Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst.

PRELIMS MT - 95

SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MODEL TEST-95

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions(1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions

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given below it.
The Lakhpati Didi Scheme is an initiative that aims to empower women by
providing them with opportunities to earn a steady income, with the goal of making
them economically independent and turning them into “lakhpatis” (those who
earn at least Rs.1 lakh annually). Launched in states like Jharkhand and
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Maharashtra, the scheme aligns with efforts to strengthen the rural economy
and promote women’s participation in developmental activities. However, while
this scheme has achieved substantial success in uplifting marginalized women,

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it has also ignited debates about the broader economic implications of such welfare
initiatives, particularly when used strategically during election campaigns.
d
A recent survey conducted by a reputable policy research institute revealed
that the Lakhpati Didi Scheme was a decisive factor in the electoral victories of
certain parties in Jharkhand and Maharashtra. By promising financial stability
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to women and their families, political leaders managed to secure significant voter
support, especially in rural and semi-urban constituencies. This demonstrates
how targeted welfare schemes, sometimes dismissed as “freebies,” can wield
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considerable influence over the electorate.
The concept of freebies in the Indian political landscape is not new. Parties
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have frequently used them as a tool to gain short-term electoral advantages.

However, economists and policy analysts argue that the increasing reliance on
such initiatives during elections raises concerns about their long-term
sustainability. Offering free or subsidized benefits, including cash transfers, has
the potential to strain public finances. When governments commit to these
programs without robust fiscal planning, the burden often falls on future budgets,
affecting critical sectors such as infrastructure, education, and healthcare.
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Despite these concerns, the Lakhpati Didi Scheme stands out for its focus
on empowerment rather than direct monetary handouts. Beneficiaries are typically
organized into self-help groups (SHGs) and provided with training, financial literacy,
and access to microfinance. This approach encourages women to engage in
productive economic activities such as agriculture, small businesses, and
handicrafts, thus contributing to the local economy. Proponents argue that such
initiatives not only elevate the economic status of women but also foster
entrepreneurship and resilience in rural areas.
However, critics maintain that even empowerment-focused schemes can
become politicized. In the case of the Lakhpati Didi Scheme, the timing of its
implementation and promotion during election periods in Jharkhand and
Maharashtra raised questions about its true intent. Surveys indicate that a
significant portion of the electorate perceived these programs as election promises
rather than genuine developmental efforts, thus reducing their credibility in some
quarters.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 95

The intersection of welfare schemes and electoral politics poses a critical

challenge for India’s economy. While empowering women and marginalized groups
is undoubtedly a noble goal, the use of these schemes as electoral tools risks
creating an unsustainable precedent. Balancing economic empowerment with
fiscal responsibility remains the key to ensuring that such initiatives yield long-
term benefits without jeopardizing the nation’s financial stability.
1. What is the primary goal of the Lakhpati Didi Scheme as mentioned in the passage?
1) To promote self-help groups for financial independence among men in rural
areas.
2) To provide monetary benefits directly to women without requiring skill

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development.
3) To empower women by helping them earn at least Rs.1 lakh annually.
4) To reduce the fiscal burden on state governments by limiting welfare schemes.
5) To introduce subsidies for large-scale businesses in rural sectors.
2. According to the passage, how did the Lakhpati Didi Scheme impact the elections
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in Jharkhand and Maharashtra?
1) It caused financial instability, leading to reduced voter support for ruling parties.
2) It played a decisive role in securing significant voter support for certain political
parties.

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3) It was criticized for failing to provide tangible benefits to its beneficiaries.
4) It highlighted the inefficiency of the local governments in implementing
d
schemes.
5) It led to a surge in employment opportunities in urban constituencies.
3. What concern do economists have about the increasing reliance on welfare
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schemes during elections?

