25-08-2024

7650CMD303001240019 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

1)

A position dependent force F acting on a particle and its force-position curve is shown in the figure.
Work done on the particle, when its displacement 0 to 5 m is :-

(1) 35J
(2) 25J
(3) 15J
(4) 5J

2) Work done by the frictional force is

(1) Negative
(2) Positive
(3) Zero
(4) All of the above

3) For the system shown in figure both the block A and B are moving together. If coefficient of
friction between both the blocks is µ, the work done by friction on block B is :-

(1) Zero
(2) Negative
(3) Positive
(4) None of these

4) A uniform force of acts on a particle of mass 2kg. Hence the particle is displaced from

position to position .The work done by the force on the particle is :-

(1) 15 J
(2) 9 J
(3) 6 J
(4) 13 J

5) A particle moves under a force F = Cx from x = 0, to x = x1, the work done is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) Zero
(4)

6)

The force F acting on a particle moving in a straight line as shown in figure. What is the work done
by the force on the particle in the 1 m of the displacement ?

(1) 5 J
(2) 10 J
(3) 15 J
(4) 2.5 J

7) Two balls of masses 2 g and 6 g are moving with KE in the ratio of 3 : 1. What is the ratio of their
linear momenta ?

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 2
(4) None of these

8) Velocity-time graph of a particle moving in a straight line is as shown in figure. Mass of the
particle is 2 kg. Work done by all the forces acting on the particle in time interval between t = 0 to t

= 10 is:
(1) 300 J
(2) –300 J
(3) 400 J
(4) –400 J

9) The relationship between the force F and position x of a body is as shown in figure. The work
done in displacing the body from x = 1m to x = 5m will be:

(1) 30 J
(2) 15 J
(3) 25 J
(4) 20 J

10) A uniform chain of length L and mass M is lying on a smooth table and of its length is hanging
down over the edge of the table. If g is the acceleration due to gravity, the work done to pull the
hanging part on the table is :-

(1) MgL

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) K.E. of a body is increased by 44%. What percent increase in the momentum ?

(1) 10%
(2) 20%
(3) 30%
(4) 44%

12) An ideal spring with spring constant K is hung from the ceiling and a block of mass M is attached
to its initially unstretched. The maximum extension in the spring is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A force newtons is applied over a particle which displaces it from its origin to the
point metres. The work done on the particle is :-

(1) –7 joules
(2) +13 joules
(3) +7 joules
(4) +11 joules

14) A person holds a bucket of weight 60N. He walks 7m along the horizontal and then climbs a
vertical distance of 5m. The work done by the man on the bucket is-

(1) 300 J
(2) 420 J
(3) 720 J
(4) None of the above

15) A block of mass 2 kg is projected with speed of 20m/s on a horizontal frictionless surface
towards an uncompressed spring of spring constant k = 800N/m, then find out the maximum
compression in the spring.

(1) 0.5m
(2) 1m
(3) 1.5m
(4) 2m

16) The curved portions are smooth and horizontal surface is rough. The block is released from P. At

what distance from A it will stop ?

(1) 1 m
(2) 2 m
(3) 3 m
(4) 4 m

17) If the blocks shown in the figure are released from rest, what is the power delivered by the
tension in the string to the 2 kg block in 2 s ?

(1) 72 watt
(2) 144 watt
(3) 36 watt
(4) 180 watt

18) A particle is moved from (0,0) to(a, a) under a force F = (3i + 4j) from two paths. Path 1 is OP
and Path 2 is OQP. Let W1 and W2 be the work done by this force in these two paths. Then

(1) W1 = W2
(2) W1 = 2W2
(3) W2 = 2W2
(4) W2 = 4W1

19)
Find work done by friction if block reaches to the end with constant velocity :-

(1) –50 N
(2)
(3) –100 N
(4) –200 N

20) An engine pump is used to pump a liquid of density p continuously through a pipe of cross-
sectional area A. If the speed of flow of the liquid in the pipe is v, then the rate at which kinetic
energy is being imparted to the liquid is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

21) A force (where K is a positive constant) acts on a particle moving in the xy plane.
Starting from the origin, the particle is taken along the positive x-axis is to the point (a, 0) and then
parallel to the y-axis to the point (a, a). The total work done by the force F on the particle is :-

(1) –2Ka2
(2) 2Ka2
(3) –Ka2
(4) Ka2

22) When a conservative force does positive work on a body, the potential energy of the body :-

(1) increases
(2) decreases
(3) remain unchanged
(4) may increase or decrease depending on the nature of the force

23) If a spring extends by x on loading then energy stored by the spring is : (T is tension in the
spring, K= spring const)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) A body of mass m starting from rest from origin moves along x-axis with constant power (P)
calculate relation b/w velocity/ distance :-

(1) x ∝ v1/2
(2) x ∝ v2
(3) x ∝ v
(4) x ∝ v3

25) A light and a heavy body have equal momentum. Which one has greater K.E. :

(1) The light body

(2) The heavy body
(3) Both have equal
(4) Data is incomplete

26) Which of the following statements is TRUE for a system comprising of two bodies in contact
exerting frictional force on each other :-

(1) total work done by static friction on whole system is always zero
(2) work done by static friction on a body is always zero
(3) work done by kinetic friction on a body is always negative
(4) total work done by internal kinetic friction on whole system is always positive

27) The work done by gravity during the descent of a projectile:

(1) is positive
(2) is negative
(3) is zero
(4) depends for its sign on the direction of the y axis

28) Magnitude of force at (1, 2) if the potential energy for particle is U = x3 – x2 + 2y + y2.

