25-01-2025

1001CMD303361250002 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1)

In the shown figure what is the value of deviation?

(1) 40°
(2) 140°
(3) 80°
(4) None of these

2) Light rays falls on a plane mirror and forms a real image, so the incident rays are :-

(1) parallel
(2) diverging
(3) Converging
(4) Statement is false

3) The colour are characterised by which of following character of light-

(1) Frequency
(2) Amplitude
(3) Wavelength
(4) Velocity

4) A ray of light travelling in air have wavelength λ, frequency n, velocity v and intensity I. If this ray
enters into water then these parameters are λ' , n', v' and I' respectively. Which relation is correct
from following-

(1) λ = λ'
(2) n = n'
(3) v = v'
(4) I = I'
5) A watch shows the time as 3:25. What will be the time that appears when seen through a plane
mirror :

(1) 9:35
(2) 8:35
(3) 8:25
(4) 7:35

6) A man is 180 cm tall and his eyes are 10 cm below the top of his head. In order to see this entire
height right from top to bottom, he uses a plane mirror kept at a distance of 1 m from him. The
height of the mirror from the ground :

(1) 180 cm
(2) 90 cm
(3) 85 cm
(4) 170 cm

7) Light incident normally on a plane mirror attached to a galvanometer coil retraces backwards as
shown in figure. A current in the coil produces a deflection of 3.5° of the mirror. What is the

displacement of reflected spot of light on a screen placed 1.5 m away?

(1) 10.5 cm
(2) 18.31 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 3 cm

8) A ray of light is incident on the plane mirror at rest. The mirror turn π/8. The reflected ray must
have turned through :-

(1) 90°
(2) 45°
(3) 22.5°
(4) 11.25°

9) By what angle mirror should be rotated in given diagram to get reflected ray along +x Axis
(1) 45°
(2) 30°
(3) 22.5°
(4) 90°

10) Find out the velocity of image with respect to mirror

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) A ray of light strikes a silvered surface inclined to another one at an angle of 90° then the
reflected ray will turn through :

(1) 0°
(2) 45°
(3) 90°
(4) 180°

12) An object is at a distance of 0.5 m in front of a plane mirror. Distance between the object and
image is :-

(1) 0.5 m
(2) 1 m
(3) 0.25 m
(4) 1.5 m

13)

Which of the following charge is not possible -

(1) 3.2 × 10–18 C

(2) 6.4 × 10–19 C
(3) 3.2 × 10–20 C
(4) None of these

14) Two spheres A and B of exactly same mass are given equal positive and negative charges
respectively. Their masses after charging
(1) remains unaffected
(2) mass of A > mass of B
(3) mass of A < mass of B
(4) Nothing can be said

15) A & B are conducting spheres as shown in the fig. after closing key final charge on each will be :-

(1) 6Q, 15Q

(2)
Q, Q
(3) 17Q, 4Q
(4) None

16) Two uncharged metal spheres A and B are in contact as shown in the diagram. A negatively
charged rod is brought near to A, but not touching it. The two spheres are separated slightly and the
rod is then withdrawn. As a result of this :

(1) both the spheres acquire +ve charge

(2) both the spheres acquire –ve charge
(3) both spheres will have zero charge
(4) A acquires + ve and B acquires –ve charge

17) Assertion (A) : Two similarly charged bodies may attract each other.
Reason (R) : When charge on one body (Q) is much greater than that on another (q) and they are
close enough to each other, then force of attraction between Q and induced charges exceeds the
force of repulsion between Q and q.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
18) Two point charges +3µC and +8µC repel each other with a force of 40N. If a charge of –5µC is
added to each of them, then the force between them will become :-

(1) –10 N
(2) +10 N
(3) +20 N
(4) –20 N

19) There are two charge +8 µC and –20 µC kept 30 cm. apart, the ratio of magnitude of forces
acting on them will be :-

(1) 2 : 5
(2) 8 : 20
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 5 : 2

20) Electrostatic force between two charges is 100 N in air when both charges are placed in medium
then electrostatic force between them is 80 N then the value of ∈r is (∈r = relative permittivity)

(1) 1
(2) 1.25
(3) 2
(4) 0.8

21) Force between two identical spheres charged with same charges is F. If 25% charge of one
sphere is transferred to the other spheres then the new force will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Two charges 1 μC and 4 μC are fixed at distance 3m apart. At what distance from charge 1 μC a
proton must be placed so that it will be in equilibrium

(1) 1.5 m
(2) 2 m
(3) 1 m
(4) 0.5 m
23) For system shown in figure, find relation between θ1 & θ2 :-

(1) θ1 > θ2
(2) θ1 < θ2
(3) θ1 = θ2
(4) θ1 ≥ θ2

24) A 10C charge in placed near a neutral body whose other end is earthed. The dielectric constant
of neutral Body is 5 then find the maximum charge induced on the neutral body.

(1) 8 C
(2) 12 C
(3) –8 C
(4) –2 C

25) Two point electric charge placed at a distance 9 cm. In air electrostatic force between them is
5N. Now they are placed. In water (εr = 81) at distance 1 cm from each other. Net force between
them will be :-

(1)
N

(2)
N
(3) 5 N

(4)
N

26) Two similar very small conducting spheres having charges 40 μC and –20 μC are some distance
apart. Now they are touched and kept at the same distance. the ratio of the initial to the final force
between them is :

(1) 8 : 1
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 1 : 8
(4) 1 : 1

27) Two small spheres each having the charge +Q are suspended by insulating threads of length L
from a hook. This arrangement is taken in space where there is no gravitational effect, then the
angle between the two suspensions and the tension in each will be :
(1)
180º,

(2)
90º,

(3)
180,
180,
(4)

28) Two point charges +9q and +q are kept 16 cm apart. Where should a third charge Q be placed
between them so that the system remains in equilibrium ?

(1) 24 cm from + 9q
(2) 12 cm from + 9q
(3) 24 cm from + q
(4) 12 cm from + q

29) The figure shows four situations in which charges as indicated (q>0) are fixed on an axis. In
which situation is there a point to the left of the charges where an electron would be in equilibrium ?

