Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 5

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

Recently, the Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU) released Global Liveability Index. Two of India’s biggest cities,
New Delhi and Mumbai have slipped several notches. Bracketed in the bottom quartile with the usual suspect
cities from Africa, West Asia, South Asia and South America, both New Delhi and Mumbai as India’s leading
megapolises face numerous challenges in providing their beleaguered citizens a better quality of life. If this is
the scenario with two of our most vibrant global cities, the challenges for the rest of urban and fast urbanizing
India indeed seem daunting. Such poor global recognition poses a few difficult questions. Will India, slated to
have half of its projected population of 1.50 billion by 2030 residing in urban areas, only end up pushing more
and more people into increasingly unlivable slum-like environs?

Q 1. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. India needs to take up urban planning with the seriousness.

2. Global Liveability Index indicates that urbanization in Indian cities is poorer than most African cities.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 2

The 12th report of the Global Innovation Index (GII) was launched in India on 24 July 2019. India has been
lauded for the fast pace at which it has been improving its ranking in this index. It climbed 29 positions during
the last five years and has gone from 81 in 2015 to 52 this year. This makes it amongst the few countries to have
consistently improved ranking for nine consecutive years. GII 2019 also points out that India ranks first globally
in the export of ICT services. There are various other reports which indicate that India has become the leading
global destination for offshore corporate investments in R&D. The FDI markets data of Financial Times shows
that India leads in the R&D of ‘Design, Development and Testing’ (DDT) in terms of the number of companies
investing, the number of projects created, and the jobs made possible between 2003 to 2018. A proper
understanding of India’s thriving R&D services industry and its impact on national innovation capability needs
to be developed in order for appropriate policies can be framed and leveraged.

Q 2. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above
passage?

a) Constant rise in the GII ranking can give inputs for policymaking in India.

b) India has become a global player in the innovation sector.

c) The GII shows that innovation sector in India has constantly risen.

d) None of the above

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items that follow
each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 5
Passage – 2

The 12th report of the Global Innovation Index (GII) was launched in India on 24 July 2019. India has been
lauded for the fast pace at which it has been improving its ranking in this index. It climbed 29 positions during
the last five years and has gone from 81 in 2015 to 52 this year. This makes it amongst the few countries to have
consistently improved ranking for nine consecutive years. GII 2019 also points out that India ranks first globally
in the export of ICT services. There are various other reports which indicate that India has become the leading
global destination for offshore corporate investments in R&D. The FDI markets data of Financial Times shows
that India leads in the R&D of ‘Design, Development and Testing’ (DDT) in terms of the number of companies
investing, the number of projects created, and the jobs made possible between 2003 to 2018. A proper
understanding of India’s thriving R&D services industry and its impact on national innovation capability needs
to be developed in order for appropriate policies can be framed and leveraged.

Q 3. Which of the following statements is/are correct according to the above passage?

1. India has become the leading global destination for offshore corporate investments in R&D.

2. India is the only country to have consistently improved ranking for nine consecutive years.

3. GII 2019 also points out that India ranks first globally in the import of ICT services.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 and 2 only

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 3

Recently, more than a hundred children had lost their fight against Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES) in
Bihar’s Muzaffarpur district. The children mostly belonged to the age group between one and ten. Apart from
age what they shared was abject poverty that did not even permit grief. While debate rages on the cause of the
disease and acts of omission and commission by governments of India and Bihar, it is necessary to look at the
significance attached over several decades to the matter of national health. Healthcare in India has been a low
priority item despite the universal acknowledgment that it is one of the two most significant social
infrastructures in any country. Health budgets in a nation as huge as India and with poor health indicators have
been abysmally small. Bihar, as one of the least developed states, quite naturally, has one of the poorest health
infrastructures and the state is very weak even in primary health care. This feeds into its poverty and socio-
economic backwardness.

Q 4. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Poverty makes the children particularly vulnerable to the disease like AES.

2. Bihar has the poorest health infrastructures in the country.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2
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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 5
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 3

Recently, more than a hundred children had lost their fight against Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES) in
Bihar’s Muzaffarpur district. The children mostly belonged to the age group between one and ten. Apart from
age what they shared was abject poverty that did not even permit grief. While debate rages on the cause of the
disease and acts of omission and commission by governments of India and Bihar, it is necessary to look at the
significance attached over several decades to the matter of national health. Healthcare in India has been a low
priority item despite the universal acknowledgment that it is one of the two most significant social
infrastructures in any country. Health budgets in a nation as huge as India and with poor health indicators have
been abysmally small. Bihar, as one of the least developed states, quite naturally, has one of the poorest health
infrastructures and the state is very weak even in primary health care. This feeds into its poverty and socio-
economic backwardness.

Q 5. Which of the following statements is/are correct according to the above passage?

