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Countdown Mock 12 (CLAT) 2025

English Language
Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 1

Calcutta has been a witness to various protests over the years. But the long agitation by junior doctors
was novel in certain aspects that merit a closer scrutiny of the stir. For instance, the response it
generated was overwhelming, especially among the middle class. The belief that the middle class is
laconic when it comes to mobilising for a social cause - in this case, justice for the victim of rape and
murder - has been effectively challenged. Despite sit-ins and marches, the movement abjured
violence; this was another remarkable trait in a state known for political and civic unrest. What also
deserves attention is the civility that was adhered to by the protesters. The speeches and the slogans
that were heard during the demonstrations were refreshingly shorn of the rudeness and the
discourtesy that are now the hallmarks of public engagements, especially those that mark the sphere
of Indian politics. The cease-work may have ended but the demands of the doctors and of the people -
for justice for the victim of a heinous crime as well as larger, systemic transformations in the health
sector - remain unassuaged. The challenge now for the doctors would be to sustain the movement in
the long run till these goals are met.

But no objective appraisal of the doctors' protest can ignore its flip side. (1) .
Q 1. 30671241 Which of the following statement would be best fit for blank (1)

a)
It inadvertently highlighted the deep divisions between senior and junior doctors, which hampered the
movement's unity.
b)
However, the movement drew criticism for its reliance on emotional appeals rather than a clear,
practical agenda for systemic reforms.
c)
Nonetheless, the protest revealed an over-dependence on media attention, which detracted from the
movement's original purpose.
d)
On the other hand, while peaceful, the protest led to the temporary closure of crucial medical services,
raising ethical concerns about patient care.

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Q 2. 30671241 On the basis of the passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. The middle class in Calcutta is often perceived as indifferent to social causes.
2. Non-violent protests can have a significant impact on public opinion and support.
3. The protests by junior doctors are likely to inspire more civil and peaceful movements in Calcutta.

Which of the above are valid?

a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3

Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 2

There is another impediment. The trauma, grief and stigma that surround suicide also serve to foster a
culture of silence. The key to suicide prevention must thus also encourage conversations around
suicide, its triggers and its indicators. 'Gatekeeper training' - teaching people to recognise the warning
signs of suicide - among vulnerable constituencies, such as students, farmers and women, can help
develop a critical pool of societal resources to identify those at risk and build a safety net of support.
Research on suicides has shown that sensitive reporting by the media can play a key role in saving
lives and preventing copycat suicides. A proactive State and an empathetic society can go a long way
towards reducing India's social and economic burden of suicides.
Q 3. 30671241 Based on the passage, the following suggestions may be made:
1. Increasing gatekeeper training among vulnerable groups can help prevent suicides.
2. The media should avoid reporting on suicides to prevent further occurrences.

Which of the above suggestions is/are valid?

a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 4. 30671241 What is the crucial message conveyed by the passage?

a) Suicide prevention can be addressed solely through government policies and initiatives.

b)
A combination of community awareness, media responsibility, and state intervention is necessary to
prevent suicides.

c) The media should refrain from reporting on suicide to avoid encouraging copycat suicides.
d) Vulnerable groups are the only ones at risk of suicide and need special attention.

Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 3
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The Supreme Court ruling on paid menstrual leave has reignited discussions around gender equality.
Evidence of the gender wage gap and gender stereotyping in occupations is well-documented in India.
Reports indicate that on an average, females earn 20% less than their male counterparts, with the gap
widening at higher-career levels. The court has noted that mandating paid menstrual leave could
exacerbate the existing gender gap in the labour market. As more female workers take advantage of
paid menstrual leave, employers might need to hire additional labour to cover their absences. This
would increase wage costs, which could lead employers to recruit fewer women. Therefore, the
provision of menstrual leave is viewed as falling outside judicial mandates and more within the domain
of public policy and women's welfare. Balancing the benefits of menstrual leave with potential
economic implications requires a careful consideration of broader gender equality goals and labour
market dynamics.
Q 5. 30671241 Based on the passage, which of the following can be inferred ?
1. Mandating paid menstrual leave may worsen gender discrimination in the workplace.
2. Menstrual leave policies should be implemented carefully to avoid negative economic
consequences for female workers.

a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 6. 30671241 Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?

a) Paid menstrual leave should be mandated by the judiciary to ensure workplace gender equality.
b)
Paid menstrual leave may have unintended economic consequences, potentially widening the gender
wage gap.
c)
The gender wage gap in India can be resolved by addressing occupational stereotyping and wage
disparities.
d) Employers are likely to hire fewer women if paid menstrual leave is enforced by law.

Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 4

Bangladesh's stability has also long relied on its close relations with India - ties that have hit a rough
patch over the past few weeks. Bangladesh's interim government has indicated that it might seek Ms
Wazed's extradition from India - where she is in exile - to Dhaka where she has been charged with a
slew of cases. In recent comments, Mr Yunus suggested that if India wanted to shelter Ms Wazed for
now, it must ensure that she does not issue public statements. Both countries have said they want to
work together. But if they are to re-establish confidence in a partnership important for both, they need

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to start by moving away from rhetoric that further poisons their troubled ties. Dhaka and New Delhi
know that is Diplomacy 101.
Q 7. 30671241 Based on the passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Bangladesh's government is seeking to bring back Ms. Wazed from India to face charges.
2. Diplomatic relations between Bangladesh and India have become strained due to recent political
developments .
3. If India wants to maintain a stable relationship with Bangladesh, it must ensure that Ms. Wazed
remains silent.

Which of the above assumptions are valid?

a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3

Q 8. 30671241 What is the most rational inference that can be drawn from the passage?

a)
India and Bangladesh's relations have deteriorated to an irreversible point due to political
disagreements.
b)
Diplomatic tensions between India and Bangladesh are temporary and can be resolved through
careful diplomacy.
c)
The extradition of Ms. Wazed is the primary reason for the strained relations between India and
Bangladesh.

d) India should stop providing refuge to political exiles from Bangladesh to maintain stable relations.

Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 5

Already, the war on Gaza had changed that dynamic within the Palestinian enclave, where Israel
claims to have used Artificial Intelligence to identify targets and, yet, has killed more than 41,000
people, most of them women and children. The mass casualties caused by the explosions in Lebanon
take that shift in approach to new levels of danger. At least two children are among those who have
been killed in the explosions that occurred in public spaces. In most contexts, these would be called
acts of terror. It is vital that the global community step in now to lay down red lines for what is
unacceptable behaviour by nations, especially those with sophisticated technology at their disposal. If
the blasts in Lebanon are normalised, any country could be the victim next.
Q 9. 30671241 Which of the following statements best reflects what the passage implies?

a) The global community should condemn the use of artificial intelligence in warfare.

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b)
Israel's use of artificial intelligence has drastically increased the number of civilian casualties in Gaza.
c)
The mass casualties in Gaza and Lebanon highlight the dangers of advanced military technology and
the need for global intervention.
d)
Artificial intelligence is responsible for the destruction in Gaza, leading to widespread international
criticism.

Q 10. 30671241 What is the tone of the passage?

a) Optimistic b) Cautionary c) Indifferent d) Aggressive

Q 11. 30671241 As used in the passage, what does the word 'sophisticated' mean?

a) b) c) d)
Complex and highly Simple and easy to Dangerous and Old-fashioned and
developed understand uncontrollable outdated

Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 6

Notably, the objectives of Mission Mausam include weather intervention mechanisms like the setting
up of a cloud chamber to modify and seed clouds. This, the Centre says, will be instrumental in
suppressing or enhancing rainfall as well as reducing lightning strikes. India has been recording a rise
in lightning strikes in recent years so technological attention to this emerging atmospheric condition is
welcome. However, cloud seeding remains an exceedingly challenging task. Geoengineering
experiments carried out by countries like the United States of America, Canada and China have had
limited success. There is also concern that technological manipulation of clouds could lead to
undesirable consequences such as overflooding. Adopting a cautionary approach while conducting
such experimentation with weather phenomena is thus imperative. Checks and balances must be in
place lest the consequences of novel but evolving weather technologies are deleterious.
Q 12. 30671241 With reference to the passage, consider the following statements.
1. Cloud seeding technology is reliable and widely successful across countries.
2. Mission Mausam aims to modify weather patterns to address issues like lightning strikes and rainfall
management.

Which of the above can be inferred?

a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Q 13. 30671241 According to the passage, which of the following countries has successfully
implemented geoengineering experiments with consistent results?

a) b) Canada c) China d) None of the above

The United States of
America

Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 7

The principal worry concerns the eclipse of regional and local issues - the ones that usually decide the
outcome of state polls - by national ones that would put the bigger parties at an advantage. This would
not augur well for the future of Indian federalism with state governments playing second fiddle to a
muscular Centre. And what about the fate of curtailed state assemblies? Can such an abridgement
honour the people's mandate fully? Moreover, there is fundamental confusion regarding another
critical issue: that of constitutional amendments requiring two-thirds majority in Parliament in order to
implement 'one nation, one election'. Another important query raised by the prospect of simultaneous
elections should not go unaddressed: should the preservation of India's federal and democratic ethos
not be accorded a greater priority than the reaping of monetary and logistical benefits promised by this
intervention?
Q 14. 30671241 With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Simultaneous elections could undermine the importance of regional issues in state elections.
2. Implementing 'one nation, one election' requires significant constitutional amendments.
3. Monetary and logistical benefits outweigh the risks posed to Indian federalism by simultaneous
elections.

Which of the above can be inferred?

a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3

Q 15. 30671241 Which of the following best captures the central theme of the passage?

a)
The concept of 'one nation, one election' is essential for logistical efficiency and monetary savings in
India.
b)
Simultaneous elections could weaken the focus on state-specific issues and pose challenges to
India's federal structure.
c)
Constitutional amendments for simultaneous elections should be prioritized over concerns about
regional issues.

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d)
State elections should always be overshadowed by national elections for greater political cohesion in
India.

