11-08-2024

1016CMD303086240001 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1)

Value of cos(200π – π/3) will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Equation of straight line PQ according to given curve will be :

(1) 2y – x = 4
(2) y + 2x = 4
(3) x – 2y = 4
(4) 2x – y = 4

3) ................. :-

(1)

(2) 0

(3)

(4)

4) The slope of graph as shown in figure at points 1,2 and 3 is m1, m2 and m3 repectively then :-
(1) m1 > m2 > m3
(2) m1 < m2 < m3
(3) m1 = m2 = m3
(4) m1 = m2 > m3

5)
Slope of graph : →

(1) First increase and then decrease

(2) Continuously decreasing
(3) First decrease and than increase
(4) None of these

6) The maximum and minimum values of expression (4 – 2cosθ) respectively are :-

(1) 4 and 0
(2) 4 and 2
(3) 6 and 0
(4) 6 and 2

7) The sum of the series is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) If x = t2, then graph between and t will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) The slope of the shown graph :-

(1) first increase than decrease

(2) first decrease than increase
(3) continuously increase
(4) continuously decrease

10) The system shown in figure is moving with constant acceleration. If tension in the string at point

P is T, then tension in the string at mid point Q will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A rocket of initial mass 1500 kg ejects gas at a constant rate of 10 kg/s with a relative speed of 5
km/s. What is the acceleration of the rocket 50 seconds after the blast, neglecting gravity ?

(1) 10 m s–2
(2) 25 m s–2
(3) 50 m s–2
(4) 100 m s–2

12) The force acting on a body of mass 2 kg is given as : F = (4 t3) N. What is the change in
momentum of the body between t = 1s to t = 3s :-

(1) 50 N-S
(2) 80 N-S
(3) 100 N-S
(4) 0

13) Which of the following has greatest momentum :-

(1) A truck of mass 1000 kg moving with speed 10 km/h.

(2) A car of mass 500 kg moving with speed 50 km/h.
(3) A bullet of mass 100 g moving with speed 1000 km/h.
(4) A rocket of mass 100 kg moving with speed 200 km/h.

14) A particle moves in x-y plane under the action of a force such that the value of its linear
momentum at any time t is Px = 2 cost, Py = 2sint. The angle between and at given time t is:-

(1) 90°
(2) 0°
(3) 180°
(4) 30°

15)

Match column I with column II and mark the correct choice from the given codes.

Column-I Column-II
(A) Definition of force (p) Newton's third law
(B) Measure of force (q) Impulse
(C) Effect of force (r) Newton's second law
(D) Recoiling of gun (s) Newton's first law
(1) A-q, B-p, C-r, D-s
(2) A-p, B-q, C-r, D-s
(3) A-s, B-r, C-q, D-p
(4) A-s, B-q, C-r, D-p

16) The force-time (F - t) curve of a particle executing linear motion is as shown in the figure. The
momentum acquired by the particle in time interval from zero to 8 second will be :-
(1) – 2 N-s
(2) + 4 N-s
(3) 6 N-s
(4) Zero

17) A cricket ball of mass 150g is hit by a bat so that the ball is turned back with a velocity of 20 m/s.
Duration of contact between the ball and the bat is 0.01 and average force exerted on the ball by the
bat is 480 N. Speed of ball before being hit was :

(1) 12 m/s
(2) 22 m/s
(3) 32 m/s
(4) 42 m/s

18) A body has –80 microcoulomb of charge. Number of additional electrons on it will be :

(1) 8 × 10–5
(2) 80 × 1015
(3) 5 × 1014
(4) 1.28 × 10–17

19) Statement 1 : Charge is quantized

and
Statement-2 : Charge, which is less than 1C is not possible

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True, Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

20) One metallic sphere A is given positive charge whereas another identical metallic sphere B of
exactly same mass as of A is given equal amount of negative charge. Then :-

(1) Mass of A and mass of B still remain equal

(2) Mass of A increases
(3) Mass of B decreases
(4) Mass of B increases

21) When a body is earth connected, electrons from the earth flow into the body. This means the
body is .....

(1) Unchanged
(2) Charged positively
(3) Charged negatively
(4) an insulator

22) Two spheres A and B of radius 4 cm and 6 cm are given charges of 80 μC and 40 μC respectively.
If they are connected by a fine wire, the amount of charge flowing from one to the other is

(1) 20μC from A to B

(2) 16μC from A to B
(3) 32μC from B to A
(4) 32μC from A to B

23) If two like charges of magnitude 1 × 10–9 coulomb and 9 × 10–9 coulomb are separated by a
distance of 1 metre, then the point on the line joining the charges, where the force experienced by a
charge placed at that point is zero, is :

(1) 0.25 m from the charge 1 × 10–9 coulomb

(2) 0.75 m from the charge 9 × 10–9 coulomb
(3) both 1 and 2
(4) at all points on the line joining the charges

24) Three charges each of magnitude q are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle, the
electrostatic force on the charge placed at the center is (each side of triangle is L)

(1) Zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Here, θ1 ≠ θ2 while θ1 > θ2, this is possible if -

(1) q1 = q2, m1 = m2
(2) q1 > q2, m1 = m2
(3) q1 = q2, m1 < m2
(4) q1 > q2, m1 > m2

26) Two equal and opposite charges are placed at a certain distance. The force between them is F. If
25% of one charge is transferred to other, then the force between them is :-

(1) F
(2) 9F/16
(3) 15F/16
(4) 4F/5

27)

Four point charges are placed at vertex of a square ABCD as shown. The net force on charge placed
at centre O will be-

(1) Zero
(2) Along diagonal AC
(3) Along diagonal BD
(4) Perpendicular to AB

28) The value of current I in the adjoining figure is :-

(1) 4A
(2) 6A
(3) 3A
(4) 5A

29) A current of 1mA is flowing in a copper wire. The number of electrons crossing any section in the
conductor per second will be :-

(1) 6.25 × 1021

(2) 6.25 × 108
(3) 6.25 × 1015
(4) 6.25 × 1019

30) Wires of nichrome and copper of equal length are connected in series in an electrical circuit,
then :-
(1) More current will flow in copper wire
(2) More current will flow in nichrome wire
(3) Copper wire will get more heated
(4) Both wire will have same current

31) The galvanometer G reads zero. If the battery A has negligible internal resistance the value of

resistance ‘X’ will be :-

(1) 40Ω
(2) 50Ω
(3) 100Ω
(4) 80Ω

32) The amount of charge passed in time 't' through a cross–section of a wire is Q = At2 + Bt + C
Then correct statements are,
The dimension of :-
(a) A is ampere sec.
(b) A is ampere sec–1
(c) B is ampere
(d) C is ampere sec.

