13-07-2025

1001CMD303056250003 MD

PHYSICS

1) Which of the following charges can not be present on an oil drop in Millikan's experiment :–

(1) 8 × 10–19 C
(2) 6.4 × 10–19 C
(3) 3.2 × 10–19 C
(4) 4.8 × 10–20 C

2) Consider a neutral conducting sphere. A positive point charge is placed outside the sphere. The
charge on the side of the sphere which is closed to point charge is :

(1) negative and distributed uniformly over its surface.

(2) negative and appears only at the point on the sphere closest to the point charge
(3) negative and distributed non-uniformly
(4) zero

3) Two charges are placed as shown in figure. Where should a third charge be placed so that it

remains at rest ?

(1) 30 cm from (–9e)

(2) 40 cm from 16e
(3) 210 cm from (–9e)
(4) (1) or (2)

4) Two charges 9e and 3e are placed at a separation r. The distance of the point where the electric
field intensity will be zero, is :–

(1)
from 3e charge

(2)
from 9e charge

(3)
from 3e charge

(4)
from 3e charge

5) Which one of the following pattern of electrostatic lines of force is not possible ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) In a region of space the electric field is given by = 8 + 4 + 3 . The electric flux through a
surface of area of 100 units in the y–z plane is :–

(1) 800 units

(2) 300 units
(3) 400 units
(4) 1500 units

7) Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of
surface charge densities of the spheres (σ1/σ2) is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Twelve point charges each of charge q coulomb are placed at the circumference of a circle of
radius r with equal angular spacing. If one of the charges is removed, the net electric field (in N/C)
at the centre of the circle is : (ε0 – permittivity of free space)

(1)

(2)
towards the center

(3)
away from center
(4)

9) According to Gauss law of electrostatics, electric flux through a closed surface depends on :

(1) the area of the surface

(2) the quantity of charges enclosed by the surface
(3) the shape of the surface
(4) the volume enclosed by the surface

10)

Two metal sphere of same mass are suspended from a common point by a light insulating string. The
length of each string is same. The spheres are given electric charge +q on one and +2q on the other.
Which of the following diagram best shows the resulting positions of spheres?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11)

Regular hexagon with side length 'a' is shown in fig. Find EA ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12)

Two point charge, each of q, are kept at centre of cube O and vertex A. Find from shaded face.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13)

An infinitely long uniform line charge distribution of charge per unit length λ lies parallel to the y-
axis in the y-z plane at

z= (see figure). If the magnitude of flux of the electric field through the rectangular surface

0
ABCD lying in the x-y plane with its centre at the origin is (ε = permittivity of free space) then
the value of n is.
(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 12
(4) 24

14) In the given fig. tension in string in equilibrium of the sphere B of charge 2μC and mass 10 mg is

: (ℓ = 1m)

(1) 10–3 N
(2) 10–4 N
(3) 10–5 N
(4) 10–6 N

15) Two bodies A and B are rubbed against each other then body A acquire a charge 2 μC. Now the
body B is taken closer to a neutral conducting sphere then after neutral sphere is grounded. After
grounding flow of electrons is from

(1) from sphere to the ground

(2) ground to sphere
(3) No flow of charge
(4) Both (1) and (2)

16) A charge particle q is seen from frame of references S1, S2 and S3 then :

(1) For S1 it produces electric field only

(2) For S2 it produces both electric and magnetic fields
(3) For S2 it produces electric field only
(4) For S3 it produces electric and magnetic field but no EMW.

17) Statement-I : At macroscopic level charge appears to be continuous and quantisation can be
ignored.
Statement-II : Charge on a body increases or decreases in steps of 'e' and this step size is very
small.

(1) Statements-I & II are correct and statement-II correctly explains statement-I.
(2) Both statements are correct but statement-II does not explain statement-I.
(3) Both statements are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

18) Which of the following is correct regarding charge conservation. In light of equation
⇒ n → p + e + .

(1) Charge can be created or destroyed.

(2) Charge particles can be created.
(3) Charge particles can not be destroyed.
(4) Charge is always conserved for a system whether it is isolated or not.

19) In the given figure components of the electric field at the center C are Ex, Ey and Ez. Find the

value of –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) zero

20) In the figure two string systems in equilibrium are shown, one is vacuum and other one in
medium. Densities of spheres and medium are ρ and d respectively then permittivity of medium is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

21) A charge 2q is placed at the position (r, r, 0) then electric field at the point (–2r, r, 4r) is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) In the given figure three conducting spheres A, B and C are placed at the corners of an
equilateral triangle of side 'a'. Initially switch S1 and S2 are in open position. Now S1 is closed and
S2 is opened then S2 is closed and S1 is opened and then sphere 'C' is placed at the mid point M of
side of the triangle. Force on the sphere 'C' is (size of spheres is too small as compare to side a)

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) The value of cos(74°) is-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None
24)
equation of given line is :

(1) y =
y=
(2)

y=
(3)

y=
(4)

25) if y = find

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) The average value of alternating current I = I0 sinωt in time internal is :-

(1)

(2) 2i0

(3)

(4)

27) A stone is projected at angle with horizontal and it's height h and time t are related as :-
h = 20t – 5 t2 find maximum height attained by the stone ?

(1) 2 m
(2) 10 m
(3) 20 m
(4) 40 m

28) The following graph corresponds to which equation:-

(1) y = cosx
(2) y = 3cosx
(3) y = 3cos3x
(4) y = cos3x

29) Calculate sum of

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Find the value of of the function y = x3sin2x

(1) x3sin2x + x3cos2x

(2) x2cot2x + x3sin2x
(3) 3x2sin2x + 2x3cos2x
(4) 2x2sin2x + 3x3cos2x

31)

If θ1 + θ2 = 90° and θ1 = 2θ2, then value of sin2θ1 + cos2θ2 is :

(1) 1/2
(2) 1
(3) 3/2
(4) 2

32) Maximum and minimum magnitude of resultant of the two vectors of magnitude P and Q are in 3
: 1 ratio. Which relation is correct :-

(1) P = Q
(2) P = 2Q
(3) PQ = 1
(4) P = 4Q

33) If find :-

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3)
(4) None of these

34) If then angle between and will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) Vector sum of two forces of 8 N and 5 N cannot be :-

(1) 2 N
(2) 6 N
(3) 8 N
(4) 11 N

36) The maximum and minimum resultant of two forces acting at a point are 10N and 6N
respectively. If each force is increased by 3N, find the resultant of new forces when acting at a point
at an angle of 90° with each-other :-

(1)
(2) 11 N
(3)
(4) 8 N

37) If two forces act in opposite direction then their resultant is 10 N and if they act mutually
perpendicular then their resultant is 50 N. Find the magnitudes of both the forces. (in Newton)

(1) 50, 40
(2) 60, 70
(3) 30, 40
(4) 10, 20
38)

Three forces and are represented as shown. Each of them is of equal magnitude.

Column-I Column-II
(Combination) (Approximat Direction)

(i) (p)

(ii) (q)

(iii) (r)

(iv) (s)

Now match the given columns and select the correct option from the codes given below. (i)
(ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) p q r s
(2) s r q p
(3) q r p s
(4) r s p q
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

39) Two vectors and have equal magnitudes. If magnitude of + is equal to n times the
magnitude of – , then the angle between and is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Figure shows the orientation of two vectors and in the X-Y plane. If and .
Which of the following is correct ?