1. Health budget in Bihar has the lowest financial allocation in the country.

2. Healthcare is the most significant social infrastructures in any country.

3. The poor health infrastructure is directly related to the low economic development of the state.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 and 2 only

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 4

It has become commonplace to suggest that globalization is at a crossroads. From Brexit to the election of
President Donald Trump, from the western backlash against migration to the growing trade barriers across the
world, this period in world politics has been termed as an era of de-globalization. The high octave optimism of
the “end of history” hypothesis has given way to the constant dribble of pessimism about the ability of the
world to come together. The liberal order of the global elites is being challenged like never before and
multilateral institutions are crumbling under the weight of their own contradictions.

Q 6. According to the above passage which of following is/are the symbols of de-globalisation voices?

1. The growing trade barriers across the world.

2. The election of President Donald Trump.

3. The western backlash against migration.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only
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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 5
c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 4

It has become commonplace to suggest that globalization is at a crossroads. From Brexit to the election of
President Donald Trump, from the western backlash against migration to the growing trade barriers across the
world, this period in world politics has been termed as an era of de-globalization. The high octave optimism of
the “end of history” hypothesis has given way to the constant dribble of pessimism about the ability of the
world to come together. The liberal order of the global elites is being challenged like never before and
multilateral institutions are crumbling under the weight of their own contradictions.

Q 7. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. The recent period in world politics has been termed as an era of de-globalisation.

2. Multilateral institutions in recent time are under severe threat.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 8. Two Statements S1 and S2 are given below followed by a question:

S1: The sum of a number ‘a’ and another number ‘b’ is zero.

S2 : The difference between two numbers ‘a’ and ‘b’ is zero.

Is the following inequality containing a and b true: –|a + b| > a3 + b3?

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statements and the Question?

a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

c) S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the Question, but neither S1 alone nor S2 alone is sufficient to
answer the Question.

d) S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to answer the Question.

Q 9. Two Statements S1 and S2 are given below followed by a question:

S1 : The sum of a number a, four times another number b and six times a third number c is 10.

S2 : The sum of three numbers a, b and c is 3.

What is the value of the sum of a, twice b and three times c?

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statements and the Question?

a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 5
b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

c) S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the Question, but neither S1 alone nor S2 alone is sufficient to
answer the Question.

d) S1 and s2 together are not sufficient to answer the Question.

Q 10. Two Statements S1 and S2 are given below followed by a question: S1 : A number x is smaller than
another number y.

S2 : Both x and y are natural numbers.

Is the inequality yx > xy true for all x and y?

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statements and the Question?

a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

c) S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the Question, but neither S1 alone nor S2 alone is sufficient to
answer the Question.

d) S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to answer the Question.

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

There are significant similarities between the two regions. Both the Arctic and the Hindu Kush Himalayan (HKH)
regions are deeply impacted by climate change. Both the regions are surrounded by eight countries, but the
challenges in the HKH are more extreme. The glaciers in the region, the largest accumulation of ice in the world
after the North and South Poles, are melting faster than in the plains. They feed the transboundary rivers of the
Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Mekong basins as well as the Chinese rivers, the Yellow and Yangtze. Their
future will have a direct impact on the lives of nearly 2 billion people as well as change the calculations on
which hydropower and agricultural dams are being built in all the eight countries i.e. Afghanistan, Pakistan,
India, China, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh and Myanmar, bordering the HKH region. The Himalayas are also one
of the youngest and most fragile mountains in the world and the floods and droughts, a consequence of a
warming climate are increasing risks for the lives and livelihoods of all that live the region.

Q 11. Which of the following similarities between the Arctic and the Hindu Kush Himalayan (HKH) is/are
correct?

1. Both the regions are deeply impacted by climate change.

2. Both the regions are surrounded by eight countries.

3. Both the regions are impacted due to over exploitation of their resources.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 5
Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 2

There are significant similarities between the two regions. Both the Arctic and the Hindu Kush Himalayan (HKH)
regions are deeply impacted by climate change. Both the regions are surrounded by eight countries, but the
challenges in the HKH are more extreme. The glaciers in the region, the largest accumulation of ice in the world
after the North and South Poles, are melting faster than in the plains. They feed the transboundary rivers of the
Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Mekong basins as well as the Chinese rivers, the Yellow and Yangtze. Their
future will have a direct impact on the lives of nearly 2 billion people as well as change the calculations on
which hydropower and agricultural dams are being built in all the eight countries i.e. Afghanistan, Pakistan,
India, China, Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh and Myanmar, bordering the HKH region. The Himalayas are also one
of the youngest and most fragile mountains in the world and the floods and droughts, a consequence of a
warming climate are increasing risks for the lives and livelihoods of all that live the region.

Q 12. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. The floods and droughts are consequences of climate change which increases risks for the lives and
livelihoods of all that live in the Himalayan region.