(1)
(2) 0 N
(3)
(4)

29) What is the shape of the graph between the speed and kinetic energy of a body

(1) Straight line

(2) Hyperbola
(3) Parabola
(4) Exponential

30) If momentum of body is increased by 2% then kinetic energy increased by :-

(1) 2%
(2) 4%
(3) 1%
(4) 5%

31) A particle moves with a velocity under the influence of a constant force
. The instantaneous power applied to the particle is

(1) 200 J-s–1

(2) 40 J-s–1
(3) 140 J-s–1
(4) 170 J-s–1

32) Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 have same kinetic energy. The ratio of their momentum is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) A pump motor is used to deliver water at a certain rate from a given pipe. To obtain ‘n’ times
water from the same pipe in the same time the amount by which the power of the motor should be
increased –

(1) n1/2
(2) n2
(3) n3
(4) n

34) The force acting on a body moving along x-axis varies with the position of the particle as shown

in the figure. The body is in stable equilibrium at:

(1)
(2)
(3) Both and
(4) Neither nor

35) The potential energy of particle varies according to the graph shown. Force acting on it varies

according to which of the following graphs :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

SECTION - B

1) A force of magnitude of 30 N acting along , displaces a particle from point (2, 4, 1) to (3,
5, 2). The work done during this displacement is

(1) 90 J
(2) 30 J
(3) 30 J
(4) 30/ J

2) A block of mass 2 kg is released from A on a track that is one quadrant of a circle of radius 1 m. It
slide down the track and reaches B with a speed of 4m/s and finally stops at C at a distance of 3m

from B. The work done against the force of friction is :-

(1) 2 J
(2) 5 J
(3) 10 J
(4) 20 J

3) Velocity of a particle of mass 1 kg moving rectilinearly is given by v = 25 – 2t + t2. Find the

average power of the force acting on the particle between time interval t = 0 to t = 1 sec.

(1) 49 W
(2) 24.5 W
(3) –49 W
(4) –24.5 W

4) A force = (3x2 + 3y2 )N displace a body from (2i + 3j)m to ( )m calculate work done ?

(1) 59 J
(2) –59 J
(3) 56 J
(4) – 56 J

5) A 0.5 kg ball is thrown up with an initial speed 14 m/s and reaches a maximum height of 8.0m.
How much energy is dissipated by air drag acting on the ball during the ascent :-

(1) 19.6 Joule

(2) 4.9 Joule
(3) 10 Joule
(4) 9.8 Joule

6) A time varying power P = 2t is applied on a particle of mass 3kg. The change in kinetic energy of
the particle during t = 0 to t = 4 sec

(1) 4 J
(2) 8 J
(3) 16 J
(4) 24 J

7)

A force is acting on a particle. Then work done by the force in displacing the
particle from (1, 2, 3)m to (3, 6, 1)m is :-

(1) –10 J
(2) 100 J
(3) 10 J
(4) 1 J

8)

A block of mass m is placed on an inclined plane moving with constant velocity V in horizontal
direction on friction less surface. Then find out work done by friction in time t on the block if it is at
rest with respect to inclined plane :

(1) w = mg vt cosθ
(2) w = - mgvt sinθ cosθ
(3) w = 2mgvt cosθ sinθ
(4) w = mgvt cosθ sinθ

9) A smooth track in the form of a quarter circle of radius 6 m lies in the vertical plane. A particle
moves from P1 to P2 under the action of forces and . Force is always toward P2 and is
always 20 N in magnitude. Force always acts horizontally and is always 30 N in magnitude. Force
always acts tangentially to the track and is of magnitude 15 N. Select the correct alternative(s)

(1) work done by is 120 J

(2) work done by is 190 J
(3) work done by is 45 π
(4) is non-conservative in nature

10) Energy stored in a spring is V1 and V2 when it is stretched from 0 to 1 cm and 1cm to 2 cm
respectively, then V1:V2 will be

(1) 1:1
(2) 1:2
(3) 1:3
(4) 1:4

11) Force constants of two wires A and B of the same material are k and 2k respectively. If the two

wires are stretched equally, then the ratio of work done in stretching is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

12) An engine pumps water through a hose pipe. Water passes through the pipe and leaves it with a
velocity of 2 m/s. The mass per unit length of water in the pipe is 100 kg/m. What is the power of the
engine?

(1) 400 W
(2) 200 W
(3) 100 W
(4) 800 W

13) A body of mass m is moved from rest, along a straight line, by an engine delivering constant
power P. The velocity of the body after time t will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A block is pushed by force of 40 N as shown in diagram then work done by friction on the block

will be :-

(1) –222 J
(2) 144 J
(3) –44 J
(4) –56 J

15) A wedge of mass M fitted with a spring of stiffness ‘k’ is kept on a smooth horizontal surface. A
rod of mass m is kept on the wedge as shown in the figure. System is in equilibrium and at rest
Assuming that all surfaces are smooth, the potential energy stored in the spring is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

1) Which of the following compound does not contain cordinate bond :-

(1) O3
(2) H2O
(3) HNO3
(4) N2O5

2)

Which is the right structure of XeF4 :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

3) Number of 120° angle in PCl5 is :

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 12

4) Assertion: Though the central atom of both NH3 and H2O molecules are sp3 hybridised, yet H-N-H
bond angle is greater than that of H-O-H.
Reason: This is because nitrogen atom has one lone pair and oxygen atom has two lone pairs.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

5) Which of the following will be the most stable structure of ClF3 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of the above have same strength

6) Which of the following represent the negative overlaping ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

7) Identify the correct statement related to PCl5 from the following.

0
(1) Three equatorial P-Cl bonds make an angle of 120 with each other
0
(2) Two axial P-Cl bonds make an angle of 180 with each other
(3) Axial P-Cl bonds are longer than Equatorial P-Cl bonds
(4) All of the above

8) Match the given compounds in column I with their structure in column Il and assign the correct
code.

Column I Column II

A. ClF3 I. Trigonal pyramidal

B. XeOF4 II. Square planar

C. SF4 III. Bent T-shape

D. PCl3 IV. See-saw

V Square pyramidal
(1) A-III, B-V, C-II, D-I
(2) A-I, B-V, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-III, B-II, C-V, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-V, C-IV, D-I

9) Octet rule is not followed in

(1) NH3
(2) CH4
(3) CO2
(4) NO

10) Which of the following has tetrahedral structure ?

(1) CCl4
(2) SO2
(3) H3PO4
(4) 1 & 3 both

11) If x-axis is internuclear axis then σ bond can be formed by overlapping of :-

(1) px + py
(2) px + px
(3) py + py
(4) s + py

12) How many bond angle of 90° are present in IF5:-

(1) 0
(2) 12
(3) 8
(4) 4

13) Which of the following combination does not allow formation of σ bond?

