1.

Which of the following is the function of "alcohol dehydrogenase" in the metabolism

of ethanol?
a. Conversion of ethanol into acetaldehyde
b. Conversion of ethanol into aldehyde dehydrogenase
c. Conversion of aldehyde into methanol
d. Conversion of ethanol into methanol

2. A 20 y/o woman is taking OTC Diphenhydramine for severe hay fever. Which of the
following AE is she most likely to report?
a. Increase in bladder tone
b. Nause
c. Nervousness, anxiety
d. Sedation

3. To supply the myocardium with Oxygen shortly after myocardial infarction we give
______
a. Anticoagulant
b. Fibrinolytic
c. Aspirin
d. ACEI

4. Which of the ff cannot be dispensed without prescription?

a. Ibuprofen
b. Doxycycline
c. Aspirin
d. Bisacodyl

5. The aim in the management of uncomplicated hypertension:

a. 90/65
b. 130/80
c. 150/95
d. 180/110

6. Tolerance is a problem when using Nitroglycerin, which of the ff is TRUE:

a. Tolerance doesn’t occur in young patient
b. Over 50 yrs patient doesn’t develop tolerance
c. Dosing schedule may affect tolerance
d. ISDN doesn’t develop tolerance

7. One of the following not related to Heparin:

a. Prevent blood clotting
b. Decrease antithrombin time
c. Prevent formation of factor VII
d. Used in pulmonary emboli

8. A 21 y/o patient went through respiratory depression after receiving an anesthetic

agent. Which of the following agents will counteract post-anesthetic respiratory
depression?
 a. Morphine
b. Picrotoxin
c. Diazepam
d. Thiopental

9. Which of the following anesthetics drugs has a higher risk of causing anemia?
a. Propofol
b. Ketamine
c. Isoflurane
d. Nitrous oxide

10. Which of the following is Heparin antidote?

a. Protamine sulphate
b. Octreotide
c. N-acetylcysteine
d. Naloxone HCl

11. Which of the following situations is most likely to be controlled by administering

parenteral Calcium as an antidote?
a. Hypokalemia
b. Verapamil overdose
c. Heroine intoxication
d. Cocaine intoxication

12. Which of the following best describes Type A Adverse Drug Reaction?
a. Idiosyncratic and unpredictable
b. Dose-dependent and predictable
c. Occur after prolonged use of the drug
d. Appear after the discontinuation of the drug

13. Type B adverse drug reactions are characterised by:

a. Predictable and dose-dependent effect
b. Idiosyncratic reactions not related to drug’s known effects
c. Long-term effects appearing after extended use
d. Reactions occurring only after drug discontinuation

14. Which of the following is an example of Type C Adverse Drug Reaction?

a. Anaphylaxis from Penicillin
b. Liver damage from long-term use of Acetaminophen
c. Photosensitivity from a drug
d. Withdrawal symptoms from Opioids

15. What type of adverse drug reaction is likely to occur when a drug is discontinued
suddenly?
a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type D
d. Type E
16. Which of the following is NOT a characteristics of Type F adverse drug reaction?
a. Failure to achieve the desired therapeutic effect
b. Severe and life-threatening reactions
c. Drug resistance leading to treatment failure
d. Ineffectiveness of a drug in certain patients

17. Which of the following glucocorticoids has the lowest potency?

a. Prednisone
b. Triamcinolone
c. Hydrocortisone
d. Dexamethasone

18. A 10-year old boy is brought with complaints of fever, sore throat and non-productive
cough for 1 day. Which of the following is the best regimen for a non-productive
cough?
a. Codeine 10mg 4 times daily
b. Guaifenesin 50mg 4 times daily
c. Dextromethorphan 15mg twice daily
d. Dextromethorphan 30mg twice daily

19. Which of the following is the Vaughan Williams Classification for the antiarrhythmic
drug Procainamide?
a. Class IV
b. Class III
c. Class II
d. Class IA

20. A woman with septic shock came to emergency who took airway, breathing &
circulation
HR = 122; BP = 90/70mmHg; Serum creatinine = 6; Na & Cl = very higher than
normal range; and high pulse.
What should she take?
a. Albumin 5% bolus
b. NaCl Saline
c. Furosemide (Lasix)
d. Dopamine

21. A patient has septic shock and his BP 70/40 mmH, a slight increase in potassium
level and sodium within a normal range. Which drug should be recommended for
him?
a. Dopamine
b. Lasix
c. Saline
d. Albumin

22. Appropriate counselling and follow-up for PQ with initiation of Levothyroxine includes
all of the following EXCEPT:
 a. Separate the Levothyroxine dose from Calcium tablets by several hours
b. Take levothyroxine on a full stomach for greater absorption.
c. Improved control of thyroid levels may also improve her glycemic control.
d. A physician follow-up is needed every 6 - 8 weeks to have her thyroid function
tests repeated.
e. Closer monitoring of her angina should be done during dosage titration of
levothyroxine.