(1) 1 and 2
(2) 2 and 4
(3) 3 and 4
(4) 1 and 3

30) A force F is given by F = at + bt2, where t is time. The dimension of a and b are :

(1) [MLT–3] and [MLT–4]

(2) [MLT–4] and [MLT–3]
(3) [MLT–1] and [MLT–2]
0
(4) [MLT–2] and [MLT ]

31) Density of wood is 0.5 gm/cc in in CGS system of units. The corresponding value in MKS unit is :

(1) 500
(2) 5
(3) 0.5
(4) 5000

32) The resistance is where V = (100 ± 5) volt and I = (10 ± 0.2) ampere. What is the total
error in R ?

(1) 5 %
(2) 7 %
(3) 5.2 %

(4)

33) If a physical quantity X is represented by , then maximum percentage error in

measurement of X, if respective errors in measurement of physical quantities a, b, is 1% and of c, d
is 2% :-

(1) 5%
(2) 9%
(3) 8%
(4) 12%

34) The figure shows a situation when the jaws of vernier are touching each other. If least count of

vernier is 0.1 mm, the zero error in the vernier calliper is :-

(1) + 0.5 mm
(2) – 0.5 mm
(3) + 0.3 mm
(4) – 0.3 mm

35) Assertion (A): Number of significant figure in 0.005 is one and that in 0.500 are three.
Reason (R): This is because zero are not significant figure.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

SECTION-B

1)

For which value of θ, final reflected ray becomes antiparallel to incident ray :-
(1) 60°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) all of these

2) A man approaches a vertical plane mirror at speed of 2 m/s. Then the rate at which he approaches
his image is

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 1 m/s
(4) zero

3) Choose the correct mirror - image of figure given below :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Figure shows a plane mirror on to which a light ray is incident. If the incident light ray is turned
by 10° and the mirror by 20°, as shown, find the angle turned by the reflected ray.

(1) 50° Clockwise

(2) 50° Anticlockwise
(3) 30° Clockwise
(4) 30° Anticlockwise

5) A mirror is inclined at an angle θ with the horizontal. If a ray of light is incident at an angle θ,
then the reflected ray makes the following angle with the horizontal :-

(1) θ
(2) 2θ
(3) θ/2
(4) none of the above

6) Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD as shown in the figure. The force on

the charge kept at the centre O is :-

(1) zero
(2) along the diagonal AC
(3) along the diagonal BD
(4) perpendicular to side AB

7) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II
0 0 0 0
(I) ε0 (a) MLTA

(II) εr (b) [M1L1T–2]

(III) E (c) [M–1L–3T4A2]

(IV) F (d) [M1L1T–3A–1]

(1) I-c, II-a, III-b, IV-d
(2) I-a, II-c, III-b, IV-d
(3) I-b, II-c, III-a, IV-d
(4) I-c, II-a, III-d, IV-b

8) Two equal point charges A and B are R distance apart. A third point charge placed on the
perpendicular bisector at a distance 'x' from the centre will experience maximum electrostatic force
when :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

9) Two spherical conductors B and C having equal radii and carrying equal charges in them repel
each other with a force F when kept apart at some distance. A third spherical conductor having
same radius as that of B but uncharged is brought in contact with B, then brought in contact with C
and finally removed away from both. The new force of repulsion between B and C is :-

(1) F/4
(2) 3F/4
(3) F/8
(4) 3F/8

10)

Two point charges and 5µC are kept at point (1,2,3)m and (4,6,8)m respectively. coulomb
force on 5µC charge :-

(1)
36 × 10–5

(2)
2 × 10–5

(3)
1 × 10–5

(4)
4 × 10–5

11)

For the arrangement shown below, choose the correct statement :-

(1) If q is + ve, P is a position of stable equilibrium for displacement along AB

(2) If q is + ve, P is a position of unstable equilibrium for displacement along CD
(3) If q is – ve, P is a position of unstable equilibrium for displacement along AB
(4) All of the above

12) An electroscope is given a positive charge, causing its foil leaves to separate. When an object is
brought near the top plate of the electroscope, the foils separate even further. We conclude :
(1) that the object is positively charged
(2) that the object is electrically neutral
(3) that the object is negatively charged
(4) none of these

13) Two identical charged spheres are suspended by strings of equal lengths. The strings make an
–3
angle of 30° with each other. When suspended in a liquid of density 0.8 g cm , the angle remains the
–3
same. If density of the material of the sphere is 1.6 g/cm , the dielectric constant of the liquid is :-

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

14) The main scale of a vernier calliper has n divisions/cm. n division of a vernier scale coincide with
(n – 1) division of main scale. The least count of vernier calliper is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) In an experiment to measure diameter of a steel ball, a screw gauge having 50 division on its
circular scale is used. If instrument has zero error of –0.03 mm and reading of screw gauge during
measurement is as shown in figure, then correct measurement of diameter is:

(1) 6.35 mm
(2) 11.25 mm
(3) 5.89 mm
(4) 5.536 mm
 CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) For the reaction, 2A + B → 3C + D, which of the following does not express the reaction rate :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2)

For a reaction of type aA + bB Products, is equal to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3)

In the following reaction A B + C, rate constant is 0.001 Ms–1. If we start with 1 M of A, then
concentration of A and B after 10 minutes are respectively

(1) 0.5 M, 0.5 M

(2) 0.6 M , 0.4 M
(3) 0.4 M, 0.6 M
(4) 0.2 M, 0.8 M

4) For reaction A → B if

then order of reaction is

(1) 1
(2) 0
(3) 2
(4) 3

5) The rate constant of a reaction depends on

(1) temperature
(2) mass
(3) time
(4) all of these

6) For the reaction A → B rate increases 9 times if concentration of A is tripled. The order of reaction
:

(1) 2
(2) 1/3
(3) 3
(4) 3/2

7) For the reaction R → P, the concentration of reactant changes from 0.03 M to 0.02 M in 25
minutes. What will be the average rate of reaction

(1) 4 × 10–4 M min–1

(2) 2.5 × 10–3 M min–1
(3) 2 × 10–3 M min–1
(4) 3 × 10–2 M min–1

8) For the reaction

2A → B + 3C

if

the correct relation between k1, k2 and k3 is :

(1) k1 = k2 = k3
(2) 2k1 = k2 = 3k2
(3) 4k1 = k2 = 3k3

(4)

9) For given reaction A + B → C, when concentration of A is doubled R.O.R becomes 2.82 times &
when concentration of B is doubled R.O.R becomes 2 times. Find Rate law for the reaction :

(1) R = k[B]3/2[A]1
(2) R = k[A]2/3[B]1
(3) R = k[A]3/2[B]1
(4) R = k[A]1[B]2/3

10) Assertion - (A) : A fractional order reaction must be a complex reaction.