2. Trans-boundary rivers like the Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Mekong passes through the Himalayan
regions.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 3

There is a need for a Green Manifesto when political parties gear up for elections at least in urban India. It is not
only a moral imperative but also tactically suave. The recent manifestos of most major parties did not give
sufficient space to a green agenda. There is a need to have a separate environment vision document especially
for Urban India. Given the recent events political parties should expect environment to become a focal
campaign point, at least in cities. A glimpse of this coming change can be seen in some of the more recent
documents albeit from relatively young political parties. While the West does suffer from double standards in
international negotiations there are still some lessons to be learnt. So, there is a need for a clear roadmap on
every step to tackle this situation. One, the Niti Aayog could set green goals akin to the UNDP’s Millennium
Development Goals. While air pollution is one of the main culprits, it is not the only one and radical solutions in
mission mode need to be sought. Two, the National Green Tribunal (NGT) needs to be revamped and armed
with more scientists and environmentalists and fewer retired judges.

Q 13. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above
passage?

a) The timing is apt for both an administrative and political vision to give a green roadmap for India.

b) There is a need of a green manifesto for political parties.

c) External support is necessary to tackle the air pollution problem.

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 3

There is a need for a Green Manifesto when political parties gear up for elections at least in urban India. It is not
only a moral imperative but also tactically suave. The recent manifestos of most major parties did not give
sufficient space to a green agenda. There is a need to have a separate environment vision document especially
for Urban India. Given the recent events political parties should expect environment to become a focal
campaign point, at least in cities. A glimpse of this coming change can be seen in some of the more recent
documents albeit from relatively young political parties. While the West does suffer from double standards in
international negotiations there are still some lessons to be learnt. So, there is a need for a clear roadmap on
every step to tackle this situation. One, the Niti Aayog could set green goals akin to the UNDP’s Millennium
Development Goals. While air pollution is one of the main culprits, it is not the only one and radical solutions in
mission mode need to be sought. Two, the National Green Tribunal (NGT) needs to be revamped and armed
with more scientists and environmentalists and fewer retired judges.

Q 14. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. The recent manifestos of major political parties did not give sufficient space to a green agenda.

2. There is a need to have a separate environment vision document especially for urban India.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 4

We do need FDI for increasing the growth potential of the country. We need it to upgrade infrastructure and
create jobs. But there is no guarantee that the foreign investors will employ more labor in their factories. Their
track record is poor on this count as most have gone for capital intensive production in the past. While to
attract FDI, the government is mainly focusing on Ease of Doing Business ranking for India in which India fares
pretty badly at 130th out of 189 countries, it should also think of factors not taken into account in the index but
very important today such as environmental pollution. It could become the main factor deterring FDI coming to
India.

Q 15. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. FDI is mandatory to upgrade infrastructure and create jobs.

2. The foreign investors have preferred to invest in capital intensive production in the past.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 5
c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 4

We do need FDI for increasing the growth potential of the country. We need it to upgrade infrastructure and
create jobs. But there is no guarantee that the foreign investors will employ more labor in their factories. Their
track record is poor on this count as most have gone for capital intensive production in the past. While to
attract FDI, the government is mainly focusing on Ease of Doing Business ranking for India in which India fares
pretty badly at 130th out of 189 countries, it should also think of factors not taken into account in the index but
very important today such as environmental pollution. It could become the main factor deterring FDI coming to
India.

Q 16. Which of the following statements is/are correct according to the above passage?

1. India has become the leading global destination for offshore corporate investments.

2. Ease of Doing Business ranking does not take into account environmental pollution.

3. Environmental pollution can become the main factor deterring FDI coming to India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 and 2 only

Q 17. The HCF of 2 numbers is 37 and their sum is 518. What is the difference between numbers, if the
difference between them is the minimum possible?

a) 148

b) 111

c) 74

d) 37

Q 18. In a colored picture of blue and yellow color, blue and yellow color is used in the ratio of 4:3 respectively.
If in upper half, blue : yellow is 2:3, then in the lower half blue : yellow is

a) 1 : 1

b) 2 : 1

c) 26 : 9

d) 9 : 26

Q 19. X, Y and Z are consecutive negative integers and Z > X >Y. Which of the following must be a positive
integer?

a) X + Y – Z

b) X(Y – Z)
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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 5
c) YZ (X – Y)(X – Z)

d) (X – Y)(Y – Z)(Z – X)

Q 20. The numerator of a fraction is a multiple of two numbers. One of the numbers is greater than the other by
2. The greater number is smaller than the denominator by 4. If the denominator 7+C (C > –7) is a constant, then
the minimum value of the fraction is

a) 5

b) 1/5

c) – 5

d) – 1/5

Q 21. Amit starts from his house and drives 15 km south, then he turns left and drives for 5 km before taking a
right turn after which he drives for 20 km and again turns left and drives for 7 km to reach his office. How far is
Amit’s office from his house?

a) 40 km

b) 42 km

c) 37 km

d) 47 km

Q 22. Two Statements S1 and S2 are given below followed by a question:

S1 : b is non negative.

S2 : c is negative.

If a, b, c are integers, then is (a – b + c) > (a + b – c)?