1) Welfare schemes rarely reach their intended beneficiaries.
2) Such schemes can lead to the privatization of public resources.
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3) Freebies during elections may strain public finances and impact essential
sectors.
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4) They often neglect urban populations while focusing solely on rural areas.
5) Welfare schemes undermine efforts to attract foreign investment.
4. How does the Lakhpati Didi Scheme differ from typical “freebies,” according to
the passage?
1) It provides financial aid directly to women without expecting anything in return.
2) It emphasizes cash transfers over training and capacity building.
3) It primarily benefits urban constituencies over rural areas.
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4) It focuses on skill development, financial literacy, and entrepreneurship.
5) It is implemented only during non-election periods to ensure neutrality.
5. What criticism has been raised about the timing of the Lakhpati Didi Scheme?
1) It was implemented in urban areas where women were already economically
empowered.
2) The scheme’s benefits were limited to male beneficiaries, excluding women.
3) Its launch coincided with elections, raising questions about its political intent.
4) It failed to address long-term financial stability for the beneficiaries.
5) The scheme increased fiscal deficits without contributing to economic growth.
6. What is the perceived drawback of using welfare schemes as electoral tools, as
mentioned in the passage?
1) They encourage privatization of public sector initiatives.
2) They lead to increased voter apathy in urban areas.
3) They neglect rural areas in favor of industrialized zones.
4) They reduce transparency in the allocation of public funds.
5) They set an unsustainable precedent that could jeopardize fiscal stability.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 95

7. Which of the following sectors is likely to be affected when governments prioritize

election-centric welfare schemes?
1) Rural tourism and cultural development
2) Critical sectors such as infrastructure, education, and healthcare
3) Private entrepreneurship and large-scale industries
4) Microfinance institutions and self-help groups
5) Agriculture and export-oriented industries
8. What is the key challenge highlighted in the passage regarding welfare schemes
and economic stability?
1) Ensuring that welfare schemes are limited to urban constituencies.

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2) Balancing economic empowerment with fiscal responsibility for long-term
benefits.
3) Restricting welfare schemes to non-election periods to avoid political
controversies.
4) Guaranteeing cash transfers instead of skill-building programs for faster results.
5) Reducing reliance on foreign aid for funding welfare initiatives.
9.
ha
In the above passage, what does the phrase “stand out” mean?
1) To be distinct or noticeable, especially in a positive way.
2) To be criticized for failing to achieve its goals.

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3) To become unpopular or less significant.
4) To be hidden or overlooked in comparison to others.
d
5) To resemble other similar welfare schemes.
10. Choose the word which expresses the same meaning of the given word wield
according to the passage.
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1) Influence 2) Oppose 3) Neglect 4) Resist 5) Reduce

Directions (11-15): The sentence has a blank which indicates something has
been omitted. Which of the following words given against the sentence, fits the
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blank in the given sentence both grammatically and meaningfully?
11. It sounds _________ enough: the kind of remark Mrs Whosis on the ground floor
would expect from me.
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1) tedious 2) blend 3) pungent 4) vapid 5) sharp

12. She shows a __________ disregard for danger.
1) sanguine 2) blithe 3) eupeptic 4) saturnine 5) gloomy
13. Her sweetness, her ______, her joie de vivre and fresh beauty-why had he been
so long in appreciating it?
1) plainspokeness 2) veracity 3) sobriety
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4) license 5) candor
14. It is my ___________hope that you will be able to take this project forward.
1) passionate 2) flaming 3) fervent 4) unemotional 5) impersonate
15. He behaved like a __________ child and refused to cooperate.
1) petulant 2) ratty 3) prickly 4) surly 5) snarly
Directions (16-20): Rearrange the following four sentences (P), (Q), (R) are (S) in
the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph a.
16. P. An earthquake measuring 5.3 on the Richter
Q. Scale struck Mulugu district in
R. The National Center for Seismology
S. Telangana at 7.27am on Wednesday, according to
1) SQRP 2) SRPQ 3) PRSQ 4) PQSR 5) PRQS
17. P. Onboard the stealth destroyer INS Mormugao, Vice Admiral Sanjay J Singh,
Q. Speaking at the Annual Press Conference for Navy Week 2024
R. Flag Officer Commanding-in-Chief of the Western Naval Command,
S. Announced, “Four vessels are set for induction within the next month
1) QRPS 2) QRSP 3) QPRS 4) QSRP 5) QPSR