Q 16. 30671241 As used in the passage, what does the word, "abridgement" mean?

a) b) c) d)
Shortening or reduction Strengthening or Elimination or removal Weakening or decline
support

Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 8

I will never forget that moment. The shining goddess across the road and the angry woman right next
to me. Massive lights on one side of the street and sleeping darkness on the other. The truth is that
having left the city in 1999, I suffer the diasporic Bengali's yearning pain of separation from Calcutta in
the season of kaash and dhaak every year. Puny festivities in New Jersey, Ontario, and California and
the tasteless phuchka and lustre-less icons of Delhi-Gurgaon have only sharpened the pangs. A North
Calcutta childhood, the neighbourhood air of Baghbazar and Kumartuli, have crafted a sensitivity to
the face and the form of the idol to the point that no Puja outside of Calcutta ever makes me happy.
That night brought no knowledge of realities I didn't already know. But my emotion for a Calcutta Puja
will not recover from the curse of that half-asleep woman.
Q 17. 30671241 Which of the following is implied by the passage?

a) The author feels a sense of detachment and dissatisfaction with Puja celebrations outside Calcutta

b) The author believes Puja celebrations in Delhi-Gurgaon are better organized than in other regions.
c)
The author is content with the way festivals are celebrated in cities outside India, like New Jersey and
Ontario.
d)
The author has completely moved on from the Calcutta Puja experience and enjoys the local festivals
abroad.

Q 18. 30671241 What is the importance of the use of the word "diaspora" in the passage?

a) It highlights the author's feeling of belonging to a global community.

b) It emphasizes the cultural diversity the author has experienced after leaving Calcutta.
c)
It conveys the sense of distance and emotional separation the author feels from their cultural roots in
Calcutta.

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d) It refers to the author's ability to fully assimilate into life outside of India while celebrating festivals.

Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 9

Children's addiction to digital devices is a global challenge and a solution to the problem must be
found. A town in Finland has perhaps shown the way by resolving that children will return to the use of
pen and paper in place of personal digital devices in schools. This shift would not only renew
children's interest in the physical sources of knowledge but also facilitate greater in-person interaction.
Schools must complement such measures by imparting lessons on the safe usage of social media to
equip children to navigate these platforms better. The creation of a safe internet space for children
with playful, exploratory fun, entertainment, and positive online educational experiences should be a
priority.
Q 19. 30671241 Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made
from the above passage?

a) Returning to the use of pen and paper in schools is the only way to curb children's digital addiction.
b) Social media has no educational value and should be avoided entirely by children.
c)
Digital devices should be completely banned in schools worldwide to reduce children's dependency.
d)
Finland's approach to reducing children's digital addiction may inspire similar shifts in other
educational systems.

Q 20. 30671241 The above passage seems to have been taken from a:

a) Research paper on digital addiction in children b)

Newspaper editorial discussing educational
reforms
c) Children's online safety manual d) Policy document on school education

Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 10

An additional, evolving challenge is unfolding with the onset of climate change. Modern science
believes that changes in ecological settings as well as degradations in the natural world brought about
by a changing climate are causing discernible shifts in the environmental cues that animals depend on
to execute such crucial functions as the selection of habitat and the choice of prey. As human

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settlements encroach upon the remaining spots of wilderness, bringing about tumult in species' food
chains, their consumption habits, and codes of predatorial behaviour, could their responses, especially
those of the carnivores, be acquiring an ominous edge? After all, science has already documented
alterations in animal behaviour in response to climate change: Monarch butterflies, to cite one
example, are delaying their southern migration on account of rising temperatures.
Q 21. 30671241 The passage is concerned with:

a) The effects of climate change on animal behaviour and environmental cues.

b) The impact of human settlements on animal species' migration patterns.

c) The predatory behaviour of carnivores in response to environmental degradation.

d) The delayed migration of Monarch butterflies due to rising temperatures.

Q 22. 30671241 What is the relationship between habitat and food habits of wildlife based on the
passage?

a) Wildlife food habits are independent of their habitats and are unaffected by environmental changes

b)
Habitat selection is solely based on the availability of prey and has no relation to environmental
factors.
c)
Changes in habitats due to climate change are causing disruptions in the food chains and
consumption patterns of wildlife.

d)
Food habits of carnivores remain unaffected despite changes in their habitats caused by human
settlements.

Directions for questions 1 to 24: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 11

Far too often, the presidential debate felt like a sequel that repeated a script that the US and the world
have seen too many times before. Ms Harris accused Mr Trump of being soft on Russia, while Mr
Trump blamed Ms Harris for a porous southern border. Neither pushed the other - and the moderators
did not either - to flesh out exactly how they would control inflation, increase jobs, or end the wars in
Europe and the Middle East that the US is deeply involved in. By most accounts, Ms Harris delivered a
stronger debate performance than her rival. But US voters and a world affected significantly by
America's choices deserve better than such a performance. In the past, presidential debates have
often had little impact on voter choices, although there have been exceptions. It is unclear whether the
aftermath of Tuesday's debate will be any different. What is clear is that irrespective of which

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candidate experts declare as the winner of the debate, US voters and those observing the election
around the world lost out.
Q 23. 30671241 With reference to the passage, consider the following statements.
1. Presidential debates rarely have a significant impact on voter decisions in the US.
2. Both candidates failed to address critical issues such as inflation and international conflicts during
the debate.
3. The debate moderators effectively steered the discussion towards important domestic and
international policies.

Which of the above can be inferred?

a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2, and 3

Q 24. 30671241 What is the tone of the above passage?

a) Optimistic b) Critical c) Neutral d) Sympathetic

Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

Passage – 1

President Joe Biden convened the leaders of Australia, India and Japan for a Quad summit in his
hometown of Wilmington, Delaware, this weekend, aiming to put a final stamp on an alliance he hopes
will endure beyond his presidency. The current four-nation partnership is set to enter a new era as half
of its leaders - Biden and Japanese Prime Minister Fumio Kishida - will soon leave office. With an eye
toward burnishing his foreign policy legacy, the president is turning to alliances like the Quad to make
a final diplomatic push to counterbalance China's rising influence as he prepares to hand off to a new
administration.

China and its actions in the South China Sea was first on the agenda for the leaders when they turned
to the private portion of their meeting. At the start of the discussion, Biden was caught in a hot mic
moment in which he can be heard saying that Chinese President Xi Jinping is looking to "buy himself
some diplomatic space, in my view, to aggressively pursue China's interest." "We believe Xi Jinping is
looking to focus on domestic economic challenges and minimize the turbulence in China diplomatic
relationships," Biden can be heard saying. "China continues to behave aggressively, testing this all
across the region, and it's true in the South China Sea, the East China Sea, South China, South Asia
and the Taiwan Straits," the president continued.
Q 25. 30671241 Who among the following leaders initiated the idea of the Quadrilateral Security
Dialogue (Quad) in 2007?

a) Manmohan Singh b) Shinzo Abe c) John Howard d) George W. Bush

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Q 26. 30671241 The original concept of the Quad was paralleled by which military exercise involving
member countries?

a) b) Exercise Cobra Gold c) Exercise Malabar d) Exercise MILAN

Rim of the Pacific
(RIMPAC)

Q 27. 30671241 Which of the following is a common characterization of the Quad as perceived by
Chinese officials?

a) "Asian NATO" b) "Pacific Alliance" c) d)

"Indo-Pacific Defense "East Asian Defense
League" Pact"

Q 28. 30671241 Which of the following statements best reflects India's stance on Quad's comparison
to NATO, as articulated by Indian Foreign Minister S. Jaishankar?

a) India fully embraces the NATO-like structure for the Quad

b) India has 'NATO mentality' when dealing with regional conflicts

c) India denies having a 'NATO mentality' and stresses global cooperation

d) India wants the Quad to transform into a formal military alliance

Q 29. 30671241 During the 2024 Quad Summit, who among the following leaders emphasized the
need to pursue peaceful resolution of disputes and respect for territorial integrity?

a) Anthony Albanese b) Joseph R. Biden, Jr. c) Fumio Kishida d) Narendra Modi

Q 30. 30671241 The "Quad-at-Sea Ship Observer Mission" aims to .

a) Monitor illegal fishing activities b)

Improve interoperability and advance maritime
safety
c) Conduct naval warfare exercises d) Explore deep-sea mining opportunities

Passage – 2

According to the World Development Report 2024: The Middle Income Trap, August 2024, the share
of middleincome countries in the worldwide economy is increasing. As classified by the World Bank,
108 nations qualify as middle-income. With about three-fourths of the world's population, these 108
middle-income nations account for nearly 40 percent of worldwide financial action. More than 100
countries-including China, India, Brazil, and South Africa-face serious obstacles that seem to hinder
their endeavors to become high-income nations in the next few decades and the study gives them a
comprehensive guide to empower creating nations to escape the "middle-income trap."

The report proposes a "3i strategy" for nations to reach high-income status. Depending on their
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organization of improvement, all nations require to embrace a sequenced and dynamically more
modern blend of arrangements. Low-income nations can center exclusively on approaches outlined to
increment investment- the 1i stage. But once they accomplish lower-middle-income status, they
require to move gears and extend the arrangement blend to the 2i stage: venture and mixture, which
comprises embracing innovations from overseas and spreading them over the economy. At the upper-
middle-income level, nations should move gears again to the last 3i stage: venture, mixture, and
advancement. In the advancement stage, nations no longer simply borrow thoughts from the global
frontiers of technology-they push the frontier.
Q 31. 30671241 What is the "Middle Income Trap" as defined by the World Bank in the World
Development Report 2024?

a)
A scenario where a country's GDP per capita remains between USD 5,000 and USD 10,000 for more
than two decades.
b)
A situation where the country's economy is unable to transition to the higher per-capita income levels.
c) A point where a country's population growth outpaces economic growth, leading to stagnation.

d) A phase where income inequality reaches critical levels, slowing down national development.

Q 32. 30671241 Which of the following is NOT considered a key factor contributing to a middle-
income trap?

a) Decline in technological innovation b) Rising income inequality

c) Rapid population growth d) Decreasing labour participation

Q 33. 30671241 According to the World Bank's 3i strategy, what phase should an upper-middle-
income country like India focus on to transition to high-income status?

a) b) Heavy investment in infrastructure.

