygen
(3) Cytochrome a3 (4) Water (4) Both (1) and (2)

E 57
NCERT-Biology
72. Plants donot present great demands for gaseous 79. Which of the following ETC complex is directly
exhange because : involved in reduction of oxygen ?
(1) They are autotrophic (1) complex-I (2) complex-II
(2) Photosynthesis and respiration work mutually (3) comlex-III (4) comlex-IV
(3) In plants there is less need of energy 80. When proteins are respiratory substrates the ratio
(4) Plants are regulators of CO2/O 2 would be about :
73. Select out the correct sequence of glycolytic steps: (1) 1.0 (2) 0.7
(1) PGAL 3-PGA 1,3-diPGA PEP
(3) 0.9 (4) 1.3
(2) PGAL 1,3-diPGA PEP 3-PGA
(3) PGAL 1,3-diPGA 3-PGA PEP GROWTH & DEVELOPMENT
(4) PGAL PEP 1,3-diPGA 2-PGA
81. Which of the following statements are correct
74. During respiration of Yeast which of the following
regarding growth?
enzyme is not used in oxygen stressed conditions ?
(A) In plants, the form of growth is open and
(1) Enolase
localised
(2) Pyruvic acid decarboxylase
(B) Swelling of piece of wood in water is considered
(3) Alcohol dehydrogenase
as growth since it is the increase in size
(4) Aconitase
(C) Growth is accompanied by metabolic processes
75. How much amount of energy present in glucose, get
released during lactic acid and alcohol (D) Growth, at a cellular level, is a result of increase
fermentatioun ? in the amount of protoplasm

(1) 7 percent (1) All the statements are correct

(2) less than seven percent (2) A and B

(3) more than seven percent (3) B, C and D

(4) only 2 percent (4) A, C and D

82. Meristematic phase of growth is characterised by :
Pyruvate
76. Pyruvic acid Acetyl CoA
dehydrogenase (1) Increased vacuolation
+
CO + NADH (2) Maximal size in terms of protoplasmic
2 2
modifications
Inthis given reaction which of the following coenzyme
(3) Cells those are rich in protoplasm and having thin
is not used ?
cell walls with abundant plasmodesmata
(1) Mg ++ (2) NAD
(4) Cell enlargement
(3) Co-A (4) TPP
83. Which of the following is/are related to the type of
77. TCA cycle starts with condensation of acetyl CoA
growth in which both the progeny cells, arise from
group with :
mother cell, retain the ability to divide?
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(1) OAA (2) Water

(A) Sigmoid curve
(3) NAD (4) both (1) and (2)
(B) expressed as W1 = W 0 + rt
78. During TCA which of the following intermediate is
(C) Linear curve
a result of two successive decarboxilations ?
(D) three phases - Lag, exponential and stationary
(1) Oxalosuccinic acid
(1) A and D
(2) -ketoglutaric acid
(2) A, B and D
(3) Succinyl Co-A
(3) Only C
(4) Cis aconitic acid
(4) B and C

58 E
 NCERT-Biology
84. In plants, cells/tissues arising out of the same 89. Plants, in which there is no correlation between
meristem have different structures at maturity, this exposure to light duration and induction of flowering
statement shows that plants have : response, are called :
(1) Open indeterminate growth (1) Day - neutral plants
(2) Open determinate growth (2) Long day plants
(3) Open differentiation (3) Short day plants
(4) Capacity of dedifferentiation (4) Monocarpic plants
85. Match the following : 90. Which of the following is not biennial plant?
(A) Auxin (i) Derivatives of carotenoids (1) Barley (2) Sugarbeet
(B) Gibberellin (ii) Gases (3) Cabbages (4) Carrots
(C) Cytokinin (iii) Adenine derivatives 91. Swelling of piece of wood when placed in water is
(D) Ethylene (iv) Terpenes not considered as growth because :
(E) Abscisic acid (v) Indole compounds (1) It does not occur at expense of energy
(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv, E - v (2) It is not a metabolic change
(2) A - ii, B - i, C - v, D - iii, E - iv (3) It is reversible process
(3) A - v, B - iv, C - iii, D - ii, E - i (4) It is extrinsic process
(4) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii, E - v 92. Plant growth is unique because :
86. Math the following : (1) It is intrinsic
(A) Human urine (i) Ethylene
(2) It occurs at the expense of energy
(B) Coconut milk (ii) GA3
(3) Plant retains the capacity for unlimited growth
(C) Ripened oranges (iii) Auxin throughout their life
(D) Gibberella fujikuroi fungus (iv) Cytokinin (4) It accompanied by metabolic processes
(1) A - iii, B - iv, C - i, D - ii 93. Growth at a cellular level, is principally a
(2) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv consequence of increase in amount of :
(3) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i (1) Cell wall material (2) Water
(4) A - ii, B - i, C - iv, D - iii (3) Protoplasm (4) Cell sap
87. Match the following : 94. Cells with increased vacuolation, cell enlargement
(A) Cytokinin (i) Weed free lawns and new cell wall deposition are the characteristic
features of which phase of growth ?
(B) Auxin (ii) Brewing industry
(1) meristematic phase
(C) Abscsic acid (iii) Root hair formation
(2) elongation phase
(D) Ethylene (iv) Overcome apical dominance
(3) maturation phase
(E) Gibberellin (v) Stress hormone
(4) Differentiation phase
(1) A - iv, B - i, C - v, D - ii, E - iii 95. Trees showing seasonal activities, represent what
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(2) A - i, B - ii, C - v, D - iii, E - iv kind of growth curve :

(3) A - iii, B - iv, C - v, D - i, E - ii (1) Sigmoid (2) Linear
(4) A - iv, B - i, C - v, D - iii, E - ii (3) J-shape (4) double sigmoid
88. Which of the following occur naturally in plants? 96. Quantitative comparisions between the growth of
living systems can be made by :
(1) 2, 4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid
(1) Absolute growth rate
(2) Indole butyric acid
(2) Relative growth rate
(3) Naphthalene acetic acid
(3) Exponential growth rate
(4) Kinetin (4) both (1) and (2)

E 59
NCERT-Biology
97. Nutrients both macro and micro essential elements 99. Which of the following is an intercellular intrinsic
are required by plant during growth for : factor regulating to development ?
(1) synthesis of protoplasm
(1) genetic constitution
(2) as source of energy
(3) enzyme of activation (2) PGR
(4) all the above (3) Water
98. Parenchyma cells that are made to divide under
controlled laboratory conditions during plant tissue (4) Oxygen
culture, represents to : 100. Select out the incorrect match :
(1) Differentiation (1) GA - speedup malting process
(2) Dedifferentiation (2) Auxin - Xylem differentiation
(3) Redifferentiation (3) Cytokinin - Adventitious shoot formation
(4) Undifferentiated mass of cells (4) Ethylene - Lateral shoot growth

ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 1 3 2 2 4 4 1 2 2 3 2 4 2 4 2 3 4 4 2
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Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 1 3 3 4 1 1 3 4 1 3 2 3 1 2 3 2 3 2 3
Que . 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 3 2 3 1 4 4 2 4 3 1 2 4 4 2 3 1 4 2 3 4
Que . 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 2 1 4 4 2 4 4 3 4 2 4 2 3 4 2 1 4 3 4 3
Que . 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 4 3 1 3 3 1 4 2 1 1 3 3 3 2 1 4 4 2 2 4

60 E
 NCERT-Biology

DIGESTION AND ABSORPTION

1. Oesophagus 5. The below diagram represents a section of small
A intestinal mucosa showing villi. Identify A, B, C and
D :-
B
Duodenum
A
B
C

Anatomical regions of human stomach are :- C

(1) A - Fundus; B - Pyloric; C - Cardia Artery
D
(2) A - Cardia; B - Fundus; C - Pyloric Vein
(3) A - Fundus; B - Cardia; C - Pyloric (1) A - Villi, B - Lacteal, C - Capillaries, D - Crypts
(4) A - Pyloric; B - Fundus; C - Cardia
(2) A - Lacteal, B - Villi, C - Capillaries, D - Crypts
2. The wall of alimentary canal from stomach to rectum
posses four layers. The sequence of these layers (3) A - Villi, B - Lacteal, C - Crypts , D - Capillaries
is (from aoutside) :- (4) A - Crypts, B - Lacteal, C - Capillaries, D - Villi
(1) Serosa Mucosa Submucosa Muscularis 6. Find out the correct match :-
(2) Mucularies Serosa Mucosa Submucosa Column-I Column-II
(3) Serosa Muscularis Mucosa Submucosa
A. Hepatic lobule I. Base of Villi
(4) Serosa Muscularis Submucosa Mucosa
B. Crypts of leiberkuhn II. Glisson's capsule
3. The below diagram represents the TS of gut. Identify
A, B, C and D :- C. Sphincter of Oddi III. Gall bladder
D . Cystic duct IV. Hepato-pancreatic duct
A (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

B (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
C 7. The below diagram is a duct system of liver, gall
D bladder and pancreas. The names of ducts from A
Lumen to D :-
Gall bladder
(1) A - Serosa; B - Muscularis; C - Submucosa; A Ducts from liver
D - Mucosa
(2) A - Muscularis; B - Serosa; C - Submucosa; B
D - Mucosa Pancreas
(3) A - Serosa; B - Muscularis; C - Mucosa;
C
D - Submucosa Duodenum
(4) A - Serosa; B - Submucosa; C - Muscularis;
D - Mucosa
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D
4. Which of the following statement is false ?
(1) A - Cystic duct, B - Bile duct, C - Pancreatic duct,
(1) Mucosal epithelium has goblet cells which
D - Hepato-pancreatic duct.
secrete mucus for lubrication.
(2) A - Bile duct, B - Cystic duct, C - Pancreatic duct,
(2) Mucosa forms gastric glands in the stomach and
D - Hepato-pancreatic duct.
crypts in between the bases of villi in intestine.
(3) Cells lining the villi has brush border or (3) A - Cystic duct, B - Bile duct, C - Hepato-
microvilli. pancreatic duct, D - Pancreatic duct.
(4) All the four basic layer in the wall of gut never (4) A - Cystic duct, B - Pancreatic duct, C - Bile duct,
show modification in different parts of the D - Hepatio-pancreatic duct.
alimentary canal.
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NCERT-Biology
8. Optimum pH of saliva is :- 15. Match the columns and choose the correct option :-
(1) 6.8 (2) 8.6 (3) 7 (4) 9.5 Column-I Column-II
9. About 30% starch is digestied in :- A. Salivary amylase I. Proteins
(1) Mouth (2) Stomach B. Bile Salts II. Milk protein
(3) Small intestine (4) Colon C. Rennin III. Starch
10. Find out the correct matching between the cells of D . Pepsin IV. Lipids
gastric gland and their respective secretory (1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
products:- (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Column-I Column-II (3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
A. Mucus neck cells I. HCl, (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Intrinsic factor 16. The secretion of the brush border cells along with
B. Peptic / Chief cells II. Mucus secretions of goblet cells present in the mucosa of
C. Parietal / Oxyntic cells III. Pepsinogen small intestine constitutes :-
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I (2) A-III, B-II, C-I (1) Chyme
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III (4) A-II, B-I, C-III (2) Chyle
11. Enterokinase is :- (3) Succus entericus
(1) Pancreatic hormone
(4) Interstitial fluid
(2) Intestinal hormone
17. The juice having maltase, dipeptidase, lipase,
(3) Pancreatic enzyme
nucleotidase, nucleosidase etc is called :-
(4) Component of intestinal juice
(1) Pancreatic juice
12. First step in digestion of fat is :-
(2) Gastric juice
(1) Emulsification
(2) Enzyme action (3) Intestinal juice / Succus entericus
(3) Absorption by lacteals (4) Bile
(4) Storage in adipose tissue 18. Which of the following processes is aided by the bile
13. Identify enzymes A, B, C, and D in digestion of salts :-
carbohydrates :- (1) Nucleic acid Nuclease Nucleotides

Starch Nucleotidase Nucleosides Nucleosidase

A Sugar + bases
Lactose Maltose Sucrose (2) Sucrose Sucrase Glucose + Fructose
B C D (3) Fats Diglycerides
Lipase Lipase
Galactose Glucose Fructose Monoglycerides
(1) A-Amylase, B-Invertase, C-Maltase, D-Lactase Proteins
(2) A-Amylase, B-Lactase, C-Maltase, D-Invertase Peptones Trypsin/Chymotrypsin
Dipeptides
(4) Carboxypeptidase
(3) A-Amylase, B-Maltase, C-Lactase, D-Invertase Proteases
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(4) A-Amylase, B-Maltase, C-Invertase, D-Lactase

19. Which of the following statements is false ?
14. Find out the correct sequence of substrate, enzyme
(1) The break down of most of biomacromolecules
and product :-
occurs in duodenum.
(1) Small intestine : Proteins Pepsin Amino acids (2) Simple substances (digested foods) are absorbed
Lipase in the jejunum and ileum.
(2) Stomach : Fats Micelles
(3) Very significant digestive acitivity occurs in large
(3) Duodenum : Triglycerides Trypsin Monoglyceridess intestine.
-Amylase (4) Undigested and unabsorbed substances are
(4) Small intestine : Starch Maltose
passed into the large intestine.

62 E
 NCERT-Biology
20. Which of the following is not the function of large 23. Which of the following statement is wrong about
intestine? chylomicrons?
(1) Absorption of some water, minerals and certain drugs. I. Chylomicrons are produced in the epithelial cells
(2) Nutrient absorption of small intestinal.
(3) Secretion of mucus to lubricate faeces II. It contains triglycerides, cholesterol and
(4) Temporary storage of faeces in rectum phospholipids.
21. In addition to neural control, hormones also III. It is protein coated.
influence the :-
IV. Chylomicrons released from the epithelial cell
(1) gastric secretions
into lacteals.
(2) intestinal secretions
(1) I and IV (2) II and III
(3) muscular activities of different parts of
(3) I, II, III and IV (4) None of the above
alimentary canal
24. Chylomicrons are concerned with :-
(4) All of these
22. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (1) digestion of fats
I. Absorption of simple sugar, alcohol, some water (2) absorption of proteins
and medicines takes place in stomach. (3) digestion of protein
II. Maximum water absorption occurs in small (4) absorption of fats
intestine. 25. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
III. Small intestine is the major site of digestion and (1) Faecal accumulation in the rectum initiates a
absorption of food. neural reflex causing an urge for its removal.
IV. Fatty acid and glycerol are absorbed by lacteals. (2) Reflex action for vomiting is controlled by
V. Nothing is absorbed in mouth and large medulla.
intestine. (3) Irregular bowel movements causes
(1) I, IV and V (2) V constipation
(3) IV (4) II and III
(4) In diarrhoea the absorption of food get enhanced
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ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 4 1 4 1 1 1 1 1 1 4 1 2 4 1 3 3 3 3 2
Que . 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. 4 2 4 4 4

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NCERT-Biology

RESPIRATORY SYSTEM / BREATHING & EXCHANGE OF GASES

1. Which of the following is a common passage for 7. Match the column-A with column-B
food and air ? Column A Column B
(1) External nostrils i - IRV a - 1200 ml
(2) Oesopharynx ii - ERV b - 1000 ml
(3) Trachea iii - TV c - 2500 ml
(4) Pharynx iv - RV d - 500 ml
2. Trachea is a straight tube extending up to the.... (1) i - c, ii - b, iii - d, iv - a
(1) end of thoracic cavity (2) i - a, ii - c, iii - d, iv - b
(2) anterior of thoracic cavity (3) i - b, ii - c, iii - a, iv - d

(3) end of the neck (4) i - d, ii - b, iii - d, iv - a

(4) middle of the neck 8. The total volume of air accommodated in the lungs
at the end of forced inspiration is sum total of :
3. Primary secondary, tertiary bronchi and initial
(1) IRV + TV + ERV
bronchioles are supported by :
(2) ERV + TV + RV + IRV
(1) Complete cartilaginous rings
(3) TV + IRV
(2) Incomplete cartilaginous rings
(4) IRV + TV + RV
(3) Complete chitinous rings
9. Which of the following factors can affect the rate
(4) Incomplete chitinous rings
of diffusion of gases ?
4. Which statement is true ?
(1) Solubility of gases
(1) By the contraction in diaphragm, volume of
thoracic cavity increases dorso-ventrally. (2) Thickness of the membrance

(2) By the contraction in diaphragm, volume of (3) Both 1 and 2

thoracic cavity increases antero-posterior axis. (4) None of these
(3) By the contraction in EICM, volume of thoracic 10. Which of the following is primary muscle of
cacity increases antero-posterior axis inspiration ?
(4) None (1) Abdominal muscles (2) Oblique muscles
5. A - Diaphragm (3) Intercoastal muscles (4) Diaphragm
B - EICM 11. The partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air and
C - IICM oxygenated blood respectively :

D - Abdominal muscles (1) 40 mm Hg, 45 mm Hg

We have the ability to increase the strength of (2) 104 mm Hg, 95 mm Hg

expiration by the contraction of which set of (3) 159 mm Hg, 104 mm Hg
muscles? (4) 104 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg
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(1) A, B, C and D (2) A, C and D 12. Which of the following statement is/are true ?
(3) C and D (4) A and D (1) Diffusion capacity of CO2 is 20-25 times higher
6. Which of the following muscles help to increase the than that of O2
volume of thoracic cavity ?
(2) The solubility of CO2 is 20-25 times higher than
(1) Diaphragm and EICM that of O2
(2) EICM and IICM (3) The diffusion capacity of O2 is 20-25 times higher
(3) Diaphragm and Abdominal muscles than that of CO2
(4) IICM and abdominal muscles (4) More than one statements are corect.

64 E
 NCERT-Biology
13. Which of the following statement are/is true ? 14. Find out correct statement :
(1) About 97 percent of O2 is transported by RBCs
(1) Alveolar wall is one celled thick. in the blood
(2) About 90-93 percent of CO2 is transported by
(2) The total thickness of diffusion membrane is much RBCs is the blood
less than a millimeter. (3) About 7 percent of O2 and 3 percent of CO2 is
carried in dissolved form through plasma
(3) At the level of alveoli gaseous exchange occurs (4) More than one are correct
by simple diffusion. 15. The amount of O2 delivered by 100 ml blood to the
tissue under normal physiological condition :
(4) All of these (1) 200 ml (2) 5 ml
(3) 1.34 ml (4) 20 ml
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ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

Ans. 4 2 2 2 3 1 1 2 3 4 2 4 4 1 2

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NCERT-Biology

CIRCULATORY SYSTEM / BODY FUILD & CIRULATION

1. Match the columns and pick out the correct 5. The opening between the right atrium and the right
answer :- ventricle is guarded by a valve called __x__, whereas
Column-I Column-II __y__ guards the opening between the left atrium
(a) Fishes (i) 4 chambered heart and the left ventricle :-
(b) Amphibians (ii) 3 chambered heart (1) x is bicuspid valve, y is tricuspid valve
(c) Crocodile (iii) 2 chambered heart
(2) x is semilunar valve, y is tricuspid valve
(d) Mammals
(3) x is bicuspid valve, y is semilunar valve
(1) (a) (i), (b) (ii), (c) (ii),(d) (iii)
(4) x is tricuspid valve, y is bicuspid
(2) (a) (iii), (b) (ii), (c) (ii),(d) (i)
6. Which of the following is considered as pacemaker
(3) (a) (iii), (b) (ii), (c) (i),(d) (i) of human heart?