(1) a, c, d
(2) a
(3) b, c, d
(4) Only c, d

33) The current through a wire depends on time as :-

(i = i0 + αt)
where i0 = 10A α = 4 A/S
Then the charge crossed through a section of the wire in 10 sec. is :–

(1) 100 C
(2) 500 C
(3) 300 C
(4) None
34) Reading of Ammeter will be :-

(1) 1A
(2) 2A
(3) 3A
(4) 4A

35) Reading of ammeter A1, A2 and A3 will be respectively :-

(1) 1A, 0A, 1A

(2) 2A, 1A, 1A
(3) 1A, 0.5A, 0.5A
(4) None of these

SECTION-B

1) If Position(s) of a particle depends on time 't' as S = 2t2 – t + 1 metre, then acceleration of particle
at t = 1 sec will be : (m/s2)

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 3

2) If y = logex + sinx + ex then is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
3)

Find the minimum values of function

2x3 – 15x2 + 36x + 11

(1) 38
(2) 30
(3) 12
(4) 5

4) =?

(1) 2 sin θ
(2) 2 cos θ
(3) sin θ
(4) cos θ

2
5) Choose the correct graph for y = 3x – 4.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) is approximately equal to :-

(1) 0.99
(2) 0.01
(3) 0.985
(4) None

7) The figure shows the position - time (x – t) graph of one-dimensional motion of a body of mass 0.4
kg. The magnitude of each impulse is :-

(1) 0.4 Ns
(2) 0.8 Ns
(3) 1.6 Ns
(4) 0.2 Ns

8) The velocity of a body of mass 2 kg as a function of t is given by v(t) = . Find the

momentum and the force acting on it, at time t = 2s :-

(1) kg-ms–1, N
(2) kg-ms–1, N
(3) kg-ms–1, N
(4) None of the above

9) Three equal point charge (each q) are situated at the xy-plane as shown in the figure. The

resultant force acting on the charge situated at the origin will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Two identical metallic spheres A and B (equally charged) when placed at certain distance in air
repel each other with a force of F. Another identical uncharged sphere C is placed in contact with A
and then placed at midpoint between spheres A and B. The force experienced by sphere C will be :

(1) 3F/2
(2) 3F/4
(3) F
(4) 2F

11) In given system what will be force on –1μc in vector form

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12)

If given system of point charges is in equilibrium then what will be value of q.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Column-I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic
conductor. Column-II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities. Match
Column-I and Column-II with appropriate relations.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Drift Velocity (P)

(B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) nevd

(C) Relaxation Period (R)

(D) Current Density (S)

(1) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q)

(2) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(Q), (D)-(P)
(3) (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(S), (D)-(Q)
(4) (A)-(R), (B)-(Q), (C)-(S), (D)-(P)

14) Current density at a point is Am–2 then find out current through a cross sectional
area :
(1) 20 A
(2) 5 A
(3) 15 A
(4) 21 A

15) Reading of Ammeter will be :-

(1) 2 A
(2) 3 A
(3) 5 A
(4) 10 A

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) For an elementary gaseous reaction 2A + B —→ A2B if the volume of vessel is quickly reduced to
half of it's original volume then rate of reaction will:-

(1) unchange
(2) increase four times
(3) increase eight times
(4) decrease eight times

2) A first order reaction gets 93.75% completed in 160 s then calculate time for 25% completion of
reaction:-

(1) 10 sec
(2) 16 sec
(3) 12 sec
(4) 14 sec

3) If half life of first order reaction is 69.3 min then rate constant will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

4) In a reaction A + B → product; rate is halved when the concentration of B is doubled and rate
becomes double when the concentrations of both the reactants (A and B) are doubled, rate law for
the reaction can be written as:

(1) r = K[A]° [B]1

(2) r = K[A]2 [B]–1
(3) r = K[A]1 [B]2
(4) r = K[A]2 [B]2

5) The rate constant for a first order reaction whose reaction rate is 0.06 M sec–1 at 10 minutes and
0.02 M sec–1 at 20 minutes will be nearly :

(1) 1.83 × 10–3 sec–1

(2) 2.45 × 10–3 sec–1
(3) 3.42 × 10–2 sec–1
(4) 1.45 × 10–2 sec–1

6) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

Thermal decomposition of HI on gold

(A) (P) Zero order reaction
surface

Inversion of cane sugar in acidic Pseudo first order

(B) (Q)
medium reaction

(C) Hydrogenation of ethene (R) First order reaction

The decomposition of gaseous

(D) ammonia on a hot platinum surface at (S) Second order reaction
high pressure
(1) A→P, B→Q, C→S, D→P
(2) A→Q, B→P, C→S, D→R
(3) A→P, B→Q, C→R, D→P
(4) A→P, B→Q, C→R, D→S

7) Consider the reaction A B, graph between half life (t1/2) and initial concentration (a) of the
reactant is :-

Hence graph between and time will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The rate of disappearance of Q in the reaction : 2P + Q → 2R + 3S is 2 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1. Which of
the following option is not correct :-

(1)
– = 4 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1

(2)
+ = 6 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1

(3)
= 2 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1

(4)
= 2 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1

9) For a first order reaction A → Products, the rate of reaction at [A] = 0.2M is 1.0 × 10–2 mol litre–1
min–1. The half-life period for the reaction is :-

(1) 832 sec

(2) 440 sec
(3) 416 sec
(4) 14 sec

10) For the reaction 2NO + 2H2 → N2 + 2H2O

The rate expression is written in the following ways

The relationship between K1, K2, K3, K4 is :-

(1) K1 = K2 = K3 = K4
(2) K2 = 2K1 = K3 = K4
(3) K2 = 2K3 = K1 = K4
(4) K2 = K1 = K3 = 2K4

11) The rate of reaction increases 4 fold when the concentration of reactant is increased 16 times. If
the rate of reaction is 4 × 10–6 mol L–1s–1 when the concentration of the reactant is 4 × 10–4 mol L–1.
The rate constant of the reaction will be :-

(1) 2 × 10–4 mol1/2 L–1/2 s–1

(2) 1 × 10–2 s–1
(3) 2 × 10–4 mol–1/2 L1/2 s–1
(4) 25 mol–1 L s–1

12) For the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) under certain conditions of temperature and partial
pressure of the reactants, the rate of formation of NH3 is 0.001 kg litre–1 hr–1. The rate of conversion
of H2 under the same condition is ..... kg litre–1 hr–1.

