citizens to express their views, exercise their rights,

Indian Polity and fulfill their responsibilities, thereby fostering

active engagement. This system values the
Historical Background of Indian intelligence, character, and judgment of ordinary
Constitution people, emphasizing equality and inclusivity. By
promoting dialogue, debate, and deliberation,
Q.1) The mind of the makers of the Constitution of democracy enhances individual and societal growth.
India is reflected in which of the following? (2017) It is not reliant on a single leader or group but on the
collective effort of its citizens, making it a system
(a) The Preamble
rooted in accountability, representation, and the will
(b) The Fundamental Rights of the people.
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) The Fundamental Duties Q.3) Which of the following are regarded as the main
feature of “Rule of Law”? (2018)
Ans: a
1. Limitation of power
Exp: The mind of the makers of the Constitution of 2. Equality before the law
India is reflected in the (a) Preamble. The Preamble
serves as the philosophical foundation and reflects 3. People’s responsibility to the Government
the vision, values, and objectives of the 4. Liberty and civil rights
Constitution's framers. It declares India as a
Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, and Democratic Select the correct answer using the codes given
Republic, aiming to secure justice, liberty, equality, below:
and fraternity for all citizens. It embodies the essence (a) 1 and 3 only
of the Constitution and provides guidance for its
(b) 2 and 4 only
interpretation. The Preamble also highlights the
aspirations of the people of India, ensuring dignity (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
for individuals and unity for the nation. As the (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
introductory statement, it reflects the makers' intent
and the ideals that underpin the Indian democratic Ans: c
framework.
Exp: The Rule of Law emphasizes the supremacy of
law over arbitrary power. Its core features include:
Q.2) Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact that
it calls into activity (2017) 1. Limitation of power: Ensures that no
individual, including those in authority, is above
(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and the law, preventing misuse of power.
women.
2. Equality before the law: Guarantees that all
(b) the methods for strengthening executive individuals, irrespective of status, are treated
leadership. equally under the same legal framework.
(c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision. 3. Liberty and civil rights: Protects fundamental
(d) a band of dedicated party workers freedoms and individual rights, ensuring justice
and fairness in governance.
Ans: a
The concept does not include "people's responsibility
Exp: Democracy empowers individuals by giving to the government," as the Rule of Law primarily
them the right to participate in decision-making focuses on limiting state power and safeguarding
processes, ensuring collective wisdom. It encourages individual rights.
1
Q.4) Which one of the following reflects the most Q.6) Constitutional government means (2021)
appropriate relationship between law and liberty? (a) a representative government of a nation with
(2018) federal structure
(a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty. (b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal
(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty. powers
(c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the (c) a government whose Head enjoys real powers
people. (d) a government limited by the terms of the
(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger. Constitution
Ans: b Ans: d
Exp: The most appropriate relationship between law Exp: A constitutional government is one that
and liberty is reflected in (b) If there are no laws, operates within the framework of a constitution,
there is no liberty. which serves as the supreme law of the land. It limits
the powers of the government and ensures that
Laws create a structured framework that safeguards
authority is exercised according to established legal
individual rights and freedoms by establishing clear
principles. This type of government safeguards the
boundaries for acceptable behavior. Without laws,
rights of citizens, upholds the rule of law, and
society would descend into chaos, where stronger
prevents arbitrary actions by defining clear
entities overpower the weaker, leading to the loss of
structures, procedures, and limits on the use of
liberty for the majority. Laws ensure justice,
power.
equality, and protection, which are essential for true
liberty. Thus, laws and liberty coexist, as laws
provide the foundation for maintaining freedom in a Q.7) What was the exact constitutional status of India
civilized society. on 26th January, 1950? (2021)
(a) A Democratic Republic
Q.5) In the context of polity, which one of the (b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
following would you accept as the most appropriate
definition of liberty? (2019) (c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers (d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic
Republic
(b) Absence of restraints
Ans: b
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully Exp: On 26th January 1950, the Constitution of India
came into effect, proclaiming India as a Sovereign
Ans: d Democratic Republic. At this time, the terms
"Secular" and "Socialist" were not part of the
Exp: Liberty is not merely the absence of restraints
Preamble. These terms were added later by the 42nd
or unchecked freedom but rather the presence of
Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976. Thus, on
conditions that enable individuals to reach their full
the day the Constitution came into force, India was
potential. It emphasizes creating opportunities for
declared a Sovereign Democratic Republic,
personal and collective growth while ensuring that
reflecting its independence, democratic governance,
freedoms do not infringe on others' rights. True
liberty fosters an environment where individuals can and republican character.
exercise their rights responsibly, make meaningful
choices, and contribute positively to society. Q.8) Which one of the following factors constitutes
2
the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy? Indian laws must conform to the Constitution, and
(2021) the judiciary has the power of judicial review to
ensure this.
(a) A committed judiciary
Statement 2: True.
(b) Centralization of powers
In India, matters related to the constitutionality of
(c) Elected government
amendments or Acts of Parliament are often referred
(d) Separation of powers to a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court as per
Ans: d Article 145(3) of the Constitution. This ensures a
thorough examination of such issues to maintain
Exp: In a liberal democracy, the separation of constitutional validity.
powers among the legislative, executive, and
Hence, both statements are correct.
judiciary acts as the best safeguard of liberty. This
principle prevents the concentration of power in any
single branch, ensuring a system of checks and Q.10) Consider the following statements in respect
balances. Each branch operates independently of the Constitution Day: (2023)
within its own domain while holding the others Statement-I: Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th
accountable. This framework protects individual November every year to promote constitutional
freedoms, prevents authoritarian rule, and ensures values among citizens.
that governance adheres to the rule of law,
preserving liberty for all citizens. Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the
Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting
Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R.
Q.9) We adopted parliamentary democracy based on Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
the British model, but how does our model differ
from that model? (2021) Which one of the following is correct in respect of
the above statements?
1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is
supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
Parliament to legislate is limited. Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-
I
2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of
the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and
referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Court. Statement-I
Select the correct answer using the code given below. (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect
(a) 1 only
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- II is
(b) 2 only correct
(c) Both 1 and 2
Ans: c
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Exp: Statement-I: The Constitution Day is indeed
Ans: c celebrated on 26th November every year to promote
constitutional values among citizens. This day marks
Exp: Statement 1: True.
the adoption of the Constitution of India in 1949 by
In the British model, the Parliament is sovereign and the Constituent Assembly.
can make or unmake any law without any legal
Statement-II: This statement is incorrect because
constraints. In contrast, in India, the Parliament's
the Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of
power to legislate is limited by the Constitution.
3
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was set up on 29th August 1947, aimed at achieving social, economic, and political
not on 26th November 1949. On 26th November justice.
1949, the Constitution was adopted by the
Constituent Assembly, which is why this day is Q.2) ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of
celebrated as Constitution Day. Indian Constitution has been provided in (2013)
(a) The Preamble and Fundamental Rights
Q.11) Who was the Provisional President of the
Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) The Preamble and the Directive Principles of
took over ? (2024) State Policy
(a) C. Rajagopalachari (c) The Fundamental Rights and the Directive
Principles of State Policy
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(d) None of the above
(c) T.T. Krishnamachari
Ans: b
(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Exp: The Preamble of the Indian Constitution
Ans: d
mentions "Justice—social, economic, and political"
Exp: Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the as one of its objectives. The Directive Principles of
Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly State Policy (Part IV of the Constitution) aim to
when it first met on December 9, 1946. He was a achieve economic justice through provisions such as
senior and respected member who was appointed to Article 39, which directs the state to ensure adequate
preside over the inaugural session. means of livelihood and equitable distribution of
resources.
● Later, on December 11, 1946, Dr. Rajendra
Prasad was elected as the permanent President
of the Constituent Assembly. Q.3) In the Constitution of India, promotion of
international peace and security is included in the:
Features of the Indian (2014)
Constitution (a) Preamble of the Constitution
Q.1) According to the Constitution of India, which of (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
the following are fundamental for the governance of (c) Fundamental Duties
the country? (2013)
(d) Ninth Schedule
(a) Fundamental Rights
Ans: b
(b) Fundamental Duties
Exp: Article 51 of the Directive Principles of State
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy Policy in the Indian Constitution explicitly mentions
(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties the promotion of international peace and security,
fostering respect for international law, and
Ans: c encouraging settlement of international disputes
Exp: The Directive Principles of State Policy through arbitration.
(DPSP), enshrined in Part IV of the Constitution, are
explicitly stated in Article 37 as being "fundamental Q.4) Consider the following statements: A
in the governance of the country." They are not Constitutional Government is one which (2014)
justiciable in a court of law but serve as guiding
principles for the state in making laws and policies

4
1. A Constitutional Government is one which places (a) 1 only
the effective restrictions on individual liberty in the (b) 2 only
interest of State Authority.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the
State in the interest of individual liberty. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Ans: c
(a) 1 only Exp: Statement 1 is correct as the Directive
(b) 2 only Principles of State Policy (DPSP) aim to achieve
socio-economic democracy by addressing issues like
(c) Both 1 and 2 equality, welfare, and social justice. Statement 2 is
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct because DPSPs, outlined in Part IV of the
Constitution, are not enforceable by any court but
Ans: b serve as guidelines for governance.
Exp: Statement 1 is not correct: A Constitutional The correct answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.
Government can place restrictions on individual
liberty but not in the interest of State Authority but
Q.6) The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth
for greater good of greater numbers. In the case of
Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in
India, the Fundamental Rights are not absolute but
order to (2015)
qualified. The State can impose reasonable
restrictions on them. However, whether such (a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
restrictions are reasonable or not is to be decided by (b) determine the boundaries between states
the Courts. Thus, they strike a balance between the
rights of the individual and those of the society as a (c) determine the powers, authorities, and
whole, between individual liberty and social control. responsibilities of Panchayats
Statement 2 is correct: A Constitutional Government (d) protect the interests of all the border States
is one that derives its power, function and authority Ans: a
from a written document i.e., Constitution. Such a
Government is characterised by limitations of power. Exp: The Fifth and Sixth Schedules of the
A Constitutional Government does not exercise Constitution are designed to protect the interests of
unrestricted power rather its authority is subjected Scheduled Tribes. The Fifth Schedule provides for
to effective restrictions. The Constitution imposes the administration and governance of Scheduled
restrictions on the Authority of the State in the Areas in states other than Assam, Meghalaya,
interest of individual liberty. In India, Fundamental Tripura, and Mizoram. The Sixth Schedule deals with
Rights are available to citizens against the arbitrary the autonomous administration of tribal areas in
action of the State. these four states, granting them autonomy in
legislative, executive, and judicial matters to
safeguard their cultural, economic, and political
Q.5) Consider the following statements regarding the
rights.
Directive Principles of State Policy: (2015)
1. The Principles spell out the socio- economic Q.7) “To uphold and protect the Sovereignty Unity
democracy in the country. and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the
2. The provisions contained in these Principles are (2015)
not enforceable by any court. (a) Preamble of the Constitute
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
5
(c) Fundamental Rights Exp: Rights are claims of the citizens against the
State. These rights empower individuals to demand
(d) Fundamental Duties
certain freedoms and protections from the State,
Ans: d ensuring justice, equality, and liberty. The Indian
Constitution guarantees Fundamental Rights under
Exp: The provision "To uphold and protect the
Part III, enabling citizens to seek legal remedies if
sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India" is
these rights are violated. Rights are not privileges
included in the Fundamental Duties under Article
but entitlements ensuring a democratic society.
51A of the Constitution. These duties emphasize the
moral obligation of every citizen to preserve the
nation's sovereignty and integrity. The Fundamental Q.10) Consider the following statements: (2017)
Duties were added by the 42nd Amendment Act, With reference to the Constitution of India, the
1976. Directive Principles of State Policy constitute
limitations upon
Q.8) The ideal of “Welfare State” in the Indian 1. legislative function.
Constitution is enshrined in its (2015)
2. executive function.
(a) Preamble
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(a) 1 only
(c) Fundamental Rights
(b) 2 only
(d) Seventh Schedule
(c) Both 1 and 2
Ans: b
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Exp: The ideal of a "Welfare State" in the Indian
Constitution is enshrined in the Directive Principles Ans: d
of State Policy under Part IV. These principles guide Exp: The Directive Principles of State Policy
the State in promoting social justice, reducing (DPSPs) in the Constitution of India are non-
inequalities, and ensuring the welfare of all citizens. enforceable guidelines aimed at promoting social
They emphasize objectives like providing adequate and economic justice. They do not impose limitations
means of livelihood, equitable distribution of on the legislative or executive functions but serve as
resources, and protecting vulnerable sections of directions for their functioning to achieve a welfare
society. state. Therefore, they act as ideals rather than
restrictive provisions.
Q.9) Which one of the following statements is
correct? (2017) Q.11) Which principle among the following was
(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens. added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by
the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution? (2017)
(b) Rights are privileges that are incorporated in the
Constitution of a State. (a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and
women
(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
(b) Participation of workers in the management of
(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the industries
many.
(c) Right to work, education and public assistance
Ans: c
(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of
work to workers

6
Ans: b Constitution reflects this balance through
Fundamental Rights (Part III) and Fundamental
Exp: The principle of "Participation of workers in Duties (Article 51A).
the management of industries" was added to the
Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd
Amendment Act, 1976. This principle, enshrined in Q.14) Which one of the following objectives is not
Article 43A, emphasizes fostering industrial embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of
democracy and promoting harmony between India? (2017)
employers and workers. (a) Liberty of thought
(b) Economic liberty
Q.12) One of the implications of equality in society
is the absence of (2017) (c) Liberty of expression

(a) Privileges (d) Liberty of belief

(b) Restraints Ans: b

(c) Competition Exp: The Preamble to the Constitution of India
embodies liberty of thought, expression, belief,
(d) Ideology faith, and worship. However, it does not explicitly
Ans: a mention economic liberty as an objective. Economic
justice is addressed indirectly in the Directive
Exp: Equality in society implies the absence of Principles of State Policy, but it is not included under
privileges, ensuring that no individual or group the liberties listed in the Preamble.
enjoys special rights or advantages over others
based on caste, gender, religion, or socio-economic
status. It promotes fairness and justice, where Q.15) Which of the following statements is/are true
opportunities and rights are accessible to all without of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?
discrimination. (2017)
1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce
Q.13) In the context of India, which one of the these duties.
following is the correct relationship between Rights 2. They are correlative to legal duties.
and Duties? (2017)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
(a) 1 only
(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of
society and Duties. (b) 2 only

