Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 7

Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following seven passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage –1

The demographic dividend (IDD) of a country is essentially a period of two-three decades when the birth rates
go down and this leads to a situation wherein the workforce of the country is growing at a faster rate in
comparison to its population. As these individuals enter the workforce, find work, earn money and spend it, the
economy is expected to do well and grow at a faster pace than it has in the past. In the Indian case, the IDD
slides told us that nearly 12 million Indians a year, or one million a month, are expected to enter the workforce.
This would happen over three decades (largely up to the mid-2030s). As these individuals entered the
workforce, the Indian economy would grow at a very fast pace... as fast as China's, if not faster.
Q 1. What is the main idea we can infer from the above passage?
a) Demographic dividend can play a significant role in boosting the economy of a country.
b) Indian demographic dividend will not last more than 3 decades.
c) A country's development is essentially linked to its demographic dividend.
d) Indian economy will surpass the Chinese economy within the next few decades.
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following seven passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage –2

The concept of Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) was launched seven years ago on a pilot basis. It was initially a
pilot project of Planning Commission in 20 districts covering student scholarships, social security payments
and women and child welfare. The idea was to directly deposit the payments into the bank accounts of the
intended beneficiaries. The DBT mechanism was steadily expanded to cover ever more government welfare
schemes, including the National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS). The enablers of DBT are the
no-frills bank accounts called Jan Dhan, the universal identity number Aadhaar and the mobile phone, together
called the JAM trinity. DBT is supposed to bring efficiency, effectiveness, transparency and accountability in
the government's welfare and payments system.
Q 2. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. DBT may bring efficiency and transparency in the welfare schemes.
2. All the welfare schemes of the Central Government have been covered under DBT system.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following seven passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage –3

While India is proud to attain per capita income of $2,020 this year, Mauritius had already reached beyond
$10,000 by 2017. Indeed between 1976 and 2017, Mauritius doubled its per capita income. Only 6 per cent of
its people are below the poverty line. Income inequality is much lower than in India. It has a much better
human development score than India, the highest in Africa and is in the category of Middle HDI. Mauritius
invested heavily into education sending many students abroad. This allowed a smooth transition to tax and
finance sectors. Mauritius became a good 'middleman' economy. It took advantage of its human capital to
achieve a high income.

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 7
Q 3. Which one of the following is the most logical, scientific and rational inference that can be made from
the above passage?
a) A country with high per capita income has lower income inequality.
b) The development of a country is dependent on its investment in social infrastructure.
c) Investment in Human Capital may yield better socio-economic outcomes.
d) The smaller countries have better per capita income as compared to any large economy.
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following seven passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage –4

Today, the explosive growth in machine learning and AI seems so enticing that almost everyone, from
businesses to governments to savey individuals, is tempted to try these emerging technologies in services and
processes they deem fit and in requirement of some automatic processes. Bringing AI into judicial matters is a
problem because it involves, among other things, the use of Big Data, which, as data scientists and rights
activists have pointed out, reflect dark human biases. If legal systems rush headlong into AI, it may not only
end up sending the wrong people to jail, but also do so at a pace that's dangerous and cannot be easily
corrected. Machines, as things stand, now cannot exercise creative liberty while making decisions, since they
rely on the data fed.
Q 4. Which one of the following is the most logical, scientific and rational inference that can be made from
the above passage?
a) AI and justice are incompatible with each other.
b) The justice system should be free from use of machine technology.
c) AI should not be allowed to replace the role of humans in justice system.
d) Use of AI in justice system will lead to quick and effective justice delivery.
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following seven passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage –5

We need to recognize the close relationship between agriculture, nutrition and health. Agriculture is a source
of food - and thereby nutrition - as well as of income that helps buy nutritious food. Agriculture policies impact
food output, availability and prices. Although the government claims to accord high priority to malnutrition
issue, the implementation of programmes and schemes is decentralized. Progress in promoting nutrition is not
uniform across the country, as evidenced by stark inter-State variation in the nutrition status.
Q 5. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Many states have not implemented any scheme to tackle the issue of malnutrition.
2. Better agricultural policies may help to tackle the issue of malnutrition.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following seven passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage –6

Anyone should be able to walk into a hospital anywhere in the country and find clean, well-staffed units

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 7
capable of delivering quality basic healthcare. Instead, hospitals are over-crowded, the equipment does not
work or is antiquated, the staff are stretched and tired, and the hygiene, let's just say needs much more
attention. When education and healthcare institutions cry out loud for financial support, it is insensitive to mix
this up with political messaging. Developed countries have managed to successfully channelise funds into free
or subsidised quality education and healthcare for its citizens. As a nation, we the people too need to strive
towards a similar goal-post.
Q 6. What is the main idea we can infer from the above passage?
a) Developing countries must provide free healthcare to its citizens.
b) All the developing countries have failed to secure a good healthcare system to their citizens.
c) Developed countries are better than developing countries in all aspects.
d) Developing countries should move toward an affordable health care system.
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following seven passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage –7