(1) 0.001
(2) 0.0015
(3) 0.00017
(4) 0.0017

13) The decomposition of NH3 on platinum surface is zero order reaction, what are the rates of
production of N2 and H2 if rate constant of reaction K = 2.5 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1 :-

(1) 2.5 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1, 2.5 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(2) 2.5 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1, 7.5 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(3) 7.5 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1, 7.5 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1
(4) 7.5 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1, 2.5 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1

14) Assertion : If in a zero order reaction, the concentration of the reactant is doubled, then half life
period is also doubled.
Reason : For a zero order reaction, the rate of reaction is independent of initial concentration.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false

15) Consider a first order reaction :-

A(g) → 4B(g) + 2C(s)
find the expression of rate constant in terms of initial pressure P0, and final pressure of the reaction
at time t is Pt .

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

16) Consider a reaction 3A(g) → 4B(g) + C(g) starting with pure A having pressure atm, the
pressure after 10 min. reaches to 1 atm. Calculate the value of average rate of disappearance of A in
this time duration.

(1) 0.06 atm min–1

(2) 0.6 atm min–1

(3)
ℓn atm min–1
(4) 0.36 atm min–1

17) Reaction X + 2Y + 2Z → B takes place by following mechanism –

(i) X + Y 2A ......... (Very fast)
(ii) A + Z → C ...... (Slow)
(iii) 2C + Y → B .... (Very fast)
The rate law for above reaction is :-

(1) rate = K[Z]

(2) rate = K[X][Y][Z]
(3) rate = K[X]½[Y]½[Z]
(4) rate = K[X]½[Y][Z]

18) Number of C-atoms in parent carbon chain of given compound.

(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 4

19) IUPAC name is :

(1) Ethenyloxymethanal
(2) Ethenyl formate
(3) Ethenylmethanoate
(4) Ethenyloxymethanoate

20) IUPAC name of cinnamaldehyde is :-

(1) 3-Phenyl propanoic acid
(2) 3-Phenyl propanal
(3) 3-Phenyl prop-2-enal
(4) 3-Phenyl prop-1-enal

21)

The number of carbon atoms in third member of ester homologous series is :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 3

22) How many carbons present in linear geometry in following structure : CH2=CH–C C–CH3

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2

23) Correct IUPAC name of given compound is-

(1) 2-(3',3'-Dimethylbutyl)prop-2-enoic acid

(2) 5,5-Dimethyl-2-methylene hexanoic acid
(3) 2-Carboxy-5, 5-dimethylhex-l-ene
(4) 5,5-Dimethylhex-1-ene-2-carboxylic acid

24) Which of following is not isomeric with propanoic acid :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) CH3CH2CH2OH

25) Which of the following pairs of compounds are functional isomer :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

26) How many functional groups are present in following compound?

(1) 7
(2) 6
(3) 8
(4) 9

27)

What is the hybridization of C1 , C2 and C3 carbon in the following compound respectively ?

(1) sp, sp3 and sp3

(2) sp, sp2 and sp2
(3) sp, sp and sp2
(4) sp3, sp3 and sp2

28) Total number of alkyne structures possible in 5th member of alkyne homologue series :

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8

29) Correct IUPAC name :-

(1) 2-carboxypropane-dioic acid

(2) 2-carboxybutane-trioic acid
(3) Propane-1,2,3-tricarboxylic acid
(4) Butane-1,2,3-trioic acid
30)

IUPAC name of following compound will be :

(1) p-Hydroxy m-amino benzoic acid

(2) 3-Amino-4-hydroxy benzoic acid
(3) 2-Amino-4-carboxy phenol
(4) 2-Hydroxy-5-carboxy aniline

31) and

are :-

(1) Metamer
(2) Ring chain isomner
(3) Chain Isomer
(4) Position Isomer

32) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) How many ether isomer are possible for C4H10O.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) How many primary amines are possible with the molecular formula of C5H13N (Only structural) :-

(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 5
(4) 7

35)

Correct IUPAC name of compound is :-

(1) 2-Bromo-1-ethyl propanoate

(2) 1-Ethyl-2-bromopropanoate
(3) Ethyl 2-bromopropanoate
(4) Ethyl 3-bromo propanoate

SECTION-B

1) The data for the reaction A + B → C is

Exp. [A]0 [B]0 initial rate
1 0.012 0.035 0.10
2 0.024 0.035 0.80
3 0.012 0.070 0.10
4 0.024 0.070 0.80

(1) r = k [B]3
(2) r = k [A]3
(3) r = k [A] [B]4
(4) r = k [A]2 [B]2

2) For the reaction N2O5(g) → 2NO2(g) + , the value of rate of disappearance of N2O5 is given as
–3 –1 –1
6.25 × 10 mol L s . The rate of formation of NO2 and O2 is given respectively as :

(1) 1.25 × 10–2 molL–1s–1 and 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1s–1

(2) 6.25 × 10–3mol L–1s–1 and 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1s–1
(3) 1.25 × 10–2mol L–1s–1 and 3.125 × 10–3mol L–1s–1
(4) 6.25 × 10–3mol L–1s–1 and 3.125 × 10–3 mol L–1s–1

3) A first order reaction is carried out with an initial concentration of 10 mol per litre and 60% of the
reactant changes into the product. Now if the same reaction is carried out with an initial
concentration of 5 mol per litre for the same period the percentage of the reactant changing to the
product is :-

(1) 40
(2) 80
(3) 160
(4) 60

4) The half life period of a first order reaction is 55 days. How much time it will take to go upto
99.9% completion :-

(1) 550 days

(2) 350 days
(3) 275 days
(4) 175 days

5) The rate constant of the reaction A → B is 0.6 × 10–3 M sec–1. If the concentration of A is 5 M, then
concentration of B after 20 min is :-

(1) 0.36 M
(2) 0.72 M
(3) 1.08 M
(4) 3.60 M

6) Assertion (A) : Hydrolysis of cane sugar in presence of acid catalyst is an example of Pseudo first
order reaction.
Reason (R) : In hydrolysis of cane sugar water is a solvent which is in large amount so rate is
independent from concentration of water.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of A
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) Both A and R are incorrect

7) For a zero order reaction and a Ist order reaction half life are in ratio of 4 : 1. Calculate ratio of
time taken to complete 87.5% reaction for zero order : first order reaction respectively.

