Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following Seven passages and answer the
items that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

The issue of bringing women into the armed forces has been contentious for some time. The
government submitted an affidavit which laid out its justification for the alleged unsuitability of
women officers to discharge this role due to psychological limitations, lower physical standards,
domestic obligations and absence due to pregnancy. The arguments are not only wrong, but also
misplaced. The current case in the Supreme Court is not about granting a role to women in combat
arms but about the denial of equal opportunity in their existing roles for promotion to higher
commands. Women officers are already commanding platoons and companies successfully while
male soldiers accepting orders from them as part of a professional force. A professional force does
not discriminate on the basis of gender, it works because of training, norms and culture. There is no
need to give women any special dispensations but the government cannot promote discrimination
on the basis of gender.

Q 1. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from
the above passage?

a) The government has been reluctant for inducting women as part of the combat forces.

b) There is a progressing shift around the globe towards accepting women in newer roles.

c) Women force needs special dispensation to avoid discrimination.

d) A country's force must be known by its training, norms and culture that defy gender
discrimination.

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following Seven passages and answer the
items that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 2

Arranging romance is hardly new in India. Long before the advent of dating apps, aunts and
grandmothers conjured up suitable partners, painstakingly checking out family backgrounds and
potential soul mates' qualifications. They prioritised compatibility via a ruthless process of
elimination, secure in the formula that when between people there are enough similarities, it will
outweigh the differences. It was a system that worked well enough in a simpler time, when
expectations were lower and romantic experience non-existent. Happiness is more easily
accomplished when comparisons can't be made. Cut to circa 2020, where love is still found via a
checklist on Tinder, only there's too much of it. When there's an overwhelming abundance of
tantalising possibilities, committing to steady companionship becomes so much harder that how
somebody could be better in just two dates

Q 2. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Dating apps make the possibility of committed relationship much easier.
2. The increase in options of partners has set the expectations higher thereby making happiness
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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
difficult.
3. Abundance of possibilities is also resulting in more relations breaking up.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 and 2 only

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following Seven passages and answer the
items that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 3

The debate on whether or not death penalty is deterrent for rape has been overshadowed by a
ghoulish fascination with the technology to execute the punishment. The architecture of the scaffold
has been described in forensic detail about the idea of the simultaneous hanging of the four
convicts of nirbhaya rape case on a scaffold, especially constructed for them, produces nervous
excitement. And, the delay is seen as irritating as if the hangings would satiate the public thirst for
vengeance. Justice is conflated with vengeance and the public gaze is fixated on the gallows. Death
penalty is not a feminist demand. Feminists have consistently argued for feminising procedure and
fair trial. They have contended that more victims will be killed by rapists if death penalty was written
into the rape law. This was also the view of the Verma Committee in 2013.

Q 3. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Ensuring death penalty for rape convicts has long been the demand of the feminist groups.
2. Incidents of rape invoke the wrath of public on large scale.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following Seven passages and answer the
items that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 4

Changed circumstances and new understanding requires innovative approach to policy-making. The
government must finance a long-term study for developing a metrics for valuing farm eco-system
services whereby farmers are paid for services to conserve the environment in a way that ensures

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
economic sustainability of the farmer and also India’s food security. For instance, farmers can be
paid for rainwater harvesting and upkeep of trees. The tricky part though is to devise a differentiating
metric for varying agro-ecology, for example, a particular tree is valued differently in a rainforest and
a desert. A systematic approach is radically different from the present structure. Past experience
indicates that it would be foolhardy to expect the Indian Council of Agriculture Research to develop
one. Having perpetuated a kind of agricultural practice, it can't be expected to purge itself. Rather
than lose another two decades, it is advisable now to engage in a collaborative effort with a
consortium of farmer organisations.

Q 4. Which of the following statements can be considered as part of the ‘innovative approach to
policy making’?
1. Long term study to develop metrics for valuing eco-system services.
2. Collaboration with farmer’s organisation for devising the systematic approach.
3. Taking the institutional help from dedicated organisations for research and development.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following Seven passages and answer the
items that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 5

Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940, regulating the manufacture, sale and distribution of
drugs is primarily the concern of state authorities. The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation
(CDSCO) is responsible for laying down the standards of drugs, coordinating the activities of state
regulatory authorities and providing them expert advice. But by all the accounts, there is scarcely
any information sharing between the Centre and the states and among states. The CDSCO has not
issued binding guidelines to state regulators for recalling medicines that are not of standard quality
(NSQ). A batch of drugs that is deemed NSQ in one state could find its way to the market in another.

Q 5. Which of the following criticism with respect to drug regulations in India is/are correct?
1. Lack of information-sharing between the Centre and the states.
2. No binding guidelines issued to recall drugs of substandard quality.
3. Understaffed offices and unprofessional services by the CDSCO.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following Seven passages and answer the
items that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 6

In an interconnected world transitioning towards multipolarity, it is very hard to live without a

minimally rules based, multilaterally agreed-upon operating trade system. The present arrangement
is definitely in peril, suffering persistent and increasing damage, but will somehow survive. Both the
US and China, all major economies, emerging and less-developed countries, all need a basic
structure for guiding their trade relations. This can act as a driving force for the survival of the existing
structure.