Agro-biodiversity - relating to diversity of crops and varieties - is crucial in food security, nutrition, health and
essential in agricultural landscapes. Out of 2,50,000 globally identified plant species, about 7,000 have
historically been used in human diets. Today, only 30 crops form the basis of the world's agriculture and just
three species of maize, rice and wheat supply more than half the world's daily calories. Genetic diversity of
crops, livestock and their wild relatives, are fundamental to improve crop varieties and livestock breeds. We
would not have thousands of crop varieties and animal breeds without the rich genetic pool. India is a centre of
origin of rice, brinjal, citrus, banana, cucumber species. To conserve indigenous crop, livestock and poultry
breeds, it is recommended to mainstream biodiversity into agricultural policies, schemes, programmes and
projects to achieve India's food and nutrition security and minimise genetic erosion.
Q 7. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. The food basket throughout the world consists mainly of a few species of crops.
2. India has very small pool of crop varieties and animal breeds.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following seven passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage –7

Agro-biodiversity - relating to diversity of crops and varieties - is crucial in food security, nutrition, health and
essential in agricultural landscapes. Out of 2,50,000 globally identified plant species, about 7,000 have
historically been used in human diets. Today, only 30 crops form the basis of the world's agriculture and just
three species of maize, rice and wheat supply more than half the world's daily calories. Genetic diversity of
crops, livestock and their wild relatives, are fundamental to improve crop varieties and livestock breeds. We
would not have thousands of crop varieties and animal breeds without the rich genetic pool. India is a centre of
origin of rice, brinjal, citrus, banana, cucumber species. To conserve indigenous crop, livestock and poultry
breeds, it is recommended to mainstream biodiversity into agricultural policies, schemes, programmes and
projects to achieve India's food and nutrition security and minimise genetic erosion.
Q 8. What is the main idea we can infer from the above passage?
a) Diversity of crops can play an important role in securing nutritional security.
b) Food basket in India is highly diverse.
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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 7
c) Biodiversity and nutritional policy should not be intermixed with each other.
d) The food basket has become more diverse over the years.
Q 9. What is the arithmetic mean of the square of first 7 natural numbers?
a) 18
b) 16
c) 15
d) 20
Q 10. A solid cube is painted red on all sides. The cube is cut into 216 equal cubes. How many sides will have
2 sides red?
a) 8
b) 36
c) 48
d) 96
Q 11. Ratio of the number of students in three classes of a school is 14 : 17 : 18. There is a proposal to
increase these seats by 40%, 50% and 75% respectively. What will be the ratio of final seats in the respective
classes after increament?
a) 5 : 7 : 9
b) 3 : 5 : 7
c) 147 : 175 : 285
d) 196 : 255 : 315
Q 12. Rahul was born on 5th Jan, 2006, which was a Thursday. If Rahul's brother Mehul was born on 11th
January, 2010, then which day of the week was it?
a) Sunday
b) Saturday
c) Monday
d) Wednesday
Q 13. Question given below contains six statements followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose
the set in which the statements are logically related.

Statements:
i. Some mistakes are blunders.
ii. All blunders are crimes.
iii. No crime is a mistake.
iv. All mistakes are blunders.
v. Some crimes are blunders.
vi. Not all crimes are mistakes.
a) i, ii, iii
b) iii, v, i
c) vi, iv, v
d) None of these
Q 14. In triangle PQR, S and T are the points on PQ and PR respectively, such that ST is parallel to QR and PS :
SQ = 3 : 2. If RT = 5 cm, then find the ratio of the areas of triangle PST and quadrilateral STRQ
a) 9 : 4
b) 9 : 25
c) 16 : 25
d) 9 : 16
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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 7
Q 15. On dividing a certain number by 342 we get 47 as remainder. If the same number is divided by 18, what
will be the remainder?
a) 15
b) 11
c) 17
d) 13
Q 16. Brad takes 6 hours 35 minutes in walking to a certain place and riding back. He would have taken 2
hours less by riding both ways. What would be time he would take to walk both ways?
a) 11 hrs 35 min
b) 8 hrs 35 min
c) 10 hrs
d) 8 hrs 25 min
Q 17. Three successive discounts of 15%, 12.5%, and 20% are equivalent to a single discount of
a) 38.5%
b) 41.5%
c) 39.8%
d) 40.5%
Q 18. A, B and C can do a piece of work in 36, 54 and 72 days respectively. They started the work but A left 8
days before the completion of the work while B left 12 days before the completion. The number of days for
which C worked is
a) 4
b) 8
c) 12
d) 24
Q 19. Among ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’, ‘B’ is five years older than ‘A’. After five years, the ratio of the ages of ‘A’ to ‘C’ is
1 : 2 respectively, and the ratio of the ages of ‘B’ to ‘C’ is 2 : 3 respectively. What will be the sum of the ages of
‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’, ten years from now?
a) 50 years
b) 80 years
c) 60 years
d) 45 years
Q 20. In a school, 21 students study mathematics 17 study physics, 10 study biology, 12 study mathematics
and physics, 5 study physics and biology, 6 study mathematics and biology, 2 study all 3 subjects. How many
students are there altogether such that each student studies atleast one of the above mentioned subjects?
a) 42
b) 27
c) 38
d) 35
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following six passages and answer the items that follow
each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

The early Jainas discarded the Sanskrit language principally patronized by the Brahmanas. They adopted
instead Prakrit, the language of the common people to preach their doctrines. Their religious literature was
written in Ardhamagadhi, and the texts were eventually compiled in the sixth century AD in Gujarat at a place
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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 7
called Valabhi, a great centre of education. The adoption of Prakrit by the Jainas helped the growth of this
language and its literature. Many regional languages developed out of Prakrit, particularly Shauraseni from
which the Marathi language developed. In early medieval times, the Jainas also made substantial use of
Sanskrit and wrote many texts in it. Last but not the least; they contributed to the growth of Kannada, in which
they wrote extensively.
Q 21. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Jainism became a popular religion in entire India due to inclusion of different sects.
2. The spread of Jainism led to development of regional languages.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following six passages and answer the items that follow
each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