(1) 7 : 3
(2) 3 : 7
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 5 : 3

8) A first order reaction has half life 12 hours. What percentage of the reactant will remain after 24
hours :-

(1) 75%
(2) 25%
(3) 87.5%
(4) 93.75%

9) Which of the following homologous series has incorrect general formula ?

(1) Alkyne - CnH2n – 2

(2) Alkanol - CnH2n + 2O
(3) Cycloalkane - CnH2n + 2
(4) Carboxylic acid - CnH2nO2

10) Which of the following IUPAC name is incorrect:-

(1)
1,5-Dimethylcyclopentene

(2)
3,4-Dimethylpent-1-en-3-ol

(3)

6-Bromo-3,3-dimethylcyclohexene

(4)

5-Hydroxycyclopent-2-en-1-ol

11) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(1)
& are positional isomers

(2)

& are metamers

(3) CH3–C≡N & CH3NC are functional isomers
(4) Both 1 & 2

12) Number of structural isomers of C6H14 is -

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
13) Dimethyl ether and Ethyl alcohol are

(1) Homologue
(2) Metamers
(3) Position Isomer
(4) Functional group isomer

14) 4-bromo-3-methyl hexan-2-one is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15)

Number of correct statement in following :

(a)
Functional group isomers

(b)
Metamers

(c) CH3–C≡C–CH3 and

Ring chain isomer

(d)
Chain isomers

(e)
Functional group isomers
(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 3
 BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1)

Our heart consists of :-

(i) Epithelial tissue (ii) Connective tissue
(iii) Muscular tissue (iv) Neural tissue

(1) Only ii
(2) i & iii only
(3) ii, iii & iv only
(4) All of these

2)

Which of the following junction helps to stop substances from leaking across a tissue ?

(1) Interdigitation
(2) Gap junction
(3) Tight junction
(4) Desmosomes

3) Epithelia in given diagram is observed in:

(1) Fallopian tube

(2) PCT
(3) Female urethra
(4) Gall bladder

4) Malpighian tubules are present at the junction ?

(1) Foregut and midgut, and help in secretion of digestive enzyme

(2) Midgut and hindgut and helps in food grinding
(3) Foregut and midgut and helps in removal of excretory product from haemolymph.
(4) Midgut and hindgut and helps in removal of excretory product from haemolymph

5) Fore wings of cockroach are :-

(1) Small, broad, thin and soft
(2) Leathery, Opaque and dark
(3) Long, Narrow, Soft
(4) Transparent, Membranous, Mesothoracic

6) On basis of excretory product cockroach is a ?

(1) Ammonotelic
(2) Ureotelic
(3) Uricotelic
(4) Both (1) and (2)

7) In female cockroach one pair ovaries situated in ?

(1) 2 to 6 Abdominal segment

(2) 2 to 8 Abdominal segment
(3) 4 to 8 Abdominal segment
(4) 4 to 6 Abdominal segment

8)

Which of the following statement is Incorrect with reference to frog :-

(I) Eyes are bulged and not covered by nictitating membrane.
(II) Membranous tympanum receives the sound signals.
(III) The frog never drinks water.

(IV) pair of nostrils is present above to mouth.

(1) I and II
(2) III and IV
(3) I and IV
(4) Only I

9) See the diagram carefully and select the correct match :

(1) (A) Anterior Aorta Help in excretion

(2) (B) Alary muscles Help in blood circulation
(3) (C) Alary muscles Help in excretion
(4) (B) Pulsatile Ampulla Help in blood formation
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Matrix of cartilage is ?

(1) Soft and pliable

(2) Soft and non pliable
(3) Solid and pliable
(4) Solid and non pliable

11) Consider the following features

a. Vascularised
b. Cells have rapid Cell division
c. Little inter cellular matrix
d. Cells are loosely arranged
How many of the given statements are correct for epithelial tissue ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

12) All connective tissue cells secretes structural protein fibres except :-

(1) Cartilage
(2) Bone
(3) Blood
(4) Tendon

13) Endothelium is made up of :-

(1) Squamous cells

(2) Cuboidal cells
(3) Columnar cells
(4) Stratified epithelium

14) Which of the following is set of connective tissue only ?

(1) Blood, skin

(2) Blood, bone
(3) Bone, muscle
(4) Cartilage, muscle

15) The intestine and stomach in mammals is lined by

(1) Squamous epithelium

(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Cuboidal epithelium
(4) Stratified epithelium

16) The tissue lining the inner surface of a hollow organ like a fallopian tube is:

(1) Columnar epithelium

(2) Cuboidal epithelium
(3) Ciliated columnar epithelium
(4) Brush bordered epithelium

17) Which of the following tissue cover dry surface of skin and line moist surface of buccal cavity?

(1) Adipose tissue

(2) Dende regular connective tissue
(3) Compound epithelium
(4) Keratinised stratified squamous epithelium

18) Which epithelium is found in the lining of intestine and help in secretion and absorption ?

(1) Ciliated columnar epithelium

(2) Cuboidial epithelium with microvilli
(3) Columnar epithelium with microvilli
(4) Columnar epithelium without microvilli

19) Match the columns

Column-I Column-II

A Compound epithelium (i) Wall of blood vessels

B Simple squamous epithelium (ii) Moist surface of buccal cavity

C Simple cuboidal epithelium (iii) Proximal convoluted tubule

D Brush border epithelium (iv) Germinal epithelium

(1) A–iv, B–iii, C–i, D–ii
(2) A–iii, B–ii, C–i, D–iv
(3) A–ii, B–i, C–iv, D–iii
(4) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv

20) Pharynx have which type of epithelium ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Cuboidal epithelium is commonly found in :-

(1) Walls of blood vessels and air sacs of lungs

(2) Ducts of glands and tubular parts of nephrons
(3) Lining of stomach and intestine
(4) Inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes

22) Structure which is given below diagram is related with which type of epithelium and present in

which part of body?

(1) A = Simple squamous epithelium; B = Blood vessels

(2) A = Columnar epithelium; B = Stomach
(3) A = Stratified columnar epithelium; B = Pharynx
A = Cuboidal epithelium;
(4)
B = Tubular part of nephron in kidney

23) The function of villi in the intestine is :-

(1) Digestion of food

(2) Increase in the absorptive surface
(3) Control of intestinal movement
(4) Hinderance in the movement of food

24) Number of malpighian tubules present at junction of midgut and hindgut in cockroach is :-

(1) 50–60
(2) 80–90
(3) 100–150
(4) 200–250

25) Which of the following structure is responsible for sexual dimorphism in male and female
cockroach?