Q 6. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. All the countries need a basic structure for guiding their trade relations.
2. All the countries need a minimum rules based multilaterally agreed upon operating trade system.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following Seven passages and answer the
items that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 7

The rise in inequality in the advanced economies may at least in part because of the decline of trade
unions, as the data on US households’ union membership suggests. As unions expanded, absorbing
more low-skilled workers, the relative wage of low-skilled workers rose vis-a-vis the more skilled
ones. This led to a narrowing in the gap between wages of high-skilled and low-skilled workers in the
decades following the Second World War and hence reduced inequality. However, the trend has
reversed since the 1970s with falling union membership. This has led to widening inequality in recent
decades. The declining power of unions since the 1970s has been accompanied by rising power of
big corporations which have successfully lobbied to reduce taxes. The benefits of tax cuts primarily
accrue to the wealthiest taxpayers who are able to shift their income from salary to capital income
to reduce their tax liabilities.

Q 7. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from
the above passage?

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
a) Studies show that globally trade unions play a positive role in increasing the wages of workers.

b) The positive contribution of the Second World War in not appreciated by the researchers.

c) Recent increase in wage inequality is due to decline in membership of trade unions.

d) Tax cuts mostly benefit the wealthy at the cost of poor.

Q 8. Two Statements S1 and S2 are given below with regard to four different numbers A, B, C and D
followed by a Question:

S1: B is smaller than D as well as A.

S2: C is greater than only one of the numbers.
Among four numbers A, B, C and D which one is the second largest?

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statements and the Question?

a) S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to answer the Question.

b) S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the Question, but neither S1 alone nor S2 alone is
sufficient to answer the Question.

c) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

d) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

Q 9. Two Statements S1 and S2 are given below followed by a Question:

S1: N is a prime number.
S2: N leaves a remainder of 5 when divided by 7.

Question: If N is a unique natural number between 25 and 50, then what is N?

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statements and the Question?

a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

c) S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to answer the Question.

d) S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the Question, but neither S1 alone nor S2 alone is
sufficient to answer the Question.

Q 10. Two Statements S1 and S2 are given below with regard to two numbers followed by a
Question:
S1: Their sum is 12.
S2: Their product is 35.

Question: What are the two numbers?

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statements and the Question?

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

c) S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the Question, but neither S1 alone nor S2 alone is
sufficient to answer the Question.

d) S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to answer the Question.

Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items
that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

Karnataka's business-friendly policies for knowledge-based industries such as information

technology (IT) and biotechnology have won it the epithets of “IT capital”, “BT capital” and “Start-up
capital”. The leadership assumed by the state is not an accident. It is the result of a strong
collaboration between government, industry and academia as well as deep involvement of a
committed bureaucracy. “A legal framework for innovation” has been envisaged to bring new and
emerging technologies under a legal framework. Proactive government policies have ensured
Karnataka ranks among the top 10 states in terms of “ease of doing business”. These measures have
also made the state the fourth largest recipient of foreign direct investment (FDI) between 2000 and
2016. The outcome of the upcoming elections will be crucial as the incoming government will need
to ensure that the state does not lose its economic growth momentum. While Bengaluru’s economy
grew rapidly, its infrastructure failed to keep pace. Initiatives by citizens to fight for better governance
of the city have been successful in getting the government to act. The state budget 2018-19 allocated
over Rs. 4,000 crore to upgrade the city's infrastructure. We need a more developmentoriented
political agenda that rises above petty oneupmanship and instead focuses on putting the state on
the path to robust, inclusive and equitable growth.

Q 11. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Pre-eminence of Bengaluru over other cities is under serious threat.
2. Karnataka needs political wisdom, pragmatism and policy continuation.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items
that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
Karnataka's business-friendly policies for knowledge-based industries such as information
technology (IT) and biotechnology have won it the epithets of “IT capital”, “BT capital” and “Start-up
capital”. The leadership assumed by the state is not an accident. It is the result of a strong
collaboration between government, industry and academia as well as deep involvement of a
committed bureaucracy. “A legal framework for innovation” has been envisaged to bring new and
emerging technologies under a legal framework. Proactive government policies have ensured
Karnataka ranks among the top 10 states in terms of “ease of doing business”. These measures have
also made the state the fourth largest recipient of foreign direct investment (FDI) between 2000 and
2016. The outcome of the upcoming elections will be crucial as the incoming government will need
to ensure that the state does not lose its economic growth momentum. While Bengaluru’s economy
grew rapidly, its infrastructure failed to keep pace. Initiatives by citizens to fight for better governance
of the city have been successful in getting the government to act. The state budget 2018-19 allocated
over Rs. 4,000 crore to upgrade the city's infrastructure. We need a more developmentoriented
political agenda that rises above petty oneupmanship and instead focuses on putting the state on
the path to robust, inclusive and equitable growth.