23. Which of the following parameters is most appropriate for PQ’s self-evaluation of the
effectiveness of levothyroxine therapy?
a. Increased energy
b. Weight loss
c. Improved vision
d. Less frequent angina
e. Less frequent urination

24. A patient takes Multivitamin and his lab results shows high BUN and serum
creatinine. What is the cause of these results?
a. Renal insuffiency
b. Age
c. His medication

25. Analysis for man, 65 years old with renal failure.

Results:
Sodium = 110 [normal range: 135-145meq/L]
Potassium = 9 [NR: 3.5 - 5.5meq/L]
Urea = 54 [NR: 35-40]
Serum creatinine = 10 [NR: <3.5].
Which of the following is the best regimen?
a. 0.22% NaCl Saline 500mL/hr
b. 0.9% NaCl Saline 500mL/hr
c. Magnesium sulfate

26. Which if the following prevents neural tube defect (NTDs) in fetus?
a. Vitamin D
b. Thiamin
c. Vitamin C
d. Folic Acid

27. A patient has low Creatinine clearance. Which drug is contraindicated in this case?
a. Spironolactone
b. Furosemide
c. Propranolol
d. Insulin

28. Medication order is given to the pharmacist

Olive oil 60ml
Vitamin A 60,000 U
 Water 120ml
Sig 15mL TID
What is likely to be the final form of preparation?
a. Solution
b. Ointment
c. Emulsion
d. Suspension

29. Which of the following best describe the main pharmacological property of
Cholestyramine?
a. Decreases excretion of cholesterol
b. Lowers HDL level
c. Increases LDL level
d. Increase the efficiency of lipoprotein removal

30. Which of the following type of water should be used for reconstitution of parenteral
preparations?
a. Sterile water
b. Distilled water
c. Sterile water for injection
d. Bacteriostatic water for injection

31. A 47-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with atrial arrhythmia and is prescribed
with Amiodarone. Which of the following is the most likely side effect to be
monitored?
a. Ptosis
b. Tinnitus
c. Pulmonary toxicity
d. Pseudomembranpus enterocolitis

32. (Long application type question related to) Which of the following immunoglobulin (Ig)
is frequently found to be elevated in asthmatic patients? 2024
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgM
d. IgD

33. Which of the following studies are more suspectible to recall bias? 2024
a. Retrospective cohort
b. Prospective cohort study
c. Randomized controlled trial
d. Non-randomized controlled trial

34. A 25-years-old male is admitted due to hypersensitivity reaction to some drug

ingestion four hours ago. Patient is given a drug which causes dilation of vessels in
muscle, constriction of cutaneous vessels, and positive inotropic and chronotropic
effects on the heart. Which of the following is the most likely drug given? (Clinical
Pharmacist DHA 2024)
 a. Adrenaline
b. Isproterenol
c. Acetylcholine
d. Metaproterenol

35. Which of the following pharmacoeconomic studies is the simplest because the
outcomes are assumed to equivalent and only the costs of intervention are
compared? 2024
a. Cost-utility analysis
b. Cost-benefit analysis
c. Cost-minimization analysis
d. Cost-effectiveness analysis

36. Which of tge following is a function of alcohol dehydrogenase enzyme? 2024

a. Accelerates the reduction of ethanol
b. Accelerates the addition of hydrogen to ethanol
c. Accelerates the addition of phosphate to ethanol
d. Accelerates the removal of hydrogen from ethanol

37. A 37-year-old mother breastfeeding her child has developed consistent high blood
pressure. The physician consults the pharmacy to recommend an antihypertensive to
control her blood pressure. Which of the following antihypertensive is most
hazardous for the child? (Clinical Pharmacist DHA 2024)
a. Atenolol
b. Verapamil
c. Metoprolol
d. Propranolol

38. Which of the following prescriptions may have a potential to cause medication error?
(HAAD 2024)
a. Amlodipine 5.0 mg PO OD
b. Thyroxin 25mcg PO Daily
c. Acetaminophen 500mg PO TID
d. Regular insulin 5 units subcutaneously STAT