The early Jainas discarded the Sanskrit language principally patronized by the Brahmanas. They adopted
instead Prakrit, the language of the common people to preach their doctrines. Their religious literature was
written in Ardhamagadhi, and the texts were eventually compiled in the sixth century AD in Gujarat at a place
called Valabhi, a great centre of education. The adoption of Prakrit by the Jainas helped the growth of this
language and its literature. Many regional languages developed out of Prakrit, particularly Shauraseni from
which the Marathi language developed. In early medieval times, the Jainas also made substantial use of
Sanskrit and wrote many texts in it. Last but not the least; they contributed to the growth of Kannada, in which
they wrote extensively.
Q 22. Which one of the following is the most logical, scientific and rational inference that can be made
from the above passage?
a) The Jainism spread in India only due to their adoption of regional languages.
b) The development of literature in India happened only due to spread of new religion.
c) The spread of Jainism in India led to development of regional literature.
d) The Sanskrit language obstructed the growth of indigenous literature.
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following six passages and answer the items that follow
each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 2

The Maharashtra Prohibition of People from Social Boycott (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, (2016)
was brought in the response to sustained movements provoked by atrocities against individuals by gaviks or
caste panchayats in Maharashtra. A large number of these incidents were in response to inter-caste marriages.
Four years ago, the “honour killing” of Pramila Khumbharkar sparked outrage and murdered rationalist
Narendra Dhabolkar was among those who led the movement demanding legislation that specifically tackles
feudal forms of mob and vigilante justice. The act penalises individuals or groups who try to prevent others
from accessing places of worship, certain professions or even certain forms of dress and public behaviour.
Q 23. Consider the following statements:
1. The law asserts the freedom of the individual over the social group they belong to.
2. The law has provision to protect the activists those who work against mob justice.

Which of the above can be inferred from the above passage?

a) 1 only

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 7
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following six passages and answer the items that follow
each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 3

Ever since they slumped to an all-time low of around 1,400 in 2006-2007, India's tiger numbers have increased.
The last Tiger Census Report, released in July, put the population at 2,967, a 33 per cent increase over 2014
when tigers were last enumerated. But the achievements in conservation have been clouded by doubts over
the counting methods. In September, an investigation by this paper revealed that the last tiger census had
over-reported the population by 16 per cent. Following that investigation, the National Tiger Conservation
Authority (NTCA) - which along with the Dehradun-based Wildlife Institute of India (WII) conducts the tiger
census - has taken the first step towards introducing correctives. It has admitted the necessity of “bringing
more scientific robustness to the exercise”.
Q 24. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the above
passage?
a) Private research institutes should take lead in tiger census for accurate statistics.
b) There is no need of having census, only conservation matters.
c) There should be a use of scientific technique for census which will help to get accurate results.
d) Present conservation methods need to be changed significantly.
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following six passages and answer the items that follow
each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 4

Retail food inflation crossing 10 per cent, the first time in nearly six years, isn't good news for an economy
already mired in a deep slowdown. This year's unusual combination of delayed onset of the southwest
monsoon (resulting in reduced/late kharif sowings) and prolonged unseasonal rains in October-November
(damaging the standing crop at the harvesting stage) has caused significant supply disruptions. The impact of it
has been felt most in vegetables, which have registered the highest inflation of almost 36 per cent for
November. If food prices are simply correcting from lows, neither the government nor the RBI should do much
to stop that. Rather than resorting to export bans, subsidised imports or stockholding restrictions - these will
only discourage investments in modern warehousing, cold storage, processing and farm extension support -
the focus of policymakers should be on removing structural impediments to the production and free
movement of agriproduce.
Q 25. On the basis above passage, following assumptions have been made:
1. Inflation is not good for an economy which is already in a slowdown.
2. Measures have been taken by RBI to curb the ongoing inflation is inadequate in nature.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following six passages and answer the items that follow
each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 4

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 7
Retail food inflation crossing 10 per cent, the first time in nearly six years, isn't good news for an economy
already mired in a deep slowdown. This year's unusual combination of delayed onset of the southwest
monsoon (resulting in reduced/late kharif sowings) and prolonged unseasonal rains in October-November
(damaging the standing crop at the harvesting stage) has caused significant supply disruptions. The impact of it
has been felt most in vegetables, which have registered the highest inflation of almost 36 per cent for
November. If food prices are simply correcting from lows, neither the government nor the RBI should do much
to stop that. Rather than resorting to export bans, subsidised imports or stockholding restrictions - these will
only discourage investments in modern warehousing, cold storage, processing and farm extension support -
the focus of policymakers should be on removing structural impediments to the production and free
movement of agriproduce.
Q 26. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the above
passage?
a) Up to a certain percentage, inflation is good for the economy.
b) Inflation hurts the investment sentiments in the economy.
c) There is a need of removal of structural impediments on production and movement of the agricultural
product.
d) Any amount of inflation is self-correcting in nature, without a need to intervene with any authority.
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following six passages and answer the items that follow
each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 5