(1) Anal styles

(2) Abdomen
(3) Anal cerci
(4) Compound Eyes

26) The nerve cord of cockroach is :-

(1) Double, ventral and solid

(2) Double, dorsal and hollow
(3) Single, dorsal and solid
(4) Single, ventral and hollow

27) Given below the diagram of alimentary canal of Cockroach. identify a to e :-

(a) Pharynx, (b) Oesophagus,

(1)
(c) Crop, (d) Rectum, (e) Colon
(a) Pharynx, (b) Oesophagus,
(2)
(c) Mid-gut (d) Colon, (e) Rectum
(a) Buccal cavity, (b) Oesophagus,
(3)
(c) Mid-gut, (d) Colon , (e) Rectum
(a) Pharynx, (b) Oesophagus,
(4)
(c) Gizzard, (d) Colon, (e) Rectum

28) In cockroach, walking legs arises from :-

(1) prothorax and mesothorax and are two pairs.

(2) mesothorax and metathorax and are two pairs.
(3) All the thoracic segments and are three pairs.
(4) first three abdominal segments and are three pairs.
29) The 10th segment bears a pair of jointed filamentous structure called :-

(1) Anal cerci in both sexes

(2) Anal style in both sexes
(3) Anal cerci in male cockroach only
(4) Anal style in male cockroach only

30) The liquefied semidigested acidic food in frog is known as :-

(1) Bile
(2) Bolus
(3) Chyme
(4) Chyle

31) During hibernation gaseous exchange takes place through :-

(1) Skin
(2) Lungs
(3) Nostril
(4) Buccal cavity

32) How many vasa efferentia arise from testes in Rana ?

(1) 10-12
(2) 10-14
(3) 9-10
(4) 8-10

33) Which of the following structure attached testes to kidney in frog ?

(1) Mesorchium
(2) Mesovarium
(3) Nuptial pad
(4) Copulatory pad

34) Male frog can be distinguished from female frog by:

(1) Anal style

(2) Truncus arterosus
(3) Copulatory pad and vocal sacs
(4) Teeth on lower jaw

35) Choose the correct statement w.r.t frog.

(1) Ovary & testis fused with kidney both physically and physiologically
(2) Ovary & kidney fused physiologically not physically
(3) Testis & kidney fused both physically & physiologically
(4) Testis & kidney fused physically not physiologically

SECTION-B

1) Match the column and find out the correct answer.

Column-I Column-II
A Most abundant formed elements of blood (i) Platelets
B Collagen of areolar tissue is produced by (ii) Mast cells
C Tendons are composed of this tissue (iii) Dense regular
D Provide shape to external ear (iv) Elastic cartilage
(v) Hyaline cartilage
(vi) Erythrocytes
(vii) Fibroblast
(viii) Areolar tissue
(1) A-i B-viii C-iii D-v
(2) A-vi B-ii C-iii D-viii
(3) A-i B-vii C-viii D-iv
(4) A-vi B-vii C-iii D-iv

2)

Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location ?

Tissue Location

Cuboidal Bowman's
(1)
epithelium capsule

Columnar Small
(2)
epithelium intestine

compound
(3) P.C.T
epithelium

Squamous
(4) D.C.T
epithelium
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) How many statements are true in the following?

(i) Simple epithelium forms lining for body cavities, ducts and tubes.
(ii) In epithelial tissue, cells are loosely packed with little intercellular matrix.
(iii) Simple epithelium provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.
(iv) Gap junction perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

4) Read the following (A-D) statements :-

A. Connective tissue are most abundant and widely distributed in the body of complex animals
B. They are named connective tissues because of their special function of linking and supporting
other tissues/organs of the body
C. They range from soft connective tissues to specialised types, which include cartilage, bone,
adipose and blood
D. The cells of connective tissue secrete modified polysaccharides, which accumulate between cells
and fibres and act as matrix
How many of the following statements are correct about connective tissue ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

5) Assertion : Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other
Reason : Gap junctions connect the cytoplasm of adjoining cells for rapid transport of ions.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

6) Find out correct statement for Periplaneta-

(1) Oxygen is transported through blood

(2) In male, 7th sternum is boat shaped, together with 8th & 9th sterna form genital pouch
(3) In female 9th & 10th tergum together with 9th sterna form genital pouch
(4) Anal style in male arise from 9th sternum

7) When frogs heart taken out of the body continuous to beat for sometimes.
Select the true option from the following statements. Which are related to frog’s heart only
(a) Frog’s heart is autoexcitable
(b) Frog’s heart never beat without any external stimuli
(c) Frog’s heart is myogenic
(d) Frog is amphibious in nature

(1) a & b only

(2) b & d only
(3) a & c only
(4) a, b & c

8) Choose the correct statements :

(a) Bones support and protect softer tissues and organs.
(b) Weight bearing function is served by limb bones.
(c) Ligament is the site of production of blood cells.
(d) Adipose tissue is specialised to store fats.
(e) Tendons attach one bone to another.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) (a), (b) and (d) only

(2) (b), (c) and (e) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b) and (e) only

9) Consider the following figure & choose the correct option :-

Regular dense
(1) Tendon Join muscle to skin
connective tissue

Regular dense
(2) Ligament Join bone to bone
connective tissue

Irregular dense
(3) Tendon Join muscle to bone
connective tissue

Irregular dense
(4) Ligament Join muscle to bone
connective tissue
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Assertion :- Compound epithelium has a limited role in secretion and absorption.
Reason :- Compound epithelium is made of more than one layer of cells.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

11) Identify the labelling parts :

(1) A - Mast cell ; B - Macrophage ; C - Elastic fibres
(2) A - Mast cell ; B - Macrophage ; C - Collagen fibres
(3) A - Macrophage ; B - Mast cell ; C - Collagen fibres
(4) A - Macrophage ; B - Adipose cells ; C - Collagen fibre

12) Select the sternites in female cockroach which are involved in formation of brood pouch/genital
pouch :-

(1) 7th , 8th and 9th sternites

(2) 7th and 8th sternites
(3) Only boat shaped 7th sternites
(4) 8th and 9th sternites

13) The head of cockroach shows great mobility in all directions due to :-

(1) Flexible head capsule which also bears compound eyes

(2) Flexible neck which is an extension of prothorax
(3) Flexible neck which is an extension of mesothorax
(4) Flexible neck which is an extension of metathorax

14) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of reproductive organs of a female cockroach. Identify

the parts labelled as A, B, C and D choose the right option about them :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15) Select the correct rout for the passape of sperms in male frogs :-

(1) Testes → Bidder's canal → Kidney → Vasa effer → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(2) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder's canal → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(3) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal vesicle → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(4) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder's canal → Ureter → Cloaca.