(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the (c) Both 1 and 2
advancement of the personality of the citizen. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability Ans: d
of the State.
Exp: Statement 1 is incorrect: The Fundamental
Ans: a Duties, listed in Article 51A of the Constitution, are
Exp: In the context of India, Rights are correlative not enforceable by law. While they serve as moral
with Duties. This means that every right implies a obligations for citizens, there is no specific
corresponding duty. For instance, while citizens legislative process provided to enforce them.
have the right to freedom, they also have the duty to Statement 2 is incorrect: Fundamental Duties are
respect the freedom of others. The Indian not strictly correlative to legal duties. They are
7
ethical and moral in nature, and their observance is Exp: The Right against Exploitation in the
voluntary unless backed by specific laws. Constitution of India, under Articles 23 and 24,
includes:
Q.16) Which one of the following is not a feature of 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and
Indian federalism? (2017) forced labour (Article 23).
(a) There is an independent judiciary in India. 2. Prohibition of employment of children in
(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the factories and mines (Article 24).
Centre and the States. However, the abolition of untouchability (Article
(c) The federating units have been given unequal 17) and protection of the interests of minorities
representation in the Rajya Sabha. (Articles 29 and 30) are covered under other
Fundamental Rights and not the Right against
(d) It is the result of an agreement among the Exploitation.
federating units.
Ans: d Q.18) Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
(2017)
Exp: Statement (d) is not a feature of Indian
federalism. Indian federalism is not the result of an (a) Fundamental Right
agreement among federating units, unlike the USA. (b) Natural Right
The Indian Constitution establishes a federal
structure through a single framework, with powers (c) Constitutional Right
divided between the Centre and States. It also (d) Legal Right
includes features like an independent judiciary and
unequal representation of states in the Rajya Sabha Ans: c
based on population. Exp: The right to vote and to be elected in India is a
Constitutional Right. It is governed by Article 326
Q.17) Which of the following are envisaged by the of the Constitution, which provides that elections to
Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of the House of the People and the Legislative
India? (2017) Assemblies of States shall be based on adult suffrage.
While it is not a Fundamental Right, it is essential for
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced
the democratic process.
labour
2. Abolition of untouchability Q.19) Which Article of the Constitution of India
3. Protection of the interests of minorities safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s
choice? (2019)
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories
and mines (a) Article 19
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (b) Article 21
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) Article 25
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) Article 29
(c) 1 and 4 only Ans: b
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Exp: The right to marry the person of one’s choice
Ans: c is safeguarded under Article 21 of the Indian
Constitution, which guarantees the right to life and
personal liberty. The Supreme Court has interpreted
8
this article to include the right to choose a life 1. They shall be enforceable by courts.
partner as an essential aspect of individual freedom 2. They shall not be enforceable by any court.
and autonomy.
3. The principles laid down in this part are to
influence the making of laws by the state.
Q.20) The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the
Constitution of India during the prime ministership Select the correct answer using the code given below:
of: (2019) (a) 1 only
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) 2 only
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Indira Gandhi (d) 2 and 3 only
(d) Morarji Desai
Ans: d
Ans: a
Exp: The provisions in Part IV of the Constitution,
Exp: The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the which contains the Directive Principles of State
Constitution of India by the First Amendment Act, Policy (DPSPs), are:
1951, during the prime ministership of Jawaharlal 1. Statement 1 is incorrect: DPSPs are not
Nehru. It was created to protect laws related to land enforceable by any court, as explicitly stated in
reforms and other socio-economic legislations from Article 37 of the Constitution.
being challenged in courts on the grounds of
violation of Fundamental Rights. 2. Statement 2 is correct: DPSPs are guidelines
for the State to follow while framing laws and
policies, but they are not enforceable by courts.
Q.21) Under which Schedule of the Constitution of
India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties 3. Statement 3 is correct: DPSPs are meant to
for mining be declared null and void? (2019) influence the making of laws by the State to
ensure social and economic justice.
(a) Third Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule Q.23) The Preamble to the Constitution of India is
(c) Ninth Schedule (2020)
(d) Twelfth Schedule (a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
Ans: b (b) not a part of the Constitution and has no legal
effect either
Exp: The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India
provides for the administration and control of (c) a part of the Constitution and has the same legal
Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states effect as any other part
other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and (d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
Mizoram. It includes provisions to protect tribal independently of other parts
lands, and under its framework, laws that violate
tribal rights (e.g., unauthorized transfer of tribal Ans: d
land to private parties) can be declared null and Exp: The Preamble to the Constitution of India is
void. considered a part of the Constitution as ruled in the
Kesavananda Bharati case (1973). However, it does
Q.22) With reference to the provisions contained in not have any legal effect independently and cannot
Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the be enforced in a court of law. It serves as a guiding
following statements is/are correct? (2020) principle for interpreting the Constitution and
9
understanding its objectives but does not provide secularism, democracy, and fundamental rights, but
enforceable rights. it is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The judicial review
Q.24) One common agreement between Gandhism doctrine is based on the principle of rule of law and
and Marxism is (2020) separation of powers. Judicial review is the process
(a) the final goal of a stateless society for testing and balancing the separation of powers.
The Concept of Judicial Review is the basic principle
(b) class struggle of the Constitution in India. Although there is no
(c) abolition of private property explicit provision in the Indian Constitution for
judicial review, it is an integral part of our
(d) economic determinism Constitution.
Ans: a
Exp: One common agreement between Gandhism Q.26) Which part of the Constitution of India
and Marxism is the final goal of a stateless society. declares the ideal of a Welfare State? (2020)
While Marxism envisions a stateless society through (a) Directive Principles of State Policy
class struggle and the overthrow of capitalism,
(b) Fundamental Rights
Gandhism aims to achieve it through non-violence,
decentralization, and self-reliant communities. Both (c) Preamble
ideologies aspire to a society free from oppression (d) Seventh Schedule
and exploitation, although their approaches differ
significantly. Ans: a
Exp: The ideal of a Welfare State is declared in the
Q.25) Consider the following statements: (2020) Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs),
1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic outlined in Part IV of the Constitution. These
structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, principles guide the State in ensuring social,
fundamental rights and democracy. economic, and political justice, aiming to promote
the well-being of all citizens. They address issues like
2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial reducing inequality, ensuring adequate living
review’ to safeguard the ‘citizens’ liberties and to conditions, and promoting education and health.
preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is
based.
Q.27) Which one of the following categories of
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against
(a) 1 only untouchability as a form of discrimination? (2020)

(b) 2 only (a) Right against Exploitation

(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Right to Freedom

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Right to Constitutional Remedies

Ans: d (d) Right to Equality

Exp: Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution of Ans: d

India does not explicitly define the 'basic structure'. Exp: Protection against untouchability as a form of
The doctrine of basic structure was evolved by the discrimination is incorporated under the Right to
judiciary (e.g., in the Kesavananda Bharati case, Equality, specifically in Article 17 of the
1973) and includes elements like federalism, Constitution. Article 17 abolishes untouchability and
forbids its practice in any form, ensuring equality
10
and dignity for all citizens. It is a crucial element of Exp: A constitutional government is defined as a
the broader framework of equality in India. limited government, where the powers of the
government are restricted by a constitution to protect
Q.28) Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of citizens' rights and liberties. This ensures that the
the following parts of the Constitution of India authority of the government is exercised within the
reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the framework of the rule of law and does not exceed
Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? constitutional boundaries.
(2020)
Q.30) A legislation which confers on the executive
1. Preamble
or administrative authority an unguided and
2. Directive Principles of State Policy uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of
3. Fundamental Duties application of law violates one of the following
Articles of the Constitution of India?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Article 14
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Article 28
(b) 2 only
(c) Article 32
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Article 44
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: a
Ans: d
Exp: A legislation that confers unguided and
Exp: The principles and provisions of the Universal uncontrolled discretionary power on the executive
Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) are or administrative authority violates Article 14 of the
reflected in various parts of the Indian Constitution: Constitution of India. Article 14 guarantees equality
1. Preamble: It incorporates ideals like justice, before the law and the equal protection of laws.
liberty, equality, and fraternity, which align Such arbitrary powers violate the principle of rule of
with the UDHR. law and equality, which requires that discretion must
be exercised within defined boundaries.
2. Directive Principles of State Policy: These
address socio-economic rights such as equal
pay, living wages, and education, reflecting the Q.31) Consider the following statements: (2021)
UDHR's spirit. 1. ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and
3. Fundamental Duties: Some duties, like the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by
promoting harmony and respecting human each country in this regard.
dignity, are aligned with the UDHR's principles. 2. ‘Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city
the right to reclaim public spaces and public
Q.29) A Constitutional government by definition is a participation in the city.
(2020) 3. ‘Right to the City’ means that the State cannot
(a) government by legislature deny any public service or facility to the
unauthorized colonies in the city.
(b) popular government
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(c) multi-party government
(a) 1 only
(d) limited government
(b) 3 only
Ans: d
(c) 1 and 2
11
(d) 2 and 3 Following are the federal features of the Indian
Constitution:
Ans: d
● Dual polity consists of the Union at the Centre
Exp: Statement 1 is not correct: Though, the right to and the states at the periphery.
the city was at the heart of the New Urban Agenda
agreed upon at Habitat III. But ‘Right to the City’ is ● Written Constitution
not an agreed human right. In the run-up to Habitat ● Division of powers between the Centre and the
III, India opposed the inclusion of the Right to the states (by Schedule seven)
City in the draft New Urban Agenda in 2016 that was
to define the way cities worldwide are shaped over ● Supremacy of the Constitution
the next two decades. ● The rigidity of the constitution
Statement 2 is correct: The Right to the City is the ● Bicameral legislature consisting of Rajya Sabha
right of all inhabitants (present and future, and Lok Sabha
permanent and temporary) to inhabit, use, occupy,
● Independence of judiciary
produce, transform, govern and enjoy cities, towns
and human settlements that are just, inclusive, safe,
sustainable and democratic, defined as common Q.33) Which one of the following best defines the
goods for enjoying life with dignity and peace. term ‘State’? (2021)
Statement 3 is correct: The Right to the City (RTC) (a) A community of persons permanently occupying
recognises equal access to urban life as a basic a definite territory independent of external control
human right for all, including migrants, slum and possessing an organized government
dwellers and the homeless. RTC gives every (b) A politically organized people of a definite
occupant, irrespective of their legality, a claim over territory and possessing an authority to govern them,
the city. It requires the State to act on the principles maintain law and order, protect their natural rights
of social justice and provide equal services to each and safeguard their means of sustenance
and every resident. So, ‘Right to the City’ means that
the State cannot deny any public service of the (c) A number of persons who have been living in a
facility to the unauthorized colonies in the City. definite territory for a very long time with their own
culture, tradition and government
Q.32) Which one of the following in Indian polity is (d) A society permanently living in a definite
an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in territory with a central authority, an executive
character? (2021) responsible to the central authority and an
independent judiciary
(a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded.
Ans: a
b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives
from constituent units. Exp: The term ‘State’ is best defined as (a) A
(c) The Union Cabinet can have elected community of persons permanently occupying a
representatives from regional parties. definite territory independent of external control
and possessing an organized government.
(d) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by
Courts of Law. This definition aligns with the concept of a state in
political science, which includes the four essential
Ans: a elements: population, territory, government, and
sovereignty. A state must be free from external
Exp: The establishment of an independent judiciary
control and possess an organized government to
necessarily indicates the federal character of Indian
exercise authority.
polity.
12
 guarantees the Right to Life and Personal Liberty.
Q.34) With reference to India, consider the following The Supreme Court, in the K.S. Puttaswamy v.
statements: (2021) Union of India (2017) case, recognized privacy as a
1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile. fundamental right intrinsic to Article 21.

2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of

Q.36) What is the position of the Right to Property in
State.
India? (2021)
3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be
(a) Legal right available to citizens only
deprived of it under any circumstances.
(b) Legal right available to any person
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(c) Fundamental Right available to citizens only
(a) 1 only
(d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 Ans: b

(d) 2 and 3 Exp: The Right to Property in India is a legal right

available to any person, as per Article 300A of the
Ans: a Constitution. It was originally a Fundamental Right
Exp: Statement 1 is correct: India has a system of under Article 31, but the 44th Amendment Act,
single citizenship, meaning all Indians are citizens 1978, removed it from the list of Fundamental Rights.
of India, irrespective of the state or union territory It is now a constitutional legal right, meaning it can
they reside in. There is also a single domicile under be enforced through legal proceedings but is not a
Indian law. Fundamental Right.

Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no such restriction

in India that only a citizen by birth can become the Q.37) Under the Indian Constitution, concentration
Head of State (President). A naturalized citizen is of wealth violates (2021)
also eligible. (a) the Right to Equality
Statement 3 is incorrect: A foreigner granted Indian (b) the Directive Principles of State Policy
citizenship can be deprived of it under certain
(c) the Right to Freedom
circumstances, such as if the citizenship was
obtained fraudulently or if the person acts against (d) the Concept of Welfare
the sovereignty and integrity of India (as per the
Ans: b
Citizenship Act, 1955).
Exp: Under the Indian Constitution, concentration
Q.35) ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which of wealth violates the Directive Principles of State
Article of the Constitution of India? (2021, 2024) Policy (DPSPs). Specifically, Article 39(b) and
39(c) of Part IV directs the State to ensure that the
(a) Article 15 ownership and control of resources are distributed
(b) Article 19 to subserve the common good and to prevent the
concentration of wealth and means of production in
(c) Article 21 a few hands.
(d) Article 29
Ans: c Q.38) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth
Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of
Exp: The ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under the following statements best reflects the
Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, which consequence of it ? (2022)
13
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal persons held under preventive detention. Article 22
people to non-tribal people. ensures certain protections, including legal aid, for
such persons.
(b) This would create a local self-governing body in
that area. Statement 3 is incorrect: Under the Prevention of
Terrorism Act (POTA), 2002, a confession made
(c) This would convert that area into a Union
before a police officer of a certain rank could be used
Territory.
as evidence in court. This provision was
(d) The State having such areas would be declared a controversial and led to the repeal of POTA in 2004.
Special Category State.
Ans: a Q.40) Which one of the following statements best
reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a
Exp: If a particular area is brought under the Fifth country? (2023)
Schedule of the Constitution of India, it ensures
special protection for the interests of Scheduled (a) It determines the objective for the making of
Tribes in that area. This includes preventing the necessary laws.
transfer of tribal land to non-tribal people and (b) It enables the creation of political offices and a
enabling the Governor to make regulations for peace government.
and good governance, particularly concerning land
ownership and resource management. (c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social
Q.39) Consider the following statements: (2023) security
1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Ans: c
Government has a duty to protect States from internal Exp: The chief purpose of the Constitution of a
disturbances.
country is to establish the framework of governance
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from and ensure the protection of fundamental rights by
providing legal counsel to person being held for defining and limiting the powers of the government.
preventive detention It provides the structure for political authority,
safeguards citizens' liberties, and prevents arbitrary
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act,
exercise of power by the State.
2002, confession of the accused before the police
cannot be used as evidence.
Q.41) In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law'
How many of the above statements are correct?
mean? (2023)
(a) Only one
(a) The principle of natural justice
(b) Only two
(b) The procedure established by law
(c) All three
(c) Fair application of law
(d) None
(d) Equality before law
Ans: a
Ans: a
Exp: Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 355 of the
Exp: The concept of due process is fundamental to
Constitution, the Central Government has a duty to
ensuring justice and fairness in legal proceedings.
protect States from external aggression and internal
Due process refers to the legal requirement that the
disturbances.
state must respect all legal rights owed to a person.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not This includes the right to fair procedures and
exempt states from providing legal counsel to
14
protections before depriving an individual of life, 2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of
liberty, or property. the Constitution.
The principle of natural justice is closely linked to 3. Provisions related to the amendment of the
due process, emphasizing the need for fairness, Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.
impartiality, and the opportunity to present a Select the answer using the code given below :
defense. It ensures that decisions are made based on
unbiased and just procedures, which upholds public (a) 1 and 2 only
confidence in the legal system. (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q.42) The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992
amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to Ans: d
include which of the following languages? (2024)
Exp: Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part
1. Konkani IX A of the Constitution:
2. Manipuri ○ Correct. Part IX A, titled "The
3. Nepali Municipalities", was added by the 74th
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992. It
4. Maithili deals with the constitution, composition,
Select the correct answer using the code given below powers, and responsibilities of
: Municipalities.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 2. Emergency provisions are given in Part
(b) 1, 2 and 4 XVIII of the Constitution:
(c) 1, 3 and 4 ○ Correct. Part XVIII (Articles 352 to 360)
(d) 2, 3 and 4 deals with emergency provisions,
Ans: a including National Emergency, State
Emergency (President's Rule), and
Exp: The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992, Financial Emergency.
amended the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution to
include three languages: 3. Provisions related to the amendment of the
Constitution are given in Part XX of the
1. Konkani Constitution:
2. Manipuri ○ Correct. Part XX (Article 368) deals with
3. Nepali the procedure for amending the
Constitution, including different
These languages were added to recognize their categories of amendments.
significance and ensure their development.
● Maithili was added later through the 92nd Q.44) Which one of the following statements is
Amendment Act, 2003, and is not part of the correct as per the Constitution of India? (2024)
71st Amendment.
(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject
under the State List.
Q.43) Which of the following statements are correct
about the Constitution of India? (2024) (b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the
State List.
1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX
A of the Constitution. (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the
Union List.
15
(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State (c) 1 and 3 only
List. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: c Ans: d
Exp: (a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State Exp: As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India,
subject under the State List: the Parliament has the power to amend the
Constitution through the following means:
○ Incorrect. Inter-State trade and
commerce falls under the Union List 1. Addition: Parliament can add new
(Entry 42), as the Constitution grants the provisions, articles, or schedules to the
Union Government authority over trade Constitution. For example, the Tenth
and commerce between states. Schedule related to anti-defection was
added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.
2. (b) Inter-State migration is a State subject
under the State List: 2. Variation: Parliament can modify or vary
existing provisions of the Constitution. For
○ Incorrect. Inter-State migration is
instance, changes in the powers of the
covered under Entry 81 of the Union
President or amendments to fundamental
List, which relates to inter-state
rights fall under this category.
migration and inter-state quarantine.
3. Repeal: Parliament can repeal or remove
3. (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject
provisions from the Constitution. For
under the Union List:
instance, Right to Property was removed as
○ Correct. Entry 81 of the Union List a fundamental right by the 44th Amendment
specifically mentions "Inter-state Act, 1978.
quarantine." It is the responsibility of the
Union Government to handle such Legislature
matters to ensure uniformity across
states. Q.1) The Parliament can make any law for whole or
any part of India for implementing International
4. (d) Corporation tax is a State subject under Treaties (2013)
the State List:
(a) with the consent of all the States
○ Incorrect. Corporation tax is a Union
subject under Entry 85 of the Union (b) with the consent of the majority of States
List. States do not have jurisdiction over (c) with the consent of the States concerned
corporation tax.
(d) without the consent of any State

Q.45) As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, Ans: d

the Parliament may amend any provision of the Exp: The Parliament of India can make any law for
Constitution by way of: (2024) the whole or any part of India for implementing
1. Addition international treaties, agreements, or conventions
under Article 253 of the Constitution. This power
2. Variation can be exercised without the consent of any State,
3. Repeal even if the subject matter of the law falls under the
State List.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2013)
(b) 2 and 3 only

16
1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can ● The Rajya Sabha can suggest amendments to a
be initiated by an introduction of a Bill in the Lok Money Bill but cannot reject or amend it
Sabha only. outright.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in ● The Lok Sabha may either accept or reject the
the federal character of the Constitution, the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.
amendment also requires to be ratified by the ● The Rajya Sabha must return the Bill to the Lok
Legislature of all the States of India. Sabha within 14 days, failing which the Bill is
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? deemed to have been passed in the form
originally approved by the Lok Sabha.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Q.4) Consider the following statements: (2013)
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Rajya Sabha are not the Members of that House.
Ans: d 2. While the nominated members of the two Houses
of the Parliament have no voting right in the
Exp: Statement 1 is incorrect: An amendment to the Presidential election, they have the right to vote in
Constitution of India can be initiated by the the election of the Vice President.
introduction of a Bill in either House of Parliament
(Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha), not just the Lok Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Sabha. This is provided under Article 368 of the (a) 1 only
Constitution.
(b) 2 only
Statement 2 is incorrect: If an amendment seeks to
make changes to the federal character of the (c) Both 1 and 2
Constitution, it must be ratified by the Legislatures (d) Neither 1 nor 2
of at least half of the States, not all the States.
Ans: b
Q.3) What will follow if a Money Bill is Exp: Statement 1 is incorrect: The Chairman of
substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha? (2013) the Rajya Sabha is the Vice President of India, who
is not a member of the Rajya Sabha. However, the
(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected
accepting or not accepting the recommendations of from among the members of the Rajya Sabha, so
the Rajya Sabha they must be a member of the House.
(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further Statement 2 is correct: Nominated members of both
(c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Houses do not have voting rights in the Presidential
Sabha for reconsideration election (as per Article 54), but they do have voting
rights in the Vice Presidential election (as per
(d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing
Article 66).
the Bill
Ans: a Q.5) In the context of India, which of the following
Exp: If a Money Bill is substantially amended by principles is/are implied institutionally in the
the Rajya Sabha, the Lok Sabha is not bound to parliamentary government? (2013)
accept the amendments. According to Article 110 of 1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the
the Constitution: Parliament.

17
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy Ans: b
confidence in the Parliament.
Exp: Statement 1 is incorrect: The Public Accounts
3. The Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State. Committee (PAC) consists of 22 members—15 from
Select the correct answer using the code given the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha, not 25
below: members of the Lok Sabha alone.
(a) 1 and 2 only Statement 2 is correct: The PAC scrutinizes
appropriation accounts and finance accounts of
(b) 3 only the government to ensure they align with
(c) 2 and 3 only parliamentary grants.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Statement 3 is correct: The PAC examines the
reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General
Ans: a (CAG) to ensure financial accountability.
Exp: Statement 1 is correct: In a parliamentary
government, members of the Cabinet must be Q.7) Consider the following statements regarding a
members of the Parliament. If someone who is not a No-Confidence Motion in India: (2014)
member is appointed as a minister, they must
become a member within six months. 1. There is no mention of No-Confidence Motion in
the Constitution of India.
Statement 2 is correct: Ministers hold office as long
as they enjoy the confidence of the Lok Sabha 2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in
(lower house of Parliament). Losing a vote of the Lok Sabha only.
confidence requires their resignation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Cabinet is headed by (a) 1 only
the Prime Minister, who is the Head of
(b) 2 only
Government, not the Head of State. In India, the
President is the Head of State and does not head the (c) Both 1 and 2
Cabinet. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: c
Q.6) Consider the following statements: (2013)
The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts Exp: Statement 1 is correct: The No-Confidence
(PAC) Motion is not mentioned in the Constitution of
India. It is governed by Rule 198 of the Rules of
1. Consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Lok
Sabha. Sabha.
2. Scrutinises appropriation and finance accounts of Statement 2 is correct: A No-Confidence Motion
Government. can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, as the
3. Examine the report of CAG. Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to
the Lok Sabha under Article 75. It cannot be
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only Q.8) Which of the following committees is the
largest Committee of the Parliament? (2014)
(c) 3 only
(a) The Committee on Public Accounts
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) The Committee on Estimates
18
(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings (b) 1 and 2 only
(d) The Committee on Petitions (c) 2 and 3 only
Ans: b (d) 1, 2 and 3
Exp: The Committee on Estimates is the largest Ans: b
committee of the Parliament of India. It consists of Exp: Statement 1: Correct. The Rajya Sabha
30 members, all of whom are elected from the Lok cannot reject or amend a Money Bill. It can only
Sabha. Its primary function is to examine budget recommend amendments, which the Lok Sabha may
estimates and suggest alternative policies for accept or reject.
achieving efficiency and economy in expenditure.
Statement 2: Correct. The Demands for Grants are
exclusively the privilege of the Lok Sabha. The
Q.9) Which one of the Schedules of the
Rajya Sabha does not vote on them.
Constitution of India contains provisions regarding
the anti-defection? (2014) Statement 3: Incorrect. The Rajya Sabha can
discuss the Annual Financial Statement (Budget),
(a) Second Schedule
but it does not have the power to vote on it.
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule Q.11) When a bill is referred to a joint sitting both
the Houses of the Parliament, has to be passed by
(d) Tenth Schedule
(2015)
Ans: d
(a) a simple majority of members present and voting
Exp: The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of (b) three-fourths majority of members present and
India contains provisions regarding anti-defection voting
laws. It was added by the 52nd Amendment Act of
1985 to address political defections by elected (c) two-thirds majority of the House
members. This schedule lays down the process for (d) absolute majority of the House
disqualification of members on grounds of defection
by their political party. It applies to both Ans: a
Parliament and State Legislatures. Key provisions Exp: When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both
include disqualification for voluntarily giving up Houses of Parliament, it is presided over by the
party membership or voting against party Speaker of the Lok Sabha. The bill is required to
directives, ensuring political stability and curbing be passed by a simple majority of the members
unethical practices in legislative processes. present and voting. This mechanism, provided
under Article 108 of the Constitution, is used to
Q.10) Consider the following statements: (2015) resolve a deadlock between the Lok Sabha and
Rajya Sabha. It ensures legislative efficiency in
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or
cases of disagreement.
to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Q.12) Consider the following statements: (2015)
Grants.
1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly
Financial Statement. of that particular State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman
(a) 1 only of the Legislative Council of that particular State.
19
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q.14) The Parliament of India acquires the powers to
(a) 1 only
legislate on any items in the State List in the national
(b) 2 only interest if the resolution to that effect has been passed
(c) Both 1 and 2 by the (2016)

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total
membership
Ans: d
(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-
Exp: Statement 1: Incorrect. As per Article 171 of thirds of its total membership
the Constitution, the Legislative Council of a state (c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total
cannot be larger in size than half of the Legislative membership
Assembly of that particular state. The Council’s
size must be between 40 members and a maximum (d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-
of one-third of the Assembly's size. thirds of its members present and voting
Statement 2: Incorrect. The Chairman of the Ans: d
Legislative Council is elected by the members of
Exp: Under Article 249 of the Indian Constitution,
the Council itself, not nominated by the Governor.
the Parliament can legislate on matters enumerated
in the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a
Q.13) There is a Parliamentary System of resolution by a majority of not less than two-thirds
Government in India because the (2015) of the members present and voting. This resolution
(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people must declare that it is necessary or expedient in the
national interest for Parliament to legislate on such
(b) Parliament can amend the Constitution matters.
(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved Council of ● The resolution, once passed, empowers
Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha Parliament to legislate on the specified State
(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok List item for a period of one year, which can be
Sabha extended by another year through a similar
resolution.
Ans: d
Exp: India has a Parliamentary System of Q.15) Which of the following statements is/are
Government, which is characterized by the correct? (2016)
principle of collective responsibilityof the Council
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its
of Ministers to the Lok Sabha. This means:
prorogation
1. The executive (Council of Ministers) is
2. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not
accountable to the legislature (Lok Sabha).
been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on the
2. If the Lok Sabha passes a vote of no confidence, dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
the entire Council of Ministers, including the
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Prime Minister, must resign.
(a) 1 only
3. This feature is enshrined in Article 75(3) of the
Constitution and is a fundamental principle of (b) 2 only
the parliamentary system, distinguishing it from (c) Both 1 and 2
a presidential system where the executive is
independent of the legislature. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

20
Ans: b 1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a
Member of Parliament who is not elected but only
Exp: Statement 1: Incorrect. A bill pending in the nominated by the President of India.
Lok Sabha does not lapse merely because of
prorogation (termination of a session of 2. Recently, a private member's bill has been passed
Parliament). It only lapses if the Lok Sabha is in the Parliament of India for the first time in its
dissolved and the bill has not been passed by the history.
Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 2: Correct. A bill pending in the Rajya (a) 1 only
Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha,
does not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. It (b) 2 only
can be reintroduced in the Lok Sabha in the next (c) Both 1 and 2
session if the Rajya Sabha retains it.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.16) For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination Ans: d

paper can be filed by (2017) Exp: Statement 1: Incorrect. A private member's bill
(a) anyone residing in India. is a bill introduced by a Member of Parliament
(MP) who is not a minister. It can be introduced by
(b) a resident of the constituency from which the both elected and nominated members of the
election is to be contested. Parliament. The key criterion is that the member
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the must not be part of the Council of Ministers.
electoral roll of a constituency. Statement 2: Incorrect. Private member's bills have
(d) any citizen of India. been passed in Parliament in the past. For example,
the Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal
Ans: c Appellate Jurisdiction) Bill, 1968 and the Indian
Exp: For election to the Lok Sabha, the following Penal Code (Amendment) Bill, 1970 were private
conditions apply for filing a nomination paper: member's bills that were passed by Parliament.
Therefore, it is not true that a private member's bill
1. The candidate must be a citizen of India.
was passed for the first time recently.
2. Their name must appear in the electoral roll of
any constituency in India, not necessarily the Q.18) Out of the following statements, choose the
constituency from which they intend to contest. one that brings out the principle underlying the
3. They must meet the minimum age requirement Cabinet form of Government: (2017)
of 25 years. (a) An arrangement for minimising criticism against
4. They must not be disqualified under the the Government whose responsibilities are complex
provisions of the Constitution or the and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
Representation of the People Act, 1951. (b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the
Thus, residency in the specific constituency is not a Government whose responsibilities are increasing
requirement, and the emphasis is on being a day by day.
registered voter in any constituency in India. (c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for
ensuring collective responsibility of the Government
Q.17) With reference to the Parliament of India, to the people.
consider the following statements: (2017)

21
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head secures the highest number of votes is declared
of the Government whose hold over the people is in elected, regardless of whether they achieve a
a state of decline. majority (50% or more).
Ans: c Statement 2: Incorrect. The Constitution of India
does not mandate that the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Exp: The Cabinet form of Government is based on must belong to the majority party or that the Deputy
the principle of collective responsibility, which Speaker must come from the Opposition. While the
means: Speaker is typically elected from the majority party,
1. The Council of Ministers, headed by the Prime and the Deputy Speaker often from the Opposition as
Minister, functions as a team and is collectively a convention, these are not constitutional provisions
responsible to the legislature, particularly the but rather parliamentary practices and traditions.
Lok Sabha in India.
2. Decisions are made collectively, and all Q.20) Consider the following statements: (2018)
ministers are expected to publicly support them, 1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall
even if they disagree privately. vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member
3. If the legislature expresses a vote of no of the Assembly.
confidence in the Council of Ministers, the 2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved,
entire Cabinet must resign. the Speaker shall vacate his/ her office immediately.
This principle ensures accountability, strengthens Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
parliamentary democracy, and emphasizes the
Government's responsibility to the people. (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Q.19) Consider the following statements: (2017) (c) Both 1 and 2
1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the winning candidate must get at least 50 per cent of
the votes polled to be declared elected. Ans: a
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Exp: Statement 1: Correct. The Speaker of the
Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker's Legislative Assembly must vacate their office if they
post goes to the majority party and the Deputy cease to be a member of the Assembly. This is
Speakers to the Opposition. because the Speaker's position is contingent on their
membership in the Assembly, as per the rules
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? governing legislative bodies.
(a) 1 only Statement 2: Incorrect. When the Legislative
(b) 2 only Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker does not vacate
their office immediately. Instead, the Speaker
(c) Both 1 and 2
continues to hold office until a new Speaker is elected
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 by the newly constituted Assembly. This ensures
Ans: d continuity in legislative functioning.