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statements and the Question?

a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

c) S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the Question, but neither S1 alone nor S2 alone is sufficient to
answer the Question.

d) S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to answer the Question.

Q 23. In the following question below are given some statements followed by some conclusions. Taking the
given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts, read all the
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follows the given statements.

Statements:

I. All bags are tables.

II. No table is red.

Conclusions:

I. Some bags are red.

II. All bags are red.

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 5
a) Only conclusion (I) follows.

b) Only conclusion (II) follows.

c) Neither conclusion (I) nor conclusion (II) follows.

d) Both conclusions follow.

Q 24. ‘A’ stands for multiplication, ‘D’ stands for equal to, ‘B’ stands for greater than, ‘F’ stands for subtraction,
‘G’ stands for less than, ‘E’ stands for addition and ‘I’ stands for division. In the following four alternatives, only
one expression is correct according to the letter symbol. Identify that expression.

a) 18 I 6 E 4 G 30 F 11 A 2

b) 18 F 6 I 4 B 30 E 11 A 2

c) 18 F 6 I 4 E 30 G 11 A 2

d) 18 I 6 B 4 E 30 F 11 A 2

Q 25. In a row of students there are 18 persons sitting between Jaya , who is 7th from the left, and Juhi who is
12th from the right. If Jyoti is sitting exactly in the middle of the row, then how many students are there to her
left in the row?

a) 16

b) 18

c) 17

d) 19

Q 26. Lina, Mina, Nina, Pia, Ria and Sia are six friends who are going for a sports camp during summer. Lina,
Nina and Sia have enrolled for swimming lessons. Mina, Ria and Sia have enrolled for track & field sessions
whereas Nina is the only one who has not enrolled for horse riding. Which girl is taking part in all the three
sporting activities?

a) Pia

b) Mina

c) Lina

d) Sia

Q 27. A General of an Army wants to create a formation of square from 36562 army men. After arrangement, he
found some army men remained unused. Then the number of such army men remained unused was

a) 36

b) 65

c) 81

d) 97

Q 28. Let x and y be the volumes of two solid cones P and Q and let m and n be the masses of these cones. If
the height of Q is twice the height of P and the radius of P is thrice the radius of Q and the ratio of mass is to
volume for both cones is equal, then which of the following options is correct?

a) 2m = 3n

b) 3m = 2n
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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 5
c) 2m = 9n

d) 9m = 2n

Q 29. If x marks are scored by Ashwin, y marks by Balaji and z marks by Chetan, then x : y = y : z = 4 : 5. If the
sum of marks scored by Ashwin, Balaji and Chetan is 244, the marks scored by each would be respectively

a) 64, 80 and 100

b) 60, 84 and 100

c) 64, 100 and 84

d) 100, 80 and 64

Q 30. A trader, who has 90 units of an article, makes a profit equal to the cost price of 12 units of the article on
selling 50 units of it. If the profit made on selling the rest of units of the article equals the cost price of 10 units,
then what is the percentage profit of the trader?

a) 55.55%

b) 24.44%

c) 23.33%

d) 22.22%

Q 31. Mr. K and Mr. L each bought the same cake using a 15% off coupon. Mr. K’s cashier took 15% off the price
and then added 12.5% sales tax whereas Mr. L’s cashier first added the sales tax and then took 15% off the total
price. The amount Mr. K paid is

a) greater than that of what Mr. L paid

b) Less than that of what Mr. L paid

c) equal to that of what Mr. L paid

d) Cannot be determined

Q 32. Three friends, M, N and P, share Rs.24,375 in such a way that M’s share is equal to half of the combined
shares of N and P. Also N’s share is equal to one-fourth of the combined shares of M and P. By what amount is
P’s share more than N’s share?

a) Rs.4,875

b) Rs.8,125

c) Rs.11,375

d) Rs.6,500

Q 33. Find the missing number in the series:

111, 139, 174, 223, 293, ?

a) 391

b) 383

c) 363

d) 381

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 5
Q 34. What is the last digit in 7402 + 3402?

a) 0

b) 4

c) 8

d) None of these

Q 35. A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will
complete the series.

KlMnO, qRsTu, WxYzA, cDeFg, ?

a) iJkLm

b) HiJkL

c) IjKlM

d) hIjK

Q 36. Find the smallest number, which when divided by 25, 30 and 35 leaves remainder 11 is each case.

a) 1075

b) 1085

c) 1068

d) 1061

Q 37. Two Statements S1 and S2 are given below followed by a question:

S1 : A and B are two odd numbers.

S2 : A and B are two prime numbers less than 10.

If the difference between A and B is 4 then find the product of A and B.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statements and the Question?

a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

c) S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the Question, but neither S1 alone nor S2 alone is

sufficient to answer the Question.

d) S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to answer the Question.