Q 12. Which of the following statement is implied by the passage about Bengaluru's current
status?

a) Bengaluru's poor infrastructure is deferring further investment into the city.

b) Citizen's activism has played a role in budgetary allocation to infrastructure.

c) Favourable weather condition has made it the most hospitable cities in India.

d) The city will play crucial role in deciding result of state elections.

Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items
that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 2

Population growth, pollution and climate change are forcing cities to search for unconventional
water sources. As the water demand increased in a growing number of places, drinking highly
treated municipal wastewater, called 'reused water', has become the best option and, in some
cases, the only one. But anxieties about reused water often heightened by sensational media
coverage have prevented several projects from going ahead. Some people are simply disgusted by
the idea of consuming water that has passed through toilets and drains before being treated. Supply
infrastructure needs to be improved and better managed including through the use of smart sensors
and other technologies. Economic instruments, such as appropriate pricing, can boost efficient
usage.

Q 13. Which of the following statement is not correct according to the passage?

a) The demand for safe drinking water is set to fall drastically.

b) Economic instruments as appropriate pricing can boost efficient usage of water.

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
c) Some people feel disgusted to use the treated water.

d) None of the above

Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items
that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 2

Population growth, pollution and climate change are forcing cities to search for unconventional
water sources. As the water demand increased in a growing number of places, drinking highly
treated municipal wastewater, called 'reused water', has become the best option and, in some
cases, the only one. But anxieties about reused water often heightened by sensational media
coverage have prevented several projects from going ahead. Some people are simply disgusted by
the idea of consuming water that has passed through toilets and drains before being treated. Supply
infrastructure needs to be improved and better managed including through the use of smart sensors
and other technologies. Economic instruments, such as appropriate pricing, can boost efficient
usage.

Q 14. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. The world is already facing sharp decline in the availability of potable water.
2. Public scepticism over water safety is completely unwarranted.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items
that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 3

The concept of launching and managing a plethora of brands by one company is considered as
Brand Proliferation. It means that the list of independent brands increases. This diversity enables the
firm to capture its sizable portion into various market segments. On the contrary, it can also lead to
money-squandering, because of too many products, efforts and economic resources being wasted.
Brand proliferation also leads to brand cannibalisation that each brand eating into the market share
of another product from the same basket. When a firm introduces several brands in the same
product line, the danger of cannibalisation is high; the share of individual brands can come down
because of sibling brands. It is worth noting that most organisations do not go into the depth of
examining their brand portfolios from time to time. When organisations tend to ignore lossmaking

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
brands and merge them with healthy brands instead of selling them off, they choke the healthy
brands.

Q 15. According to the passage, which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to
‘brand cannibalism’?

a) It is a phenomenon where each brand eats into the market share of another product from the
same basket.

b) This leads to wastage of resources by firms over several brands without proportionate returns.

c) It increases the share of individual brands in the same product line.

d) None of the above

Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items
that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 3

The concept of launching and managing a plethora of brands by one company is considered as
Brand Proliferation. It means that the list of independent brands increases. This diversity enables the
firm to capture its sizable portion into various market segments. On the contrary, it can also lead to
money-squandering, because of too many products, efforts and economic resources being wasted.
Brand proliferation also leads to brand cannibalisation that each brand eating into the market share
of another product from the same basket. When a firm introduces several brands in the same
product line, the danger of cannibalisation is high; the share of individual brands can come down
because of sibling brands. It is worth noting that most organisations do not go into the depth of
examining their brand portfolios from time to time. When organisations tend to ignore lossmaking
brands and merge them with healthy brands instead of selling them off, they choke the healthy
brands.

Q 16. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made
from the above passage?

a) Diversity of products always helps in increasing sales for the firm.

b) Organisations do not conduct study of their brand portfolios.

c) Firms must analyse the demand of different sales before diversifying or merging different
brands.

d) None of the above

Q 17. How many zeroes are there at the end of the following product?

25 × 30 × 35 × 40 × 45 × 50 × 55 × 60 × 65 × 70 × 75 × 80

a) 6

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
b) 12

c) 10

d) 14

Q 18. X, Y and Z are three consecutive natural numbers such that Z > X >Y. Which of the following is
always a positive integer?

a) X + Y – Z

b) X(Z – Y)

c) YZ (X – Y)(X – Z)

d) (X – Y)(Y – Z)(Z – X)

Q 19. Let A, B, C and D be positive integers such that A+ 2021 = B- 2022 = C+ 2023 = D- 2024Which
one of the following is correct?

a) A< B < C < D

b) C < A < B < D

c) D < A < B < C

d) C < A < D < B

Q 20. How many three-digit numbers can be formed by using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (without
repetition) such that the digit at unit place is smaller than the digit at hundreds place?

a) 45

b) 60

c) 36

d) 30

Q 21. Manjulika travelled 37 km from her parlor toward West, then she took a right turn, and
travelled 24 km and then she took another right turn, and travelled for 30 km to reach her mother’s
house. How far and in which direction is her mother’s house located from her parlor?

a) 25 km, North-West

b) 25 km, South-West

c) 29 km, North-West

d) 29 km, North-East

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
Q 22. Two Statements are given followed by two Conclusions:
Statement 1: All numbers are divisible by 4.
Statement 2: All numbers are divisible by 6.
Conclusion-I: All numbers are divisible by 8.
Conclusion-Il: All numbers are divisible by 12.