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 95

18. P. Severe damage from a fire earlier this

Q. Year, Singh said, “The warship was set upright
R. And will soon return to active duty”
S. Providing an update on INS Brahmaputra, which suffered
1) SQRP 2) SRQP 3) SQPR 4)SRPQ 5) SPQR
19. P.on recent collision between the Indian Navy
Q.the vessel suffered damage in the accident but it is operational.
S.submarine INS Karanj and fishing boat FV Marthoma
R.off the Goa coast, Vice-Admiral Singh said
1) PQRS 2) PSRQ 3) PQSR 4) PRSQ 5) PRQS

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20. P. President Yoon’s political future remains uncertain
Q. Following backlash from lawmakers and citizens
R. And then lifted the decree hours later
S. After he declared martial law late Tuesday night —
1) PSRQ 2) PSQR 3) QRPS 4) QPSR 5) SQRP
ha
Directions(21-25): In this question a sentence divided into four parts denoted by
(A), (B), (C) and (D) has been given. Read the sentence to find out whether there
is any grammatical error in it. The error if any will be in one part of the sentence.

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That part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is “No error”. Ignore the
errors of punctuation of any.
d
21. Although the proposal (A) was meticulously drafted, (B) its was rejected on grounds
of impracticality (C). No error (D)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
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22. The minister denied (A) to have said anything (B) controversial during (C) the
press conference. (D) No error (E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
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23. The teacher (A) explained the concept (B) so clear that all (C) the students
understood it. (D) No error (E)
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1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
24. Hardly had they (A) begun their journey (B) when they realized they (C) forgot to
carry enough water. (D) No error (E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
25. The report claimed that (A) the rise in population was (B) due to a lot of peoples
(C) migrating to urban areas. (D) No error (E)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
C
Directions(26-27): In the following questions, a word is given along with its usage
in sentences given in the options. Choose the option in which use of the given
word is contextually and grammatically correct.
26. Earth
A. The ploughed earth looked rich and dark and fertile.
B. The workers poked a pole into the earthing.
C. The plants must have their roots in the earth.
1) Both A and B 2) Both A and C 3) Both B and C
4) None of the above 5) All the above
27. Flair
A. She attributes her entrepreneurial flair and individualism to her upbringing.
B. The boys flair around on the floor.
C. I felt myself flair like a swimmer who has suddenly taken water into her
lungs.
1) Both A and B 2) Both A and C 3) Both B and C
4) None of the above 5) Only A

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 95

Directions(28-30): In each sentence below, four words which are represented as

(A), (B), (C), (D) have been printed in bold type, one of which may be either
inappropriate in the context to the sentence or wrongly spelt. The corresponding
alphabet of that word is the answer. If all the four words are appropriate and also
correctly-spelt, mark (E) i.e. ‘All correct’ as the answer.
28. Lurgan are a little concerned (A) about their lack of bouling (B) depth, which
could make things tough in the knock (C)-out tournaments (D).
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) All correct
29. The newly implemented guidelines (A) aim to ensure (B) compilance (C) with

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international standards of data privacy. (D)
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) All correct
30. But the burning (A) of the sloop (B) in the Bight was to be the only succesful (C)
venture (D) of the day on their side.
1) A 2) B ha 3) C 4) D 5) All correct
NUMERICAL ABILITY
Direction (Q.No:31-40) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the
given question ?