Q 38. The ratio of the present age of a man and his wife is 7 : 9. Five years ago, the ratio of their ages was 3 : 4.
Five years hence, what will be the sum of their ages?

a) 75 years

b) 80 years

c) 85 years

d) 90 years

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 5
Q 39. Eight members of a family namely M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T live in a bunglow together. M has three
children, out of which two are married and the third one Q, studies in the same women’s college in which the
daughter-in-law, T, is a professor. P, the singer, has a son, S, who goes to the same school in which his grandma
teaches. The son-in-law, O is an engineer and is married to the singer. M’s son R, is a policeman and has a baby
daughter N. Which of the following statements is true about the family?

a) T and P are a married couple.

b) Q has a niece and a nephew.

c) M has two sons and a daughter.

d) O and Q are brother and sister.

Q 40. If a clock strikes as many times as the hour and once every quarter hour in between. How many times
will it strike from midnight till noon?

a) 125

b) 90

c) 114

d) 129

Directions for the following 6 (Six) items: Read the following Three passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

What compounds India’s child labour problem is that a large part of it is considered ‘legal’, according to the
ORF study. Current definition of child labour leaves children between 14 to 18 years old in a limbo, they are
considered too young to be adults but old enough to be out of school and in low-paying, low-productivity jobs.
These children will remain underemployed and unemployed in their adult life, when they are eventually
replaced by younger, cheaper hands but by then, they would not have nurtured any skills to move to other
gainful employment. A vicious cycle is perpetuated whereby fragmented welfare schemes subsidise them for
the rest of their lives. As one of the youngest nations in the world with two-thirds of its population below 35,
India still has time to reap its demographic dividend. The expansion of the Right to Education Act to include
compulsory and quality secondary education as suggested in the National Education Policy, 2019 draft will
hopefully by implication, result in a revision of the definition of child labour and enhanced action.

Q 41. Which of the following demerits of the current definition of child labour is/are correct?

1. It promotes underemployed and unemployed labour force.

2. It does not support children to get any skills to move to other gainful employment.

3. It promotes a cheap labour force in the laobur market.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1 and 2 only

Directions for the following 6 (Six) items: Read the following Three passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 5
Passage – 1

What compounds India’s child labour problem is that a large part of it is considered ‘legal’, according to the
ORF study. Current definition of child labour leaves children between 14 to 18 years old in a limbo, they are
considered too young to be adults but old enough to be out of school and in low-paying, low-productivity jobs.
These children will remain underemployed and unemployed in their adult life, when they are eventually
replaced by younger, cheaper hands but by then, they would not have nurtured any skills to move to other
gainful employment. A vicious cycle is perpetuated whereby fragmented welfare schemes subsidise them for
the rest of their lives. As one of the youngest nations in the world with two-thirds of its population below 35,
India still has time to reap its demographic dividend. The expansion of the Right to Education Act to include
compulsory and quality secondary education as suggested in the National Education Policy, 2019 draft will
hopefully by implication, result in a revision of the definition of child labour and enhanced action.

Q 42. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. India’s present demographic phase is favorable to reap the benefit of young population.

2. The expansion of the Right to Education Act may enforce the revised definition of child labour.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Directions for the following 6 (Six) items: Read the following Three passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 2

Political funding is a murky business in all whether big or small, old or new democracies. Illegal, under-the-
table donations intending to buy influence or policy or regulatory favors have clouded all democracies and
India is no exception to this trend. The recent addition of new political financing scheme named Electoral
Bonds (EB) by the government in 2017 has aroused huge public interest for its alleged role in furthering the
murkier trends in political funding. A series of recent revelations by Right to Information (RTI) activists have
brought to the public knowledge the manner and methods in which the government of the day ignored the
warnings and reasoned voices of key independent institutions such as the Reserve Bank of India and Election
Commission to push the law into effect. Not only has the business rules were bended at will to facilitate easy
flow of donations, every effort has been made to keep this new scheme opaque and out of reach from the
public.

Q 43. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above
passage?

a) Political funding is a murky business in India.

b) Electoral Bonds scheme has eroded the transparency from country’s democratic system.

c) Electoral Bonds scheme will promote crony capitalism in the country.

d) None of the above

Directions for the following 6 (Six) items: Read the following Three passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 5
Passage – 2

Political funding is a murky business in all whether big or small, old or new democracies. Illegal, under-the-
table donations intending to buy influence or policy or regulatory favors have clouded all democracies and
India is no exception to this trend. The recent addition of new political financing scheme named Electoral
Bonds (EB) by the government in 2017 has aroused huge public interest for its alleged role in furthering the
murkier trends in political funding. A series of recent revelations by Right to Information (RTI) activists have
brought to the public knowledge the manner and methods in which the government of the day ignored the
warnings and reasoned voices of key independent institutions such as the Reserve Bank of India and Election
Commission to push the law into effect. Not only has the business rules were bended at will to facilitate easy
flow of donations, every effort has been made to keep this new scheme opaque and out of reach from the
public.