39. Which of the following electrocardiograph (ECG) represents atrial depolarization?

2024
a. P wave
b. PR interval
c. ST segment
d. QRS complex

40. A 20 year-old man encounters a serious road accident. He is brought to the hospital
with ‘deep wounds’. His vaccination history is unknown. Which of the following would
be best to administer to this patient at this time? 2024
a. Tetanus vaccine
b. Tetanus immune globulin
c. Tetanus vaccine and tetanus immune globulin
 d. Tetanus vaccine and human papillomavirus vaccine

41. A 67-year-old man presents with complaints of tremors, trouble waiding and masked
face parkinsonism disease is suspected levedopa is prescribed along with a
compund to lower required dose of levodopa and to achieve an effective brain
dopamine concentration. Which of the following is that most likely compound?
a. Pergolide
b. Selegiline
c. Carbidopa
d. Entacapone

42. Whuch of the following is the type of studies considers data from multiple studies of
different designs to draw conclusions? [HAAD]
a. Case series
b. Double-blind study
c. Systematic review
d. Consensus statement

43. Which of the following is the benefit from adding a conjugate of polyethylene glycol
(PEG) in some medications like Peg-interferon?
a. To extend the half life of medications
b. To extend the shelf life of medications
c. To enhance the effect of the medications
d. To enhance the elimination of the medications

44. Which of the following is an alkylating anticancer agent?

a. Cyclophosphamide
b. Flurouracil
c. Doxorubicin
d. Etoposide

45. Which of the following drugs is considered as an enzyme inhibitor that may affect the
metabolism of other drugs?
a. Phenytoin
b. Furosemide
c. Cimetidine
d. Theophylline

46. Which of the following electrocardiograph (ECG) represents absolute refractory

period? 2024
a. P wave
b. PR interval
c. ST Segment
d. QRS Complex

47. Which of the following strategies are used with low literacy patients to encourage
them to change their behavior?
a. Keep information focused and organized
 b. Use a normal speaking tone and volume
c. Use barried educational sessions
d. Use more visual aids

48. (Application level long question) Which of the following medications can cause
pneumonia as a side effect?
a. Lisinopril
b. Metformin
c. Simvastatin
d. Omeprazole

49. An elderly man presented to the emergency room eith dizziness, conciousness and
respiratory depression. He was recently on medication for inability to sleep. Which of
the following medications is the most likely drug involved in toxicity?
a. Aspirin
b. Naproxen
c. Diazepam
d. Acetaminophen

50. A pharmacist working in in-patient pharmacy received a request Pharmacy &

Therapeutic (P&T) Committee to evaluate a included in e-hospital formulary. The
request wants to have the value in a monetary value (dollar value). Which of the
following Pharmacoeconomica tooks will the pharmacy to answer the request?
a. Cost-utility analysis
b. Cost-benefit analysis
c. Cost-minimization analysis
d. Cost-effectiveness analysis

51. A 18-year-old boy with a history of illicit deug use is suspected to have an overdose
of benzodiazepines and is experiencing ataxia, drowsiness and nystagmus. Which of
the following would be the best antidote?
a. Activated charcoal 50 grams
b. Flumazenil 300mcg IV
c. Naloxone 400mcg IM
d. Haloperidol 10mg IM

52. A 69-year-old woman presented with complaints of severe dry cough for a has week,
she has been recently prescribed with Hydrochlorothiazide and Captopril for
hypertension, salbutamol and fexofenadine for allergic asthma. Which drug is the
most likely reason of the patient’s complaint?
a. Captopril
b. Salbutamol
c. Fexofenadine
d. Hydrocholorothiazide

53. Which of the following medications is a class IA antiarrhythmic agents?

a. Quinidine
b. Flecainide
 c. Verapamil
d. Amiodarone

54. What is the age range of a neonate?

a. Birth to one week
b. Birth to one month
c. One month to six months
d. One month to twelvo months

55. A 62-year-old woman is noted to have a open-angle glaucoma. She accidentally

applies excessive pilocarpine to her eyes. Which of the following is the most likely
would be expected results?
a. Mydriasis
b. Dilation of blood vessels
c. Bronchial smooth muscle dilation
d. Decreased gastrointestinal motility

56. Which of the following conditions is treated with desmopressin?

a. Psoriasis
b. Endometriosis
c. Nocturnal enuresis
d. Attention deficit disorder