Exp: Statement 1: Incorrect. In the elections for the Q.21) Regarding Money Bill, which of the following
Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the candidate does statements is not correct? (2018)
not need to secure at least 50% of the votes polled.
Instead, elections are conducted using the first-past- (a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it
the-post (FPTP)system, where the candidate who contains only provisions related to imposition,
22
abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any (b) Article 17 and the Directive Principle of the
tax. State Policy in Part IV
(b) A Money Bill has the provisions for the custody (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part
of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency III
Fund of India. (d) Article 24 and provisions under the 44th
(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation Amendments to the Constitution
of money out of the
Ans: c
Contingency Fund of India.
Exp: The Right to Privacy was recognized as a
(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulations of fundamental right by the Supreme Court of India
borrowings of money or giving of any guarantee by in the landmark Puttaswamy vs. Union of India
the Government of India. (2017) case. The Court ruled that the Right to
Ans: c Privacy is an intrinsic part of the Right to Life and
Personal Liberty guaranteed under Article 21 of
Exp: A Money Bill, as defined in Article 110 of the the Constitution. Additionally, it is linked to the
Constitution, deals with specific financial matters freedoms guaranteed in Part III, which includes
such as taxation, appropriation of funds from the rights like freedom of expression, movement, and
Consolidated Fund of India, and regulation of protection against discrimination.
government borrowings.
1. Option (a): Correct. A Money Bill can include Q.23) With reference to the Parliament of India,
provisions related to the imposition, abolition, which of the following Parliamentary Committees
remission, alteration, or regulation of taxes. scrutinises and reports to the House whether the
2. Option (b): Correct. Money Bills include powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-
provisions regarding the custody of the laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated
Consolidated Fund of India or the by the Parliament are being properly exercised by
Contingency Fund of India. the Executives within the scope of such delegation?
(2018)
3. Option (c): Incorrect. Appropriation of money
is related to the Consolidated Fund of India, (a) Committee on Government Assurances
not the Contingency Fund of India. (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
Expenditures from the Contingency Fund do not
(c) Committee on rules
require prior parliamentary approval and are
not part of a Money Bill. (d) Business Advisory Committee
4. Option (d): Correct. A Money Bill can regulate Ans: b
borrowings or guarantees by the Government
Exp: The Committee on Subordinate Legislation is
of India.
tasked with scrutinizing whether the powers to make
rules, regulations, sub-rules, and by-laws conferred
Q.22) Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic by the Constitution or delegated by Parliament to
part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the executive are being exercised properly, fairly,
the following in the Constitution India correctly and within the scope of such delegation.
and appropriately imply the above statement?
(2018) ● This ensures that the executive does not exceed
the authority granted by Parliament while
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd framing subordinate legislation.
amendment to the Constitution.
Other Committees:
23
1. Committee on Government Assurances: judgment) are subject to judicial review if they
Examines the assurances, promises, and violate the basic structure of the Constitution.
undertakings given by ministers in Parliament Thus, while Parliament can place laws in the Ninth
and reports on their implementation. Schedule, their validity can still be examined by
2. Committee on Rules: Looks into the rules of courts if they infringe upon the basic structure of
procedure and conduct of business in the Constitution.
Parliament and suggests amendments.
3. Business Advisory Committee: Regulates the Q.25) Consider the following statements: (2018)
allocation of time for the discussion of various 1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in
parliamentary matters. the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
Thus, the Committee on Subordinate Legislation is 2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition”
responsible for overseeing the exercise of delegated was recognised for the first time in 1969.
legislative powers.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if the party does not have a
minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be
Q.24) Consider the following statements: (2018) recognised as the leader of the opposition.
1. Parliament of India can place a particular law in Which of the following statements given is/ are
the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India. correct?
2. The validity of law placed in the Ninth Schedule (a) 1 and 3 only
cannot be examined by any court and no Judgement
can be made on it. (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only Ans: b
(c) 1 and 2 only Exp: Statement 1: Incorrect. In the first Lok Sabha
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (1952–1957), the largest opposition party was the
Communist Party of India (CPI), not the Swatantra
Ans: a Party. The Swatantra Party was founded later, in
1959.
Exp: Statement 1: Correct. The Parliament of
India has the power to place a law in the Ninth Statement 2: Correct. The position of Leader of the
Schedule of the Constitution through a Opposition was officially recognized in 1969 during
constitutional amendment. The Ninth Schedule, the tenure of the Fourth Lok Sabha.
introduced by the First Amendment (1951), was Statement 3: Incorrect. There is no requirement for
created to protect certain laws from being
a party to have a minimum of 75 members in the Lok
challenged in courts, particularly those related to Sabha for its leader to be recognized as the Leader
land reforms and socio-economic policies. of the Opposition. However, as per the Salary and
Statement 2: Incorrect. Initially, laws placed in the Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament
Ninth Schedule were immune from judicial review. Act, 1977, a party must have at least 10% of the total
However, in the I.R. Coelho vs. State of Tamil strength of the House for its leader to be recognized
Nadu (2007) case, the Supreme Court ruled that as the Leader of the Opposition.
laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24,
1973 (the date of the Kesavananda Bharati Q.26) Consider the following statements: (2019)

24
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Exp: Amending the Constitution: The Rajya Sabha
Act, 1959 exempts several posts from has equal powers with the Lok Sabha in amending
disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’. the Constitution under Article 368. Both Houses
must pass the amendment bill by a special majority
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five
(two-thirds of members present and voting and more
times.
than 50% of the total membership of the House).
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the
1. Creating new All India Services (a): The Rajya
Constitution of India.
Sabha has exclusive power under Article 312 to
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? initiate a resolution for creating new All India
(a) 1 and 2 only Services. The Lok Sabha cannot initiate such a
resolution but must pass it after the Rajya Sabha
(b) 3 only does.
(c) 2 and 3 only 2. Removal of the Government (c): The Council of
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok
Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha. Only the Lok
Ans: a Sabha can remove the government by passing a
Exp: Statement 1: Correct. The Parliament no-confidence motion.
(Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts 3. Making cut motions (d): Cut motions pertain to
certain offices from disqualification on the grounds the Demand for Grants during the budget
of holding an Office of Profit. This Act ensures that process, a power exclusive to the Lok Sabha.
members of Parliament holding specific positions
(e.g., Ministers of State, Parliamentary Secretaries) Thus, amending the Constitution is the area where
are not disqualified. the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha have equal powers.

Statement 2: Correct. The Act has been amended

Q.28) Consider the following statements: (2020)
five times to expand the list of exempted offices,
ensuring flexibility in governance and 1. According to the Constitution of India, a person
administration. who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a
state for six months even if he/she is not a member
Statement 3: Incorrect. The term 'Office of Profit' is
of the Legislature of that state.
not well-defined in the Constitution. Instead, it has
been interpreted by courts over time. It generally 2. According to the Representation of People Act,
refers to a position that brings pecuniary benefits or 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and
profit under the government, which could sentenced to imprisonment for five years is
compromise a legislator’s independence. permanently disqualified from contesting an election
even after his release from prison.
Q.27) Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
in (2020)
(a) 1 only
(a) the matter of creating new All India Services
(b) 2 only
(b) amending the Constitution
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) the removal of the government
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) making cut motions
Ans: a
Ans: b
Exp: Statement 1 is correct: One who is eligible to
vote is not necessarily eligible to be a minister (for
25
e.g., on grounds of age). The question used the term (b) Article 112 and Article 110 (1) of the
“a voter can” and not “every voter”, here many Constitution of India
voters who meet the eligibility to be a member of the (c) Article 113 of the Constitution of India
Legislature of a state can be made a Minister even
when they are not the members of the state (d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and
Legislature (Article 164). Voter eligibility is not Budget Management Act, 2003
mentioned in the Constitution. This question is Ans: d
related to checking the concept rather than fact.
Exp: The Macro Economic Framework Statement
Statement 2: Incorrect. Under the Representation of
is presented in Parliament along with the Budget as
People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal
it is mandated by the Fiscal Responsibility and
offense and sentenced to five years is disqualified for
Budget Management Act, 2003 (FRBM Act). This
six years after release, not permanently.
document provides an analysis of the growth,
investment, and employment trends in the economy.
Q.29) A Parliamentary System of Government is one It is one of the key fiscal policy documents required
in which (2020) to maintain transparency and fiscal discipline under
(a) all political parties in the Parliament are the provisions of the FRBM Act.
represented in the Government
(b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament Q.31) Consider the following statements: (2022)
and can be removed by it 1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior
(c) the Government is elected by the people and can recommendation of the President of India.
be removed by them. 2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented
(d) the Government is chosen by the Parliament but to the President of India, it is obligatory for the
cannot be removed by it before completion of a President of India to give his/her assent.
fixed-term 3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by
both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special
Ans: b
majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
Exp: In a Parliamentary System, the executive Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(Government) is responsible to the legislature
(Parliament) and can be removed through a vote of (a) 1 and 2 only
no confidence. This system ensures collective (b) 2 and 3 only
responsibility, where the Council of Ministers is
accountable to the elected representatives. Unlike (c) 1 and 3 only
option (a), all political parties need not be (d) 1,2 and 3
represented in the Government. The Government is
not directly elected by the people (eliminating option Ans: b
c), and it does not have a fixed term independent of Exp: Statement 1: A bill amending the Constitution
parliamentary control (eliminating option d). does not require the prior recommendation of the
President.
Q.30) Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister Statement 2: When a Constitution Amendment Bill is
also places other documents before the Parliament presented to the President, it is obligatory for the
which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework President to give assent (Article 368).
Statement’. The aforesaid document is presented
because this is mandated by (2020) Statement 3: A Constitution Amendment Bill must be
passed by both Houses with a special majority, and
(a) Long standing parliamentary convention there is no provision for a joint sitting.
26
 Ans: b
Q.32) Which of the following is/are the exclusive
power(s) of Lok Sabha ? (2022) Exp: Statement 1: This is incorrect. The anti-
defection law allows a nominated legislator to join
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency a political party within six months of being
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the appointed to the House. If they join a party after this
Council of Ministers period, they are disqualified under the law.
3. To impeach the President of India Statement 2: This is correct. The law does not
provide a specific time frame for the presiding
Select the correct answer using the code given below
officer to decide on a defection case. The decision
:
can sometimes take a long time, leading to criticism
(a) 1 and 2 of the law.
(b) 2 only
Q.34) With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok
(c) 1 and 3
Sabha, consider the following statements: (2022)
(d) 3 only
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of
Ans: b Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy
Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker
Exp: Statement 1: The power to ratify the may fix.
declaration of Emergency is not exclusive to the Lok
Sabha; it requires approval from both Houses of 2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of
Parliament. a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be
from either the principal opposition party or the
Statement 2: The Lok Sabha has the exclusive power ruling party.
to pass a motion of no-confidence against the
Council of Ministers. 3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the
Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House
Statement 3: The power to impeach the President is and no appeal lies against his rulings.
not exclusive to the Lok Sabha; it involves both the
Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. 4. The well established parliamentary practice
regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that
the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly
Q.33) With reference to anti-defection law in India,
seconded by the Prime Minister.
consider the following statements : (2022)
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator
cannot join any political party within six months of (a) 1 and 3 only
being appointed to the House. (b) 1, 2 and 3
2. The law does not provide any time- frame within (c) 3 and 4 only
which the presiding officer has to decide a defection
case. (d) 2 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Ans: a
(a) 1 only Exp: Statement 1: This is correct. As per the Rules
(b) 2 only of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha,
the election of the Deputy Speaker is held on a date
(c) Both 1 and 2 fixed by the Speaker.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

27
Statement 2: This is incorrect. There is no Statement 3: This is incorrect. The Governor of the
mandatory provision that the Deputy Speaker must concerned state, not the Chief Minister, is required
be from either the ruling party or the principal to submit annual reports to the President on the
opposition party. The choice is determined by administration of Scheduled Areas.
parliamentary conventions, not a legal mandate.
Statement 3: This is correct. The Deputy Speaker has Q.36) With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill
the same powers as the Speaker when presiding over in the Indian Parliament, consider the following
the House, and no appeal lies against their rulings. statements: (2023)
Statement 4: This is incorrect. The motion for 1. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to
electing the Deputy Speaker is not moved by the the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
Speaker, but by a member of the House, often from 2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the
the ruling party or opposition, depending on Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can
consensus. only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha
Q.35) With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for
consider the following statements: (2023) Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as the Finance Bill.
Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the How many of the above statements are correct?
President.
(a) Only one
2. The largest administrative unit forming the
Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the (b) Only two
cluster of villages in the Block. (c) All three
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are (a) None
required to submit annual reports to the Union Home
Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in Ans: a
the States. Exp: Statement 1 is incorrect: A finance bill is a part
How many of the above statements are correct? of the budgetary law making process which equates
the finance bill as that to a money bill.
(a) Only one
Statement 2 is correct: Rajya sabha can only make
(b) Only two
recommendations and not amendments or rejections
(c) All three to a money bill.
(d) None Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no constitutional
compulsion for a joint sitting under any
Ans: a
circumstances. Since a money bill and a finance bill
Exp: Statement 1: This is correct. The notification of are the same type of legislation and both houses
an area as a Scheduled Area within a State takes don’t have equal powers with respect to a money bill,
place through an Order of the President under the there is no question of a joint sitting.
provisions of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution.
Statement 2: This is incorrect. The largest Q.37) Consider the following statements: (2023)
administrative unit forming a Scheduled Area can Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State
vary (e.g., a district or a part of a district), and the Governments with their own rules and regulations
lowest unit is typically a village or a cluster of for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
villages, not limited to a block.
28
Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the (a) 1 and 2 only
PrisonsAct, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of (b) 2 and 3 only
prisons in the control of Provincial Governments. (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
the above statements? Ans: c
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Exp: 1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee:
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-
I ○ Correct. The Ethics Committee in the Lok
Sabha was initially constituted as an ad-hoc
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and committee in 2000 to oversee matters
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for related to the ethical conduct of Members of
Statement-I Parliament (MPs). It was later made a
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is standing committee.
incorrect 2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- II is a complaint relating to unethical conduct
correct of a member of the Lok Sabha:

Ans: a ○ Incorrect. Complaints regarding unethical

conduct can be made by any individual, not
Exp: Statement-I is correct because prisons in India just Members of the Lok Sabha, as long as
are a State subject under the Seventh Schedule of the they follow the prescribed procedure.
Constitution, meaning State Governments are
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter
responsible for managing prisons with their own
which is sub-judice:
rules and regulations for day-to-day administration.
○ Correct. The Ethics Committee follows
Statement-II is correct because the Prisons Act,
parliamentary conventions and does not take
1894, enacted during British rule, expressly placed
up matters that are sub-judice (under
the subject of prisons under the control of Provincial
judicial consideration) to avoid interference
Governments, which has continued post-
with judicial processes.
independence with State Governments managing
prisons.
Q.39) Which of the following statements are correct
Statement-II provides the historical basis and legal
in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament? (2024)
framework explaining Statement-I.
1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in
respect of Money Bills.
Q.38) Which of the following statements about the
Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct? 2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the
(2024) Council of States.
1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee. 3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill
or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a
complaint relating to unethical conduct of a 4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by
member of the Lok Sabha. the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the
Lok Sabha.
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter
which is sub-judice. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
29
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 only
Ans: c (c) 2 and 3 only
Exp: 1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in (d) 1 and 3 only
respect of Money Bills: Ans: c
○ Correct. Article 109 of the Constitution of Exp: The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, also
India specifies the special procedure for known as the Women’s Reservation Bill, seeks to
Money Bills. It outlines how Money Bills reserve one-third of seats in the Lok Sabha and State
are introduced, passed, and handled Legislative Assemblies for women.
between the two Houses of Parliament.
1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th
2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Lok Sabha:
Council of States:
● Incorrect. The Act explicitly states that its
○ Correct. As per Article 110, a Money Bill provisions will be implemented after the
can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, delimitation process based on the Census
not in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). conducted after commencement of the bill.
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the 2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming
Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it: an Act: Correct. The Act includes a sunset clause,
○ Correct. The Rajya Sabha cannot reject a stipulating that the reservation will remain in force
Money Bill. It can only recommend for 15 years from the date of implementation. This
amendments to the Lok Sabha within 14 ensures periodic review and potential renewal.
days, but the Lok Sabha is not bound to 3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats
accept these suggestions. for Scheduled Castes (SC) women within the quota
4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by reserved for the Scheduled Castes:
the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the ● Correct. The Act includes provisions for
Lok Sabha: sub-reservation for women belonging to
○ Incorrect. The Lok Sabha is not bound to Scheduled Castes (SC)and Scheduled
accept the Rajya Sabha's amendments to a Tribes (ST) within their respective
Money Bill. It can choose to reject or ignore reservation quotas.
the suggested changes.
Q.41) With reference to Union Budget, consider the
Q.40) Consider the following statements regarding following statements: (2024)
‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’: (2024) 1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the
1. Provisions will come into effect from the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial
18th Lok Sabha. Statement before both the Houses of
Parliament.
2. This will be in force for 15 years after
becoming an Act. 2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can
be made except on the recommendation of
3. There are provisions for the reservation of
the President of India.
seats for Scheduled Casters Women within
the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Which of the statements given above are correct ? (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
30
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.43) With reference to the Indian Parliament,
consider the following statements: (2024)
Ans: b
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its
Exp: Statement 1: This is incorrect. dissolution.
● The Union Finance Minister presents the 2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending
Annual Financial Statement (Union Budget) in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution
in Parliament under Article 112 of the of the Lok Sabha.
Constitution. It is not done on behalf of the
Prime Minister, but as part of the Finance 3. A bill in regard to which the President of
Minister's responsibilities. India notified his/her intention to summon
the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the
Statement 2: This is correct. dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
● At the Union level, no demand for a grant can Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
be made except on the recommendation of the
President of India. This is mandated by Article (a) 1 only
113 of the Constitution, as the President ensures (b) 1 and 2
that financial matters are initiated with (c) 2 and 3
executive approval. (d) 3 only
Ans: b
Q.42) With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Exp: Statement 1 is correct because bills pending in
Sabha, consider the following statements : (2024) the Lok Sabha lapse on its dissolution.
While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker Statement 2 is correct because bills passed by the
of the Lok Sabha is under consideration
Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses.
1. He/She shall not preside. Statement 3 is incorrect because bills for which a
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak joint sitting has been notified by the President do not
lapse.
3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the
resolution in the first instance.
Q.44) With reference to the Parliament of India,
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
consider the following statements: (2024)
(a) 1 only
1. Prorogation of a House by the President of
(b) 1 and 2 only
India does not require the advice of the
(c) 2 and 3 only
Council of Ministers.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Prorogation of a House is generally done
Ans: a after the House is adjourned sine die but there
Exp: While any resolution for the removal of the is no bar to the President of India prorogating
Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration the House which is in session.
1. He/She shall not preside. 3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the
President of India who, save in exceptional
2. He/She shall have the right to speak circumstances, does so on the advice of the
3. He/She shall be entitled to vote on the Council of Ministers.
resolution in the first instance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

31
(a) 1 only Option (c): Correct. The Constitution does not
(b) 1 and 2 specify any procedure for the removal of a Governor.
(c) 2 and 3 Governors hold office at the pleasure of the
(d) 3 only President, and there is no formal constitutional
process for their removal.
Ans: c
Option (d): Incorrect. In Union Territories with a
Exp: Statement 1 is incorrect because prorogation legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by
by the President does require the advice of the the President, not the Lt. Governor, though the Lt.
Council of Ministers. Governor administers the oath of office. The
Statement 2 is correct because prorogation can be appointment is based on majority support in the
done even if the House is in session, although it legislature.
usually follows adjournment sine die.
Statement 3 is correct because dissolution of the Lok Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2013)
Sabha is generally done on the advice of the Council 1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be
of Ministers, except in exceptional circumstances. collectively responsible to the Parliament.
Executive 2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during
the pleasure of the President of India.
Q.1) Which one of the following statements is
correct? (2013) 3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the
President about the proposals for legislation.
(a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as
Governor for two or more States at the same time. Select the correct answer using the given code below:

(b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in (a) 1 only
India are appointed by the Governor of the State just (b) 2 and 3 only
as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by
(c) 1 and 3 only
the President.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) No procedure has been laid down in the
Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor Ans: b
from his/her post.
Exp: Statement 1: This is incorrect. According to
(d) In the case of a Union Territory having a Article 75(3) of the Constitution, the Council of
legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by Ministers in the Centre is collectively responsible to
the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support. the Lok Sabha, not to the entire Parliament.
Ans: c Statement 2: This is correct. As per Article 75(2),
Union Ministers hold office during the pleasure of
Exp: Option (a): Incorrect. The same person can be
the President. However, this is subject to the advice
appointed as the Governor for two or more States at
of the Prime Minister, as the President acts on the
the same time, as provided under Article 153 of the
advice of the Council of Ministers.
Constitution.
Statement 3: This is correct. As per Article 78, it is
Option (b): Incorrect. Judges of the High Courts are
the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the
not appointed by the Governor of the State. They are
President all decisions of the Council of Ministers
appointed by the President of India in consultation
relating to legislation and administration.
with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the
State, and sometimes the Chief Justice of the High
Court. Q.3) Consider the following statements: (2014)

32
1. The President shall make rules for the more (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
convenient transaction of the business of the (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
government of India, and for the allocation among
Ministers of the said business. Ans: b
2. All executive actions of the government of India Exp: Sending a report to the President of India for
shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the imposing the President’s rule: This is a
Prime Minister. discretionary power of the Governor under Article
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 356. The Governor can independently assess and
report to the President if the governance in the state
(a) 1 only cannot be carried out in accordance with the
(b) 2 only Constitution.
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. Appointing the Ministers: This is not a
discretionary power. The Governor appoints
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister, as
Ans: a per Article 164.

Exp: Statement 1: This is correct. As per Article 2. Reserving certain bills passed by the State
77(3) of the Constitution, the President shall make Legislature for consideration of the President
rules for the more convenient transaction of the of India: This is a discretionary power of the
business of the Government of India and for the Governor under Article 200, where the
allocation among Ministers of the said business. Governor can reserve a bill for the President's
This provision ensures an organized framework for assent if it is of particular concern.
decision-making within the executive. 3. Making the rules to conduct the business of
Statement 2: This is incorrect. According to Article the State Government: This is not a
77(1), all executive actions of the Government of discretionary power. The rules to conduct the
India are expressed to be taken in the name of the business of the State Government are made in
President, not the Prime Minister. This is because consultation with the Council of Ministers, not
the President is the nominal head of the executive. at the Governor's discretion.

Q.4) Which of the following are the discretionary Q.5) Which of the following is/are the functions/
powers of the Governor of a State? (2014) functions of the Cabinet Secretariat? (2014)
1. Sending a report to the President of India for 1. Preparations of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
imposing the President’s rule. 2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Meetings
2. Appointing the Ministers. 3. Allocations of financial resources to the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Legislature for consideration of the President of
(a) 1 only
India.
(b) 2 and 3 only
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the
State Government. (c) 1 and 2 only
Select the answers using the codes given below: (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only Ans: c
(b) 1 and 3 only Exp: The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for the
administration of the Government of India
33
(Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961 and the Statement 2: This is incorrect. The Chairman of the
Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, Civil Services Board is not the Prime Minister.
1961, facilitating smooth transaction of business in Typically, it is the Cabinet Secretary or another
Ministries/Departments of the Government. This senior official appointed for the purpose.
Secretariat provides Secretarial assistance to the Thus, both statements are incorrect.
Cabinet and its Committees. The secretarial
assistance, provided by Cabinet Secretariat to the
Cabinet and Cabinet Committees, includes: Q.7) Consider the following statements: (2016)
● Preparation and circulation of the agenda. 1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the
(Statement 1 is correct) Governor of that State.
● Convening of the meetings of the Cabinet and its 2. The Chief Secretary in a state has a fixed tenure.
Committees on the orders of the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(Statement 2 is correct)
(a) 1 only
● Circulation of the record of discussions after
obtaining the approval of the Prime Minister. (b) 2 only

● Monitoring implementation of decisions taken by (c) Both 1 and 2

the Cabinet and its Committees. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 3 is not correct: Allocations of financial Ans: d
resources to the Ministers is not a function of the
Cabinet Secretariat. Financial resources are Exp: Statement 1: This is incorrect.Chief Secretary
allocated to Ministries, as per the provisions in the is the topmost bureaucratic position in a State,
Budget prepared by the Finance Ministry. generally held by an Indian Administrative Officer.
The Chief Secretary is ‘a linchpin’ in the
administration. The Chief Secretary is chosen by the
Q.6) Consider the following statements: (2015) Chief Minister from among the senior most Indian
1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is Administrative Officers. He is then appointed by the
vested in the Prime Minister. Chief Minister in the name of the Governor. The
Governor is the Chief Executive Head of the State
2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of
and all executive actions in a State are taken by and
the Civil Services Board.
in the name of the Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 2: This is incorrect. The Chief Secretary
(a) 1 only does not have a fixed tenure. Their tenure is
(b) 2 only determined by the state government, and they can be
transferred or replaced at the discretion of the
(c) Both 1 and 2 government.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.8) The Parliament of India exercises control over
Ans: d
the functions of the Council of Ministers through
Exp: Statement 1: This is incorrect. The Executive (2017)
Power of the Union of India is vested in the
1. Adjournment motion
President, as per Article 53 of the Constitution.
However, the President exercises these powers on 2. Question hour
the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the 3. Supplementary questions
Prime Minister.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
34
(a) 1 only Ans: b
(b) 2 and 3 only Exp: Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly:
(c) 1 and 3 only This is not necessarily a consequence of the
proclamation of President's Rule. The State
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Legislative Assembly may be kept in suspended
Ans: d animation or dissolved, depending on the
President's decision.
Exp: The Parliament exercises control over the
functions of the Council of Ministers through the Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State:
following mechanisms: This is a necessary consequence of President's Rule,
as the executive authority of the state shifts to the
1. Adjournment Motion: This is a significant tool Governor, who acts under the President's direction.
to draw the attention of the House to a recent
matter of urgent public importance. If admitted, Dissolution of the local bodies: This is not a
it implies disapproval of the government's consequence of President's Rule. Local bodies such
actions and can lead to a discussion on the as panchayats and municipalities continue to
matter, holding the Council of Ministers function independently, as they are governed by
accountable. separate provisions under Part IX and IX-A of the
Constitution.
2. Question Hour: During this period, members of
Parliament ask questions to the Ministers Thus, 1 and 3 are not necessarily consequences,
regarding their ministries' policies and making (b) the correct answer.
administration. It ensures direct accountability
of the Council of Ministers to the Parliament. Q.10) If the president of India exercises his power as
3. Supplementary Questions: These are follow-up provided under Article 356 of the constitution in
questions asked during Question Hour. They respect of a particular state, then (2018)
allow members to seek further clarification or (a) the assembly of a state is automatically dissolved.
probe deeper into the answers provided,
(b) the power of the Legislature of that State shall be
ensuring thorough scrutiny of the executive.
exercisable by or under the authority of the
Thus, all three mechanisms are tools for Parliament.
parliamentary control over the executive.
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.
Q.9) Which of the following are not necessarily the
consequences of the proclamation of the President's Ans: b
rule in a State? (2017)
Exp: When the President of India exercises powers
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly under Article 356 (President's Rule), the following
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State occurs:
3. Dissolution of the local bodies 1. The Legislative Assembly of the State may
either be dissolved or kept in suspended
Select the correct answer using the code given below: animation. It is not automatically dissolved (so
(a) 1 and 2 only option (a) is incorrect).
(b) 1 and 3 only 2. The powers of the Legislature of the State are
then exercised by the Parliament or under its
(c) 2 and 3 only
authority (making option (b) correct).
(d) 1, 2 and 3