Investment, innovation and infusion of new c)
technologies. Building education systems and basic
infrastructure.

d) Investment and capital deepening.

Q 34. 30671241 Which of the following best describes the role of income inequality in India's middle-
income trap?

a) It accelerates economic growth.

b) It helps in increasing government revenues.

c) It improves labour participation and productivity.

d) It creates unsustainable demand driven by a small portion of the population.

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Q 35. 30671241 How long would it take India to reach a quarter of the U.S. per capita income levels
at the current growth rate, as highlighted in the report?

a) 25 years b) 50 years c) 75 years d) 100 years

Q 36. 30671241 Which of the following is a major risk facing middle-income countries that could
prevent them from achieving high-income status, as identified by the report?

a) Geopolitical frictions and ageing populations. b) Overdependence on exports.

c) A lack of foreign investment. d) Declining birth rates and trade surpluses.

Passage – 3

Quantum computing is an emergent field of cutting-edge computer science harnessing the unique
qualities of quantum mechanics to solve problems beyond the ability of even the most powerful
classical computers. The field of quantum computing contains a range of disciplines, including
quantum hardware and quantum algorithms. While still in development, quantum technology will soon
be able to solve complex problems that supercomputers can't solve, or can't solve fast enough.

By taking advantage of quantum physics, fully realized quantum computers would be able to process
massively complicated problems at orders of magnitude faster than modern machines. For a quantum
computer, challenges that might take a classical computer thousands of years to complete might be
reduced to a matter of minutes. The study of subatomic particles, also known as quantum mechanics,
reveals unique and fundamental natural principles. Quantum computers harness these fundamental
phenomena to compute probabilistically and quantum mechanically.
Q 37. 30671241 Which of the following principles is NOT fundamental to quantum computing?

a) Superposition b) Entanglement c) Classical parallelism d)

Quantum interference

Q 38. 30671241 Which of the following is the fastest Supercomputer in the World?

a) Tianhe-2 b) Summit c) Fugaku d) Frontier

Q 39. 30671241 Google has reportedly engineered a quantum computer that can execute
calculations in mere moments that would take the world's most advanced supercomputers nearly half
a century to process. What is the name of the quantum computer?

a) Aurora b) Leonardo c) Eagle d) Sycamore

Q 40. 30671241 The National Mission on Quantum Computing and Technology in India received a
budget allocation of .

a) Rs 600 crore b) Rs 80000 crore c) Rs 6000 crore d) Rs 50000 crore

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Q 41. 30671241 Which of the following companies collaborated with the Ministry of Electronics and
Information Technology (MeitY) to establish the Quantum Computing Applications Lab in India?

a) b) Google c) Microsoft d) IBM

Amazon Web Services
(AWS)

Q 42. 30671241 Which scientific concept did Alain Aspect, Anton Zeilinger, and John Clauser
investigate that earned them the 2022 Nobel Prize in Physics?

a) Quantum Tunneling b) c) d) Quantum Coherence

Quantum Superposition Quantum Entanglement

Passage – 4

The unexpected emergence of the Indian Navy's only nuclear powered attack submarine, the INS
Chakra, in the waters of the Singapore Straits heralds the end of her service in the Indian Navy. The
8,140-ton submarine is presently en route to Vladivostok, Russia where she is being returned
approximately ten months prior to the expiry of her ten-year lease that cost New Delhi approximately
$2 billion. She is being operated by an Indian crew and is being accompanied by a Russian and Indian
warship.

A submarine of the Russian Akula-2 Class, Chakra was commissioned into the Indian Navy on April 4,
2012 and was based in Visakhapatnam. She was the second nuclear-powered submarine acquired by
India from Russia bearing the name Chakra. The early return of the submarine became necessary
because of her ''increasingly unreliable powerplant and maintenance issues'' besides the overall
condition of the vessel which was extensively used by the Indian Navy to train crews on advanced
nuclear submarines. This was a critical learning experience that paved the way for Navy officers to
graduate to the made-in-India ballistic missile submarines, INS Arihant and INS Arighat, which
presently form India's submarine-based nuclear deterrent.
Q 43. 30671241 What is the primary purpose of the "Vinetra" training facility commissioned at INS
Satavahana?

a) To train crew for surface combat

b) To enhance escape capabilities of crew from distressed Kalvari-class submarine

c) To improve navigation skills of submarinee

d) To conduct underwater research

Q 44. 30671241 What is the motto of INS Vikrant?

a) "Victory at Sea" b) "To Serve with Honor"

c) "I defeat those who dare to challenge me" d) "Strength and Honor"

Q 45. 30671241 What type of vessel is INS Sandhayak?

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a) Frigate b) Destroyer c) Submarine d) Survey Vessel Large

Q 46. 30671241 INS Arighaat is the second nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine, where was
INS Arighaat built?

a) Mumbai b) Kolkata c) Visakhapatnam d) Kochi

Q 47. 30671241 What is the name of the sailboat to be used for the Global Sailing Expedition in
October 2024?

a) INSV Vikrant b) INSV Tarini c) INSV Mahakali d) INSV Shakti

Q 48. 30671241 Who among the following serves as the Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed
Forces?

a) President of India b) c) d)
Prime Minister of India Chief of Defence Staff Defence Minister of
India

Passage – 5

The World Health Organization (WHO) congratulates the Hashemite Kingdom of [1] for becoming the
first country in the world to be officially verified as having eliminated leprosy. This significant milestone
marks a new era in global public health efforts. "WHO congratulates Jordan on this impressive
milestone," said WHO Director-General [2]. "Leprosy has afflicted humanity for millennia, but country-
by-country we are stopping transmission and freeing individuals, families and communities from its
suffering and stigma."

"[1]'s elimination of this age-old disease is a historic milestone in public health and a huge success for
efforts to eliminate leprosy globally," said [3], WHO Regional Director for South-East Asia who heads
WHO's Global Leprosy Programme. "The fight against leprosy around the world is more than a fight
against a disease. It is also a fight against stigma, and a fight against psychological and socio-
economic harm. I congratulate Jordan on its achievement." [1] has not reported any autochthonous
cases of leprosy for over two decades, a testament to its strong political commitment and effective
public health strategies to eliminate the disease. Following up on the Ministry of Health's interest in
verifying the elimination of leprosy, WHO commissioned an independent team to assess this situation.
After an extensive review, the verification team recommended that WHO acknowledges leprosy has
been eliminated in Jordan.
Q 49. 30671241 Which of the following countries has been officially recognized by the WHO as the
first in the world to eliminate leprosy which has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?

a) India b) Brazil c) Jordan d) Thailand

Q 50. 30671241 Who is the current Director-General of the World Health Organization (WHO) whose
name has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?
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a) Zsuzsanna Jakab b) Ban Ki-moon c) Margaret Chan d)

Dr. Tedros Adhanom
Ghebreyesus

Q 51. 30671241 What is the name of the South East Asian regional director for the World Health
Organization whose name has been redacted with [3] in the passage above?

a) Saima Wazed b) c) d) Gita Gopinath

Soumya Swaminathan Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw

Q 52. 30671241 What is the causative agent of leprosy, also known as Hansen's disease?

a) b) Escherichia coli c) d)
Streptococcus Staphylococcus aureus Mycobacterium leprae
pneumoniae

Legal Reasoning
Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.

Passage – 1

Section 21 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, addresses the implications of legal inaccuracies in
contractual agreements. A contract is not voidable just due to a mistake regarding any law in effect
within India. This principle is founded on the legal adage "Ignorantia juris non excusat," signifying that
ignorance of the law is not a valid excuse. Individuals are assumed to possess awareness of the rules
applicable to them, and any misinterpretation or error regarding Indian laws cannot serve to nullify a
contract.

Nonetheless, the law addresses errors regarding foreign laws in a distinct manner. Given that persons
are not anticipated to possess extensive knowledge of other legal systems, an error regarding a law
not in effect in India is regarded as akin to a mistake of fact. Factual errors can influence the validity of
a contract and may render it voidable if the error is substantial enough to change the terms of the
agreement. Consequently, although an error concerning Indian law may not impact the contract, a
misapprehension regarding foreign law may render the contract voidable if the parties formed the
agreement based on erroneous assumptions.

This distinction safeguards parties from penalties due to ignorance of foreign laws while emphasising
the significance of comprehending home legal concepts. In reality, this indicates that contracts based

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on misinterpretations of Indian law are lawful, however those founded on errors regarding foreign law
may be rescinded if the mistake is significant to the contract.
Q 53. 30671241 A and B enter into a contract assuming that a certain regulation under Indian law no
longer applies, when in fact, it does. How will this mistake impact the validity of the contract under
Section 21?

a)
The contract becomes automatically void as it was based on a misapprehension of the applicable
Indian law, and neither party is bound to perform their obligations under it.
b)
The contract remains valid and binding because Section 21 specifically prohibits the voidability of a
contract due to a mistake regarding the laws in force in India.
c)
The contract is voidable at the discretion of the party who was mistaken about the regulation, provided
they can show that the mistake had a material effect on the contract.
d)
The contract becomes voidable if either party can demonstrate that the mistake was induced by a
misrepresentation of law by the other party involved in the contract.

Q 54. 30671241 In the context of Section 21 of the Indian Contract Act, if two parties make a contract
based on a mutual misunderstanding about a foreign law that significantly affects their agreement,
what is the legal consequence for the contract?

a)
The contract may be considered voidable at the option of the party adversely affected by the mistake,
as foreign laws are treated similarly to facts under Indian law.
b)
The contract will remain enforceable under Indian law since Indian law does not recognize mistakes
regarding foreign laws as grounds for voidability.
c)
The contract becomes unenforceable, as the mistake about foreign law renders the original intent of
the agreement impossible to achieve, leading to automatic voidance.
d)
The contract cannot be voided unless both parties agree that the mistake about foreign law materially
altered their obligations under the agreement.