Reason - (R): Fractional order of rate-determining step equals to overall order of a complex
reaction.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

11) The experimental data for the reaction

2A + B2 → 2AB is

Exp. [A]0 [B2]0 Rate (mol L–1 s–1)

(i) 0.50 0.50 1.6×10-4

(ii) 0.50 1.00 3.2×10-4

(iii) 1.00 1.00 3.2×10-4

The rate equation for the above data is :
1 1
(1) r = k[A] [B2]
–1 1
(2) r = k[A] [B2]
1 –1
(3) r = k[A] [B2]
0 1
(4) r = k[A] [B2]

12) The reaction 2A + B → product follows the mechanism :-

2A A2 (fast)
A2+B → P(slow)
The order of the reaction is

(1) 1.5
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 2

13) For a reaction 2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3 if rate of formation of SO3 is 0.8 g/min. Then what will be rate
of Disappearance of SO2 :-

(1) 1.6 g/min

(2) 0.64 g/min
(3) 10–3 mol/min
(4) 10–4 g/min
14) Match the rate law given in column I with the dimensions of rate constants given in column II
and mark the appropriate choice

Column-I Column-II
0 –1 –1
a. Rate = k[NH3] i mol L s

b. Rate = k [H2O2] [I– ] ii L mol–1 s–1

3/2 –1
c. Rate = k [CH3CHO] iii s
1/2 –1/2 –1
d. Rate = k [C2H5CI] iv L mol s
(1) a→iv, b→iii, c→ii, d→i
(2) a→i, b→ii, c→iii, d→iv
(3) a→ii, b→i, c→iv, d→iii
(4) a→i, b→ii, c→iv, d→iii

15) The rate law for the reaction A + B → Product (P), is . What will be the order
of reaction if A is taken in excess.

(1) 2
(2) 2.5
(3) 1.5
(4) 0.5

16) The relationship between t50% and t90% for a zero-order reaction is :-

(1) t90% = 1.8 × t50%

(2) t90% = 2 × t50%
(3) t90% = 9 × t50%
(4) t90% = 5 × t50%

17)

In a reaction A2B3(g) → A2(g) + the pressure of reaction increases from 60 torr to 75 torr in
o
2.5 minutes. The rate of reaction at 27 C is :-

(1) 4 mol. L–1 min–1

(2) 4 atm. min–1
(3) 2.1 × 10–4 mol. L–1 min–1
(4) 4 × 10–4 mol. L–1. min–1

18) The hybrid state of C-atoms which are attached to a single bond with each other in the
following structure are :
CH2=CH–C≡CH
(1) sp2, sp
(2) sp3, sp
(3) sp2, sp2
(4) sp2, sp3

19) The IUPAC name of the compound is

(1) 2–Methyl cyclopent–1–en–2–ol

(2) 3–Methyl cyclopent–2–en–1–ol
(3) 2–Methyl cyclopent–2–en–1–ol
(4) 3–Methyl cyclopent–1–en–2–ol

20) Which nomenclature is not according to IUPAC system?

(1)

2-Methyl-3-phenylpentane

(2)
5-Oxohexanoic acid
(3) Br – CH2 – CH = CH2 1-Bromo-prop-2-ene

(4)

4-Bromo,2,4-di-methylhexane

21) Example of homocyclic compound is -

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

22) Which of the following pairs is homologue?

(1) CH3OH, CH3 – O – CH3

(2) CH3OH, CH3SH
(3) CH3–O–CH3, CH3–CH2–OH
(4) CH3OH, CH3CH2OH

23) Which is incorrect IUPAC name ?

(1) 3-Hydroxy-4-phenylbutanal
(2) 2,3-dibromo-1-phenylpentane
(3) 4-Iodo-2-methylphenol
(4) 2-Hydroxycyclopent-4-enone

24) Which of the following compound have 4 carbon atom in the parent chain ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Find out the saturated compound.

(1) CH3 – COOH

(2) CH2 = CH–CH = O

(3)

(4)

26) What is Homologue of

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) What is correct I.U.P.A.C name of following compound

(1) 5–Cyano–4–oxo–3–ketohexanamide
(2) 5–Cyano–4–formyl–3–ketohexanamide
(3) 5–Cyano–5–formyl–3–ketohexanamide
(4) 5–Cyano–4–formyl–3,2–diketohexamine

28) Which of the following compound is wrongly named?

(1)
2-Chloro pentanoic acid

(2)

2-Methyl hex-3-enoic acid

CH3CH2CH = CHCOCH3
(3)
Hex-3-en-2-one

(4)

4-Methyl pentanal

29) How many sp2 hybridized carbon atoms are present in the following compound ?

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 9

30) Number of 2° hydrogen in given compound

(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 8

31) The IUPAC name of the compound given below is :-

NC–CH2–CH2–CH2–COOH

(1) 4-Isocyanobutanoic acid

(2) 5-Isocyanopentanoic acid
(3) 4-Cyanobutanoic acid
(4) 5-Cyanopentanoic acid

32) Which of the following is hetero alicyclic compound?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) The IUPAC name of given compound is :

(1) 2-Bromo-1-methyl cyclohexene

(2) 6-Bromo-1-methyl cyclohexene
(3) 1-Bromo-2-methyl cyclohexene
(4) 1-Bromo-2-methyl cyclohex-2-ene

34)

Column-II
Column-I no. of C
Compound in parent
carbon chain

A P 6

B Q 7

C R 3

D S 2

A B C D

(1) P Q R S

(2) S R Q P

(3) Q P R S

(4) Q R S P
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) The correct IUPAC name is :-

(1) 2-methyl butanoic acid

(2) 2-Ethyl prop-2-enoic acid
(3) 2-carboxybutene
(4) 2-Ethyl propanoic acid
 SECTION-B

0.5
1) For a particular reaction, the rate expression is given as r = k[A] [B] .If the volume of vessel is
reduced to one-fourth of the initial volume, the rate of reaction will.

(1) become 1/4 times

(2) become 8 times
(3) become 1/8 times
(4) remains unaffected

2) For the reaction, 4A + B → 2C + 2D.