31.
3 9
of of
7 13 27
14
of ?  36

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d
1) 234 2) 228 3) 242 4) 212 5) 239
32. 150 - 2860  55 = 2  ?2
ee

1) 7 2) 5 3) 11 4) 8 5) 4

25 142  (?)3
33.  1323
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100
1) 3 2) 7 3) 4 4) 8 5) 6
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3 4 3
34. 2  8  ? 11
5 7 35
2 3 2 5 1
1) 1 2) 3) 5 4) 5)
25 35 35 15 36
35. 120% of 4990 - 170% of ? = 1568
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1) 2720 2) 2900 3) 2600 4) 2940 5) 2640
36. 6.66  6  0.4  0.3 = ?
1) 33.3 2) 666 3) 22.2 4) 222 5) 333
3267  552
37.  4  (?) 2
414
1) 46 2) 37 3) 33 4) 40 5) 28
38. 11 + 0.11 + 0.011 - 0.021 = ?
1) 11.2 2) 11.1 3) 11.9 4) 11.5 5) 11.8
39. 8559.48 - 3463.69 - ?= 3362.46
1) 1643.56 2) 1735.56 3) 1733.33 4) 1557.78 5) 1653.45
7 7 7
40. 7   ?
2 4 5
1) 15.10 2) 15.85 3) 14.95 4) 14.45 5) 13.65

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 95

Direction(Q.No:41-45) : Study the table and answer the given question.

Total number of perfumes sold by 6 stores during 5 months.

Months Stores
P Q R S T U
April 165 211 210 160 231 154
May 188 175 193 148 165 157

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June 196 142 156 187 233 236
July 163 156 214 241 190 173
August 215
ha 172 188 228 215 289

41. Number of perfumes sold by store S increased by what percent from April to
August ?

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1) 38.5 2) 42.5 3) 36 4) 40.5 5) 44
42. What is the average number of perfumes sold by all the given stores in May ?
1) 179 2) 171 3) 167 4) 177 5) 173
d
43. What is the difference between total number of perfumes sold by stores P, Q, T
and U together in April and total number of perfumes sold by stores R, S and T
together in July ?
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1) 124 2) 108 3) 116 4) 122 5) 112

44. What is the respective ratio between total number of perfumes sold by store P in
July and August together and total number of perfumes sold by store U in the
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same months together ?
1) 9 : 13 2) 9 : 11 3) 11 : 14 4) 11 : 13 5) 13 : 14
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45. The perfumes sold by all the given stores were either for male or for female. If
64% of perfumes sold by all the given companies together in June were for male,
how many perfumes for female were sold by all the given stores together in the
same month ?
1) 310 2) 414 3) 450 4) 480 5) 418
Direction(Q.No:46-50) : What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the
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given number series ?
46. 16 128 184 212 226 ?
1) 233 2) 238 3) 248 4) 251 5) 265
47. 15 22 34 53 81 ?
1) 104 2) 135 3) 98 4) 132 5) 120
48. 1.4 7 42 294 2352 ?
1) 21050 2) 21138 3) 21168 4) 21220 5) 21048
49. 216 195 174 153 132 ?
1) 138 2) 119 3) 111 4) 144 5) 122
50. 28 38 50 64 80 ?
1) 108 2) 98 3) 116 4) 92 5) 120
51. 20 men can complete a piece of work in 12 days. 4 days after they started working.
10 more men joined them. How many more days will they now take to complete
the remaining work ?
1 1 1 2 2
1) 5 days 2) 7 days 3) 6 days 4) 8 3 days 5) 7 3 days
3 3 3

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 95

52. The respective ratio between the number of boys and number of girls in a school
is 10 : 9. If 20% of boys and 25% girls score 80% or above marks in an examination,
what percentage of students score less than 80% marks in the same examination
approximately ?
1) 64 2) 75 3) 78 4) 72 5) 60
53. In an examination, a student scores 9 marks for every correct answer and loses 4
marks for every wrong answer. If a student had attempted in all 67 questions and
secured 395 marks, what was the total number of questions he had attempted
correctly ?