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) Consider the following statements (A-D):-

(A) Fusion of two gametes which are similar in size and flagellated or non-flagellated is termed as
isogamous.
(B) Fusion between one large, non motile female gamete and a smaller, motile male gamete is
termed as Oogamous.
(C) Fusion of two gametes which are dissimilar in size is termed as anisogamous
(D) Both Volvox and Fucus show isogamous type of sexual reproduction.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are wrong?

(1) A, D
(2) B, C
(3) Only C
(4) Only D

2) Which one of the commercial product is used to grow microbes and in preparations of ice-creams
and jellies ?

(1) Agar
(2) Algin
(3) Carrageen
(4) Fucodin

3) Which of the following group of marine algae is used as food ?

(1) Chlamydomonas, Volvox and Gracilaria

(2) Porphyra, Laminaria and Sargassum
(3) Laminaria and Gracilaria
(4) Porphyra and Chlamydomonas

4) Which one of the following shows isogamy with non-flagellated gametes ?

(1) Sargassum
(2) Ectocarpus
(3) Ulothrix
(4) Spirogyra

5)

List of some of the plants are given below :

Cedrus, Funaria, Pinus, Cycas, Ginkgo, Pteridium, Adiantum
How many above are 'naked seed' plants ?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

6) In plant (x) small specialised root other than tap roots are associated with N2 fixing cynobacteria.
The stem are unbranced and pinnate compound leaves persist for a few year. Identify the plant (x) in
the given diagrams :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Select the correct options about algae :

(1) Some algae are associated with fungi and animals
(2) Great range in form and size
(3) Reproduce by vegetative, asexual and sexual method
(4) All of these

8) Cell wall is made up of inner layer of cellulose and an outer layer of pectose in :-

(1) Ectocarpus
(2) Sagassum
(3) Chara
(4) Gracilaria

9) Identify the A, B, C, D & E in given diagram :

A B C D E

(1) Stipe Frond Frond Branches Porphyra

(2) Stipe Frond Frond Porphyra Branches

(3) Frond Frond Stipe Branches Porphyra

(4) Stipe Frond Porphyra Frond Branches

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : In spirogyra, isogamy is observed.
Statement II : Atleast half of total carbondioxide fixation on Earth is carried out by algae through
photosynthesis.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both, statement I and statement II are correct

11) Gemmae are :-

(1) Asexual reproductive structure of moss

(2) Sexual reproductive structure of liverwort
(3) Sexual reproductive structure of moss
(4) Asexual reproductive structure of liverwort

12) Identify the unique character of bryophyta :

(1) Dependency on water for fertilization

(2) Jacketless sex organ
(3) Sporophyte depends on gametophyte
(4) Presence of vascular tissues

13) Select the incorrect statement for bryophytes :-

(1) Gametophyte is free living & autotroph

(2) Antherozoids are biflagellated.
(3) In general are of great economic importance
(4) Spores germinate to produce gametophyte

14) Which term is not related to bryophyta?

(1) Archegonium
(2) Gemma cap
(3) Rhizoids
(4) Rhizome

15)

Which of the following features is not correct for pteridophytes ?

(1) Main plant body is differentiated into root, stem and leaf
(2) Vascular tissue has xylem and phloem
(3) These plants may be homosporous or heterosporous
(4) Main plant body is gametophyte

16) Assertion : Bryophytes are also called amphibians of the plant kingdom.
Reason : Bryophyte can live in soil but are dependent on water for sexual reproduction.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

17) The dominant phase in the life cycle of Funaria is –

(1) Protonema
(2) Leafy gametophyte
(3) Spore
(4) Sporophyte

18) Which of the following statement is incorrect :

(1) In gymnosperm antheridia is present

(2) Archegonia is absent in angiosperm
(3) Largest archegonia is found in bryophyta
(4) In Bryophytes, female sex organ called archegonium is flask-shaped and produces a single egg

19) Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II

A Psilopsida i Adiantum

B Lycopsida ii Equisetum

C Sphenopsida iii Selaginella

D Pteropsida iv Psilotum
(1) A → iv; B → iii; C → ii; D → i
(2) A → iii; B → ii; C → i; D → iv
(3) A → ii; B → i; C → iv; D → iii
(4) A → i; B → iv; C → iii; D → ii

20) The development of the zygote in to young embryos takes place with in the female gametophyte,
this event is a precursor of the :-

(1) Seed habit

(2) Fruit habit
(3) Vascular habit
(4) Tissue habit

21) Few statements are given below. Which of them are true for pteridophytes ?
(A) Dominant phase in their life cycle is gametophyte
(B) Their sporophyte is differentiated into foot seta and capsule
(C) Their sporophyte body has well differentiated vascular tissues
(D) Their prothallus is small but multicellular free living and mostly photosynthetic

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) C & D
(4) B & D

22) Which one of the following is considered first terrestrial plants to be evolved having xylem and
phloem ?

(1) Bryophyte
(2) Gymnosperm
(3) Pteridophytes
(4) Angiosperm

23) Pteridophytes differ form bryophytes in having :-

(1) Independent gametophyte

(2) Independent sporophyte
(3) Dependent gametophyte
(4) Dependent sporophyte

24) Identify the incorrect match :-

(1) Pinus - fungal association

(2) Cycas - N2 fixation by cyanobacteria
(3) Cedrus - branched stem
(4) Cycas - Simple leaves

25) Select the correct pattern of arrangement of reproductive structure of Gymnosperms:-

(1) Spore → Sporophylls → Sporangia → Strobili

(2) Spores → Sporangia → Sporophylls → Strobili
(3) Sporangia → Sporophylls → Spores → Strobili
(4) Spores → Sporangia → Strobili → Sporophylls

26) Statement-I : All gymnosperm are heterosporous.

