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Model Test 99

The document is a model test for SBI Clerk and LIC Assistant prelims, focusing on English language comprehension and numerical ability. It includes various exercises such as synonym replacement, filling in blanks, and error detection in sentences. Additionally, it features passages on topics like noise pollution and the impact of firecrackers, along with questions to assess understanding and critical thinking.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
77 views12 pages

Model Test 99

The document is a model test for SBI Clerk and LIC Assistant prelims, focusing on English language comprehension and numerical ability. It includes various exercises such as synonym replacement, filling in blanks, and error detection in sentences. Additionally, it features passages on topics like noise pollution and the impact of firecrackers, along with questions to assess understanding and critical thinking.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst.

PRELIMS MT - 99

SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MODEL TEST-99


ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (1-2): Which of the following words/group of words given against the

r’s
sentence conveys the same meaning as the phrase given in bold and can replace
it in the sentence grammatically and contextually? If none of the words/group of
words conveys the same meaning as the phrase given in bold and can replace it
in the sentence grammatically and contextually. Select “None of the given options”
as the answer.
1. Saturday dawned to the liquid acoustics of rain. It stayed that way here for a
ha
large part and as umbrellas were unfurled and people went about their business
in the Australian capital, a sport that demanded sun and sparkle, was left stranded.
1) melodic sound of rainfall 2) rhythmic patter of raindrops
3) soft murmurs of rain
5) No replacement needed

E 4) gentle harmony of rain


d
2. India men’s hockey team captain Harmanpreet Singh has two Olympic bronze
medals in his cabinet, but rues missing out on World Cup glory, an anomaly that
he wants to set right in the next edition of the mega event in 2026.
1) regrets the absence of World Cup triumph
ee

2) laments over not achieving World Cup success


3) is disappointed with missing World Cup glory
4) feels sorrowful for missing out on World Cup success
C
5) No replacement needed
Directions (3-7): In the passage given below there are five blanks numbered.
Sr

Choose the appropriate word to fill the blank from the five alternatives given.
Arshi Alam, a child and adolescent psychologist who is currently working as
a school counsellor in a private school in Gurugram, says, “From a socio-emotional
point of view, the absence of regular school classes, particularly at such an ——
(3)——age, can lead to a lack of age-appropriate socialisation. Children might not
learn important life skills such as conflict resolution.”
She adds that in such competitive environments, students feel like they are
C
part of a—— (4)——,and are unable to release emotions such as anger, confusion,
or feeling overwhelmed since there is no vent for such emotions. “In school, with
activities such as craft, dance, theatre, and visual arts, a student’s ——(5)—-
needs are also taken care of.”
A Delhi-based parent who sent his son to a coaching institute affiliated with
a ‘dummy school’ for a term in Class 12 says, on condition of ——(6)—,that just a
few months of studying in such an environment wreaked havoc in his son’s life.
His son thought that one year of focused coaching preparation was necessary.
“We agreed to take him out of regular school and enrol him in a ‘dummy school’.
Everything was impacted, from his handwriting to concentration, and discipline,”
says the father. His son’s physical and mental health took a —(7)—,and after the
term was over, the child went back to being a regular student in a regular school.
3. 1) impressionable2) formative 3) mature 4) critical 5) impervious
4. 1) competition 2) system 3) roster 4) rat-race 5) modus operandi
5. 1) psychological2) empirical 3) sensory 4) emotional 5) poignant
6. 1) confidence 2) anonymity 3) secrecy 4) security 5) amity
7. 1) break 2) toll 3) loss 4) hit 5) tenancy

1
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 99

Directions (8-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions.
The festival of Deepavali is behind us now. All our festivals bring us joy, and
the festival of light is also accompanied by a great deal of sound. There are pleas
for the use of green crackers to bring down harmful emissions such as
sulfurdioxide, and to reduce the noise created when they are ignited. These
have been mandated by the Supreme Court,/A/ with detailed specifications
such that a ban/B/ on the manufacture and sale off firecrackers that /C/are
joined by long rows. But every passing year, /D/ their loud sounds continue to

r’s
be heard in festival seasons./E/
Public attention is focused on the resultant air pollution, but of equal concern
is the damage that very loud sounds can do to our hearing. Going beyond
firecrackers, the year-CM YK round noise levels also get less attention than
other forms of pollution. It is as if noise is more easily accepted as part of our
ha
surroundings, and acceptance is even easier when you are yourself creating the
noise.
Sound travels in waves that carry energy. The more energy, the more intense