Q 55. 30671241 Two parties sign a contract assuming that an Indian tax regulation will apply to their
transaction. However, the regulation had been repealed months before the contract was formed. How
does this misunderstanding impact the enforceability of the contract?

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a)
The contract is immediately void because the assumption about the applicability of Indian tax law was
fundamental to the agreement, and the repeal changes the entire nature of the transaction.
b)
The contract is voidable by the party that relied on the repealed regulation if they can prove that they
would not have entered into the contract without the belief that the law was still in effect.
c)
The contract remains valid because Section 21 of the Indian Contract Act explicitly states that
mistakes regarding laws in force in India do not render a contract voidable, regardless of the
materiality of the mistake.
d)
The contract is unenforceable because a mistake regarding a fundamental legal principle, such as tax
regulation, results in a contract being treated as void from inception.

Q 56. 30671241 If a party to a contract discovers after signing that the law in a foreign country, which
was central to the agreement, is different from what they initially believed, what legal recourse do they
have under Section 21?

a)
The contract can be voided if the party can demonstrate that the foreign law was misunderstood and
the mistake was material to the formation of the contract.
b)
The contract cannot be voided unless both parties were mistaken about the foreign law, and they
jointly decide to annul the agreement.
c)
The contract remains binding because Indian law does not recognize any mistakes about foreign legal
principles as grounds for voiding an agreement.
d)
The contract will only be voidable if the party can show that they were misled into the mistake by the
other party's representation of the foreign law.

Q 57. 30671241 Under Section 21 of the Indian Contract Act, what happens when a contract is
formed under a mistaken belief regarding a fundamental legal principle of Indian law?

a)
The contract becomes unenforceable if the mistaken belief regarding Indian law affects the primary
obligations under the contract.
b)
The contract is voidable if one party can prove that the mistaken belief about Indian law was due to
the other party's failure to inform them correctly.

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c)
The contract may be voided by the court if the mistake can be shown to have significantly altered the
parties' understanding of their obligations.
d)
The contract remains valid because mistakes about Indian law do not render a contract voidable,
regardless of their significance.

Q 58. 30671241 What would be the outcome if a contract between A and B is formed under a
mistaken belief regarding the legal requirements of a foreign country, but only A was aware of this
mistake at the time of signing?

a) The contract is automatically void due to A's knowledge of the mistake regarding foreign law.

b)
The contract is enforceable unless B can prove that the mistake about the foreign legal requirements
was induced by A's intentional misrepresentation.
c)
The contract may be voidable by B because Section 21 allows mistakes concerning foreign law to be
treated similarly to mistakes of fact, and B was unaware of the mistake.
d)
The contract remains valid as long as A did not intentionally conceal the foreign legal requirement from
B, irrespective of whether B knew of the mistake at the time.

Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.

Passage – 2

Nuisance refers to an unlawful interference with a person's use or enjoyment of land. This legal right
cannot be taken away without lawful justification. For making an act of Nuisance actionable under the
law of torts, the defendant must have done a wrongful act and it should have caused damage, loss or
inconvenience to the plaintiff. However there are some defences under nuisance:
• A special defence available in the case of nuisance is prescription if it has been peaceable and
openly enjoyed as an easement and as of right without interruption and for twenty years. After a
nuisance has been continuously in existence for twenty years prescriptive right to continue it is
acquired as an easement appurtenant to the land on which it exists.
(i) Use and occupation or enjoyment; (ii) The identity of the thing enjoyed; (iii) That it should be
adverse to the rights of some other person.
• Statutory Authority Where a statute has authorised the doing of a particular act or the use of land in a
particular way, all remedies whether by way of indictment or action, are taken away; provided that
every reasonable precaution consistent with the exercise of the statutory powers has been taken.

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• De-Minimis Non-Curat Lex- An Action for damages against the defendant cannot be brought if it is
shown that the Plaintiff is extra sensitive and an otherwise prudent person would not complain of such
non-substantive trifle Edited and extracted from:

https://monad.edu.in/img/media/uploads/Nuisance%20and%20its%20kinds.pdf
Q 59. 30671241 K and H were neighbors, for the past 25 years. H supplied lunches to working
professionals, and had a big kitchen for that purpose. K was a medical practitioner, recently he shifted
his clinic in his backyard, because the original clinic needed renovation. However, there were constant
noise and vibrations from H's kitchen, which have started bothering K, he filed a suit of nuisance
against H. Decide whether H could be held liable?

a) H could not be held liable because he has gained prescriptive right.

b) H could not be held liable, because the noise and vibrations are essential to his livelihood.
c) H could not be held liable, because K is a sensitive plaintiff.

d) H could not liable, because K was aware about the noise before shifting his clinic.

Q 60. 30671241 A owned a big patch of land. J was a herder who has been using it for more than 25
years for grazing pastures. Meanwhile A shifted out of the city for new opportunities. One day he
visited his old place, he saw that J had constructed a house on his land. A was furious, but J claimed
that he has prescriptive right as A never complaint against him using his land. A filed a case against J
for nuisance. Decide the liability of J.

a) J is liable because he has constructed his house on another's land.

b) J is liable because he had prescriptive right for pasture grazing not for construction.

c) J is not liable because he had prescriptive right over the land.

d) J is not liable, because A had already moved out of the city, and wouldn't use the land.

Q 61. 30671241 Which of the following is a defence under tort of nuisance?

a) b)
Interference with the security and integrity of the Avoidance of an economic activity of national
country. importance.
c) d) To further national interest.
Statutory authority allows the continuance of
nuisance.

Q 62. 30671241 For the upcoming festival of Diwali, the government has allowed the selling of
crackers in the residential areas, for the convenience of the buyers and a profitable market for the
sellers. P was one of the sellers of the fireworks. However, a spark of fire from the nearby construction
unit lighted his stock of crackers, that were kept in the open to attract buyers. The nearby houses
caught fire resulted in loss and severe injuries. When case was filed against P, he claimed that it was

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a statutory authority to sell fireworks in the residential area, hence he cannot be held liable for
nuisance. Decide.

a) P is not liable for nuisance because he is following the statutory authority.

b) P is not liable for nuisance because the mistake was of the construction unit.
c) P is liable for nuisance because his stocks of fireworks caught fire.

d) P is liable for nuisance because he failed to take precaution.

Q 63. 30671241 123, was a small city situated near the border of country I and C. From the past
several weeks, there have been news of land transgression by the C county. I country decided to
increase the developmental activities in the city. However, due to constant work in the city, W a
resident of 123, had to face a lot of trouble. He filed a complaint of nuisance. Decide from the above
facts, whether it would entail a liability of nuisance?

a) This is not a case of nuisance, because it is protected under the defence of statutory authority.
b) This is not a case of nuisance, because it is to protect the borders of the country.

c) This is a case of nuisance, because the developmental activities are causing trouble to W.

d) This is a case of nuisance, because it is hampering W's enjoyment of his property.

Q 64. 30671241 T was driving his car on the road. Due to the speed of the car, some leaves lying on
the pavement, slid into the F's Garden. F had recently got his garden renovated and was very
particular about its maintenance. When F saw some leaves in his garden, he was furious, he checked
the CCTV camera, and covered the area on the pavement, and found T to be guilty. He filed a case of
nuisance against T. Decide whether T could be held liable for nuisance.

a) T should be held liable for nuisance, because he was driving the car at a high speed.

b) T should be held liable for nuisance, because the garden was recently renovated.

c) T should not be held liable for nuisance, because F is a sensitive plaintiff.

d) T should not be held liable for nuisance because he was not aware about F's new garden.

Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.

Passage – 3

Section 17 of the Bhartiya Nagrik Sanhita (BNS) provides a legal defense for individuals who act
under the mistaken belief that their actions are justified by law, provided that this belief is based on a
mistake of fact and not a mistake of law. This section essentially states that no act is considered an
offense if it is carried out by a person who, in good faith, believes they are legally justified in doing so.
The critical distinction here is between a mistake of fact, which can serve as a defense, and a mistake

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of law, which cannot.

A mistake of fact refers to an incorrect understanding or perception of the facts that form the basis of
an action. If a person acts on a misunderstanding of the facts, believing they are legally authorized to
do so, their action is not punishable under the law. However, if the mistake is one of law, meaning the
person misunderstood the legal consequences or rules governing their actions, they cannot claim
protection under Section 17.

For this protection to apply, the person must have acted in good faith, exercising their judgment
honestly and to the best of their ability. This concept of good faith ensures that only those who
genuinely believed their actions were justified are granted immunity from prosecution. Additionally, the
law does not permit someone to act recklessly or with negligence and then claim protection under
Section 17.

This section is crucial in scenarios where law-abiding citizens or officials perform certain actions under
the mistaken belief that they are legally justified, only to later discover that their understanding of the
situation was incorrect. However, as long as the mistake is one of fact, not law, and the individual
acted in good faith, they are not held criminally liable for their actions.
Q 65. 30671241 A police officer arrests a person based on reliable but ultimately incorrect information
that the person committed a crime. The officer acted in good faith and believed the arrest was justified.
Under Section 17, what is the legal consequence of the officer's action?

a) The officer's action is an offense because the information was incorrect.

b)
The officer is protected under Section 17 because the mistake was one of fact, not law, and the officer
acted in good faith.
c)
The officer's action is voidable, but only if the arrested person can prove the arrest was made with bad
intentions.

d) The officer is liable because ignorance of the facts does not excuse an arrest.

Q 66. 30671241 If a person, believing they have permission to enter a private property based on a
mistaken understanding of facts, does so and later discovers they did not have permission, what is
their liability under Section 17?

a)
They are protected under Section 17 if the mistake was one of fact and they genuinely believed they
had the right to enter.

b) They are guilty of trespassing since the permission was not valid, regardless of their belief.
c)
The person is liable because a mistake of fact cannot serve as a defense in matters of property rights.

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d) They can only be excused if they can prove that the property owner misled them.