(1) s + pz
(2) py + py
(3) dxy + dxy
pz +
(4)

14) Which of the following is having a square planar structure :-

(1)
–
(2) BF4
(3) XeF4
(4) CCl4

15) Which combination of orbitals will form π bond if INA is x-axis :-

(1) px + px
(2) s + px
(3) px + py
(4) py + py

16)

Shape of SF4 is :-

(1) See-Saw
(2) π-shape
(3) distorted tetrahedral
(4) All of these

17) Total number of lone pair of electrons in ion is :

(1) 9
(2) 12
(3) 3
(4) 6

18) A π-bond is formed by the overlapping of :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Lewis structure of O3 is drawn as therefore formal charge on oxygen atoms 1, 2, and
3 respectively are :

(1) 0, 0, 0
(2) 0, +1, –1
(3) 0, +1, +1
(4) –1, +1, –1

20) Hybridisation of nitrogen in NF3 molecule is :

(1) sp2
(2) sp
(3) sp3
(4) None of these

21) Which pair have sp2 hybridisation :

(1) SO2, H2O

(2) CO2, SO2
 –
(3) NO2 , SO2
– –2
(4) NO3 , SO4

22) A sp3 hybrid orbital contains:-

(1)
s- character

(2)
p - character

(3)
p - character

(4)
s - character

23) In a change from PCl3 → PCl5, the hybrid state of P change from :-

(1) sp2 to sp3

(2) sp3 to sp2
(3) sp3 to sp3d
(4) sp3 to dsp2

24) The number of 90° angles present in a molecule having only 5 σ-bonds are-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

25) Hybridization of carbon in CO2 molecule is :-

(1) sp
(2) sp2
(3) sp3
(4) dsp3

26) The hybridisation of orbitals of N atom in NO3–, NO2+ and NH4+ are respectively :

(1) sp, sp3, sp2

(2) sp2, sp3, sp
(3) sp, sp2, sp3
(4) sp2, sp, sp3

27) Hybridisation state of S in SF6 :

(1) sp3d
(2) sp
(3) sp3d2
(4) sp3

28) Which of the following represents the given mole of hybridization sp − sp − sp2 − sp2 − sp3 from
left to right ?

(1) CH3 − CH3 − CH2 = CH − NH2

(2) CH ≡ CH − CH2 − CH2 − NH2
(3) CH ≡ CH − CH2 − NH − CH3
(4) CH ≡ CH − N = N − CH3

29) How many angle of 109°28' in sp3 ?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

30) Predict the correct order among the following :-

(1) lone pair- lone pair > lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair
(2) lone pair - lone pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair
(3) bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair > lone pair - lone pair
(4) lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - lone pair

31) The hybridization of orbital of N atom in NO3– , NO2+ and NH4+ are, respectively :

(1) sp2, sp, sp3

(2) sp, sp3, sp2
(3) sp2, sp3, sp
(4) sp, sp2, sp3

32)

The d-orbitals involved in sp3d hybridisation is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

33) When two atoms combine to form a molecule :-

(1) Energy released

(2) Energy absorbed
(3) No change
(4) None

34) Geometry of sp3d2 hybridised central atom :-

(1) Linear
(2) Trigonal planar
(3) Trigonal bipyramidal
(4) Square bipyramidal

35) Covalent bond is formed by

(1) Combination of ions

(2) Overlapping of half filled orbitals
(3) Exchange of electrons by atom
(4) All are correct

SECTION - B

1) In a triple bond there is sharing of :-

(1) 3-electrons
(2) 4-electrons
(3) Several electrons
(4) 6-electrons

2) Variable covalency is exhibit by :-

(1) P and S
(2) N and O
(3) N and P
(4) F and Cl

3)

In which of the following overlapping σ-bond strength is highest?

(1) 2s-2p
(2) 1s-1s
(3) 2s-2s
(4) 2p-2p

4) The chemical bond that can be formed by a hybrid orbital:

(1) δ-bond
(2) σ-bond
(3) π-bond
(4) All of these

5) Lewis dot structure of carbon monoxide molecule is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Correct order of extent of overlapping is : –

(1) 1s – 1s > 2p – 2p > 2s – 2p

(2) 2s – 2s > 2p – 2p > 2s – 2p
(3) 1s – 1s > 2s – 2s > 3s – 3s
(4) 3s – 3s > 3s – 3p > 3p – 3p

7) Which of the following combination leads to formation of π bond (Molecular axis is z axis)
(A) py + py (B) dyz + dyz
(C) px + dzx (D) dxy + dyz

(1) If A, B and C options are correct.

(2) If A & B both are correct.
(3) If B & D both are correct.
(4) If A & C both are correct.

8) NH3 is formed in which state of N:

(1) Ground state

(2) 1st excited state
(3) 2nd excited state
(4) 3rd excited state

9) Total σ +π bonds in benzene are :-

(1) 15
(2) 12
(3) 10
(4) None

10) The shape of XeF6 is :-

(1) Square planar

(2) Tetrahedral
(3) Capped octahedral
(4) Pentagonal planar

11) Which of the following is not correctely match :-

(1) XeF2 → linear

(2) XeO3 → pyramidal
(3) XeF4 → tetrahedral
(4) ClF3 → T–shaped

12) Type of overlapping present in H-Cl is :-

(1) 1s-2p
(2) 1s-2s
(3) 1s-3p
(4) 1s-4p

13) On which axis two atom approaches each other in order to make a π bond using px – px overlap?

(1) x-axis
(2) y-axis
(3) z-axis
(4) (2) & (3) both

14) If internuclear axis is x, then which bonding is possible :

(1) px–px
(2) py–py
(3) pz–pz
(4) All are possible

15) The strength of bonds by 2s- 2s, 2p - 2p and 2p - 2s overlapping has the order :-

(1) s - s > p - p > s - p

(2) s - s > p - s > p - p
(3) p - p > p - s > s - s
(4) p - p > s - s > p - s

BOTANY

SECTION - A

1) How many plants in the list given below are the members of embryophytes :-
Spirogyra, Volvox, Fucus, Polysiphonia, Polytrichum, Sphagnum, Marchantia, Funaria, Selaginella,
Equisetum.

(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

2) Select the correct option about given diagram :-

(1) The male and the female gametophytes do not have an independent free-living existence.
(2) The pollen grains and ovules are developed in specialised structures called flowers.
(3) This is the giant redwood tree Sequoia is one of the tallest tree species in gymnosperms.
(4) Both (1) and (3).