The statement not correct is :-

(1) The rate of disappearance of B is one fourth the rate of disappearance of A.

(2) The rate of appearance of C is half the rate of disappearance of B.
(3) The rate of formation of D is half the rate of consumption of A.
(4) The rates of formation of C and D are equal.

3) For an elementary reaction

A + B → C + D the molecularity is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) unpredictable

4)

Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Order may be positive, negative, zero or fractional

(2) Rate Law for any reaction cannot be predicted by merely looking at balanced chemical equation
(3) Zero order reaction can be an elementary reaction
(4) Reactions with the molecularity three are very rare

5)

For the reaction at 500 K,

NO2(g) + CO(g) → CO2(g) + NO(g), the proposed mechanism is as below :-
(i) NO2 + NO2 → NO + NO3 (slow)
(ii) NO3 + CO → CO2 + NO2 (fast)
then rate law for the reaction is :-

1 1
(1) r = K[NO2] [CO]
2 1
(2) r = K[NO2] [CO]
2
(3) r = K[NO2]
(4) r = K[CO]1

2 1/2
6) For gaseous reaction having rate law r = k [A] [B]
Match the following

Column-I Column-II
(change) (Effect on rate)

(A) Concentration of both A, B is doubled (P) 4 times

Pressure of only B reduced to one-

(B) (Q) 5.64 times
fourth

(C) Volume is decreased to one-third (R) 0.5 times

(D) Concentration of only A is doubled (S) 15.57

(1) A → Q, B → R, C → P, D → S
(2) A → P, B → R, C → S, D → Q
(3) A → Q, B → R, C → S, D → P
(4) A → P, B → S, C → P, D → Q

7)
is an example of ........ order.

(1) Zero
(2) second
(3) third
(4) pseudo first order

8) The value of rate constant for a reaction is 10.8 × 10–5 mol L–1 s–1, the order of reaction is :-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 0.5

9) The IUPAC name of the structure is :-

(1) 3–Isopropyl–5,5–dimethyl heptane

(2) 5–Ethyl–3,3,6–trimethyl heptane
(3) 3,3–Dimethyl–5–isopropyl heptane
(4) 3–Ethyl–2,5,5–trimethyl heptane
10) Which of the following IUPAC name is incorrect ?

(1)

3,6-Dimethyl cyclohexene

(2)
1,6-Dimethyl cyclohexene

(3)
6,6-Dimethyl cyclohexene

(4)
1,5-Dimethyl cyclohexene

11) Find out 1°, 2°, 3°, 4° carbon in following structure?

(1) 4,2,1,1
(2) 5,1,1,1
(3) 3,3,1,1
(4) 5,2,1,0

12) Which of the following are correctly matched :-

(a) Trimethyl amine (CH3)3 CNH2
(b) Isobutyronitrile (CH3)2 CHCH2CN

(c) Secondary butyl alcohol

(d) Acetonitrile CH3–C≡N

(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) c and d
(4) a and d

13) Number of olefinic bonds and triple bonds in the following compound respectively :

(1) 2, 2
(2) 3, 1
(3) 3, 2
(4) 2, 1

14) Match the following :

Column-II Column-III
Column-I
(Common Name) (IUPAC Name)

(A) (P) Isobutyl alcohol (w) Propan-2-ol

(B) (Q) Terbutyl alcohol (x) 2-methyl propan-2-ol

(C) (R) sec-butyl alcohol (y) Butan-2-ol

(D) (S) Isopropyl alcohol (z) 2-methyl propan-1-ol

(1) A–P,w; B–R,z; C–Q,x; D–S,y

(2) A–S,w; B–P,z; C–Q,x; D–R,y
(3) A–S,x; B–P,z; C–Q,w; D–R,y
(4) A–S,w; B–P,x; C–Q,y; D–R,z

15) Statement-I : Isopropyl amine is secondary amine.

Statement-II : In isopropyl amine nitrogen atom is attached to 2° carbon.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) External appearance of an organism is called :-

(1) Genotype
(2) Phenotype
(3) Allele
(4) Factor

2) Mendel selected :-

(1) 7 true breeding pea plant varieties

(2) 12 true breeding pea plant varieties
(3) 14 true breeding pea plant varieties
(4) 10 true breeding pea plant varieties

3) Mendel proposed that something was beings stably passed down, unchanged, from parent to
offsprings through gametes, over successive generation. He called these things as

(1) Factors
(2) Genomes
(3) Genes
(4) Alleles

4) Inheritance is the process by which characters are passed from :-

(1) Cell to cell

(2) Zygote to cells
(3) Parent to progeny
(4) Husband to wife

5) If Tt pea plant is crossed with Tt pea plant, then the offsprings will be -
A- 75% plants are Tall
B- 25% plants are Dwarf
C- 50% plants are homozygous
D- 50% plants are heterozygous
Select the correct option -

(1) Only A, C, D
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) Only B, C, D
(4) Only A, B, C

6) In dihybrid Mendelian cross how many types of genotype and phenotype will be obtained :-

(1) 4 and 9 respectively

(2) 16 and 4 respectively
(3) 9 and 4 respectively
(4) 4 and 16 respectively

7) How many zygotic combinations are possible between a cross AaBBCcDd × AAbbCcDD ?

(1) 32
(2) 128
(3) 64
(4) 16

8) Recessive traits are seen due to :

(1) Formation of non functional enzyme

(2) Enzyme is not produced
(3) (1) and (2) both
(4) Formation of functional enzyme

9) A diploid organism is heterozygous for 6 loci, how many types of gametes can be produced ?

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 2
(4) 64

10) An organism's genetic constitution is called its :-

(1) Genotype
(2) Phenotype
(3) Holotype
(4) Homozygous

11) Dominating trait of pea plant which is studied by Mendel is :-

(1) Tall plant and wrinkle seed

(2) Inflated pod and yellow pod
(3) Round seed and white flower
(4) Violet flower and yellow colour seed

12) Law of segregation is also known as :-

(1) Law of dominance

(2) Law of Independent assortment
(3) Law of purity of gametes
(4) Incomplete dominance

13) When different form of gene present on same locus in homologous chromosome then it is called:

(1) Pseudoallele
(2) Non Allele
(3) Allele
(4) Jumping gene

14) A diploid organism is heterozygous for 3 loci & homozygous for 2 loci, produces how many types
of gametes?