Q 67. 30671241 If a person confiscates an object, believing in good faith that it is stolen property
based on a mistake of fact, and it turns out the object was legally owned, what is the legal
consequence under Section 17?

a) The person is guilty of theft because the object was legally owned.

b)
The person is protected under Section 17 if the mistake was a factual misunderstanding and they
acted in good faith.
c) The person is liable for confiscating the object regardless of their belief about its ownership.
d) The person must return the object but cannot be held criminally liable under Section 17.

Q 68. 30671241 Under Section 17, a person acts to defend themselves against what they believe to
be an imminent attack based on a mistake of fact. The supposed attacker was not actually intending
harm. What legal protection does the person have?

a) The person is guilty of assault because the threat was not real.

b) The person can only claim self-defense if the threat was real, not perceived.
c)
The person is liable for acting against someone who was not a real threat, regardless of their belief.
d)
The person is protected because they acted in good faith under a mistaken belief of fact regarding the
threat.

Q 69. 30671241 Based on the passage, which of the following statements accurately reflects the
scope of Section 17 of the BNS?

a)
Section 17 provides protection only to law enforcement officers acting under the belief that they are
justified by law.
b)
Section 17 protects individuals who act in good faith under a mistake of law, provided the law was
complex and difficult to understand.
c)
Section 17 applies to individuals who, based on a mistake of fact, believe they are justified by law and
act in good faith, even if their actions later prove to be unnecessary.
d)
Section 17 allows individuals to claim protection for any action, even if they were reckless or negligent
in their understanding of the law.

Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by questions
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Q 70. 30671241 A person mistakenly believes that someone is stealing their property and, acting in
good faith, detains them. Later, it is proven that no theft occurred. Which of the following principles,
based on Section 17, would justify the person's actions as not being an offense?

a) The person is excused because they had a valid reason to be suspicious, even if they were wrong.
b)
The person is protected under Section 17 because they made a mistake of fact and acted in good
faith, believing they were justified by law.
c)
The person's actions are not justified because they did not thoroughly investigate whether the theft
was actually occurring.
d)
The person is liable because detaining someone based on suspicion, without clear evidence of
wrongdoing, is never legally protected.

based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.

Passage – 4

The Draft Broadcasting Services (Regulation) Bill, 2023 aims to establish a comprehensive regulatory
framework for broadcasting services, including cable television, radio, and OTT platforms. The Bill
replaces the Cable Television Networks (Regulation) Act, 1995, adapting to the rapidly evolving media
landscape. It introduces a three-tier regulatory structure:

1. Self-regulation by individual broadcasters.

2. Self-regulatory organisations (SROs) for collective oversight.
3. The Broadcast Advisory Council (BAC), which will handle appeals and complaints referred by the
central government and SROs.

The Bill imposes offences and penalties. For instance, operating a broadcasting service without valid
registration can result in fines up to Rs. 10 lakh or imprisonment for up to two years, or both.
Subsequent violations may lead to fines of up to Rs. 50 lakh or imprisonment for up to five years, or
both. Registered entities' penalties will be proportional to their size, determined by their turnover and
investment.

Platforms like OTT services must inform the central government once their viewer base crosses a set
threshold. Content broadcast by such entities must comply with the programme and advertisement
codes set by the government. However, the Bill raises concerns over the differing treatment of the
same content on intermediaries (e.g., websites) that are protected under the IT Act's "safe harbour"
provision. This leads to regulatory inconsistencies.

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The central government retains substantial control over content regulation, including decisions about
whether content violates the programme code, leading to concerns over conflict of interest, particularly
in cases where the content is critical of the government. Additionally, the Bill does not specify a robust
mechanism for appealing against government decisions.
Q 71. 30671241 A broadcaster registered under the Draft Broadcasting Services (Regulation) Bill,
2023 has violated the programme code on multiple occasions. Given their annual turnover and
investment are significantly high, what penalty could they face for the violation?

a) Rs.10 lakh fine regardless of the size of the broadcaster

b)
Fine determined as per turnover and investment, with imprisonment up to 5 years for repeated
violations
c) Immediate revocation of broadcasting license without any fine

d) A warning from the self-regulatory organisation (SRO) but no monetary penalty

Q 72. 30671241 Under the Draft Bill, a programme on an OTT platform contravenes the programme
code, while the same content is uploaded on a video hosting intermediary platform that is not held
accountable. What discrepancy does this raise under the regulatory framework?

a)
The OTT platform is liable for violating the code, while the intermediary platform is protected by safe
harbour provisions under the IT Act
b) Both platforms are exempt from any penalties under the safe harbour provisions

c) Both platforms are subject to immediate deletion of content

d) Only the OTT platform can appeal under the Broadcast Advisory Council

Q 73. 30671241 What is one of the primary concerns raised by the Draft Broadcasting Services Bill
regarding the content regulation across different platforms?

a) The Bill imposes the same content standards across all internet platforms

b)
It creates regulatory inconsistencies as OTT platforms are subject to different standards than
intermediaries
c)
The Bill provides OTT platforms with more lenient regulations compared to traditional broadcasting
services
d) It exempts all internet platforms from adhering to any government-imposed programme codes

Q 74. 30671241 The Draft Broadcasting Services Bill allows the central government to determine
violations of the programme code. What concern does this raise regarding media freedom?

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a) It ensures that only government-approved content is allowed across all platforms

b) It provides too much freedom to broadcasters and OTT platforms

c)
The central government's role in content regulation could lead to a conflict of interest, especially with
content critical of the government
d) The Bill offers no control over content violations, leading to potential media exploitation

Q 75. 30671241 Under the Draft Bill, why might there be inconsistencies in regulating the same
content across different platforms?

a) Intermediaries are regulated differently under the IT Act's "safe harbour" provision

b) OTT platforms are exempt from any government regulation

c) The Bill only applies to content created outside India

d) The Bill does not cover radio broadcasting

Q 76. 30671241 Why is there concern over the central government's power to set the programme
code under the Draft Bill?

a) The programme code prevents the central government from enforcing penalties on broadcasters
b) The programme code allows all forms of content without restriction

c) The Bill entirely removes the government's authority to impose any content restrictions

d) The Bill does not provide detailed guidelines on how the programme code will be formulated

Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.

Passage – 5

Section 34 of the Indian Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, provides parties with the ability to
challenge an arbitral award in court. However, such challenges are limited to specific grounds,
ensuring that arbitral awards maintain finality unless substantial procedural or legal flaws are evident.
Section 34 emphasizes that courts do not function as appellate bodies and cannot reassess the merits
of the case.

The grounds for setting aside an arbitral award under Section 34 are strictly circumscribed. These
include incapacity of parties, invalidity of the arbitration agreement, lack of proper notice to the parties
or their inability to present their case, award going beyond the scope of submission to arbitration,
improper composition of the arbitral tribunal, or failure to follow the agreed procedure. Additionally, the
award can be set aside if it is in conflict with the public policy of India, which includes instances of

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fraud, corruption, or violation of principles of natural justice.

Recent amendments have narrowed the scope of judicial interference. For instance, the Arbitration
and Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2015, clarified that awards could be set aside for patent illegality,
but this does not extend to errors of fact. The amendment also ensures that mere errors of law, unless
of significant importance, do not constitute grounds for setting aside the award.

The provision serves the dual purpose of providing recourse in cases of significant procedural
irregularities while maintaining the speed and efficiency of the arbitral process. The courts are
empowered to ensure that the arbitral award is fair and just, but they refrain from engaging in merit-
based reviews, thus respecting the autonomy of arbitration as a dispute resolution mechanism.
Q 77. 30671241 Which of the following scenarios would NOT be valid grounds for setting aside an
arbitral award under Section 34?

a)
The arbitral tribunal rendered a decision on matters outside the terms of the arbitration agreement,
extending its jurisdiction beyond what the parties had agreed.

b)
One party was incapacitated due to severe illness, preventing them from participating in the
proceedings, and this was not accounted for by the tribunal.
c)
The arbitrator made an error in assessing the factual evidence, but the arbitration procedure followed
was in line with the arbitration agreement and the arbitral tribunal was properly constituted.
d)
The award is challenged on the basis that it violates the public policy of India due to fraud and
corruption involved in the proceedings.

Q 78. 30671241 Which of the following would allow a court to set aside an arbitral award on the
grounds of violating the public policy of India under Section 34?

a)
The arbitral tribunal failed to apply a legal principle correctly, resulting in an error of law that affects the
outcome of the case.
b)
A party did not receive sufficient notice of the arbitration proceedings and was unable to present its
case, affecting the fairness of the process.

c)
The tribunal miscalculated the damages awarded, but no fraud, corruption, or procedural irregularity
was involved.

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d)
The arbitral award was rendered based on fraudulent evidence presented by one party, and the
tribunal did not detect the fraud during the proceedings.

Q 79. 30671241 Which of the following is TRUE regarding the judicial scope for setting aside arbitral
awards after the 2015 amendment to the Arbitration Act?

a)
Errors in fact, as well as errors in law, are now included under patent illegality as grounds for setting
aside an award under Section 34.
b)
The courts can now review the merits of an arbitral award when there is evidence of procedural
impropriety or public policy violations.
c)
Patent illegality can be a ground for setting aside an award, but it excludes the review of errors of fact
or insignificant legal errors.
d)
The amendment gives courts broader discretion to assess the merit of an arbitral award if it results in
a substantial miscarriage of justice.

Q 80. 30671241 In which of the following cases would a party be unable to successfully challenge an
arbitral award under Section 34?

a)
The party challenges the award because they disagree with the arbitrator's interpretation of factual
evidence and believe it led to an unjust result.
b)
The arbitral tribunal applied a law different from the one agreed upon in the arbitration agreement,
which changed the outcome of the award.
c)
The party was not notified about the arbitration hearings, and as a result, could not present their case.
d)
The arbitral tribunal was improperly constituted as per the terms agreed upon by the parties in the
arbitration agreement..

Directions for questions 53 to 84: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.

Passage – 6

Under Section 2(7) of the Consumer Protection Act, a consumer is broadly defined to cover a variety
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of situations involving the purchase of goods or availing of services. A person qualifies as a consumer
if they buy goods or hire services for a consideration (payment), whether fully paid, partially paid, or
deferred. This definition includes both offline and online transactions, such as e-commerce,
teleshopping, and direct or multi-level marketing.