3) The main plant body is differentiated into true root, stem and leaves in

(1) Green algae

(2) Bryophtes
(3) Blue green algae
(4) Pteridophytes

4) In mosses the sex organs are present in the

(1) Protonema stage

(2) Sporophytic stage
(3) Leafy Gametophyte
(4) Both (1) and (2)

5) The sporophyte in mosses is :-

(1) Less elaborated than that in liverworts

(2) More elaborated than in liverworts
(3) Equally elaborated than that in liverworts
(4) Independent of gametophyte

6) In bryophytes :-

(1) Zygote do not undergo reduction division

(2) Sporophyte is restricted to a single celled structure
(3) The gametophyte is dependent on the sporophyte
(4) The cells of sporophyte cannot undergo reduction division

7) Thallus of brown algae is divided into three parts as :

(1) Foot, Seta and Capsule

(2) Root, Stem and Leaf
(3) Frond, Stipe and Holdfast
(4) Rhizoid, Gemma cup and Archaegonia

8) Select the mismatch.

(1) Pinus — Dioecious

(2) Cycas — Dioecious
(3) Salvinia — Heterosporous
(4) Equisetum — Homosporous

9) A typical gymnosperm plant has 16 chromosomes in leaf cells. What will be the number of
chromosomes in the cells of its endosperm?

(1) 16
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 24

10) Assertion : Mosses form dense mats on the soil and prevent soil erosion.
Reason : In mosses, spores are directly developed in to leafy gametophyte.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is False
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False

11) Assertion : Pteridophytes are restricted to narrow Geographical region.

Reason : Prothallus requires damp and shady places and water is required for fertilizations.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

12) Statement - I : Agar is used to grow microbes and in preparation of ice-cream and jellies.
Statement - II : Agar is a hydrocolloid which is produced by certain marine and brown algae.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement I is correct.
(4) Only Statement II is correct.

13) Assertion : Heterosporous condition in pteridophytes is considered as an event which is

precursor to seed habit.
Reason : The female gametophytes in heterosporous pteridophytes are retained on the parent
sporophytes for variable periods and the development of the zygotes into young embryo take place
within the female gametophytes.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

14) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Zygote do not undergo reduction division immediately in bryophytes.
Reason (R) : In bryophytes the dominant phase in the life cycle is the gametophytic plant body.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

15)
(A) Name of the plant ?
(B) Parts labelled (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are ?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Identify the algal shown in figure and match. Correct match with the given characters is -

Number
of Stored
Name of Algae
flagella in food
gametes

Floridean
(1) Polysiphonia Absent
starch

Laminarin
(2) Porphyra 2-apical
& starch

(3) Herveyella 2-lateral Starch

Floridean
(4) Porphyra Absent
starch
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) In which plants male gametes are motile :-

(A) Bryophyta (B) Pteridophyta
(C) Angiosperm (D) Algae

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) A, B & C
(4) A, B & D

18) Nearly how many species of marine algae are used as food?

(1) 60
(2) 70
(3) 50
(4) 80

19) Identify the ploidy of the following structures:

(I) Protonema (II) Spores
(III) Prothallus (IV) Embryo

(1) I–2n, II–2n, III–n, IV–n

(2) I–n, II–2n, III–2n, IV–n
(3) I–n, II–n, III–2n, IV–2n
(4) I–n, II–n, III–n, IV–2n

20) Arrange the following event in a correct sequence with respect to life cycle of fern.
(I) Fertilization (II) Liberation of spores
(III) Prothallus (IV) Embryo

(1) II, III, I, IV

(2) I, IV, III, II
(3) I, II, III, IV
(4) I, II, IV, III

21) The correct sequence of evolution is :

(1) Bryophyta → Pteridophyta → Gymnosperms → Dicots → Monocots

(2) Pteridophyta → Gymnosperms → Dicots → Monocots → Bryophyta
(3) Bryophyta → Gymnosperms → Dicots → Monocots → Angiosperms
(4) Bryophyta → Pteridophyta → Gymnosperms → Monocots → Dicots

22) A graph is given below exhibiting evolution of gametophyte of different plant groups at No. 1 to
6. Identify that number 1 representing which group of plants ?

(1) Moss
(2) Pteridophyta
(3) Angiosperm
(4) Liverwort

23) performed an elegant experiment with an plant to show that in bright

sunlight, small bubble, were formed around the parts, while in dark they do not die.
A B C
(1) Ingenhousz Aquatic Green
(2) Ingenhousz Terrestrial Green
(3) Priestly Aquatic Green
(4) Priestly Aquatic Non-green

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

24) Statement-I : In green plants H2O is the hydrogen donor and is oxidised to O2.
Statement-II : Cornelius Van Niel demonstrated that photosynthesis is essentially a light dependent
reaction in which hydrogen from a suitable oxidisable compound reduces carbon dioxide to
carbohydrate.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

25) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

Green plant parts synthesise

A. Joseph Priestley (i)
sugar

In photosynthesis O2 comes
B. Jan Ingenhousz (ii)
from H2O
 C. Julius von Sachs (iii) Discovered oxygen

Sunlight is essential to the

Cornelius Van
D. (iv) plant process that purifies
Niel
fouled air
(1) A = (i), B = (iv), C = (iii), D = (ii)
(2) A = (iv), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (i)
(3) A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iii), D = (iv)
(4) A = (iii), B = (iv), C = (i), D = (ii)

26) Chlorophyll a appears _______ in colour & chlorophyll b appears ______ in colour on
chromatogram :-

(1) Blue green, Yellow green

(2) Yellow green, Blue green
(3) Blue, Red
(4) Green, Red

27) Study the above diagram and select the option which gives correct words for all the four blanks

A, B, C and D:-

A B C D

Stroma
(1) Stroma Grana Mt-DNA
thylakoid

Site of dark
Intergranum Site of Photophos-
(2) reaction of Cp-DNA
lamellae phorylation
photosynthesis

Stromal Site of photolysis of Starch

(3) Stroma
lamella water granule

Site of
Intergranum Site of oxidative
(4) synthesis of Cp-DNA
lamellae phosphorylation
glucose
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

28)

Identify A,B,C,D and E in the given flowchart showing Z-scheme of light reaction.
 A B C D E

H+ e–
(1) P700 P680 NADP+
acceptor acceptor

e– e– transpor
(2) Photo-system-I Photo-system-II NADPH
acceptor system

H+
(3) Photo-system-II e– acceptor P700 NADPH
acceptor

e– e– transport
(4) Photo-system-II Photo-system-I NADPH
acceptor system
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

29) In the above given diagram, orientation of chloroplast in a

mesophyll cell is shown. Which of the following is correct about light:-

(1) Low light intensity

(2) High light intensity
(3) Moderate light intensity
(4) Nothing can be predicted on the basis of given data

30) Photosystem I (PS I) and photosystem II (PS II) are named:

(1) in the sequence of their discovery

(2) in the sequence in which they function during light reaction
(3) in the sequence of their positions
(4) in the sequence of electron transfer

31) Stromal lamellae lack

(1) PSII
(2) PSI
(3) NADP reductase
(4) Both (1) and (3)

32) In PS I, the reactions centre Chl a has absorption maxima at_____whereas in PS II, the reaction
centre Chl a has absorption maximum at___.