57. Which of the following is the disadvantage of conducting randomized controlled trial?
a. Expensive
b. High possibility of bias
c. Difficult to control confounders
d. Cannot be used for hypothesis

58. A 33-year-old woman with no underlying medical condition came to a clinic in with
complaints of dysuria, urinary frequency and urgency, and suprapubic tenderness.
She was diagnosed with urinary tract infection and treated with
trimethoprim/sulfamethozaxole. Which of the following is an objective parameter to
assess the effectiveness of the drug therapy?
a. Resolution of back pain
b. Decrease in cough frequency
c. Improved ability to concentrate
d. Normalization of white blood cells

59. Which of the following is the pharmacological property of atenolol?

a. Nonselective beta-blocker
b. Cardio selective beta 1 blocker
c. Cardio selective beta 2 blocker
d. Cardio selective beta 1 agonist

60. Which of the following is the process of breaking down of glycogen?

a. Glycolysis
b. Glycogenesis
 c. Glycogenolysis
d. Gluconeogenesis

61. Which of the following compounds in urea cycle a biochemical reaction that produce
urea from?
a. Sucrose
b. Glucose
c. Glycogen
d. Ammonia (NH3)

62. What is the latin abbrevation for “after meals”?

a. a.c.
b. a.a.
c. p.c.
d. i.c.

63. A 30-year-old woman with a history of deep vein thrombosis that was treated a year
ago wants to use a birth control pill. Which of the following contraceptive pills would
best suit her?
a. Levonorgestrel (progesterone only pills)
b. Ethinyl estradiol/etonogestrel
c. Ethinyl estradiol/norethindrone
d. Ethinyl estradiol/norelgestromin

64. Research investigators must submit all research protocols to the institutional review
board and obtain approval before performing the research. What us the main
purpose of this board?
a. To help in collecting the date
b. To provide the needed fund for the research
c. To safeguard the rights of human research subjects
d. To calculate the most appropriate sample size for the research

65. Which of the following antiplatelet agents is the highest risk of causing dyspnea?
a. Prasugrel
b. Ticagrelor
c. Clopidogrel
d. Dipyridamole

66. A nurse has an inquiry about the appropriate tine to withdraw a trough gentamicin
level for a patient. What is the best answer for her inquiry?
a. 1 hour after gentamicin administration
b. 30 minutes after gentamicin administration
c. 1 hour before the scheduled gentamicin dose
d. 30 minutes before the scheduled gentamicin dose

67. Which of the following documents created by the World Medical Association is the
statement of ethical principles for medical research involving human subjects?
a. Ethics code
 b. Belmont Report
c. Nuremberg code
d. Declaration of Helsinki

68. Which of the following is common enzyme polymorphism that could potentially alter
Clopidogrel efficacy?
a. CYP2C7
b. CYP2C9
c. CYP2C10
d. CYP2C19

69. Which of the following represents the immunity acquired by give living organism with
attenuated virus?
a. Local immunity
b. Passive immunity
c. Natural active immunity
d. Artificial active immunity

70. Approximately 415 million people have been diagnosed with diabetes. Which of the
following terms is referred to in the mentioned statement?
a. Endemic
b. Epidemic
c. Incidence
d. Prevalence

71. Which of the following is the content of a monophasic contraceptive?

a. Constant dose of estrogen
b. Variable dose of progesterone
c. Constant dose of estrogen and progesterone
d. Variable doses of estrogen and progesterone

72. Which of the following drugs has a high abuse potential?

a. Nifedipine
b. Allopurinol
c. Varenichine
d. Methylphenidate

73. Which of the following immunoglobulin activates compliment system?

a. IgM
b. IgE
c. IgA
d. IgG

74. Which of the following pairs represents the purines nitrogenous bases? (2024)
a. Adenine (A) & Uracil (U)
b. Cytosine (C) & Uracil (U)
c. Adenine (A) & Guanine (G)
d. Cytosine (C) & Gunanine (G)
75. Which of the following antibiotics is considered safe to use in neonates?
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim
c. Tetracycline
d. Penicillin G