Q 44. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Electoral Bonds would allow for unlimited corporate or businesses donations even from the loss-
making companies.

2. The addition of Electoral Bonds by the government has aroused huge public interest for its alleged role in
furthering the murkier trends in political funding.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Directions for the following 6 (Six) items: Read the following Three passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 3

It is ironical that the man who could not sit through Ram Rajya, the only film he was made to watch on 2 June
1944 at Juhu, Bombay would turn out to be a source of inspiration for an entire galaxy of filmmakers,
Dadasaheb Phalke among them, known for their meaningful cinema. For decades to come, Gandhi’s influence
on Hindi Cinema remained etched. The Mahatma’s impact was evident in the works of Phalke, Shantaram,
Mehboob Khan, Raj Kapoor, Hirani, etc. The films dealt with the core themes of Gandhian ideology i.e. non–
violence, love and sacrifice, Hindu–Muslim unity, the rural–urban divide, rejection of crass commercialism,
women’s emancipation and fear of moral decay. It was through their movies that Gandhi emerged as a towering
moral force. While these filmmakers may not have imbibed his ideas consciously, their films revealed his
influence, all the same and it became a guarantee for success. After all Gandhism was too dominant as an idea
for idealistic filmmakers not to be swayed by it.

Q 45. Which of the following concept of Indian cinema is/are influenced by the Gandhian ideology?

1. Love and sacrifice

2. Hindu–Muslim unity

3. The rural–urban divide

4. Women empowerment

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

15
Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 5
a) 1 only

b) 2 and 4 only

c) 1, 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Directions for the following 6 (Six) items: Read the following Three passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 3

It is ironical that the man who could not sit through Ram Rajya, the only film he was made to watch on 2 June
1944 at Juhu, Bombay would turn out to be a source of inspiration for an entire galaxy of filmmakers,
Dadasaheb Phalke among them, known for their meaningful cinema. For decades to come, Gandhi’s influence
on Hindi Cinema remained etched. The Mahatma’s impact was evident in the works of Phalke, Shantaram,
Mehboob Khan, Raj Kapoor, Hirani, etc. The films dealt with the core themes of Gandhian ideology i.e. non–
violence, love and sacrifice, Hindu–Muslim unity, the rural–urban divide, rejection of crass commercialism,
women’s emancipation and fear of moral decay. It was through their movies that Gandhi emerged as a towering
moral force. While these filmmakers may not have imbibed his ideas consciously, their films revealed his
influence, all the same and it became a guarantee for success. After all Gandhism was too dominant as an idea
for idealistic filmmakers not to be swayed by it.

Q 46. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Gandhi ji had watched only a single movie in his whole life.

2. Even today, the role of Gandhian ideology in Indian cinema has remained significant.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q 47. Find the number of five digit numbers divisible by 3 that can be formed by using the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 6
and 9 if none of the digits is to be repeated.

a) 912

b) 720

c) 816

d) 920

Q 48. Three containers have their volumes in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5. They are full of mixtures of milk and water. The
mixtures contain milk and water in the ratio of (4 :1), (3 : 1) and (5 : 2) respectively. The contents of all these
three containers are poured into a fourth container. The ratio of milk and water in the fourth container is

a) 4 : 1

b) 151 : 48

c) 157 : 53

d) 5 : 2
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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 5
Q 49. The average age of male employees in a firm is 52 years and that of female employees is 42 years. The
mean age of all employees is 50 years. The percentage of male and female employees are respectively

a) 80% and 20%

b) 20% and 80%

c) 50% and 50%

d) 52% and 48%

Q 50. The cost price of an article is C and the selling price of the same article is S, Z is the profit or loss
percentage. If the cost price and selling price both are increased by same amounts, then which of the following
is true?

a) Z increases

b) Z decreases

c) Z remains constant

d) None of these

Directions for the following 6 (Six) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

If the world were indeed one big happy place the internet would also be the same. The internet only mirrors the
world, it may reflect it, but it does not create it. Today, the polarisation in society manifests itself in outbursts on
the social media, in another time another place it led to the Crusades. Flat-earthers have always been there.
Fifty years ago, they may have been tied down by the Gutenberg barrier. They would have languished in their
coffee houses and pubs and formed their little secret societies. But they did influence events, churches and
kings, often and inordinately. The well-springs of hate and terror are the same. The falsities, the hate, the iron in
the heart, all reside in us but not in the weapons and instruments we use.

Q 51. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above
passage?

a) A violent movement is nourished by the cultural milieu available to it, something that the regulatory content
or fact checks cannot tackle.

b) All the violence and hate reside inside us not in the instruments we use.

c) Internet is the only reason behind the violence and hate in the society.

d) None of the above

Directions for the following 6 (Six) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 1

If the world were indeed one big happy place the internet would also be the same. The internet only mirrors the
world, it may reflect it, but it does not create it. Today, the polarisation in society manifests itself in outbursts on
the social media, in another time another place it led to the Crusades. Flat-earthers have always been there.
Fifty years ago, they may have been tied down by the Gutenberg barrier. They would have languished in their
coffee houses and pubs and formed their little secret societies. But they did influence events, churches and
kings, often and inordinately. The well-springs of hate and terror are the same. The falsities, the hate, the iron in
the heart, all reside in us but not in the weapons and instruments we use.
17
Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 5
Q 52. On the basis of the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. The internet has immense role in creating polarized society.