Which of the above Conclusions logically follows/ follow from the two given Statements?

a) Only Conclusion-I

b) Only Conclusion-II

c) Both Conclusions-I and Conclusion-II

d) Neither Conclusion-I nor conclusion-II

Q 23. Consider the following statements and conclusions:

Statements:

1. Some rivers are oceans.

2. All oceans are reefs
3. All reefs are green.

Conclusions:
I. All reefs are oceans.
II. All rivers being reefs is a possibility.
III. All rivers being green is a possibility.

Which of the above conclusions is/are drawn from the statements?

a) I, II, and III

b) Only I and II

c) Only III

d) Only II and III

Q 24. Assume the following sequence of numbers:

43285764935133865649687249

How many even numbers are followed by the even number in the above sequence?

a) 4

b) 5

c) 6

d) 7

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
Q 25. Pintu ranked 19th from the top and 37th from the bottom among those who passed an
examination. Seventeen boys did not participate in the examination and eleven failed in it. How
many students were there in the class?

a) 82

b) 83

c) 84

d) 81

Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Each of the questions below consists of a question and
three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided
in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.

Q 26. Who among five brothers L, M, N, O and P is eldest?

I. O is elder than P and M but younger than N and L.
II. M is younger than P.
III. N is elder than L.

a) Only I & II

b) Only I & III

c) Only II & III

d) Any two of the three

Q 27. How many numbers are there in between 100 and 200 which when divided separately by 3
and 8 give remainders 1 and 5 respectively?

a) 7

b) 6

c) 5

d) 4

Q 28.

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
a) P = 8Q

b) P = 4Q

c) P = 64Q

d) P = 16Q

Q 29. Before 3 years, the average age of a five-member family was 17 years. A baby having been
born and the average of family is now 17 years. The present age of the baby is:

a) 3 years

b) 2 years

c) 1 year

d) None of these

Q 30. A trader buys 40 mirrors for Rs.6,000 and wants to sell them by making a profit of Rs.45 per
mirror. What would be his overall gain percent if he sells 80% of the mirrors and the rest gets
destroyed?

a) 0.04%

b) 0.4%

c) 0.025%

d) 4%

Q 31. If B @ C = 11, C @ D = 19 and A @ B = 5, find the value of D @ E.

a) 29

b) 19

c) 25

d) 15

Q 32. If Ram has two straight sticks of length 9.7 m and 4.35 m, then what is the minimum length
can Ram measure?

a) 0.07 m

b) 1 m

c) 0.35 m

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
d) 4.35 m

Q 33. A mathematical operation in each number of the sequence 40, 42, 46, 52, 58, 60,... results in
a sequence with respect to prime numbers. Which one of the following is the next number in the
sequence?

a) 64

b) 66

c) 68

d) 70

Q 34. The pages of a book are numbered from 1 to 100 manually. How many times will it be
esssential to write the number 6?

a) 20

b) 19

c) 18

d) 9

Q 35. In the following question, which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the
given letter series shall complete it.
qrs _ qrst _ _ rstu _ qrstu _ _

a) t u q v v w

b) q u q v w w

c) t t q v v q

d) t u q u v w

Q 36. Let P2QR and ST3U be four-digit numbers where each letter represents a different digit
greater than 3. If the sum of the numbers is 13895, then what is the sum of the values of P, Q, S and
T?

a) 23

b) 24

c) 25

d) 26

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
Q 37. Two statements S1 and S2 are given below followed by a Question:
S1: There are not more than three persons in a each room of a hotel having 2 rooms.
S2: There are at least two persons in every room.

Question: Are there more than 50 persons in the rooms of that hotel?
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statements and the Question?

a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

c) Both S1 and S2 are sufficient to answer the Question, but neither S1 alone nor S2 alone is
sufficient to answer the Question.

d) S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to answer the Question.