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1) 55 2) 49 3) 51 4) 53 5) 47
54. In a show, the total amount received after selling all the tickets was Rs. 3300. If 30
children and 40 adults attended the show and the price of children’s ticket was
half the price adult’s ticket, how much was the price of each children’s ticket?
1) Rs. 30
ha
2) Rs. 32 3) Rs. 35 4) Rs. 38 5) Rs. 40

E
55. A started a business by investing Rs. 8,800. After 4 months B joined him with an
amount of Rs. 11,200. After 2 months of B’s joining C joined them. The respective
ratio of investments of B and C was 7:12. If they earned annual profit of Rs.
d
43,650, what is B’s share of profit ?
1) Rs. 13,600 2) Rs. 11,800 3) Rs. 13,200 4) Rs. 12,200 5) Rs. 12,600
ee

56. Two concentric circles form a circular track, if the width of the circular track is 7
m and the circumference of the outer circle is 264 m. What is the circumference
of the inner circle ?
C
1) 210 m 2) 140 m 3) 320 m 4) 280 m 5) 220 m
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57. Rice worth Rs. 66/- per kg is mixed with another variety of rice in the respective
ratio of 3 : 1. If the mixture is worth Rs. 74/- per kg. What is the price of the
second variety of rice (per kg) ?
1) Rs. 104 2) Rs. 94 3) Rs. 106 4) Rs. 98 5) Rs. 100
58. In a competitive exam 20% of the applicants were found ineligible and 64% of the
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eligible applicants were male. If the number of eligible female applicants was
8064. Then how many applicants were there (both eligible and ineligible) ?
1) 32000 2) 31500 3) 50400 4) 30000 5) 28000
59. Trisha travelled a distance of 30 km in 8 hrs. She travelled this distance partly on
foot at 2 km/h and partly on bicycle at 6 km/h. What is the distance that she
travelled on foot ?
1) 5 km 2) 9 km 3) 10 km 4) 6 km 5) 4 km

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60. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 8 hrs when opened simultaneously. If B
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alone takes five hours more than A alone takes to fill the tank completely, how
much time does A alone take to fill the tank ?
1) 12 hrs 2) 18 hrs 3) 14 hrs 4) 15 hrs 5) 10 hrs

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 95

Direction(Q.No:61-65) : In this question two equations numbered I & II are given.

You have to solve both the equations and choose the appropriate option:
61. I. 2X2 - 15X + 27 = 0
II. 2Y2 - 19Y + 45 = 0
1) X > Y 2) X < Y 3) X  Y
4) X = Y or Relationship between X and Y cannot be established5) X  Y
62. I. X2 - 7X + 10 = 0
II. Y2 - 7Y +12 = 0
1) X  Y 2) X  Y 3) X > Y 4) X < Y

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5) X = Y or Relationship between X and Y cannot be established
63. I. 3X2 - 10X + 8 = 0
II. 2Y2 - 15Y + 28 = 0
1) X  Y 2) X = Y or Relationship between X and Y cannot be established
ha
3) X > Y 4) X < Y 5) X  Y
2
64. I. 2X + 11X + 15 = 0
II. 2Y2 + 13Y + 21 =0

E
1) X = Y or Relationship between X and Y cannot be established
2) X < Y 3) X  Y 4) X > Y 5) X  Y
d
2
65. I. X + 8X + 16 = 0
II. 3Y2 + 14Y + 11 =0
ee

1) X < Y 2) X  Y 3) X > Y
4) X = Y or Relationship between X and Y cannot be established5) X  Y
REASONING
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Direction (66-70): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Sr

Eight people viz. P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W bought eight different things

consecutively one after the other on different occasions. No person other than
the given people bought a thing on the given occasions or on any other occasion.
Only two people bought a thing after V. T bought a thing just before V. More than
two people bought a thing between T and W. Only three people bought a thing
between S and U. U bought a thing on one of the occasions after S. R bought a
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thing on one of the occasions after S. Only one person bought a thing between R
and Q.
66. How many people bought a thing between Q and V?
1) Two 2) None 3) Three 4) One 5) Four
67. Who among the following person bought a thing immediately before R?
1) V 2) T 3) Q 4) S 5) P
68. Who among the following person bought a thing at last?
1) W 2) R 3) P 4) U 5) V
69. How many people bought a thing before Q?
1) Two 2) Four 3) Three 4) One 5) More than four
70. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to that group?
1) Q-R 2) T-Q 3) U-T 4) S-W 5) V-P

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 95

Direction (71-73): In the question three statements followed by two conclusions I

and II have been given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if
they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
71. Statements: Some kiwis are Guavas
All Guavas are Sapotas
No kiwi is Apple
Conclusion I: Some Guavas are not Apple.