E
the wave, and the louder the sound. The decibel scale is used to measure the
loudness of sound. It is a logarithmic scale, so when the sound level is measured
d
to have risen by10 dB, the sound is ten times more intense. On the decibel scale,
the thresh- old of human hearing is set at 0 dB. A whisper measures 30 dB, and
normal speech is 60 dB. A loud firecracker, measured from 10 feet away, has an
ee

intensity of 140 dB. This can easily damage the hair cells in the cochlea of the
ear, which receive vibrations from the eardrum and convert them to nerve signals.
Dam- age to these hair cells makes them less sensitive to sound. As a result,
C
louder sounds required before a hair cell can respond and nerve impulses are
sent to the brain. The hair cells can recover somewhat from moderately loud
Sr

sounds. However, unlike our skin cells, these cells are incapable of re- generation.
Repeated assaults can make recovery difficult, resulting in noise-induced hearing
loss.
8. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the argument that firecracker
noise contributes significantly to noise pollution?
1) The majority of complaints during Deepavali pertain to air pollution rather
C
than noise pollution.
2) Noise levels from firecrackers often exceed 140 dB, which is harmful to human
hearing.
3) Manufacturers claim that modern firecrackers comply with Supreme Court
guidelines on noise levels.
4) Noise pollution is less noticeable than air pollution, making it harder for people
to assess its impact.
5)All the above
9. What assumption does the author make about the impact of noise pollution?
1) Noise pollution is more harmful than air pollution.
2) People are aware of the harmful effects of noise pollution but choose to ignore
them.
3) Noise pollution, like air pollution, has serious consequences that deserve
attention.
4) Supreme Court guidelines on firecracker noise levels are ineffective.
5) None

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 99

10. Which of the following would weaken the argument that noise from firecrackers
during festivals causes long-term hearing damage?
1) Loud noises during festivals are limited to a few days a year.
2) Most firecrackers available in the market meet noise level regulations.
3) Noise-induced hearing loss results only from prolonged exposure to loud sounds.
4) Public campaigns have successfully reduced firecracker usage during festivals
5) All the above
11. What is the primary purpose of the Supreme Court’s mandate on the use of green
crackers?
1) To eliminate the production of firecrackers altogether.

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2) To reduce harmful emissions and noise pollution.
3) To encourage the use of renewable materials in firecracker manufacturing.
4) To limit the production and sale of firecrackers during non-festival seasons.
5) Both 1 and 3
12. What can be inferred about public awareness of noise pollution based on the
passage?
ha
1) People are generally more aware of noise pollution than air pollution.
2) Noise pollution is accepted more readily because individuals contribute to it.

E
3) Noise pollution has minimal effects compared to air pollution.
4) Public awareness campaigns about noise pollution have been highly effective.
d
5)Both 2 and 4
13. Find error part in the bolded sentence in the passage.
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
ee

14. Find the synonyms of the word pleas given in the passage
1) sounds 2) causalities 3) substances 4) revulsions 5) appeals
15. Find the substitute of the word As a result given in the passage
C
1) with all 2) in spite of 3) nevertheless 4) so 5) consequent
Directions (16-20): Rearrange the following five sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), and (5)
Sr

in a proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph. Then answer the


given question.
1. Fossil records show that dinosaurs evolved during the middle Triassic period
but became dominant in ecosystems only by the early Jurassic period.
2.Researchers analyzed over 500 fossilized remains of digestive material, known
as bromalites, from the Polish Basin spanning the Late Triassic to early Jurassic.
3.An international collaboration has identified undigested food remains, plants,
C
and prey in fossilized dinosaur faeces, helping to reconstruct their ecological
rise.
4.These analyses, combined with climate and plant data, revealed insights into
changes in size and abundance of vertebrates during this transition.
5.Many non-dinosaur tetrapods were displaced during this time, but the reasons
for the dominance of dinosaurs remained unclear until now.
16. Which of the following will be THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 5) 5
17. Which of the following will be SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 5) 5
18. Which of the following will be FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 5) 5
19. Which of the following will be FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 5) 5
20. Which of the following will be FIFTH (last) sentence after rearrangement?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4 5) 5