35
3. Article 19 is not suspended in the state under Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
President's Rule; this only occurs during a (a) 1 only
national emergency under Article 352 (so option
(c) is incorrect). (b) 2 only
4. The President does not directly make laws. (c) Both 1 and 2
Instead, Parliament or its delegated authority (d) Neither 1 nor 2
legislates for the state (so option (d) is
incorrect). Ans: a
Exp: Statement 1: This is correct. The value of the
Q.11) Consider the following statements: (2018) vote of each MLA in the Presidential election varies
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against from state to state. It is calculated based on the
the Governor of a State in any court during his term population of the state as per the 1971 Census and
of office. the total number of elected MLAs in the state. The
formula ensures proportional representation of
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor states in the electoral process.
of a state shall not be diminished during his term of
office. Statement 2: This is incorrect. The value of the vote
of all Members of Parliament (MPs) is the same,
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? irrespective of whether they are from the Lok Sabha
(a) 1 only or the Rajya Sabha. The value is determined by
dividing the total value of the votes of all MLAs by
(b) 2 only the total number of elected MPs.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.13) Which one of the following suggested that the
Governor should be an eminent person from outside
Ans: c the State and should be a detached figure without
Exp: Statement 1: This is correct. According to intense political links or should not have taken part
Article 361(2) of the Constitution, the Governor of a in politics in the recent past? (2019)
State enjoys immunity from criminal proceedings (a) First Administrative Reforms Commission
during their term of office. No criminal proceedings (1966)
can be instituted or continued against the Governor
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
in any court while they are in office.
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
Statement 2: This is correct. As per Article 158(3) of
the Constitution, the emoluments and allowances of (d) National Commission to Review the Working of
the Governor shall not be diminished during their the Constitution (2000)
term of office to ensure independence and avoid any
Ans: c
undue influence.
Exp: The Sarkaria Commission (1983), which was
Q.12) With reference to the election of the President set up to review the working of the Centre-State
of India, consider the following statements: (2018) relations, recommended that the Governor should:
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from ● Be an eminent person from outside the State.
State to State. ● Be a detached figure without intense political
2. The value of vote of MPs in Lok Sabha is more links.
than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha. ● Not have taken an active part in politics in the
recent past.
36
This recommendation aimed to ensure the 3. There is no minimum number of days that the
impartiality and independence of the Governor in Parliament is required to meet in a year.
carrying out their constitutional responsibilities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
Q.14) With reference to the Legislative Assembly of
a State in India, consider the following statements: (b) 2 only
(2019) (c) 1 and 3 only
1. The Governor makes a customary address to (d) 2 and 3 only
Members of the House at the commencement of the
first session of the year. Ans: c
2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on Exp: Statement 1: This is correct. The President of
a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on India has the power to summon a session of
that matter. Parliament at any place he/she thinks fit, as per
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Article 85(1) of the Constitution.

(a) 1 only Statement 2: This is incorrect. The Constitution does

not specify that there must be three sessions of
(b) 2 only Parliament in a year. It only mandates that the gap
(c) Both 1 and 2 between two sessions cannot exceed six months, but
there is no fixed number of sessions required.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 3: This is correct. The Constitution does
Ans: c not specify a minimum number of days that
Exp: Statement 1: This is correct. As per Article Parliament must meet in a year. The number of days
176(1) of the Constitution, the Governor addresses Parliament meets is determined by the government
the Legislative Assembly at the commencement of the based on its legislative agenda.
first session of each year and the first session after a
general election. This address is a customary Q.16) In the context of India, which one of the
practice and outlines the policies and programs of following is the characteristic appropriate for
the government. bureaucracy? (2020)
Statement 2: This is correct. When a State (a) An agency for widening the scope of
Legislature does not have a rule on a particular parliamentary democracy
matter, Article 208(3)allows the House to follow the (b) An agency for strengthening the structure of
rules of procedure of the Lok Sabha, to the extent federalism
applicable, until the State Legislature frames its own
rules. (c) Political An agency for facilitating stability and
economic growth
Thus, both statements are correct.
(d) An agency for the implementation of public
policy
Q.15) Consider the following statements: (2020)
1. The President of India can summon a session of Ans: d
Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit. Exp: In the context of India, bureaucracy refers to
2. The Constitution of India provides for three the administrative machinery responsible for
sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not executing the policies and programs of the
mandatory to conduct all three sessions. government. Its primary function is:

37
● To implement public policy as laid down by the are also eligible to be included in the Electoral
legislative and executive branches of College.
government. 2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats,
● To ensure the effective delivery of public higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
services and maintain governance efficiency. 3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya
While bureaucracy may indirectly contribute to Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
stability, economic growth, democracy, and 4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is
federalism, its core characteristic is the higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the
implementation of public policy ratio of total population to total number of elective
seats in Puducherry are greater as compared to
Q.17) Consider the following statements : (2022) Arunachal Pradesh.
1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers How many of the above statements are correct?
into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of
(a) Only one
State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and
Deputy Minister. (b) Only two
2. The total number of ministers in the Union (c) Only three
Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not (d) All four
exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in
the Lok Sabha. Ans: a
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Exp:
(a) 1 only ● As per Article 54 of the Constitution, the
(b) 2 only President of India is elected by the Members of
an Electoral College consisting of (a) the elected
(c) Both 1 and 2 members of both Houses of Parliament, and (b)
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 the elected members of the Legislative
Assemblies of all States [including National
Ans: b Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union
Exp: Statement 1: This is incorrect. The Constitution Territory of Puducherry]. The Members
of India does not classify ministers into specific nominated to either House of Parliament or the
ranks. These classifications—Cabinet Minister, Legislative Assemblies of States, including NCT
Minister of State with Independent Charge, of Delhi and Union Territory of Puducherry, are
Minister of State, and Deputy Minister—are based not eligible to be included in the Electoral
on executive conventions and administrative College. So, statement 1 is not correct.
practices, not constitutional provisions. ● The value of the vote of an MP in a presidential
Statement 2: This is correct. As per the 91st election is based on the number of elected
Amendment Act, 2003, the total number of members in legislative assemblies of states and
ministers in the Union Government, including the union territories, including Delhi, Puducherry
Prime Minister, cannot exceed and Jammu and Kashmir. If the number of
elected Assembly seats increased, the value of
vote of each MLA of that state would decrease.
Q.18) Consider the following statements in respect So, statement 2 is not correct.
of election to the President of India: (2023)
1. The members nominated to either House of the
Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States
38
● The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Statement 3: This is incorrect. The Constitution does
Pradesh is 131 which is less than that of Kerala not prescribe a time limit for the President to declare
where it is 152. So, statement 3 is not correct. their assent or withhold assent to a Bill. The
President can exercise discretion in the case of non-
● The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry
Money Bills and refer the Bill back to Parliament or
(16) is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh (8)
withhold assent.
because the ratio of total population to total
number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater
as compared to Arunachal Pradesh. So,
Judiciary
statement 4 is correct. Q.1) The power of Supreme Court of India to decide
dispute between the centre and states fall under its:
Q.19) Consider the following statements: (2023) (2014)
1. If the election of the President of India is declared (a) Advisory jurisdiction
void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by (b) Appellate jurisdiction
him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office
of President before the date of decision become (c) Original jurisdiction
invalid. (d) Writ jurisdiction
2. Elections for the post of the President of India can Ans: c
be postponed on the grounds that some Legislative
Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet Exp: between the Centre and States falls under its
to take place. original jurisdiction, as per Article 131 of the
Constitution.
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India,
the Constitution prescribes time limits within which Under this jurisdiction, the Supreme Court has the
he/she has to declare his/ her assent. authority to hear cases directly (not on appeal)
involving disputes:
How many of the above statements are correct?
● Between the Government of India and one or
(a) Only one more States.
(b) Only two ● Between two or more States.
(c) All three This ensures a mechanism for resolving federal
(d) None disputes and maintaining the constitutional balance
between different levels of government.
Ans: d
Exp: Statement 1: This is incorrect. If the election of Q.2) The power to increase the number of Judges in
the President is declared void by the Supreme Court, the Supreme Court of India is vested in (2014)
all acts done by the President in the performance of
(a) The President of India
their duties before the date of the decision remain
valid, as per Article 71(2) of the Constitution. This (b) The Parliament
ensures continuity of governance. (c) The Chief Justice of India
Statement 2: This is incorrect. Elections for the post (d) The Law Commission
of President of India cannot be postponed on the
grounds that some Legislative Assemblies have been Ans: b
dissolved. The Electoral College for the Presidential Exp: The power to increase the number of Judges
election includes the elected members present at the in the Supreme Court of India is vested in the
time, and elections proceed as scheduled. Parliament as per Article 124(1) of the Constitution.
39
● The Parliament can increase the number of (c) The power of the Judiciary to review all the
Judges (including the Chief Justice) by enacting legislative enactments before they are assented to by
legislation. the President.
● For instance, the Supreme Court (Number of (d) The power of the Judiciary to review its own
Judges) Act governs the strength of the judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.
Supreme Court Judges, and amendments to this
Ans: a
Act are made by the Parliament to increase or
decrease the number of Judges. Exp: In India, Judicial Review refers to the power of
Neither the President, Chief Justice of India, nor the the judiciary (primarily the Supreme Court and High
Law Commission has the authority to change the Courts) to examine the constitutionality of
number of Judges directly. legislative enactments and executive orders. If a law
or executive action is found to violate the
Constitution, the judiciary has the authority to
Q.3) Who/which of the following is the Custodian of declare it null and void.
the Constitution of India? (2015)
Key points:
(a) The President of India
● Judicial Review is derived from Articles 13, 32,
(b) The Prime Minister of India and 226 of the Constitution.
(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat ● It ensures that the actions of the legislature and
(d) The Supreme Court of India executive are within the framework of the
Constitution.
Ans: d
● It does not involve questioning the wisdom or
Exp: The Supreme Court of India is referred to as intent of the legislature (eliminating option (b)).
the Custodian of the Constitution because:
● Judicial Review occurs after laws are enacted,
● It has the authority to interpret the Constitution not before the President’s assent (eliminating
and ensure its provisions are upheld. option (c)).
● It acts as the guardian of fundamental rights ● While the judiciary can review its own
and resolves disputes between the Union and judgments under certain conditions, this is
States or among the States, ensuring the federal referred to as judicial reconsideration or
structure is maintained. review petitions, not judicial review in the
● Through its power of judicial review, the constitutional sense (eliminating option (d)).
Supreme Court ensures that laws and executive
actions comply with the Constitution. Q.5) With reference to the Constitution of India,
Other entities, like the President or Prime Minister, consider the following statements: (2019)
have specific roles, but the Supreme Court is tasked 1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to
with protecting and upholding the Constitution. declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot
Q.4) In India, Judicial Review implies (2017) be called into question by the Supreme Court of
(a) The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the India.
Constitutionality of laws and executive orders. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(b) The power of the Judiciary to question the (a) 1 only
wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
(b) 2 only

40
(c) Both 1 and 2 matter before it. This provision gives the Court
extraordinary powers to ensure justice is served.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
The phrase in question means that ordinary laws
Ans: d
made by Parliament or State Legislatures cannot
Exp: Statement 1: This is incorrect. High Courts in limit or restrict the Supreme Court's powers under
India have the power to declare central laws Article 142. The Court's constitutional powers
unconstitutional if they violate the Constitution. This supersede these laws when ensuring justice.
power arises from Article 226 and Article 13 of the The other options do not align with the scope or
Constitution, which empower High Courts to issue interpretation of Article 142:
writs and ensure that laws conform to constitutional
provisions. ● (a): The decisions of the Election Commission
are subject to judicial review.
Statement 2: This is incorrect. An amendment to the
Constitution can be called into question by the ● (c): The President requires the Cabinet's advice
Supreme Court under its power of judicial review. to declare a financial emergency under Article
The landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) 360.
established that the Supreme Court can review ● (d): State legislatures need Union concurrence
constitutional amendments to ensure they do not only in specific cases under the Seventh
violate the basic structure of the Constitution. Schedule, unrelated to Article 142.

Q.6) With reference to the Constitution of India Q.7) Consider the following statements: (2019)
prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in
ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or 1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India
limitations on the constitutional powers under introduced an Article placing the election of the
Article 142. It could mean which one of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
following (2019) 2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th
(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission Amendment to the Constitution of India as being
of India while discharging its duties cannot be violative of the independence of judiciary.
challenged in any court of law. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in (a) 1 only
the exercise of its powers by the laws made by
(b) 2 only
Parliament.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the
country, the President of India can declare a (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Financial Emergency without the counsel from the
Ans: b
Cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain Exp: Statement 1: This is incorrect. The 44th
matters without the concurrence of the Union Amendment Act (1978) did not place the election of
Legislature. the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. Instead,
it reversed some provisions of the 42nd Amendment
Ans: b and strengthened judicial review by restoring key
constitutional safeguards, such as the right to
Exp: Article 142 of the Constitution empowers the
property as a legal right rather than a fundamental
Supreme Court of India to pass any decree or order
right.
necessary to do "complete justice" in any case or

41
Statement 2: This is correct. The 99th Statement 3: This is correct. The Judges (Inquiry)
Constitutional Amendment Act, which established Act, 1968, lays down the procedure for investigation
the National Judicial Appointments Commission and impeachment of Judges, including the formation
(NJAC), was struck down by the Supreme Court in of an inquiry committee.
the Fourth Judges Case (2015). The Court held it Statement 4: This is correct. The procedure for
violative of the independence of the judiciary, which impeachment, as per Article 124(4), requires:
is part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
● A majority of the total membership of the
House.
Q.8) Consider the following statements: (2019)
● A majority of not less than two-thirds of the
1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme
members present and voting in each House of
Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of
Parliament.
the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details Q.9) In India, separation of judiciary from the
or what constitutes ‘Incapacity and proved executive is enjoined by (2020)
misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of
India. (a) the Preamble of the Constitution
3. The details of the process of. impeachment of the (b) a Directive Principle of State Policy
Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the (c) the Seventh Schedule
Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
(d) the conventional practice
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is
taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be Ans: b
backed by each House of the Parliament and Exp: Article 50 of the Directive Principles of State
supported by a majority of total membership of that Policy (DPSP) explicitly enjoins the separation of
House and by not less than two-thirds of total the judiciary from the executive in the public
members of that House present and voting. services of the state. This ensures the independence
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? of the judiciary and prevents interference by the
executive branch in judicial matters.
(a) 1 and 2 only
The Preamble mentions justice but does not
(b) 3 only
explicitly deal with the separation of powers.
(c) 3 and 4 only
The Seventh Schedule pertains to the division of
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only powers between the Union and States.
Ans: c While conventional practice supports judicial
independence, the separation of judiciary from the
Exp: Statement 1: This is incorrect. The Speaker of executive is explicitly mandated by the Constitution
the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha under Article 50.
has the discretion to admit or reject a motion to
impeach a Judge, as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act,
1968. The motion can be rejected if it does not meet Q.10) With reference to Indian judiciary, consider
the prescribed criteria. the following statements : (2021)
Statement 2: This is incorrect. The Constitution of 1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India
India does not define or elaborate on what can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court
constitutes ‘incapacity’and ‘proved misbehaviour’ judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior
of Judges. These terms are left for interpretation permission of the President of India.
during the impeachment process.
42
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its subject to considerations like behavior, the nature of
own judgement as the Supreme Court does. the crime, and the need for parole. Courts have also
clarified that parole is not an absolute right.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
Statement 2: This is correct. State Governments
(a) 1 only
have their own rules and regulations for granting
(b) 2 only parole, which are outlined in their respective
(c) Both 1 and 2 Prisoners Release on Parole Rules. These rules may
vary from state to state, as prison administration is a
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 State subject under the Seventh Schedule of the
Ans: a Constitution.