(1) 700 nm, 680 nm

(2) 680 nm, 700 nm
(3) 400 nm, 500 nm
(4) 700 nm, 800 nm

33) Following is the absorption spectrum of photosynthesis. Identify X, Y and Z.

X Y Z

(1) Chlorophyll-b Carotenoids Chlorophyll-a

(2) Chlorophyll-a Chlorophyll-b Carotenoids

(3) Chlorophyll-b Phycobillins Carotenes

(4) Chlorophyll-a Carotenes Xanthophyll

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

34) The product(s) of light reaction which is/are common between cyclic and non-cyclic
photophosphorylation and is/are utilised in dark reaction, is/are :-

(1) NADPH·H+
(2) Oxygen
(3) ATP
(4) NADPH·H+ and ATP

35) Photolysis of H2O and OEC is associated with :-

(1) PS I
(2) PS II
(3) Complex I
(4) Complex II

SECTION - B

1) Endosperm directly develops from which structure in gymnosperm :

(1) Megaspore mother cell

(2) Megaspore
(3) Nucellus
(4) Integuments

2) Among the following which is not characteristic feature of bryophytes :

(1) Motile sperms

(2) Presence of Archegonium
(3) Water essential for fertilization
(4) Photosynthetically independent sporophyte

3) Which of the following option incorrect:

(1) In all embryophytes meiosis takes place at the time of spore formation
(2) When sporophyte change into gametophyte meiosis takes place
(3) When gametophyte change into sporophyte fertilisation takes place
(4) In all embryophytes gametophyte plant body posses leaves

4) If chromosome number in nucellus is 20 the number of chromosome in Pinus endosperm is :-

(1) 20
(2) 10
(3) 30
(4) 40

5) Assertion (A) :- Some cells of the sporophyte produce haploid spores in bryophytes.
Reason (R) :- In Bryophytes spore mother cells in capsule of sporophyte undergo reduction
division.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

6)
Examine the figures given below and select the right option out of 1–4, in which structures A, and B
are correctly identified :-

(1) A–Antheridiophore, B–Sporophyte,

(2) A–Achegoniophore, B–Sporophyte,
(3) A–Gemma cup, B–Archegonial branch,
(4) A–Gemma cup, B–Sporogonial branch,

7) Find out the diploid structure of gymnosperms from given below : Endosperm, nucellus,
gametophyte, archegonia, ovule, leaves

(1) Endosperm, nucellus, leaves

(2) Archegonia, ovule and gametophyte
(3) Ovule, nucellus, leaves
(4) Ovule, nucellus, endosperm

8) Some characters/structures are given below. How many of them are found in both pteridophyta
and gymnosperm :-
(A) Archegonium (B) Protonema
(C) Embryo (D) Ovule
(E) Vascular tissue (F) Antheridium

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

9) Read the following terms carefully

Prothallus, Protonema, Endosperm, embryo, Zygote, Archegonia, Rhizome, Cone, Seed, Adventitious
root.
How many term related with vascular cryptogames

(1) 8
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

10) Arrange the following events in correct sequence regarding life cycle of a moss :-
(A) Spore dispersal (B) Fertilisation
(C) Filamentous stage (D) Gametogenesis
(E) Leafy stage

(1) A → E → B → C → D
(2) E → D → B → A → C
(3) B → C → D → E → A
(4) E → C → D → B → Α

11) Which is the most logical sequence with reference to the life cycle of angiosperm :-

(1) Germination, endosperm formation, seed dispersal, double fertilization

(2) Endosperm formation, seed formation, fertilization, seed germination
(3) Pollination, fertilization, seed formation, seed germination
(4) Fertilization, seed dispersal, endosperm formation, seed germination

12) Evolutionary relationship of three major group of organisms is shown in the occompanying
diagram where A, B, C, D, E are liverworts, moss, fern, cycadales and gnetales respectively. In this
diagram Funaria, Adiantum, Cycas and Ephedra will be placed respectively:-

(1) B, C, D, E
(2) A, B, C, D
(3) A, C, D, E
(4) C, D, B, A

13) If we remove accessory pigments from plant then what will be the effect ?

The efficiency of photosynthesis will increase because all the light energy become available to
(1)
chlorophyll ‘a’
(2) Range of wavelengths, which are utilised in photosynthesis, become narrower
Due to less amount of light energy the possibility of photo-oxidation of chlorophyll ‘a’ will
(3)
decrease
(4) The photolysis of water and formation of ATP will not occur

14)
Above graph shows overlapping of action spectrum of photosynthesis with absorption spectrum of
chlorophyll 'a'. Which of the following conclusions can be made by this graph ?

(1) Chlorophyll 'a' shows maximum absorption at red region of visible spectrum
By absorbing extra light, accessory pigments enhances the chance of photo-oxidation of
(2)
chlorophyll 'a'
(3) Chlorophyll 'a' perform photosynthesis only in blue and red regions of visible spectrum
Some photosynthesis also takes place at the wavelengths of the visible spectrum other than blue
(4)
and red regions.

15) Which of the following are the source of electrons in Z-scheme respectively for NADP+, PS-II and
PS-I ?

(1) PS-I, Pheophytin and FeS protein

(2) FeS protein, PS-I and H2O
+
(3) Pheophytin, H2O and NADP
(4) PS-I, H2O and PS-II

ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A

1) Identify A, B, C and D in a given figure related to mouth parts of the cockroach.

(1) A–Mandible, B–Labium, C–Labrum, D–Maxilla

(2) A–Labrum, B–Mandible, C–Labium, D–Maxilla
(3) A–Labrum, B–Mandible, C–Maxilla, D–Labium
(4) A–Maxilla, B–Labium, C–Labrum, D–Mandible

2) Which of the following is not true for hypopharynx of cockroach ?