3
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 99

Direction (21): Read the following passage carefully and answer the question
given below it.
Next to air pollution, plastic pollution has pervaded the world at an alarming
and unprecedented rate. While plastics have some advantages, their disadvantages,
such as being non-biodegradable and posing health risks due to harmful chemicals,
outweigh their benefits. Controlling the use of plastics entirely may not be
immediately possible, but a solution is required to resolve this issue.
21. Which of the following best addresses the issue of plastic pollution as outlined
in the statement?
1) Encouraging the immediate ban of all plastic production worldwide, regardless
of its practicality or economic impact.
2) Promoting the development and use of biodegradable alternatives to plastics

r’s
while gradually reducing plastic dependency.
3) Mandating all industries to increase plastic production to meet growing demands
in packaging and other uses.
4) Increasing awareness about the advantages of plastics over other materials to
justify their widespread use.
5) Accepting that plastic pollution is inevitable and focusing instead on controlling
air pollution.
ha
Directions (22-27): In this question a sentence divided into four parts denoted by
(A), (B), (C) and (D) has been given. Read the sentence to find out whether there
is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence.

E
That part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is “No error”. Ignore the
errors of punctuation of any.
d
22. The CBSE has cracked down on schools(A) /that offers students attendance in
lieu of(B) /the school fee, so that the children can spend that(C) / time training
for entrance examinations to colleges.(D) NO ERROR(E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
ee

23. If students do not have(A) / a bank account to receive welfare assistance, schools(B)
/are required to open a (C) / post office account for them.(D) NO ERROR(E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
C
24. Indian Grandmaster says he is trying(A) /to take it one game at(B) / a time and
that is a lot more important (C) /ones to come.(D) NO ERROR(E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Sr

25. Certain hormone replacement therapy (HRT) tablets(A) / containing both


oestrogen(B) /and progestogen are associated with a (C) /higher risk than heart
disease.(D) NO ERROR(E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
26. An international collaboration (A) /has been able to identify undigested food(B) /
remain, plants and prey in the fossilised faeces(C) /of dinosaurs.(D) NO ERROR(E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
27. Alarge population study indicates(A) /that insulin resistance may (B) /be an
C
important risking factor(C) /for the development of heart valve disease —
aorticstenosis.(D) NO ERROR(E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Directions (28-30): The sentence has two blanks which indicates something has
been omitted. Which of the following words given against the sentence, fits the
blank in the given sentence both grammatically and meaningfully?
28. The minister’s remarks were intended to __________ the concerns of the citizens,
but they only __________the situation further.
1) address, escalated 2) calm, aggravated
3) increase,simplified 4) avoid, resolved
5) callous, intensified
29. The project manager was _________ with his team’s performance and promised to
___________ their efforts in the upcoming meeting.
1) disappointed, highlight 2) satisfied, undermine 3) thrilled, criticize
4) impressed, commend 5) disgruntled, acclaim
30. The new policies are designed to________ environmental damage while __________
sustainable development.
1) reduce, promoting 2) halt, discouraging
3) mitigate, hindering 4) encourage, ignoring 5) stall, motivating

4
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 99

NUMERICAL ABILITY
Direction (31-40) : What will come in place of question mark (?) in the given
question ?
31. 89  480  2.25  2 = 316 ?
1) 14 2) 13 3) 11 4) 15 5) 12
? 14  3  4
32.  20
0.6

r’s
1) 22.5 2) 20.5 3) 28 4) 32 5) 30.75
1 1
33.     32  ?  12
4 2
1) 3 2) 2 ha 3) 8 4) 4 5) 6
3 3 5 1
34.   1     1   ?  714
8 4 6 6
1) 168

 0.81
2

2) 164
10 1 3
1  ?