The term "consumer" also extends to any individual who uses the goods or services with the approval
of the buyer or hirer, provided the use is not for commercial purposes. Notably, a person who buys
goods or hires services specifically for resale or commercial purposes is excluded from the definition.

However, the Act provides an important exception for individuals who use goods for earning their
livelihood through self-employment. For such individuals, using goods or services for a "commercial
purpose" does not strip them of their consumer status. This protects small business owners, artisans,
and self-employed individuals who may purchase tools or services essential to their livelihood.

The term "goods" refers to any item bought for personal use, while "services" encompass a broad
range of activities, from banking and insurance to telecom and healthcare services. The Act's definition
of consumer reflects the evolving nature of commerce, including transactions that take place
electronically or through other remote means.

The purpose of this definition is to safeguard the rights of individuals engaging in trade without
commercial intent and ensure protection against unfair practices, defective goods, or deficient
services, whether the transaction occurs physically or digitally.
Q 81. 30671241 Rahul purchases a bulk order of mobile phones for his newly opened electronics
store. He plans to resell them to customers. Can Rahul be considered a consumer under Section 2(7)
of the Consumer Protection Act?

a) Yes, because he bought the phones for a consideration, and the act applies to all purchases.
b)
Yes, because he purchased the goods for his business, and the definition includes business owners.
c)
No, because the goods were purchased for resale, which excludes him from the definition of a
consumer.
d)
No, because the purchase was made for future profit-making purposes and resale, excluding him from
the Act.

Q 82. 30671241 Meera, a self-employed tailor, buys a high-quality sewing machine to make clothes
for her clients. The machine helps her earn her livelihood. Does Meera qualify as a consumer under
Section 2(7) of the Act?

a) Yes, because any use of goods for earning money qualifies as non-commercial under the Act.

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b)
No, because she is using the machine for commercial purposes by making and selling clothes to her
clients.

c) No, because the machine is a tool for her business, and business-related purchases are excluded.
d)
Yes, because she is using the sewing machine exclusively for self-employment, which is an exception
to the "commercial purpose" exclusion.

Q 83. 30671241 Amit hires an advertising agency to run a digital marketing campaign for his small
online business. He pays them partly upfront and the rest on a deferred basis. Can Amit be considered
a consumer under the Consumer Protection Act?

a) Yes, because he hired the services of an agency, and payment was involved.

b)
No, because the service is for a commercial purpose, which excludes him from the definition of a
consumer.
c)
Yes, because even commercial services can fall under the scope of consumer protection if
consideration is paid.
d)
No, because only individuals availing of services for personal purposes fall under the Act's protection.

Q 84. 30671241 Neha purchases a health insurance policy online for herself and her family. The
payment is deferred in installments. Does Neha qualify as a consumer under the Consumer Protection
Act?

a)
Yes, because she is availing of a service for personal use, and the definition includes online
transactions.
b) No, because the Act excludes deferred payments from the definition of a consumer.

c) No, because health insurance is considered a commercial service and does not fall under the Act.
d) Yes, but only if she completes the payment in full by the time of availing the service.

Logical Reasoning
Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 1

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In response to the growing frequency and intensity of disasters, governments and organisations
around the world have prioritised disaster management and mitigation efforts.

Despite significant strides in disaster management, challenges persist, including inadequate

infrastructure, lack of awareness, and funding constraints. Additionally, the increasing impact of
climate change has exacerbated the frequency and intensity of disasters, necessitating a proactive
and holistic approach to risk reduction.

In recent years, there has been a growing recognition of the importance of community resilience and
local-level initiatives in disaster preparedness and response. From early warning systems to capacity-
building programs, efforts are underway to empower communities to effectively mitigate and respond
to disasters.

It is evident that the impact of these events extends far beyond physical destruction. They leave
lasting scars on communities, economies, and ecosystems, underscoring the need for concerted
action to build resilience and reduce vulnerabilities.

By learning from the lessons of the past and embracing innovative solutions, we can work towards a
future where disasters no longer exact such a heavy toll on humanity. From strengthening
infrastructure to enhancing early warning systems, there are myriad opportunities to mitigate risks and
build a more resilient world for generations to come. As we navigate the complexities of an
increasingly uncertain world, let us draw inspiration from the resilience of those who have weathered
the storms of history and forge a path towards a safer, more sustainable future.
Q 85. 30671241 Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

a) Post-disaster relief efforts are as important as preventive measures or community resilience.

b)
It is essential to improve infrastructure, early warning systems, and foster community-based
preparedness to reduce the impact of disasters.
c)
In disaster management, community involvement and awareness are more important than technology
and infrastructure.
d)
The government should make efforts to prioritise immediate and short-term recovery over risk
reduction.

Q 86. 30671241 Which of the following assumptions is/ are implicit in the passage?
1. Existing disaster management practices, infrastructure, and preparedness measures are not
adequate to address the increasing frequency and intensity of disasters.
2. A proactive approach is essential for effectively mitigating and managing disaster impacts.
3. The role of climate change in mitigating the frequency and severity of natural disasters is crucial.

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Which of the above assumptions are valid?

a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) all of the above

Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 2

India will need to invest up to $385 billion to achieve its 500 GW renewable energy target by 2030,
according to Moody's Ratings. Despite this, coal will continue to be a major electricity source for the
next decade. India aims to add 50 GW of non-fossil fuel capacity annually but missed its 175 GW
target by 2022. Moody's estimates an annual addition of 44 GW is needed, costing $190 billion to
$215 billion for capacity and $150 billion to $170 billion for transmission and distribution. While
renewable energy's share has reached 43%, coal will remain significant for the next 8-10 years.
Q 87. 30671241 All of the following can be inferred from the passage except?

a) India's current renewable energy share indicates a growing shift towards non-fossil fuel sources.

b)
India must significantly increase its annual capacity additions and investments to meet its renewable
energy targets.
c) India could not achieve its goal of adding 50 GW of non-fossil fuel annually.

d) India is likely to continue facing challenges in achieving these targets due to historical shortfalls

Q 88. 30671241 What is the author's central message in the passage?

a)
India's renewable energy sector will likely face tough challenges in the coming years due to lack of
government support.
b) India must invest up to $385 billion to meet its renewable energy target of 500 GW by 2030.

c) Coal will remain a major and permanent source of energy for India.
d)
India faces a significant financial challenge in transitioning to renewable energy while continuing to
rely on coal in the near term.

Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 3

India has become a significant hub for smartphone assembly, with nearly all phones sold locally now

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assembled in the country, including exports by companies like Apple. In 2023-24, India exported
smartphones worth around $15 billion, with iPhones contributing $10 billion of that amount, doubling
from the previous year. However, this growth has increased India's dependence on imported electronic
components such as circuit boards and integrated circuits due to the lack of a substantial domestic
manufacturing base. Despite rising factory output and exports, local value addition in mobile phone
assembly remains low at around 15%, compared to a desirable 35-40%. Amid strained India-China
relations, India has imposed various restrictions on Chinese products and companies. Nonetheless,
India is considering allowing more Chinese firms to establish joint ventures with domestic companies,
aiming to balance reducing imports with maintaining investments from China, as noted in the
Economic Survey 2023-24.
Q 89. 30671241 Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the passage?
1. India lacks the manufacturing base to support the growth of electronic exports
2. India's economic measures are a way to protect and promote local industries.

a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) 1 and 2 d) None

Q 90. 30671241 Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?

a) India has become a major hub for smartphone assembly with significant growth in exports

b) India has significantly improved domestic manufacturing with restrictions on Chinese products
c)
India must develop a stronger domestic manufacturing base to reduce reliance on imported
components and increase local value addition
d) India needs to maintain economic investments from China despite China's looming threat.

Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 4

Over three decades since the internet became public, understanding its impact on society, particularly
on children and young adults, has struggled to keep up with technological advancements. The
challenge is heightened by the emergence of "digital natives" who have known only an online world,
while safeguards remain rooted in outdated analog concepts.

The internet's widespread presence has exposed children and young people to various dangers,
including child sexual abuse, online harassment, cyberbullying, and blackmail. While laws such as
those requiring parental consent for processing children's data provide some protection, they are
limited by the internet's evolving nature.

Effective protection must start at home and in schools, involving open discussions about online
behaviour, privacy, and recognizing warning signs of predatory actions. The internet is a valuable

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resource for education, entertainment, and socialisation for children, and a fear-based approach would
be counterproductive. With many children in India still having limited or no internet access, a balanced
approach is necessary to ensure their safety online while respecting their right to access digital
resources.
Q 91. 30671241 Which of the following assumptions is NOT implicit in the passage?
(1) Current protective measures and societal understanding are not at par with rapidly evolving
technology.
(2) Legislation is insufficient to fully address the dynamic nature of online threats.

a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 92. 30671241 Which of the following inferences cannot be drawn on the basis of information given
in the passage?

a)
Effective protection of children online requires both updated protective measures and proactive
education.
b) Education plays a crucial role in complementing legal measures.

c) Children should be strictly restricted from using the internet to ensure their safety

d) Relying solely on existing laws is insufficient due to the dynamic nature of online threats,

Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 5

Public servants' misdeeds are partly due to political corruption, making it nearly impossible for citizens
to access fundamental rights without bribery in many states. Services like job placements and property
approvals often require illicit payments, exacerbated by high unemployment. While some officials cite
pressure from political demands for these bribes, many willingly exploit opportunities for personal gain.
The recent Supreme Court judgment may not significantly deter corruption, but this should not
discourage the fight against it. We need enlightened opinion leaders unafraid to challenge powerful
figures in politics and administration to foster accountability and integrity in public service.
Q 93. 30671241 Which of the following statements would strengthen the author's argument about the
need for courageous leadership in fighting corruption?

a)
Empirical studies indicate that nations with weak political will and leaders not committed to anti-
corruption initiatives experience high levels of bribery and less transparent public services.
b)
In countries like Denmark, where government officials are held to high ethical standards, citizens
experience easier access to public services without the need for illicit payments.