(1) It is a tongue-like structure

(2) It lies within the cavity enclosed by the mouth parts
(3) It is a median flexible lobe
(4) It is represented by the mandibles

3) In cockroach the pair of wings arises from which part of thorax ?

(1) Prothorax and mesothorax

(2) Prothorax and metathorax
(3) Mesothorax and metathorax
(4) Metathorax and first abdominal segment

4) Among the given statements, select the correct option with respect to alimentary canal of
cockroach.

(1) The alimentary canal of cockroach is divided into two regions, i.e., foregut and midgut
(2) Pharynx is absent in cockroaches
(3) Malpighian tubules help in the removal of excretory products from haemolymph
(4) The hindgut is narrower than midgut and is differentiated into ileum, colon and rectum

5) Identify the incorrect match pair from the following options :

(1) Anal cerci – Present in males

(2) Malpighian tubule – Present between midgut and hindgut
(3) Gastric caecea – Ring of 100-150 blind tubules
(4) Proventriculus – Have outer layer of thick circular muscles

6) Haemolymph of cockroach contains :

(1) Erythrocytes and plasma

(2) Respiratory pigments only
(3) Haemocytes, leucocytes and plasma
(4) Haemocytes and plasma

7) Which of the following statement is correct for the nervous system of cockroach ?

(1) Six ganglia lie in thorax and three in the abdomen

In the head region, the brain is represented by supra-oesophageal ganglion that supplies nerves
(2)
to eyes and antenna
(3) It is restricted to the head region
(4) Three pairs of ganglia lie in the thorax and six pairs in the abdomen

8) Identify the incorrect pair from the following options with respect to P. americana.

(1) 4th-6th segment - A pair of testes, one lying on each lateral side
(2) 6th-7th segment - Accessory reproductive gland in males
(3) 2nd - 6th segment in females - Pair of ovaries lying laterally
(4) 6th segment in males - A pair of spermatheca is present

9) Choose the correct option given below.

(1) The fertilised eggs are encased in capsules called oothecae

(2) The development from egg to adult is direct
(3) On the lateral side of cockroach possesses 12 pairs of spiracles
(4) Crop helps in grinding the food
10) Assertion (A) : The epithelium of Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT) of nephron in kidney has
microvilli.
Reason (R) : Microvilli increases the surface area of the tubule and maximise the reabsorption of
substances.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) A is false, but R is true

11) Assertion (A) : Cockroaches rely heavily on antennae for crucial functions.
Reason (R) : Antennae have sensory receptors that help in monitoring the environment.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) A is false, but R is true

12) Assertion (A): The gizzard, a muscular organ found in the digestive system of some arthropods,
aids in the mechanical breakdown of food particles.
Reason (R) : Proventericulus has an outer layer of thick circular muscles and thick inner cuticle
forming six highly chitinous plate.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) A is false, but R is true

13) Identify the correct statement with respect to Periplaneta.

(I) In female cockroach, genital chamber and vestibulum constitutes the genital pouch.
(II) Malpighian tubules help in the removal of excretory products from the haemolymph.
(III) They bear no eyes.
(IV) Female bears mushroom glands and male bears collaterial glands.
(V) The male genital aperture is present at the base of ventral phellomere and the left phellomere
bears a psuedopenis.

(1) I, II and V
(2) II, and IV
(3) II, III and V
(4) I and III

14) Read the statements with regard to frog and choose the correct option.
(I) The medulla oblongata passes out through foramen. of Monro and continues into spinal cord.
(II) Vasa efferentia are 10-12 in number that arise from testes.
(III) Ovaries have no functional connection with kidneys.
(IV) Frogs are uricotelic.
(V) The nervous system is divided into central nervous system and peripheral nervous system.
(1) I, II, III and V are correct, while IV is incorrect
(2) I and II are correct, while III, IV and V are incorrect
(3) II, III and V are correct, while I and IV are incorrect
(4) II, III and IV are correct, while I and V is incorrect

15)

Column-I Column-II

(A) Anal Cerci (1) 4th and 6th Segments

(B) Tegmina (2) 10th Segment

(C) Testes (3) Forewings

(D) Exoskeleton (4) Sclerites

(1) A–2, B–3, C–1, D–4
(2) A–4, B–3, C–2, D–1
(3) A–3, B–4, C–2, D–1
(4) A–4, B–2, C–3, D–1

16)

In cockroach, excretion is brought about by

A. Phallic gland B. Urecose gland
C. Nephrocytes D. Fat body
F. Collaterial glands
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) A, B, and E only

(2) B, C and D only
(3) B and D only
(4) A and E only

17) Which of the following is characteristic feature of cockroach regarding sexual dimorphism ?

(1) Presence of anal styles

(2) Presence of sclerites
(3) Presence of anal cerci
(4) Dark brown body colour and anal cerci

18) Tegmina in cockroach, arises from

(1) mesothorax
(2) metathorax
(3) prothorax and mesothorax
(4) prothorax

19) In cockcroach, identify the parts of the foregut in correct sequence.

(1) Mouth → Oesophagus → Pharynx → Crop → Gizzard
(2) Mouth → Crop → Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard
(3) Mouth → Gizzard → Crop → Pharynx → Oesophagus
(4) Mouth → Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop → Gizzard

20) Match the following columns with reference to cockroach and select the correct option from the
codes given below :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Grinding of the food particles (1) Hepatic Caecal

(B) Secrete gastic juice (2) 10th Segment

(C) 12 pairs (3) Proventriculus

(D) Anal Cerci (4) Alary muscles

(1) A–3, B–1, C–4, D–2
(2) A–4, B–3, C–1, D–2
(3) A–1, B–4, C–3, D–2
(4) A–2, B–3, C–1, D–4

21) If the head of cockroach is removed, it may live for few days because

(1) the cockroach does not have nervous system

the head holds small proportion of a nervous system, while the rest is situated along the ventral
(2)
part of its body
the head holds 1/3rd of a nervous system, while the rest is situated along the dorsal part of its
(3)
body
(4) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of the cockroach are situated in ventral part of abdomen

22) Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) Cockroaches exhibit mosaic vision with less sensitivity and more resolution
(2) A mushroom-shaped gland is present in the 6-7th abdominal segments of male cockroach
(3) A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th segment female cockroach
(4) Female cockroach possesses sixteen ovarioles in the ovaries

23) The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body are joined by

(1) arthrodial membrane

(2) cartilage
(3) cementing glue
(4) muscular tissue

24) The body cells in cockroach discharge their nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph mainly in the
form of

(1) Potassium urate

(2) Urea
(3) Calcium carbonate
(4) Ammonia

25) Match the following columns :

Column-I Column-II

A Areolar tissue 1 Fat cells

B Adipose tissue 2 Osteocytes

C Ligaments 3 Loose connective tissue

D Bone 4 Dense regular connective tissue

(1) A – 3, B – 1, C – 4, D – 2
(2) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4
(3) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1
(4) A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3

26) Which of the following statement is true about shown diagram?

