07-08-2024

7601CMD30313224005 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) A force F acting on a object varies with distance x as shown in the figure. The work done by the

force in moving the object from x = 0 to x = 20 m is :-

(1) 500 J
(2) 1000 J
(3) 1500 J
(4) 2000 J

2) As shown in the diagram a particle is to be carried from point A to C via paths (I), (II) and (Ill) in

gravitational field, then which of the following statements is correct :-

(1) Work done is same for all the paths

(2) Work done is minimum for path (II)
(3) Work done is maximum for path (I)
(4) None of the above

3) A time dependent force F = 6t acts on a particle of mass 1kg. If the particle starts from rest, the
work done by the force during the first 1 sec. will be :

(1) 18 J
(2) 4.5 J
(3) 22 J
(4) 9 J
4) Choose the correct options :-
(a) the work done by forces may be equal to change in K.E.
(b) The W.D. by forces may be equal to change in potential energy
(c) The W.D. by forces may be equal to change in total energy.
(d) The W.D. by forces must be equal to change in potential energy.

(1) a, b and c are correct.

(2) a & b are correct.
(3) b & d are correct.
(4) a & c are correct.

5) In the given arrangement, n number of equal masses are connected by strings of negligible

masses. The tension in the string connected to nth mass is -

(1)

(2)

(3) mg
(4) mng

6) Find out maximum compression is the spring in given figure. (K = 100 N/m)

(1) 1 m
(2) 2 m
(3) 2.5 m
(4) 1.5 m

7) The relationship between force and position is shown in fig.(in one dimensional case). The work
done by the force in displacing a body from x=l cm to x = 5 cm is :

(1) 20 ergs
(2) 60 ergs
(3) 70 ergs
(4) 700 ergs

8) A force of magnitude of 30 N acting along , displaces a particle from point (2, 4, 1)m to
(3, 5, 2)m. The work done by this force during this displacement is :-

(1) 90 J
(2) 30 J
(3) 30 J
(4) 30/ J

9) A particle in a certain conservative force field has a potential energy given by . The force
exerted on it is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) A force of 10 N acts on a body of 2 kg mass for a distance of 1 m. The kinetic energy received by
the body is -

(1) 20 J
(2) 10 J
(3) 5 J
(4) 2.5 J

11) A pulley fixed to the ceiling carries a string with bodies of masses m and 3m attached to its ends.
The masses of the pulley and the string are negligible, friction is absent. The acceleration of the
centre of mass of the system is

(1) -g/4
(2) g/4
(3) g/5
(4) -g/5

12) A particle moves with a velocity m/s under the influence of a constant force

. The instantaneous power applied to the particle is :

(1) 200 J/s

(2) 40 J/s
(3) 140 J/s
(4) 170 J/s

13) A position dependent force acts on a small abject of mass 2 kg to displace it

from x = 0 to x = 5m. The work done in joule is

(1) 70 J
(2) 270 J
(3) 35 J
(4) 135 J

14) If the momentum of a body is increased by 100%, then the percentage increase in the kinetic
energy is

(1) 150 %
(2) 200 %
(3) 225 %
(4) 300 %

15) The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination θ is perfectly smooth while the lower half is
rough. A body starting from the rest at top comes back to rest at the bottom if the coefficient of
friction for the lower half is given

(1) μ = sin θ
(2) μ = cot θ
(3) μ = 2 cos θ
(4) μ = 2 tan θ

16) A 2 kg block drops vertically from a height of 40 cm on a spring whose force constant K is 1960
newton per metre. Then the maximum compression of the spring is:

(1) 40 cm
(2) 25 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) 5 cm

17) Graph shows the acceleration of a 3 kg particle as an applied force moves it from rest along x
axis. The total work done by the force on the particle by the time the particle reaches x = 6 m, is
equal to

(1) 20 J
(2) 30 J
(3) 40 J
(4) 60 J

18) A man pulls a bucket of water from a well of depth h. If the mass of the rope is ‘m’ and that of
the bucket with full of water are M respectively, then the work done by the man is

(1) (M + m) g h

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A particle moves from (0, 0) to (a, a) to (2a, 3a) and finally reaches at the origin. During motion a

constant force is acting on the block. The work done by the force on the block is :

(1) zero
(2) > zero
(3) < zero
(4) None of these

20) A particle starts from rest from origin and moves in x-y plane along a parabolic path whose
equation is y = x2 in the presence of a number of forces. One of the forces acting on the particle is
. Find work done by this force F when the particle moves from origin to x=2m.

(1) Zero
(2) 2J
(3) 1J
(4) None of these

21) A particle performing uniform circular motion has angular momentum L. If its angular frequency
is doubled and its kinetic energy halved, then the new angular momentum is :
(1) L/4
(2) 2L
(3) 4L
(4) L/2

22) A child is standing with folded hands at the centre of a platform rotating about its central axis.
The kinetic energy of the system is K and moment of inertia is I. The child now stretches his arms so
that the moment of inertia of the system doubles. The kinetic energy of the system now is :-

(1) 2K

(2)

(3)

(4) 4K

23) A ball it thrown on a lawn in such a way that it initially slides with a speed v0 without rolling. It
gradually picks up rotation motion. Find the speed of the ball at which there will be rolling without
slipping–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) The position of a body with respect to time is given by x = 4t3 – 6t2 + 20 t + 12. Acceleration at t
= 0 will be-

(1) –12 units

(2) 12 units
(3) 24 units
(4) –24 units

25) A solid sphere of mass m and radius R rolls without slipping on a horizontal surface such that
vc.m. = v0.