2. Flat-earthers have always been there in our societies to create the polarization.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Directions for the following 6 (Six) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 2

At the beginning of 2019, Shah Faesal, a J&K cadre officer sent in his resignation. More recently, Kannan
Gopinathan, an AGMUT cadre officer too put in his papers. An important fact to note is that all these officers
were in their early administrative years and had only spent about a decade in the service. It is not that
premature departure from the service has been a complete rarity. A number of voluntary resignations from the
IAS have taken place over the years. A few officers intermittently prefer not to finish their administrative innings
and step out for a variety of reasons. However, these are at more senior levels and closer to retirement with
generally a clear intent to pursue a second career. Politics and private sector are two chosen areas of the
second engagement. Serving officers, close to retirement switching to politics have been the subject of some
controversy. Many consider this unethical and hold that such switch-overs are vitiated by conflict of interest.
Others feel that leaving civil services and joining public life involves no incompatibility. Early exit from civil
service is actually a risk that officers are willing to take, giving up a sheltered career for the sake of uncertainty
and risk in public life.

Q 53. Which of the following reasons are responsible for resignation from the service of IAS officers in recent
times?

a) Switch to politics

b) Sheltered career for the sake of certainty

c) Attractive career in private sector.

d) None of the above

Directions for the following 6 (Six) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 3

Discussion on drug addiction should also be concerned with the vast majority of people who are not addicts.
Their homes and lives are insecure because our narcotics laws drive such people to crime. The drug addict is
almost never dangerous when he is under the influence of drugs. What makes him dangerous is the desperate
need of money to buy the next dose. Drugs are available only in an illegal black market. The costs are
stupendous, and this is what drives the addict to steal, rob and even kill a person.

Q 54. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:

1. Addiction to drugs is a criminal act.

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 5
2. Drugs are easily available in the market.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Directions for the following 6 (Six) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 3

Discussion on drug addiction should also be concerned with the vast majority of people who are not addicts.
Their homes and lives are insecure because our narcotics laws drive such people to crime. The drug addict is
almost never dangerous when he is under the influence of drugs. What makes him dangerous is the desperate
need of money to buy the next dose. Drugs are available only in an illegal black market. The costs are
stupendous, and this is what drives the addict to steal, rob and even kill a person.

Q 55. The author seems to criticize the narcotics laws for:

a) Being too complicated

b) Being ineffective

c) Driving addicts to crime

d) Being too lenient

Directions for the following 6 (Six) items: Read the following Four passages and answer the items that
follow each passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage – 4

If you are looking for a history of India or for an account of the rise and fall of the British Raj or for the reason of
the cleaving of the subcontinent into two mutually antagonistic part and the effects this mutilation will have in
the respective reactions and ultimately on Asia, you will not find it in these pages, although I have spent a
lifetime in the country. I lived too near the seat of events, and was too intimately associated with the persons,
to get perspective needed for the impartial recording of these matters.

Q 56. Which of the following statement best reflect the author’s opinion?

a) An intimate association prohibit the necessary perspective.

b) Matters are recorded with an impartial perspective.

c) An intimate association offers an impartial perspective.

d) Persons are typically associated with the impartial recording of matters.

Q 57. Katrina usually wears saree, which is 16.66% less than the actual length of saree. By how much percent
the actual length of the saree is greater than the length of saree which Katrina usually wears?

a) 16.66%

b) 20%

c) 25%

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Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 5
d) 33.33%

Q 58. If TRANSLATE is coded as NARTSETAL, then how will OXAZEPAMS be coded?

a) ZAXEOSMAP

b) ZAXOESMAP

c) ZAXOESAMP

d) ZXAOESMPA

Q 59. Select the related set of letters from the given alternatives.

AYCW : EUGS : : BXDV : ?

a) UGSI

b) FTHR

c) GSIQ

d) FUGS

Q 60.

a) Only I

b) Only II

c) Both I and II

d) Neither I nor II

Q 61. The ratio of the number of days taken to complete a work by A, B and C is 6 : 3 : 2. Working together they
can complete the work in 20 days. They started working together but B left the work before 2 days and C left
before 4 days of the completion of the work. In how many days would the work be completed now?

a) 68/3 days

b) 64/3 days

c) 67/3 days

d) 65/3 days

Q 62. A cat takes 5 steps in the same time in which a dog takes 3 steps. Distance covered in 2 steps of the dog
is equal to that of 3 steps of the cat. Find the ratio of the speed of the cat to that of dog.