(1) It is unilayered tissue

(2) It plays main role in absorption
(3) It plays main role in providing protection against chemical & mechanical stress.
(4) It plays main role in secretion

27) Read the following A-D statements -

(A) Bones support and protect softer tissue and organs.
(B) The bone cells (Osteocytes) are present in the spaces called lacunae.
(C) The limb bones, such as the long bones of the legs, serve weight bearing functions.
(D) The bone marrow in some bones is the sites of production of blood cells.
How many of the above statements are correct :

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

28) In the given four statements (a-d) select the options which includes all the correct ones :-
(a) Simple epithelium is composed of single layer of cells and functions as a lining for body cavities,
ducts and tubes
(b) The squamous epithelium is made of single thin layer of flattened cells with regular boundries
(c) Microvilli are found in the lining of stomach and intestine and help in secretion and absorption
(d) The function of cilia is to move particles or mucus in a specific direction over the epithelium

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, c, d
(4) a, d

29) Match the columns I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given :-

(1) A-c-K, B-b-L, C-a-M

(2) A-b-L, B-c-K, C-a-M
(3) A-c-M, B-a-K, C-b-L
(4) A-b-K, B-c-M, C-a-K

30) Identify A, B and C in the given diagram of adipose tissue.

(1) A-Cytoplasm, B-Nucleus, C-cellwall

(2) A-Fat storage area, B-mast cell, C-plasma membrane
(3) A-cell fluid, B-collagen fibres, C-plasmalemma
(4) A-Fat storage area, B-nucleus, C-plasma membrane

31) Select the correct option about given diagram:-

(1) B = columnar epithelium - for protection and cover the dry surface of the skin
(2) B = squamous epithelium - found in tubular part of nephron
(3) A = squamous epithelium - found in wall of blood vessels
(4) A = cuboidal epithelium - found in air sac of lungs

32) Identify the given diagram :-

(1) Simple columnar cells bearing cilia

(2) Simple columnar cells bearing stereocilia
(3) Simple columnar cells bearing microvilli
(4) Simple columnar cells bearing villi

33) Consider the following four (a-d) statements and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only ?
(a) Ligaments are an example of dense irregular connective tissue which attach skeletal muscles to
bones.
(b) Tendons are an example of dense regular connective tissue which attach skeletal muscles to
bones.
(c) Tendons are an example of dense irregular connective tissue which attach one bone to another
bone.
(d) Ligaments are an example of dense regular connective tissue which attach one bone to another
bone.
Options :-

(1) Statements (a) and (b)

(2) Statements (a), (b) and (c)
(3) Statements (b) and (d)
(4) Statements (c) and (d)

34) Which of the following is not a function of connective tissue ?

(1) Endocrine
(2) Conduction of impulse
(3) Transport of hormones
(4) Framework of body

35) The excess of nutrients of food which are not used immediately are converted in ________ and
stored in ________.

(1) Fat, Simple columnar epithelium

(2) Proteins, Areolar connective tissue
(3) Fat, Areolar connective tissue
(4) Fat, Adipose connective tissue

SECTION - B
1) Consider the following figure & choose the correct option :-

Regular dense
(1) Tendon Join muscle to skin
connective tissue

Regular dense
(2) Ligament Join bone to bone
connective tissue

Irregular dense
(3) Tendon Join muscle to bone
connective tissue

Irregular dense
(4) Ligament Join muscle to bone
connective tissue
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

2) Gap junctions :-

(1) Help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue

(2) Perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together
(3) Provide stretchability to store materials
Facilitate the cells to communicate with each other by connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining
(4)
cells

3) Choose the correct option regarding figure given below :-

1. Unicellular Goblet Cells Secrete Saliva

2. Multicellular Goblet Cells Secrete Mucus
3. Unicellular Goblet Cells Secrete Mucus
Neuro sensory
4. Multicellular Receive stimulus
Cells
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
4) Select the correct statement about given diagram :- (i) Bones have hard & non
pliable cells rich in calcium salts.
(ii) It is the main tissue that provides structural frame to the body
(iii) Limb bones, such as the long bones of arms, serve weight bearing function in human.
(iv) Chondrocyte, calcium salts and collagen fibres provide strength to the bones.

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)

(2) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(3) Only (ii)
(4) (ii) & (iv)

5) Match the columns:

a. Tight junction i. Perform cementing to neighboring cell

b. Gap junctions ii. Stop substances leaking across tissue

c. Inter digitations iii. Finger like processes

d. Adhering junctions iv. Rapid transfer of ions and molecules

(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

6) Such a connective tissue is present :

(1) In the skin

(2) Beneath the skin
(3) Walls of alveoli
(4) In structure joining bone to bone
7) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

(1) a–Mast cells, d–Macrophages, b–Fibroblast, c–Collagen fibre

(2) d–Mast cells, a–Macrophages, b–Fibroblast, c–Collagen fibres
(3) d–Mast cells, a–macrophages, c–Fibroblast, b–Collagen fibres
(4) b-Mast cells, d–Macrophages, a–Fibroblast, c–Collagen fibres

8) The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below represent four different types of animal tissues.
Which one of these is correctly identified in the option given along with its correct location and

function

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Choose incorrect statement about epithelial tissue -

(1) This tissue have a free surface, which faces either a body fluid or the outside environment.
(2) The cells are compactly packed with little intracellular matrix.
(3) Simple epithelium functions as a lining of body cavities ducts and tubes.
(4) The compound epithelium have protective functions as it does in our skin.

10) Choose the correct statement.