E 3) 176 4) 156 5) 184


d
35.
27 8
1 3 2 3 4
ee

1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
5 10 5 5 5
36. 48  ? + 26  3 = 14
C
1) 9 2) 121 3) 81 4) 169 5) 289
37. 60 % of (20  1.5  8) = ?
Sr

1) 4.5 2) 1.75 3) 6 4) 5 5) 2.25


38. 9216 - 25  ? = 720  8
1) 0.36 2) 0.24 3) 0.18 4) 0.16 5) 0.28
3
39. ?2   50 – 510 = 90
4
C
1) 16 2) 0.4 3) 2 4) 4 5) 1.6
40. 62% of 450 + 30% of 380 = ?3 + 50
1) 5 2) 7 3) 9 4) 6 5) 8
Direction (41-45) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the given
number series ?
41. 250 248 239 211 146 ?
1) 38 2) 62 3) 56 4) 49 5) 20
42. 29 40 53 70 89 ?
1) 123 2) 93 3) 136 4) 98 5) 112
43. 12 20 16 18 ? 17.5
1) 11 2) 12.5 3) 15 4) 17 5) 14
44. 6 4 5 8.5 18 ?
1) 40 2) 36 3) 46 4) 48 5) 32
45. 10 11 14 21 36 ?
1) 55 2) 59 3) 67 4) 65 5) 72

5
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 99

Direction (46-50): Refer to the following table and answer the given question:
Number of Cakes baked by 6 backeries in five weeks :

Bakeries
Weeks
Bakery P Bakery Q Bakery R Bakery S Bakery T Bakery U
1st 248 268 255 215 236 291
2nd 338 352 396 384 371 329

r’s
3rd 187 284 262 198 244 386
4th 231 352 203 220 284 340
5th 296 214 369 387 256 244
ha
46. Total number of cakes baked by bakery S in all the given weeks together is what

E
percent of the total number of cakes baked by bakery P in all the given weeks
together ?
d
1) 114 2) 106 3) 108 4) 104 5) 112
47. What is the difference between total number of cakes baked by all the given
bakeries together in 2nd week and total number of cakes baked by all the given
ee

bakeries together in 5th week ?


1) 372 2) 396 3) 394 4) 384 5) 404
C
48. What is the average number of cakes baked by bakery R in all the given weeks
together ?
Sr

1) 291 2) 293 3) 297 4) 285 5) 281


49. What is the respective ratio between total number of cakes baked by bakery T in
3rd and 4th week together and total number of cakes baked by bakery U in 3rd
and 4th — week together ?
1) 6:11 2) 12 : 19 3) 8 : 13 4) 8:11 5) 12:17
50. Number of cakes baked by bakery Q in 1st week is what percent less than the
C
number of cakes baked by the same bakery in 4th week ? (Rounded off to nearest
integer)
1) 24 2) 22 3) 26 4) 28 5) 20
Direction(Q.No:51-55) : In this question two equation numbered I and II are
given. You have to solve both the equations and find out the correct answer:
51. I. 6X2 + 23X + 21 = 0
II. 9Y2 + 27Y + 20 = 0
1) X  Y 2) X < Y 3) X > Y 4) X  Y
5) X = Y or Relationship between X & Y cannot be established
52. I. X2 + 7X+ 12 = 0
II. 4Y2+16Y+15 = 0
1) X < Y 2) X  Y 3) X  Y
4) X = Y or Relationship between X & Y cannot be established 5) X > Y

6
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 99

53. I. X2 - X - 56 = 0
II. Y2 - 17Y + 72 = 0
1) X = Y or Relationship between X & Y cannot be established
2) X < Y 3) X  Y 4) X  Y 5) X > Y
54. I. X2 = 121
II. Y2 + 22Y + 121 = 0
1) X  Y 2) X > Y 3) X < Y 4) X  Y

r’s
5) X = Y or Relationship between X & Y cannot be established
2
55. I. 2X - 23X + 63 = 0
II. 2Y2 -15Y + 28 = 0
1) X > Y 2) X < Y 3) X  Y 4) X  Y
ha
5) X = Y or Relationship between X & Y cannot be established

7 5
56. The sum of
12
th of X and

E
9
th of Y is 103 and the value of X is greater than the

value of Y by 36. What is the value of Y?