(1) 128
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 14
15) In a typical monohybrid cross, plants of which generation show same phenotype and genotype ?

(1) Parental generation

(2) First filial generation
(3) Second filial generation
(4) Third filial generation

16) About genotype Rr select out the incorrect statement

(1) Allelic gene pair

(2) They control common character
(3) They share common locus
(4) can be present on non homologous chromosome

17) "When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of characters is
independent of the other pair of characters". This explains :-

(1) Law of dominance

(2) Law of segregation
(3) Law of independent assortment
(4) Postulate of paired factors

18) Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Flower colour (P) Violet/white

(B) Pod colour (Q) Green/yellow

(C) Stem Height (R) Tall/Dwarf

Code :-
(1) A → P; B → Q; C → R
(2) A → P; B → R; C → Q
(3) A → R; B → Q; C → P
(4) A → R; B → P; C → Q
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19)
Choose the correct option regarding F1 -

(1) All offsprings are similar to both parents genotypically

(2) All offsprings are similar to both parent phenotypically
(3) All offsprings are similar to either parent genotypically
(4) All offspring are not similar to either parent genotypically

20)

Which of the following is correct :

(1) Homozygous – Mm
(2) Heterozygous – NN
(3) Hemizygous – er
(4) Heterozygous – AA

21) Mendel's work remain unrecognised till 1900 due to all except :-

(1) His work could not be widely publicised

(2) His work was not supported with required data
(3) He could not provide any proof for existence of factors
(4) His concept of genes as stable and discrete units was not accepted by his contemporaries

22) A heterozygous tall plant is crossed with homozygous dwarf plants then find out percentage of
homozygous tall plants :-

(1) 100%
(2) 50%
(3) 0%
(4) 25%

23) A human male is heterozygous for autosomal gene A and B. He is also hemizygous for hemophilic
gene h. What proportion of his sperm will be abh :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

24) If 120 plants are produced on crossing pure red and pure white flower pea plants, then the ratio
of offsprings is –

(1) 90 Red : 30 White

(2) 30 Red : 90 White
(3) 60 Red : 60 White
(4) All Red

25) In Human, the brown eye colour is dominant over blue eye colour. A blue eye woman marries a
brown eye man whose mother had blue eye colour. What is the probability of their children having
brown eye colour?

(1)

(2)

(3) 1

(4)

26) What is the probability of gamete having atleast dominant allele in gametes formed from
genotype AaBb?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 1

27) What is the probability of getting new phenotypes in F2 generation of a dihybrid cross?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) A self -fertilizing trihybrid plant forms:

(1) 8 different gametes and 32 zygotes

(2) 8 different gametes and 64 zygotes
(3) 4 different gametes and 16 zygotes
(4) 8 different gametes and 16 zygotes

29) In a dihybrid heterozygous plant, How many types and in what ratio the gametes are produced
?

(1) 4 types in the ratio of 9:3:3:1

(2) 2 types in the ratio of 3:1
(3) 3 types in the ratio of 1:2:1
(4) 4 types in the ratio of 1:1:1:1

30) Which of the following Mendelian crosses will produce phenotypes in a 3 : 1 ratio ?

(1) TT × tt
(2) Tt × tt
(3) Tt × TT
(4) Tt × Tt

31) Assertion :- By looking at the dominant phenotype we cannot tell its genotype.
Reason :- A dominant phenotype can have two possible genotypes.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false

32) Assertion: In a monohybrid cross F1 generation indicates recessive characters.

Reason: Dominance occurs only in homozygous state.

(1) Both Assertion and the Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the Reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

33) Statement-I : Genetics deals with the inheritance, as well as the similarity of characters from
parents to offsprings.
Statement-II : Variations is the degree by which progeny differ from their parents.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

34) Statement-I : Gene contain the information that is required to express a particular trait in an
organism.
Statement-II : Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as alleles.
(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

35) Statement-1 : Recessive trait is always form due to functional enzyme.

Statement-2 : The modified allele is generally the recessive allele.

(1) Both statement-1 and Statement-2 are correct.

(2) Both statement-1 and Statement-2 are incorrect.
(3) Only statement-1 is correct.
(4) Only statement-2 is correct.

SECTION-B

1) In the cross AaBb × Aabb, the genotype AABb: AaBB: aabb and aaBb will be obtained in the ratio
:-

(1) 1 : 0 : 2 : 1
(2) 2 : 1 : 4 : 0
(3) 1 : 0 : 1 : 1
(4) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2

2) Which of the following is incorrect for garden pea?

Character Genotype Phenotype

Homozygous
(1) Flower position Terminal
or heterozygous

Homozygous
(2) Seed colour Yellow
or heterozygous

Homozygous
(3) Pod colour Green
or heterozygous

Homozygous
(4) Pod shape Inflated
or heterozygous
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) When we make a cross between AABBCcDd with AABBCcDd then find out the phenotypic ratio we
obtained in next generation ?

(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 1
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 : 1

4) The law of dominance is used to explain the expression of only one of the parental characters in a
monohybrid cross in ..... and the expression of both in ..... .

(1) F1 and F2
(2) F2 and F3
(3) F1 and F3
(4) F2 and F1

5) The figure given below is of experimental technique of Mendel. Select the option giving correct

identification of A, B & C :-

A-Artificial cross pollination;

(1) B-Hybrid offsprings;
C-Emasculation.
A-Emasculation;
(2) B-Bagging & tagging;
C-Hybrid offsprings.
A-Emasculation;
(3) B-Artificial cross pollination;
C-Hybrid offsprings.
A-Bagging & tagging;
(4) B-Emasculation;
C-Hybrid offsprings.