Q 38. The average age of a cricket team consisting of 11 players is 'x' years. The captain of the team
is 30 years old and the wicketkeeper is 4 years younger than the captain. If the average age of the
team, excluding the captain and the wicketkeeper is (x – 1) years, then what is the value of 'x'?

a) 23

b) 22

c) 22.5

d) None of these

Q 39. In a family of 6 persons of three generations, 2 persons are advocate, 1 teacher, 1

businessman, 1 manager and 1 cyclist. One of the advocates is the grandfather of the teacher. The
Manager is the only child of the other advocate. The Cyclist is the sister of the teacher. Mother-in-
law of the businessman is an advocate. The businessman is the father of two daughters.
Mother of the manager is a/an:

a) Advocate

b) Cyclist

c) Teacher

d) Cannot be determined

Q 40. If 15th February, 1937 was Tuesday, then what was the day on 19th February, 1936?

a) Tuesday

b) Monday

c) Wednesday

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
d) Thursday

Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items
that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

Bullying is a truly horrific phenomenon that has a wide array of terrible consequences including
mental health issues and even suicide, for both the person bullied and the person perpetrating the
bullying. News stories focusing on the tragic suicide of young children and teenagers often point to
instances of bullying. The focus on these individual stories can easily lead us to believe that there
must be a causal relationship between bullying and suicide. If we believe that bullying is a sole
cause of suicide, then we may ignore other important causes that must be addressed in order to
truly lower the risk of suicide. Instilling guilt in children following the death by suicide of one of their
classmates is not an acceptable approach to dealing with the aftermath of a suicide or of preventing
future suicides. In addition, even witnessing bullying can lead to feelings of helplessness and poor
school connectedness, which can be a risk factor for mental health.

Q 41. On the basis of the above passage, which of the following mental issues lead due to
bullying?
1. Depression
2. Schizophrenia
3. Substance abuse disorder

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) None of the above

Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items
that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

Bullying is a truly horrific phenomenon that has a wide array of terrible consequences including
mental health issues and even suicide, for both the person bullied and the person perpetrating the
bullying. News stories focusing on the tragic suicide of young children and teenagers often point to
instances of bullying. The focus on these individual stories can easily lead us to believe that there
must be a causal relationship between bullying and suicide. If we believe that bullying is a sole
cause of suicide, then we may ignore other important causes that must be addressed in order to
truly lower the risk of suicide. Instilling guilt in children following the death by suicide of one of their
classmates is not an acceptable approach to dealing with the aftermath of a suicide or of preventing

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
future suicides. In addition, even witnessing bullying can lead to feelings of helplessness and poor
school connectedness, which can be a risk factor for mental health.

Q 42. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from
the above passage?
1. Journalists must be taught to take greater care of how they report on correlations between two
phenomena so that their readers do not infer that one is the direct and unique cause of the other.
2. School staffs should be taught about vulnerable populations and how to protect them.
3. A positive school climate can create broad protective factors for students that help with both
bullying and suicide prevention.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) None of the above

Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items
that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 2

Like all vitamins, Vitamin D is integral to several bodily functions. It helps the body absorb calcium,
which makes it important for bone health. It is still difficult to obtain all the Vitamin D one needs
through diet alone. Fortunately, Vitamin D is also produced within our own body when our skin is
exposed to ultraviolet B (UVB) radiation from the sun, which is why Vitamin D is often times known
as the sunshine vitamin. Unfortunately, during the winter months, especially if one lives far from the
equator (greater than 35º latitude roughly north of Atlanta), the sun becomes notably weaker and it
can be difficult to obtain the entire Vitamin D one needs. This is especially the case for individuals
with darker complexions, as they need a greater amount of strong sunlight to produce adequate
levels of Vitamin D. Than having just a glass of milk, one would be better served by regularly eating
fatty fish, such as salmon, trout, tuna, and mackerel, as these contain more Vitamin D. Mushrooms
also contain a great deal of Vitamin D. Supplements are another option.

Q 43. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. People of the temperate region have more fatty fish in their diet.
2. The amount of insolation decreases as one move away from the equator towards the poles.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items
that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 2

Like all vitamins, Vitamin D is integral to several bodily functions. It helps the body absorb calcium,
which makes it important for bone health. It is still difficult to obtain all the Vitamin D one needs
through diet alone. Fortunately, Vitamin D is also produced within our own body when our skin is
exposed to ultraviolet B (UVB) radiation from the sun, which is why Vitamin D is often times known
as the sunshine vitamin. Unfortunately, during the winter months, especially if one lives far from the
equator (greater than 35º latitude roughly north of Atlanta), the sun becomes notably weaker and it
can be difficult to obtain the entire Vitamin D one needs. This is especially the case for individuals
with darker complexions, as they need a greater amount of strong sunlight to produce adequate
levels of Vitamin D. Than having just a glass of milk, one would be better served by regularly eating
fatty fish, such as salmon, trout, tuna, and mackerel, as these contain more Vitamin D. Mushrooms
also contain a great deal of Vitamin D. Supplements are another option.

Q 44. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from
the above passage?

a) Eating sea food is a necessity to have the required amount of Vitamin D in the body.

b) Formation of Vitamin D is more difficult in the body having dark skin colour.

c) Vitamin D is the most important vitamin required by the human body.

d) Vitamin D which is an integral to several bodily functions must be consumed in optimum

amount from multiple sources.

Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items
that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 3

The idea of reducing the working week from an average of five days to four is gaining traction around
the world. There are a number of parallels between debates today and those that took place in the
19th century when the weekend as we now know it, was first introduced. Throughout the 19th
century, government legalisation reduced working hours in factories and prescribed regular breaks.
In 1842, a campaign group called the Early Closing Association was formed. It persuaded the
government to keep Saturday afternoon free for worker leisure. For these campaigners, Saturday
afternoon was singled out as the day in which the working classes could enjoy “rational recreation”.
Perhaps, the most influential leisure activity to help forge the modern week was the decision to
stage football matches on Saturday afternoon.