76. Salicylate toxicity involves which of the following?

a. Serum levels above 300ug/mL
b. Metabolic acidosis
c. Respiratory alkalosis
d. All of the above
77. A patient with diverticular disease is instructed to take a laxative. The pharmacist
should appropriately recommend:
a. Ispaghula
b. Bisacodyl
c. Glycerol suppositories
d. Magnesium hydroxide
78. Which of the following drugs would decrease the amount of minimum alveolar
concentration (MAC) for an anethetic drug?
a. Diazepam
b. Buspirone
c. Ephedrine
d. Loratidine
79. Which of the following enzymes regulate supercoiling of DNA?
a. Helicases
b. Primases
c. Topoisomerases
d. Reverse transcriptase
80. Where does the electron transport chain reaction pathway takes?
a. Cell cytoplasm
b. Golgi apparatus
c. Outer mitochondrial membrane
d. Inner mitochondrial membrane
81. Coenzyme for Cystathionine synthase and cystathionase enzymes which catalyze
the transfiguration of methionine to cysteine?
a. B2
b. B3
c. B5
d. B6
82. Which of the following glucocorticoids has the lowest potency?
a. Prednisone
b. Triamcinole
c. Hydrocortisone
d. Dexamethasone
83. A patient is admitted to the hospital for the treatment of atrial fibrillation. During
hospital stay, the patient receives IV Diltiazem and was discharge on oral diltiazem
plus his previous antihypertensive medication Verapamil. Which of the following
 medication error-reduction programs would most likely helped to prevent this
duplication of therapy?
a. Bar coding
b. High-Risk Drug Protocol
c. Medication Reconciliation
d. Computerized physician order entry
84. Free medical sample drugs (Formulary or non-formulary) are provided by
pharmaceutical sales representatives to physicians or members of the health care
team. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommended policy for dealing
with sample drugs?
a. Dispense them directly to the patient
b. Keep them with the rest of original items
c. Keep in outpatient clinics or nursing units
d. Exclude them from in-patient pharmacy, drug store or doctor’s office
85. Mechanism by which Acetylcholine decreases heart rate is by
a. Delayed diastolic depolarization
b. Increase in plateau
c. Decrease preload
d. Increase afterload
86. Which alpha 2 agonist us used to relieve spasticity in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
a. Clonidine
b. Brimonidine
c. Apraclonidine
d. Tizanidine
87. The indicated dose of Pralidoxime with Atropine in Organophosphorus poisoning is
a. 500mg
b. 800mg
c. 1g
d. 5g
88. Which beta blocker has a membrane stabilizing property?
a. Metoprolol
b. Atenolol
c. Propranolol
d. Esmolol
89. Which of the following is paired INCORRECTLY?
a. Hemicholinium: prevent the release of Acetylcholine from storage
vesicle
b. Botulinum: increase the Acetylcholine release
c. Pralidoxime: reactivates acetylcholine esterase
d. Vesamicol: inhibit the uptake of choline
e. Organophosphorous: inhibits acetylcholinesterase
90. An 18-year-old female patient is brought to the emergency department due to drug
overdose. Which of the following routes of administration is the most desirable for
administering the antidote for the drug overdose? (May 2024)
a. IM
b. SC
c. Transdermal
d. Oral
 e. IV
91. A 6 year-old female patient (60kg) with a history of ischemic stroke was prescribed
Clopidogrel for stroke prevention. She was hospitalized again after 6 months due to
recurrent ischemic stroke. Which of the following is a likely reason she did not
respond to Clopidogrel therapy? She is a: (May 2024)
a. Porr CYP2D6 metabolizer
b. Fast CYP1A2 metabolizer
c. Poor CYP2E1 metabolizer
d. Fast CYP3A4 metabolizer
e. Poor CYP2C19 metabolizer
92. An elderly man was brought to the emergency room after ge ingested a large
quantity of Carvedilol tablets, a drug that blocks a1, B1 & B2 adrenergic receptors,
which mainly mediate the cardiovascular effects of epinephrine and norepinephrine in
the body. Which of the following symptoms would you expect in this patient? (May
2024)
a. Increased heart rate (Tachycardia)
b. Reduced heart rate (bradycardia)
c. Dilation of the pupil (Mydriasis)
d. Increased blood pressure
93. An elderly female who lives in a farm house was brought to the emergency room in
serious condition after ingesting liquid from an unlabelled bottled found near her bed,
apparently in a suicide attempt. She presented with diarrhea, frequent urination,
convulsions, breathing difficulties, constricted pupils (miosis) and excessive
salivation. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding this patient? (May 2024)
a. She most likely consumed an organophosphate pesticide.
b. The symptoms are consistent with sympathetic activation.
c. Her symptoms can be treated using an anticholinesterase agent.
d. Her symptoms can be treated using cholinergic agonist.
94. During an ophthalmic surgical procedure, the surgeon wanted to constrict the pupil of
the patient using a miotic drug. However, he accidentally used another drug that
caused dilation of the pupil (mydriasis) instead. Most likely, which of the following