d
1) 81 2) 90 3)72 4) 54 5) 63
57. A man has Rs. 1288 in the denominations of one rupee notes, two rupees notes,
ee

five rupees notes and twenty rupees notes. The number of notes of each
denomination is equal. What is the total number of notes that he has ?
C
1) 192 2) 172 3) 196 4) 184 5) 168

5 1
Sr

58. In an office. th of the employees are females. If th of the female employees


12 5
1
and th of the male employees are absent in the annual function, what percentage
8
of total number of employees are present in annual function ?
C
7 1 7 5 3
1) 86 2) 86 3) 80 4) 82 5) 84
8 8 8 8 8
59. In a competitive exam 25% of the applicants were found ineligible and 68% of the
eligible applicants were male. If the number of eligible female applicants was
10080. total how many applicants were there (both eligible and ineligible) ?
1) 40500 2) 48000 3) 44000 4) 45500 5) 42000
60. If a boat goes 15 km upstream in 40 minutes and the speed of the stream is 2.75
kmph. what is its speed downstream ? (In kmph)
1) 25.25 2) 28 3) 32 4) 30.25 5) 24.5
61. Two taps. A and B, can fill a tank in 16 hours and 24 hours respectively. If both
the taps are opened simultaneously and after 6 hours tap A is closed, how much
more time will tap B take to fill the remaining tank ? (In hours)
1) 9 2) 11 3) 10.5 4) 7 5) 7.5

7
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 99

62. A certain number of books were purchased for Rs. 576. Six more books could have
been purchased in the same amount, if each book was cheaper by Rs. 8. What
was the number of books purchased ?
1) 14 2) 12 3) 22 4) 16 5) 18
63. A and B started a business by investing some amount in the respective ratio of 9
: 7. After 4 months C joined them with an amount equal to that of B. If the annual
profit is Rs. 52,390. what is A’s share of annual profit ?
1) Rs.21,985 2) Rs.22,815 3) Rs. 23,655 4) Rs. 23,365 5) Rs. 24,065

r’s
64. A certain sum of money is divided between Sweety and Tweety in the ratio 13 : 15
respectively. If Sweety’s share is 48 rupees less than Tweety’s share, find the
sum of money that was divided among them.
1) Rs. 672 2) Rs. 656 3) Rs. 590 4) Rs. 688 5) Rs. 582
65. Rs. 12,850 becomes Rs. 15,163 in 3 years at a certain rate of simple interest. If
ha
the rate of interest is increased by 10%. What would be the simple interest
accrued on Rs. 12,850 in 3 years ?
1) Rs. 6168 2) Rs. 6336 3) Rs. 6062 4) Rs. 6452 5) Rs. 5928

E REASONING
d
Direction (66-70): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Seven people – A, B, C, D, E, F and G live on seven different floors of a seven
ee

storeyed building where ground floor is numbered as one, the one above that is
numbered as two and so on till the topmost floor of the building is numbered as
seven. Only one person lives on each floor.
C
C lives on an odd numbered floor but below the fifth floor. Only one person
lives between E and G. G lives on fifth floor. F lives immediate to C. D lives
Sr

immediate to E and G. A lives above B and neither of them lives the top most floor
nor the bottom most floor.
66. Who among the following person lives on third floor?
1) A 2) C 3) B 4) D 5) G
67. Who among the following person lives immediately above G?
C
1) E 2) D 3) F 4) B 5) A
68. Who amongst the following people live on the both top most and the bottom most
floors?
1) DC 2) FD 3) CE 4) EF 5) GA
69. How many people live between D and F?
1) One 2) Two 3) None 4) Three 5) Four
70. If all the people are arranged in an alphabetical order from top to bottom, then
how many people will remain unchanged?
1) Three 2) One 3) None 4) Two 5) More than three
71. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word “EQUIPMENT” each of
which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and
backward directions) as they have between them in English alphabetical order?
1) One 2) Three 3) Four 4) Two 5) None

8
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 99

Direction (72-74): In the question three statements followed by two conclusions I


and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
72. Statements: Only a few Buses are Cars No Car is Van
Some Vans are Trains
Conclusion I: All Buses are Vans.