(1) a, b, p and q are all positive.

(2) a, p and b are positive while q is negative.
(3) a, q and b are positive while p is negative.
(4) a and p are positive while b and q are negative.

41) If & . Find the vector having the same magnitude as and parallel to
.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

42)

(1) A2–B2
(2) 0
(3) A2 + B2
(4) A2 + B2 + 2AB

43) What is the value of linear velocity, if and ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

44) Vector and are mutually perpendicular. Component of in the direction of will be
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
45) If two vector and are perpendicular to each other then value of
m will be-

(1) 1
(2) –1
(3) –3
(4) 2

CHEMISTRY

1) Unit of k for the rate law, R = k[A][B]0.5 are :-

(1) mol1/2 L–1/2 s–1

(2) mol1/2 L1/2 s–1
(3) mol-1/2 L+1/2 s–1
(4) mol1/2 L1/2 s+1

2) For the reaction, 2A + B → 3C + D, which of the following does not express the reaction rate :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Consider the reaction

If the rate of appearance of CO2 is

0.40 mol L–1s–1, the rate of disappearance of O2 is–

(1) 10 g L–1s–1
(2) 0.6 g L–1s–1
(3) 19.2 g L–1s–1
(4) 0.3 g L–1s–1

4) Consider the following hypothetical reaction which has the rate law :
rate = k[A]2[B][C]3
A(g) + B(g) + C(g) → D(g) + E(g)
Which of the following will produce the largest increase in the rate of the reaction ?

(1) Increasing the concentration of A by a factor of 3 while leaving B and C constant

(2) Increasing the concentration of B by a factor of 6 while leaving A and C constant
(3) Increasing the concentration of C by a factor of 2 while leaving A and B constant
(4) Increasing the concentration of C by a factor of 1.5 while leaving A and B constant

5) For 1st order homogeneous gaseous reaction, A → 2B + C the initial pressure was Pi while total
pressure after time 't' was Pt. The right expression for the rate constant K is terms of Pi, Pt and t is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

6) Assertion (A) : Unit of rate for a gaseous reaction is atm s–1.

Reason (R) : Concentration of gas is inversely proportional to its pressure (at constant
temperature)

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true and R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

7) If the activation energy for forward reaction is 75 KJ/mol and the ΔH is – 50 KJ/mol. What is the
activation energy of the reverse reaction

(1) 25 kJ/mol
(2) 50 kJ/mol
(3) 100 kJ/mol
(4) 125 kJ/mol

8) 75% of a first order reaction is completed in 30 minute. What is the time required for 93.75%
completion of the reaction (in minute) :

(1) 45
(2) 120
(3) 90
(4) 60

9) The reaction of formation of phosgene from CO and Cl2 is CO + Cl2 → COCl2. The proposed
mechanism is :-

(i)

(ii)
(iii) COCl + Cl2 COCl2 + Cl (slow)
Find the correct expression of rate law :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

10) Consider the following graph of the kinetic energy distribution among molecules at temperature

T. If the temperature is increased, how would the resulting graph

differ from the one above :-

(1) Both area I and II would increase

(2) Both area I and II would decrease
(3) Area I would increase and area II would decrease
(4) Area I would decrease and area II would increase

11) The rate constant for a first order reaction whose half life is 480 sec :-

(1) 1.44 ×10–3 sec–1

(2) 1.44 sec–1
(3) 0.72 × 10–3 sec–3
(4) 2.88 × 10–3 sec–1

12) SO2Cl2 → SO2 + Cl2 is a first order gaseous reaction with K = 2.303 × 10–5 sec–1. The % of SO2Cl2
decomposed after 90 minute is :
(100.054 = 1.13)

(1) 11.5
(2) 1.15
(3) 44.3
(4) 88.5

13) Consider following two reaction,

A → Product;

A → Product;
Units of k1 and k2 are expressed in terms of molarity (mol L–1) and time (sec–1) as:-
(1) sec–1, M sec–1
(2) M sec–1, M sec–1
(3) sec–1, M–1 sec–1
(4) M sec–1, sec–1

14) The rate constant of which of the following reactions is independent of concentration of the
reactants ?

(1) First order reactions

(2) Zero order reactions
(3) Second order reactions
(4) All of these

15) The following data is given for reaction between A and B;-

Which of the following are correct statements-

(a) Rate constant for the reaction is 1 sec–1
(b) Rate law of the reaction is k[A][B]
(c) Rate of reaction increases four times on doubling the concentration of both the reactant.

(1) a, b and c
(2) a and b
(3) b and c
(4) c alone

16) The rate of a reaction increases 4 times when concentration of reactant is increased 16 times. If
the rate of reaction is 4 × 10–6 mol L–1 s–1 when concentration of the reactant is 4 × 10–4. The rate
constant of the reaction will be:-

(1) 2 × 10–4 mol–1/2 L1/2 s–1

(2) 1 × 10–2 s –1
(3) 2 × 10–4 mol1/2 L–1/2 s–1
(4) 25 mol–1 L min–1

17) For a zero order reaction, the plot of dissociated concentration [A]0 – [A]t vs time is linear with :-

(1) +ve slope and zero intercept

(2) –ve slope and zero intercept
(3) +ve slope and non-zero intercept
(4) –ve slope and non-zero intercept
18) For a chemical reaction A → Products, the rate of disappearance of A is given by :

At very high concentration of A, the reaction is of ...... order with rate constant ....... .
(Assume K1, K2 are lesser than 1)

(1) I, K1/K2
(2) I, K2
(3) Zero, K1/K2
(4) II, K1/(K1 + K2)

19) If t60% = m × t40% (zero order)

and t50% = n × t75% (Ist order)
then value of m + n is :

(1) 1
(2) 2

(3)

(4)

20) Consider the data given below for hypothetical reaction X → Y:-

Rate
Time (sec)
(mol L–1 sec.–1)

0 2.2 × 10–3

20 2.2 × 10–3

40 2.2 × 10
–3

60 2.2 × 10–3
Which of the following is correct for above reaction (a = initial concentration)
0
(1) t1/2 ∝ a
(2) t1/2 ∝ a
–1
(3) t1/2 ∝ a
(4) Unpredictable

21) A leakage in Chapra university science lab released a radioactive isotope 50 times more than
safe limit for human exposure. If half life of isotope is 1 day, after how many days will it be safe for
scientist Laloo to enter the lab.

(1) 6 days
(2) 5 days
(3) 4 days
(4) 2 days
22) What is the slope of graph plotted between ln vs time for a Ist order reaction :

(1) K
(2) – K/2.303
(3) –K
(4) Zero

23) Statement (1) : The change in hybridization affects the electronegativity of carbon. The greater
the s character of the hybrid orbitals, the greater is the electronegativity.
Statement (2) : The relative electronegativity is reflected is several physical and chemical
properties of the molecules.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

24) In sulphur estimation 0.157 g of an organic compound gave 0.4813 g of barium sulphate. What is
the percentage of sulphur in the compound [Mw of BaSO4 = 233 g/mol] ?