6) (A) A true breeding line is one that having undergone continuous self pollinatoin
(B) Show stable trait inheritances expression for several generation
(C) Mendel selected 14 true breeding pea plant varieties as pair which were dissimilar except for
one character with contrasting traits
(D) It increase homozygosity for every character that is under consideration
Regarding to pure lines select the correct statement

(1) A, B, C
(2) A, B, D
(3) A & C
(4) B & C

7) Mendelian monohybrid cross is not a presentation of –

(1) Monogenic inheritance

(2) Qualitative inheritance
(3) Quantitative inheritance
(4) Segregation

8) Find the incorrect statement regarding Mendel's experiment on garden pea :-

(1) He performed emasculation and bagging

(2) He made qualitative analysis of quantitative characters
(3) He repeated his experiments on test plants for several generation
(4) He also performed test cross and reciprocal cross

9) Read the following statements and choose the correct answer :-

(a) Wild allele is one which was originally present in population & recessive in nature.
(b) Any two factors which have same locus on homologous chromosomes are allelomorphs / Alleles
(c) Recessive allele is also called as mutant allele
(d) F1 plants of Monohybrid crosses were phenotypically dominant

(1) All are correct

(2) a, c & d are correct
(3) b, c & d are correct
(4) Only d is correct

10) In a breeding experiment between two parents showing the dominant and recessive phenotype
of the character, the offsprings showed equal proportions of the dominant & recessive phenotypes.
Which one of following statement must be true ?

(1) Both the parents produces same types of gametes

(2) Both the parents carried recessive alleles
(3) Both the parents were true breeding
(4) More than one options are correct

11) A plant of F1–generation with genotype “PPQqRR”. On selfing of this plant what is the
Phenotypic ratio in F2 –generation?

(1) 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(4) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1

12) Assertion: The law of dominance is used to explain the expression of only one of the
parental character in a monohybrid cross in the F1- generation.
Reason: The law of dominance explains the proportion of 3 : 1 obtained at the F1 – generation.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
Both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) The assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false.

13) Assertion: True breeding pea plant varieties can obtained by continuous self pollination.
Reason: Self pollination increases homozygosity.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

14) Statement-I : Phenotypic ratio of Monohybrid cross performed by Mendel was 3:1 in F2
generation.
Statement-II : Dwarf plant recover in F2 generation due to segregation of alleles.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

15) Statement-I : In Mendel's monohybrid cross the constrasting traits did not show any blending
at either F1 or F2 stage.
Statement-II : In monohybrid cross all the offsprings were either tall or dwarf, none were of
between in height.

(1) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are incorrect.

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following hormone is released in case of excess spermatogenesis ?

(1) ABP
(2) Testosterone
(3) FSH
(4) Inhibin

2) Assertion (A) : The presence of hymen is not a reliable indicator of virginity.

Reason (R) : In some women hymen persists even after coitus.
Choose the correct answer from the given options :-

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

3) The regions outside the seminiferous tubules called interstitial spaces contains :-

(1) Small blood vessels

(2) Interstitial cells
(3) Immunologically competent cells
(4) All of the above

4) Select the correct match from following table.

(A) ICSH (i) Released by hypothalamus

(B) FSH (ii) Stimulate leydig cells

(C) ABP (iii) Stimulate Sertoli cells

(D) GnRH (iv) Released by sertoli cells

(1) A – ii ; B – iii ; C – iv ; D – i
(2) A – iii ; B – ii ; C – i ; D – iv
(3) A – i ; B – ii ; C – iii ; D – iv
(4) A – iv ; B – iii ; C – ii ; D – i

5) The correct sequence of spermatogenetic stage leading to the formation of sperm in a mature
human testis is :-

(1) Spematogonia - Spermatids - Spermatocytes - Sperms

(2) Spermatocyte - Spematogonia - Spermatids - Sperms
(3) Spematogonia -Spermatocytes - Spermatids - Sperms
(4) Spermatids - Spermatocytes - Spematogonia - Sperms

6) The _____ are the first haploid cells during the process of spermatogenesis.

(1) Spermatogonia
(2) Primary spermatocyte
(3) Secondary spermatocyte
(4) Spermatids

7) Choose the correct order for the path of sperm from the testes to outside the body.

(1) vas deferens - epididymis - ejaculatory duct - penis

(2) epididymis - vas deferens - ejaculatory duct - penis
(3) ejaculatory duct - vas deferens - epididymis - penis
(4) penis - ejaculatory duct - epididymis - vas deferens

8) Vasa efferentia are the ductules those connect :-

(1) testicular lobules to rete testes

(2) rete testes to epididymis
(3) vas deferens to epididymis
(4) epididymis to urethra

9) Correct sequence for milk ejection is :

(1) Mammary tubule – Mammary duct – Lactiferous duct – Ampulla – Nipple

(2) Mammary duct – Mammary tubule – Ampulla – Lactiferous duct – Nipple
(3) Mammary tubule – Mammary duct – Ampulla – Lactiferous duct – Nipple
(4) Lactiferous duct – Mammary tubule – Mammary duct – Ampulla – Nipple

10) How many of the following structures in the given list contain 46 chromosomes ?

Spermatozoa, secondary oocyte, spermatogonia,

secondary spermatocyte, primary spermatocyte,
spermatid, polar body, primary oocyte, oogonia
(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Seven

11) Match the following and choose the correct answer :-

(A) Spermatogensis (i) Vagina

(B) Capacitation (ii) Ovary

(C) Folliculogenesis (iii) Testis

(D) Fertilisation (iv) Fallopian tube

(1) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)
(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(3) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
12) See the diagram and Identify A,B,C,D,E :-

A B C D E

(1) Infundibulum Ovary Fimbriae Cervix Vagina

(2) Fallopian tube Infundibulum Cervix Vagina Isthmus

(3) Isthmus Infundibulum Fimbriae Cervix Vagina

(4) Cervix Ovary Vagina Fimbriae Isthmus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) Assertion (A) : Breast feeding during the initial period of infant growth is recommended by
doctors.
Reason (R) : Colostrum contains antibodies (mainly IgA) absolutely essential to develop resistance
for the new born babies.
Choose the correct answer from the given options :-

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

14) Find the incorrect match w.r.t. increase in the levels of following hormones :-

(1) Oxytocin - Milk ejection

(2) Prolactin - Milk secretion
(3) Progesterone - Ductular development
(4) Luteinising hormone - Stimulates interstitial cells

15) How many sperm and ova will be formed from 100 secondary oocytes and 100 secondary
spermatocytes in human :-

(1) 50 ova & 200 sperm

(2) 50 ova & 100 sperm
(3) 100 ova & 200 sperm
(4) 100 ova & 400 sperm
16) Which of the following hormone responsible for concentration of testosterone inside the
seminiferous tubules ?

(1) ICSH
(2) ABP
(3) Inhibin
(4) Androgen

17) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.
Statement II : Spermatogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

18)

Which of the following statements about human sperms is correct.

(1) Acrosomes serves no particular functions.