Exp: Statement 1: This is correct. As per Article 128

Q.12) With reference to India, consider the following
of the Constitution, a retired judge of the Supreme
statements : (2021)
Court can be requested by the Chief Justice of India
to sit and act as a judge of the Supreme Court with 1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the
the prior consent of the President of India. This custody of the concerned
provision helps the Court handle its workload. A magistrate and such accused is locked up in a
Statement 2 is not correct: Article 137 of the Indian police station, not in jail.
Constitution deals with the review of judgments or 2. During judicial custody, the police officer in
orders by the Supreme Court. It says that subject to charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the
the provisions of any law made by Parliament or any suspect without the approval of the court.
rules made under article 145; the Supreme Court
shall have the power to review any judgment Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
pronounced or order made by it. (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Q.11) With reference to India, consider the following
statements : (2021) (c) Both 1 and 2
1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, (d) Neither 1 nor 2
parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it Ans: b
becomes a matter of his/her right.
Exp: Statement 1: This is incorrect. Judicial custody
2. State Governments have their own Prisoners means that the accused is under the custody of the
Release on Parole Rules. magistrate and is typically detained in jail, not in a
Which of the statements given above is / are correct? police station. In contrast, police custody refers to
when the accused is held in a police station under the
(a) 1 only
supervision of the police.
(b) 2 only
Statement 2: This is correct. During judicial
(c) Both 1 and 2 custody, the police officer in charge of the case
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 cannot interrogate the suspect without the prior
approval of the court. This safeguard ensures that
Ans: b the rights of the accused are protected, as judicial
Exp: Statement 1: This is incorrect. Parole is not a custody is intended to prevent undue influence or
matter of right for prisoners; it is a privilege granted coercion by the police.
under certain conditions. The granting of parole
depends on the discretion of the authorities and is Q.13) Consider the following statements: (2022)
43
1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as
the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. advocates.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme 2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules
Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of relating to legal education and recognition of law
themselves. colleges.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
and Criminal Contempt. (a) 1 only
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers (b) 2 only
to make laws on Contempt of Court.
(c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 and 2 only
Ans: b
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only Exp: Statement 1: This is incorrect. Under the
Advocates Act, 1961, any person enrolled with a Bar
(d) 3 only Council is recognized as an advocate. This includes
Ans: b corporate lawyers and patent attorneys, provided
they meet the qualifications and are enrolled. There
Exp: Statement 1: This is correct. The H.N. Sanyal is no exclusion for corporate lawyers or patent
Committee was formed in 1961 to examine the law attorneys under the Act.
relating to contempt of court. Based on its
Statement 2: This is correct. Bar Councils,
recommendations, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971
particularly the Bar Council of India (BCI), have
was enacted, which consolidated the law on
the power to lay down rules relating to legal
contempt and provided definitions and procedures.
education and the recognition of law colleges. The
Statement 2: This is correct. The Constitution of BCI sets standards for legal education and approves
India empowers both the Supreme Court (Article institutions imparting legal education in India.
129) and High Courts (Article 215) to punish for
contempt of themselves, ensuring the independence
Q.15) With reference to the writs issued by the
and dignity of the judiciary.
Courts in India, consider the following statements:
Statement 3: This is incorrect. The Constitution of (2022)
India does not define Civil Contempt and Criminal
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private .
Contempt. These terms are defined in the Contempt
organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
of Courts Act, 1971.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even
Statement 4: This is correct. Under Entry 77 of the
though it may be a Government Company.
Union List in the Seventh Schedule, Parliament has
the power to make laws concerning contempt of 3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to
court, except for the contempt of courts subordinate move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
to High Courts. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
Q.14) With reference to India, consider the following
statements: (2022) (b) 2 and 3 only
1. Government law officers and legal firms are (c) 1 and 3 only
recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and (d) 1, 2 and 3

44
Ans: c Ans: c
Exp: Statement 1: This is correct. A writ of Exp:Statement-I: This is correct. The Supreme
Mandamus is issued to compel the performance of a Court has held in several judgments (e.g., Indra
public duty. It will not lie against a private Sawhney case, M. Nagaraj case) that reservation
organization unless that organization is entrusted policies under Article 16(4) (which provides for
with a public duty by law. reservation in public employment) must not
compromise the "efficiency of administration" as
Statement 2: This is incorrect. Mandamus can lie
mandated by Article 335. Article 335 states that
against a Government Company if it is performing
claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
public duties or functions. A Government Company
must be balanced with maintaining administrative
is considered a "State" under Article 12 of the
efficiency.
Constitution in certain cases, making it subject to the
writ jurisdiction. Statement-II: This is incorrect. Article 335 mentions
"efficiency of administration" but does not define the
Statement 3: This is correct. Any public-minded
term. The interpretation of what constitutes
person can file a petition for a writ of Quo
"efficiency of administration" is left to judicial
Warranto, which is issued to challenge a person's
interpretation and administrative practice.
claim to hold a public office if they are not legally
entitled to it. The petitioner does not need to have a Thus, Statement-I is correct, and Statement-II is
direct personal interest in the matter. incorrect, making the correct answer (c) Statement-
I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct, making the
answer (c) 1 and 3 only.
Q.17) In India, which one of the following
Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to
Q.16) Consider the following statements : (2023)
be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of
Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in Fundamental Rights? (2023)
some judgments that the reservation policies made
(a) 1st Amendment
under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India
would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of (b) 42nd Amendment
efficiency of administration. (c) 44th Amendment
Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India (d) 86th Amendment
defines the term 'efficiency of administration'.
Ans: Question cancelled by UPSC
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
the above statements? Exp: The 1st Constitutional Amendment (1951) was
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and enacted primarily to address and overcome judicial
Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement- interpretations of Fundamental Rights, especially
I related to the right to property (Article 19(1)(f)) and
freedom of speech and expression (Article
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and 19(1)(a)). Key points include:
Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I ● It introduced reasonable restrictions on the
right to freedom of speech and expression
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (Article 19(2)) to address issues related to
incorrect public order, incitement to violence, etc.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- II is ● It added Articles 31A and 31B, which aimed to
correct protect land reform laws from being challenged
in courts under Fundamental Rights.
45
● It created the Ninth Schedule to shield certain Exp: Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other
laws from judicial review. Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest
Rights) Act, 2006, commonly known as the Forest
This amendment was a response to judicial decisions
Rights Act (FRA), 2006, the Gram Sabha is the
like the Champakam Dorairajan case (1951) and
authority to initiate the process of determining the
others, which struck down laws on the grounds of
nature and extent of individual or community forest
violating Fundamental Rights.
rights.

Q.18) A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the The Gram Sabha is empowered to:
Supreme Court or High Courts to : (2024) ● Receive claims for forest rights.
(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking ● Verify the claims on the ground.
a particular action. ● Pass a resolution regarding the claims and
forward it to the Sub-Divisional Level
(b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a Committee (SDLC) for further action.
law on Prohibition.
This ensures local participation and recognition of
(c)the lower court prohibiting continuation of traditional and community rights in forest
proceedings in a case. governance.
(d) the Government prohibiting it from following an
unconstitutional policy. Q.2) The Government enacted the Panchayat
Ans: c Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996.
Which one of the following is not identified as its
Exp: The Writ of Prohibition is issued by a Superior objective? (2013)
Court (Supreme Court or High Courts) to a lower
(a) To provide self-governance
court or tribunalto prevent it from continuing
proceedings in a case that exceeds its jurisdiction or (b) To recognize traditional rights
is not authorized by law. It is a preventive writ and (c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
is issued when the lower court is about to act beyond
its jurisdiction. (d) To free tribal people from exploitation
Ans: c
Local Self Government
Exp: The Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled
Q.1) Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA) was enacted to empower
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Rights) Gram Sabhas and Panchayats in Scheduled Areas by
Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the extending the provisions of Part IX of the
process of determining the nature and extent of Constitution to these regions, with modifications.
individual or community forest rights or both? The objectives of PESA include:
(2013)
1. To provide self-governance: Empowering tribal
(a) State Forest Department communities to self-govern through Gram
(b) District Collector/ Deputy Commissioner Sabhas and Panchayats.
(c) Tahsildar/ Block Development Officer/ Mandal 2. To recognize traditional rights: Protecting and
Revenue Officer safeguarding the customary and community
rights of tribal people.
(d) Gram Sabha
3. To free tribal people from exploitation:
Ans: d Preventing exploitation of tribal populations by
ensuring control over local resources and
decision-making.
46
However, creating autonomous regions in tribal powers to elected bodies at the village, block,
areas is not an objective of PESA. Autonomous and district levels.
regions are governed under the provisions of Sixth 4. Financial mobilisation: Financial mobilisation
Schedule of the Constitution, which applies to is not a primary objective, though Panchayati
certain areas in the northeastern states, not under Raj institutions may play a role in resource
PESA. allocation and utilization.
Thus, the correct answer is (c) To create
autonomous regions in tribal areas. Q.4) With reference to “Gram Nyayalayas Acts”,
which of the following statements is/are correct?
Q.3) The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj (2016)
system is to ensure which among the following? 1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only
(2015)
civil cases and not criminal cases.
1. People’s participation in development 2. The Act allows local social activists as
2. Political accountability mediators/conciliators.
3. Democratic decentralisation Select the correct answer using the code given below.
4. Financial mobilisation (a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (b) 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 and 3 only Ans: b
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Exp: Statement 1: This is incorrect. The Gram
Ans: c Nyayalayas Act, 2008 provides for the establishment
of Gram Nyayalayas (village courts) to handle both
Exp: The fundamental objective of the Panchayati civil and criminal cases at the grassroots level.
Raj system is to ensure grassroots democracy by These courts are empowered to deal with specific
promoting people’s participation in development categories of criminal and civil cases as listed in the
and achieving democratic decentralization. Key Act.
aspects:
Statement 2: This is correct. The Act allows the
1. People’s participation in development: appointment of local social activists, mediators, or
Panchayati Raj institutions aim to empower conciliators to assist in resolving disputes through
local communities to actively participate in mediation and conciliation. This provision promotes
planning and executing developmental alternative dispute resolution mechanisms within the
activities. community.
2. Political accountability: While political
accountability is important, it is not the primary Q.5) Consider the following statements: (2016)
objective of Panchayati Raj. This aspect is more
1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be
aligned with representative democracy at higher
a member of a panchayat is 25 years.
levels of governance.
2. A panchayat reconstituted after premature
3. Democratic decentralization: Panchayati Raj is
dissolution continues only for the remainder period.
a system of decentralized governance,
transferring decision-making and administrative Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