(1) 42.10%
(2) 34.04%
(3) 56%
(4) 17.46%

25) A fragrance of flowers is due to the presence of some steam volatile organic compounds called
essential oils. These are generally insoluble in water at room temperature but are miscible with
water vapour. A suitable method for extraction of these oil from the flowers is :

(1) Distillation
(2) Crystallization
(3) Distillation under reduced pressure
(4) Steam Distillation

26) In Lassaigne's test for sulphur is an organic compound the violet coloration with sodium
nitroprusside is formed is due to-

(1) Na4[Fe(CN)5 NOS]

(2) Na3 [Fe(CN)5S]
(3) Na2[Fe(CN)5NOS]
(4) Na3Fe(CN)6

27) Statement (1) : The presence of weaker π bonds make alkenes less stable then alkanes.
Statement (2) : The strength of the double bond is greater than that of carbon-carbon single bond.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

28) The correct IUPAC name of following compound is

(1) 4-Methyl-2-nitro-5-oxohept-3-enal
(2) 4-Methyl-5-oxo-2-nitrohept-3-enal
(3) 4-Methyl-6-nitro-3-oxohept-4-enal
(4) 6-formyl-4-methyl-2-nitro hex-3-enal

29) The total number of mono bromo derivatives formed by the alkanes with molecular formula
C5H12 is :-
(Excluding stereo isomers)

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 8
(4) 7

30) During halogen test, sodium fusion extract is boiled with concentrated HNO3 to :-

(1) Remove unreacted sodium

(2) Decompose cyanide or sulphide of sodium
(3) Extract halogen from organic compound
(4) Maintain the pH of extract

31) Assertion (A) : Thin layer chromatography is an adsorption chromatography.

Reason (R) : A thin layer of silica gel is spread over a glass plate of suitable size in thin layer
chromatography which act as an adsorbent.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

32) The IUPAC name of the following compound is :-

(1) 3,5-Dimethyl-4-propylhept-6-en-yne
(2) 3-Methyl-4-(3-methylprop-1-enyl)-1-heptyne
(3) 3-Methyl-4-(1-methylprop-2-enyl)-1-heptyne
(4) 3,5-Dimethyl-4-propyl hept-1-en-6-yne

33) Match List-I with List-II

List-II
List-I (Mixture)
(Separation Techniques)

(A) CHCl3 + C6H5NH2 I. Steam Distillation

(B) C6H14 + C5H12 II. Differential extraction

(C) C6H5NH2 + H2O III. Simple Distillation

Organic
(D) compound IV. Fractional Distillation
in H2O

A B C D

(1) IV I III II

(2) III IV I II

(3) II I III IV

(4) III I IV II
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) IUPAC name of the following compound is-

(1) 4-Bromo-2-methyl cyclopentane carboxylic acid

(2) 5-Bromo-3-methylcyclopentanoic acid
(3) 3-Bromo-5-methylcyclopentane carboxylic acid
(4) 3-Bromo-5-methylcyclopentanoic acid

35) Molecular formula C3H6O can show :-

(1) Position Isomerism but not functional group isomerism

(2) Position isomerism and metamerism
(3) Metamerism
(4) Functional group Isomerism

36) In which of following pairs of compounds is an example of metamerism-

 CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3 and

(1)

(2)
and

(3)
and

(4)
and

37) The compound which has one isopropyl group is -

(1) 2,2,3,3-tetra methyl pentane

(2) 2,2-Dimethyl pentane
(3) 2,2,3-Trimethyl pentane
(4) 2-Methyl pentane

38) , and
Number of secondary carbon atoms present in the above compounds respectively.

(1) 6,4,5
(2) 4,5,6
(3) 5,4,6
(4) 6,2,1

39) Which of the following is the first member of ester homologous series -

(1) Ethyl ethanoate

(2) Methyl ethanoate
(3) Methyl methanoate
(4) Ethyl methanoate

40) Match the column-

Column-I Column-II
(Common name) (Structural Formula)

Fumaric
(A) (P)
acid

Adipic
(B) (Q)
acid
 Maleic
(C) (R)
acid

Tartaric
(D) (S) HOOC–(CH2)4–COOH
acid

A B C D

(1) Q S P R

(2) Q S R P

(3) S Q P R

(4) S Q R P
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) The number of structural isomers of C5H10 is :-

(1) 10
(2) 11
(3) 12
(4) 13

42) Mono carboxylic acids are functional isomers of

(1) Esters
(2) Amines
(3) Ethers
(4) Alcohols

43) Which of the following compound has no isomer.

(1) CH3CH2CH2Cl
(2) CH3CHO
(3) CH2=CH–Cl
(4) Cl–CH2CH2–Cl

44) The structure of 4-methylpent-2-enal is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

45) The IUPAC name of ethylidene chloride is-

(1) 1-Chloro ethene

(2) 1-Chloro ethyne
(3) 1,2-Dichloro ethane
(4) 1,1-Dichloro ethane

BIOLOGY

1) Read the following statements regarding Mendelian inheritance and choose the correct option :-
(A) Mendel's experiments had small sample size which gave greater credibility to the data.
(B) A true breeding line shows a stable trait inheritance and expression for several generation.
(C) In a dissimilar pair of factors, one member of the pair dominates over the other.
(D) A recessive parental trait is expressed only in its heterozygous condition.
(E) Two alleles of a gene are located on homologous sites on homologous chromosomes.

(1) B alone is correct

(2) B, C and E are correct
(3) A and D are correct
(4) A, C and E are correct

2) Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product, when :-

(1) More than one gene influence the same phenotype.

(2) More than one phenotype is influenced by the same gene.
(3) More than one genotype in influenced by the same gene.
(4) More than one allele are there for a character.

3)

Column-A Column-B

I. Test cross A. 9:3:3:1

II. Monohybrid ratio B. Tt × tt

III. Back cross C. Tt × TT

IV. Dihybrid ratio D. 3:1

The correct match is :-
(1) I–B, II–C, III–A, IV–D
(2) I–C, II–D, III–A, IV–B
(3) I–B, II–D, III–C, IV–A
(4) I–B, II–D, III–A, IV–C

4) Genes do not occur is pair in :-

(1) Zygote
(2) Somatic cell
(3) Endosperm cells
(4) Gametes

5) Given diagram represent X and Y chromosome of male individual, find out correct combination:-

Homozygous Heterozygous Hemizygous

(1) P-allele G-allele M-allele

(2) G-allele M-allele P-allele

(3) P-allele Q-allele R-allele

(4) M-allele G-allele Q-allele

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Which statement is not correct ?

(i) Male individual is hemizygous for autosomal character
(ii) Seven Mendelian characters genes are located in chromosome number 1st, 3rd, 5th and 7th
(iii) Unmodified allele produce normal enzyme.
(iv) Skin colour is humans in an example of continuous variation
(v) In pea plant Green pod colour is a dominant character

(1) i, ii
(2) i, ii, iii, iv
(3) i, ii, iv
(4) i, ii, iv, v

7) Which is not correct ?

(1) Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product that it has information for.
The Law of Independent Assortment states that "When two pairs of traits are combined in a
(2)
hybrid, segregation of one pair of characters is independent of the other pair of characters".
(3) Starch synthesis in pea seeds is controlled by one gene.
(4) ABO blood group is an example of incomplete dominance.

8) When a homozygous fowl with black feathers is crossed with a homozygous fowl having white
feathers, the F1 hybrids are found to contain blue feathers. What is the number of individual having
blue feathers in F2 generation out of 2000 individuals ?

(1) 500
(2) 1000
(3) 1500
(4) 150

9) Mendels law of independent assortment holds good for genes situated on the ?