r’s
Conclusion II: Some Trains are Buses.
1) Only Conclusion I follows 2) Only Conclusion II follows
3) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows 4) Either Conclusion I or II follows
5) Both Conclusions I and II follow
ha
73. Statements: Only a few Windows are Walls
All Chairs are Walls

E
No chair is Room
Conclusion I: Some Chairs are Windows is a Possibility.
d
Conclusion II: All Rooms are Walls is a Possibility.
1) Only Conclusion I follows 2) Only Conclusion II follows
ee

3) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows 4) Either Conclusion I or II follows


5) Both Conclusions I and II follow
74. Statements: All Bikes are Cycles Only a few Cycles are Tires
C
No Tire is Pump
Sr

Conclusion I: All Bikes are Pumps.


Conclusion II: No Bike is Pump.
1) Only Conclusion I follows 2) Only Conclusion II follows
3) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows 4) Either Conclusion I or II follows
5) Both Conclusions I and II follow
C
Direction (75-77): Study the given arrangement of symbol and digits carefully to
answer the given question:
4 * 3  # 1 5 6 % 9 @ 5 8 ¥ 9 8 ^ 2 & 6 3 © 1 4 $
6  5
75. Which of the following element is fourteenth to the right of the one which is
seventh from the left end?
1) & 2) 9 3) 3 4) © 5) 6
76. Which of the following element is exactly between the one which is twelfth from
the left end and which is fifteenth from the right end?
1) 9 2) 8 3) ^ 4) ¥ 5) None of these
77. How many odd digits are immediately preceded and immediately succeeded by
the symbol?
1) One 2) Two 3) Four 4) Five 5) More than five

9
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 99

Direction (78-82): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Six people – P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a triangular table. Three
people sit at three corners of the table and three people sit on three sides of the
table. All of them are facing away from the center. Each person works in a different
companys viz. Wipro, HCL, Reliance, TCS, Infosys and Tech Mahindra.
T sits immediate left of the one who works in Reliance. Two people sit between
S and the one who works in Infosys. The one who works in Tech Mahindra sits
second to the left of R. R does not work in HCL. As many people sit between T and

r’s
Q (to the right of Q) as between the one who works in Reliance and R (either from
left or right). U sits on one of the sides of the table but not sits immediate to Q.
Only one person sits between T and the one who works in TCS. Person who works
in TCS sits second to the right of Q.
ha
78. Who among the following person works in Reliance?
1) T 2) Q 3) P 4) U 5) R
79. R works in __ company.
1) TCS 2) Wipro

E 3) Infosys 4) Reliance 5) Tech Mahindra


d
80. What is the position of S with respect to T?
ee

1) Third to the left 2) Immediate left 3) Third to the right


4) Second to the left 5) Both 1 and 3
81. Which among the following is the odd one?
C
1) T – HCL 2) R – Reliance 3) U – Infosys 4) Q – HCL 5) P – Tech Mahindra
Sr

82. If all the people are arranged in an alphabetical order starting from P in a clockwise
direction, then how many of the persons remain at the same place (excluding P)?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) Five
Direction (83-84): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
C
Eight people belong to a family of three generations with three married
couples. D is the grandmother of G, who is the child of A. A is the son of H. C is
the sister-in-law of E, who is the daughter of H. G is the nephew of E. F is the
niece of A. B is the father of F.
83. How many male members are there in the family?
1) Three 2) One 3) Four 4) Five 5) Two
84. If E is the daughter-in-law of N, then how is B related to N?
1) Father 2) Mother 3) Daughter 4) Son 5) Son-in-law
85. In the number ‘94618375’ all the digits are arranged in an ascending order
within the number, then position/s of how many digits will remain unchanged as
compared to the original number?
1) Three 2) One 3) Two 4) None 5) More than three

10
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 99

Direction (86-87): In this question relationship between different elements is


shown in the statement/s. The statement/s is/are followed by two conclusions.
Study the given conclusions based on the given statement/s and select the
appropriate option as your answer.
86. Statements: M >T  D; F < H > J  M
Conclusion I: H > T
Conclusion II: D < H
1) Only conclusion I is true 2) Only conclusion II is true
3) Either conclusion I or II is true 4) Neither conclusion I nor II is true

r’s
5) Both conclusions I and II are true
87. Statements: A  M > D; L  E > D
Conclusion I: A > E
Conclusion II: E  A
ha
1) Only conclusion I is true
3) Either conclusion I or II is true
2) Only conclusion II is true
4) Neither conclusion I nor II is true

88.