The whole point of having a Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) is to have unified command over the different service
wings, which have to work in perfect unison in modern conditions of war. The Navy, the Army and the Air Force
will continue to take orders from their respective chiefs, who will have a rank equal to the CDS. In the armed
forces, rank commands respect. A lower-ranked officer listens to a higher-ranked officer. Brother officers of
the same rank will apply their own judgement to a proposal - it cannot be an order - from a coequal, rather than
carry out what has been proposed.
Q 27. The passage seems to argue:
a) in favour to constitute CDS for better coordination among three forces.
b) against formation of a CDS to avoid conflict among three forces.
c) creation of CDS, which will be higher in command to chief of three forces.
d) CDS is required to specifically for India because of having such neighbour like Pakistan.
Directions for the following 8 (eight) items: Read the following six passages and answer the items that follow
each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 6

Ending inequality of opportunity had been identified, at the time of Independence, as a part of India's tryst with
destiny. The advances in extending human capability enabled by developments in technology and organisation
have been so immense that those with access to those advances and those without end up, as it were, on
different planets. India's own internal Human Development Index has shown that while all sections of India's
hierarchical society have been converging, the tribes of central India have been trailing.
Q 28. On the basis of above passage, following assumptions have been made:
1. Capacity building is necessary to end inequality.
2. Economic growth is necessarily lead to human development.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 7
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Directions for the following item: Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements
numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are
sufficient to answer the question.
Q 29. How is J related to X?
I. J is sister of R.
II. P is mother of J and wife of K.
III. X is son of K.
a) Only II & III
b) Only I & II
c) Only I & III
d) All I, II & III
Q 30. Moti and Sona both start from a point towards South. After walking for 12 km together Moti turns right
and walks 3 km whereas Sona turns left and walks for 5 km. Then both of them turn north, now Sona walks for
4 km whereas Moti walks for 10 km. How far is Moti from Sona?
a) 12 km
b) 10 km
c) 8 km
d) 15 km
Q 31. A sum of money is to be distributed among D, C, B, A in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2 : 1 respectively. By what
percent is the absolute value of the product of the share of C and B more than that of D and A?
a) 50%
b) 37.5%
c) 42%
d) 40%
Q 32. The present income of Meena is 50% more than that of Sita and that of Sita is 50% more than that of
Geeta. The increment in the income of Meena, Sita and Geeta is 80%, 60% and 40% respectively. If the
difference between the income of Meena and Geeta after increment is Rs. 5,300, then what is the income of
Sita after increment?
a) Rs. 4,200
b) Rs. 5,400
c) Rs. 8,100
d) Rs. 4,800
Q 33. Natu and Buchku each have certain number of oranges. Natu says to Buchku, "If you give me 10 of your
oranges, I will have twice the number of oranges left with you". Buchku replies, "If you give me 10 of your
oranges, I will have the same number of oranges as left with you". What is the number of oranges with Natu
and Buchku, respectively?
a) 50, 20
b) 70, 50
c) 20, 50
d) 50, 70
Q 34. The simple interest accrued on a certain principal in 5 years at the rate of 12% per annum is Rs. 1,536.
What amount of simple interest would one get if one invests Rs.1,000 more than the previous principal for 2
years and at the same rate of interest?
a) Rs.854.40
b) Rs.614.40

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 7
c) Rs.2,136.00
d) Rs.3,312.00
Q 35. In a fire range, 4 shooters are firing at their respective targets. The first, the second, the third and the
fourth shooter hit the target once every 5 s, 6 s, 7 s and 8 s respectively. If all of them hit their target at 9:00
a.m., when will they hit their target together again?
a) 9:04 a.m.
b) 9:08 a.m.
c) 9:14 a.m.
d) None of these
Q 36. A boat running upstream covers a distance of 10 kms in 30 minutes and while running downstream
with same speed it covers the same distance in 25 minutes. What is the speed of the river current in kmph?
a) 20
b) 2.2
c) 2
d) Cannot be determined
Q 37. Which one of the following numbers will completely divide (461 + 462 + 463 + 464)?
a) 3
b) 10
c) 11
d) 13
Q 38. A says to B, "I am three times as old as you were, when I was as old as you are". If the sum of their
present ages is 65, find the age of A.
a) 26 years
b) 39 years
c) 21 years
d) 52 years
Q 39. A book was sold for a certain sum and there was a loss of 20%. Had it been sold for Rs. 3 more, then
there would have been a profit of 30%. Had it been sold for Rs. 6.60, then the profit/loss percentage would
have been?
a) profit of 10%
b) profit of 8.33%
c) loss of 8.33%
d) Data insufficient
Q 40. The average age of 78 students in a group is 25.5 years. When the ages of some teachers were included
in the group the new average became 29 years. Find the number of teachers included in the group if the
average age of the teachers is 68 years.
a) 8
b) 7
c) 9
d) 6
Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following six passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

It is significant that Locke treats 'right to property' as a fundamental natural right which cannot be surrendered
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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 7
to the government. He proceeds on the assumption that property consists in one's 'fruit of labour'. Locke
argues that when an individual mix his labour with natural resources, this act is sufficient to establish his
exclusive right on the product which does not depend on the consent of other people. Locke's theory of
taxation is also based on his notion of the citizen's right to property. He postulates that the government should
take only what is necessary to carry on its business. It has no power to take anything more without the owner's
consent.
Q 41. Which one of the following is the most logical, rational inference that can be made from above
passage?
a) As soon as man enters in to social contract, property is also distributed among people on consensus.
b) Right to property of an individual is a fundamental natural right which will be surrendered to the
government.
c) Right to property is an absolute right of an individual.
d) None of the above
Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following six passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 2