(1) Non homologous chromosome

(2) Homologous chromosome
(3) Extra nuclear genetic elements
(4) Same chromosome

10) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below :

Column-I Column-II

Multiple
A. (i) Tt × tt
allelism

B. Back cross (ii) Tt × TT

Human blood
C. Test cross (iii)
groups

Non-parental gene
D. Crossing over (iv)
combination

Non sister
E. Recombination (v)
chromatids
(1) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(v), E-(iv)
(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(v), E-(iv)
(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(v), D-(iv), E-(iii)
(4) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(v), E-(iii)

11) Which of the following conditions represents a case of co-dominant genes ?

(1) A gene expression itself, suppressing the phenotypic effect of its alleles.
Genes that are similar in phenotypic effect when present separately, but when together interact
(2)
to produce a different trait.
Alleles, both of which interact to produce a trait, which may or may not resemble either of the
(3)
parental types.
(4) Alleles, each of which produces an independent effect in a heterozygous condition.

12) Which of the following characteristics represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in humans?
a. Dominance
b. Co-dominance
c. Multiple allelism
d. Incomplete dominance
e. Polygenic inheritance

(1) b, c and e
(2) a, b and c
(3) b, d and e
(4) a, c and e

13) The Punnett square shown below represents the pattern of inheritance dihybrid cross when
yellow (Y) is dominant over white (y) and round (R) is dominant over wrinkled (r) seeds:

YR Yr yR yr

YR F J N R

Yr G K O S

yR H L P T

yr I M Q U
A plant of type 'H' will produce seeds with the genotype identical to seeds produced by the plants of
:-
(1) Type M
(2) Type J
(3) Type P
(4) Type N

14) Sahiwal cow in ....a.... was developed by ...b... :

(1) a–Punjab, b–Natural Selection and Domestication

(2) a–Haryana, b–Natural Selection and Artificial Selection
(3) a–Haryana, b–Artificial Selection and Domestication
(4) a–Punjab, b–Artificial Selection and Domestication

15) Mendel's principle of segregation was based on the separation of alleles in the garden pea
during :-

(1) Pollination
(2) Embryonic development
(3) Seed formation
(4) Gamete formation

16) Which of the following statements is correct in describing the terms monohybrid cross and
dihybrid cross ?
(1) A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross involves two parents
A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters that are being
(2) studied, and a monohybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for only one
character being studied
A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation, whereas a dihybrid cross is performed for
(3)
two generations
(4) A monohybrid cross results in a 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio, whereas a dihybrid cross gives a 3 : 1 ratio

17) A cross between two individuals heterozygous for two pairs of genes was carried out. Assuming
segregation and independent assortment, the number of different genotypes and phenotypes
obtained respectively would be :-

(1) 4 and 9
(2) 6 and 3
(3) 9 and 4
(4) 11 and 4

18) In a plant one allelic pair is incompletely dominant and another allelic pair also incompletely
dominant then what will be percentage of offsprings with genotype (TtRr) by selfing of a plant with
genotype TtRr :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A cross is made between AaBB × AABb genotype individuals, then find out the correct option of
probabilities of following of springs :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) What will be the F2 phenotypic ratio of a dihybrid cross in which one character is leaf colour and
second character is flower colour in Antirrhinum majus :-
(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(2) 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
(4) 3 : 6 : 3 : 1 : 2 : 1

21) Assertion (A) : Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene.

Reason (R) : Dominance depends on the gene product and the production of a particular
phenotype.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

22) Statement-I:- The inheritance of dog flower is a good example to understand

incomplete dominance
Statement-II:- ABO blood group is good example of multiple allele.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

23) Total number of Genotypes and Phenotypes in a dihybrid test cross is

(1) 9
(2) 8
(3) 16
(4) 13

24) A cross between a homozygous dominant and a homozygous recessive individuals produces.

(1) 100% heterozygous offspring

(2) 50% homozygous dominant offspring
(3) 50% heterozygous recessive
(4) 100% homozygous recessive offspring

25) In a test cross, the unknown genotype is crossed with ?

(1) Homozygous dominant

(2) Heterozygous
(3) Homozygous recessive
(4) Any genotype

26) In a dihybrid cross, how many different types of gametes are produced by an individual with
genotype RrYy ?
(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 8

27) In a cross between Rryy and rrYy what is the probability of getting offspring with the phenotype
round and yellow seeds ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) A cross between a homozygous dominant (RR) and a Heterozygous plant (Rr) produces offspring.
What is phenotypic ratio.

(1) 1 : 1
(2) All dominant
(3) 3 : 1
(4) 1 : 2 : 1

29) In a monohybrid Cross (Tt × Tt) 1000 offspring are produced. What is the expected number of
offspring with recessive phenotype if the recessive allele is lethal in the homozygous condition?

(1) 0
(2) 250
(3) 333
(4) 500

30) In a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous plant (Tt) for GA-mediated height increase,
what is the phenotypic ratio of taller to shorter offspring when treated with GA ?

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 1
(4) 2 : 1

31) In tomatoes, red fruit (R) is dominant to yellow (r) and tall plant (T) are dominant to dwarf (t). A
homozygous red, tall plant (RRTT) is crossed with a yellow, dwarf plant (rrtt), the F1 (RrTt) are
intercrossed. What fraction of the F2 generation will be red and tall

(1) 2/16
(2) 4/16
(3) 6/16
(4) 9/16

32) In pea plants purple flowers (P) are dominant to white (p). A purple-flowered plant is test-
crossed with a white flowered plant (pp). Out of 100 offspring, 52 are purple and 48 are white. What
is the genotype of the purple-floured plants.

(1) PP
(2) Pp
(3) Pp
(4) can not determine

33) A phenocopy differs from a genetic mutation because.

(1) It is always reversible

(2) It involves changes in the DNA sequence
(3) It is caused by environmental factors rather than genetic changes
(4) It only occurs in plants.

34) What is the purpose of adding yeast to Drosophila culture medium ?

(1) To enhance colour of the medium

(2) To provide additional nutrients for larvae
(3) To increase medium shelf life
(4) To reduce medium viscosity

35) Inheritance is-

(1) Process of acquiring new traits during an organism’s lifetime.

(2) The process by which genetic information is passed on from parents to progeny.
(3) The variation in traits due to environmental factors.
(4) The study of genetic mutations in organisms.

36) What does Mendel's law of Dominance state ?

(1) All alleles are equally expressed in a heterozygote.

(2) Both alleles are expressed equally in heterozygote.
Expression of only one of the parental characters in a monohybrid cross in the F1 and expression
(3)
of both in the F2.
That the alleles don't show any blending and that both the characters are recovered as such in
(4)
the F2 generation through one of these is not seen at the F1 stage.

37) In Snapdragon, if a pink-flowered plant is crossed with white flowered plant, what will be the
phenotypic ratio of offspring ?

(1) 1 Pink : 1 White

(2) 1 Red : 1 Pink
(3) 1 Pink : 1 Red
(4) All Pink

38) A diploid organism is heterozygous for 4 loci, how many types of gametes can be produced ?

(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 20
(4) 16

39) How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea plants that studied by Mendel in his
experiments ?