(4) (a) (iii), (b) (i), (c) (i),(d) (ii) (1) SA node (2) AV node

2. In amphibians and reptiles, the left atrium receives (3) Purkinje fibres (4) Bundle of His
oxygenated blood from the gills/lungs/skin and the 7. Which of the these has a double closed type of
right atrium gets the deoxygenated blood from circulatory system ?
other body parts. However, they get mixed up in
(1) Cockroach, Fish
the single ventricle which pumps out mixed blood
called:- (2) Fish, Frog

(1) Incomplete single circulation (3) Earthworm, Human

(2) Complete single circulation (4) Birds, Human

(3) Incomplete double circulation 8. Role of pacemaker is :-
(4) Complete double circulation (1) To initiate and maintain the rhythmic contractile
3. Heart is __a__ derived organ, is situated in the activity of the heart
__b__ cavity, in between the two __c__ slightly tilted (2) To initiate and maintain the arhythmic contractile
to the __d__:- activity of the heart
a b c d (3) To initiate and maintain the rhythmic contractile
(1) Endodermally Thoracic lungs left activity of blood vessels
(2) Mesodermally Thoracic lungs left (4) To generate mi nimum act ion potentials for
(3) Mesodermally Thoracic lungs right initiating and maintaining the rhythmic
(4) Endodermally Thoracic lungs left contractile activity of the heart
4. Choose the wrong statement :- 9. Duration of a cardiac cycle:-
(1) Heart has the size of a clenched first (1) 0.8 seconds (2) 1.2 seconds
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(2) Heart is protected by a double walled (3) 1.8 seconds (4) 2.0 seconds
membranous bag, the pericardium
10. The second heart sound "dub" is associated with :-
(3) Human heart has four chambers, two relatively
(1) Opening of semilunar valves
large upper chambers called atria and two
smaller lower chambers called ventricles (2) Opening of AV valves

(4) The atrium ventricle of the same side are (3) Closure of AV valves
separated by a thick fibrous tissue called the (4) Closure of the semilunar valves
atrio-ventricular septum

66 E
 NCERT-Biology
11. A unique vascular connection exists between the 16. Match the columns and choose the correct answer :-
digestive tract and liver called :- Columne-I Column-II Column-II
a1. blood b1. Blood pressure c1. 120/80 mmHg
(1) Renal portal system
pressure higher than normal
(2) Hypophyseal portal system
a2. Hypertension b2. Blood pressure c2. 140/90 mmHg
(3) Gastric portal system lower than normal
(4) Hepatic portal system a3. Hypotension b3. Pressure applied by c3. 100/70 mmHg
flowing blood on the
12. All arteries carry oxygenated blood except :-
walls of arteries
(1) Hepatic
(1) a 1 b 3c 1 , a 2b 2c 2, a 3b 1 c 3
(2) Systemic
(3) Coronary (2) a 1b 3 c 1, a 2 b 1c 2, a 3b 2c 3

(4) Pulmonary (3) a 1b 2 c 2, a 2 b 3c 3, a 3b 1c 1

13. The volume of blood pumped out by each ventricle (4) a 1b 1 c 1, a 2 b 2c 2, a 3b 3c 3

per minute and average 5 in a healthy individual 17. In humans, blood passes from the ventricles to the
is called :- pulmonary artery and aorta due to :-
(1) Increase in atrial pressure
(1) Stroke volume (2) Joint diastole
(2) Increase in ventricular pressure
(3) Cardiac output (4) Ventricular diastole
(3) Decrease in ventricular pressure
14. Cardiac output is :-
(4) Suction pull
(1) Stroke volume x heart beat
18. Cause of closure of semilunar valves in human heart
(2) Stroke volume - heart beat
is :-
(3) Stroke volume + heart beat (1) Ventricular diastole and increase in ventricular
(4) Stroke volume ÷ heart beat pressure
(2) Ventricular systole and increase in ventricular
15. Identify a, b, c, d and e in the diagram given below- pressure
(3) Ventricular diastole and decrease in ventricular
f
pressure
a b (4) Atrial diastole and decrease in atrial pressure
19. Choose the schematic diagram which properly
represents pulmonary circulation in humans:-
Oxygenated Deoxygenated
d c (1) Left atrium Lungs Right ventricle
Heart-Ventral view blood blood

Deoxygenated Oxygenated
(2) Left atrium blood
Lungs blood
Right ventricle
e
Deoxygenated Oxygenated
a b c d e (3) Right ventricle blood
Lungs blood
Left atrium

(1) Pulmonary Pulomnary Ventral Vena Body Oxygenated Deoxygenated

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(4) Right ventricle blood

Lungs blood
Left atrium
artery vein aorta cava pa rt
20. During each cardiac cycle two prominent sounds are
(2) Pulmonary Pulmonary Dorsal Vena Body
produced which can be easily heard through a :-
artery vein aorta cava parts
(1) Electro cardiograph
(3) Pulmonary Pulmonary Dorsal Vena Lungs
vein artery aorta cava (2) Stethoscope

(4) Pulmonary Pulmonary Dorsal Vena Body (3) Sphygmomanometer

vein artery aorta cava parts (4) Galvanometer

E 67
NCERT-Biology
21. Acute chest pain when no enough oxygen is reaching 22. Which of the following is not a function of
the heart muscle is called :- sympathetic nervous system ?

(1) Heart failure (1) Increase the rate of heart beat

(2) Heart attack (2) Decrease the rate of heart beat

(3) Cardiac arrest (3) Increase the cardiac output

(4) Angina pectoris (4) Increase the strength of ventricular contraction

NODE2\E:\DATA\2014\NCERT_OBJECTIVE_BIO\ENGLISH.P65

ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 3 3 3 4 1 4 1 1 4 4 4 3 1 2 2 2 3 3 2
Que . 21 22
Ans. 4 2

68 E
 NCERT-Biology
EXCRETORY PRODUCTS & THEIR ELIMINATION
1. Which is not correctly matched : 7. Correct match list-1 with list-2
List-1 List-2
(1) Malpighian tubules - Cockroaches
(A) Glycosuria (i) Inflammation of
(2) Antennal glands - Planaria glomeruli of kidney
(B) Ketonuria (ii) Presence of glucose
(3) Nephridia - Earthworm
in urine
(4) Protonephridia - Amphioxus (C) Glomerulonephritis (iii) Excess of urea in
2. Which part of nephron is not situated in the cortical blood
region of the kidney. (D) Uremia (iv) Presence of ketone
(1) Malpighian body bodies of urine
(2) PCT
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(3) DCT
(2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
(4) Loop of Henle
3. Which of the following group of animals are (3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
ammonotelic in nature. (4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)

(1) Many bony fishes, amphibians, Insects. 8. Find out the correct statement :

(2) Marine Fishes, amphibians, aquatic insects (1) An increase in body fluid volume, stimulate the
ADH release.
(3) Mammals, birds, Reptiles
(2) A fall in glomerular blood flow can activate the
(4) Many bony fishes, aquatic amphibians, aquatic
insects. JG cells to release renin.
4. Which statement is not true regarding the (3) Angiotensin-II, being a powerful vasodialator,
reabsorption. decreases the glomerular blood pressure.
(1) Nearly 99 percent of the filtrate has to be (4) Decrease in blood flow to the atria of the heart
reabsorbed by the renal tubules. can cause the release of atrial natriuretic
factor(ANF)
(2) Nearly all of the essential nutrients are
reabsorbed by PCT. 9. HCO3– is reabsorbed in which part of nephron :

(3) DCT is also capable of reabsorption of HCO3– (1) PCT, DCT

(4) Reabsorption of hydrogen and potassium ions (2) PCT, Henle's loop
occur in DCT. (3) DCT, Henle's loop
5. Conditional reabsorption of Na + and water takes
(4) Collecting duct, Bowman's capsule
place in :
(1) PCT 10. Which substances are reabsorbed actively in
(2) DCT nephron :
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(3) Henle's loop (1) Glucose, water (2) Glucose, Na +

(4) Bowman's capsule
(3) Amino acids, Urea (4) Na +, Water
6. Which segment of nephron allows passage of small
amount of urea into the medullary interstitium. 11. Micturition is due to :
(1) Relaxation of smooth mucles of the urinary
(1) PCT
bladder
(2) DCT
(2) Contraction of the urethral sphincter
(3) Collecting duct (3) Relaxation of the urethral sphincter
(4) Henle's loop (4) Peristalsis in ureter

E 69
NCERT-Biology
12. Which points are not correct about angiotensin-II 17. In interstitial fluid of the kidney an increasing
(a) Decreases the glomerular blood pressure. osmolarity from cortex to the inner medulla. This
gradient is mainly caused by :
(b) Activates the adrenal cortex to release
aldosterone (1) Na +, K +
(c) Powerful vasoconstrictor (2) NaCl and Urea
(d) Decreases the GFR (3) NaCl, Water, HCO 3–
(e) Activates the JG cells to release renin. (4) Urea, K +, HCO 3–
(1) a, b, c (2) a, d, e
18. Which of the following is not secreted into the filtrate
(3) c, d, e (4) b, c, e
in the PCT by active process?
13. Which substances are reabsorped in collecting duct?
(1) Glucose, Water (2) Water only (1) H+ ions
(3) H+, K + ions (4) Water, H + ions (2) Ammonia
14. In which part of nephron electrolytes are not
(3) Creatinine
reabsorped?
(1) PCT (4) Urea
(2) DCT
19. Which of the following plays a significant role in
(3) Descending limb of Henle's loop producing concentrated urine?
(4) Ascending limb of Henle's loop
15. In which part of nephron water is not reabsorbed? (1) PCT and Henle's loop
(1) PCT (2) Henle's loop and Vasa recta
(2) DCT
(3) Collecting duct and DCT
(3) Descending limb of Henle's loop
(4) Ascending limb of Henle's loop (4) Collecting duct and PCT
16. Find out the incorrect statement 20. Which statement is not correct about glomerular
(1) Ammonia is the most toxic form and requires filtration?
large amount of water for its elimination. (1) On an average 1100-1200 ml of blood is filtered
(2) Kidneys do not play any significant role in by the kidney per minute.
ammonia removal. (2) Glomerular filtrate is blood plasma except
protein.
(3) Human kidneys can produce only hypertonic
urine nearly five times concentrated than the (3) GFR in a healthy individual is approxiamately
initial filtrate. 125 ml/minute or 180 lit per day.

(4) Urea may be retained in the kidney matrix of (4) Complete blood plasma is filtered in ultrafiltration
process.
some animals to maintain a desired osmolarity.
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ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 4 4 4 2 3 3 2 1 2 3 2 2 3 4 3 2 4 2 4

70 E
 NCERT-Biology

LOCOMOTION AND MOVEMENT

1. Which joint is present between atlas and axis : 8. Which is correctly matched :
(1) Saddle joint (2) Gliding joint (1) Fibrous joint - between the adjacent vertebrae
(3) Pivot joint (4) Hinge joint (2) Hinge joint - between atlas and axis
2. Cartilaginous joint is found : (3) Cartilaginous joint - pubic symphysis
(1) Between skull bones (4) Pivot joint - between the carpals
(2) Between the carpals 9. Correctly match list-1 with list-2
(3) Between the adjacent vertebrae List-1 List-2
(4) Between humerus and petctorial girdle (A) Cranial bones (i) 5
3. Acromian process is a part of : (B) Facial bones (ii) 6
(1) Clavicle bone (2) Coxal bone (C) Axial skeleton (iii) 7
(3) Humerus bone (4) Scapula bone (D) Vertebrochondral ribs (iv) 8
4. Which statement is not correct : (E) Lumbar vertebrae (v) 14
(1) The number of cervical vertebrae are seven in (F) Ankle bones (vi) 80
almost all mammals.
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(vi), E-(v), F-(vi)
(2) Number of floating ribs in human are two pairs.
(2) A-(iv), B-(v), C-(vi), D-(iii), E-(i), F-(ii)
(3) Number of cranial bones in human are 22.
(3) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(vi), D-(ii), E-(i), F-(iii)
(4) Number of vertebrochondral ribs in human are
(4) A-(iv), B-(v), C-(vi), D-(ii), E-(i), F-(iii)
3 pairs.
10. Which statement is not correct about osteoporosis?
5. Correctly match list-1 with list-2
(1) In this bone mass decreased
List-1 List-2
(2) It is age related disorder
(A) Collar bone (i) Pectorial girdle
(B) Glenoid cavity (ii) Pelvic girdle (3) Increased levels of estrogen is a common cause
of it.
(C) Acetabullum (iii) Patella
(4) In this chances of fractures increased.
(D) Knee cap (iv) Clavicle
(1) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii) 11. The portion of the myofibril between two successive
"Z" line is considered as :-
(2) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(1) H-zone (2) Sarcomere
(3) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii) (3) A-band (4) Sarcoplasmic reticulum

6. Rib cage is formed by : 12. Which of the following can be taken as a character
of skeletal muscle fibre?
(1) Pectorial girdle, ribs and sternum
(2) Thoracic vertebrae, ribs and sternum (1) Excitability (2) Extensibility
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(3) Lumbar vertebrae, ribs and strenum (3) Contractility (4) All of these

(4) Fore limb, pectorial girdle and sternum 13. Which points are incorrect with the regarding of
white muscle fibres.
7. In which the following bones are the example of flat
(A) Number of mitochondria are high
bone :
(B) Amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum is low
(A) Skull bones (B) Vertebrae
(C) Myoglobin content is low
(C) Sternum (D) Ribs
(D) Depend on anaerobic process for energy
(E) Carpals
(E) Appear pale or whitish.
(1) A, B, C (2) A, C, D
(1) A, B (2) C, D
(3) B, D, E (4) B, C, E
(3) D, E (4) B, C
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NCERT-Biology
14. The muscle fatigue occurs due to accumulation of: 18. Find out correct points with the regarding of cardiac
(1) Ca ++ muscle.

(2) CO2 (A) These are unstriated

(3) Lactic acid (B) These are involuntary

(4) Creatine phosphate (C) These are branched

15. Which one is not the character of red skeletal (D) They have more mitochondria
muscle? (E) They have less blood supply
(1) More mitochondria (1) A, B, C (2) B, C, D
(2) More myoglobin (3) B, D, E (4) A, C, E
(3) More sarcoplasmic reticulum 19. Active ATPase enzyme is located on :
(4) More blood capillaries (1) Actin protein
16. The functional unit of contraction of muscle is : (2) Myosin head
(1) Muscle fibre (3) Myosin tail
(2) Sarcomere (4) Troponin protein
(3) Fasiculi 20. Select the true statement :
(4) Actin and myosin filament (A) H-zone is present in the middle of I-band
17. Which is not correctly matched ? (B) A-band is present in the middle of sarcomere.
(1) Muscular movement - in Jaw, limbs (C) During contraction of mucle, I-bands get reduced
(2) Ciliary movement - in Fallopian tube (D) The light bands contain actin and myosin protein
(3) Amoeboid movement - in macrophages, leucocytes
(1) A, B (2) B, C
(4) Flagellated movement - in trachea
(3) C, D (4) A, B

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ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 3 3 4 3 3 2 2 3 4 3 2 4 1 3 3 2 4 2 2 2

72 E
 NCERT-Biology

NEURAL CONTROL & COORDINATION

1. Part of brain involved in the interpretation, storage 7. The medulla contains centres which controls :
of information and initiation of response on the basis
(1) respiration
of past experience is called association area it is :
(2) Cardiovascular reflexes
(A) Neither sensory nor motor
(B) Memory bank (3) Gastric secretions
(C) Motor area (4) All of these
(D) Sensory area 8. Polarized and depolarized condition of neuron is
(1) C and D maintained by which particular specific ions
(2) A and B respectively?
(3) B and D (1) K + and Na +
(4) B and C (2) Na + and K +
2. At least how may afferent and efferent neurons are (3) Ca +2 and K +
involved is any reflex pathway ? (4) Na + and Ca +2
(1) One afferent, one efferent 9. Along with which structure limbic system is also
(2) One afferent, one efferent and one interneuron involved i n regulat ion of sexual behaviour,
expression of emotional reaction and motivation.
(3) One afferent, one efferent and two interneuron
(1) Thalamus
(4) Two afferent, Two efferent and one interneuron
(2) Association area
3. Transmission of a nerve impulse across......... is very
similar to impulse conduction along a single axon. (3) Corpus callosum
(4) Hypothalamus
(1) Ranvier's node
10. The inner parts of cerebral hemisphere and group
(2) Chemical synapse
of associated deep structure form a complex
(3) Electrical synapse
structure called limbic systems these associated deep
(4) Myelin sheath structures include
4. In mechanism of vision, action potential is developed (A) Amygdala
in :
(B) Hippocampus
(1) Pigmented layer of retina
(C) Outer parts of cerebral cortex
(2) Photo receptor cells
(D) Association area
(3) Ganglionic layer
(1) A and D
(4) Optic nerve
5. Gray matter gives the greyish appearence due to (2) A and B
highly concentrated : (3) A and C
(1) Axon (4) C and D
(2) Myelin sheath 11. Motor areas, sensory areas and large regions called
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(3) Cell bodies as association areas are present in :

(4) Dendron
(A) Cerebral cortex
6. The cerebral hemispheres are connected by a tract
of nerve fibres called corpus callosum. these fibres (B) White matter
are covered by : (C) Inner part of cerebral hemisphere
(1) Myelin sheath or medullary sheath
(D) Gray matter
(2) Unmylinated or non medullated
(1) B and C (2) A and C
(3) Gray matter
(4) Nerilemma (3) A and B (4) A and D

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NCERT-Biology
12. When the sensation for white light is produced? 18. An Eustachian tube connects the middle ear to ........
which helps in equalising the pressure on either side
(1) By various combination of cones & their
of...........
photopigment
(1) Pharynx, basilar membrane
(2) When the cones are stimulated equally
(2) Pharynx, tympanic membrane
(3) When the cones are stimulated unequally (3) Buccal cavity, reissner's membrane
(4) By various combination of rods & their (4) Buccal cavity, tympanic membrane
photopigments 19. What is true regarding mechanism of hearing
13. In which layer of retina action potential generates? (1) The movements of hair cells bend basilar
(1) Ganglionic layer membrane, pressing it against the tectorial
(2) Bipolar neuron layer membrane
(2) The movements of basilar membrane bend the
(3) Cones & Rodes layer
tectorial membrane pressing it against hair cells
(4) All of above layers
(3) The movements of tectorial membrane bend the
14. The photosensitive compounds (Photopigments) in
hair cells pressing it against the basilar
the human eyes are composed of opsin (a protein)
membrane
and retinal this retinal is formed by :
(4) The movements of basilar membrane bend the
(1) an aldehyde of vitamin -A hair cells pressing them against the tectorial
(2) a keton of vitamin -A membrane
(3) an aldehyde of vitamin -D 20. The specific receptors of the vestibular apparatus
(4) a keton of vitamin -D responsible for maintenance of balance of body &
15. At the base of cochlea, the scala vestibuli ends at....., posture are
where as scala tympani terminates at the ....... which (A) Organ of corti (B) Crista
opens to the middle ear. (C) macula (D) Cochlea
(1) oval window, round window (1) A and D (2) B and C
(2) round window, oval window (3) A and C (4) C and D
21. In an accident, a person's brain was injured due to
(3) circular window, oval window
which body temperature, hunger and water balance
(4) round window, circular window
are not being regulated. Which one of the following
16. In mechanism of hearing impulses are trasnsmitted
parts of his brain is affected ?
by afferent fibres via auditory nerves to the auditory
(1) Medulla oblongata (2) Cerebellum
cortex of the brain which cells remain inthe close
(3) Hypothalamus (4) Corpora quadrigemina
contact with the afferent nerves fibres.
22. Which one of the following statements are correct?
(1) Basal end of hair cell.
(i) Impulse transmission through electrical synapse
(2) Apical part of each hair cell.
is slow than a chemical synapse
(3) Any part of hair cells.
(ii) Unmyelinated nerve fibres are commonly found
(4) Stereo cilia of hair cells.
in ANS and somatic neural systems.
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17. Which one is incorrect statement regarding ear :

(iii) Multipolar neurons are specially found in cerebral
(1) Each semicircular canal lies in a different plane
cortex, whereas pseudounipolar neurons are
at right angles to each other.
found in dorsal root ganglia.
(2) The membranous semicircular canals are
(iv) Neural organisation is very simple in human
suspended in endolymph of bony canals
beings.
(3) Saccule & utricle contains a projecting ridge
called macula (1) (i) and (ii)
(4) Crista & macula are the specific receptors of the (2) (ii) and (iv)
vestibular apparatus responsible for balance & (3) (i) and (iii)
posture. (4) (ii) and (iii)
74 E
 NCERT-Biology
23. Neuron is specific for following characters like 27. Transmission of nerve impulse is unidirectional due
(1) Modification, destruction and transmission of to –
stimuli (1) Insulation of nerve fibre by medullary sheath
(2) Detection, receiving and transmission of stimuli (2) Neurotransmitter releases only at axon ending.
(3) Formation, destruction and transmission of stimuli (3) Neurotransmitter releases only at dendrite ends
(4) Sodium pump starts from cyton and proceeds
(4) Modification, receiving and destruction of stimuli
upto axon ends.
24. Select the part of nervous system which transmit
28. Which one of the following groups of
impulses from cerebrum to gastronemous muscle
neurotransmitter is inhibitory in nature ?
of body –
(1) Histamine, Ach, serotonin
(1) Sympathatic neural system
(2) Serotonin, Glutamate, Nitric oxide
(2) Parasympathatic neural system
(3) Somatic nervous system (3) Serotonin, GABA, Dopamine

(4) Basal cortex of brain (4) GABA, Glutamate, Glycine

25. Which statement is true for nerve conduction? 29. These are few steps of synaptic transmission.
(1) During resting stage axonal membrane is less Arrange them in order of synaptic transmission.
permeable for K+ and more permeable for Na+. (a) Action of cholinestrase on acetyl choline
(2) Concentration gradient generated when active
decomposes it into choline & acetate.
transportation of ions occurs by Na–k pump.
(3) During transmission of impulse Na + out flux (b) Development of AP causes entry of Ca+2 into
continuously. axon telodendria.
(4) Rise in stimulus induces permeability to Na+ is (c) Development of EPSP causes opening of Na+
long lived. channels
26. Cerebrum has more number of neurons on its (d) Release of Ach into synaptic cleft after bursting
surface due to its – of vesicles.
(1) d c b a (2) b d c a
(1) Narrow surface with more gyri &
sulci (3) b d a c (4) d a b c
30. Cerebral cortex is referred to as grey matter due
(2) Convoluted surface with less gyri &
to –
sulci
(1) Fibers of tract covered by myelin sheath
(3) There are only pseudo unipolar neurons present (2) Presence of neuron cell bodies collection
with gyri & sulci (3) Due to presence of association area
(4) None of these (4) Due to (a) and (b) both
NODE2\E:\DATA\2014\NCERT_OBJECTIVE_BIO\ENGLISH.P65

ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 1 3 3 3 1 4 1 4 2 4 2 1 1 1 1 2 2 4 2
Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 4 2 3 2 1 2 3 2 2