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c)
According to a report by the United Nations, societies where political and administrative leaders don't
promote accountability see reduced public trust and cooperation between citizens and the
government.
d)
Research from anti-corruption watchdogs demonstrates that public servants are less likely to engage
in corrupt practices when leaders don't demonstrate a commitment to transparency and ethical
governance.

Q 94. 30671241 Each of the following is true as per the passage, EXCEPT:

a) Corruption is a widespread problem in public service, particularly influenced by political factors.

b) Leaders and opinion makers have the power to influence corruption.

c)
Current measures, such as the Supreme Court judgment, are extremely effective in significantly
deterring corruption.
d) There is a lack of accountability and integrity in public service due to weak leadership.

Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 6

There are some astonishing lines in the papyrus. A lyric passage from Ino, probably belonging to
Themisto, imagines 'the ephemeral, changeable god working in secret, moving this way and that,
obscurely through the clouds'. The image, uttered in a moment of abject grief, is as striking for its
expression of the opacity of the divine as for its mixing of worlds - ephemerality and changeability are
the defining characteristics of the mortal condition. Here, for perhaps the first time in extant Greek
literature, an unnamed divinity takes on the human attributes for which he or she is responsible. The
Ino passages have a wider emotional and technical range than those from Polyidus, combining the
metres of speech and song as two mothers, one who has lost her children and the other who is
responsible for their death, confront each other for what may be the last time. This portion has been
among the hardest to reconstruct. Near the end, the editors can make out only a word or two per line:
'after a long time ... lifting up ... bloody ... Indeed when you ought ... to have come into the light, you
have come ... and hateful to the gods ... stop ... providing me little benefit and much pain ... foolish ...
follies'. Suggestive as they are, we cannot be confident about more than their general meaning. As in
Polyidus, the two characters spar over the death of children, argue about the proper way to cope with
an unjust fate and find themselves confronted with the limits of the mortal condition.
Q 95. 30671241 Which of the following, if true, would least strengthen the author's argument
"Suggestive as they are, we cannot be confident about more than their general meaning."?

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a)
Recent studies have revealed that many ancient texts are often incomplete or damaged, making it
difficult to fully understand their original intent or meaning.
b)
New evidence suggests that the papyrus containing the Themisto passage is one of the most
fragmented and poorly preserved texts from that period.
c)
Several experts have recently proposed that the editors' translations of similar ancient manuscripts
were highly accurate, even when dealing with incomplete fragments.
d)
It has been demonstrated that the ink used in the papyrus deteriorates over time, causing portions of
the text to fade, thereby making precise interpretation increasingly challenging.

Q 96. 30671241 Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

a)
The divine entity in Ino's lyric assumes traits that are conventionally ascribed to beings of an eternal
and imperishable nature.
b)
The juxtaposition of the two maternal figures illustrates contrasting responses to bereavement and
culpability.
c)
The fragment attributed to Themisto poses significant challenges to reconstruction, with only
fragmented phrases discernible in the extant manuscript.
d)
The transient and mutable nature of existence is underscored as a quintessential attribute of the
human condition.

Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 7

The United Nations summit on Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) evaluated global progress
toward the 17 SDGs, which include 169 specific targets to be achieved by 2030. While the agenda is
non-binding, all countries are committed to pursuing these goals as part of a collective effort toward
sustainable development.

However, progress has been insufficient, with reports indicating setbacks, particularly due to the
COVID-19 pandemic and other global crises. Many environmental and biodiversity-related goals-such
as responsible consumption, climate action, and ecosystem protection-have received little attention.
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This trend undermines the integrated nature of the SDGs, threatening to accelerate environmental
degradation and derail sustainability efforts.

The UN SDG Report 2023 highlights five urgent areas for action: governments must commit to seven
years of transformative actions; implement integrated policies to eradicate poverty and reduce
inequality; strengthen national and subnational capacities; recommit to mobilizing resources for
developing nations; and enhance the UN development system.

While world leaders acknowledged these challenges and reaffirmed their commitments, the real
impact of these global pledges on the ground remains questionable. A study by 64 scholars analyzing
3,000 studies found that while the SDGs have prompted some normative and institutional reforms,
their overall influence on national and local politics has been limited. The assessment indicates that
the SDGs, while important, have not yet become a transformative force in achieving sustainable
development.
Q 97. 30671241 Which of the following statements can be inferred from the passage?

a) The COVID-19 pandemic has been an impediment in achieving the SDGs.

b) Environmental and biodiversity-related SDGs are receiving greater attention than other SDGs.

c) The integrated nature of the SDGs is at risk due to sufficient progress in key areas.

d) Developing nations will not struggle to achieve the SDGs with international support.

Q 98. 30671241 Which of the following statements would most strengthen the author's argument in
the passage?

a)
A recent UN report confirms that environmental degradation has accelerated due to insufficient
attention to climate-related SDGs, further threatening global sustainability efforts.
b)
Several countries have implemented policies that directly address SDG goals, showing measurable
progress in poverty reduction and inequality eradication.
c)
The COVID-19 pandemic, while initially disruptive, has not significantly affected the progress toward
achieving the 17 SDGs.
d)
Despite global pledges, most countries have not prioritized mobilizing resources to assist developing
nations in achieving SDG targets.

Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 8

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The current Indian agriculture and food system faces multiple challenges beyond droughts and shifting
monsoons, including high input costs, deteriorating soil health, farmer debt cycles, and inequitable
market access, particularly for small and medium landholders. Climate variability threatens the
livelihoods of around 60% of the rural population, with 11 states at high risk for agricultural production
in the future. In response, the concept of climate-smart agriculture was introduced by the FAO in 2010,
aiming to sustainably increase food security, build resilience, and reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

India has launched initiatives like the National Innovations in Climate Resilient Agriculture (NICRA)
and the National Mission on Sustainable Agriculture to address these challenges. State-level
programs, such as the Odisha Integrated Irrigation Project and Maharashtra's Climate Resilient
Agriculture Project, promote climate-resilient technologies.

However, the broad definition of climate-smart agriculture raises concerns about reliance on
agrochemicals and fossil fuels. To truly enhance resilience, India needs to take four key steps:
1. Reassess Crop Choices: Promote geography-specific crops that align with local conditions.
2. Rethink Agricultural Practices: Adopt climate-resilient methods and integrate indigenous knowledge.
3. Calibrate Support Systems: Strengthen input and output value chains through multistakeholder
collaboration.
4. Empower Women Farmers: Ensure equitable access to resources for women, boosting overall
productivity.

By focusing on these strategies, India can build a more climate-resilient agricultural system that
supports nutritional security and sustainability.
Q 99. 30671241 Which of the following statements would most weaken the argument that India's
agricultural system can be made climate-resilient by following the suggested strategies?

a) Geography-specific crop choices may not withstand increasingly unpredictable climate patterns.

b) Climate-smart agriculture has reduced farmer debt cycles in several states.

c) NICRA and state-level projects have reduced reliance on agrochemicals and fossil fuels.
d) Empowering women farmers has increased agricultural productivity across India.

Q 100. 30671241 The passage seems to imply each of the following EXCEPT:

a)
A fragmented approach to agricultural value chains-input supply, production, and market access-
hinders resilience.
b)
Equitable access to resources for women is essential for a more robust and sustainable agricultural
system.

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c)
Without a significant shift towards more sustainable agricultural methods, efforts to build resilience
could lead to further environmental degradation.
d)
A growing risk to food security and rural economies is underlying the measures undertaken by FAO.

Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 9

Yes, I've been called a "coconut". When Marieha Hussain wrote the word on a placard she carried on
a Palestine march last November, it was to deride Rishi Sunak and Suella Braverman, the then prime
minister and home secretary, for their obnoxious immigration policies and their support for Israel's war
in Gaza. But it is a term used also to disparage those on the left whose political views are deemed too
"white".

Hussain's placard, one side of which depicted the faces of Sunak and Braverman superimposed on
coconuts under a palm tree, landed her in court, charged with a racially aggravated public order
offence. Last week she was cleared, the judge accepting it as legitimate "political satire".

"Coconut" - meaning being brown or black on the outside but white on the inside - is a cheap,
distasteful term of abuse, but not one that should be policed by the state (though Hussain is not the
first person to find herself in court for using the word). Both its use by antiracists and attempts by the
authorities to criminalise that use raise wider questions about the policing of speech and the character
of antiracism.

"The laws on hate speech must serve to protect us more," Hussain reflected after her court victory,
"but this trial shows that these rules are being weaponised to target ethnic minorities." There is, in fact,
a long history of hate speech laws being used to criminalise minorities. The 1965 Race Relations Act
introduced Britain's first legal ban on the incitement of racial hatred. Among the first to be convicted,
and imprisoned, under its provisions was the Trinidadian Black Power activist Michael X.

Black activists in America have long complained that their social media posts are frequently banned
because their critiques of racism are themselves deemed racist. And over the past year we have seen
pro-Palestinian voices censored, often not for promoting hatred but for being critical of Israel, even for
calling for a ceasefire. "People are interpreting the category of hate speech very, very broadly," as the
American legal scholar Genevieve Lakier has noted.
Q 101. 30671241 What assumption underlies the author's argument about hate speech laws being
weaponized?

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a) Hate speech laws are designed to protect powerful groups in society.

b) Authorities are misusing hate speech laws to silence marginalized voices.

c) Hate speech laws are inherently flawed and should be repealed.

d) All forms of criticism against the government are considered hate speech.

Q 102. 30671241 Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the author's stance on free
speech?

a) The author supports unlimited free speech without any restrictions.

b) The author believes free speech should allow criticism of political figures.

c) The author supports hate speech laws that criminalize any form of speech.

d) The author believes social media companies are doing a good job of moderating content.

Q 103. 30671241 Should governments increase censorship of social media platforms to prevent the
spread of misinformation?
Argument 1: Yes, increased censorship would help curb the spread of dangerous misinformation and
protect public safety.
Argument 2: No, increased censorship infringes on freedom of expression and could suppress
legitimate dissenting voices.

a) b) c) d)
Argument 1 is strong. Argument 2 is strong. Both 1 and 2 are strong Neither 1 nor 2 is
strong.

Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 10

The first law of thermodynamics dictates that biology cannot exist without geology. Life needs energy
to grow and reproduce; that energy comes from chemical gradients produced by geochemical cycles.
The details of these cycles throughout Earth history have imprinted themselves into the metabolism of
bacteria and the metals used in enzymes. The success of the Eubacterial and Archaeal domains is
due to numerous specializations taking advantage of specific chemical gradients. With multi-cellular
organisms, we are used to thinking of geology shaping populations by isolating them or by providing
catastrophic events that change the rules for survival. However, the internal regulatory controls of all
life, including unicellular organisms, are a biological response to their need to survive in a physical and
chemical environment. Earth has shaped almost every detail of life.

Geology is less dependent on biology. Mars and Venus function as planets in the absence of life.
However, life has extensively modified geology on Earth's surface, making geology and biology

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inseparable. Life has shaped Earth, and Earth has shaped life. Although it is possible to study some
aspects of each field without knowledge of the other, almost all studies of Earth's surface and extant
organisms can benefit immensely from knowledge of both fields. Unfortunately, biology and geology
have evolved into separate academic pursuits, with both physical walls and language barriers dividing
them. These walls have been and are being scaled by many of my scientific heroes, my colleagues,
and our students, with striking results. Here, I would like to highlight some of the biological-geological
synergies that have sparked my excitement in the hopes of inspiring one more scientist to overcome
the language barrier to take full advantage of the symbiosis between geology and biology.
Q 104. 30671241 From the above given passage what can be said about the author's intention?

a) To argue that biology is the dominant force shaping Earth's geology.

b) To show the connection between biology and geology and encourage collaboration.

c) To explain how geology is more important than biology in shaping Earth's surface.
d) To emphasize the separation of biology and geology as distinct academic fields.

Q 105. 30671241 Which of the following statement fails to support the main argument of the
passage?

a)
Earth's geochemical cycles have significantly influenced the metabolic pathways of microorganisms.
b)
The internal regulatory mechanisms of organisms are designed in response to both physical and
chemical environmental factors.
c)
Life on Earth could not have evolved without the dynamic geological processes that created the
chemical gradients organisms depend on.
d)
Geological formations like Mars and Venus show similar biological-geological interdependence as
seen on Earth.

Q 106. 30671241 What kind of approach the author is talking about when it comes to evolutionary
studies?

a)
A biological approach focusing on how organisms adapt to their environments independently of
geological factors.
b)
A geological-centric approach that views biology as secondary to geological changes in determining
evolutionary outcomes.

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c)
A multidisciplinary approach that highlights the intertwined nature of geology and biology in shaping
life and Earth.
d) A historical approach that examines evolutionary changes through catastrophic geological events.

Directions for questions 85 to 108: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.

Passage – 11

There once was a little boy who wanted to meet God. He knew it was a long trip to where God lived,
so he packed his suitcase with Twinkies and a six-pack of root beer and started his journey. When he
had gone about three blocks, he met an old woman. She was sitting in the park just staring at some
pigeons.

The boy sat down next to her and opened his suitcase. He was about to take a drink from his root beer
when he noticed that the old lady looked hungry, so he offered her a Twinkie. She gratefully accepted
it and smiled at him. Her smile was so pretty that the boy wanted to see it again, so he offered her a
root beer. Once again, she smiled at him. The boy was delighted! They sat there all afternoon eating
and smiling, but they never said a word.

As it grew dark, the boy realized how tired he was, and he got up to leave but before he had gone
more than a few steps, he turned around, ran back to the old woman and gave her a hug. She gave
him her biggest smile ever. When the boy opened the door to his own house a short time later, his
mother was surprised by the look of joy on his face. She asked him, "What did you do today that made
you so happy?" He replied, "I had lunch with God." But, before his mother could respond, he added,
"You know what? She's got the most beautiful smile I've ever seen!"

Meanwhile, the old woman, also radiant with joy, returned to her home. Her son was stunned by the
look of peace on her face and he asked, "Mother, what did you do today that made you so happy?"
She replied, "I ate Twinkies in the park with God." But, before her son responded, she added, "You
know, he's much younger than I expected."
Q 107. 30671241 The boy and the old woman both describe their experience as having lunch with
"God." Which of the following best explains why they use this description, considering the underlying
themes of the passage?

a) The boy and the woman both misunderstood each other's identity due to their age difference.

b) The boy and the woman use "God" to describe a connection with another person.

c) The boy's mother had previously told him that older people embody wisdom and divinity.

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d)
The boy was raised to believe that any act of sharing or kindness automatically constitutes an
encounter with God.

Q 108. 30671241 Which of the following ideas highlights the key message of the passage?

a) The boy and the woman both misunderstood each other's identities, believing each to be God.

b) Happiness can only be found through religious faith and divine intervention.

c) The old woman and the boy felt closer to God because of their shared meal and companionship.
d) Small acts of kindness can lead to profound feelings of connection and joy.

Quantitative Techniques
Directions for questions 109 to 112: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

The city of Mumbai has a population of around 20 million people and generates approximately 8000
metric tons of solid waste everyday out of which 55% is organic waste, 15% is recyclable, and the
remaining is non-recyclable.

The city of Delhi has a population that is 55% more than that of Mumbai whereas its daily solid waste
generation is 25% more than that of Mumbai. Out of the total solid waste 50% is organic, 20% is
recyclable, and the rest is non-recyclable.

Chennai's population is 45% less than that of Mumbai whereas the daily solid waste generated is half
that of Delhi out of which 25% is recyclable, 30% is non-recyclable, and the rest is organic.

Kolkata's population is 3 million more than that of Chennai whereas the daily solid waste generated is
10% less than Chennai out of which 60% is organic, 22% is recyclable and the rest is non-recyclable.
Q 109. 30671241 Based on the provided data, what percentage of the total solid waste generated in a
day is from Chennai?

a) 15.5% b) 22.22% c) 18.18% d) 12.12%

Q 110. 30671241 What is the ratio of the total recyclable solid waste produced everyday in Mumbai
and Kolkata respectively?

a) 25 : 23 b) 30 : 41 c) 35 : 33 d) 40 : 33

Q 111. 30671241 What is the daily average for per capita solid waste generation in Mumbai (1 metric
ton = 1000 kg)?

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a) 0.40 kg b) 0.45 kg c) 0.50 kg d) 0.55 kg

Q 112. 30671241 How much more organic waste does Delhi generate daily compared to Kolkata?

a) 3,500 metric tons b) 2,300 metric tons c) 1,500 metric tons d) 2,700 metric tons

Directions for questions 113 to 116: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

A company named CargoCare Ltd. specializes in transporting heavy machinery across various
regions. The machinery is packed into wooden crates of different weights before being shipped. The
company recently received five large orders, and each order required a different number of crates.
The details of these orders are as follows:

Order A has 8 crates, with an average weight of 120 kg. Each crate in order A had a weight of either
100 kg or 140 kg. Order B has 6 crates, with an average weight of 95 kg. Each crate in order B had a
weight of either 85 kg or 115 kg. Order C has 10 crates, with a total weight of 1,000 kg. Order D has
12 crates, with an average weight that is 20% more than the average weight of the crates in Order A.
Order E has 7 crates, each crate weighing 10 kg more than the average weight of the crates in Order
B.
Q 113. 30671241 What is the average weight (in kg) of all five orders?

a) 998.6 b) 1020.4 c) 965.2 d) 982.2

Q 114. 30671241 If order A had N crates of weight 100 kg and M crates of 140 kg, then what is the
value of N?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

Q 115. 30671241 What is the minimum number of crates in order B that can weigh 85 kg?

a) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2

Q 116. 30671241 If in order D the average weight of 8 crates is 140 kg and all remaining crates have
weights equal to 'x' kg, then what is the value of x?

a) 152 b) 154 c) 150 d) 148

Directions for questions 117 to 120: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

In a locality, there are three pizza shops - A, B and C - that sell two categories of pizza - vegetarian
and non-vegetarian. The following data is regarding the sales at these three pizza shops on a
particular day. The respective ratio between the number of vegetarian and non-vegetarian pizzas sold
by pizza shop A was 11 : 7 and that sold by pizza shop B was 13 : 12. The number of pizzas both veg
and non veg sold by pizza shop C was 240 and the respective ratio between number of vegetarian
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and non-vegetarian pizza sold by pizza shop C was 7 : 5. The total number of pizzas sold by all three
pizza shops was 850. The total number of pizzas sold by shop C was 4% less than the number of
pizzas sold by pizza shop B.
Q 117. 30671241 What is the ratio of the total number of vegetarian pizzas sold by shop A & C
together to the total number of non-vegetarian pizzas sold by shop B & C together?

a) 9 : 5 b) 17 : 13 c) 18 : 11 d) 20 : 11

Q 118. 30671241 If the selling price of each vegetarian pizza and each non-vegetarian pizza sold by
shop A is Rs. 150 and Rs. 250 respectively, then find the total revenue earned from the sale of pizzas
in shop A.

a) Rs.57,000 b) Rs.68,000 c) Rs.62,000 d) Rs.70,000

Q 119. 30671241 A new pizza shop 'D' was opened in the locality and it sold only non-vegetarian
pizzas. If on that day it sold 110 pizzas more than shop B, then what was the approximate market
share of shop D with respect to pizzas?

a) 29.75% b) 32.5% c) 27.5% d) 29.5%

Q 120. 30671241 At another new pizza shop E, there were three varieties of non-vegetarian pizzas —
P, Q, and R — sold in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2, with their prices in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 3, respectively. The
number of pizzas sold and their prices were both two-digit numbers. Given that the total revenue from
selling these non-vegetarian pizzas at shop E was Rs. 2,205, what could be the number of pizzas of
variety P sold and the price (in Rs.) of each unit of pizza P, respectively?

a) 45; 36 b) 36; 35 c) 35; 28 d) 45; 28

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