drugs did he used?
a. Acetylcholine
b. Pilocarpine
c. Tropicamide
d. Phentolamine
e. Bethanechol
95. A patient with COPD was prescribed a Beta 2 agonist for the relief of bronchospasm.
However, a patient did not respond to this treatment. Which of the following drug or
classes of drugs would you suggest for this patient as the next option?
a. Beta 1 agonist
b. Muscarinic agonist
c. Physostigmine
d. Ipratropium
e. Phentolamine
96. A patient was administered a neuromuscular blocker (NMB) prior to a surgical
procedure to produce skeletal muscle paralysis. This NMB drug affected small,
rapidly contracting muscles last. The effect of this drug eas easily reversed with
 neostigmine. Which of the following NMB was most likely administered to this
patient?
a. Rocuronium
b. Succinylcholine
c. Diazepam
d. Tubocurarine
97. A hypertensive patient was accidentally given an alpha 2 agonist instead of an alpha
1 blocker. Which of the following is CORRECT in this situation?
a. Alpha 2 agonists can increase the release of Norepinephrine from
sympathetic nerve terminals.
b. Alpha 2 agonists can reduce blood pressure in this patient.
c. Alpha 2 agonists can increase blood pressure in this patient.
d. Alpha 2 agonists will not affect blood pressure in this patient.
98. An asthma patient was given a nonselective Beta agonist to relieve
bronchoconstriction. Which of the following adverse effects would you expect to see
in this patient?
a. Bradycardia
b. Tachycardia
c. Hypotension
d. Worsening bronchoconstriction
99. A 12 year-old boy who is allergic to peanuts was brought to the emergency room
after accidentally consuming peanuts contained in fast food. He is in anaphylactic
shock. Which of the following drugs would be most appropriate to treat this patient?
a. Norepinephrine
b. Phenylephrine
c. Dobutamine
d. Epinephrine
100. A 70 year-old male needs to be treated with an alpha blocker for overflow
incontinence due to his enlarged prostate. Which of the following drugs would you
suggest in this patient that will not affect his blood pressure significantly?
a. Prazosin
b. Doxazosin
c. Phentolamine
d. Tamsulosin
e. Terazosin
101. Peripheral adverse effect of Levodopa including nausea, hypotension, and
carduax arrhythmias, can be diminished by including which of the following drugs in
the therapy?
a. Amantadine
b. Ropinirole
c. Carbidopa
d. Tolcapone
e. Pramipexole
102. Which agent is best used in emergency room setting for patients who are
believed to have received too much Benzodiazepine drug or taken an overdose of
benzodiazepines?
a. Diazepam
b. Ramelteon
 c. Flumazenil
d. Doxepin
e. Naloxone
103. A 28-year-old woman with schizoaffective disorder (combination of mood and
psychotic symptoms) reports difficulty falling asleep. Which of the following would be
most beneficial in this patient?
a. Lithium
b. Chlorpromazine
c. Haloperidol
d. Paliperidone
e. Ziprasidone
104. Which medication should be avoided when administering Calcium?
a. Ibuprofen
b. Amoxicillin
c. Ciprofloxacin
d. Nitrofurantoin
105. Which of the following OTC medications is suitable for a 31-year-old man with a
dry cough?
a. Guaifenesin
b. Dextromethorphan
c. Ambroxol
d. Salbutamol
106. A pregnant woman who is 29 years old has just been diagnosed with iron
deficiency anemia. She has a hemoglocon level of less than 11g/dL. What is the
most suitable recommendation?
a. Ferrous sulfate tablets on an empty stomach
b. Ferrous sulfate tablets with antacids
c. Ferrous sulfate tablets with cup of tea
d. Ferrous sulfate slow-release tablets
107. What information should be conveyed to a patient who uses Fentanyl transdermal
patches?
a. Rotate the site of application to avoid tolerance
b. Store patches in the refrigerator to decrease stinging sensation
c. Avoid increase in body core temperature
d. Apply heating pads on the transdermal patch to improve absorption
108. A 68 year-old woman has a type 2 diabetes, neuropathy, and seizures has
recently been diagnosed with depressive illness. Which medication would be the
most appropriate to start?
a. Duloxetine
b. Paroxetine
c. Bupropion
d. Amitriptyline
109. The drug Y is formulated as a patch containing 1mg that delivers 75mcg/hr. What
is the amount of mg in 50 hours?
a. 1.2 mg
b. 3.75mg
c. 4.5mg
d. 5mg
110. Which of the following drugs is employed in treating acute attacks of gout?
a. Hyoscyamine sulfate (Nulev)
b. Ergonovine maleate (Ergotrate)
c. Naproxen (Anaprox)
d. Tramadol (Ultram)
e. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
111. Which of the following antimicrobial agents would be the BEST choice for the
treatment of a systemic Proteus infection?
a. Cefprozil
b. Cefoxitin
c. Cephradine
d. Ceftizoxime
e. Cefazolin
112. In the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias, Sotalol (Betapace) is most similar in
action to
a. Tocainide
b. Verapamil
c. Amiodarone
d. Digoxin
113. Mr. Harris has just begun treatment with Metformin. He should be monitored for
the development of which of the following?
I. Hypercalcemia
II. Respiratory Disease
III. Lactic acidosis