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Conclusion II: All Sapotas are kiwis is a possibility.
1) Both conclusions I and II follow
2) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
3) Only conclusion II follows
4) Only conclusion I follows
5) Either conclusion I or II follows
72.
ha
Statements: Only a few Chairs are Bags
All Tables are Bags

E
Some Bottles are Chairs
Conclusion I: No Table is a Bottle.
Conclusion II: Some Bottles are Bags.
d
1) Either conclusion I or II follows
2) Only conclusion II follows
ee

3) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

4) Both conclusions I and II follow
5) Only conclusion I follows
C
73. Statements: Some Books are Pens
No Book is Pencil
Only a few Pencils are Papers
Sr

Conclusion I: All Pens are Papers is a possibility.

Conclusion II: No Book is Paper.
1) Only conclusion I follows
2) Both conclusions I and II follow
3) Either conclusion I or II follows
4) Only conclusion II follows
C
5) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
74. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘PARDON’ each of which
has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward
directions) as they have between them in English alphabetical order?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) More than four
Direction (75-77): Study the given arrangement of symbol, letter and digits carefully
to answer the given question:
T 8 H W @ 3 4 R O $ % P Q K L 6 2 D M B V & 9 A C X F R E
Y
75. If all the symbols are dropped from the above arrangement, then which of the
following element is tenth from the left end?
1) B 2) O 3) Q 4) R 5) P
76. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is
immediately preceded as well as immediately followed by a vowel?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) Four

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 95

77. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to that group?
1) %LQ 2) 6BD 3) @OR 4) WR3 5) CEF
Direction (78-82): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Eight people- J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q are sitting in a straight line facing
north with an equal distance between each other. Only two people sit between M
and L. L sits at second from one of the ends. J sits third to the left of P. Three

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people sit between M and O. K sits third to the right of Q. Q is an immediate
neighbour of J. N sits to the right of M but not immediate to P.
78. Who among the following person sits second to the left of M?
1) P 2) L 3) K 4) Q 5) J
79. How many people sit to the right of N?
ha
1) Four 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) No one
80. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does

E
not belong to that group?
1) J – P 2) Q – N 3) K – M 4) O – K 5) Q – P
d
81. Who amongst the following pair is an immediate to each other?
1) LM 2) OK 3) KN 4) JP 5) MN
82. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE as per the given arrangement?
ee

1) Two people sit between P and N.

2) Only three people sit to the left of M.
C
3) One person sits between J and O.
4) Q sits to the right of M.
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5) All the statements are true

Direction (83-84): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Each of the six people viz. A, B, C, D, E and F, each having a different height.
C is taller than D but shorter than E. B is taller than A. F is shorter than A but
taller than D. E is not the tallest person. A is shorter than C. The third tallest
person height is 154cm.
C
83. Who is the tallest person?
1) C 2) A 3) B 4) D 5) F
84. How many people are shorter than A?
1) Three 2) Two 3) One 4) None 5) More than three
Direction (85-89): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Eight people viz. K, L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting around a circular table
facing the centre with an equal distance between adjacent people.
M sits third to the left of O. Only one person sits between R and O (either
from left or right). P sits second to the right of Q. N sits second to the left of M.
Two people sit between P and L. K sits immediate to P. L does not sit immediate to
M.
85. Who among the following person sits third to the left of K?
1) R 2) Q 3) N 4) L 5) M

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 95

86. How many people sit between O and M from right of O?

1) Two 2) None 3) One 4) Three 5) More than three
87. Who among the following person sits opposite to P?
1) N 2) L 3) R 4) O 5) Q
88. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to that group?
1) K-L 2) R-Q 3) M-K 4) O-N 5) N-M

r’s
89. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true as per the given arrangement?
1) N sits third to the left of O.
2) Three people sit between L and Q.
3) K sits immediate right of P.
4) O and R sit immediate to each other.