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NCERT-Biology

CHEMICAL COORDINATION & INTEGRATION

1. Gland which is major regulator of metabolism and 8. Which of the following is not related with pineal gland?
development process is :- (1) Defense capability
(1) Pituitary gland (2) RBC formation
(2) Thyroid gland (3) Menstrual cycle regulation
(3) Pineal gland (4) Pigmentation
(4) Adrenal gland 9. Which of the following is true for thyroid gland ?
2. Position of thyroid gland is :- (1) Thyroid lobes are connected through
glandular isthmus
(1) At upper side of Larynx
(2) Extracellular hormone storage is unique to
(2) On eitherside of trachea thyroid
(3) At junction of trachea & Larynx (3) Thyroxine derived from arginine amino acid
(4) (2) & (3) both (4) 'C' cells are major constituent of thyroid gland
increase Ca+2 in ECF.
3. Storage of iodothyronine occurs into :-
10. Thyroid gland secretes hormone mostly in the form of
(1) Connective tissue band of thyroid gland
:-
(2) Inside the thyroid follicular cell
(1) TSH (2) Tri-iodothyronine
(3) In blood stream
(3) Tetra iodothyronine (4) Calcitonin
(4) Extra cellular space of thyroid gland
11. Gland which helps in development of immune system
4. Gland which is neuroectodermal in origin ? of body :-
(1) Thymus gland (1) Adrenal gland (2) Thyroid gland
(2) Thyroid gland (3) Thymus gland (4) Pituitary gland
(3) Adrenal cortex 12. Which of the following hormone stimulates breakdown
(4) Posterior pituitary of glycogen and increases blood glucose concentration
?
5. Find out the correct match :-
(1) Hormone of -cell of pancreas
(1) Insulin – Hyperglycemic effect
(2) Hormone of adrenal medulla
(2) STH – Hypoglycemic effect
(3) Hormone of parathyroid
(3) Epinephrine – Hyperglycemic effect
(4) Hormones of pineal gland
(4) Thyroxine – Decrease amino acid up
13. Find out the incorrect match :-
take
(a) PTH – Decreases Ca+2 absorption from intestine
6. Cancer of pituitary gland generally causes which of the
following :- (b) Adrenaline – Piloerection
(c) Glucocorticoids – Iummune system supression
(1) Vision problems
(d) Melatonin - T-cell differentiation
(2) Hearing problems
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options :-
(3) decreaes insulin secretion
(4) More PRL secretion (1) (a), (b) (2) (b), (c)

7. Which of the following hormone functions through (3) (a), (c) (4) (a), (d)
generating second messengers? 14. Which one regulates growth of mammary glands?
(1) Iodothyroglobulin (a) PRL (b) Estrogen
(2) Estrogen (c) Progesteron (d) Adrenalin

(3) Adrenaline options :-

(4) Estradiole (1) a, b,d (2) a, b, c

(3) a, c, d (4) b, c, d
76 E
 NCERT-Biology
15. Diurnal rhythms of human body are related with 21. Hormone is :-
(1) Adrenaline (2) Cortisol (1) Non nutrient chemical
(3) Melatonine (4) Thymosin (2) Intercellular messengers
16. Which one is actually synthesized in hypothalamus ? (3) Produced in traces
(1) Cortisol (2) Oxytocin (4) All of these
(3) ACTH (4) STH
22. Which one is not an organised endocrine gland of human
17. Find out the correct match :- body ?
(1) Oxytocin – Milk synthesis (1) Pancrease (2) Pituitary gland
(2) FSH – maintains corpus luteum
(3) Adrenal gland (4) Kidney
(3) Thyroxine – Requires I2 and Tryptophan
23. Vigorous contraction of uterus at time of delivery is
(4) Vasopressin – Transport through neural axon regulated by activity of :-
18. Which one supports red blood cell formation?
(1) Adrenal cortex hormone
(a) Thyroxine (b) Cortisol
(2) Anterior pituitary hormone
(c) PTH (d) ACTH
(1) (c), (d) (2) (b), (d) (3) Posterior pituitary hormone
(3) (a), (b) (4) (b), (c) (4) -cell of pancrease
19. Hormones of fight and flight are :- 24. Which one is secreted from hypothalamic neurons and
(1) Cortisol and Adrenaline inhibits mitotic divisions of bones?
(2) Only adrenaline (1) Growth hormone (2) Thyroxine
(3) Adrenaline and noradrenaline (3) Cortisol (4) Somatostatin
(4) Insulin and glucagon 25. Hypothalamic portal system regulates activity of :-
20. Which of the following hormones supports (1) Medulla of adrenal gland
pregnancy ? (2) Pancreatic acini
(1) Testosterone (2) Progesterone (3) Adenohypophysis
(3) Estrogen (4) LH (4) Melatonine secreting cells
NODE2\E:\DATA\2014\NCERT_OBJECTIVE_BIO\ENGLISH.P65

ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 4 4 4 3 1 3 2 2 3 3 2 4 2 3 2 4 3 3 2
Que . 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. 4 4 3 4 3

E 77
NCERT-Biology

REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS
1. Find out incorrect statement :
6. Some plants where flowering occurs more than
(1) Period from birth to natural death called life span once, the interflowering period is know as :
(1) Juvenile phase (2) Vegetative phase
(2) Life span of organisms are necessorily correlated
(3) Mature phase (4) Senescent phase
with their size
7. What is the duration of Juvenile phase in Bamboo
(3) Except single celled organisms, all others are and interflowering period of Strobilanthus kunthiana
mortal respectively :
(4) Reproduction enables the continuity of species, (1) 50-100 years and 21 years
generation after generation (2) 50-100 years and 12 years
(3) 25-300 years and 12 years
2. Match the following (w.r.t. life span) :
(4) 25-30 years and 21 years
A. Dog (I) 200-300 years
8. Interaction of which of the following factors regulate
B. Butter fly (II) 20 years
the reproductive processes and the associated
C. Rice plant (III) 1-2 week behavioral expression of organisms :
D . Banyan Tree (IV) 3-4 month (1) Only hormones
(1) A(II), B(III), C(IV), D(I) (2) Only environmental factors
(2) A(III), B(II), C(IV), D(I) (3) Both a and b
(3) A(II), B(III), C(I), D(IV) (4) Photosynthetic efficiency
(4) A(III), B(IV), C(II), D(I) 9. In plants transitions between Juvenile, Mature and
3. Regarding to reproduction which of the following Senescent phase is carried out by :
statement is correct : (1) Light (2) Minerals
(1) Asexual reproduction is common among (3) Plant hormones (4) Temperature
multicellular plants and animals 10. Which of the following is not a distinct stage of sexual
(2) In monerans cell division it self is a mode of reproduction :
reproduction (1) Pre gametogenesis stage
(3) In yeast cell division is of equal type to produce (2) Pre fertilisation stage
buds (3) Fertilisation stage
(4) In fungus fission is most common method of (4) Post fertilisation stage
asexual reproduction 11. Match the following regarding to number of
4. "Water hyacinth" or Eichorina is one of the important chromosomes in meiocyte :
problematic weed of static water in India. Which of (A) Ophioglossum (i) 20
the following statement is incorrect about it :
(B) Apple (ii) 2 4
(1) It is also known as "Terror of Bengal"
(C) Rice (iii) 3 4
(2) It is native plant of India (D) Maize (iv) 1260
NODE2\E:\DATA\2014\NCERT_OBJECTIVE_BIO\ENGLISH.P65

(3) It increases biological oxygen demand of (1) A(iv), B(iii), C(i), D(ii) (2) A(iv), B(i), C(ii), D(iii)
waterbody
(3) A(iv), B(ii), C(iii), D(i) (4) A(iv), B(iii), C(ii), D(i)
(4) It spread rapidaly through vegetative
12. In algae syngamy takes place where :
reproduction
(1) In archegonium (2) In water
5. Stage of growth and maturity in life of organisms
(3) In Ovary (4) In the soil
before they can reproduce sexually is known as :
13. From internal fertilization point of view, which of the
(1) Juvenile phase
following plant group is the odd one :
(2) Interflowering period
(1) Algae (2) Bryophytes
(3) Resting phase
(3) Pteridophytes (4) Gymnosperms
(4) Dormant phase
78 E
 NCERT-Biology
14. Although in internal fertilization showing plants male 18. During embryogenesis zygote go through which of
gametes are motile, yet which of the following group the following process/processes :
donot possess non motile male gametes : (1) Cell division (2) Cell differentiation
(1) Marchantia (2) Pteridium (3) both a and b
(3) Ginkgo (4) Pisum
(4) Either cell division or cell differentiation
15. In Haplo-diplontic life cycle showing plants first
19. Which of the following organism is isogamous :
division of zygote is :
(1) Riccia (2) Selaginella
(1) Mitosis (2) Meiosis
(3) Chlamydomonas (4) Cycas
(3) Amitosis (4) Free nuclear division
20. Find out the incorrect statement :
16. Which of the following structure is the vital link that
(1) Cucurbits are monoecious plants
ensures continuity of species between organisms of
one generation and the next : (2) Papaya is a dioecious plant
(1) Gamete (2) Zygote (3) Meiocytes are haploid
(3) Embryo (4) Sex organs (4) Non motile male gametes are transfer through
17. First cell of sporophytic generation is : pollentube
(1) Gamete (2) Spore 21. Which of the following is a dioecious plant :
(3) Zygote (4) Embryo (1) Papaya (2) Cucumber
(3) Maize (4) Mango
22. Cultivation of floral plants is known as
(1) Horticulture (2) Floriculture
(3) Sericulture (4) Vermiculture
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ANSWERS KEY
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 2 2 2 1 3 2 3 3 1 4 2 1 4 1 2 3 3 3 3
Que. 21 22
Ans. 1 2

E 79
NCERT-Biology

SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWRING PLANTS

1. What would be the ploidy of cells of tetrad ? 11. Endosperm development precedes embryo
(1) n (2) 2n (3) 3n (4) 4n development, because
(1) Embryo provides nutrition to developing
2. Which of the following statements are correct ?
endosperm
(1) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients. (2) Endosperm provides nutrition to developing
(2) In some cereals like rice and wheat pollen grain embryo
lose viability within 30 minutes of their release (3) Endosperm development starts after embryo
development
(3) In some members of rosaceae, leguminosae and
(4) All of the above
solanaceae, pollen grains maintain viability for
12. The portion of embryonal axis above the level of
months
cotyledons is called
(4) All of the above (1) Hypocotyl (2) Epicotyl
3. The number of ovules in an ovary is (3) Tigellum (4) Scutellum
13. The portion of embryonal axis below the level of
(1) One (2) Many
cotyledons is called
(3) Two (4) May be one to many (1) Hypocotyl (2) Epicotyl
4. Each ovule has one or two protective envelopes (3) Tigellum (4) Scutellum
called 14. Genetically geitonogamy is
(1) Micropyle (2) Integuments (1) Allogamy (2) Xenogamy
(3) Hilum (4) Chalaza (3) Autogamy (4) None of the above
5. Chalaza representing the 15. Endosperm is completely consumed by developing
(1) Tip of the ovule (2) Base of the ovule embryo in
(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Stalk of the ovule (1) Castor (2) Coconut

6. Ovules generally differentiate a single megaspore (3) Wheat (4) Pea

mother cell in the 16. Endosperm may persist in mature seed in

(1) Micropylar region (2) Chalazal region (1) Pea (2) Castor

(3) Both 1 & 2 (4) Integument region (3) Groundnut (4) Beans
7. Polar nuclei are situated in the central cell 17. How many embryosac are present in an ovule?
(1) Below the egg apparatus (1) 1 (2) 2
(2) Above the egg apparatus (3) 3 (4) Many
(3) Below the antipodals 18. What would be the genetic nature of apomictic
(4) All of the above embryo?
(1) n
8. In embryosac, three cells are grouped together at
(2) 3n
the micropylar end to constitute
(3) 2n
(1) Antipodals (2) Synergids (4) n or 2n like mother plants
(3) Egg apparatus (4) Polar nuclei 19. What will be the ploidy of the cells of functional
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9. The synergids have special cellular thickening at the megaspore and female gametophyte respectively:
micropylar tip, called (1) n, n (2) 2n, 2n
(1) Antipodals (2) Filiform apparatus (3) n, 2n (4) 2n, n
(3) Obturators (4) Vascular tissue
20. In Castor plant :
10. An example of insect pollinated flower, in which (1) Autogamy is possible
flower provides safe place to lay eggs for insect is
(2) Geitonogamy is possible
(1) Vallisneria (2) Salvia
(3) Both are possible
(3) Amorphophallus (4) Aristolochia
(4) Both are not possible

80 E
 NCERT-Biology
21. Each lobe of a typical anther in angiosperm having 31. From outer to inner what is the sequence of wall
two theca it is called : layers?
(1) Monothecous (2) Dithecous (1) Epidermis, middle layers, tapetum endothecium
(3) Monosporangiate (4) Bisporangiate (2) Epidermis, endothecium, tapetum middle layers
(3) Epidermis, Endothecium, middle layer, tapetum
22. Which of the following part of the flower serves as
(4) Tapetum, middle layer, endothecium, epidermis
a landing platform for pollen grain ?
32. Due to which of the following chemical deposition
(1) Stigma (2) Ovary pollen grains are well preserved as fossils
(3) Style (4) Ovule (1) Pollenkitt (2) Callose
23. Enclosed within the integuments is a mass of cells (3) Sporopollenin (4) Pectocellulose
called
33. Which of the following pollen structure exhibits a
(1) Micropyle (2) Nuclellus fascinating array of patterns and designs
(3) Chalaza (4) Embryosac (Sclupturing pattern)?
24. Example of plants, which contain cleistogamous
(1) Germpores (2) Exine
flower :
(3) Intine (4) Tapetum
(1) Oxalis
(2) Commelina 34. Regarding to formation of pollen grain from
microspore which of the following statement is
(3) Viola (Common pansy)
incorrect
(4) All of the above
(1) Generative cell is bigger
25. Cleistogamous flowers are invariably :
(1) Autogamous (2) Xenogamous (2) Vegetative cell possess irregularly shaped nucleus
(3) Geitonogamous (4) All are possible (3) Generative cell floats in cytoplasm of vegetative
26. Wind pollinated flowers often have.....ovule in each cell
ovary. (4) Vacuole present in vegetative cell
35. Which of the following is not a pollen grain caused
(1) Many (2) Two (3) One (4) Three
disease?
27. Pollen tube enters into the embryosac through :
(1) Asthma (2) Bronchitis
(1) Chalaza (2) Integument
(3) Hayfever (4) Myasthenia gravis
(3) Filiform apparatus (4) Funiculus
36. Which of the following is not a function of pollen
28. Syngamy results in the formation of : grains?
(1) Zygote (1) Sexual reproduction
(2) Primary endosperm nucleus (2) Food supplement
(3) Endosperm (3) Increase in performance of athletes and race
(4) Fruit horses
29. Embryo develops at the end of embryosac (4) Nourishment of anther
(1) Micropylar end 37. Regarding to number of ovules in ovary select out
(2) Chalazal end the odd one
(3) Funiculus (1) Wheat (2) Orchids
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(4) Outside the ovary (3) Paddy (4) Mango

30. The microsporangia develop further and become 38. Nucellus, the mass of cells enclosed within the
pollen sac. In anther these pollen sacs extends integuments, provide nutrition to
(1) Transverslly (1) Embryosac (2) Embryo
(3) Seed (4) Ovule
(2) Longitudinally
39. Development of embryo sac (female gametophyte)
(3) Obliquely
generally depends on how many megaspores
(4) Sometimes transversaly and some times (1) One (2) Two
longitudinally
(3) Three (4) Four

E 81
NCERT-Biology
40. During embryo sac formation how many nuclei 47. The genetic mechanism which inhibit pollen
out of eight nucleus go through cytokinesis or wall germination or pollentube growth in pistil so that
formation? self pollination can be prevent is known as
(1) All eight (2) Two
(1) Inbreeding depression
(3) Six (4) Four
41. Geitonogamy is the transfer of pollen grains from (2) Self incompatibility
anther to stigma of another flower of the same plant (3) Inter specific incompatibility
is :-
(4) Heterosis
(1) Functionally cross pollination
(2) Genetically self pollination 48. In which of the following plants both autogamy and
geitonogamy is absent
(3) Ecologically cross pollination
(4) All the above (1) Maize (2) Mango

42. Regarding to cross pollination which of the (3) Papaya (4) Castor
following statement is incorrect? 49. Emasculated flowers have to be covered with a bag
(1) Plants use two abiotic and one biotic agent to prevent contamination of its stigma with unwanted
(2) Majority of plants use abiotic agents for pollen grains. These bags are made up of
pollination (1) Polyethylene (2) Polyblend
(3) Production of enormous amount of pollen grains (3) Butter paper (4) Tissue paper
is concerned to compensate uncertainity and loss
of pollens 50. Which of the following is not involved in post
fertilisation events
(4) Pollination by wind is more common among
abiotic pollinations (1) Endosperm and embryo development
43. About wind pollination which of the following is (2) Maturation of ovules into seed
incorrect?
(3) Maturation of ovary into fruit
(1) Light and non sticky pollengrains
(2) Well exposed stamens (4) Degeneration of nucellus
(3) Feathery stigma 51. The structure in which few leaf primordia and
(4) Solitary inflorescence shoot apex of monocot embryo remain enclosed
44. Which of the following is probable reason of is
limited distribution of Bryophytes and (1) Coleoptile (2) Coleorhiza
Pteridophytes?
(3) Epiblast (4) Epicotyl
(1) Jacketed multicellular sex organs
52. In mature seed how much amount of moisture is
(2) Absence of roots
present
(3) Absence of seeds
(1) 5-10 percent
(4) Need of water for transfer of male gametes
(2) 10-15 percent
45. Regarding to aquatic plants pollination which of
(3) 15-20 percent
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the following is odd one

(1) Vallisneria (2) Hydrilla (4) 20-25 percent
(3) Water lily (4) Zostera 53. Which of the following is not an advantage of
46. In which of the following plants flowers rewards seed offered to angiosperms
safe places to lay eggs? (1) In has better adaptive strategies for dispersal
(1) Yucca pronuba (2) Nourishment of young seedlings
(2) Amorphophallus (3) Determine self incompatibility reactions
(3) Aristolochia (4) Protection of young embryo

(4) Both 1 and 2

82 E
 NCERT-Biology
54. Seed is the basis of our agriculture. Which of the 55. Which of the following is an example of oldest
following is/are crucial for storage of seeds, so yet viable seed excavated from arctic tundra
that they can be used as food through out the (1) Phoenix dactylifera
year and also to raise crop in the next season
(2) Lupinus arcticus
(1) Dehydration (2) Dormancy
(3) Lupinus dectylifera
(3) Cryopreservation (4) Both 1 and 2
(4) Cocus nucifera
NODE2\E:\DATA\2014\NCERT_OBJECTIVE_BIO\ENGLISH.P65

ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 4 4 2 2 2 2 3 2 3 2 2 1 3 4 2 1 4 1 2
Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 1 2 4 1 3 3 1 1 2 3 3 2 3 4 4 2 1 1 3
Que . 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55
Ans. 4 1 4 4 3 4 2 3 3 4 1 2 3 4 2

E 83
NCERT-Biology

HUMAN REPRODUCTION & REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

1. The head of sperm contains the nucleus having a 8. During the first trimester of pregnancy the basic
haploid set of chromosomes in a : structures are formed. During this period, the
(1) Compact and inactive state developing stage is called as :
(2) Compact and active state (1) Infant (2) Foetus
(3) Rare and inactive state (3) Child (4) Embryo
(4) Rare and active state
9. Which is not correct about amnion ?
2. Placenta acts as a/an :
(1) It acts as a shock absorber
(1) Ultrafilter (2) Endocrine gland
(2) It provides a fluid medium to the developing
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of above
3. In humans which of the following undergoes embryo.
meiosis II ? (3) It takes part in the formation of human placenta
(1) First polar body (2) Spermatogonia (4) None of the above
(3) Secondary oocyte (4) Both (1) and (3) 10. Zona pellucida is synthesised by :
4. Which of the following statement is not correct ? (1) Follicle cells
(1) Cleavage divisions are rapid (2) Oocyte
(2) Cleavage divisions are asynchronous
(3) Both follicle cells and Oocyte
(3) Cleavage divisions are repeated mitotic divisions.
(4) Granulosa cells
(4) Approximately one month after fertilisation, the
blastocyst embedded itself in the thickened wall of 11. Which of the following order is correct for given
the uterus. processes?
5. The basis of the sertoli cells adhere to the basal (a) Cortical reaction
lamina and their apical ends frequently expand into (b) Activation of egg
the ........... of the seminiferous tubules. (c) Depolarisation of egg membrane
(1) Surface (2) Lumen (d) Zona reaction
(3) Outer membrane (4) Inner layer
(1) a b c d (2) b a c d
6. Intra testicular genital duct system includes :
(3) b c a d (4) c b a d
(1) Tubuli recti, rete testis and ductuli efferentes
(2) Tubuli recti, vas deferens and ejaculatory duct 12. Corpus luteum is formed by :
(3) Urethra, epididymis and Tubuli recti (1) Granulosa cells
(4) Seminal vesicle, ejaculatory duct and ampulla (2) Interstitial cells
7. Hypothalamus (3) Follicle cells + Granulosa cells
GnRH (4) Granulosa cells + Theca cells
Positive Anterior pituitary Negative
13. Which of the following set is correct ?
feedback feedback
LH/FSH
(1) Granulosa cells - Estrogen
A (2) Corpus luteum - Progesterone & Estrogen
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(3) Placenta - HCG hormone

Estrogen
& (4) All of the above
Progesterone 14. Which pair is correct ?
(1) Progesterone Steroid
B
Estrogen Protein
Find out 'A' and 'B' respectively :
(2) Progesterone & Estrogen Protein
(1) Uterus, Ovary
(2) Ovary, Uterus (3) Progesterone & Estrogen Steroid
(3) Oviduct, Ovary (4) Progesterone Protein
(4) Seminal vesicle, Uterus Estrogen Steroid
84 E
 NCERT-Biology
15. Which of the following method of contraception is 19. Which of the following can be used as an emergency
effective only upto a maximum period of six months contraceptives to avoid possible pregnancy :
following parturition ? (1) Progestogens (2) IUD within 72 hours
(1) Cortus interruptus (3) Diaphrams (4) 1 and 2
(2) Lactational amenorrhea 20. Which of the following method of contraception is
(3) Periodic abstinance highly effective but having poor reversibility :
(4) Condoms (1) Sterilisation (2) Oral pills
16. Which of the following are included in barrier (3) IUD (4) Barrier methods
method ? 21. Which of the following statements is correct :
(1) Condoms (1) MTP has a significant role in decreasing the
(2) Diaphrams population.
(3) Cervical caps and vault (2) Goverment of India legalised MTP in 1971 with
(4) All of the above some strict conditions.
17. Which of the following statements is correct ? (3) MTP is relatively safe during the first trimester.
(1) Hormone releasing I.U.D. make uterus unsuitable (4) All the above
for implantation 22. Couple unable to produce children inspite of
(2) IUD are ideal contraceptives for the female who unprotected sexual co-habitation is termed as :
want to delay pregnancy (1) Impotency (2) Infertility
(3) IUD is most widely accepted method of (3) STD (4) PID
contraception in India. 23. Infertility cases due to inability of male partner to
(4) All the above inseminate the female corrected by :
18. Which of the following statements is correct for (1) ZIFT (2) GIFT
Saheli ? (3) Artificial insemination (4) ICSI
(1) It is weekly pill. 24. In which of the following methods zygotes or early
(2) It has high contraceptive value embryo upto 8 blastomeres could be transferred into
(3) It has nonsteroidal preparation the fallopian tube ?
(4) All the above (1) GIFT (2) IUT
(3) ZIFT (4) ICSI
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ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 1 3 3 4 2 1 2 4 3 2 3 4 4 3 2 4 4 4 4 1
Que . 21 22 23 24
Ans. 4 2 3 3