a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
114. Which of the following is likely to have the SHORTEST duration of Hypnotic
action?
a. Flurazepam
b. Melatonin
c. Zeleplon
115. Spironolactone is MOST similar in action to
a. Eplerenone
b. Hydrochlorothiazide
c. Metolazone
d. Bumetanide
116. Which one the follwing agents is most similar in action to Cloxacillin?
a. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
b. Bacampenicillin (Spectrobid)
c. Penicillin V Potassium (Pen Vee K)
d. Nafcillin ( Unipen, Nallpen)
117. Which of the following is/are classified as a Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitor?
I. Gemcitabine
II. Selegeline
 III. Tranylcypromine
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. II and III only
e. I, II and III only
118. Which of the following is/are TRUE of Pentamidine isethionate?
I. It may be administered by inhalation
II. It may be administered parenterally
III. It may be used to treat PCP
a. I only
b. III only
c. I and II only
d. I, II and III only
119. All these drugs are fibrinolytic EXCEPT
a. Dipyridamole
b. Streptokinase
c. Urikinase
120. All these drugs causes anti-metabolic effect EXCEPT
a. Methotrexate
b. Flurouracil
c. Cytrabin
d. Azothioprine
e. Cyclophosphamide
121. All these drugs can be used for Parkinsonism EXCEPT
a. Selegiline HCl
b. Carbidopa
c. Pergolide
d. Nedocromil sodium
122. All these cases not cure with Thiazide EXCEPT
a. Hypernatremia
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Hypokalemia
d. Hyperuricemia
123. Cardiac arrest could be managed by the following EXCEPT
a. Ephedrine
b. Lidocaine
c. Propranolol
d. Normal saline
124. Respiratory damage is most likely to occur with the use of which of the following
antineoplastic agents?
a. Vincristine
b. Cytrabine
c. Actinomycin
d. Bleomycin
e. Flutamide
125. Which of the following drugs is indicated for the treatment of primary nocturnal
enuresis?
 a. Ritodrine (Yutopar)
b. Dicyclomine (Bentyl)
c. Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP)
d. Metolazone (Zaroxolyn)
e. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
126. A patient is told that one of the medications he is using is Clavulanic acid.
Clavulanic acid can best be described as an
a. Urinary anti-infective
b. Beta-lactamase inhibitor
c. Topical antifungal agent
d. Rapid onset hypnotic
e. NSAID
127. A female patient with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is prescribed
Tegaserod(Zelnorm) for her condition. This drug can best be classified as a/an
a. 5HT4 receptor agonist
b. Anti-inflammatory agent
c. 5HT3 receptor antagonist
128. TB testing should be performed before starting a patient on
a. Gold
b. Valsartan
c. Infliximab
d. Amphotericin B
e. Dutasteride
129. All these are side effects of Chloramphenicol EXCEPT
a. Irreversible aplastic anemia
b. Optic neuritis
c. Peripheral neuritis
d. Iron deficiency anemia
130. Ticlopidine is used for
a. Anticoagulant
b. Antibiotic
c. Anticholinerguc
d. Antiplatelet
131. All these are natural estrogens EXCEPT
a. Mestronol
b. Oestrone
c. Oestrol
d. Oestradiol
132. Which one of the following has vasodilator effect?
a. Nicotine
b. Cholestyramine
c. Urikinase
d. Vitamin A
133. One of the following is NOT for Epilepsy?
a. Clorazepam
b. Phenytoin
c. Primidone
d. Imipramine
134. Normal heart beat
a. 100-140
b. 60-100
c. 100-200
d. 100-120
135. Drug used in the treatment of Hypotension
a. Dolobid © (Diflusinal)
b. Doloxene © (Dextropropoxyphene)
c. Diltiazem
d. Dopamine
136. Cefixime is
a. First generation Cephalosprorin
b. Second generation Cephalosprorin
c. Third generation Cephalosprorin