Statement-II : Some gymnosperm are homosporous.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

27) In Bryophyta male reproductive organ is __a__ and female reproductive organ is __b__ which are
__c__ What is a, b and c :

(1) a : Antheridium; b : Archegonium; c : Multicellular

(2) a : Antheridium; b : Archegonium; c : Unicellular
(3) a : Antheridium; b : Oogonium; c : Multicellular
(4) a : Antheridium; b : Oogonium; c : Unicellular
28) The main plant body is sporophyte and differentiated in true root, true stem and true leaves, is
observed in :

(1) Bryophyta and Pteridophyta

(2) Pteridophyta and Gymnosperm
(3) Algae and Bryophyta
(4) Bryophyta and Gymnosperm

29) Antheridium and archegonum both are present in :

(1) Pteridophyta
(2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Angiosperm
(4) Algae

30) Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(1) Chlorophyll a and b - Chlorophyceae

(2) Chlorophyll a and d - Rhodophyceae
(3) Chlorophyl a and c - Phaeophyceae
(4) Chlorophyll a and c - Chlorophyceae

31) Sex organ in mosses are present on :

(1) Protonema
(2) Leafy gametophyte
(3) Leafy sporophyte
(4) Capsule

32) Union of gamete in red algae usually occurs in :

(1) Free water

(2) Within oogonium
(3) Within archegonium
(4) Either in free water or within oogonium

33) Megaspore mother cell in gymnosperm develops from :

(1) Archegonia
(2) Nucellus
(3) Endosperm
(4) Chalaza

34) Which of the following is not matched correctly :

Dominant phase in life cycle Plant

 (1) Gametophyte Moss

(2) Sporophyte Gymnosperm

(3) Sporophyte Angiosperm

(4) Gametophyte Pteridophyta

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Heterospory is an advance character required for seed formation was initially evolved in ?

(1) Marchantia like bryophytes

(2) Selaginella like lycopsida
(3) Azolla like fern
(4) Cycas like gymnosperm

SECTION-B

1) Analyse the following characteristics and identify the group of organisms :-

(A) They reproduce sexually by the fusion of non-motile gametes
(B) They show complex developmental changes after fertilization
(C) Majority of organisms are marine with greater concentration found in warmer areas.
(D) They have chlorophyll a,d and phycoerythrin as major pigments

(1) Phaeophyceae
(2) Chlorophyceae
(3) Rhodophyceae
(4) Cyanophyceae

2) Assertion : In Fucus, sexual reproduction takes place through fusion between one large, non-
motile female gamete and a smaller, motile male gamete. Reason : Fucus show Oogamous type of
sexual reproduction.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

3) In which of the following is diploid ?

(1) Capsule of moss

(2) Gametophyte, archegonia & egg of moss
(3) Gametophyte, antheridia and sperm of moss
(4) Gametophyte and sperm of moss
4) Which one of the following statement is not true for Bryophytes ?

(1) Their zygote undergo reduction division immediately

(2) They have both antheridium and archgonium
(3) They show photosynthetic nature
(4) Their spore germinates and produces gametophyte

5) Protonema, gamete, spore, spore mother cell, gametophyte, zygote, embryo.

How many of above structures are haploid in mosses ?

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 4

6) Identify the part A and B respectively in the given diagram

(1) Archegonial branch and antheridial branch

(2) Antheridial branch and Archegonial branch.
(3) Sporophytic branch and Gametophytic branch
(4) Gametophytic branch and sporophytic branch

7) Select incorrect option with respect to given diagram :-

(1) Heterosporous fern

(2) Aquatic fern
(3) Belongs to class pteropsida
(4) Gametophytic main plant body

8) Which statement is correct about Pteridophyta ?

(1) Gametophyte is autotrophic, while sporophyte is parasitic.
(2) Sporophyte is semiparasitic and gametophyte is autotrophic
(3) Both gametophyte and sporophyte are usually autotrophic.
(4) Only sporophyte is autotrophic, while gametophyte is parasitic.

9) Which of the following is matched correctly with reference to gymnosperm :

(1) Archegonia – n
(2) Nucellus – n
(3) Megaspore mother cell – n
(4) Pollen grain – 2n

10) Consider the following four statements (a to d) & Select the option having correct statements for
gymnosperms :-
(a) Pollen grains are partially developed male gametophytes
(b) Megasporophylls are macrosporangiate
(c) Microsporangia are indehiscent
(d) Megasporangium is integumented

(1) Statements a, b & d only

(2) Statements b, c & d only
(3) Statements a, c & d only
(4) Statements a, b, & c only

11) Which of the following characters are related to gymnosperm ?

(a) In Cycas male cone and megasporophyll are born on different tree.
(b) Development of pollen grain takes place in microsporophyll
(c) Gymnosperms produce haploid microspore and megaspores.
(d) In gymnosperms seeds are covered.
(e) Pollen grain is released from the microsporangium.

(1) a, b, c, e
(2) b, c, d, e
(3) a, b, c, d, e
(4) b, c, d

12) Which of the following is true for the figure given below?

(1) It is male gametophyte of Marchantia

(2) It is female gametophyte of Marchantia
(3) Sexual reproduction occurs by multicellular gemma
(4) It is a monoecious plant

13) Prothallus is :
a. Multicellular
b. Sporophyte
c. Usually autotrophic
d. Usually dioecious

(1) a and c
(2) a and b
(3) a and d
(4) b and c

14) Reductional division just after zygote formation occurs in :

(1) Funaria
(2) Fucus
(3) Ulothrix
(4) Marchantia

15) Which of the following show sexual reproduction by fusion of non motile male and female
gametes ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 2 2 1 4 4 4 4 2 3 2 2 1 3 4 1 3 3 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 4 3 1 3 2 3 1 3 4 4 3 3 4 3

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 3 1 2 2 1 2 1 3 3 1 4 1 3 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 2 3 2 1 3 3 4 1 2 1 3 2 2 2 1 3 3 3 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 1 4 2 3 3 3 3 2 3 2 3 2 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 3 4 1 2 1 1 2 3 4 3 3 4 4 1

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 3 1 4 2 3 1 4 2 3 2 3 1 2 2 3 3 3 3 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 2 2 3 1 1 2 3 1 3 1 1 1 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 2 4 1 1 4 3 1 2 1 2 1 2 4 2

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 1 2 4 2 2 4 3 3 4 4 3 3 4 4 1 2 1 1 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 3 2 4 2 3 1 2 1 4 2 2 2 4 2

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 1 1 1 4 2 4 3 1 1 1 2 1 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) cos(200π – π/3)
will be in 4th quadrant
cos(200π – π/3) = cos(–π/3)

= cos π/3 =

2)

According to graph

tan θ = = 2
Slope m = –2
c=+4
⇒ y = –2x + 4
⇒ y + 2x = 4

3)

4)

θ3 > θ2 > θ1 ⇒ tanθ3 > tanθ2 > tanθ1

5)

From O to A acute angle is increasing so slope is increasing and from A to B angle is decreasing so
slope will decrease.