(1) Six
(2) Eight
(3) Seven
(4) Five

40) Alleles are :

(1) True breeding homozygous

(2) Different molecular forms of a gene
(3) Heterozygous
(4) Different phenotype

41) The term linkage was coined by

(1) W. Sutton
(2) T.H. Morgan
(3) T. Boveri
(4) G. Mendel

42) In his classic experiments on pea plants, Mendel didn't use-

(1) Flower position

(2) Seed colour
(3) Pod length
(4) Seed shape

43) Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel's hybridization experiments ?

(1) 1840-1850
(2) 1856-1865
(3) 1870-1877
(4) 1856-1863
44) The production of gametes by the parents, the formation of zygote, the F1 and F2 plants, can be
understood using ?

(1) Pie diagram

(2) A Pyramid diagram
(3) Punnet square
(4) Venn diagram

45) The percentage of Ab gamete produced by AaBb parent will be-

(1) 12.5
(2) 25
(3) 50
(4) 75

46)

In the evolutionary history of the animal kingdom, which of the following features have evolved for
the first time in phylum Platyhelminthes ?
A. Metameric segmentation
B. Organ level of organisation
C. Closed circulatory system
D. True coelom
E. Bilateral symmetry
Select the correct answer :

(1) B and E
(2) A, B, C and D
(3) A, C and D
(4) Only A and B

47) In which one of the following the genus name, its two character and its phylum are correctly
matched?

Genus name Two characters Class/ Phylum

(1) Ascaris (a) Body segmented

Annelida
(b) Males and females distinct

(2) Sycon (a) Choanocytes

Porifera
(b) Fertilization is internal

(3) Apis (a) Gills

Arthropoda
(b) Oviparous

(4) Aurelia (a) Cnidoblasts

Coelenterata
(b) Organ level of organization
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

48) Identify a, b, c, d

(a) (b) (c) (d)

Free
(1) Sexual Sessile Asexual
swimming

Free
(2) Sessile Asexual Sexual
swimming

Free
(3) Sessile Sexual Asexual
swimming

Free
(4) Asexual Sessile Sexual
swimming
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

49) Read the following statements :

(a) Water vascular system is observed in porifera.
(b) Molluscs are bilateral symmetrical and have Radula.
(c) Coelentrates are diploblastic animals.
(d) Feather like gills of Mollusca having respiratory and reproductive functions.
(e) Bioluminescence is well marked in ctenophores.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) c, d and e are correct

(2) a, b and c are correct
(3) a, d and e are correct
(4) b, c and e are correct

50) Statement-I :- Cnidoblast cells are used for anchorage, defense and for capture of prey.
Statement-II :- Cnidoblast present on tentacles and the body of cnidarians.

(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

(2) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct

51) Assertion: Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomates.

Reason: In aschelminthes, mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in between ectoderm and
endoderm.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true

52) Different types of excretory structures and animals are given below. Match them appropriately
and mark the correct answer from among those given below :-

Excretory organ Animals

A. Protonephridia (i) Prawn

B. Nephridia (ii) Cockroach

C. Malpighian tubules (iii) Earthworm

D. Green gland (iv) Flatworm

(1) D-i, C-ii, B-iii, A-iv
(2) B-i, C-ii, A-iii, B-iv
(3) D-i, C-ii, A-iii, B-iv
(4) B-i, C-ii, A-iii, D-iv

53) Select the correct matching of animal with its symmetry and type of body cavity :

Animal Symmetry Body cavity

(1) Jellyfish Radial Pseudocoelom

(2) Sycon Bilateral Acoelom

(3) Tapeworm Radial Acoelom

(4) Earthworm Bilateral Coelom

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

54) Out of following how many animals are examples of coelenterata ?

Sycon, Ctenoplana, Hydra, Aurelia, Adamsia, Spongilla, Taenia, Physalia, Gorgonia

(1) Five
(2) Six
(3) Seven
(4) Eight

55) Which of the following member in below list not belongs to Echinodermata ?
Sea pen, Sea fan, Sea fur, Sea hare, Sea lily, Sea anemone, Sea urchin, Sea cucumber.

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 3

56) The broad classification of kingdom animalia based on common fundamental features is given
below. Identify A, B, C and D in the flow chart :

Opti
A B C D
ons
(1) Porifera Bilateral Ctenophora Coelomate
(2) Porifera Radial Ctenophora Acoelomate
(3) Porifera Bilateral Ctenophora Coelomate
(4) Ctenophora Radial Porifera Acoelomate
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

57) Choose the wrong statement for phylum-Annelida

i. They are triploblastic, metamerically segmented and coelomate animals
ii. They possess longitudinal and circular muscles which help in locomotion
iii. Aquatic annelids like Nereis possess lateral appendages, parapodia, which help in swimming
iv. Nereis, an aquatic form, is monoecious
v. Earthworms and leeches are dioecious

(1) i, ii and v
(2) iii, iv and v
(3) iii and iv
(4) iv and v

58) Incomplete digestive tract is found in :-

(1) Sponges, Coelenterates, Ctenophores
(2) Coelenterates, Ctenophores, Annelids
(3) Coelenterates, Ctenophores, Platyhelminthes
(4) Annelida, Arthropoda, Chordata

59) Which of the following endoparasite of man is viviparous ?

(1) Ascaris
(2) Wuchereria
(3) Taenia
(4) Enterobius

60) Statement-I : Earthworms are mostly ectoparasites found in human beings.

Statement-II : Hooks & suckers are present in flatworms.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

61) Select the correct pair.

(1) Arthropoda - Silver fish

(2) Echinodermata - Cuttle fish
(3) Ctenophora-Jelly fish
(4) Mollusca - Star fish

62) An example of connecting link Peripatus belongs to the phylum :

(1) Aschelminthes
(2) Annelida
(3) Echinodermata
(4) Arthropoda

63) Infective stage of secondary host of liver fluke is :–

(1) Miracidium larva

(2) Metacercaria larva
(3) Cercaria larva
(4) Redia larva

64) Animals are classified on the basis of :-

(1) Arrangement of cells

(2) Body symmetry
(3) Nature of coelom
(4) All of these

65) In sponges which cells lined the spongocoel and the canals ?

(1) Porocytes
(2) Pinacocytes
(3) Choanocytes
(4) Archeocytes

66) The members of which of the following phyla are most primitive multicellular animals?

(1) Ctenophora
(2) Coelenterata
(3) Porifera
(4) Platyhelminthes

67) Sexual dimorphism is found in :-

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Aschelminthes
(3) Porifera
(4) Ctenophora

68)

In ctenophore fertilization is B while in Platyhelminthes it is A .

(1) A – external, B – internal

(2) A – internal, B – internal
(3) A – internal, B – external
(4) A – external, B – Both external and internal

69) Which insect is not useful for economic purpose ?

(1) Bombyx
(2) Laccifer
(3) Locusta
(4) Apis

70) The excretory organ of hemichordates is

(1) Flame cell

(2) Solenocytes
(3) Kidneys
(4) Proboscis gland

71) Match List-I with List-II.

 List-I List-II

Movement of food through

A. Amoeboid movement (i)
cytopharynx in Paramoecium

Movement of food through

B. Ciliary movement (ii)
digestive tract in human

Maintenance of water current in

C. Muscular movement (iii)
canal system of sponges

Macrophages and Leukocytes in

D. Flagellar movement (iv)
human body

Select the correctly matched option:

(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

72) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : All movements are locomotions but all locomotions are not movements.
Reason (R) : Locomotion always involves displacement of the organism from its place or location.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(A) is true, but (R) is false.
(3)

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

73) During muscular contraction, which of the following events occur ?