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
Q 45. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. The demand for reducing the working week has evolved over a long period of time.
2. Different organisations have always been active in demanding the reduction of working hours.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items
that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 3

The idea of reducing the working week from an average of five days to four is gaining traction around
the world. There are a number of parallels between debates today and those that took place in the
19th century when the weekend as we now know it, was first introduced. Throughout the 19th
century, government legalisation reduced working hours in factories and prescribed regular breaks.
In 1842, a campaign group called the Early Closing Association was formed. It persuaded the
government to keep Saturday afternoon free for worker leisure. For these campaigners, Saturday
afternoon was singled out as the day in which the working classes could enjoy “rational recreation”.
Perhaps, the most influential leisure activity to help forge the modern week was the decision to
stage football matches on Saturday afternoon.

Q 46. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from
the above passage?

a) Reducing the working week increases the productivity of firms.

b) The demand to create space for leisure along with work is not a modern-day phenomenon.

c) The decision to stage football matches on Saturday afternoon was the main driver for forging
the present-day week pattern.

d) None of the above

Q 47. How many different 7-letter words (with or without meaning) can be constructed using all the
letters of the word 'ACQUIRE' so that each word has to start with I and end with E?

a) 60

b) 720

c) 120

19
Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
d) 5040

Q 48. There are three bottles of mixture of syrup and water of ratios 2:3, 3:4 and 7:5. 10 Litres of
first and 21 Litres of second bottles are taken. How much quantity from third bottle is to be taken so
that final mixture from three bottles will be of ratios 1:1.

a) 25 Litres

b) 20 Litres

c) 35 Litres

d) 30 Litres

Q 49. If the average of A and B is 30, the average of C and D is 20, then which of the following is/are
correct?
1. The average of B and C is greater than 25.
2. The average of A and D is less than 25.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Either 1 or 2

Q 50. A bag contains a certain number of balls – 60% of them are black and the rest are red. Each
ball in the bag is made of either plastic or rubber. It is also known that 25% of black balls are made
of rubber and 37.5% of red balls account for 25% of the total balls made of plastic.

What percentage of the balls in the bag are made of rubber?

a) 40%

b) 60%

c) 30%

d) 70%

Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read the following Three passages and answer the items
that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

Employees around the world are reporting that big organizational changes are affecting their jobs.
From leadership transitions and restructurings, to mergers and acquisitions, to regulatory changes,

20
Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
there seems to be constant unrest in the workforce. But according to one survey of more than half a
million U.S. employees, almost one third don’t understand why these changes are happening. This
can be detrimental for any company trying to implement change. When employees don't understand
why changes are happening, it can be a barrier to driving ownership and commitment and can even
result in resistance or push back. And employee’s resistance to change is a leading factor for why so
many change transformations fail. Inspire people by presenting a compelling vision for the future.
During times of uncertainty, people experiencing change want a clear view of the path ahead. It is
important to share what you know including what is changing, when and how.

Q 51. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. The power to take important decisions on mergers in any firm rests in the hands of a few.
2. Presenting the vision of the firm to the employees help in enhancing their cooperation.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read the following Three passages and answer the items
that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

Employees around the world are reporting that big organizational changes are affecting their jobs.
From leadership transitions and restructurings, to mergers and acquisitions, to regulatory changes,
there seems to be constant unrest in the workforce. But according to one survey of more than half a
million U.S. employees, almost one third don’t understand why these changes are happening. This
can be detrimental for any company trying to implement change. When employees don't understand
why changes are happening, it can be a barrier to driving ownership and commitment and can even
result in resistance or push back. And employee’s resistance to change is a leading factor for why so
many change transformations fail. Inspire people by presenting a compelling vision for the future.
During times of uncertainty, people experiencing change want a clear view of the path ahead. It is
important to share what you know including what is changing, when and how.

Q 52. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from
the above passage?

a) The number of mergers and acquisitions has increased over the last one decade.

b) The employees are resorting to strikes in the times of uncertainty.

c) Keeping the employees aware of the firm's vision help in ensuring their cooperation in important
decisions made by the higher officials.

21
Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
d) Employees resistance to change is a leading factor behind transformation failures.

Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read the following Three passages and answer the items
that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 2

India announced its bold intention of electrifying the nation's automobile fleet by 2030. The reaction
has been mixed that electric vehicles (EVs) are enticing to customers and strongly supported by
environmentalists, but automakers and fuel suppliers are not fully on board. The eco-friendly and
cheaper operation of EVs can help lower local air pollution and out-of-the-pocket costs for
increasingly expensive petrol and diesel. These benefits are countered by higher upfront costs of the
cars themselves and the long lines and need for more charging stations. The shift to EVs could also
ease concerns about economic and energy security and climate change. Oil imports expose the
country to unpredictable global crude prices that create uncertainties in budgets, deficits, and
inflation, while oil consumption elevates climate risks from the resulting greenhouse gas emissions.
If EVs are going to significantly reduce flows of oil through the Indian economy, policymakers need to
ensure that using one less gallon of petrol when driving electric cars will actually cut an equivalent
gallon of oil out of the economy. This requires focusing on the refining industry.