(2) Acrosome has pointed end which penetrates egg membranes.
(3) The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolves the egg envelope facilitation fertilization.
(4) Acrosome serves sensory structures leading the sperm towards ovum.

19) Which hormone is responsible for growth of alveoli in breast :-

(1) Oestrogen
(2) Progesterone
(3) Prolactin
(4) Oxytocin

20) Which one of the following structure of sperm is mismatched?

Contain sperm lysins that help in

(1) Acrosome
fertilisation

(2) Nucleus Contain haploid genome

Proximal
(3) Starts cleavage in zygote
centriole

Contain numerous mitochondria,

(4) Tail which produce energy for movement
of tail
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21)

Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding male reproductive system but not female
reproductive system ?
(A) The primary sex organs are located in extra abdominal cavity
(B) Gametogenesis occurs life long in human
(C) In both male and female formation of haploid gametes occur
(D) Gametogenesis starts at puberty

(1) A, B, C & D
(2) B, C & D
(3) B & C
(4) A, B & D

22)

spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty due to significant increase in the secretion of -

(1) GnRH
(2) GnRH, LH
(3) LH, FSH
(4) FSH

23)

The part of Fallopian tube closest to the ovary is :

(1) Isthmus
(2) Infundibulum
(3) Cervix
(4) Ampulla

24) Assertion (A) : The second meiotic division of the secondary oocyte completes during
fertilisation.
Reason (R) : The second meiotic division is unequal and results in the formation of a second polar
body and a diploid ovum.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

25) Statement-I : Spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa by the process called
spermiogenesis.
Statement-II : Acrosome possesses numerous mitochondria which produces energy for the
movement of tail.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

26) Statement-I : The endometrium undergoes cyclic changes during menstrual-cycle.

Statement-II : FSH act on leydig cells and stimulate secretions of some factors which help in
spermiogenesis.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

27) Which part of the human sperm is called as energy chamber of sperm ?

(1) Head
(2) Middle
(3) Neck
(4) Tail

28) Read the given statements carefully :-

(a) 'A' is single.
(b) The shape of 'A' is like an inverted pear.
(c) 'A' opens into vagina
(d) The wall of 'A' has three layers of tissue. Here 'A' is

(1) Ovary
(2) Uterus
(3) Urethra
(4) Fallopian tube

29) Statement-I : Gonadotropin hormones act on testis and ovary and are steroid in nature.
Statement-II : At puberty spermatogenesis and oogenesis start in the presence of gonadotropin.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is false.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is true.
(3) Both Statement-I and statement-II are true.
(4) Both Statement-I and statement-II are false.

30) Inside the testis some immunologically competent cells are present. Exact location of these cells
is :-

(1) Inside the seminiferous tubules

(2) Region outside the seminiferous tubules
(3) Interstitial space
(4) Both (2) & (3)

31) In lactating female, milk is sucked out by baby from :

(1) Mammary duct

(2) Mammary lobe
(3) Lactiferous duct
(4) Areola

32) Which hormones maintains the functions of male sex accessory ducts and glands ?

(1) Androgens
(2) Ovarian hormones
(3) Inhibin
(4) Anti-mullerian hormone

33) The clitoris is a tiny finger like structure which lies :-

(1) At upper junction of two labia majora

(2) At upper junction of two labia minora
(3) On mons pubis
(4) In vagina

34)

In the given list how many are included in female reproductive system ?
Ovaries, oviducts, uterus, cervix, vagina, vulva.

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 3

35) Observe the following flow chart and choose right statement :-
(1) B causes release of E and E inhibits secretion of D (normally)
(2) C causes release of D and D concentrates E inside the seminiferous tubule
(3) A is GnRH, C is ICSH and B is FSH
(4) A is GnRH, C is LH and B is FSH

SECTION-B

1) Secretions of which of the following glands helps in lubrication of penis ?

(1) Prostate gland

(2) Bulbourethral gland
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Seminal vesicle

2) Which of the following is not a part of female accessory ducts ?

(1) Vagina
(2) Mons pubis
(3) Oviduct
(4) Uterus

3) Which layer of uterus undergoes cyclical changes during menstrual cycle ?

(1) Perimetrium
(2) Tunica vasculosa
(3) Myometrium
(4) Endometrium

4) Which statement is not correct for both testes and ovary ?

(1) Both are primary sex organs.

(2) Both are developed from mesoderm.
(3) Both are developed in abdominal cavity in Intra uterine life.
(4) At the time of birth both descend down into extra abdominal space.

5) Choose the correct option for filling up the blanks:-

The human male ejaculates about ____ million sperms during a coitus of which, for normal fertility, at
least _____ percent sperms must have normal shape and size and least _____ percent of then must
show vigorous motility.

(1) 100–200, 40, 60

(2) 200–300, 60, 40
(3) 300–400, 50, 30
(4) 500, 70, 70

6) How many of the following structures are present only in male? Vas deferens, Ejaculatory duct,
Urethra, Seminiferous tubule, Epididymis, Bartholin's gland, Corpus luteum, Tubule recti.

(1) Six
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Seven

7) The number of mammary lobes in a breast is :

(1) 10 - 20
(2) 15 - 20
(3) 20 - 25
(4) 30 - 40

8) How many seminiferous tubules are present in one testicular lobule ?

(1) Only one

(2) 1 – 3
(3) 250 – 750
(4) 500 – 1500

9) Which of the following is a group of ovarian steroid hormones?

(1) GnRH, FSH and LH

(2) FSH, LH and Estrogen
(3) Testosterone, Estrogen and Progesterone
(4) Estrogen and Progesterone

10) The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa by sertoli cells due to which hormone ?

(1) LH
(2) FSH
(3) Androgen
(4) ABP

11) Which glands secretion help to destroy the acidic medium present in male urethra :-

(1) Secretions of seminal vesicle

(2) Secretions of cowpers gland
(3) Secretions of prostate gland
(4) Secretions of preputial gland

12) Which of the following is not a secondary sex organ ?

(1) Epididymis
(2) Prostate gland
(3) Ejaculatory duct
(4) Testis

13) Which external genitalia of female is homologous to male penis ?