E 85
NCERT-Biology

GENETICS
1. Variations are : 8. Recessive traits are seen due to :
(1) Degree by which progeny differs from their (1) Formation of non functional enzyme
parents
(2) Enzyme is not produced
(2) Degree by which progeny similar to their
(3) 1 and 2 both
parents
(3) Process by which characters are passed on from (4) Formation of functional enzyme
parent to progeny 9. Multiple alleles can be found only when :
(4) True breeding lines (1) Population studies are made
2. Mendel found that the F 1 always resembled either (2) Individual study is made
one of the parents and that the trait of the other
(3) Mutation is absent
parent was not seen in them. This is due to :
(4) Dominance is present
(1) Segregation (2) Dominance
10. Which of the following is correct ?
(3) Partial dominance (4) Unit factor
3. In monohybrid cross the allele do not show any (1) When genes are grouped on the same
blending and that both the characters are recovered chromosome, some genes are very tightly
as such in F 2 generation. This statement is linked and showed very low recombination
explained on the basis of : (2) When genes are loosely linked show very low
(1) Dominance recombination
(2) Segregation (3) When genes are tightly linked show higher
(3) Independent assortmant recombination
(4) All the above (4) When genes are loosely linked show no
4. In monohybrid cross proportion of 3 : 1 explains: recombination
(1) Dominance (2) Segregation 11. In Morgan's experiment, what will be percentage
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Unit factor of recombination in case of body colour and eye
colour in Drosophila ?
5. It was found that sometimes the F 1 - had a
(1) 37.2% (2) 1.3% (3) 98.7% (4) 37.2%
phenotype that did not resemble either of the two
12. In a large number of insects the mechanism of sex
parents and was in between the two. This is the case
determination is of :
of :
(1) XO type (2) XY type
(1) Dominance (2) Incomplete dominance
(3) ZW type (4) All the above
(3) Codominance (4) Pleiotropism
13. Male heterogamety found in :
6. Theoratically, the modified allele could be
responsible for the production of : (1) Human (2) Grasshopper

(1) less efficient enzyme (3) Many birds (4) 1 and 2 both

(2) A non functional enzyme 14. Which symbol of pedigree is correctly matched ?
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(3) Non enzyme at all

(1) – Female
(4) All the above
7. The modified allele is equivalent to the unmodified
(2) 5 – affected offspring
allele when it produces :
(1) Normal enzyme (3) – Affected male of autosomal recessive
(2) A non functional enzyme
disease
(3) No enzyme at all
(4) – Marriage between relatives
(4) Inactive enzyme

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15. Given pedigree represents inheritance of myotonic 19. In case of codominance :
dystrophy which is an autosomal dominant disorder. (1) F 1 - generation resembles both parents
What will be genotype of parents ?
(2) F 1 - generation is in between both parents
(3) F 1 - generation resembles either of the two
parents
(4) All the above
20. Which of the following is not the feature of human
genome ?
(1) Less than 2 percent of the genome code for
protein
(2) Chromosome 1 has fewest gene (231)
(3) Repetitive sequences make up very large portion
of human genome
(1) Mother - aa Father - AA
(4) The functions are unknown for over 50% of the
(2) Mother - AA Father - aa discovered genes
(3) Mother - Aa Father - aa 21. The sequence of which chromosome number was
(4) Mother - aa Father - aa completed in May 2006 ?

16. Given pedigree chart shows inheritance of (1) Chromosome number 1

autosomal recessive trait (for eg - sickle cell (2) Chromosome number 2
anaemia) then what will be genotype of parent ? (3) Chromosome number 5
(4) Chromosome number 10
22. The repressor of the operon is synthesized :
(1) All the time (2) Certain time
(3) Non constitutively (4) None of these
23. Mendelian disorder are mainly determined by :
(1) Alternation or mutation in single gene
(2) Absence of one chromosome
(3) Excess of one of more chromosome
(1) Father - (Aa) Mother - (aa) (4) All the above
(2) Father - (aa) Mother - (aa) 24. Which of the following characters of Drosophila is
(3) Father - (Aa) Mother - (Aa) not suitable for genetical studies ?
(4) Father - (AA) Mother - (AA) (a) They could be grown on simple synthetic medium
in laboratory
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17. A diploid organism is heterozygous for 4 loci, how

(b) They complete their life cycle in about 2-weeks
many types of gametes can be produced?
(1) 8 (2) 16 (3) 2 (4) 32 (c) Single mating produces few number of progeny
flies.
18. When a cross is made between tall plant with yellow
seed (TtYy) and tall plant with green seed (Ttyy), (d) They have many types of heredilaty variations
what proportion of phenotype in the offspring could that can be seen with low power microscope.
be expected to be tall and green. (e) Male & Female flies are not easily distinguishable
(1) 25% (2) 12.5% (1) a, b, c (2) a, b, c, d, e
(3) 37.5% (4) 50% (3) d and e (4) c and e

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NCERT-Biology
25. Incomplete dominance can be seen in : 32. DNA as an acidic substance present in nucleus was
first identified by
(1) Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa
(1) Wilkins and Franklin
(2) Flower colour in Pisum sativum (2) Watson and Crick
(3) Size of starch grains in pea (3) Friedich meischer
(4) Altmann
(4) 1 and 3 both
33. Double helix model of DNA proposed by watson and
26. Match the following crick was based on
(1) X-ray diffraction data of Meischer
(A) x 174 (i) 48502 bp
(2) X-ray crystallography data of Wilkins and
(B) Lambda phage (ii) 5386 Nucleotides Franklin
(3) X-ray diffraction data of Watson and Crick
(C) E.Coli (iii) 6.6 x 109 bp (4) X-ray diffraction data of Chargaff
(D) Human somatic cell (iv) 4.6 x 106 bp 34. Regarding to features of double helix struture of DNA
which of the following is wrong
(1) A(i), B(ii), C(iv), D(iii)
(1) Two polynucleotide chains have antiparallel
(2) A(ii), B(i), C(iv), D(iii) polarity
(3) A(i), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv) (2) The bases in two strands are paired through
phosphodiester bonds
(4) A(iv), B(iii), C(ii), D(i) (3) Adenine form two hydrogen bonds with thymine
27. Which of the following pyrimidine base is common in (4) The pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm
both DNA and RNA 35. In addition to hydrogen bonding which of the following
feature confers stability to helical structure
(1) Adenine (2) Guanine
(1) Phosphodiester bond
(3) Cytosine (4) Thymine (2) Pairing between one purine and one pyrimidine
28. In nucleoside which of the following bond exists (3) Glycosidic linkage between sugar and
between sugar and nitrogenaous base nitrogenous base
(4) The plane of one base pair stacks over the other
(1) Phosphodiester bond 36. Which of the following is responsible for constant
(2) Hydrogen bond distance between two polynuclestide chains in DNA
(1) Antiparallel polarity of two polynucleotide strands
(3) Phosphoester bond
(2) Hydrogen bonding
(4) N-glycosidic bond (3) Pairing between one purine and one pyrimidine
(4) All the above
29. By which of the following bond phosphoric acid
remain linked with 5' carbon of sugar in one nucleotide 37. Phosphoric acid remain associated with which of the
(1) Phosphoester bond following carbon of sugar in a nucleotide :-

(2) Phosphodiester bond (1) Ist (2) 3rd

(3) N-Glycosidic bodn (3) 4th (4) 5th
(4) Hydrogen bond 38. In there are 3.3 x 109 bp present in genome, then
30. The backbone in a polynucleotide chain is formed what would be the length of the DNA of any
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due to somatic cell

(1) Sugars and nitrogenous bases
(1) 1.1 meter (2) 2.2 meter
(2) Phosphates and nitrogenous base
(3) Nitrogenous bases and histones (3) 3.3 meter (4) 6.6 meter
(4) Sugar and phosphates 39. Positive charge and basic nature of histone is due
31. In RNA, every nucleotide residue has an additional to abundance of
– OH group at which of the following position (1) Lysines and tryptophanes
(1) 2' position of deoxyribose (2) Arginines & threonines
(2) 1' possition of ribose sugar
(3) Lysines and arginines
(3) 3' position of ribose sugar
(4) 2' position of ribose sugar (4) Tryptophanes and threonines

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 NCERT-Biology
40. Negative charge of DNA is due to which of the 48. Which of the folloiwng feature of RNA make it
following constituent labile and easily degradable

(1) Sugar (2) Nitrogenous base (1) Single stranded nature

(2) 2'–OH group on sugar
(3) Phosphoric acid
(3) Phosphodiester bond
(4) Hydroxyl group (–OH) present on sugar (4) Absence of Hydrogen bond
41. A typical nucleosome contains how much amount 49. Regarding to RNA which of the following feature is
of DNA wrong
(1) 100 bp (2) 146 bp (1) Catalytic property
(3) 200 bp (4) 346 bp (2) Labile and easily degradable
42. In a mammalian somatic cell how many (3) Absence of thymine
nucleosomes are present (4) Presence of methylated uracil
(1) 6.6 x 109 (2) 3.3 x 109 50. Which fo the folloiwng reason is suitable to expalin
(3) 3.3 x 107 (4) 3.3 x 105 that RNA is best for expression of characters
(1) It shows catalytic properties
43. Which of the following is actual sequence of
(2) Presence of 2'–OH group on ribose sugar
packaging of DNA in eukaryotic cells
(3) It can directly code for the synthesis of protein
(1) DNA Chromatin Nucleosome
(4) Presence of uracil
Chromosome
51. Which of the following is responsible for short life
(2) DNA Nucleosome Chromosome
span and fast rate of mutation and evolution
Chromatin
(1) Presence of DNA
(3) DNA Nucleosome Chromatin
(2) Presence of highly reactive RNA
Chromosome
(3) Double stranded genetic material
(4) DNA Chromosome Chromatin
(4) Single stranded genetic material
Nucleosome
52. Which of the following evidence suggests that
44. The packaging of chromatin at higher level
essential life processes evolved around RNA
requires additional set of proteins that is known as
(1) RNA used to act as genetic material
(1) Histone proteins
(2) RNA can act as catalyst
(2) NHC proteins
(3) RNA is highly reactive
(3) Homeotic proteins
(4) Domain proteins (4) Both 1 and 2

45. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic 53. Regarding to Meselson and Stahl experiment for
material came from the experiments of semi conservative nature of DNA replication select
out the wrong statement
(1) Griffith
(1) 15N of 15NH4Cl was incorporated in DNA and
(2) Avery, Macleod & Mccarty
other compounds
(3) Hershey and Chase
(2) 15N & 14N can be differentiate on the basis of
(4) Watson and Crick
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radioactive activity
46. Radioactive (35S) was detected in
(1) Supernatant (2) Sediment (3) Heavy and normal DNA molecules could be
distinguished by CsCl density gradient centrifugation
(3) Both (4) Either 1 or 2
(4) 15 N used in 15 NH
47. Which of the folloiwng is not a criteria for 4 Cl was not a radioactive
isotope
determination of genetic material
(1) Ability of replication 54. If E.Coli is allow to grow for 80 minutes in 15NH4Cl
medium then what would be the proportion of hybrid
(2) Chemically and structurally stable
and light density DNA molecules
(3) It should be non mutable
(1) 1 : 7 (2) 7 : 1
(4) Ability to expres itself in from of Mendelian
(3) 14 : 2 (4) 1 : 4
characters
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NCERT-Biology
55. Semiconservative replication of DNA in chromosomes 5’
was proved by
3’
(1) Meselson & Stahl by using 15NH Cl
4 (3) 5’
(2) Taylor by using 15NH
4Cl 3’
(3) Meselson & Stahl by using tritiated thymidine 5’
(4) Taylor by using tritiated thymidine 3’
56. How much duration of time required for replication (4) 5’
of 4.6 x 10 6pb in E.coli 3’

(1) 83 minutes 61. During transcription only one of the strand of DNA
(2) 38 minutes get transcribed. Which of the following reason
explain it
(3) 2 minutes
(4) 3 hrs (1) Otherwise one segment of DNA would be coding
for two different proteins
57. What is the rate of polymerisation in E.coli
(2) Otherwise dsRNA comes in existance
(1) 20,000 bp per second
(2) 2000 nucleotides per second (3) Otherwise antisense RNA arise which donot
participate in Translation
(3) 2000 bp per minute
(4) 2000 bp per second (4) All the above

58. During replication large amount of energy get 62. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by
exhausted. The source of this energy is three regions in DNA. These regions are
(1) Promoter, regulator and structural gene
(1) Deoxy ribonucleotide triphosphophate
(2) Promoter, structural gene and terminator
(2) Deoxyribonucleoside monoplosphate
(3) Promoter, regulator and terminator
(3) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate
(4) Promoter, regulator and operator gene
(4) Both 1 and 2
63. In transcription unit promoter and terminator are
59. Regarding to direction of DNA replication select out determined on the basis of
the correct one (1) Coding strand
(1) 5' 3' Template – continuous synthesis (2) Template strand
(3) Noncoding strand
(2) 3' 5' Template – discontinuous synthesis
(4) Antisense strand
(3) 3' 5' Template – continuous synthesis
64. In eukaryotes as well as prokaryotes those DNA
(4) 5' 3' Template – synthesis leadingstrand sequences that appear in mature or processed
RNA are known as
60. Which of the following scheme of replication fork is
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(1) Introts (2) Exons

true
5’ (3) Recons (4) Mutons

3 65. Regarding to role of RNA in protein synthesis find

(1) 5 out the odd one
3’ (1) m-RNA - provides the template
5’ (2) t-RNA - brings aminoacids
3
(3) r-RNA - read genetic code
(2) 5’
3’ (4) sn-RNA splicing

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66. Which of the following exclusive property of 72. Which of the following r-RNA show structural as well
trancription found in RNA-polymerase as functional role in bacteria :-
(1) Initiation (2) Elongation (1) 16s rRNA (2) 23s rRNA
(3) Termination (4) Processing (3) 5s rRNA (4) 28s rRNA

67. What is the length and constituent base of tail in 73. A m-RNA also has some additional sequences that are
functional m-RNA not translated called UTR. The function of UTR is

(1) Poly U – 200-300 bp (1) Charging of t-RNA

(2) Poly A – 200-300 bp (2) Formation of peptide bond

(3) Poly C – 200-300 nucleotides (3) Helps in efficient translation

(4) Poly A – 200-300 nucleotides (4) Helps in translocation

7 4 . The t-RNA move away from ribosomes after
68. DNA dependent RNA polymerases mediated
translocation of ribosome in relation to m-RNA, is
synthesis of RNA over DNA called transcription.
known as
About it which of the following statement is wrong
(1) Acylated t-RNA
(1) In bacteria m-RNA doesnot required any
processing to become active (2) Peptidyle t-RNA

(2) In eukaryotes there is clearcut division of labour (3) Deacylated t-RNA

in RNA polymerases (4) Charged t-RNA
(3) Absence of introns in RNA of eukaryotes is 75. At which of the following levels, regulation of gene
reminiscent of antiquity expression in eukaryotes donot occur
(4) RNA polymerase - III is responsible for synthesis (1) Transcription level (2) Processing level
of sn-RNA (3) Transport of ribosomal subunits from nucleus to
69. Which of the following was not involved in deciphering cytoplasm level
of genetic code (4) Translation level
(1) Physicist george Gamow's permutation 76. In prokaryotes predominant site for control of gene
combination of 43 bases expression is the
(2) H.G. Khorana's based synthesis of RNA (1) Control of rate of processing of primary
molecules with defined combination of bases transcript
(3) Severo ochoa enzyme for polymerising DNA with (2) Control of rate of transcription initiation
defined sequences (3) Control of transport of m-RNA from nucleus to
(4) Marshall Nirenberg's cell free system for protein cytoplasm
synthesis (4) Control of Translation
70. Which of the following mutation forms the genetic 7 7 . HGP was closely associated with the rapid
basis of proof that codon is a triplet and it is read in development of a new area in biology called as
a continuous manner (1) Biofortification
(1) Chromosomal structural mutations
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(2) Bioinformatics
(2) Chromosomal numerical mutations (3) Biomining
(3) Substitutional mutation (4) Biotransformation
(4) Frame shift insertion or deletion mutation 78. Which of the following is not a goal of HGP

71. An adapter molecule that would on one hand read (1) Identify all the approximately 20,000–25,000
the code and on the other hand would bind to specific genes
amino acids is (2) Store this information in database
(1) m-RNA (2) r-RNA (3) Restrict the related technologies so that other
sector donot benefited with it
(3) t-RNA (4) hm-RNA
(4) Address the ethical, legal and social issues
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NCERT-Biology
79. The human genome project was coordinated by 8 5 . If an inheritable mutation is observed in a
(1) U.S. department of energy population at high frequency, it is referred as

(2) National institute of health (1) DNA polyploidy

(3) Sanger centre (2) DNA polymorphism

(3) DNA redundancy
(4) Both 1 and 2
(4) Sequence annotation
80. Which of the following organism was not used as
model organism is human genome project 86. Due to high degree of polymorphism, size of VNTR
varies in size from
(1) Arabidopsis
(1) 0.1 – 2 kb (2) 0.1 – 2000 kb
(2) Caenorhabdities elegans
(3) 0.1 – 20 kb (4) 0.1 – 200 kb
(3) Rice
87. What is the basis of heredity
(4) Hyacinthus orientalis
(1) Variations (2) Inheritance
8 1 . Approach of HGP focused on identifying all the
(3) Genetics (4) Recombination
genes that expressed as RNA is known as
88. Which of the following cow breed comes in existance
(1) Expressed sequence tags
through artifical selection and domestication from
(2) Sequence annotation ancestral wild cows
(3) Polymerase chain reaction (1) Brown swiss (2) Jamanapari
(4) Dermatoglyphics (3) Murrah (4) Sahiwal
8 2 . Automated DNA sequencers worked on the 89. Which of the following was/were applied first time to
principle of a method developed by problems in biology during Mendel's investigations
(1) Watson into inheritance
(2) Chargaff (1) Statistical analysis
(3) Frederick sanger (2) Mathematical logic
(4) Singer and Nicolson (3) Computational devices
8 3 . Regarding to salient features of human genome (4) Both 1 and 2
select out the incorrect one 90. A true breeding line is that
(1) Human genome contains 3164.7 million (1) Having undergone continuous cross pollination
nucleotide bases (2) Having undergone continuous self pollination
(2) Human genome contain 30,000 genes (3) Having undergone continuous vegetative
(3) y-chromosome has largest number of genes propagation
(4) 1.4 million locations are associated with SNPs (4) Obtain through tissue culture (Meristem)
84. Match the following 91. How many true breeding pea plant varieties were
selected by Mendel
A. SNPs i 3164.7 million
(1) 7 (2) 1 4
B. Genes of ii 1.4 Million
(3) 2 1 (4) 2 8
chromosome No. 1
92. Regarding to pair of dominant and recessive trait
C. Total No. of Human iii 30000
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which of the following combination is wrong

genes (1) Flower colour – Violet / white
D . Total nucleotides of iv 2968 (2) Flower position – Axial / terminal
human genome (3) Pod shape – Inflated / constricted
A B C D (4) Seed colour – Green / yellow
(1) ii iii iv i 93. Segregation of alleles is a random process so what
(2) ii iv iii i would be the chances of a gamete containing either
(3) ii iv i iii alleles
(4) iv ii iii i (1) 25 % (2) 50 %
(3) 75 % (4) 100 %
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94. Graphical representation to calculate the probability 102. Multiple alleles can be found during study of
of all possible genotypes of offspring in a genetic (1) Gametes (2) Individual
cross, is known as
(3) Population (4) All above
(1) Mendel square (2) Punnett square
103. Shape of seed depends on starch granules size, so
(3) Crossboard method (4) Emasculation method
inheritance of seed shape show ......... relationship
95. If F 1 individual of genotype (Tt) go through sexual
while inheritance of starch grains show ...........
reproduction, then it's gamete (pollengrain) with
genotype (T) have what chances to pollinate eggs of (1) Dominant recessive, codominance
the genotype (T) (2) Incomplete dominance, codominance
(1) 25 % (2) 50 % (3) Dominant - recessive, incomplete dominance
(3) 75 % (4) 100 % (4) Codominance, incomplete dominance
96. Mendel proposed how many conclusions to consolidate 104. Inheritance of starch grains size shows
his understanding of inheritance in monohybrid cross (1) Dominant recessive relationship
(1) One (2) Two (2) Codominance
(3) Three (3) Incomplete dominance
(4) None of the rules, he proposed laws / principles
(4) Multiple allelism
97. The law of dominance is used to explain the expession
105. Dominance of any character generally depends on
of only one of the parental characters in a monohybrid
cross in ..................... and the expression of both (1) Gene or product related informations of any gene
in ....... (2) Character choosen by ourself in study
(1) F1 and F2 (2) F2 and F3 (3) Environmental factors
(3) F1 and F3 (4) F2 and F1 (4) Both 1 and 2
98. The fact that the alleles donot show any blending 106. In any dihybrid cross segregation of one pair of
and that both the characters are recovered as such characters is independent of other pair of
in F2 generation, become the basis of characters, is known as
(1) Law of Dominance (1) Law of segregation
(2) Law of paired factors (2) Law of purity of gametes
(3) Law of segregation (3) Law of independent assortment
(4) Law of independent assortment (4) Law of dominance
99. In the theoritical explanation of allelic interaction for 107. In dihybrid mendelian cross how many types of
dominant and recessive forms, the recessive trait is genotype and phenotype will be obtain
seen due to production of (1) 4 and 9 respectively
(1) Normal enzyme (2) 9 and 4 respectively
(2) A non functional enzyme (3) 9 & 16 respectively
(3) No enzyme production (4) 4 & 16 respectively
(4) Either 2 or 3 1 0 8 . Mandel published his work in 1865 but it
1 0 0 . Genes responsible for ABO blood group
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remained unrecognised till 1900. Which of the

determines which of the following biomolecules of following reason was not responsible for it
RBC plasma membrane
(1) Communication was not easy
(1) Phospholipid (2) Proteins
(2) His concept of genes (factors) as stable and
(3) Sugars (4) Cholesteroles discrete unit was not accepted by his
1 0 1 . If there are four allelic forms for the gene contemporaries as an explanation for
controlling ABO blood group then what will be apparently continuous variations
the number of possible genotypes (3) Use of mathematics to explain biological
(1) 6 (2) 1 0 phenomenon
(3) 1 2 (4) 1 4 (4) Use of emasculation technique