6) 4 – 2cosθ
 –1 ≤ cosθ ≤ 1
Here, for maximum value
use cosθ = –1
4 – 2(–1)
=6
For minimum value
use cosθ = 1
4 – 2 (1)

=2

7)

S∞ = 1 + +...... =

8)

x = t2

9)

Continuously decrease

10) TP = (2m + 4m)a = T

TQ = (m + 4m)a =

11)

12) Impulse I =
 I=

I=
I = (3)4 - (1)4 = 80 N-S

13)

Ptruck = (103) (10) = 104 kg km/h

Pcar = (500) (50) = 2.5 × 104 kg km/h
Pbullet = (0.1) (104) = 103 kg km/h
Procket = (100) (200) = 2 × 104 kg km/h

14)

θ = 90°

15)

Newton's first law defines force. Newton's second law gives us a measure of force. Impulse gives us
the effect of force. Recoiling of gun is accounted for by Newton's 3rd law.

16)

Momentum acquired by the particle is numerically equal to area enclosed between the F-t curve and
time axis. For the given diagram area in upper half is positive and in lower half is negative (and
equal to upper half), so net area is zero. Hence the momentum acquired by the particle will be zero.

17)

18)

q = ne
80 × 10–6 = n × 1.6 × 10–19

21) When a positively charged body connected to earth, electrons flows from earth to body and
body becomes neutral.

22)
from A to B

23)

q1 : q2 = 1 : 9, L = 1 metre

So the required point is at a distance of 0.25 m from the charge 1 × 10–9 coul or 0.75 m from the
charge 9 × 10–9 coul.

25)

Charges are same or different, electric force remains same, (due to reaction law) but gravitational
force acts indivisually. So if masses are differnt m 1 g and m 2 g are different so, angles becoes
different, if m1 < m2 then θ1 > θ2.

36)

S = 2t2 – t + 1

velocity v =
v = 4t – 1

Acceleration a =
⇒ a = 4 at t = 1 sec
a = 4 m/s2

37)

38)

x = 2 or 3

At x = 3, value is negative so minimum.

So minimum value of function
= 2(3)3 – 15(3)2 + 36(3) + 11 = 38
 39)

Let y =
y2 = 2 +
y2 – 2 =
y2 – 2 = 2 cos 2θ
y2 = 2[1 + 2 cos2θ – 1]
y = 2cosθ

40)

y = 3x2 – 4
y = kx2 – c
at x = 0, y = –4
Therefore,

41)

= 1 – 0.03 × = 1 – 0.01 = 0.99

42)

V1 =

V2 =
Impulse = |ΔP| = |m(V2 – V1)| = |0.4 (–1 –1)| = 0.8 Ns

43)

at t = 2 sec.

44)
Force due to charge at A :

Force due to charge at B :

48)

CHEMISTRY

55) K =

K=

57) t1/2 ∝ a1–n

From graph
n=0
For zero order reaction, rate will be constant through out the reaction.

62)

=
 70) NCERT - Structure of carbonyl compound
C6H5–CH=CH–CHO

71) I mem [2C]

II mem [3C]

III mem [4C]

73)

82)

(1) Metamers
(2) Functional group isomers
(3) Functional group isomers
(4) Functional group isomers

86)

Let r = (1)x (2)y

x= = =
x=3

y= = =
y=0

89)

= 55 × 10 = 550 days

92)
Let (t1/2)0 = 4
(t1/2)1 = 1
(t7/8)0 = 4 + 2 + 1 ⇒ 7
(t7/8)1 = 1 + 1 + 1 ⇒ 3
 93)

reamining = = 25 % after 24 hr

95)

96)

CH3–C≡N & CH3–N ≡ C are functional isomers

100) (i) are F.G.I.

(ii) are F.G.I

(iii) CH3–C≡C–CH3 & are not Isomers.
C4H6 C4H8

(iv) are chain Isomers

(v)
are not isomers.

BIOLOGY-I

102) NCERT XI, Pg. No. 102

107)

NCERT XI pg# 143

108)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 116

109) NCERT-XI, Pg. #113, Fig. 7.17

 110) Module

111)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

113)

NCERT XIth Pg # 101

114)

Module Nurture-2, Pg # 91

117)

NCERT XI Pg # 102

118)

NCERT Pg. # 101

119)

NCERT- Pg. # 101

120)

NCERT XI (E)Pg.# 102, figure 7.1(c), (d), (b), 7.3

NCERT XI (H)Pg.# 102, para 2
figure 7.1(c), (d), (b), 7.3
figure 7.1(c), (d), (b), 7.3

122)

NCERT Pg # 101

135) NCERT XI, Pg. # 119

137) NCERT Page # 101

138)

NCERT XI Pg # 101, 102

139)

A, B, C, D statement is correct

140)

NCERT Pg # 103
 141)

NCERT Pg. # 112

142)

Ref. Module Page - 151 & NCERT

144)

NCERT XI, Page # 103

145)

NCERT-XII-Page No. # 102

BIOLOGY-II

151)

NCERT-XI Pg # 24

152)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 26

153)

NCERT XI, Pg # 26

154)

NCERT XI, Pg # 26

155)

NCERT Pg. # 33
Four (Cedrus, Pinus, Cycas & Ginkgo)

156) NCERT XI Page No. # 31, 33

157) NCERT XI Page No. # 24

158)

NCERT page # 26

159) NCERT XI, Pg. # 25

160) NCERT Page No. # 24

 161)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 29

162) NCERT XI Page # 29

163)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 29

164)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 29

165) NCERT XI, Pg # 30

166)

NCERT Pg. # 29

167) NCERT Pg # 30

168) NCERT Page No. # 33

169)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 32, II para

170)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 32

171)

NCERT XI Pg. # 30, 32

172) NCERT XI, Pg # 30

173)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 29, 30

174)

NCERT XI Pg. # 33

175)

NCERT Page No. 32, 33

176)
NCERT Pg # 33

177)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 28

178)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 30 & 32

179)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 32

180)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 27

181)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 29

182)

Red algae show oogamy

183) NCERT-XI Pg. # 33

184) NCERT-XI Pg. # 29, 30, 33, 34

186)

NCERT Pg. # 27

187) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 24

188)

NCERT Pg. # 29

189)

NCERT, Page # 29

190)

Protonema, gamete, spore, gametophyte.

191)

XI New NCERT Page No. 28

 192)

NCERT XI, Page # 31

193) NCERT XI Pg. # 30, 32

195)

NCERT (XI) Pg # 32, 33

196) NCERT Pg. # 33

197)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 28

200)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 32
Red Algae