(a) 'H' zone becomes short or even may disappear.
(b) 'A' band retains its length.
(c) Length of 'I' band decreases.
(d) Actin filaments shorten while Myosin filaments do not shorten.
(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards towards the centre of A band.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) (a), (c), (d), (e) only

(2) (a), (b), (c), (e) only
(3) (b), (c), (d), (e) only
(4) (a), (b), (d), (e) only

74) Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Heart muscles are striated and involuntary.

(2) The muscles of hands and legs are striated and voluntary.
(3) The muscles located in the inner walls of the stomach, intestine are striated and involuntary.
(4) Muscles located in the reproductive tracts are unstriated and involuntary.

75) Which one of the following statements is correctly written about locomotion and movement?

(1) Movement occurs only in animals while locomotion occurs in both plants and animals.
(2) All movements are voluntary but all locomotions are involuntary.
(3) Locomotion doesn't necessarily involve change of place or location of an organism.
(4) Locomotion is usually a voluntary type of movement that always results in change of place.

76) Muscles with characteristic striations and involuntary in nature are.

(1) Muscles in the wall of alimentary canal.

(2) Muscles of the heart.
(3) Muscles assisting locomotion.
(4) Muscles of the eyelids.

77) In the resting state of sarcomere, central part of thick filaments not overlapped by thin filaments
is known as ______________:

(1) I band
(2) A band
(3) 'H' zone
(4) 'O' zone

78) Given below are some statements regarding structure and mechanism of skeletal muscle
contraction-
(A) Muscle fibre is the anatomical unit of muscle.
(B) Each myofibril contains many parallelly arranged units called sarcomeres which are the
functional units.
(C) Each sarcomere has a central ‘A' band and two half 'I' bands on either side of it marked by 'Z'
lines.
(D) Sliding filament theory of muscle contraction states that contraction of a muscle fibre takes
place by the sliding of the thick filaments over the thin filaments.
(E) During shortening of the muscle, i.e., contraction, the ‘A’ bands get reduced, whereas the ‘I’
bands retain the length.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?

(1) B, C and E only.

(2) D and E only.
(3) A and C only.
(4) B, D and E only.

79) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Each 'F’ (Filamentous) actin is a polymer of monomeric ‘G'(Globular) actins.
Statement-II : Each myosin filament is a polymer of monomeric proteins called Tropomyosins.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) Both Statement I and Statement Il are incorrect.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement Il is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement ll is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement Il are correct.

80) Cardiac muscles are-

(1) Involuntary, Unbranched, Striated.

(2) Voluntary, Unbranched, Nonstriated.
(3) Involuntary, Branched, Striated.
(4) Voluntary, Branched, Nonstriated.

81) Which of the following regulatory proteins has a complex structure made up of 3 subunits?

(1) Tropomyosin
(2) Meromyosin
(3) Troponin
(4) Myosin

82) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Central part of thick filaments which is overlapped by thin filaments is called the 'H'
zone.
Statement-II : When thin filaments slide over thick filaments, 'H' zone becomes short and even may
disappear during maximally contracted state.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement Il are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement Il is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement ll is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement Il are correct.

83) Choose the most appropriate option regarding the length of labelled aegions A,B and C in the

given structure of Sarcomere: Which of the following

statement correctly describes changes in length of A,B & C during muscle contraction?

(1) B becomes short while A and C remain same.

(2) A and C becomes short while B remains same.
(3) B and C become short while A remains same.
(4) A becomes short while B and C remain same.

84) Which of the following is not a property of red muscles?

(1) Amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum is high.

(2) Myoglobin content is high.
(3) Mainly depend on aerobic process for energy.
(4) Fatigue occurs slowly.

85) Given below are some steps regarding mechanism of skeletal muscle contraction :-
(A) Removal of masking of active sites on actin
(B) Release of Calcium ions into sarcoplasm from sarcoplasmic reticulum
(C) A new ATP binds and cross bridge is broken
(D) Rotation of myosin head causing sliding of thin filament over thick filament
(E) Myosin head binds to exposed active sites on actin
Identify the correct sequence of steps :-

(1) (C) → (A) → (E) → (B) → (D)

(2) (A) → (D) → (E) → (C) → (B)
(3) (A) → (D) → (C) → (B) → (E)
(4) (B) → (A) → (E) → (D) → (C)

86) Each myofibril has alternately arranged dark and light bands in it. Identify the correctly matched
option about these bands :-

(1) Light band-Anisotropic band-Contains only myosin.

(2) Dark band-Isotropic band-Contains only myosin.
(3) Light band-Isotropic band-Contains only actin.
(4) Dark band-Anisotropic band-Contains only myosin.

87) In order to initiate muscle contraction, Calcium ions bind to which one of the following muscle
proteins ?

(1) Tropomyosin
(2) Actin
(3) Troponin
(4) Myosin

88) Identify the muscle protein shown in the given diagram : Select
the correct option :

(1) Tropomyosin
(2) Troponin
(3) Myosin
(4) Meromyosin

89) Match Column-I with Column-II.

Column-I Column-II

Rapid spasms (wild contractions) in muscle due to

A. Tetanus (I)
low Ca++ in body fluids.

Myasthenia Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle

B. (II)
gravis mostly due to genetic disorder.

Autoimmune disorder affecting neuromuscular

C. Tetany (III) junction leading to fatigue, weakening and
paralysis of skeletal muscle.

Muscular Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in

D. (IV)
dystrophy sustained muscle contraction

Identify the correctly matched option :

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I D-III
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

90) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A), and the other is labelled as
Reason(R).
Assertion (A) : Calcium ions are very important in skeletal muscle contraction.
Reason (R) : Calcium ions bind to a subunit of troponin and thereby remove the masking of active
sites on actin for myosin.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(A) is false, but (R) is true.
(4)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 3 1 3 1 2 3 2 1 2 4 1 2 1 3 1 2 3 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 1 2 4 1 1 3 4 1 3 3 2 2 2 1 1 3 3 2 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 4 2 4 4 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 3 3 1 1 3 1 4 1 4 1 1 4 4 3 3 1 3 2 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 4 1 4 1 4 3 3 2 4 4 2 1 4 4 4 1 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 1 1 3 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 2 2 3 4 2 1 4 2 1 2 4 2 4 4 4 2 3 2 1 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 2 1 3 3 1 2 1 2 4 2 3 2 2 3 1 4 3 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 4 3 2 1 2 2 4 4 1 1 4 1 3 2 4 3 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 1 4 3 3 2 1 3 4 1 4 2 3 4 2 3 4 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 3 1 4 3 3 4 1 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) , if N is not an integer then Q is not possible.

2)

3) For charge, which placed at point P

Fnet = 0
F1 = F2

⇒ x = 210 cm from – 9e

4)

x= r=

From 9e charge

5) Electrostatic field lines never make closed loop.

6)
= 100
ϕ=
ϕ = 800 unit
i & component of E.F. do not give flux in the given area.

7) as both spheres have same potential after connecting with wire,

V1 = V2

σ1 R1 = σ2R2
8) at centre = 0
Because of symmetry when one charge is removed

(∵ due to 10 charges will cancel and out each other.