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109. Parallelism between charomosome and behaviour 1 1 7 . In some insects half of the sperms possess X
of gene was established by chromosome along with autosomes while half of the
(1) de Vries, Correns and Tschermark sperms carries

(2) Sutton and Boveri (1) Only autosomes

(3) Bateson and Punnet (2) y chromosome along with autosome
(4) Landsteiner and de Castello (3) x chromosome only
110. Who among the following united the knowledge of (4) x chromosome along with autosomes
chromosomal segregation with Mendelian principles
118. Female heterogamety can be seen is
and called it chromosomal theory of inheritance
(1) Bateson (2) Boveri (1) Human beings (2) Drosophilla

(3) Sutton (4) Correns (3) Fowls (4) Honey bees

111. Experimental verification of chromosomal theory 119. Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed
of inheitance was proposed by in :-
(1) Tschermark (2) de Vries (1) Germinal cells (2) Cancer cells
(3) Sutton (4) Morgan (3) Nail base cells (4) Gametes
112. Drosophila melanogaster is best material for study 120. Change in a single base pair of DNA can be termed as
of inheritance. Which of the following reason is not
(1) Chromosomal aberrations
appropriate for selection of Drosophila
(1) They can grow on simple synthetic medium (2) Point mutation

(2) They complete their life cycle in about two weeks (3) Genomatric mutation
(3) Single mating could produce small number of (4) Frame shift mutation
progeny 1 2 1 . Study of family history about inheritance of a
(4) Clear differentiation of the sexes particular trait in several generations of a family
113. Who among the following used the frequency of called
recombination between gene pairs on the same (1) Phylogeny (2) Ontogeny
chromosome as a measure of distance between
(3) Pedigree analysis (4) Cladistics
genes and mapped their position
(1) Davenport (2) Sturtevant 122. Symbols 5 used in pedigree analysis, represents

(3) Morgan (4) Nillson (1) Five offspring with unspecified sex
114. If yellow body, white eyed drosophila is crossed with (2) Five diseased offspring
wild brown body red eyes drosophila. Then what
(3) Five unaffected offspring
would be frequency of recombinants in F1 generation
(4) Five affected offsprings
(1) 100 % (2) 1.3 %
(3) 98.7 % (4) 0 % 1 2 3 . Genetic disorders determined by alteration or
mutation in single gene are known as
115. Cytological observations made in number of insects
led to the development of concept of (1) Chromosomal disorders
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(1) Environmental basis of sex determination (2) Mendelian disorders

(2) Haplo-diploidy method of sex determination (3) Non inheritable disorders
(3) Genetic / Chromosomal basis of sex determination (4) All above
(4) Hormonal basis of sex determination 124. Which of the following is not a Mendelian disorder
116. Which of the following structure was discovered by
(1) Haemophilia
Henking
(2) Cystic fibrosis
(1) y-body (2) Bar body
(3) x-body (4) Nu-body (3) Cryduchat syndrome
(4) Sickle cell anaemia
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 NCERT-Biology
1 3 1 . Which of the following is not involved in
125. aneuploidy

(1) Down's syndrome

(2) Famallial Down's syndrome

(3) Klinefelter's syndrome

In this given pedigree what is the mode of inheritance (4) Turner's syndrome
(1) Autosomal dominant 1 3 2 . Which of the following cell cycle event is
(2) Autosomal recessive responsible for aneuploidy based chromosomal
(3) X-linked dominant disorders

(4) X-linked recessive (1) Failure of G 1 phase

1 2 6 . In sickle cell anaemia which of the following (2) Failure ofDNA replication in s-phase
genotype will show disease phenotype
(3) Failure of segregation/Disjunction
(1) HbA , HbA (2) HbS , HbS
(4) Failure of movement of chromosomes
(3) HbS , HbA (4) Both 1 and 2
133. Which of the following symptom is not assocoated
127. Which of the following is not concerned with sickle
with Down's syndrome
cell anaemia
(1) Sixth position of -chain (1) Flat back of head

(2) chain of Hb (2) Many loops on finger tips

(3) Valine (3) Big and wrinked tongue

(4) Haemoglobin (4) Congenital liver diseases
12 8. Polymerisation of mutant haemoglobin molecule 1 3 4 . Which of the folloiwng cell cycle event is
in sickle cell anaemia is due to
responsible for polyploidy phenomenon
(1) Sulphadrugs
(1) Failure of karyokinesis
(2) High oxygen
(2) Failure of cytokinesis
(3) Low oxygen concentration
(3) Failure of segregation
(4) Plasmodium falciperum
1 2 9 . Regarding to phenylketonuria which of the (4) Failure of non-disjunction
following statement is wrong 135. Match the folloiwng
(1) Phenylalanine can not convert into tyrosine
(A) Down's Syndrome (i) 44 + XY
(2) Phenylalanine convert into phenylpyruvate and
derivatives (B) Klinefelter's Syndrome (ii) 45 + XY
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(3) Phenylpyruvate deposited in heart, liver and (C) Turner's Syndrome (iii) 44 + XO
kidney
(D) Phenylketonuria (iv) 44 + XXY
(4) This is inborn error of metabolism
A B C D
130. Chromosomal disorders arise due to
(1) I IV III I
(1) Absence of one or more chromosomes
(2) II IV III I
(2) Excess of one or more chromosomes
(3) Abnormal arrangement of one or more (3) I II III IV
chromosomes (4) I II IV III
(4) All the above

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NCERT-Biology
1 3 6 . Retarted physical, psychomotor and mental 138. Match the folloiwng
development are consequences observed during (A) Haemophilia (i) Board plam with
(1) Down's syndrome characteristic
palm creased
(2) Klinefelter's syndrome (B) Down's Syndrome (ii) Delayed clotting of
(3) Turner's syndrome blood
(4) Lesch nyhan syndrome (C) Klinefelter's syndrome (iii) Some feminine
character
137. Gynaecomastia state can be seen in
(D) Turner's Syndrome (iv) Rudimentary
(1) Down's syndrome ovaries
(2) Klinefelter's syndrome A B C D
(3) Turner syndrome (1) I II III IV
(4) Edward's syndrome (2) III II I IV
(3) II I IV III
(4) II I III IV

ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. 1 2 2 3 2 4 1 3 1 1 2 1 4 4 3 3 2 3 1 2

Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

Ans. 1 1 1 4 4 2 3 4 1 4 4 3 2 2 4 3 4 2 3 3

Que . 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

Ans. 3 3 3 2 3 1 3 2 4 3 2 4 2 1 4 2 4 3 3 2
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Que . 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

Ans. 4 2 1 2 3 2 4 3 3 4 3 2 3 3 3 2 2 3 4 4

Que . 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

Ans. 1 3 3 2 2 3 2 4 4 2 2 4 2 2 2 3 1 3 4 3

Que . 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120

Ans. 2 3 3 3 4 3 2 4 2 3 4 3 2 4 3 3 1 3 2 2

Que . 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138
Ans. 3 3 2 3 2 2 2 3 3 4 2 3 4 2 2 1 2 4

96 E
 NCERT-Biology

EVOLUTION
1. Stellar distance is measured in : 9. During evolution the first cellular form of life
(1) Kilometer (2) Light years appeared before how many million years ?
(3) Per socond (4) None (1) 2000 (2) 400
2. Darwin scientist worked on, which island for (3) 100 (4) 50
explanation of natural selection ? 10. T he bigge st dinosour, wh ich appeared during
(1) Malay archepelago (2) Galapago evolution was :
(3) Sumatra (4) Port Blaier (1) Thecodont
3. In the ancestory line of "Tyrannosaurus" which (2) Stegosaurus
ancestor is present ? (3) Triceratops
(1) Crocodile (2) Triceratopos (4) Tyrannosaurus rex
(3) Archaeopteryx (4) Branchyosaurus 11. Mutations are :
4. During natural selection which variety of Biston (1) Random
betullaria was completely wiped out from England?
(2) Directionless
(1) White winged moth
(3) Both 1 and 2
(2) Dark winged moth
(4) Always small
(3) Both of them
12. Fore limbs of whale, bat, cheetah and human are
(4) None of them example of :
5. What was the food habit of the original variety of (1) Analogous organ
Darwin's finches from which many other varieties
(2) Homologous organ
were developed ?
(3) Homoplastic organ
(1) Seed eater (2) Cactus eater
(4) Vestigial organ
(3) Wood peacker (4) Fruit eater
13. Hugo de vries called the single step large mutation
6. Tasma nian Wolf, Tiger Cat, Sugar glider are
as :
example of :
(1) Mutation (2) Sports
(1) Convergent evolution
(3) Micro evolution (4) Saltation
(2) Adaptive radiation
14. Stanley Miller performed his experiment for
(3) Australian marsupials
explanation of origin of life, in which year ?
(4) 2 and 3 both
(1) 1953 (2) 1970
7. Which of the following statements is true ?
(3) 1870 (4) 1960
(1) During evolution, the rate of appearance of new
15. Which was absent in Miller's experiment ?
form of organisms is linked to the life cycle/life
span (1) Vacume pump (2) Electrodes
(3) Condenser (4) None
(2) The essence of Darwinian theory is natural
selection. 16. During human evolution the body of which primitive
ancestors covered by hairs and walk like gorilla and
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(3) Fitness is based on characteristics which are

chimpanzee.
inherited.
(1) Dryopithecus and cromagnon
(4) All of them
(2) Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus
8. What were two main key points of Darwinian theory
(3) Ramapithecus and Homohabilis
of natural selection ?
(4) Java man and Peking man
(1) Branching descent
17. Cranial capacity of homoerectus was about :
(2) Natural selection
(1) 650-800 cc (2) 1400 cc
(3) Fitness
(3) 900 cc (4) 1600 cc
(4) Both 1 and 2

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NCERT-Biology
18. Why, pouched mammals are survived in Australia? 25. When more than one adaptive radiation appeared
(1) Divergent evolution to have occurred in an isolated geographical area,
it is called as :
(2) Continental drift
(1) Divergent evolution (2) Convergent evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation (3) Parallel evolution (4) Continental drift
(4) Convergent evolution. 26. Out of the following which is an example of
19. Dianosours disappeared before : convergent evolution ?
(A) Eyes of octopus and mammals
(1) 200 million years ago (2) 20 million years ago
(B) Flippers of penguins and Dolphins
(3) 65 million years ago (4) 65 billion years ago (C) Sweet potato and potato
20. The animals which evolved into the first amphibian (1) A and C (2) A and B
that lived on both land and water, were : (3) B and C (4) A, B and C
(1) Coelacanth (2) Lobefin 27. In some animals, the same structures developed
along different directions due to adaptions to
(3) Ichthyosours (4) Shrew
different needs this is called as :
21. In which type of natural selection the peak gets (1) Divergent evolution (2) Convergent evolution
higher and narrower ? (3) Parallel evolution (4) None of these
(1) Stablising selection (2) Directional selection 28. Conventional religious literature tells us about the
(3) Disruptive selection (4) None of these theory of special creation. Which of the following
is/are included in the theory ?
22. Out of the following the theory of natural selection
(1) All living organisms that we see today were
is based on certain observations, which are :
created as such
(A) Natural resources are limited
(2) The diversity was always the same since creation
(B) Populations are stable in size except for seasonal and will be the same in future.
fluctuations.
(3) Earth is about 4000 year old.
(C) Members of a population vary in characteristics
(4) All of these
even though they look superficially similar
(D) Most of variations are inheriteted 29. Mostly mutations are :
(1) A, C and D (2) A, B, C and D (1) Harmful (2) Useful
(3) B and C (4) A, B and C (3) Recessive (4) Dominant
23. The process of evolution of different species in a
30. Which of the following statement is true ?
given geographical area starting from a point and
(1) Frame shift mutations are more harmful than
literally radiating to other areas is called as :
substitution
(1) Convergent evolution
(2) Adaptive radiation (2) Hardy-Weinberg law is applicable on large
(3) Parallel evolution population
(4) Continental drift (3) Chromosomal mutations are more important
24. The industrial revolution phenomenon demonstrate: than gene mutation in evolution
(1) Gene mutation (2) Genetic drift (4) All of these

(3) Natural seletion (4) Migration

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ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 2 4 4 1 4 4 4 1 4 3 2 4 1 4 2 3 2 3 2
Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 2 2 3 2 4 1 4 3 4

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 NCERT-Biology
HUMAN HEALTH & DISEASE
1. The factor which has effect on health is :- 11. Incubation period for AIDS is usually :-
(1) Genetic disorders (2) Infections (1) 5–10 month (2) 5–10 years
(3) Life style
(3) 2–12 month (4) 2–12 weeks
(4) All of the above
12. Which cell acts as factory of HIV ?
2. Which is required for maintenance of good health ?
(1) Balanced diet (2) Personal hygiene (1) Macrophage (2) TH cells
(3) Regular exercise (4) All of the above (3) T K cells (4) N.K. cells
3. Which is necessary for achieving good health? 13. In full blown AIDS, opportunistic infections are
(a) Awareness about diseases especially caused by :-
(b) Proper disposal of wastes (1) Mycobacterium (2) Toxoplasma
(c) Control of vectors
(3) Viruses and fungi (4) All of the above
(d) Maintenance of hygienic food and water
(1) a (2) a and c 14. ELISA is diagnostic test for :-
(3) b and c (4) a, b, c and d (1) Bacterias
4. Find out the incorrect matching with regards to (2) Viruses
innate immunity :- (3) AIDS
(1) Physical barriers = Skin, mucosa
(4) Dreaded diseases only
(2) Cytokine barriers = Interferons
15. "Don't die of ignorance" slogan is used to create
(3) Cellular barriers = PMNL, neutrophils
(4) Physiological barriers = Epithelial lining awareness for :-
5. Find the odd one out with regards to secondary (1) AIDS (2) Cancer
immune response :- (3) Typhoid (4) Rabies
(1) Booster 16. Which is a safe technique to detect cancer ?
(2) Anamnestic
(1) Radiography
(3) Low intensified
(2) CT (Computed tomography) Scanning
(4) Develop due to subsequent contact of same antigen
6. H2L 2 represents ............ molecule :- (3) MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)
(1) Antibody (2) Antigen (4) Biopsy
(3) Pathogen (4) Both (1) and (2) 17. Most of cancers are treated by combination of:-
7. Which immune response / immunity is responsible
(a) Surgery
for graft rejection ?
(b) Radiotherapy
(1) Cell-mediated (2) Humoral
(3) Antibody mediated (4) All of the above (c) Chemotherapy
8. Antibodies are found in :- (1) a and b (2) a and c
(1) Blood (2) Pathogen (3) b and c (4) a, b and c
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(3) Antigen (4) Neurons 18. Cancer detection is based on :-

9. ATS provides :- (a) Biopsy
(1) Natural active innate immunity (b) Histopathological study of tissues
(2) Natural passive innate immunity (c) Blood test
(3) Artificial active acquired immunity (d) Bone marrow test
(4) Artificial passive acquired immunity (1) a, b
10. AIDS don't spread due to :- (2) a, c & d
(1) Mere touch (2) Physical contact (3) a, b & c
(3) Body fluids (4) Both (1) and (2) (4) a, b, c & d

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NCERT-Biology
19. Which type of radiations can cause DNA damage 24. Which disorder is not related with smoking?
leading to neoplastic transformation ? (a) Lung cancer
(a) Ionising radiations (b) Bronchitis
(c) Emphysema
(b) X-rays
(d) Coronary heart disease
(c) Non-ionising radiations
(e) Gastric ulcer
(d) UV-rays (f) Urinary bladder cancer
(1) a and c (2) b and d (g) Throat cancer
(3) a and b (4) a, b, c and d (1) a, b, e, g
(2) a, b, c, f, g
20. Which interferon is a biological response modifiers,
(3) c, d, f
that activates immune system for destroying tumor ? (4) None of these (all are related)
(1) (2) 25. Withdrawal syndrome is characterised by:-
(a) Anxiety (b) Shakiness
(3) (4) Both (2) and (3)
(c) Nausea (d) Sweating
21. The drugs, which are commonly abused are opioid,
(1) a, c (2) b, c
cannabinoids and coca alkaloid. Majority of these (3) a, c, d (4) a, b, c and d
are obtained from........., while some are obtained 26. Which measure would be particularly useful for
from ......... prevention and control of alcohol and drug abuse
(1) Fungi, non-flowering plants among adolescents ?
(2) Flowering plants, fungi (a) Avoid undue peer pressure
(b) Seeking professional and medical help
(3) Fungi, flowering plants
(c) Looking for danger sign
(4) Non flowering plants, fungi
(d) Education and counselling
22. (a) Smack (e) Seeking help from parents and peers
(b) Diacetylmorphine (1) a, b, d (2) a, c, d, e
(c) White (3) c, e (4) a, b, c, d, e
27. Which is related with ringworm ?
(d) Odourless
(a) Microsporum (b) Trichophyton
(e) Bitter crystalline compound (c) Epidermophyton
(f) Extracted from latex of poppy plant (1) a (2) a, b
Above statements/informations are correct for:- (3) a, c (4) a,b,c
28. (a) Salmonella is pathogenic bacterium
(1) Morphine (2) Heroin
(b) Sustained high fever (39°C to 40°C)
(3) Cocain (4) Barbiturates (c) Intestinal perforation in severe cases
23. The period between.......of age may be thought of (d) Confirmed by "widal test"
as adolescence period (e) "Marry Mallon" was a carrier
(1) 18-21 yrs. (2) 12-21 yrs. Above statements are true for :-
(1) Plague (2) Diphtheria
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(3) 12-18 yrs. (4) 18-25 yrs.