d. Fourth generation Cephalosprorin
137. According to the UAE regulations, which of the following is required when
dispensing controlled medications?
a. No prescription is needed.
b. A verbal order from the doctor is sufficient.
c. A valid prescription with a doctor’s signature and patient details.
d. Over-the-counter sale with proper counseling
138. Cinnarizine used in
a. Hypertension
b. Depression
c. Peptic ulcer
d. Prophylaxis from migraine
139. Which of the following is a beta-blocker used to treat hypertension?
a. Lisinopril
b. Metoprolol
c. Amlodipine
d. Furosemide
140. What is the mechanism of action of Proton Pump Inhibitors?
a. Block histamine H2 receptor in the stomach
b. Inhibit the enzyme responsible for acid secretion in the stomach
c. Neutralize stomach acid directly
d. Increased mucosal protection in the stomach
141. Which of the following is the correct storage condition for insulin?
a. Store at room temperature between 25-30°C
b. Store in freezer at -20°C
c. Store in refrigerator between 2-8°C
d. Store in direct sunlight for stability
142. What is the maximum dose of Paracetamol for an adult in 24hours to avoid
toxicity?
a. 2 grams
b. 3 grams
c. 4 grams
d. 5 grams
143. The dise of Folic acid in non pregnant woman is?
 a. 400mcg/day
b. 700mcg/day
c. 1200mcg/day
d. 900mcg/day
144. Which of the following vaccines should be administered for every pregnancy?
a. TDaP
b. DaP
c. DTaP
d. MMR
145. Recommended Calcium dose for geriatric
a. 800mg
b. 600mg
c. 500mg
d. 1200mg
146. Which of the following committees is responsible for requests of removing a drug
from the hospital formulary?
a. Hospital patient safety
b. Mortality and Morbidity
c. Hospital Clinical Research
d. Pharmacy and Therapeutic
147. Human chorionic gonadotropin is used to
a. Induce ovulatiom and treatment of infertility
b. Induce ovulation
c. Infertility
d. Hormone
148. Express 1:2000 as percentage strength (WTF??)
a. 0.01%
b. 0.02%
c. 0.05%
d. 0.20%
149. Compounds that stimulate the release of insulin from pancreatic beta cells
a. Aplha glucosidase inhibitors
b. Biguanides
c. Sulphonyl ureas
d. Pregestins
150. Which of the following cardiovascular agents is classified chemically as a
glycoside?
a. Nifedipine
b. Digoxin
c. Warfarin
d. Cholestyramine
151. Intra articular injection means
a. Injection to SC
b. Injection to muscle mass
c. Injection to spinal fluid
d. Injection to joint space
152. FDA approved drug to treat narcotic addicition
a. Hydrocodone
 b. Codeine
c. Morphine
d. Methadone
153. Ethanol is administered to the patients who have methanol toxicity. Why?
a. Increase the methanol metabolism
b. Increase renal clearance of methanol
c. Help to sedate patients
d. Blocks the formation of toxic metabolites of methanol
154. Following drugs are natural products EXCEPT
a. Morphine
b. Digoxin
c. Diazepam
d. Penicillin
155. Which benzodiazepine will cause least side effects in elderly patients?
a. Diazepam
b. Chlordiazepoxide
c. Oxazepam
d. Flurazepam
156. Myopathy is the side effect of the following drugs EXCEPT
a. Atorvastatin
b. Clofibate
c. Colestipol
d. Gemfibrozil
157. Long standing hypertension will cause damage to the following organs EXCEPT
a. Eyes
b. Heart
c. Brain
d. Lungs
158. Precaution to the pharmacist to be carried out while dispensing Methotrexate
a. Wear lab coat
b. Use dispensable gloves
c. Use N95 mask
d. Use face mask
159. In which container non-aqueous preparations & powders for parenteral use shoul
be stored
a. Type 1 glass
b. Type 2 glass
c. Type 3 glass
d. PVC plastic containers
160. Glucagon may be used and as an antidote for
a. Amitriptyline
b. Metoprolol
c. Furosemide
d. Digoxin
161.