The new approach to granting differentiated licences to small finance banks and payment banks by RBI is
welcome, especially given the current context where the established full service large banks are scaling back
their franchises to reduce expenditure and in light of the collateral impact of the planned mergers of some of
the state-owned banks. Small finance banks have the potential to provide an alternative to some of the existing
institutions with their mandated focus on small and medium businesses, the informal sector, small and
marginal farmers and thus on increasing financial inclusion and serving a variety of unserved clients in the
hinterland and tier three and four cities and towns.
Q 42. Which one of the following is the most logical, scientific and rational inference that can be made
from above passage?
a) Small finance banks promote inclusive growth through financial inclusion.
b) Small finance banks have lesser percentage of NPAs issue in comparison to large commercial banks.
c) The share of informal sector in an economy is decreasing significantly with the more presence of Small
Finance Bank.
d) Small Finance Bank is only concentrated in rural areas.
Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following six passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 2

The new approach to granting differentiated licences to small finance banks and payment banks by RBI is
welcome, especially given the current context where the established full service large banks are scaling back
their franchises to reduce expenditure and in light of the collateral impact of the planned mergers of some of
the state-owned banks. Small finance banks have the potential to provide an alternative to some of the existing
institutions with their mandated focus on small and medium businesses, the informal sector, small and
marginal farmers and thus on increasing financial inclusion and serving a variety of unserved clients in the
hinterland and tier three and four cities and towns.
Q 43. On the basis of above passage, following assumptions have been made:
1. More number of entities should be given licence as Small Finance Bank.
2. Private banks are more efficient in performance than the public sector banks.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 7
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following six passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 3

Like many journalists around the world, I believe that diversity of opinion is the lifeblood of a democracy. In the
face of rising conflict and crises, unfortunately, a growing number of governments is preventing their citizens
from receiving objective information about human rights. Today unfounded reports or fake news can easily be
spread unchecked, especially through social media. In my view, propaganda and censorship are signs of
weakness. I must stand up for freedom of speech, freedom of the press, and demand the safety of our
colleagues worldwide. I'm convinced that the independent, impartial and comprehensive information free
media deliver will help people form their own opinions about the world and let them take the right decisions.
Q 44. What is the main idea that the author wants to convey through the passage?
a) It is required to supress the spread of fake news by the government authority.
b) Diversity of opinion and freedom of expression is necessary for democracy to sustain.
c) Right decision can be taken only when one have all the information.
d) Regulation on media gives birth to an autocratic state.
Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following six passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 4

Relocating big cats across reserves in India is a delicate, risky experiment, threatened at every step by
poachers, a loss of habitat and a depleting prey base. Tigers, strongly territorial animals, need to be
acclimatised to the new habitat - the male tiger introduced in Panna initially kept following his homing instincts
to the nearby Pench reserve. Sariska, though reportedly equipped with an ample prey base, must fend off
hostile local populations in the surrounding villages and deal with the problem of low breeding among the big
cats. But the biggest battle that Panna has won may be against poaching.
Q 45. Which of the following can be logically inferred from the above statements?
a) Relocation of tigers must not be done as it is a very risky experiment.
b) Territorial animals are posed with many risks.
c) Local population around any protected seldom turn hostile.
d) None of the above
Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following six passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 5

It was Vivekananda who first emphasized that our everyday lives would become more meaningful only when
spiritualized. It was in this spirituality that he re-discovered, as it were, India's message to herself and to the
world. For Vivekananda, this spiritual self-realization led to people more fully realizing their own potentialities.
Especially in the context of a colonized society like that of 19th century India, this was tantamount to men and
women locating greater self-belief in themselves. The human soul being free, suggested Vivekananda, more
than compensated for the loss of political freedom. It was the Vivekananda's consistent desire to bring back
India's pride of place in the assembly of nations. Vivekananda fully believed in universality, cosmopolitanism
and compassion. As he saw it, mutual kindness and compassion between man and man was more important
than that coming from a distant God.
Q 46. In light of the above passage what can be inferred by the statement- “Human soul being free, more
than compensated for the loss of political freedom”?
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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 7
1. Spiritual freedom is superior to political freedom.
2. Human soul cannot be put in bondage.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following six passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 6