(3) Typhoid (4) Dysentery

ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 4 4 4 3 1 1 1 4 4 2 1 4 3 1 3 4 4 4 1
Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
Ans. 2 2 3 4 4 4 4 3

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 NCERT-Biology
STRATEGIES FOR ENHANCEMENT IN FOOD PRODUCTION,
MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE
1. Root of any plant breeding programme is : 11. "Atlas 66" is high protein contained variety of :
(1) Mutation (2) Genetic variability (1) Wheat (2) Maize
(3) Hybridisation (4) Selection (3) Rice (4) Bhindi
2. The contribution of agriculture in indian GDP is 12. Production of thousands of plants through tissue
approximately : culture method is called :
(1) 62% (2) 90% (1) Macropropagation (2) Micropropagation
(3) 33% (4) 5% (3) Somatic embryo (4) Totipotency
13. Which variety of Bhindi is resistance to shoot and
3. 'P-1542' is a hybrid variety of which plant ?
fruit borer ?
(1) Wheat (2) Rice
(1) Pusa Gaurav (2) Pusa sem-2
(3) Maize (4) Pea
(3) Pusa komal (4) Pusa sawani
4. "Jaya" and "Ratna" are better yielding semi dwart
14. Plants produced by tissue culture method are called:
varieties of rice. These varieties are doveloped in
(1) Explant
which country ?
(2) Somaclones
(1) Japan (2) India
(3) Micropropagation
(3) Phillipins (4) Mexico (4) SCP (Single cell protein)
5. Saccharum barberry had poor sugar content and 15. India has maximum genetic diversity of :
yield. This veriety of sugar cane mainly grown in (1) Wheat (2) Rice
which part of india ? (3) Mango (4) Apple
(1) South India (2) East India 16. In India, how many varieties of rice are present ?
(3) North India (4) West India (1) 200000 (2) 50000
6. Himgiri variety of wheat, which developed by (3) 10000 (4) 1000
hybridisation and selection is mainly resistance for 17. Pomato is an example of :
(1) Leaf and stripe rust (1) Somatic hybrid (2) Somatic embryo
(2) White rust (3) Androgenic haploid (4) SCP
(3) Bacterial blight 18. Which chemical is used in somatic hybridisation ?
(4) Chilly mosaic virus (1) Polyethyline glycole (2) Acredine
7. The conventional method of breeding for disease (3) HNO2 (4) Ethenol
resistance in plants is : 19. Sonalika is variety of :
(1) Hybridisation (2) Selection (1) Wheat (2) Rice
(3) Mutation (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) Maize (4) Pea
8. In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus and 20. "International center for wheat and maize"
powdery mildew were induced by : improvement" is situated at :
(1) Plant introduction (2) Plant tissue culture (1) Phillipins (2) India
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(3) Hybridisation (4) Mutation (3) Mexico (4) Brazil

9. Parbhani Kranti, which has resistance to yellow 21. Biological principles as applied to animal husbandry
mosaic virus is a variety of : and food production. Which of the following technique
is not going to play a pivotal role in further enhancing
(1) Wheat (2) Cow pea
food production
(3) Bhindi (4) Chilli
(1) Embryo transfer technique
10. Which character of maize leads to resistance to
maize stem borers naturally ? (2) Tissue culture technique
(1) High aspartic acid (2) Low nitrogen content (3) Mutations
(3) Low sugar content (4) All of the above (4) Biomining
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NCERT-Biology
22. Green revolution was dependent to a large extent 29. Which of the following rice variety were developed
on plant breeding techniques for development of in India
(1) High yielding varieties (1) IR - 8 (2) IR - 36
(2) Disease resistant varieties (3) TN - 1 (4) Jaya
(3) Wild varieties
30. Which of the following sugarcane species were
(4) Both 1 and 2 crossed to combine desirable qualities of high yield,
23. Purposeful manipulation of plant species in order to thick stem, high sugar content and ability to grow in
create desired plant type that are better suited for sugarcane areas of North India
cultivation, give better yields and disease resistant is
(1) Saccharum officinale x Saccharum barberi
(1) Plant systematics
(2) S. officinarum x S. baberi
(2) Plant breeding
(3) S. barberi x S.indica
(3) Plant monitoring
(4) Biofortification (4) S. officinarum x S. officinale
24. Classical plant breeding involves 31. Match the following
(1) Hybridisation of pure lines exclusively A. Himgiri variety i. White rust
(2) Hybridisation of pure lines followed by artificial
B. Pusa swarnim ii. Hill bunt
selection
(3) Artificial selection exclusively C. Pusa shubhra iii. Leaf curl

(4) Mutation breeding D . Pusa sadabahar iv. Black rot

25. Which of the following is not a step of plant breeding A B C D
(1) Collection of variability (1) ii i iii iv
(2) Evalution and selection of parents (2) i ii iv iii
(3) Cross hybridisation within a pure line (3) ii i iv iii
(4) Selection and testing of superior recombinants (4) i ii iii iv
26. Which of the following is root of any plant breeding 32. About disease resistant varieties of plant select out
programme the incorrect match

(1) Genetic variability (1) Wheat – Himgiri

(2) Evaluation and selection of parents (2) Brassica – Pusa swarnim

(3) Cauliflower – Pusa shubhra
(3) Cross hybridisation among selectied parents
(4) Cowpea – Pusa snowball K1
(4) Selection of superior recombinants
33. In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosic virus and
27. The entire collection of plants / seeds having all the powdery mildew were induced by
diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is known
as (1) Conventional breeding

(1) Genetic erosion (2) Mutation breeding

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(2) Germplasm collection (3) Germplasm collection

(3) Gene pool (4) Polyploidy breeding

(4) Genetic drift 34. Parbhani kranti variety of Ablemoschus esculentus

was created for resistance against which of the
28. For how many growing seasons, new selected lines is following disease
tested in farmer's field
(1) Yellow mosaic virus
(1) Two growing seasons
(2) Curl blight black rot
(2) Three growing seasons
(3) White rust
(3) Four growing seasons
(4) Powdery mildew
(4) Five growing seasons
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 NCERT-Biology
35. Resistance to jassids in cotton and cereal leaf 44. Biofortified rice are enriched in which of the
beetles in wheat is due to which of the following following nutrient
morphological / physiological / Biochemical (1) Iron (2) Amino acids
characteristic (3) Fatty acids (4) Essential amino acids
(1) Solid stem (2) Nectorlessness 45. Match the following
(3) High aspartic acid (4) Hairy leaves A. Vitamin A rich i Lablab
B. Vitamin C rich ii Spinach
36. In maize resistance to maize stem borer is due to
C. Fe and Ca Rich iii Bitter gaurd
(1) High aspartic acid
D . Protein Rich iv Carrot
(2) Low nitrogen and sugar content A B C D
(3) High nitrogen and suger content (1) iv iii ii i
(4) Both 1 and 2 (2) iv iii i ii
37. Select the incorrect match (3) iii iv ii i
(1) Pusa gaurav – Aphids (4) iii iv i ii
(2) Pusa sem 2 – Shoot borers 46. Which of the following can be used for cultivation
(3) Pusa sem 3 – Jassids & Aphids of SCP
(4) Pusa sawani – Fruit borers (1) Waste water from potato processing plants
38. Hidden hunger is associated with deficiency of (2) Straw
(1) Proteins (2) Vitamins (3) Sewage
(3) Micronutrients (4) All the above (4) All above
39. Which of the following is not a consiquence of
47. 250 gm Methylophilus methylotrophus can produce
hidden hunger
how much amount of proteins in a day :-
(1) Increased the risk of disease
(2) Reduced life span (1) 2.5 tonnes
(3) Reduced mental abilities (2) 25 tonnes
(4) Reduced skin pigmentation (3) 250 tonnes
40. Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and (4) 25 Kg
minerals, higher proteins and healthier fats is
known as 48. Which of the following cell property is the basis of
plant tissue culture
(1) Bioremediation
(2) Biomagnification (1) Homeostasis
(3) Biofortification (2) Thermoperiodicity
(4) Biotransformation (3) Meristematic
41. Which of the following is not an objective of plant
(4) Totipotency
breeding for improved nutritional quality
49. Each of the plant obtained through tissue culture are
(1) Protein content and quality
genetically identical to the original plant from which
(2) Oil content and quality
they were grown are known as
(3) Vitamin content
(1) Genocopies
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(4) Carbohydrate content

42. Which of the following nutrient was enhanced in (2) Somaclonal variants
hybrid maize developed in the year 2000 (3) Somaclones
(1) Lysine (2) Tryptophane (4) Phenocopies
(3) Threonine (4) Both 1 and 2
50. Fusion between two naked protoplasts is known as
43. Which of the following wheat variety have high
(1) Somatic hybridisation
protein content
(2) Germinal hybridisation
(1) Kalyansona (2) Sharbati sonaro
(3) Parasexual hybridisation
(3) Atlas 66 (4) IR - 8
(4) Both 1 and 3

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NCERT-Biology
51. Nutritionally curd is more suitable then milk. Which 60. Match the following
of the following reason not supporting to this view A. Citric acid i. Haemolytic
(1) It increasing vitamin B12
streptococcus
(2) It checks disease causing microbes
(3) LAB convert lactose into lactic curd B. Streptokinase ii. Aspergillus niger
(4) It provide additional proteins
C. Cyclosporin - A iii. Monascus purpureus
52. Large holes in "Swiss cheese" are due to production
of large amount of CO2 by ............... bacterium D . Statins iv. Trichoderma polysporum
(1) Leuconostoc mesenteroides
A B C D
(2) Propionibacterium sharmanii
(1) i ii iii iv
(3) Thermococcus proteus
(4) Staphylococcus thermophilus (2) ii i iii iv
53. Which of the following is not a product of distillation (3) ii i iv iii
(1) Whisky (2) Brandy (4) iv ii iii i
(3) Wine (4) Rum 61. Functioning of statin is based on
54. Find out odd one with refrence to distillation (1) Competitive inhibition
(1) Beer (2) Wine (2) Endproduct inhibition
(3) Champagne (4) Vodka (3) Allosteric inhibition
55. Which of the following bacteria was associated with
(4) Negative feed back inhibition
discovery of penicillin
(1) Streptococus 62. Regarding to primary treatment of sewage, which
of the following statement is not true
(2) Staphylococcus
(3) Saccharomyces cerveisiae (1) It is physical treatment
(4) Propionobacterium
(2) It is based on filteration and sedimentation
56. Full potential of penicillin as an effective antibiotic
was established by (3) Initially grit are removed
(1) Alexander Flemming (2) Ernest chain
(4) Effluent of primary treatment is taken for
(3) Howard florey (4) Both 2 and 3
secondary treatment
57. Which of the following is "Clot buster"
(1) Citric acid (2) Streptokinase 63. Masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments
(3) Cyclosporin (4) Statins to form mesh like structure is known as

58. Which of the following chemicals, used as an (1) Flocks (2) Flanks
immunosuppressive agent in organ transplantation (3) Sludge (4) BOD
(1) Streptokinase (2) Cyclosporin - A
64. During secondary treatment or biological treatment
(3) Statins (4) Citric acid which of the following do not happen
59. Match the following
(1) Decrease in BOD
A. Pectinases i. Blood cholesterol lowering
(2) Production of organic matter by microbes
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agents
B. Streptokinases ii. Immunosuppressive agents (3) Consumption of organic matter
C. Cyclosporin - A iii. Clot-busters (4) Increase in DO
D . Statin iv. Clearifying agents 65. Activated sludge is the sedimentation product of
A B C D
(1) Primary treatment
(1) iv iii ii i
(2) Secondary treatment
(2) iv iii i ii
(3) iii iv ii i (3) Tertiary treatment

(4) i ii iii iv (4) All of these

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 NCERT-Biology
66. After secondary treatment a part of activated 71. In which of the following conditions use of
sludge is passed back to aeration tank as baculoviruses is desirable
inoculum while most of the part of activated (1) When they are used as part of IPM
sludge passed to
(2) When an ecologically sensitive area is being
(1) Aerobic sludge digester treated
(3) When beneficial insects are being conserved
(2) Tertiary treatment (4) All of the above
(3) Rivers and streams 72. Use of biofertilizer is the part of
(1) Inorganic farming
(4) Anaerobic sludge digesters
(2) Organic farming
67. The technology of biogas production was developed
in India mainly due to efforts of (3) Energy cropping

(1) IARI (2) KVIC (4) Energy plantation

(3) IPM (4) Both 1 and 2 73. Members of which of the following fungal genus
mainly participate in the mycorrhiza formation
68. Bacillus thuringiensis show their inhibitory effect on
which part of the insect body (1) Azotobacter (2) Fusarium
(3) Rhizopus (4) Glomus
(1) Gut (2) Respiratory tract
74. Which of the following is not an advantage of
(3) Nervous system (4) Circulatory system mycorrhiza
69. Which of the following biological agents are used (1) Phosphorus absorption
for species specific, narrow spectrum insecticidal (2) Resistance to root borne pathogens
applications
(3) Nitrogen fixation
(1) Adenoviruses
(4) Tolerance to salinity and draught
(2) Nucleopolyhedrosis viruses
75. Cultivation of which of the following crop plant
(3) Retroviruses specially get benifitted by application of
(4) Trichoderma cyanobacteria
70. Which of the following is one of the advantage of (1) Maize (2) legumes
application of viruses as bioinsecticides (3) Wheat (4) Rice
(1) They are less effective
(2) They are host specific
(3) They are costly
(4) They can not obtain easily

ANSWERS KEY
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Q ue . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. 2 3 4 2 3 1 4 4 3 4 1 2 4 2 2 1 1 1 1 3

Q ue . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

Ans. 4 4 2 2 3 1 2 2 4 2 3 4 2 1 4 4 2 4 4 3
Q ue . 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

Ans. 4 4 3 1 1 4 2 4 3 4 4 2 3 4 2 4 2 2 1 3

Q ue . 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

Ans. 1 3 1 2 2 4 4 1 2 2 4 2 4 3 4

E 105
NCERT-Biology
BIOTECHNOLOGY : PRINCIPLES, PROCESS & ITS APPLICATION
1. The science, which deals with techniques of using live 9. Which of the following enzymes is known as 'genetic
organisms or enzymes from organism to produce glue'?
products and processes useful to human is : (1) DNA polymerase
(1) Genetics (2) Biotechnology (2) Alkaline phosphatase
(3) Bioinformatics (4) None of these (3) DNA ligase
2. A restriction endonucleases which always cut DNA (4) All of the above
molecules at a particular point by recognising a
10. Small chemically synthesised oligonucleotides that
specific sequence of six base pairs is :
are complementary to the regions of DNA at 3' end
(1) Hind-II (2) Psu I used in PCR are :
(3) Hae-III (4) All of these (1) Primers (2) Dimers
3. The first letter of the name of Restriction (3) Small strands (4) Large fragments
endonuclease came from the
11. Bombardment of high velocity micro-particles of
(1) Genus of organism gold or tungsten coated with DNA on target cells
(2) Species of organism is :
(3) Family of organism (1) Biolistics
(4) Class of organism (2) Micro-injection
4. Autonomously replicating circular extra (3) Electroporation
chromosomal DNA of bacteria is : (4) Bombing
(1) Plastid (2) Nucleus 12. In micro injection :
(3) Plasmid (4) None of these (1) DNA is bombarded on target cells
5. The specific DNA sequence in a chromosome which (2) DNA is placed through a vector
is responsible for initiation of replication is :
(3) DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of animal cell
(1) Cloning region
(4) None of the above
(2) Termination region
13. pBR322 has two antibiotic resistance genes, they
(3) Initiation region are :
(4) Origin of replication (1) Streptomycin and Ampicillin resistant gene
6. Which of the following reproduction preserves the (2) Chloromycetin and tetracycline resistant gene
genetic informations ?
(3) Tetracycline and neomycin resistant genes
(1) Asexual reproduction
(4) Ampicillin and tetracyclin resistant genes
(2) Sexual reproduction
14. Most common matrix is agarose a natural polymer
(3) Both (1) and (2) used in gel electrophoresis is extracted from :
(4) None of these (1) an animal (2) a fungus
7. Taq polymerase is used in, polymerase chain (3) Sea weeds (4) None of these
reaction, because :
15. To isolate DNA from the plant cells we have to break
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(1) It becomes inactive at high temperature the wall this is done by :

(2) it makes other enzyme active at high (1) Lysozyme (2) Cellulase
temperature
(3) Chitinase (4) Invertase
(3) It remains active during high temperature
16. Agrobacterium tumifaciens a pathogen transform
(4) It is obtained from thermostable virus.
normal plant cells into a tumor, similarly in animals
8. The vessels, where large volumes of culture can be the normal cells transformed into cancerous cells by:
processed are :
(1) Retro viruses (2) DNA viruses
(1) Bioreactors (2) Biovessels
(3) Biocontainers (4) All of above (3) Ribo viruses (4) None of these

106 E
 NCERT-Biology
17. Insertional inactivation results into inactivation of 25. Downstream processing is :
which enzyme ? (1) Process of separation of DNA fragments
(1) Transacetylase (2) Process of joining the vector and the host DNA
(2) Permease (3) Process including separation and purification of
(3) Taq polymerase the product
(4) -galactosidase (4) Process of transferring DNA.
18. If the bacterium does not have any insert, then the 26. EcoRI recognises palindromic sequence
presence of chromogenic substrate, it gives : (1) 5'
GGGCCC 3' (2) 5'
-GAATTC-3'
(1) Red coloured colonies 3'
CCCGGG 3
-CTTA AG-5'
(2) Colourless colonies (3) 5
-AAGCTT 3' (4) None of the above
(3) Blue colonies 3
-TTCGAA- 5
(4) Green colonies 27. The enzymes responsible for restricting the growth
19. To make cell competent to take up DNA, heat of bacteriophage in E-coli were isolated in 1963,
shock is given to cells, the temperature of shock is : these enzyme are :
(1) 30°C (2) 42°C (1) DNA ligases
(3) 60°C (4) 90°C (2) Alkaline phosphatases
20. In gel electrophoresis technique the DNA fragments (3) DNA polymerases
are forced to move through a medium towards : (4) Restriction endonuclease
(1) Anode 28. Vector which is commonly used to transfer foreign
(2) Cathode gene in a crop plant is :
(3) Both (1) and (2) (1) Plasmids of Salmonella
(4) None of the above (2) bacterio phage vector
21. Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class of (3) Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium tumifaciens
enzymes called : (4) None of the above
(1) Cellulases (2) Hydrolases 29. Father of genetic engineering is :
(3) Polymerases (4) Nucleases
(1) Paul Berg (2) Nathans
22. Which one is not a basic step in genetically modifying
(3) Herbert Boyer (4) Stanley Cohen
an organism
30. A definition of biotechnology that encompasses both
(1) Identification of DNA with desirable genes
traditional view and modern view are given by :
(2) Introduction of the identified DNA into the host
(1) European forum on Biotechnology
(3) Introduction of unidentified DNA into the host
(2) European focus on Biotechnology
(4) Maintenance of introduced DNA in the host and
(3) European Federation of Biotechnology
transfer of the DNA to its progeny.
23. The construction of the first recombinant DNA was (4) European Centre of Biotechnology
done by ? 31. Which one of the following is must in Biotechnology?
(1) Stanley cohen and Herbert Boyer (1) Restriction endonuclease + DNA ligase
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(2) Nathan's and Smith (2) Restriction exonuclease + DNA polymerase

(3) Maeselson and Stahl (3) Alkaline phosphate + DNA Ligase
(4) Allec Jeffreys (4) RNA polymerase + DNA polymerase
24. The most commonly used bioreactors are of
32. Taq. polymerase is obtaned from :
(1) Simple stirring type
(1) Bacillus thuriengiensis
(2) Sparged stirring type
(2) Thermus aquaticus
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Salmonella typhimurium
(4) None of the above
(4) Eischerichia coli
E 107
NCERT-Biology
33. To denature the DNA template in PCR it is heated 41. When the isolation of genetic material is done the
to RNA can be removed by treatment with :
(1) 70°C (2) 54°C (1) Protease
(3) 80°C (4) 94°C (2) Chitinase
34. Roman numbers following the names of restriction (3) Ribonuclease
endonuclease indicate :
(4) Deoxyribonuclease
(1) The order in which the enzymes were isolated
from that strain of bacteria 42. If DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of -
galactosidase enzyme then
(2) strain of bacteria
(1) Non-recombinants will give blue coloured colonies
(3) the order in which genus is taken to isolate the
in presence of chromogenic substrate
enzyme
(4) none of the above (2) Recombinant will give blue coloured colonies in
presence of chromogenic substrate
35. Exonuclease removes nucleotides from
(3) Both recombinants and non-recombinants give
(1) Specific positions
blue colour
(2) the ends of the DNA
(4) Non-recombinants do not produce colour due to
(3) any where in DNA
insertional inactivation.
(4) All the above
43. Knife of DNA :
36. Alternative selectable markers developed to
(1) DNA - ligase
differentiate non-recombinants from recombinants
on the basis of : (2) Restriction endonuclease
(1) Ability of separate them according to size (3) Exonuclease
(2) Ability to produce colour in the presence of a (4) Peptidase
chromogenic substrate
44. A transgenic food crop, which may help in solving
(3) Ability to not produce colour the problem of night blindness in developing
(4) None of the above countries is :
37. In a chromosome there is a specific DNA sequence (1) Bt soyabean
which is responsible for initiating replication is : (2) Golden rice
(1) Ori
(3) Flavr savr tomatoes
(2) Palindromic sequence
(4) Starlink maize
(2) Initiation sequence
45. Large vessel in which raw materials are biologically
(4) Promoter sequence converted into specific products, individual enzymes
38. First recombinant DNA was made by Stanley Cohen etc using microbial plant, animal or human cell is:
and Herbert Boyer in :
(1) Biotank
(1) 1968 (2) 1970
(2) Biovessel
(3) 1972 (4) 1974
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(3) Bioreactor
39. The first restriction endonuclease discovered, was
(4) None of the above
(1) Eco RI (2) Sam I
46. Bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis is widely used in
(3) Bam HI (4) Hind II
contemporary biology as
40. In the vector pBR322 there is
(1) Source of industrial enzyme
(1) One selectable marker
(2) Indicator of water pollution
(2) Two selectable markers
(3) Insecticide
(3) Three selectable markers
(4) Agent for production of dairy products.
(4) None of the above

108 E
 NCERT-Biology
47. Which one of the following is not required in PCR? 55. Two polypeptide chains of insulin are linked together
(1) Oligonucleotide primer by :

(2) DNA template (1) disulphide bonds

(3) Taq polymerase (2) hydrogen bonds

(4) Helicase enzyme (3) Phosphodiester bonds

48. The first clinical gene therapy was given to a 4-year (4) Glycosidic bonds
old girl with ADA deficiency in : 56. 'Flavr Savr' is a transgenic variety of :
(1) 1984 (2) 1986 (1) Potato (2) Tomato
(3) 1992 (4) 1990 (3) Soyabean (4) Rice
49. Bt toxin is produced by Bacillus thuringiensis which 57. Golden rice is enriched in :
is : (1) Vitamin C (2) Vitamin D
(1) Bacterium (2) Protozoa (3) Vitamin A (4) Vitamin E
(3) Fungus (4) Virus 58. For the control of the cotton bollworms, which one
50. GEAC stands for : of the genes is useful ?
(1) Gene evaluation approval committee (1) Cry 1 Ac (2) Cry 1 Ab
(2) Genetic engineering approval committee (3) Cry 1 Ad (4) All of these
(3) Genetic engineering applied committee 59. Process involving silencing of a specific mRNA due
(4) Gene enhancement approval committe to a complementary dsRNA molecule is called :

51. Conventional methods to diagnose a disease are : (1) Transcription (2) RNA interference

(1) Serum and urine analysis (3) DNA interference (4) None of these

(2) PCR 60. Meloidegyne incognitia which infects the roots of

tobacco plants causing a great reduction in yield is
(3) ELISA
a :
(4) All of the above
(1) Nematode (2) Bacterium
52. The first transgenic cow, which produced human
(3) Virus (4) Alga
protein enriched milk was named :
61. Toxin present in Bacillus thuringiensis does not kill
(1) Andy (2) Dolly
the bacterium because it is inactive form what makes
(3) Rosie (4) Dumpy
it active inside the insect ?
53. Milk of transgenic cow 'Rosie' contains a substance
(1) the alkaline pH of the gut, which solubilises the
that was nutritionally more balanced product for
crystals
human babies is :
(2) the acid pH of the gut
(1) -lactalbumin (2) -lactalbumin
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(3) the neutral pH of the gut