Q 53. Which of the following statement is not correct according to the passage?

a) The decision to electrify the automobile fleet received positive reaction from majority of
stakeholders.

b) Electrification of vehicle fleet will increase the upfront costs of vehicles.

c) Shift to EVs will help to lessen the dependence on oil imports for energy.

d) None of the above

Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read the following Three passages and answer the items
that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 2

India announced its bold intention of electrifying the nation's automobile fleet by 2030. The reaction
has been mixed that electric vehicles (EVs) are enticing to customers and strongly supported by
environmentalists, but automakers and fuel suppliers are not fully on board. The eco-friendly and
cheaper operation of EVs can help lower local air pollution and out-of-the-pocket costs for
increasingly expensive petrol and diesel. These benefits are countered by higher upfront costs of the
cars themselves and the long lines and need for more charging stations. The shift to EVs could also
ease concerns about economic and energy security and climate change. Oil imports expose the
country to unpredictable global crude prices that create uncertainties in budgets, deficits, and
inflation, while oil consumption elevates climate risks from the resulting greenhouse gas emissions.
If EVs are going to significantly reduce flows of oil through the Indian economy, policymakers need to

22
Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
ensure that using one less gallon of petrol when driving electric cars will actually cut an equivalent
gallon of oil out of the economy. This requires focusing on the refining industry.

Q 54. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from
the above passage?

a) The interests of different stakeholders must be addressed while making the shift towards the
EVs.

b) Switching to EVs will bring huge profits for the automobile manufacturers.

c) Oil import is expected to decrease by one-fourth with the shift towards EVs.

d) Adoption of EVs is the need of the time to remove uncertainties in budgets, deficits, and
inflation.

Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read the following Three passages and answer the items
that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 3

It appears that coronavirus has taught the English something about India that India failed to do in
about two centuries of colonial contact. At an award function of the Prince’s Trust, Prince Charles
essayed a handshake but quickly switched to a ‘namaste’. It is true that the namaste along with
many other contact-free ‘Old World’ greetings is remarkably hygienic. It is clinically suited to a region
which has always been the happy hunting grounds of contagious disease. A populariser of myth has
objected that its origin lie in the system of untouchability, but it hardly seems credible. The caste
system has been fairly bloody-minded, and if it were to be reinforced by a handsoff greeting, the
higher castes would have invented a rude gesture sanctioned by some god to rub it in. On the
contrary, the namaste is graceful and philosophical, and from a post-colonial perspective, it is
especially fitting that British royalty has adopted it. This is no time for kissing hands and rings. Just
namaste, and hope for the best.

Q 55. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Increasing adoption of namaste by the world has been out of fear and not out of choice.
2. The social norms of India have made it the birthplace of the gesture of namaste.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

23
Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
Directions for the following 6 (six) items: Read the following Three passages and answer the items
that follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 3

It appears that coronavirus has taught the English something about India that India failed to do in
about two centuries of colonial contact. At an award function of the Prince’s Trust, Prince Charles
essayed a handshake but quickly switched to a ‘namaste’. It is true that the namaste along with
many other contact-free ‘Old World’ greetings is remarkably hygienic. It is clinically suited to a region
which has always been the happy hunting grounds of contagious disease. A populariser of myth has
objected that its origin lie in the system of untouchability, but it hardly seems credible. The caste
system has been fairly bloody-minded, and if it were to be reinforced by a handsoff greeting, the
higher castes would have invented a rude gesture sanctioned by some god to rub it in. On the
contrary, the namaste is graceful and philosophical, and from a post-colonial perspective, it is
especially fitting that British royalty has adopted it. This is no time for kissing hands and rings. Just
namaste, and hope for the best.

Q 56. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from
the above passage?

a) Threat of disease has led to globalisation of Indian tradition.

b) Namaste offers a hygienic alternative to greet someone without the concern of getting
infected.

c) The world has always been ignorant to the benefits of Indian traditional systems.

d) None of the above

Q 57. The income of ‘A' is 20% higher than that of ‘B'. The income of ‘B' is 25% less than that of ‘C',
What percent less is A's income from C's income?

a) 7%

b) 8%

c) 10%

d) 12.5%

Q 58. If each of the letters in the English alphabet is assigned an odd numerical value by giving A =
1, B = 3 and so on, what would be the total value of the letters for the word WATCH when similarly
coded?

a) 96

b) 105

24
Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
c) 84

d) 55

Q 59. Select the related letters from the given alternatives.