E
5) Both conclusions I and II are true
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
d
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to that group?
1) JLI 2) OQN 3) HKI 4) WYV 5) BDA
ee

Direction (89-93): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
C
Seven people viz. A, B, C, D, E, F and G were born on seven different days of
the same week starting from Monday and ending on Sunday. Only one person
was born on each day.
Sr

D was born on Wednesday. Only one person was born between D and F. B
was born immediately after F. C was born before G. As many people were born
after B as before G. More than two people were born between G and E.
89. Who among the following person was born on Thursday?
1) F 2) G 3) B 4) A 5) E
C
90. How many people were born between C and F?
1) Two 2) None 3) Three 4) One 5) More than three
91. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to that group?
1) Monday – G 2) Sunday – B 3) Friday – A
4) Saturday – F 5) Tuesday – E
92. B was born on which of the following day?
1) Tuesday 2) Friday 3) Sunday 4) Monday 5) Saturday
93. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true as per the given arrangement?
1) E was born on Sunday.
2) Only one person was born between G and A.
3) D was born before B.
4) C was born immediately before G. 5) All the statements are true

11
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 99

Direction (94-95): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Point M is 6m North of point K. Point T is 8m East of point M. Point B is 11m
South of point T. Point V is 13m West of point B. Point V is 7m South of point R.
Point P is 4m West of point R. Point S is 8m North of point P. Point S is 9m West of
point A.
94. Which direction is point R with respect to point K?
1) South-East 2) West 3) North-West
4) South-West 5) North-East

r’s
94. What is the distance between point M and point A?
1) 5m 2) 3m 3) 2m 4) 6m 5) 4m
Direction (96-100): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
ha
Seven people viz. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting in a straight line facing
north with an equal distance between adjecent people. C sits third to the right of
G. F sits immediate right of C. Only two people sit between E and D. D sits one of

E
the extreme ends of the line. A does not sit immediate to G. More than three
people sit between F and B.
d
96. How many people sit between B and C?
1) Two 2) Three 3) None 4) One 5) More than three
ee

97. Who among the following person sits immediate left of A?


1) G 2) C 3) D 4) E 5) F
C
98. As many people sit between E and C as between _____ and _____.
1) A, D 2) B, A 3) G, D 4) D, B 5) F, G
Sr

99. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true as per the given arrangement?
1) Two people sit between B and C.
2) G sits immediate left of E.
3) A sits second to the left of F.
4) Both 2 and 3 are true
C
5) All the statements are true
100. What is the position of G with respect to D?
1) Second to the right 2) Third to the left 3) Immediate right
4) Second to the left 5) Immediate left

KEY
1.2 2.2 3.1 4.4 5.3 6.2 7.4 8.2 9.3 10.3 SCAN QR FOR
11.2 12.2 13.5 14.5 15.4 16.5 17.1 18.2 19.3 20.4 OUR RESULTS
21.2 22.2 23.5 24.3 25.4 26.3 27.3 28.2 29.4 30.1
31.2 32.1 33.2 34.1 35.4 36.3 37.5 38.2 39.4 40.2
41.5 42.5 43.4 44.3 45.3 46.3 47.5 48.3 49.4 50.1
51.5 52.1 53.3 54.4 55.1 56.3 57.4 58.5 59.5 60.2
61.1 62.2 63.2 64.1 65.1 66.3 67.2 68.3 69.4 70.2
71.4 72.3 73.5 74.3 75.3 76.2 77.2 78.3 79.2 80.5
81.4 82.1 83.3 84.4 85.4 86.5 87.3 88.3 89.4 90.3
91.5 92.5 93.5 94.3 95.5 96.2 97.4 98.3 99.4 100.1

12

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