∴ Enet will be only because of 11th charge)

9)
only depends on charge enclosed by surface.

10)

as

11)
EA = E + E1

12)

ϕ = ϕ1 + ϕ2

13)

Applying Gauss law

14)

T = mg

15)

(A) (B)
+2µC –2µC
16)

For S1 charge is in uniform motion

For S2, charge is at rest
For S3, charge is accelerated

17)

Due to small step size 'e' we ignore quantisation at macroscopic level.

18)

Equation confirms charge particle can be created.

19)

20)

21)

22)

After first and second conductor process

Fc =0

23)

cos(74°) = cos(2 × 37°)

= 2cos2(37°) – 1

24)

Slope = m = tan (–30°) =

Intercept = c = 4
As y = mx + c

So

25)

Using division rule

26)

27)

for max height

⇒ 20 – 10t = 0 ⇒ t = 2 sec.

so
So t = 2 height will be max.
Now hmax = 20(2) – 5(2)2
= 40 – 20 = 20 m
28)

29)

30) y = x3sin2x
we know that

=
= 3x2sin2x + 2x3cos2x

31)

θ1 + θ2 = 90°
2θ2 + θ2 = 90° ⇒ θ2 = 30°, θ1 = 60°
Now
sin2θ1 + cos2θ2
= sin2 60° + cos2 30°

32)

⇒ P + Q = 3P – 3Q
2P = 4Q
P = 2Q

33) ⇒ θ = 90°
 = (2)

34)
⇒

=
= 4(2 + 2cosθ) = 5 + 4cosθ
= 8 + 8cosθ = 5 + 4cosθ
4cosθ = – 3

cosθ = – ⇒

35) Range of the resultant of 8 N and 5 N is

(8 – 5) ≤ R ≤ (8 + 5)
3 ≤ R ≤ 13

36)

Fmax = F1 + F2 = 10 N
Fmin = F1 – F2 = 6 N
So F1 = 8 N
F2 = 2 N
and force is increased by 3 N
= F11 = 11 N, F21 = 5 N
Now

37) Let two vectors are and

⇒ A – B = 10 .....(i)
& A2 + B2 = 2500 .....(ii)
Squaring (i)
A2 + B2 – 2AB = 100
⇒ 2500 – 2AB = 100
⇒ AB = 1200 ....(iii)

Putting value of B = in eq (i)

A– = 10
⇒ A2 – 100A – 1200 = 0
⇒ A = 40 N
Hence
 B= = 30 N

38)

39)
2A2(1 + cos θ) = n2(2A2(1 – cosθ)
1 + cosθ = n2 – n2cosθ
cosθ(1 + n2) = n2 – 1
 40)

41)

=
=

42)
So

43)

44)

45)
So
4 – 4m + m2 = 0
(m – 2)2 = 0
m=2

CHEMISTRY
 46) Unit of k = mol1–n Ln–1 s–1

Put n = 1 + 0.5 = 1.5 OR

47)

Concept :- Rate expression in terms of ROD & ROA

Solution :-

is incorrect
Option 3

48) OR =

=
= 0.6 mol L–1 s–1
= (0.6 × 32 = 19.2)g L–1 s–1.

49) From the rate law:

A. Rate is quadratically dependent on [A]: rate ∝ [A]2

B. Linearly dependent on [B]: rate ∝ [B]
C. Cubically dependent on [C]: rate ∝ [C]3

So, we calculate the rate increase factor for each option:

Mathematical Calculation:
Option 1: Increase [A] by factor of 3
New rate ∝ (3[A])2 = 9[A]2 ⇒ Rate increases by factor of 9 OR Check by options
When A = 3 times; r = 9 times (max.)
when B = 6 times; r = 6 times
when C = 2 times; r = 8 times
when C = 1.5 times; r = 3.37 times

50) A → 2 B + C
to pi 0 0
t=t Pi–x 2x x
Pt= Pi – x + 2x + x = Pi + 2x

K= log OR
Put n = 3 and P0 = Pi

51)
 For gases active mass can be expressed into their partial pressure. Hence rate can be
expressed in terms of pressure.

rgaseous =
unit = atm s–1, (A) = correct
P = cRT
P ∝ concentration; (R) = incorrect

52) ΔH = Ea(f) – Ea(b) OR

– 50 = 75 – (Ea)b
(Ea)b = 75 + 50 = 125 kJ

53)

t75% = 30 min. ⇒ t50% = 15 min.

t93.75% =

=
= 60 min.

OR t75% = 2t1/2 = 30 min.

t93.75% = 4t1/2 = 60 min.

54)

By R.D.S
r = k5 × [COCl] × [Cl2]

By (ii), keq = =

By (i), keq =
On solving,

55)

Maxwell energy distribution curve - effect of temperature

OR

When T↑, fraction of activated molecules ↑

∴ Area II ↑
Also, Total area = constant
So, area I ↓
 56)

t1/2 = Given t1/2 = 480 sec.

∴ K= = = 1.44 × 10–3 sec–1

Correction option is : 1
1.44 × 10–3 sec–1

OR
= 1.44 × 10–3 s–1

57)

2.3 × 10–5 s–1 × 90 × 60s = 2.303 log

0
⇒ [At = 0.885 A ]

OR × log

2.303 × 10–5 = × log

log

∴ % decomposed = [A]0 – [A]t = 5

58)

Unit of k1 = M sec–1 (order = zero)

Unit of k2 = M sec–1 (order = 1)

59)

k is independent of concentration for all reactions.

60)

By I, II
[A] × 2, [B] = same, r × 2
∴ order w.r.t. A = 1
By II, III
[A] = same, [B] × 2, r × 2
∴ order w.r.t. B = 1
r = k [A] [B]
(a) = X, unit = sec–1 is Ist order
(b) = ✓
When [A] × 2, [B] × 2, r = 4 times
(c) = ✓

61)

r = k[A]x ... (1)

4r = k[16A]x .... (2)
(2)/(1)

4 = 16x,
r = k[A]1/2
4 × 10–6 = k × (4 × 10–4)1/2
k = 2 × 10–4 mol1–1/2 L1/2–1s–1
= 2 × 10–4 mol1/2 L–1/2 s–1

62)
slope = +ve, intercept = zero

63)
when [A] = very high
k2[A] > > 1
1 + k2[A] ≈ k2[A]

∴ order = zero, rate constant =

64)

t60% = × t40% (zero order)

∴m=
t75% = 2 × t50% (Ist order)
OR

t50% = × t75%

∴n=
m+n=2
65)

Rate → unchanged with time

∴ order = zero
t1/2 ∝ [A]0 OR a

66)

50 times 25 times
↓ 1 day
12.5 times
↓ 1 day
6.25 times
↓ 1 day
3.125 times
↓ 1 day
1.56 times
↓ 1 day
0.78 times (safe)
∴ t = 6 days

67)

slop = – K

68)

sp > sp2 > sp3

% s character 50% 33% 25%

69)

70)

Steam distillation is used when liquid is steam volatile and water insoluble.

71)

Na2S + Na2 [Fe(CN)5NO] → Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS]

violet

72)
Carbon-carbon double bond in alkene consists of one strong sigma bond (Bond enthalpy 397 kJ
mol–1) due to head on overlapping of sp2 hybridizing orbitals and one weak pi bond obtained by
lateral overlapping of two 2p orbitals of the two carbon atoms.