(1) Bone marrow of all bone are site of blood cell production
(2) Matrix of bone is fiber less
(3) Most of cartilage in vertebrates embryo are replaced by bone
(4) Gap junction prevents leakage of substance

11) Read the given character -

(A) Cells with irregular boundaries.
(B) Present in air sacs of lungs.
Above statements are correct for :-

(1) Simple cuboidal epithelium

(2) Simple columnar epithelium
(3) Simple squamous epithelium
(4) Pseudostratified epithelium

12)

Fibres and fibroblast are compactly packed in which type of tissue

(1) Dense connective tissue

(2) Loose connective tissue
(3) Specialised connective tissue
(4) All of above

13) Which of the following is incorrect for the cuboidal epithelium ?

(1) It is composed of cube like cells

(2) It is commonly found in parts of nephron
(3) Its main functions are secretion and absorption
(4) It is found in lining of stomach and intestine

14) On the basis of structural modification of the cells, simple epithelium is further divided into :-

(1) Two types – ciliated and glandular epithelium

(2) Three types – squamous, cuboidal and columnar epithelium
(3) Four types – squamous, cuboidal, columnar and transitional epithelium
(4) Two types – unicellular and multicellular epithelium

15) Endoneurium, Epimysium, Perimysium, Endomysium, respectively are :-

(1) Areolar C.T., Sheath of WFCT, Sheath of WFCT, Areolar C.T.

(2) Sheath of WFCT, Areolar C.T., Areolar C.T., Areolar C.T.
(3) Areolar C.T., Sheath of WFCT, Areolar C.T., Areolar C.T.
(4) Areolar connective tissue, Cord of WFCT, Areolar C.T., Areolar C.T.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 4 3 2 2 4 1 1 2 4 2 2 3 1 2 1 1 1 1 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 4 2 2 4 1 1 1 1 3 2 3 2 3 2 4

SECTION - B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 4 4 3 4 3 1 2 3 4 2 4 1 4 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 4 1 4 3 2 4 4 4 4 2 1 3 3 4 4 1 4 2 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 3 3 4 1 4 3 4 4 1 1 2 1 4 2

SECTION - B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 1 2 2 4 1 1 1 1 3 3 3 4 4 3

BOTANY

SECTION - A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 1 4 3 2 1 3 1 2 3 1 3 1 1 4 4 4 2 4 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 1 1 1 4 1 3 4 2 1 4 1 2 3 2

SECTION - B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 4 2 1 3 3 2 4 2 3 1 2 4 4

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION - A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 4 3 3 3 4 2 4 1 1 1 1 1 3 1 2 1 1 4 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 1 1 1 1 3 1 4 2 4 3 1 3 2 4

SECTION - B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 4 3 3 2 4 2 3 2 3 3 1 4 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) W = (Area)1 – (Area)2

W = × (3 + 1) × 10 – × (2 + 1) × 10
=5J

6) work = Area under the curve for displacement 1m

10)

Work done = mgh

m = mass of hanging part

h = motion of COM

WD = mgh =

11)

k ∝ p2

12)

Let the spring extends in length y when mass M is hung freely at its lower end.

The elastic potential energy stored in the spring

When the mass is released, the gravitational potential energy produced in it = Mgy
From energy conservation principle,
Increase in elastic
PE = Decrease in Gravitational PE

13)

18)

As the force is a constant, its work done depends only upon displacement.

25)

KE = m↑ KE↓
m↓ KE↑

31)

33)

Volume delivered per sec. = Av

Mass delivered per sec. = Avd
Momentum delivered per sec = Av2d = force
Power = force × velocity = Av3d
i.e. power ∝ v3

34)

For stable equilibrium

P.E. (U) should be minimum
 and

or
slope of F-x graph should be negative and

40) If there is no air drag then maximum height

But due to air drag ball reaches up to height 8m only. So loss in energy

42)

=
= (9 – 1) + 2(6 – 2) + (1 – 27)
= 8 + 8 – 26
= 16 – 26
= –10J

48)

CHEMISTRY

52)

To have minimum repulsions, the two lone pair occupy the trans positions in octahedral geometry.

55)

NCERT XI, Chapter-4

56)
NCERT XI, Chapter-4

62) IF5 - sp3d2 - (5 σ + 1 LP) distorted octahedral. No bond angle of 90°

70) sp3

81)

We know n = total valence shell electrons of all atoms + number of negative charges (if any) –
number of positive charges (if any).

For NO3–, n = 5 + 3 × 6 + 1 – 0 = 24 ⇒ = 3 ⇒ sp2 hybridization

For NO2+, n = 5 + 2 × 6 + 0 – 1 = 16 ⇒ = 2 ⇒ sp hybridization

For NH4+, n = 5 + 4 × 7 + 0 – 1 = 32 × = 4 ⇒ sp3 hybridization

85) Covalent bond is formed by overlapping of half filled orbitals.

88) In 1s-1s extent of overlapping is highest so bond strength is highest

92)
BOTANY

103)

NCERT Page No. 34

104)

NCERT Page No. 36

106)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 35

109)

Leaf cell in gymnosperm = 2n

Endosperm cell in gymnosperm = n
given 2n = 16 chromosomes
so n = 8 chromosomes

110) NCERT XI Page No. # 29

111)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 38

112) NCERT XI, Pg. # 32

113)

NCERT XI Page No. # 38

114)

NCERT Pg # 35, 36
 116)

NCERT Pg# 31, Fig. 3.1, c-i

118) NCERT page No. # 32

119)

Old, NCERT Page 38.

124)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 208

125)

NCERT XI Pg. # 207, 208

126) Chlorophyll a appears blue green in colour & chlorophyll b appears yellow green in
colour on chromatogram.

127)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 209

133)

NCERT XI Pg # 210

134) NCERT XI Pg # 215

140)

NCERT XI Pg. # 35

144) Prothallus, Embryo, Zygote, Archegonia, Rhizome, Cone, Adventitious root.

145)

NCERT XI, Page # 36, Para-3.2.2

148) NCERT XI Pg # 211

149) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 210

ZOOLOGY

175) Pg. No. 103, 104_XI NCERT

 180)

NCERT Pg# 103, fig.-7.4(b)

181) NCERT Page # 101

182)

NCERT XI (E)Pg.# 101, figure 7.1(d)

183)

NCERT XI Pg.# 103

185)

NCERT Pg.# 103

186)

NCERT XI, Page # 103

187)

NCERT XIth Pg.#102

188)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 102

189)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 104

190) NCERT - XI. Pg # 102

196)

NCERT Pg. # 101

197) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 103

198)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 101

199) NCERT Pg 101