Impressive though the numbers are, it is easy to get carried away by them. The fact of the matter is that
services can only create a certain number of jobs and certainly not enough over a sustained period of time to
absorb the entire workforce. Construction, for example, may eventually be limited by weak demand. The
growth in communications was very impressive in these last five years because of the mobile boom, but that
might plateau. Significantly, the numbers on agriculture growth remain very low and a significant proportion of
India's population still depends on agriculture. Not all the excess labour from agriculture-which needs to move
out to lift productivity-will be absorbed by services. So, industry/manufacturing will still be the key to ensuring
the kind of inclusive growth we need to boost backward states and to lift people out of poverty. But
manufacturing needs radical policy attention in a way that services do not, to register rapid growth. The
government, at the Centre and in States, needs to focus on labour laws, land acquisition and infrastructure.
The strong growth in services, while welcome, should not become a reason to do nothing about promoting
manufacturing and reforming agriculture. Healthy growth in those two sectors is needed to generate the
demand that will eventually sustain services on a high growth path.
Q 47. In light of the above passage, it can be easily inferred that:
a) Service sector growth is possible only if mobile industry is promoted.
b) Service sector growth is possible only if manufacturing and agricultural reforms are promoted.
c) Service sector growth is possible only if growth in communications sector has plateaued.
d) Service sector growth is possible only if construction is promoted.
Q 48. Find out the wrong number in the sequence 106, 104, 101, 94, 86, 76, 64.
a) 104
b) 76
c) 101
d) 86
Q 49. A train starts from Delhi at a : b o'clock (i.e. 'b' minutes after a o'clock). It reaches Chandigarh on the
same day at b : c o'clock after taking exactly 'c' hours and 'a' minutes. How many different values of a are
possible? All the times are given in 24-hour clock format.
a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
Q 50.

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 7
a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
Q 51. In the following question, complete the given series.
114, 118, 126, 138, 162, ____
a) 186
b) 174
c) 172
d) 178
Q 52. There are 30 students in a class. In an exam, 20 students passed in English. None of the students were
there who did not pass in English or Hindi. Twelve students passed in Hindi. How many students were there
who passed in both English and Hindi?
a) 2
b) 8
c) 4
d) 6
Q 53. If 1 is subtracted from the numerator of a fraction it becomes 1/3 and if 5 is added to the denominator,
the fraction becomes 1/4 Which fraction would result if 1 is subtracted from the numerator and 5 is added to
the denominator?
a) 5/12
b) 7/23
c) 1/8
d) 2/3
Q 54. Complete the following series:
A3C, D8B, F144X, D72R, V308N, ______
a) J180R
b) D108X
c) J80H
d) S180Z
Q 55. The average marks obtained by a class of 60 students are 66. The average marks obtained by one-third
of the students are 59 while the average marks obtained by 40% of the remaining students are 68. Find the
average marks obtained by the remaining students of the class.
a) 69
b) 69.5
c) 70
d) 70.5
Q 56.

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 7
d) 6
Q 57. Manjulika travelled 37 km from her parlor toward West, then she took a right turn, and travelled 24 km
and then she took another right turn, and travelled for 30 km to reach her mother’s house. How far and in
which direction is her mother’s house located from her parlor?
a) 25 km, North-West
b) 25 km, South-West
c) 29 km, North-West
d) 29 km, North-East
Q 58. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?
I. The total number of positive factors of 72 is 12.
II. The sum of first 20 odd numbers is 400.
III. Largest two digit prime number is 97.
a) Only I and II
b) Only II and III
c) Only I and III
d) All are true
Q 59. If Raju was born on 08/12/2001 which is a Saturday and Raju's uncle also has the same birthday but he
was born in the year 1971, then what was the day on which Raju's uncle was born?
a) Wednesday
b) Tuesday
c) Saturday
d) Thursday
Q 60. In a division sum, the divisor 'd' is 10 times the quotient 'q' and 5 times the remainder 'r'. If r = 46, the
dividend will be
a) 5042
b) 5328
c) 5336
d) 4276
Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

Large national budget deficits do not cause large trade deficits. If they did, countries with the largest budget
deficits would also have the largest trade deficits. In fact, when deficit figures are adjusted so that different
countries are reliably comparable to each other, there is no such correlation.
Q 61. Which of the following can properly and safely be inferred on the basis of them?
a) Countries with large national budget deficits tend to restrict foreign trade.
b) Reliable comparisons of the deficit of one country with those of another are impossible.
c) Reducing a country's national budget deficit will not necessarily result in a lowering of any trade deficit
that country may have.
d) When countries are ordered from largest to smallest in terms of population, the smallest countries
generally have the smallest budget and trade deficits.
Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 2

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 7

What can the leader of a democratic country do when one quarter of its population presents a petition
opposing repayment of foreign debt and backs it up with a mass protest outside his residence, with red torches
firing up the snowy landscape? To stave off revolt and breakdown of order, the head of State has two options;
repudiate the debt altogether to restore public faith in the government or buy time by resorting to constitutional
technicalities.

Iceland's President, Olafur Grimsson, faced this dour choice on New Year's Eve in Reykjavik and picked the
latter course because of tremendous parallel pressure from creditors like the UK and the Netherlands and
capital markets. Instead of immediately signing the bill that would have repaid London and Amsterdam $5
billion or renouncing all liability, he announced a national referendum for a clear national verdict.

The two creditor nations, which are furious at the delays and setbacks to repayment, should be hoping for such
an outcome because they themselves are cash-strapped and hurting from the aftermath of the financial crisis.
One of the first economies to fall into the red immediately after the Lehman Brothers bankruptcy, Iceland has
risen since the mid-nineties on wave of excessive leverage facilitated by State deregulation.
Q 62. According to the passage, the state of affairs in Iceland is due to:
1. The creditor nations are in dire straits themselves.
2. Iceland was one of the first economies to have fallen in 2008.

Select the answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 2

What can the leader of a democratic country do when one quarter of its population presents a petition
opposing repayment of foreign debt and backs it up with a mass protest outside his residence, with red torches
firing up the snowy landscape? To stave off revolt and breakdown of order, the head of State has two options;
repudiate the debt altogether to restore public faith in the government or buy time by resorting to constitutional
technicalities.