73)

74)

75)

NaCN and Na2S reacts with AgNO3 and gives Ags, AgCN(White) so we need to decompose
Na2s, NaCN.

76)

Thin layer chromatography is an example adsorption chromatography where silica gel acts as
adsorbent.

77)

78)

Distillation method is used to separate (i) volatile liquids from non volatile impurities and (ii)
the liquids having sufficient difference in their boiling points.

79)

80)
C3H6O ⇒ , ,

CH2 = CH – CH2 – OH, ,

CH2 = CH – OCH3 ..... , etc.

81)

for metamerism polyvalent functional group is necessary.

82)

83)

84)

85)

86)
 87) and CH3CH2 – COOH
are FG isomers.

88)

For CH2 = CH – Cl No other structure possible.

89)

90) Ethylidene chloride (Geminal)

BIOLOGY

91)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. 54, 59, 56

NCERT line based question.
Hint/solution-(A) Mendel's experiments had
large sample size which gave greater credibility to the data
(D) A recessive parental trait in expressed only in homozygous condition

92)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No # 62
Dominance is not an autonomus feature of a gene or the product it can be explained when we
see any pleotropic gene.

93)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 56, 57, 58, 63

Test cross- Tt × tt
Monohybrid - PR is 3 : 1
Back cross - Tt × TT
Dihybrid ratio - 9 : 3 : 3 :1

94)

Genes occur in pair in Diploid cell

95)

Homozygous Heterozygous Hemizygous

gg Mm P
Hemizygous-where there is only one allele in diploid cell for one gene or character

96)

(i) Male individual can be hemizygous for sex-linked character

(ii) Seven mendelian characters gene are located in chromosome no-1,4,5,7

97) NCERT-XII Pg#61

ABO blood group is an example of incomplete dominance.

98)
↓

— F1
Bb × Bb – Sibmating
↓
BB Bb Bb bb
2/4 or 50% —
Total 2000 1000 Ans.

99)
If genes present on same chromosome their would be linkage.

100) NCERT XII, Pg. # 58,59,61,67

Crossing-over takes place between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosome.
Recombinants are non parental combination.

101)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 61
In hethozygous both alleles show dominance & equally express in a individual.

102)

Inheritance of blood group

* This inheritance control by IA, IB, IO(i) so multiple allelism

(No) Role of incomplete dominance
(No) Role of polygenic inheritance.

103)

H → YyRR
N → YyRR

104)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 54
NCERT line based question.

105)

106)

Dihybrid – 2 character
RRyy × rryy
↓
RrYy — F1
* Dihybrid in F1
Monohybrid — 1 character
TT × tt
↓
Tt — F1
Monohybrid in F1

107)

It is Dihybrid cross-
n=2
No. of genotype = (3)n = (3)2 = 9
No. of phenotype = (2)n = (2)2 = 4
& genotype – 9
phenotype – 4

108)

TtRr =

109)

Cross-

aabb = 0

110)

In Antirrhinum majus.
* Leaf colour in lethal inheritance.
* Flower colour is incomplete inheritance.
PR = 1 : 2 : 1

So In F2 =

111)
NCERT-XII, Pg. # 62
NCERT line based question

112)

NCERT XII, Pg # 60, 62

NCERT line based question.

113)

Dihybrid test cross.

P.R. = 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
G.R. = 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
Phenotypes = 4 Types.
Genotypes = 4 Types.
________
8 Types.

114)

115)

Test cross-Dominate phenotype is crossed with homozygous recessive

116)

RrYr
n = 2 (2)2 = 4
4 types
(Ry) Rr ry ry
1/4 1/4 1/4 1/4

117)

118)
RR × Rr
RRRr × RR Rr
All dominant

119)

Tt × Tt
1000
Recessive allele is lethal
Recessive phenotype is zero

120)

No effect of GA on the T allele (Tt) plant.

121)

RRTT × rrtt
↓
RrTt – F1

122)

Ratio – 52 : 48
1: 1
So genotype of purple flowered plant is – Pp

123)

Phenocopy – Two different genotypes in different environmental condition if give same

phenotypes.

124)

Drosophila eat yeast spores on their food.

125)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 53
NCERT line based question
126)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 59
NCERT line based question.

127)

Snapdragon.
Pink × White
Rr × rr
Rr Rr rr rr
2/4 2/4
1:1

128)
n = 4 (2)4 = 16

129)

7 characters which are contrasting character.

130)

Alleles are-
Different molecular form of a gene.

131)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 67

132)

Pod - 2 characters
(1) Pod shape
(2) Pod colour
Pod length was not taken as character

133)

It is 1856-1863
NCERT-XII, Pg. # 54
NCERT line based question

134)
 NCERT-XII Pg. # 57
NCERT line based question.

135)

AaBb
n=2 (2)2 = 4

ab → 25%

136)

NCERT-XI Pg#42

137)

The correct answer is Option 2.

• Genus Name: Frog
• Two Characters:

A. (a) A tympanum represents ear: Frogs have a tympanum, which is an external eardrum.
B. (b) Fertilization is external: Most frogs exhibit external fertilization, where the female
releases eggs into the water, and the male fertilizes them externally.

• Class/Phylum: Amphibia: Frogs belong to the class Amphibia.

138) NCERT, Pg. # 41, 4.2.2

139) NCERT-XI Pg#51

140) NCERT-XII, Pg # 41

141)

NCERT-XI Pg#39

142)

NCERT-XI Pg#42,43,44,206

143)

NCERT-XI Pg#38,39

144) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 50, Ist, IInd Para

145)

NCERT-XI Pg#45,41

146)

NCERT-XI Pg#40

147)

NCERT-XI Pg#43

148)

NCERT-XI Pg#38

149)

Question Explanation :
Identify the viviparous.

Concept :
This question is based on Aschelminthes.

Solution :
Wuchereria (Filarial worm) -viviparous Ascaris, Taenia, and Enterobius - Oviparous

Hence,
Option (2) is correct : Wuchereria

150) NCERT Pg # 42

151) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 145 (para-8)

152)

Module-4
Phylum-Arthropoda

153)

Module-4
Phylum-Platyhelminthes

154)
NCERT Pg. # 47

155) NCERT Pg. # 49

156) NCERT Pg. # 40

157) NCERT Pg. # 52

158)

NCERT-XI Pg#42

159)

NCERT-XI Pg#44

160) NCERT (XI) Pg# 54 Para 4.2.10

161) NCERT Pg. # 218

162) NCERT Pg. # 217

163) NCERT Pg. # 222,223, Fig. 17.5

164) NCERT Pg. # 218

165) NCERT Pg. # 217

166) NCERT Pg. # 219

167) NCERT Pg. # 220, Fig. 17.2

168) NCERT Pg. # 219, 220, 221, 222, 228

169) NCERT Pg. # 221

170) NCERT Pg. # 219

171) NCERT Pg. # 221

172) NCERT Pg. # Fig. 17.2, Fig. 17.5

173) NCERT Pg. # 220, (Fig. 17.2), 222

174) NCERT Pg. # 223

175) NCERT Pg. # 222, Fig. 17.4

176) NCERT Pg. # 219, 220

177) NCERT Pg. # 222

178) NCERT Pg. # 221, Fig. 17.3(b)

179) NCERT Pg. # 227

180) NCERT Pg. # 222