90.
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5) All the statements are true
If it is possible to make only one meaningful four letter English word with the

E
third, the fifth, the seventh and the ninth letters of the word “EQUANIMITY”
using each letter only once, when counted from left to right, which of the following
will be the third letter of the word so formed from the left end? If no such word
d
can be formed give ‘X’ as your answer. If more than one such word can be formed
give ‘Z’ as your answer.
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1) M 2) Z 3) T 4) U 5) X
Direction (91-92): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
C
There are eight members in the family. B is the sister of S. R is the mother
of F. F is the sister-in-law of B. D is the grand-father of T. Q is the mother of S. D
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has only two children. F is the mother of T. T is the Nephew of B. D is the father-
in-law of E.
91. How is E related to S?
1) Brother 2) Wife 3) Sister-in-law
4) Brother-in-law 5) Uncle
92. Who amongst the following people is the father of T?
C
1) B 2) S 3) E 4) R 5) F
Direction (93-97): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
questions:
Eight people – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H were born on either 9th or 24th of
August, September, October and November of the same year. Only one person
was born on each date and only two people were born in the given month. No
other person was born in the given year.
Three people were born between D and H. H was born in a month having 30
days but not an even numbered date. One person was born between H and E. B
was born just before D. The number of people were born before B is one more than
number of people were born after G. More than two people were born between A
and H. Two people were born between A and C. C was born before A.
93. Who among the following person was born on August 24th?
1) B 2) G 3) H 4) C 5) F

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK / LIC Asst. PRELIMS MT - 95

94. How many people were born between A and G?

1) One 2) Four 3) None 4) Three 5) Two
95. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions as per
the given arrangement and thus form a group. Which one of the following does
not belong to that group?
1) D 2) A 3) E 4) H 5) G
96. C was born in which of the following month and date?
1) October – 24th 2) September – 9th 3) September – 24th

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4) August – 9th 5) October – 9th
97. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true as per the given arrangement?
1) F was born after C.
2) Two people were born between B and E.
ha
3) A was born on an even numbered date.
4) G was born in September.

98.
5) Both 3 and 4 are true

E
In the given number “862176453” if ‘1’ is subtracted from all the even digits and
d
‘1’ is added to all the odd digits, then all the repeated digits are removed, then
what is the sum of the digits of which are second from the right and third from
the left ends ?
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1) 4 2) 8 3) 10 4) 6 5) 11
Direction (99-100): Study the given information carefully to answer the given
C
questions:
A person walks from point A and walks 24 km East to reach point B, then he
Sr

takes right turn and walks 20 km to reach point C, then he takes again right turn
and walks 10 km to reach point D. From point D, he walks 18 km South to reach
point E, then he takes right turn and walks 14 km to reach point F, then he takes
final left turn and walks 15km to reach point G.
99. Point E is in which direction with respect to Point A?
1) South-West 2) North-East 3) South-East
C
4) North-West 5) North
100. What is the total distance between G and A?
1) 47km 2) 55km 3) 59km 4) 56km 5) 53km

KEY
1.3 2.2 3.3 4.4 5.3 6.5 7.2 8.2 9.1 10.1 SCAN QR FOR
11.4 12.2 13.5 14.3 15.1 16.4 17.3 18.5 19.2 20.1 OUR RESULTS
21.3 22.2 23.3 24.4 25.3 26.2 27.5 28.2 29.3 30.3
31.1 32.1 33.1 34.2 35.3 36.5 37.3 38.2 39.3 40.5
41.2 42.2 43.3 44.2 45.2 46.1 47.5 48.3 49.3 50.2
51.1 52.3 53.3 54.1 55.5 56.5 57.4 58.5 59.2 60.4
61.3 62.5 63.4 64.5 65.1 66.3 67.4 68.3 69.4 70.2
71.1 72.3 73.1 74.2 75.3 76.1 77.3 78.5 79.5 80.1
81.3 82.3 83.3 84.2 85.2 86.5 87.3 88.4 89.3 90.5
91.4 92.2 93.5 94.4 95.3 96.5 97.5 98.2 99.3 100.5

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