a) 9 : 10

b) 5 : 2

c) 10 : 9

d) 2 : 5

Q 63. A square of maximum possible area is drawn in a semicircle of perimeter 72√5/7 cm. Find the area of
that square.

a) 36 cm2

b) 4 cm2

20
Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 5
c) 64 cm2

d) 16 cm2

Q 64. Due to dense fog a train going from Kashmir to Kanyakumari travels 1/4 th of journey with 1/4 th of the
normal speed and for the rest of the journey its speed is decreased by 1/4 th.By how much percentage the total
time taken by the train is increased?

a) 50%

b) 100%

c) 200%

d) 400%

Q 65. 744 + 745 + 746 + 747 is divisible by

a) 15

b) 16

c) 17

d) 18

Q 66. A college cultural school group charters four identical buses and occupies 5/6th of the seats. After 1/6th
of the passengers left, the remaining passengers used only three of the buses. The fraction of the seats on the
three buses that are occupied is

a) 25/27

b) 5/7

c) 12/17

d) 15/27

Q 67. A number x3627y0 is divisible by 44, where x and y are single-digit whole numbers. What is the maximum
possible value of (x + y)?

a) 17

b) 14

c) 15

d) 12

Q 68. Two benzoic acid solutions of equal volume, one containing 25% concentration and other 30% are mixed
in such a way that 6 parts of the first solution and 4 parts of the second solution form the new mixture. The
percentage of benzoic acid in the mixture is

a) 27%

b) 31%

c) 29%

d) 33%

21
Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 5
Q 69. The average (arithmetic mean) amount of savings of ten students is Rs. 600. Three of the students have
no savings at all and each of the others have at least Rs. 250 including Nihar, who has exactly Rs. 1300. The
largest amount, in Rs., that any one student could have is

a) 3250

b) 3450

c) 3650

d) 3850

Q 70. Cost of 8 pencils, 5 pens and 3 erasers is Rs 111. Cost of 9 pencils, 6 pens and 5 erasers is Rs 130. Cost
of 16 pencils, 11 pens and 3 erasers is Rs 221. What is the cost (in Rs) of 39 pencils, 26 pens and 13 erasers?

a) 316

b) 546

c) 624

d) 482

Q 71. Income of A and B are in the ratio of 3 : 4 and that of C and D are in the ratio of 4 : 5. If income of B is 2
times the income of C, then

a) Income of A = income of D

b) Income of A > income of D

c) Income of A < income of D

d) Income of A < income of C

Directions for question 72: Answer the question on the basis of the information given below. The bar
graph given below gives the production, exports and per capita consumption of wheat in India during the
period 2012 to 2016.

Consumption = Production – Exports

Per Capita Consumption = (Consumption) / (Population)

22
Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 5
Q 72. In which year was the percentage increase in the consumption of wheat over the previous year, the
highest?

a) 2013

b) 2014

c) 2015

d) 2016

Q 73. Some equations are solved on the basis of a certain system. On the same basis find out the correct
answer for the unsolved equation.

a) 27

b) 720

c) 270

d) 207

Q 74. When a number x is divided by a divisor it is seen that the divisor = 4 times the quotient = double the
remainder. If the remainder is 80 then the value of x is

a) 6480

b) 9680

c) 8460

d) 4680

Q 75. A sum of money is to be distributed among A, B, C and D in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 respectively. If C and D
get Rs. 750 more than A and B, then by what percent is the absolute value of the product of the share of B and C
more than that of A and D?

a) 50%

b) 37.5%

c) 42%

d) 40%

Q 76. Three bells ring at interval of 36 seconds, 40 seconds and 48 seconds respectively. They start ringing
together at a particular time. They will ring together after every

a) 6 minutes

b) 12 minutes

c) 18 minutes

d) 24 minutes

Q 77. A sum of Rs 15525 is divided among Sunil, Anil and Jamil such that if Rs 22, Rs 35 and Rs 48 be
diminished from their shares respectively, their remaining sums shall be in the ratio 7:10:13. What would have
been the ratio of their sums if Rs 16, Rs 77 and Rs 37 respectively were added to their original shares?

a) 9:13:17

b) 18:26:35
23
 Target UPSC CSAT Mock Test – 5
c) 36:52:67

d) None of these

Q 78. A book contains 322 pages and the pages are numbered from 1 to 322. The total number of digits used to
number the pages is?

a) 855

b) 858

c) 853

d) 856

Q 79. 20 litres of a mixture contains water and alcohol in the ratio of 1 : 4. 25% of mixture is taken out and
replaced by pure water. This process is done two times. What is the final quantity of alcohol in this mixture?

a) 6 L

b) 8 L

c) 9 L

d) 12 L

Q 80. A sum of money is invested in simple interest for 2 years at 20% per annum. Another sum of same
amount is invested in compound interest for 2 years at 18% per annum. Which one is correct for the above
situations?

a) CI > SI

b) SI > CI

c) CI = SI

d) Cannot be determined

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