Iceland's President, Olafur Grimsson, faced this dour choice on New Year's Eve in Reykjavik and picked the
latter course because of tremendous parallel pressure from creditors like the UK and the Netherlands and
capital markets. Instead of immediately signing the bill that would have repaid London and Amsterdam $5
billion or renouncing all liability, he announced a national referendum for a clear national verdict.

The two creditor nations, which are furious at the delays and setbacks to repayment, should be hoping for such
an outcome because they themselves are cash-strapped and hurting from the aftermath of the financial crisis.
One of the first economies to fall into the red immediately after the Lehman Brothers bankruptcy, Iceland has
risen since the mid-nineties on wave of excessive leverage facilitated by State deregulation.
Q 63. It can be inferred from the passage that:
a) Iceland is a poor country.
b) Iceland is kicking the can down the road to repay the loan to the creditor nations.
c) Lehman Brothers have not given enough loan to Iceland.
d) The citizens of Iceland are not hard-working.
Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
16
Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 7

Passage – 3

If a robot is defined, provisionally, as a machine made in the image of man then it must be stated that, like
deathrays in 1940, robots in 1990 remain in the world of speculation not as established fact. Yet just as the
inventor took the existence of death rays for granted and concentrated on putting them to use, the popular
imagination has been much more pre-occupied by the question of what we should do when robots do arrive,
than with the business of actually making them. It is rather as if the Wright Brothers' first flight had been
preceded by an extensive literature on air traffic control.

The prevailing image of the robots as a walking, talking mechanical man is firmly established in our
consciousness. It is worth pondering how this notion, a hypothesis, took on so vivid a form. There are, it is true,
machines in existence which we have, perhaps rather prematurely, categorized as robots. But long before even
this primitive vanguard became a practical proposition, the idea of the robot was enjoying a lively existence in
human imagination. It seems to have been around even before it gained a name. Other inventions had to take
concrete shape before a name was found for them. It took some time for the English speaking world to agree
that the 'horseless carriage' should be a motor car or a 'flying machine' an airplane.
Q 64. The basic idea that can be inferred from the passage is:
a) Scientists and inventors usually have a very further imagination.
b) People sometimes fail to distinguish between what is well known but imaginary and what is fact.
c) Speculation and hypothesising are well known and necessary aspects of inventions.
d) The emerging field of robotics will bring the province of speculation and that of established fact together.
Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 3

If a robot is defined, provisionally, as a machine made in the image of man then it must be stated that, like
deathrays in 1940, robots in 1990 remain in the world of speculation not as established fact. Yet just as the
inventor took the existence of death rays for granted and concentrated on putting them to use, the popular
imagination has been much more pre-occupied by the question of what we should do when robots do arrive,
than with the business of actually making them. It is rather as if the Wright Brothers' first flight had been
preceded by an extensive literature on air traffic control.

The prevailing image of the robots as a walking, talking mechanical man is firmly established in our
consciousness. It is worth pondering how this notion, a hypothesis, took on so vivid a form. There are, it is true,
machines in existence which we have, perhaps rather prematurely, categorized as robots. But long before even
this primitive vanguard became a practical proposition, the idea of the robot was enjoying a lively existence in
human imagination. It seems to have been around even before it gained a name. Other inventions had to take
concrete shape before a name was found for them. It took some time for the English speaking world to agree
that the 'horseless carriage' should be a motor car or a 'flying machine' an airplane.
Q 65. In contrast to the horseless carriage and the flying machine, the mechanical
man:
a) Has been created in many forms by inventors in many countries.
b) Was a well understood and familiar concept long before the name “robot” was used.
c) Has an ancient and mythical origin.
d) Was initially conceived of as a slave or worker with very limited function.
Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 4

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 7
After independence, India faced two vast problems; the first, that of economic growth from a very low level of
production, and the second was that of ethnic diversity and the aspirations of sub-nationalities. The Congress
leadership was more aware of the former problem than of the second. As a new political elite which had
rebelled not only against the British Raj but also against India's old social order, they were conscious of the
need to initiate economic development and undertake social reforms. However as nationalists who had led a
struggle against the alien rule on behalf of all parts of India, they took the cohesion of the Indian nation too
much for granted. They underestimated the centrifugal forces of ethnic division, which were bound to be
accentuated rather than diminished as the popular masses were more and more drawn into politics. The
Congress Party was originally opposed to the idea of recognizing any division of India on a linguistic basis and
preferred to retain the old provinces of British India which often cut across linguistic boundaries; it was only in
response to strong pressures from below that the principle of linguistic states was conceded as the basis for a
federal ‘Indian Union’. The autonomy of the states rendered central economic planning extremely difficult.
Q 66. Which of the following problems was face by India after Independence?
a) Military attack from a country across the border.
b) Lack of coordination between the Central and State Governments.
c) Improper coordination of various government policies.
d) None of the above
Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 4