(3) -lactalbumin (4) -lactalbumin
(4) All of the above
54. Which peptide is not present in the mature insulin
62. Crystals of Bt toxin produced by some bacteria do
and is removed during maturation into insulin?
not kill the bacteria themselves because :
(1) A-peptide
(1) bacteria are resistant to the toxin
(2) B-peptide
(2) toxin is immature
(3) C-peptide
(3) toxin is inactive
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) bacteria enclose toxin in a special sac

E 109
NCERT-Biology
63. Which one of the following statements about 69. Use of bio-resources by multinational companies and
genetically engineered insulin is incorrect. other organisations without proper autorisation

(1) E.coli is used for producing humulin from the countries and people concerned without
compensatory payment is called :
(2) Chains A, B were produced separately
(1) Biotheft
(3) Eli lily company prepared it for first time
(2) Biopatent
(4) Genetically engineered insulin has C-peptide
(3) Biopiracy
64. Infection by pathogen can be detected by the
(4) None of the above
presence of antigens or by detecting the antibodies
synthesised against the pathogen, on this principle 70. Which of the following plants is genetically modified
for improved nutritional value of food?
a test is based which is ?
(1) Potato (2) Wheat
(1) PCR
(3) Rice (4) Maize
(2) ELISA
71. Which animal is being used to test the safety of polio
(3) Both (1) and (2)
vaccine?
(4) None of the above
(1) Transgenic mice
65. Indian parliament recently cleared, which
(2) Transgenic pig
amendment of the Indian patents bill,
(3) Transgenic cow
(1) First amendment
(4) Transgenic cat
(2) Second amendment
72. Cryl 1 Ab gene produces proteins which control?
(3) Third amendment
(1) Bollworms
(4) Fourth amendment
(2) Corn borer
66. How many documented varities of basmati rice
(3) Both (1) and (2)
distinct for its unique aroma and flavour are grown
(4) None of the above
in India?
73. Nematode-specific genes were introduced into the
(1) 27 varities
host plant (tabacco plant) by using which vector?
(2) 25 varities
(1) Plasmid vector
(3) 28 varities
(2) Cosmid vector
(4) 26 varities
(3) Bacteriophage vector
67. Over 95 percent of all existing transgenic animals
(4) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
are :
74. Which one of the following statements are true
(1) Pigs (2) Cows
regarding genetic modifications ?
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(3) Fish (4) Mice

(1) Genetic modifications reduced reliance on
68. The organisation set up for making decisions chemical pesticides
regarding the validity of GM research and the safety
(2) Genetic modifications has enhanced nutritional
of introducing GM organism for public services is :
value of food.
(1) Genetic engineering approval committee
(3) Genetic modifications made crops more tolerant
(2) Genetic engineering advanced company
to abiotic stresses.
(3) Genetic engineering applied committee
(4) All are correct
(4) None of these

110 E
 NCERT-Biology
75. Critical research areas of biotechnology are : 82. The sequence which is responsible for controlling the

(1) providing the best catalyst in the form of improved copy number of the linked DNA is :

organism usually a microbe or pure enzyme. (1) Coding sequence (2) Promoter sequence

(2) Creating optimal conditions through engineering (3) Terminator sequence (4) Ori
for a catalyst to act. 83. Animals those have had their DNA manipulated to

(3) Down stream processing technologies to purify possess and express an extra (foreign) gene are

the protein/organic compound. known as :

(1) Transgenic animals
(4) All the above
(2) Genetically modified animals
76. Bacterium genetically engineered for cleaning oil
spills is : (3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above
(1) Eischerichia coli
84. When cut by the restriction enzyme, the DNA
(2) Pseudomonas putida
fragments can be joined together using :
(3) Salmonella typhimurium
(1) DNA polymerase
(4) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
(2) DNA ligase
77. Bacterium which is known as 'Super bug' is :
(3) Alkaline phosphatase
(1) Pseudomonas putida
(4) DNA gyrase
(2) Salmonella
85. In gel electrophoresis the DNA fragments separate
(3) Eischerichia according to size (smaller the fragment size, the
(4) Agrobacterium faster it moves) this effect is called :
78. The enzymes, which remove nucleotides from the (1) Sieving effect (2) Movement effect
ends of the DNA are : (3) Size effect (4) Spooling
(1) Exonuclease (2) Endonuclease 86. Genetically engineered human insulin is made in
(3) Cellulase (4) Hydrolase (1) Fungus (2) Protista
79. When a recombinant DNA is inserted within the (3) Plants (4) Bacterium
coding sequence of an enzyme -galatosidase, it
87. Extraction, purification and packaging of products
results into inactivation of the enzyme gene this is
is collectively known as :
called :
(1) Upstream processing
(1) Insert inactivation
(2) Distillation
(2) Insertional inactivation
(3) Downstream processing
(3) Insertional activation
(4) Genetic engineering
(4) None of the above
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88. You have three copies of a particular DNA molecule

80. Group of letters that form the same words when
what technique would you use to make more copies
read both forward and backward is called :
of the molecule?
(1) Palindrome (2) Same words
(1) Gel electrophoresis
(3) Opposite words (4) None of the above
(2) Sequencing
81. Which type of ends are produced by EcoRI ?
(3) PCR
(1) Blunt ends (2) Sticky ends
(4) Restriction fragment analysis
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of the above

E 111
NCERT-Biology
89. Which of the following is best way to determine 97. Insulin consists of two short polypeptide chains,
paternity ? which are linked together by?
(1) Gene counting (2) Chromosome counting (1) Sulphide bridges (2) Peptide bridges
(3) DNA finger printing (4) Protein analysis (3) Chloride bridges (4) Disulphide bridges
90. Genetically engineered bacteria are being used in 98. Meloidegyne incognitia infects the root of which
commerceial production of : plant ?
(1) melatonin (2) testosterone (1) Potato (2) Soyabean
(3) thyroxine (4) human insulin (3) Tobacco (4) Tomato
91. Ti plasmid is present in : 99. In PCR-technology primer is a :
(1) E.coli (1) Small chemically synthesized oligonucleotide
(2) Agrobacterium tumefaciens that are complementary to region of DNA

(3) Agrobacterium orifaciens (2) Large chemically synthesized oligonucleotide that

are identical to region of DNA
(4) Vibrio cholerae
(3) Small segment of RNA
92. Apart from DNA in the bacterial nucleoid, there is
a circular extrachromosomal DNA in a bacterial cell (4) None of these
called : 100. The first restriction endomyclease enzyme was :
(1) Plasmid (2) Mesosomes (1) Hind - II (2) EcoRI
(3) Chromosome (4) None of these (3) Hae - III (4) Bam - I
93. DNA cannot pass through cell membrane as it is : 101. In gel electrophoresis the DNA fragment separate
(1) hydrophilic (2) hydrophobic according to their size through sieving effect, which
is provided by :
(3) Lipophilic (4) All the above
(1) Agarose gel (2) Nylone membrane
94. Which type of bioreactor is usually cylindrical or with
a curved base to facilitate the mixing of the contents? (3) Polyethylene glycol (4) Ethidium Bromide

(1) Sparged tank bioreactor 102. Which of the following method of vectorless gene
transfer is suitable for plants ?
(2) Stirred tank bioreactor
(1) Biolistics method
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Micro injection
(4) None of the above
(3) Liposome mediated
95. The stickiness of the ends, facilitates the action of
enzyme : (4) Electroporation

(1) DNA ligase (2) DNA polymerase 103. Genetics modified crops (GMC) are useful in
agriculture because :
(3) Alkaline phosphatase (4) All of the above
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(1) They are more tolerant to abiotic stresses

96. Two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth
of bacteriophage in E.coli were isolated in 1963, (2) They increase reliance on chemical pesticide
one of these cut DNA, while other : (3) They have reduced nutritional value
(1) Add propyl group to DNA (4) All the above
(2) Add ethyl group to DNA 104. The protien encoded by the gene cryIAc and cryIIAb,
(3) Add methyl group to DNA controls :

(4) None of the above (1) Cotton bollworm (2) Corn borer
(3) Cotton borer (4) All the above

112 E
 NCERT-Biology
105. A nematode Meloidegyne incognitia infects the root 111. Transgenic tobacco which is developed through
of tobacco plant and causes a great reduction in RNA interference, prevents the infection of :
yield. A novel strategy was adopted to prevent this (1) A nematode - Meloidegyne incognitia
infection which was based on the process of : (2) A bacterium - Pseudonomonas putida
(1) DNA interference (3) A fungi - Tricoderma
(2) RNA interference (4) An insect
(3) PCR technique 112. The linking of antibiotic resistant gene in the plasmid
(4) DNA test vector become possible with the enzyme :

106. In RNA interference (RNAi) : (1) Restriction endonuclease

(1) The silencing of a specific mRNA due to a (2) DNA ligase

complementary dsRNA molecule that binds to (3) DNA polymerase

and prevent translation of the mRNA : (4) RNA polymerase
(2) The silencing of a specific mRNA due to dsDNA 113. In gel electrophoresis, separated bands of DNA are
cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from
(3) The silencing of a specific mRNA due to tRNA
the gel pieces, This step is known as :
(4) All the above
(1) Blotting (2) Elution
107. Transgenic animals produces biological product such
(3) Cloning (4) Tagging
as -1-antitrypsin, which is used to treat :
114. If any protein encoding gene is expressed in a hetero
(1) Emphysema
logous host then protein is known as :
(2) Cystic fibrosis (1) Recombinant gene
(3) Phenyl ketonuria (2) Recombinant protein
(4) Sickle cell anaemia (3) Selectable marker
108. The first transgenic cow was 'Rosie', produces : (4) Homogenous protein
(1) Human protein-enriched milk ( -lactabumin) 115. Which enzyme is used in PCR technique ?
(2) Human protein -1 antitrypsin riched milk (1) Thermostable DNA polymerase
(3) Human protein enriched milk (insulin) (2) Thermostable RNA polymerase

(4) All the above (3) Thermostable ligase

109. Transgenic mice are being developed for use in : (4) Thermostable vector

(1) Testing the safety of polio vaccines before they 116. If the plasmid in the bacteria dose not have any
insert then the colonies produce :
are used on human
(1) Blue colour in the presence of X-gal
(2) Molecular diagnosis of diseases
(2) No colour in the presence of X-gal
(3) Production of human protein enriched milk
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(3) Blue colour in the absence of X-gal

(4) Production of human insulin
(4) None of the above
110. The technique that serves the purpose of early
117. Which of the following is used to deliver desirable
diagnosis of disease or pathogen :
gene in to animal cell :
(1) Recombinant DNA technology
(1) Disarmed retrovirus
(2) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
(2) Disarmed agrobacterium
(3) Enzyme linked immuno sorbent assay (ELISA) (3) Disarmed E.coli
(4) All the above (4) Disarmed plant pathogen

E 113
NCERT-Biology
118. Agrobacterium tumifaciencs , a pathogen of several 120. Select incorrect statement :
dicot plants is able to deliver a piece of DNA and (a) Some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis produce
it is known as : proteins that kill certain insects such as
(1) R-DNA Lepidopterans, Coleopterans and Dipterans
(b) RNA interference takes place in all eukaryotic
(2) S-DNA
organisms as a method of cellular defence
(3) M-DNA
(c) Genetically modified crops are more sensitive to
(4) T-DNA abiotic stresses
119. The normal E-coli cell carries resistance gene against: (d) Golden rice is protein enriched rice
(1) Ampicillin (e) Agrobacterium is used to deliver desirable genes
(2) Chloramphenicol into animal cell
(1) only a (2) a, b and c
(3) Tetracycline
(3) a, c and d (4) c, d and e
(4) None of the above

ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

Ans. 2 1 1 3 4 1 3 1 3 1 1 3 4 3 2 1 4 3 2 1

Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

Ans. 4 3 1 3 3 2 4 3 1 3 1 2 4 1 2 2 1 3 4 2
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Que . 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

Ans. 3 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 1 2 1 3 1 3 1 2 3 1 2 1

Que . 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

Ans. 1 3 4 2 2 1 4 1 3 3 1 2 4 4 4 2 1 1 2 1

Que . 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100

Ans. 2 4 3 2 1 4 3 3 3 4 2 1 1 2 1 3 4 3 1 1

Que . 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120

Ans. 1 1 1 1 2 1 1 1 1 4 1 2 2 2 1 1 1 4 4 4

114 E
 NCERT-Biology

ORGANISM AND ENVIRONMENT

1. At organismic level which type of ecology exists 9. What is the salinity (part per thousand) of hypersaline
(1) Synecology lagoons
(2) Physiological ecology (1) 5 % (2) 30– 35%
(3) Behavioural ecology (3) More then 100 % (4) Less than 50 %
(4) Systematic ecology 10. Among the following algae that inhabit the sea,
which is likely to be found in the deepest waters
2. Formation of different kind of biomes depends on
(1) Red algae (2) Brown algae
(1) Rain fall (2) Temperature
(3) Precipitation (4) Both 2 & 3 (3) Green algae (4) Golden brown algae

3. Regional and local variation within each biome lead 11. Percolation and water holding capacity of soil does
to formation of not depend on

(1) Climate (2) Weather (1) Soil Composition (2) Biota

(3) Habitat (4) Niche (3) Size of grains (4) Aggregation

4. What is / are key elements that leads to so much 12. Which of the folloiwng is main reason for non
variation in the physical and chemical conditions of occurrence of small size comformers
different habitats (1) Karyoplasmic index (2) Area / volume ratio
(1) Temperature (2) Water and light
(3) Basal metabolism (4) All the above
(3) Soil (4) All above
13. If the stressful external conditions are localised or
5. Temperature is the most ecological ly releva nt
remain only for a short duration, the organisms has
environment factor. In which of the following habitats
not which alternative
temperature can exceed 100° C
(1) Migration (2) Dormancy
(1) Tropical desert
(3) Hibernation (4) Homeostasis
(2) Thermal springs
14. Which of the following alternative used by
(3) Deep sea / hydrothermal vents
zooplanktons to overcome partial stressful
(4) Both 2 and 3 conditions
6. Find out the correct match with reference to their (1) Migration (2) Diapause
habitat
(3) Hibernation (4) Aestivation
(1) Mango tree – Canada
(2) Snow leopards – Kerla forest 15. Majority of plants belongs to which of the following
category
(3) Tuna fish – Temperate lattitudes
in oceans (1) Regulaters
(4) Lion – Gujarat (2) Conformers

7. Temperature is one of the important abiotic factor. (3) Partial regulaters

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Significance of temperature on living beings can be (4) More than one correct
realised through 16. Shortening of ears, limbs and other extremeties of
(1) Kinetics of enzymes (2) Basal metabolism mammals so that heat loss can be minimise, is
(3) Physiological functions (4) All the above associated with
8. Next to temperature, water is the most important (1) Allen's rule (2) Bergeman's rule
factor influencing the life of organism. Which among (3) Jordans rule (4) Rensch's rule
the folloiwng water characteristics is not an influencing 17. Altitude sickness can be seen at which specific
character height
(1) pH (2) Turbidity (1) < 3.500 m (2) > 3.500 m
(3) Colour (4) Salanity (3) > 5.300 m (4) < 5.300 m
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NCERT-Biology
18. Which of the following is not an adaptation for altitude (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
sickness
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(1) Increase in red blood cell production
25. The famous australlion 'havoc' is associated with
(2) Decrease in binding capacity of oxygen of
which of the following invasive species
haemoglobin
(3) Increasing breathing rate (1) Nile pearch (2) Opuntia
(4) Heart palpitations (3) Red fox (4) Rabbits
19. Behavioural response to cope with variations in the 26. In rocky intertidal communities removal of which of
environment can be seen in
the following predator became the cause of
(1) CAM plants destruction of 10 species of invertibrates
(2) Kangaroo Rat (1) Monarch butterfly (2) Starfish pisater
(3) Desert lizards
(3) Paramecium aurelia (4) Abingdon tortoise
(4) Archaebacteria
27. Phytophagous insects show which of the following
20. Population ecology is an important area of ecology
interaction
because it links ecology with
(1) Predation
(1) Population genetics (2) Evolution
(2) Competetion
(3) Physiognomy (4) Both 1 and 2
21. The tiger counting in our national parks and tiger (3) Parasitism
reserves is often based on (4) Commensalism
(1) Pug marks (2) Mannual counting 28. Which of the following can not to be used by prey
(3) Fecal plates (4) Both 1 and 3 for defence against predator
22. Regarding to life history variations. Which among (1) Cardiac glycosides (2) Strychnine
the following is incorrect
(1) Breeding onec in life time – Bamboo (3) Nector (4) Quinine
(2) Breeding many times in life time – Birds 29. Regarding to competetion find out the wrong
(3) Production of large number of small size offspring statement
– mammals
(4) Production of small number of large size (1) Unrelated species could compete for same
organisms – Birds resource
23. Match the following
(2) In competetion fittness of one species lowered
(a) Breeding once in life (i) Mammals
in presence of other species
(b) Breeding several time in (ii) Oysters
life (3) Abingdon tortoise become extinct due to
(c) Large no. of small size (iii) most of birds competetor starfish
off spring (4) Balanus leads to exclusion of chathamalus from
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(d) Small no. of large size (iv) Pacific salmon rock coasts of scotland
off spring fish
30. Which of the following is a mean of removal of
(1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
competetion
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
24. Match the following given population interactions (1) Behaviour diversification

(a) + / + (i) Predation (2) Choosing different time for feeding

(b) – / – (ii) Ammensalism (3) Habitat diversification
(c) + / – (iii) Competition (4) All the above
(d) – / 0 (iv) Mutualism

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 NCERT-Biology
31. Which of the following mean was used by warblers 37. Amount of biomass or organic matter produced per
to avoid competetion and coexist unit area over a time period by plants is represented
or expressed in terms of
(1) Difference in foraging activities
(1) Weight (g–2) – g–2 yr–1
(2) Habitat fragmentation
(2) Energy (Kcal m–2) – Kcal m–2 / yr–1
(3) Competetive release
(3) Fresh weight
(4) All above
(4) Dry weight
32. Which of the following is not an adaptation of 38. The rate of biomass production is called productivity.
parasites for assurance of parasite host interaction It may be primary or secondary productivity. Primary
productivity does not depends on
(1) Loss of sensory organs
(1) Plants species inhabitating a particular area
(2) Presence of adhesive organs
(2) Predation
(3) Loss of digestive system (3) Environmental factors

(4) Low reproductive potential (4) Photosynthetic capacity

39. The annual net primary productivity of the whole
33. Which of the following match is incorrect for biosphere is approximately
commensalism interaction
(1) 170 billion tons (2) 50 billion tons
(1) Epiphytes on trees
(3) 55 billion tons (4) 710 billion tons
(2) Egrets with grazing cattles 40. In net primary productivity of whole biosphere what
(3) Hermit crab and sea anemone is the contribution of oceans
(1) 50 % (2) 70 %
(4) Sea anemone and clown fish
(3) 42 % (4) 55 %
34. During interaction between sea anemone and clawn 4 1 . By digestion and pulverisation detritus get
fish, which get benefitted fragmented. This fragmentation step of
decomposition helps in
(1) Sea anemone only (2) Clown fish only
(1) Increasing porocity of detritus
(3) Both (4) Nither 1 nor 2 (2) Increasing surface area of detritus
35. Which of the following is not an example of (3) Increasing rate of sedimentation
coevolution (4) All the above
(1) Orchid and Bee 4 2 . Leaching is one of the important step of
Decomposition. During leaching which of the
(2) Opuntia and Cactoblastis following nutrient go down into the soil horizon
(3) Yucca and Pronula (1) Water soluble inorganic substance only
(2) Water insoluble inorganic substances
(4) Wasp and Fig
(3) Water soluble organic substances only
36. The components of ecosystem are seen to function (4) Water soluble organic substances & inorganic
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as an unit when we consider which of the folloiwng substances both

aspect 4 3 . During decomposition humification leads to
accumulation of a dark coloured amorphous
(1) Productivity and decomposition substance called humus. About Humus which of the
following is correct
(2) Decomposition and energy flow
(1) Susceptible to microbial action
(3) Productivity and energy flow (2) Undergoes decomposition at an extremely high
(4) Productivity, decomposition, energy flow and rate
(3) Colloidal in nature
nutrient cycling
(4) It promote compaction of soil

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44. Which of the following chemical will not reduce the 51. In an ecosystem based on production of nearly six
rate of decomposition of detritus million plants how many top consumers can be
(1) Lignin (2) Chitin supported
(1) 708000 (2) 354000
(3) Cutin (4) Sugars
(3) 3 (4) 30000
45. Which among the following factors are most important
climatic factors that regulate decomposition through 5 2 . In an ecosystem if dry weight of producers is
their effects on the activities of soil microbes 809 kgm –2 . Then what will be the biomass of
tertiary consumers
(1) Temp & soil moisture
(1) 37 dry weight (Kg m–2)
(2) Temp and pH of soil
(2) 11 (Kg m–2)
(3) Temp and oxygen
(3) 15 kg m–2
(4) pH of soil and oxygen
(4) 1.5 kgm –2
46. Decomposition is one of the important functional
aspect of ecosystem. About which of the following 53. Ecological pyramids show diagramatic
statement is not correct representation of ecological parameters like
number, biomass and energy. W hich is / are
(1) Warm and moist environment favours
decomposition limitation of ecological pyramids

(2) Nitrogen and sugar component favours (1) It does not take into account the same species
decomposition belonging to two or more trophic levels