47
(a) 1 only 2. The state cannot enter into any contract with
private corporations for sharing of Aadhar data.
(b) 2 only
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance
(c) Both 1 and 2
products.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Aadhar is mandatory for getting benefits funded
Ans: b out of the Consolidated fund of India.
Exp: Statement 1: This is incorrect. As per Article Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
243F of the Constitution, the minimum age to be a (a) 1 and 4 only
member of a Panchayat is 21 years, not 25 years.
This applies uniformly across all levels of (b) 2 and 4 only
Panchayati Raj Institutions. (c) 3 only
Statement 2: This is correct. If a Panchayat is (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
prematurely dissolved, the newly reconstituted
Panchayat continues only for the remainder of the Ans: a
term of the dissolved Panchayat, as per Article Exp: Statement 1 is not correct: A Constitution
243E(4) of the Constitution. Bench of the Supreme Court ruled that the Aadhaar
Thus, only statement 2 is correct, making the answer metadata cannot be stored beyond six months.
(b) 2 only. Statement 2 is correct: Part of Section 57 of the
Aadhaar Act, enabling body corporate and
Q.6) Local self-government can be best explained as individuals to seek authentication, has been held
an exercise in (2017) unconstitutional by the Supreme Court.
(a) Federalism Statement 3 is not correct: In the 2018 judgement,
the Supreme Court held that Aadhar is not
(b) Democratic decentralisation
mandatory to purchase the insurance products,
(c) Administrative delegation however, it can be voluntarily used for KYC of the
(d) Direct democracy insurance products. Even IRDA has made similar
rules.
Ans: b
Statement 4 is correct: The Supreme Court ruled that
Exp: Local self-government has been entrenched in any welfare scheme, driving funds out of the
all the states of India by the acts of the State Consolidated Fund of India, would require Aadhar
Legislatures to build democracy at the grass-root to deliver the benefits to the intended beneficiaries.
level. It is entrusted with rural development. It was
Constitutionalised through the 73rd Constitutional Q.2) With reference to the funds under Members of
Amendment Act of 1992. Balwant Rai G Mehta Parliament Local Area Development Scheme
committee submitted its report in November 1957 (MPLADS), which of the following statements are
and suggested the establishment of the scheme of correct? (2020)
‘democratic decentralisation’, which finally came to
be known as Panchayati Raj. 1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable
assets like physical infrastructure for health,
Governance education, etc.
Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2020) 2. A specified portion of each MP's fund must benefit
SC/ST populations.
1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than
three months.
48
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on a yearly basis Which of the above statements are not correct?
and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the (a) 1 and 2 only
next year.
(b) 2 and 3 only
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of
all works under implementation every year. (c) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only Ans: d
(b) 3 and 4 only Exp: Statement 1: This is incorrect. Bharat Ratna
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only and Padma Awards are not considered titles under
Article 18(1) of the Constitution. Article 18(1)
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only prohibits the State from conferring any title except
Ans: d military or academic distinctions. The Supreme
Court clarified in the Balaji Raghavan case (1996)
Exp: Statement 1: This is correct. Under the that these awards do not violate Article 18(1)
Members of Parliament Local Area Development because they are honors, not titles.
Scheme (MPLADS), funds must be used to create
Statement 2: This is incorrect. The Padma Awards,
durable assets such as infrastructure in the areas of
instituted in 1954, have been suspended twice—
health, education, drinking water, and sanitation,
during the periods 1977–1980 and 1993–1997—due
among others.
to changes in government policy.
Statement 2: This is correct. A specified portion of
Statement 3: This is incorrect. The number of
MPLADS funds must benefit Scheduled Castes (SC)
Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of
and Scheduled Tribes (ST) populations. The
three in a particular year, not five, as per the rules
guidelines mandate that at least 15% of the funds be
governing the award.
utilized for SCs and 7.5% for STs.
Statement 3: This is incorrect. MPLADS funds are
Q.4) At the national level, which ministry is the
allocated on a yearly basis, but unused funds can be
nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of
carried forward to the subsequent years during the
the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest
term of the MP. However, unused funds at the end of
Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
an MP's tenure are returned to the government.
(2021)
Statement 4: This is correct. The District Authority,
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate
responsible for implementing the MPLADS works,
Change
must inspect at least 10% of all works under
implementation every year to ensure proper (b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
utilization of funds and quality of work. (c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Q.3) Consider the following statements in respect of
Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards: (2021) Ans: d
1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under Exp: The Ministry of Tribal Affairs is the nodal
the Article 18 (1) of the Constitution of India. agency at the national level responsible for ensuring
2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year the effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes
1954, were suspended only once. and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers
(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006
3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted (commonly known as the Forest Rights Act or FRA).
to a maximum of five in a particular year.
49
● The Act recognizes and vests forest rights in
Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Q.6) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India,
Dwellers who have been living in forest areas consider the following statements: (2022)
for generations but whose rights were not 1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
formally recorded.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of
● The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
Climate Change plays a supportive role in
implementation, but the primary responsibility 3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in
lies with the Ministry of Tribal Affairs. Bengaluru.
Thus, the correct answer is (d) Ministry of Tribal 4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and
Affairs. Moscow.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
Q.5) With reference to the Union Government, (a) 1 and 3
consider the following statements: (2021)
(b) 2 and 4
1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested
that a minister and a secretary be designated solely (c) 3 and 4
for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and (d) 1 and 4
promoting it.
Ans: d
2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was
constituted on the Administrative Reforms Exp: Statement 1: This is correct. The Tea Board of
Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the India is a statutory body established under the Tea
Prime Minister’s charge. Act, 1953. It is responsible for the development and
promotion of the tea industry in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Statement 2: This is incorrect. The Tea Board is a
(a) 1 only regulatory body, but it is attached to the Ministry of
(b) 2 only Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of
Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
(c) Both 1 and 2
Statement 3: This is incorrect. The Tea Board's
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Head Office is located in Kolkata, not Bengaluru.
Ans: b Statement 4: This is correct. The Tea Board has
Exp: Statement 1 is incorrect. Sh. N. Gopalaswamy overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow to promote
Ayyangar, in his Report namely ‘Reorganization of Indian tea exports in international markets.
the Machinery of Central Government’ in 1950
recommended the grouping of ministries, Q.7) Consider the following statements: (2022)
improvement in the capabilities of the personnel, and
also in the working of the O&M Division. It nowhere 1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to
mentions that a minister and a secretary be promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the
designated solely for pursuing the subject of Government of India and the World Health
administrative reform and promoting it. Organization.

Statement 2 is correct. In 1970, on the basis of the 2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex
recommendations of the Administrative Reforms body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
Commission, the Department of Personnel was set in Government of India and provides innovative
up in the Cabinet Secretariat. It was placed under the solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.
Prime Minister’s Office.
50
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Exp: Pair 1 is correctly matched: The Official
Secrets Act, 1923 prohibits person from using or
(a) 1 only
wearing, without lawful authority, any naval,
(b) 2 only military, air force, police or other official uniform,
(c) Both 1 and 2 or any uniform so nearly resembling the same as to
be calculated to deceive, or falsely represents
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 himself to be a person who is or has been entitled to
Ans: b use or wear any such uniform

Exp: Statement 1: This is incorrect. The India Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: It is under The
Sanitation Coalition (ISC) is a multi-stakeholder Official Secrets Act, 1923, that no person in the
platform that promotes sustainable sanitation vicinity of any prohibited place shall obstruct,
solutions in India. However, it is not funded by the knowingly mislead or otherwise interfere with or
Government of India or the World Health impede, any police officer, or any member of 21 [the
Organization (WHO). It primarily involves Armed Forces of the Union] engaged on guard,
partnerships with the private sector, NGOs, and sentry, patrol or other similar duty in relation to the
other stakeholders. prohibited place.

Statement 2: This is correct. The National Institute Pair 3 is correctly matched: The Arms Act
of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is an apex body under the Amendment of 2019 adds news offences such as
Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), forcefully taking a firearm from police or armed
Government of India. It provides research, advisory, forces and using firearms in a celebratory gunfire
and innovative solutions to address urban challenges which endangers human life or personal safety of
in India, including housing, sanitation, and others.
infrastructure.
Q.9) How many Delimitation Commissions have
Q.8) With reference to India, consider the following been constituted by the Government of India till
pairs: (2023) December 2023? (2024)

Action: The Act under which it is covered (a) One

(b) Two
1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military (c) Three
uniforms : The Official Secrets Act, 1923 (d) Four
2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering Ans: d
with a police officer or military officer when engaged
in their duties : The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 Exp: The Government of India has constituted four
Delimitation Commissions till December 2023.
3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the These commissions were established to redraw the
personal safety of others : The Arms (Amendment) boundaries of parliamentary and assembly
Act, 2019 constituencies based on population data from the
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? censuses.
(a) Only one ❖ First Delimitation Commission (1952):
(b) Only two ⮚ Based on the 1951 Census.
(c) All three ❖ Second Delimitation Commission (1963):
(d) None
⮚ Based on the 1961 Census.
Ans: b
❖ Third Delimitation Commission (1973):
51
 ⮚ Based on the 1971 Census. 1. National Development Council
❖ Fourth Delimitation Commission (2002): 2. Planning Commission

⮚ Based on the 2001 Census, though the total 3. Zonal Councils

number of seats in Parliament and State Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Assemblies was frozen until 2026 as per the
(a) 1 and 2 only
42nd Amendment.
(b) 2 only
Q.10) Consider the following statements: (2024) (c) 1 and 3 only
1. It is the Government of the State who (d) 1, 2 and 3
recognizes and declares any community of
that State as a Scheduled Tribe. Ans: d

2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe Exp: National Development Council (NDC): The
in a State need not to be so in another State. National Development Council was established in
1952 by an executive resolution of the Government
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? of India. It is not mentioned in the Constitution and
(a) 1 only functions as an advisory body to the Planning
(b) 2 only Commission (now replaced by NITI Aayog).
(c) Both 1 and 2 Planning Commission: The Planning Commission
(d) Neither 2 nor 2 was established in 1950 by a resolution of the
Ans: b Government of India. It was not a constitutional body
and did not have any mention in the Constitution. It
Exp: Statement 1: This is incorrect. has since been replaced by the NITI Aayogin 2015.
⮚ The President of India, in consultation with Zonal Councils: Zonal Councils were established
the Governor of the concerned state, under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, and are
recognizes and declares any community as a statutory bodies. They are not mentioned in the
Scheduled Tribe under Article 342 of the Constitution.
Constitution. The state government does not
have the authority to make such declarations Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2013)
independently. Attorney General of India can
❖ Statement 2: This is correct. 1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
⮚ A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe 2. be a member of a Committee of the Lok Sabha
in one State may not necessarily be
3. speak in the Lok Sabha
recognized as a Scheduled Tribe in another
State. The status of Scheduled Tribes is 4. vote in the Lok Sabha
specific to a state or union territory and Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
depends on the socio-economic and
historical context of that particular region. (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
Constitutional and Non-
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
constitutional Bodies
(d) 1 and 3 only
Q.1) Which of the following bodies does not/ do not
find mention in the Constitution? (2013) Ans: c

52
Exp: The Attorney General of India, as per Article Exp: Statement 1: This is incorrect. The Election
76 of the Constitution, is the highest law officer of Commission of India (ECI) is a three-member
the country and enjoys certain privileges: body, consisting of the Chief Election
Commissioner (CEC) and two Election
❖ Take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha: Commissioners. It is not a five-member body.
⮚ Correct. The Attorney General has the right Statement 2: This is incorrect. The Election
to take part in the proceedings of both Commission of India, not the Ministry of Home
Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting, Affairs, decides the election schedule for general
but without voting rights. elections and by-elections. The ECI is an
❖ Be a member of a Committee of the Lok independent constitutional authority under Article
Sabha: 324.

⮚ Correct. The Attorney General can be Statement 3: This is correct. The ECI resolves
invited to be a part of a parliamentary disputes related to splits or mergers in recognized
committee, as their expertise may be political parties under the Election Symbols
required in legal matters. (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968. It decides
which faction is entitled to the party's name and
❖ Speak in the Lok Sabha: symbol.
⮚ Correct. The Attorney General can speak in
the Lok Sabha and provide legal advice or Q.4) Consider the following statements : (2022)
clarifications when called upon. 1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of
❖ Vote in the Lok Sabha: India are the only officers of the Government who
are allowed to participate in the meetings of the
⮚ Incorrect. The Attorney General is not a Parliament of India.
member of Parliament and thus does not
have voting rights in the Lok Sabha. 2. According to the Constitution of India, the
Attorney General of India submits his resignation
when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Q.3) Consider the following statements: (2017)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-
member body. (a) 1 only

2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the (b) 2 only

election schedule for the conduct of both general (c) Both 1 and 2
elections and by-elections.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes
relating to splits/mergers of recognized political Ans: d
parties. Exp: Statement 1: This is incorrect. While the
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Attorney General of India is allowed to participate
in the proceedings of Parliament (including its
(a) 1 and 2 only committees) under Article 88 of the Constitution, the
(b) 2 only Solicitor General of India does not have this
privilege. The Solicitor General is not a
(c) 2 and 3 only
constitutional post but an officer appointed to assist
(d) 3 only the Attorney General.
Ans: d Statement 2: This is incorrect. The Attorney
General of India holds office during the pleasure of
53
the President as per Article 76(4) of the ❖ The National Consumer Disputes Redressal
Constitution. While it is conventionally understood Commission (NCDRC):
that the Attorney General resigns when the
government that appointed them resigns, it is not a ⮚ Constitutional Body: No.
constitutional requirement. ⮚ It is a quasi-judicial statutory body
established under the Consumer Protection
Q.5) Consider the following organizations/ bodies in Act, 1986.
India: (2023)
1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
Quasi-Judicial Bodies
Q.1) With reference to National Legal Services
2. The National Human Rights Commission Authority, consider the following statements: (2013)
3. The National Law Commission 1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal services to the weaker sections of the society on the
Commission basis of equal opportunity.

How many of the above are constitutional bodies? 2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services
Authorities to implement the legal programs and
(a) Only one schemes throughout the country.
(b) Only two Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Only three (a) 1 only
(d) All four (b) 2 only
Ans: a (c) Both 1 and 2
Exp: The National Commission for Backward (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Classes (NCBC):
Ans: c
⮚ Constitutional Body: Yes.
Exp: Statement 1: This is correct. The National
⮚ It was made a constitutional body by the Legal Services Authority (NALSA) was constituted
102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. Its
2018, and is established under Article 338B. primary objective is to provide free and competent
legal services to the weaker sections of society,
❖ The National Human Rights Commission ensuring equal opportunity for justice. It also works
(NHRC): to promote legal awareness and resolve disputes
⮚ Constitutional Body: No. through alternative mechanisms like Lok Adalats.
⮚ It is a statutory body, established under the Statement 2: This is correct. NALSA issues
Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. guidelines to State Legal Services Authorities
(SLSAs) for implementing legal programs and
❖ The National Law Commission: schemes effectively across the country. This includes
⮚ Constitutional Body: No. the organization of Lok Adalats, legal literacy
camps, and ensuring access to justice for
⮚ It is an ad hoc statutory body constituted by marginalized groups.
the Government of India from time to time to
recommend legal reforms. It is not Q.2) In India, which of the following review the
mentioned in the Constitution. independent regulators in sectors like

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telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.? ❖ NITI Aayog:
(2019)
⮚ Incorrect. NITI Aayog provides policy
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament advice and coordination but does not
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing directly review independent regulators.
Committees
3. Finance Commission Q.3) In India, Legal Services Authorities provide
free legal services to which of the following types of
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission citizens? (2020)
5. NITI Aayog 1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 1,00,000
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Transgender with an annual income of less than
Rs. 2,00,000
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only an annual income of less than Rs. 3,00,000
(d) 2 and 5 only 4. All Senior Citizens
Ans: a Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Exp: Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament: (a) 1 and 2 only
⮚ Correct. These committees may be set up by (b) 3 and 4 only
Parliament to review specific issues,
(c) 2 and 3 only
including the functioning of independent
regulators in sectors like (d) 1 and 4 only
telecommunications, insurance, and
Ans: a
electricity.
Exp: Under the Legal Services Authorities Act,
❖ Parliamentary Department-Related Standing
1987, free legal services are provided to certain
Committees:
categories of citizens, including those based on
⮚ Correct. These committees regularly review annual income thresholds as specified by the
the policies, programs, and functioning of respective Legal Services Authorities.
ministries and their regulatory bodies,
❖ Person with an annual income of less than
including independent regulators.
Rs. 1,00,000:
❖ Finance Commission:
⮚ Correct. Free legal aid is available to
⮚ Incorrect. The Finance Commission individuals whose annual income is below
focuses on the financial relations between the limit specified by the Legal Services
the Centre and States and does not review Authority. The threshold is determined by
independent regulators. state-specific notifications, and Rs. 1,00,000
is a common threshold in many states.
❖ Financial Sector Legislative Reforms
Commission (FSLRC): ❖ Transgender with an annual income of less
than Rs. 2,00,000:
⮚ Incorrect. The FSLRC was a one-time
commission (2011) tasked with reviewing ⮚ Correct. As per the amended guidelines,
and rewriting financial sector laws, not with transgender individuals with an annual
reviewing independent regulators.
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 income below Rs. 2,00,000 are entitled to
free legal services.
❖ Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC)
with an annual income of less than Rs.
3,00,000:
⮚ Incorrect. Membership in the OBC
category alone does not qualify an
individual for free legal aid unless they fall
under the income threshold or other
specified criteria (such as Scheduled Castes,
Scheduled Tribes, or women in distress).
❖ All Senior Citizens:
⮚ Incorrect. Free legal aid is not available to
all senior citizens. It is available only to
those meeting specific income criteria or
falling under vulnerable categories as
defined by the Legal Services Authorities.

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