After independence, India faced two vast problems; the first, that of economic growth from a very low level of
production, and the second was that of ethnic diversity and the aspirations of sub-nationalities. The Congress
leadership was more aware of the former problem than of the second. As a new political elite which had
rebelled not only against the British Raj but also against India's old social order, they were conscious of the
need to initiate economic development and undertake social reforms. However as nationalists who had led a
struggle against the alien rule on behalf of all parts of India, they took the cohesion of the Indian nation too
much for granted. They underestimated the centrifugal forces of ethnic division, which were bound to be
accentuated rather than diminished as the popular masses were more and more drawn into politics. The
Congress Party was originally opposed to the idea of recognizing any division of India on a linguistic basis and
preferred to retain the old provinces of British India which often cut across linguistic boundaries; it was only in
response to strong pressures from below that the principle of linguistic states was conceded as the basis for a
federal ‘Indian Union’. The autonomy of the states rendered central economic planning extremely difficult.
Q 67. Which of the following statements is NOT correct in the context of the passage?
a) The Congress Party was originally opposed to the idea of division of States on linguistic basis.
b) Economic development and social reforms were considered soon after Independence.
c) The political elite in India rebelled against the British Raj.
d) The Congress leadership was fully aware of the problem of ethnic diversity in India at the time of
Independence.
Q 68. In a certain code, 562 means ‘KINGS AND MEN’, 754 means ‘LORD OF KINGS’ and 694 means ‘MEN
PRAISE LORD’. What stands for “LORD OF MEN” in that code?
a) 479
b) 946
c) 476
d) 654
Q 69. What is the unit digit of the product of all prime numbers between 1 and 100?
a) 0
b) 1

18
Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 7
c) 2
d) 3
Q 70. In the sequence 2, 1, 6, 8, 5, 4, 8, 3, 6, 8, 5, 7, 9, 7, 6, 8, 5, 9, 3, 6, 8, 5, 1, how many such 6s are there
which are not immediately preceded by 3 but immediately followed by 8?
a) None
b) 1
c) 3
d) 2
Q 71. M x N means M is the daughter of N; M – N means M is the father of N; M @ N means M is the mother of
N and M + N means M is the brother of N. If A @ B – C + D x E, then how is E related to A?
a) Daughter-in-law
b) Sister-in-law
c) Aunt
d) None of these
Q 72.

a) 1 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1 and 3
d) 1, 3 and 4
Q 73. Find the least number which must be added to 21590 to make it a perfect square.
a) 20
b) 16
c) 24
d) 19
Q 74. If (+) stands for division, (×) stands for subtraction, (–) stands for addition and (÷) stands for
multiplication, then which of the following options is true?
a) 75 ÷ 3 – 25 × 2 + 7 = 10

19
Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 7
b) 75 × 25 × 5 + 2 – 7 = 10
c) 75 – 15 × 3 + 2 – 7 = 10
d) 75 + 15 ÷ 3 – 2 × 7 = 10
Q 75. What is the remainder when 41000 is divided by 7?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) None of these
Directions for the following 3 (three) items: Read the information given below and answer the following
questions.

Seven tourists – F1, F2, F3, F4, F5, F6 and F7 – plan to go on a drive. There are only two cars, and the following
conditions are to be kept in mind.
(i) F1 will go in the same car in which F5 goes.
(ii) F6 cannot go in the same car in which F3 goes, unless F4 also joins them.
(iii) Neither F2 nor F3 can go in the car in which F7 goes.
(iv) The number of persons in a car cannot be more than four.

Q 76. Which of the three tourists cannot travel in the same car without a fourth passenger?
a) F1-F2-F3
b) F4-F6-F7
c) F1-F7-F5
d) F2-F3-F4
Directions for the following 3 (three) items: Read the information given below and answer the following
questions.

Seven tourists – F1, F2, F3, F4, F5, F6 and F7 – plan to go on a drive. There are only two cars, and the following
conditions are to be kept in mind.
(i) F1 will go in the same car in which F5 goes.
(ii) F6 cannot go in the same car in which F3 goes, unless F4 also joins them.
(iii) Neither F2 nor F3 can go in the car in which F7 goes.
(iv) The number of persons in a car cannot be more than four.

Q 77. In how many ways can 7 tourists sit in the two cars?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Directions for the following 3 (three) items: Read the information given below and answer the following
questions.

Seven tourists – F1, F2, F3, F4, F5, F6 and F7 – plan to go on a drive. There are only two cars, and the following
conditions are to be kept in mind.
(i) F1 will go in the same car in which F5 goes.
(ii) F6 cannot go in the same car in which F3 goes, unless F4 also joins them.
(iii) Neither F2 nor F3 can go in the car in which F7 goes.
(iv) The number of persons in a car cannot be more than four.

Q 78. How many more tourists can go with F5 and F7 in the same car?

20
 Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 7
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Read the information given below and answer the following
questions.

Six books – Z1, Z2, Z3, Z4, Z5 and Z6 – are kept in a stack, not necessarily in the same order. Z5 is immediately
above Z2. Z4 is below Z6 and neither of these two books is at the third position from the bottom. Z1 is above Z3,
but below Z5. Z5 is at an even numbered position from the bottom.
Q 79. The number of different possible orders of the six books in the stack is
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Directions for the following 2 (two) items: Read the information given below and answer the following
questions.

Six books – Z1, Z2, Z3, Z4, Z5 and Z6 – are kept in a stack, not necessarily in the same order. Z5 is immediately
above Z2. Z4 is below Z6 and neither of these two books is at the third position from the bottom. Z1 is above Z3,
but below Z5. Z5 is at an even numbered position from the bottom.
Q 80. If Z6 is at the top, then which book is at the 2nd position from bottom?
a) Z2
b) Z1
c) Z3
d) Z4

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