(1) Labia majora

(2) Labia minora
(3) Hymen
(4) Clitoris

14) The liberation of sperms from body of male is called as:

(1) Semination
(2) Spermiation
(3) Ejaculation
(4) Insemination

15)

The duct which carries sperms from testis to epididymis is

(1) Vasa efferentia

(2) Vasa differentia
(3) Ureter
(4) Seminiferous tubules
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 1 2 2 3 2 2 3 2 4 2 3 3 2 4 4 1 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 3 1 3 3 1 1 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 3

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 2 3 3 4 3 4 1 4 1 4 1 3 3 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 3 3 2 1 1 1 4 3 3 4 2 2 4 1 1 3 1 3 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 4 1 1 3 2 2 4 3 3 3 2 3 2

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 2 2 3 3 3 4 1 4 3 2 3 1 2 3

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 3 1 3 2 3 4 3 4 1 4 3 3 2 2 4 3 1 4 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 3 2 4 2 3 3 2 4 4 1 4 3 1 4

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 1 1 3 2 3 2 3 2 1 3 1 1 1

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 4 4 1 3 3 2 2 3 2 3 3 4 3 3 2 4 3 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 4 1 2 2 3 3 2 2 4 4 3 1 2 3 2

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 2 4 4 2 3 2 2 4 2 2 4 4 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

δ = 180 – 2i
= 180– 2× 70
=40

2)

3) Frequency depend upon the source

4) Frequency doesn't change with change in medium

5) Object time = 3 : 25
Image time = 11 – 3 : 60 – 25
= 8 : 35

7)

7' = ⇒ d=7× × 1.5 × 100 = 18.31 cm

10)

=
12)

Distance between object and image = 0.5 + 0.5 = 1m

15)

After redistribution - v1 = v2 and

q1 + q2 = Qi = 21Q

⇒ and

16)

18) New charges will be –2µC and +3µC.

In first case;

In second case;

∴
or F = –10N

22)
For F = 0, E = 0 for given point P.

(3 – x) = 2x ⇒ x = 1 m from 1 µ C.

23)
At equilibrium, tan θ =

⇒ tan θ ∝ (FE · some)

⇒ θ1 > θ2

24)

28)

;
x = 4 cm from (+q) and 12 cm from (+9q)

29)

For (1)
Let the electron be held at a distance x from +q charge.
∴ Distance of electron from –4q charge=(x + d)

For equilibrium
We can find value of x for which Fnet = 0 which means that electron will be in equilibrium.

For (2)

For equilibrium =
We can find value of x for which Fnet = 0 which means that electron will be in equilibrium.
In case (3) and (4) the electron will not remain at rest, since it experiences a net non-zero
force.

33)

=2×1+3×1+ ×2+ ×2
= 2 + 3 + 1 + 3 = 9%

34) As zero of V.S. lies toward left of main scale

⇒ ZE = – ve; 5th div. of V.S. coincides
⇒ ZE = – 5 × 0.1 mm = – 0.5 mm.
41) We know that magnitude as well as polarities of charges at points A and C are same.
Therefore, forces at O, due to these charges cancel each other. Moreover, polarities of the
charges at B and D are opposite; therefore force on charge kept at the centre is along the
diagonal BD.

43)
FNet = 2F cos (90º– θ) = 2F sin θ

For F to be max.

⇒ +

⇒ =0⇒x=

45)

46) if q is + ve
axial displacement along AB → stable equilibrium equational displacement along CD →
unstable equilibrium
if q is – ve
axial displacement along AB → unstable equilibrium equational displacement along CD →
stable equilibrium
Hence all of the above

49)

n(VSD) = (n – 1) MSD

1VSD = MSD
⇒ L.C. = 1 MSD – 1 VSD
 =

L.C. =

= =

50) MSR = 5.5 mm

Corrected reading = MSR + VSR – ZE

= 5.5 mm + 36 × 0.01 mm – (– 0.03) mm
= 5.89 mm

CHEMISTRY

53)

[A]t = [A]0 – Kt = 1–0.001 × 10 × 60

[A]t = 0.4 M
[B]t = 0.001 × 10 × 60 = 0.6 M

56)

66)

68)
So, Hybridisation of C–atoms which are attached to a single bond with each other is
→ sp2, sp

79)
 84)

87)

90) From slow step

1 1
r = K[NO2] [NO2]
2
= K[NO2]

93)

k = 10.8 × 10–5 mol L–1 s–1

general unit of k is (mol L–1)1–n s–1
order = n
⇒1–n=1⇒n=0

95) 3,3-Dimethyl cyclohexene

99)

Fact

100)
Isopropyl amine (1°)
Nitrogen attached to 2° carbon

BIOLOGY-I

104)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 53

105)
NCERT-XII, Pg. # 57

106) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 79

108) NCERT-XII Pg. # 60, 61

115)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 56

117)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 64

121) NCERT-XII, Page # 65

130) NCERT XII Pg. # 59

133) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 78(H), 69(E)

134) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 72(E), 80(H)

135) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 60

137)

NCERT XII pg no.72

139) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 73

140) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 71

142)

NCERT-XII, Pg.55

143) NCERT-XII, Pg # 71

148) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 70

149) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 74

 150) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 71(E), 79(H)

BIOLOGY-II

152)

NCERT XII Pg.# 30

153)

NCERT XII Pg.# 27

155)

NCERT XII Pg.# 33

156)

NCERT XII Pg.# 33

159)

NCERT XII Pg.# 31

160)

NCERT XII Pg.# 33 Fig 2.8

162)

NCERT XII Pg.# 29 Fig 2.3

163)

NCERT XII Pg.# 38

166)

NCERT XII, Pg # 43, para-3.1

167)

NCERT XII Pg.# 31

171)

NCERT Pg.# 26,27,31

172)

NCERT Pg.# 31

173)

NCERT XII Page# 29

174)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 36

175)

NCERT XII Page# 31 & 32

Middle part of sperm possesses numerous mitochondria for energy.

176)

NCERT XII Page# 30 & 32

180)

NCERT XII Page# 27

181) NCERT XIIth Pg.# 31

182) NCERT XII Page# 32

183) NCERT XII Page# 30

184)

NCERT page no. 45, XII

186)

NCERT XII Pg.# 28

187)
NCERT XII Pg.# 30

188)

NCERT XII Pg.# 30

190)

NCERT XII Pg.# 32

192)

NCERT XII Pg.# 31

193)

NCERT XII Pg.# 27

195) NCERT XII Page# 31 & 32