YLFWRUB : VICTORY : : VXFFHVV : ?

a) SUCCESS

b) SUCCEED

c) TEACHER

d) EXCESS

Q 60.

a) A > B > C

b) C > A > B

c) C > B > A

d) A > C > B

Q 61. 2 men and 1 woman can complete a piece of work in 14 days, while 4 women and 2 men can
do the same work in 8 days. If a man gets Rs. 90 per day, what should be the wage per day of a
woman?

a) Rs. 48

b) Rs. 60

c) Rs. 72

d) Rs. 135

Q 62. A car travels first 45 km of a journey at a speed of 15 km/hr. It covers the next 50 km at a
speed of 25 km/hr and the rest 25 km at a speed of 15 km/hr. What is the average speed (in km/hr)
of the car during the journey?

a) 40

b) 24

c) 15

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
d) 18

Q 63. A square and a rectangle have diagonals of same length. Which of the given options is
correct? (You should not consider a square as a rectangle.)

a) Area of the square > Area of the rectangle

b) Area of the square = Area of the rectangle

c) Area of the square < Area of the rectangle

d) Area of the square ≥ Area of the rectangle

Q 64. A boat moves downstream at the rate of 2.5 km in 5 minutes and upstream at the rate of 5 km
in 15 minutes. What is the speed of the boat in the still water?

a) 25 km/hr

b) 20 km/hr

c) 28 km/hr

d) 22 km/hr

Q 65. A, B and C are natural numbers such that A × B × C = 216. The minimum possible value of A +
B + C is:

a) 18

b) 20

c) 21

d) 24

Q 66. P, Q and R are three consecutive odd numbers in ascending order. If the value of three times
P is 3 less than two times R, find the value of R.

a) 5

b) 7

c) 9

d) 11

Q 67. Let m be a positive integer such that (m + 4) is divisible by 7. What will be the value of the
smallest positive integer x > 2, such that (m + 2x) is divisible by 7?

a) 9

26
Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
b) 7

c) 5

d) 3

Q 68. The ratio of milk and water in a mixture is 3 : 1. What fraction of the mixture should be
replaced by water so that the resultant mixture contains 50% water?

a) 1/10

b) 1/4

c) 1/3

d) 1/5

Q 69. In a 120 litre solution of milk and water, 30 litre of water is added such that the percentage of
water becomes 40. Find the ratio between the volumes of milk and water in the initial solution.

a) 3 : 4

b) 1 : 4

c) 3 : 1

d) 4 : 1

Q 70. A frog tries to jump out of a 19 m deep well. After every 3 m jump, the frog slips by 1 m. How
many jumps would get the frog out of the well?

a) 8

b) 9

c) 10

d) 7

Q 71. Three runners running around a circular track can complete one revolution in 1 minute 50
seconds, 2 minutes 45 seconds and 3 minutes 40 seconds, respectively. If they start at the same
time and the same place, then when will they meet again at the starting point?

a) 22 minutes

b) 33 minutes

c) 11 minutes

d) 6 minutes

27
Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
Q 72.

a) November

b) February

c) April

d) May

Q 73. The recurring decimal representation 1.494949…. is equivalent to

a) 19/11

b) 1489/999

c) 148/99

d) 14/11

Q 74. The two digit number, which when divided by sum of the digits and product of the digits
respectively, the remainder is same and the difference of quotients is one, is

a) 14

b) 23

c) 32

d) 41

28
Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
Q 75. The present income of Meena is 50% more than that of Sita and that of Sita is 50% more than
that of Geeta. The increment in the income of Meena, Sita and Geeta is 80%, 60% and 40%
respectively. If the difference between the income of Meena and Geeta after increment is Rs. 5,300,
then what is the income of Sita after increment?

a) Rs. 4,200

b) Rs. 5,400

c) Rs. 8,100

d) Rs. 4,800

Q 76. The least number which when dividied by 4, 6, 8 and 9 leaves zero as remainder in each
case, when divided by 13 leaves remainder as 7 is

a) 144

b) 72

c) 36

d) 85

Q 77. Arpit, Ashutosh and Prakash start a business with an agreement that 60% of profit will be
distributed in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 10 and rest will be distributed in the ratio of their investment, and
their investments are Rs. 50,000, Rs. 50,000 and Rs. 1,00,000 respectively. If the profit of Ashutosh
is Rs. 12,000, then find the profit of Prakash.

a) Rs. 30,000

b) Rs. 32,000

c) Rs. 42,000

d) Rs. 44,000

Q 78. For what value of n will the sum of digits in the number (10n – 1) be divisible by 9?

a) For n = 1 only

b) For any natural number n

c) For any real number n

d) For none of the above

Q 79. Average age of a man and his wife 7 years before at the time of their marriage was 28 years.
At present they have two children. Their daughter is 2 years older than their son. One year after the

29
 Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 3
birth of the daughter average age of the man, wife and their daughter is 21 years, then the present
age of the son is

a) 1 year

b) 2 year

c) 3 year

d) 4 year

Q 80. In how many ways a person can travel from point A to point B without retracing the path once
taken?

a) 11

b) 12

c) 13

d) None of these

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