(3) Low temperature and anaerobiosis favours (2) It does not accomadate a food web
decomposition (3) Saprophytes are not given any place in pyramids
(4) Decomposition is largely an oxygen requiring (4) All the above
process
54. The gradual and fairly predictable changes in the
47. How much amount of incident solar radiation and species composition of a given area is called
PAR is capture as GPP
(1) Bioprospecting
(1) 1–5% and 2–10% (2) 2–10% and 1–5%
(2) Biofortification
(3) 1–4% and 2–8% (4) 0.4–4% and 0.8–8%
(3) Ecological succession
48. In an aquatic ecosystem which type of food chain
is major conduit for energy flow (4) Ecological assessment
55 . The gradual and fairy predictable changes in the
(1) GFC (2) Parasitic food chain species composition of a given area is not
characterised by
(3) DFC (4) Both 1 and 3
(1) Increase in number of species
49. About flow of food energy by the process of eating
and being eaten, which of the following is incorrect (2) Increase in number of individuals (organisms)
(1) In an aquatic ecosystem GFC is major conduit (3) Increase in biomass
for energy flow (4) Decrease in niche specialisation
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(2) In terrestrial ecosystem detritus food chain is main 56. About succession which of the following statement
(3) In predator food chain there is increase in size is correct
of organism with trophic level (1) In xerosere, xeric conditions progress to hydric
conditions
(4) DFC can never be connected with GFC
5 0 . Mass of the living material at a particular time (2) In hydrosere, mesic environment progress to
called as the standing crop. Biomass of a species hydric conditions
is expressed interms of ............. is more accurate (3) In hydrosere hydric environment progress to
(1) Fresh weight (2) Dry weight mesic conditions
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Kcal m –2/yr–1 (4) Abandoned farm lands show primary succession

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 NCERT-Biology
57. All successions whether taking place in water or on 65. Term Biodiversity was popularised by–
land proceeds to which climax community (1) Edward Wilson (2) Homboldt
(1) Hydric (2) Xeric (3) Tilman (4) Paul Ehrlich
(3) Mesic (4) Halophytic 66. In India how many Genetically different strains of
rice & mango varieties present –
58. Which of the following regulate the rate of release
of nutrients into atmosphere (1) 50,000 and 1,0000 respectively
(1) Soil (2) Moisture (2) 1000 & 50000 respectively
(3) pH and Temperature (4) All the above (3) 50.000 & 1.000 respectively

5 9 . What percentage of carbon constitute the dry (4) 50,000 & 5,000 respectively
weight of organisms 67. Find out incorrect statement –
(1) 49 % (2) 71 % (1) Biodiversity exists at all levels of Biological
organisation
(3) 30 % (4) 20 %
(2) A single Species can not show more diversity
60. How much amount of carbon is fixed in biosphere at genetic level
through photosynthesis annually
(3) Western ghats have a greater amphibian
(1) 2 x 1013 kg (2) 4 x 1013 kg species diversity
(3) 5 x 1013 kg (4) 6 x 1013 kg (4) India has greater ecological diversity than
6 1 . Which among the following is not considered as Scandinavian country.
an ecological service 6 8 . According to IUCN (2004) how many plant and
animal species have been described so far –
(1) Generation of fertile soil
(1) 1.5 billion (2) 1.5 million
(2) Wild life habitat formation
(3) 7.1 million (4) 7.1 billion
(3) Products of antibiotics
69. Which method is thought to be best for estimation
(4) Crop pollination of mirobial biodiversity –
62. Robert Constanza and his colleagues have put price (1) Bio statistical method
tags on natures life support services with refrence
to this which of the following is not true (2) Bio chemical or molecular method

(1) Fundamental ecosystem services = $ 33 trillions (3) Paleobotanical method

(4) Culture method
(2) Soil formation = $ 17.5 trillions
70. What is the contribution of India in global species
(3) Nutrient cycling = less than $ 3.3 trillions
diversity –
(4) Climate regulation = $ 5 trillions
(1) 2.4 % (2) 12 %
63. Match the following–
(3) 8.1 % (4) 7.1 %
(a) Ants (i) >20,000 species
71. Find out the right one –
(b) Beetles (ii) >28,000 species
(1) India has 7.1% species diversity
(c) Fishes (iii) >3,00,000 species
(2) India is one of the 22 megacenters of
(d) Orchids (iv) >20,000 species
Biodivessity world
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(1) a (iv), b (ii), c (iii), d (i)

(3) Acc. to Mary's global estimate only 22% of the
(2) a (ii), b (iii), c (iv), d (i) total species have been recorded so for
(3) a (iv), b (iii), c (ii), d (i) (4) Acc. to may's estimation, more than 3,00,000
(4) a (iii), b (ii), c (i), d (iv) plant species yet to be discoverd.
64. In Bioshpere, diversity (Heterogeneity) exist at – 72. Pattern of Biodiversity depends upon –
(1) Species level (1) Latitudinal gradient
(2) Micromolucule level (2) Altitudeinal gradient
(3) Biomass level (3) Species - area relationship
(4) All the above (4) All of these

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73. Match the following (with refrence to bird species) 80. For frugivorous birds the value of z suggested -
(a) Colombia (i) 10 5 (1) 0.1 - 0.2 (2) 0.6 - 1.2
(b) New York (ii) 1400 (3) 1.15 (4) 11.5
(c) Greenland (iii) 1200
81. More species in community, tends to more stability
(d) India (iv) 5 6 than communities with less species'. It was
(1) a - (ii), b - (i), c - (iii), d- (iv) supported by–
(2) a - (i), b - (ii), c - (iv), d- (iii) (1) David Tilman (2) Paul Ehrlich
(3) a - (iv), b - (iii), c - (ii), d- (i) (3) Humboldt (4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) a - (ii), b - (i), c - (iv), d- (iii) 82. "Rivet popper hypothesis" was proposed by –
74. For amazonian forest find out wrong match–
(1) Tilman (2) Hombolat
(1) Plants – > 40,000 species
(3) Paul Ehrlich (4) Mayer
(2) Fishes – 3,000 species
83. Select the wrong match for extinction of species as
(3) Birds – 13,00 species
per the IUCN red list 2004 –
(4) Mammals – 378 species
(1) Vertibrates – 338
75. Which of the following is not the reason of great
biodiversity in tropics – (2) Invertebrates - 359
(1) Undisturbed climate for millions of years (3) Plants - 87
(2) Less seasonal variations (4) Prokaryotes - 2001
(3) More nutritive soil 8 4 . Careful analysis of records shows that extinction
(4) More solar energy across taxa are not random, some groups like
76. Which statement is incorrect – ______ appear to be more vulnerable to extinction.

(1) There is increase in biodiversity from pole to (1) Reptiles (2) Mammals
equator (3) Aves (4) Amphibians
(2) Their is increase in biodiversity from low
altitude to high altitude 8 5 . According to Ecological warn that if the present
trends continue. Nearly half of the species on earth
(3) There is directly proportional relationship
might be wiped out within how many years –
between area & biodiversity
(4) Tropics has le ss seasonal, relat ively more (1) 10 0 (2) 1000
constant and predictable environment.
(3) 5 0 (4) 50 0
77. In species area relationship, on a logarithmic scale.
The relationship is – 86. In general, the loss of biodiversity in a region may
not lead to –
(1) Rectangular hyperbola
(1) Decline in plant production
(2) Rectangular parabola
(3) Straight line (2) Lowered resistance to environmental
perturbations
(4) Sigmoid
(3) Constant pest and disease cycles
78. In equation log S = log c + Z log a, what is z –
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(1) Species richness (4) Increased variability in cartain ecosystem

processes productivity
(2) Area
(3) Regression coefficient 87. From 'The Evil Quartet' which of the following is
most important cause of biodiversity loss –
(4) y-intercept
(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation
79. Regardless of taxonomic group or region, what is
the value of z, discovered by ecologist– (2) Over - exploitation
(1) 0.6 - 1.2 (2) 1.15 (3) Aline species invasion
(3) 1 - 2 (4) 0.1 - 0.2
(4) Co-extinctions

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88. The most dramatic examples of habitat loss come 96. Find out the odd one with respect to 'Biodiversity
from tropical rain forests. Once covering more that hot spots' –
14 present of earths land surface and now cover
(1) Western Ghats & srilanka
no more than –
(1) 5 % (2) 6 % (2) Indo - Burma
(3) 1 0 % (4) 1 3 % (3) Himalaya
89. The Amazon rain forest 'lungs of Planet" harbouring
(4) Gangatic plains
probably millions of species is being cut & cleared
for which purpose – 97. Find out the wrong match –
(1) For cultivation of soyabeans (1) Bioshpere reserves – 14
(2) For conservation of grasslands for raising beef
(2) National parks – 85
cattles
(3) For cuttivation of Medicinal plants (3) Wild life sanctuaries – 448
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Indian Biodiversity hot spot – 3
9 0 . When large habitats are broken up in to small 98. 'Sacred groves is also one of the important mean
fragments due to human activities, which of the of Biodiversity conservation. In respect of this find
following get badly affected – out the odd one –
(1) Mammals and birds requiring large territories (1) Khasi & Jaintia – Meghalaya
(2) Animals with migratory habitats (2) Aravalli hills – Rajasthan
(3) Animals with large bodysize (3) Sarguja, Chanda, Bastar – Mizoram
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Western Ghat – Maharasahtra
9 1 . Alien species invasion is one of the cause of
Biodiversity loss. Introduction of Nile perch in 99. Pollution is undesirable changes in physical, chemical
victoria lake lead to extinction of more than 200 and biological properties. Which among the following
species of – is not air pollution induced plant injury –
(1) Cichlid fish (2) Gambusia (1) Reduced growth and yield
(3) Salmon fish (4) Cat fish
(2) Premature death of plant
92. The recent illegal introduction of which African fish
becomes severe cause of threatening of indigenous (3) Clogging of Stomata
cat fishes –
(4) Oxygen binding ability
(1) Gambusia (2) Cailochorus
(3) Clarias gariepinus (4) Perisierola 100. Harmful effects of air polluntants depends on –
93. Find out the following w.r.t. Economic importance (1) Concentration of pollutants
of biodiversity –
(1) Production of oxygen (2) Pollination (2) Duration of exposure
(3) Medicinal utility (4) All (3) Organism
9 4 . When we conserve and protect the whole (4) All the above
ecosystem, its biodiversity at all levels is called –
(1) In situ conservation 101. Electrostatic precipitators can remove how much
percentage of particutate matter present in exhoust
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(2) Ex -situ conservation

from a thermal power plant –
(3) On site conservation
(1) 9 0 % (2) 9 5 %
(4) Both (1) and (3)
9 5 . Which among the following is the criterion for (3) 9 9 % (4) 1 0 0 %
determination of 'Biodiversity hot spot' –
102. Scrubber is one of the device used to remove air
(1) Very high level of species richriess pollutants. Which of the following gaseus pollutant
(2) High degree of habitat loss and fragmentation can be remove through it –
(3) High degree of Endemism (1) NOx (2) SO 2
(4) All of the above
(3) CO (4) CO 2

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1 0 3 . According to CPCB particulate size 2.5 109. All the buses of Delhi were converted to run on
micrometer are responsible for cousing greatest harm CNG. by The end of 2002. Why CNG is better than
to human health. They can cause various harms Diesel–
except –
(1) CNG burns most efficiently
(1) Breathing and Respiratory symptoms
(2) Little of it is left unburnt
(2) Respiratory Irritation
(3) Donot inactivate catalyst of catalytie convertor
(3) Inflammation and damage to lungs
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Lack of sleep
110. What is the main problem with switching over to
104. Which of the following devices is best for reducing
emissin of poisonous gases – CNG–

(1) Scrubber (1) High cost

(2) Catalytic convertors (2) Difficulty of lying down pipelines to deliver CNG
for uninterrupted supply
(3) Electrostatic precipitators
(4) Filters (3) Lack of Suitable engines

105. Which of the following is not associated with catalytic (4) All the above
convertors – 111. Beside use of CNG, simultaneously parallel steps
(1) Conversion of unburnt hydrocarbon to CO2 & H2O taken in Delhi for reducing vehicular pollution,
(2) Conversion of CO to CO2 except–

(3) Conversion of NOx to N2 (1) Use of unleaded petrol

(4) Conversion of SO2 to S (2) Use of low sulphur petrol and diesel

106. Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic convertor (3) Use of catalytic convertors
should use unleaded petrol because –
(4) Use of Electrostatic precipitators
(1) Lead in petrol inactivates the catalyst
112. The Government of India through a new auto fuel
(2) Lead in petrol deposited in the catalytic policy has laid out a road map to cut down vehicular
convertor pollution in Indian cities. Most stringent norms for
fuels means–
(3) Lead in petrol start to burn along petrol
(1) Steadily reducing the sulphur content in petrol
(4) Lead in petrol leads to checking burning of petrol
(2) Steadily reducing the aromatics content in petrol
107. In 1990s what was the rank of Delhi among the 41
most polluted cities of the world – (3) Steadily reducing the sulphur and aromatics
content in petrol and diesel
(1) 1 (2) 2
(4) Steadily reducing the particulated matter in
(3) 3 (4) 4
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petrol and Diesel

108. What was the main step taken in Delhi to control
113. According Euro - II norms, what should be the level
air pollution after Public interest litigation (PIL) filed
of sulphur in diesel and petrol respectively –
in Supreme court. –
(1) 150 ppm & 350 ppm
(1) Reduction in vehicles
(2) 350 ppm & 150 ppm
(2) Use of CNG in buses instead of Diesel
(3) 250 ppm & 350 ppm
(3) Use o catalytie convertor
(4) 350 ppm & 250 ppm
(4) Plantation

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114. According to Euro - II norms, which among the 120. In India, the Air (prevention and control of pollution)
following standered is not true – act, came in to force in –

(1) Sulphur should be controlled at 350 ppm in (1) 1972 (2) 1981
Diesel
(3) 1987 (4) 1992
(2) Sulphur should be controlled at 150 ppm in
121. Air (Prevention and control of pollution) act 1981
petrol
was amended in 1987 to include __________ as an
(3) Aromatic hydrocarbons should be contained at
air pollutant. –
42 percent
(1) Particulated matter
(4) Sulphur content should be controlled at 50 ppm
in petrol and diesel (2) Hydro carbons
115. The goal of Euro - norms, according to roadmap is (3) Noise
to reduce sulphur to –
(4) Radio active pollutants
(1) 50 ppm in petrol and dieseel
(2) 150 ppm in petrol and diesel 122. The Specific intensity of noise, which may damage
ear drums and causes permanently impairing hearing
(3) 350 ppm in petrol and diesel
ability is –
(4) 250 ppm in petrol and diesel
116. According to Euro - II norms, In petrol or Diesal (1) Equal and less than 150 dB
aromatic hydrocarbons are to be contained at (2) Equal and more than 150 dB
42 percent and goal of it to bring down the level of
sulphur – (3) More than 200 dB

(1) 3 0 % (2) 4 0 % (4) More than 100 dB

(3) 4 2 % (4) 3 5 %
123. Noise as one of the important air pollutant is not
117. The bharat Stage II, norms for reducing the level of
responsible for –
vehicular pollutant, is equivalent to –
(1) Euro - I norms (1) Sleeplessness

(2) Euro - II norms (2) Increase heart beating

(3) Euro - III norms
(3) Altered breathing pattern
(4) Euro - IV norms
11 8. The Bharat Stage III norms of Automobiles are (4) Decreased oxygen carrying capacity
applicable thronghout the country from – 124. To safe gaurd our water resources, water (prevention
(1) 1 April 2005 and control of pollution) act was came in force –
(2) 1 April 2010 (1) 1971 (2) 1972
(3) 1 April 2009
(3) 1974 (4) 1981
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(4) 1 April 2012

125. Regarding to composition of waste water which
119. All automobiles and fuel petrol and diesel - were to among the following is not true –
have met the Euro III emission specification in 11
(1) Suspended solid – Sand, Silt & clay
highly polluted cities of India from –
(2) Colloidal matter – foecal matter, Bacteria, cloth
(1) 1 April 2002
(3) Dissolved material – Nitrate, ammonia,
(2) 1 April 2005
phosphate
(3) 1 April 2010
(4) Dissolved material – Foecal matter Baiteria,
(4) 1 April 2012 Nutrients
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NCERT-Biology
126. Domestic sewage primarily contains – 132. Series of six connected marshes over 60 hectares
of marshland, with appropriate plants, algae, fungi
(1) Suspended solid
and bacteria is responsible for –
(2) Colloidal matter
(1) Nutrilisation of polluntants
(3) Biodegradable matter
(2) Absorbtion of pollutants
(4) Dissolved matter
(3) Assimillation of pollutants
127. About highly sewage polluted water, what is true –
(4) All the above
(1) High DO & BOD
133. Practical ,hygienic efficient and cost effective solution
(2) High DO & Less BOD to human waste disposal is –
(3) Low DO & Low BOD
(1) Eco - San toilets
(4) Lack Do & High BOD
(2) Natural toilets
128. Unlike domestic sewage, waste water from industries
like petrolium paper manufacturing metal extractions (3) Ecofriend toilets
and processing etc. are often imp source of water
(4) Ecological sanitation
pollution out of these heavy metals are –

(1) Elements with density < 5 g/cm3 134. Open dumps often serve as breeding ground for
rats and flies and not burnt to completion. Which
(2) Elements with density < 5 g/Cm2
among the following were adopted as the substitute
(3) Elements with density > 5g /cm3 for open burining dumps –
(4) Elements with density > 5g/ cm2
(1) Eco san
129. Biomagnification - an increase in concentration of
toxic substances at sucessive trophic levels, is well (2) Electronic Burners
known for –
(3) Sanitary Landfills
(1) DDT (2) Mercury
(4) Solar Burners
(3) CO (4) Both (1) and (2)
1 3 5 . Which among the following was developed by
130. Pollutants from man’s activities like effluents from
company of Ahmed Khan by a fine powder of
industries and homes can radically accelerate the
recycled modified plastic –
aging of lake, that is known as –

(1) Cultural Eutrophication (1) Polysterene (2) Polyblend

(2) Accelerated Entrophication (3) Polyethylene (4) Polyplastic

(3) Rising Eutrophication 136. With which polyblend was mixed to lay roads. Which
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(4) Both (1) & (2) show water repellant properties –

131. Integrated waste water treatment plant of town of (1) Polysterene (2) Bitumen
Arcata is supported by biologists of Humboldt state
university, involves – (3) Polyethylene (4) Plastic

(1) Conventional sedimentation 137. e - wastes generated in developed countried, is used

by developing contries for recovery of –
(2) Filteration

(3) Series of six marshes (1) Gold (2) Nickel

(4) All the above (3) Copper (4) All the above

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 NCERT-Biology
138. Which among the following is a cyclical, zero waste 143. Which among the following is not the influence of
procedure, where waste products from one process UV-B on human health –
are cycled in as nutrients for other processes–
(1) Aging of skin
(1) Integrated organic farming
(2) Inflammation of cornea

(2) Integrated remeday for plastic waste (3) Cancer of skin

(3) Integrated waste water treatment (4) Depigmentation

(4) Snstainable waste Treatment 144. Montreal Protocol was comes in action from –

(1) 1987 (2) 1988

139. The unique idea of integrated organic farming was
executed by– (3) 1989 (4) 1992
(1) Ramesh Chandra Dagar
145. The ozone hole over Antarctica develops each year
(2) Ahmed Khan between –

(3) Amrita Devi (1) Late August and early october

(4) Sunderlal Bahuguna
(2) Early August and late october
140. Green house effect leads to deleterious changes in
(3) Early October and early December
the environment and resulting in odd climatic
changes. Which among the following is not the control (4) Late october and late December
measure of it –
146. Which of the following is not a result of waterlogging–
(1) Cutting down the use of fossil fuel
(1) Deposition of salt crust on land
(2) Improving efficiency of energy usage
(2) Collection of salts around root
(3) Increasing deforestration

(4) Slowing down the human population (3) Damage to agriculture

141. The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from (4) Leaching of salts
ground to top of the atmosphere is measured in terms 147. According to National forest policy (1988) of India
of – has recommended 33% forest cover for plains
(1) Decibel (2) Dobson and_______% area for hills.–

(3) Deby (4) Dalton (1) 3 0 % (2) 19 .4 %

142. Cl atoms released from CFC show degradation of (3) 6 7 % (4) 7 6 %

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ozone in which layer of Atmoshpere –

148. Slash and Burn Agricutture is associated with –
(1) Trophosphere
(1) Deforestration
(2) Stratosphere
(2) Jhum cultivation
(3) Ionosphere
(3) Shifting cultivation
(4) Thermosphere
(4) All the above

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NCERT-Biology
1 4 9 . Which among the following is not a result of 150. Realising the significance of participation by local
Deforestration – communities, the goverment of India in 1980s has
introduced the concept of –
(1) Enhanced corbon dioxide concentration
(1) Integrated forest management [IFM]
(2) loss of Biodiversity
(2) Joint forest management [JFM]
(3) Ozon depletion
(3) Realised Forest Management [RFM]
(4) Distribed hydrological cycle
(4) Actual Forest Management [AFM]

ANSWERS KEY
Que . 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 4 3 4 4 4 4 3 3 1 2 2 4 2 2 1 2 4 3 4
Que . 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 4 3 2 3 2 2 1 3 3 4 1 4 3 2 2 4 4 2 1 4
Que . 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 4 3 4 1 3 1 1 4 2 3 4 4 3 4 3 3 4 1 2
Que . 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
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Ans. 3 4 3 4 1 3 2 2 2 3 3 4 4 4 3 2 3 3 4 3
Que . 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 4 3 4 4 1 3 1 2 4 4 1 3 3 4 4 4 2 3 4 4
Que . 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 3 2 4 2 4 1 4 2 4 2 4 3 2 4 1 4 2 2 2 2
Que . 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140

Ans. 3 2 4 3 4 3 4 3 4 4 4 4 4 3 2 2 4 1 1 3
Que . 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans. 2 2 4 3 1 4 3 4 3 2

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