(1)
The kinetic energy of rotation is

(2)
The total kinetic energy is

(3)
The mechanical energy (assume the ground as reference) is mgR +
(4) All options are correct
26) A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity v. It reaches up

to a maximum height of with respect to the initial position. The object is :-

(1) ring
(2) solid sphere
(3) hollow sphere
(4) disc

27) The moment of inertia of a thin square plate ABCD of uniform thickness about an axis passing
through the centre O and perpendicular to the plate is: (a) I1 + I2
(b) I3 + I4
(c) I1 + I3
(d) I1 + I2 + I3 + I4

(1) a, b
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, b, c, d
(4) a, b, d

28) A body rolls down without slipping on an inclined plane. The fraction of its total energy
associated with rotation will be (radius of gyration is K and radius is R) :

(1)

(2)

(3) K2 + R2

(4)

29) A flywheel rotates with a uniform angular acceleration. Its angular velocity increases from 40 π
rad/sec. to 60 π rad/sec. in 10 second. How many rotations did it make in this period ?

(1) 250
(2) 125
(3) 500
(4) 1000

30) Point masses m1 and m2 are placed at the opposite ends of a rigid rod of length L and negligible
mass. The rod is to be set rotating about an axis perpendicular to it. The position of point P on this
rod through which the axis should pass so that the work required to set the rod rotating with

angular velocity ω is minimum is given by.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) The minimum value of F for which the cube(a) begins to topple about an edge is –

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) mg

32) Consider the following two statements

(A) The linear momentum of a particle is independent of the frame of reference
(B) The kinetic energy of a particle is independent of the frame of reference

(1) both A and B are true

(2) A is true and B is false
(3) A is false but B is true
(4) both A and B are false

33) If the density of material of a square plate and a circular plate shown in is same, the centre of

mass of the composite system will be :

(1) Inside the squre plate

(2) Inside the circular plate
(3) At the point of contact
(4) Outside the system

34) An open knife edge of mass M is dropped from a height 'h' on a wooden floor. If the edge
penetrates a distance 's' into the wood, the average resistance offered by the wood to the blade is :-

(1) Mg

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) A bomb of mass 12kg at rest explodes into two peices of masses in the ratio 1 : 3. It kinetic
energy of smaller peice is 216 J, what is the momentum of the larger peice ?

(1) 12kg m/s

(2) 24kg m/s
(3) 36kg m/s
(4) 48kg m/s

SECTION-B

1) Body A of mass 4m moving with speed U collides with another body B of mass m, at rest. The
collision is head on and elastic in nature. After the collision, the fraction of energy lost by the
colliding body A is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
2) A particle of mass m moving with velocity m/s, collides with another body of mass M and
finally moves with velocity m/s, then during the collision :

(1) impulse received by m is

(2) impulse received by m is

(3) impulse received by M is

(4) impulse received by M is

3) Two balls are thrown simultaneously in air. The acceleration of the center of mass of the two balls
while in air :

(1) Depends on the direction of the motion of the balls

(2) Depends on the masses of the two balls
(3) Depends on the speed of two balls
(4) Is equal to g

4) A gun of mass 10 kg fires four bullets per second. The mass of each bullet is 20g and the velocity
of the bullet when it leaves the gun is 300 m/s. The force required to hold the gun while firing is

(1) 6 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 24 N
(4) 240 N

5) A ball of mass m moving with velocity v0 collides a wall as shown in figure. After impact it

rebounds with a velocity . The impulse acting on ball during impact is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

6) A ball collides elastically with another ball of the same mass. The collision is oblique and initially
one of the balls was at rest. After the collision, the two balls move with same speed. What will be the
angle between the velocities of the balls after the collision :-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

7) A force acts on a 3 gm particle in such a way that the position of the particle as a function of time
is given by x = 3t – 4t2 + t3, where x is meters and t is in seconds. The work done during the first 4
second is-

(1) 384 mJ
(2) 168 mJ
(3) 528 mJ
(4) 541 mJ

8) A uniform thin stick of length ℓ and mass m is held horizontally with its end B hinged at a point B
on the edge of a table. Point A is suddenly released. The acceleration of the centre of mass of the
stick at the time of release, is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Assertion : Work done by the centripetal force in moving a body along a circle is always zero.
Reason : In circular motion the displacement of the body is along the force.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

10) A cord is wound round the circumference of the wheel of radius r. The axis of wheel is
horizontal and moment of inertia about its centre is I. A weight mg is attached to the cord at the end.
The weight falls from rest, after falling through a distance h, the angular velocity of the wheel will
be :-

(1)
(2)
`

(3)

(4)

11) A particle performs uniform circular motion with an angular momentum L. If the frequency of
particle’s motion is tripled and its kinetic energy double, the angular momentum becomes

(1)

(2) 3L

(3)

(4) 2L

12) A circular road of radius 1000 m has banking angle 45°. What will be the maximum safe speed of
a car having mass 2000 kg, if the coefficient of friction between tyre and road is 0.5 ?

(1) 172 m/s

(2) 124 m/s
(3) 99 m/s
(4) 86 m/s

13) The constant angular acceleration of a wheel is 3.0 rad/s2. During a given time interval of 4.0s it
rotates through an angle of 120 radians. Suppose t = 0, but the angular speed 0 = 3 rad/s, then how
much time will the motion take at the beginning of this 4.0s time interval?

(1) 7 sec.
(2) 9 sec.
(3) 4 sec.
(4) 10 sec.

14)

Velocity-time graph of a particle of mass 2 kg moving in a straight line is as shown in figure. Work
done by all the forces on the particle is :-

(1) 400 J
(2) – 400 J
(3) – 200 J
(4) 200 J

15) A stationary body explodes into two fragments of masses m1 and m2. If momentum of one
fragment is p, the energy of explosion is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Which is odd electron species :-

(1) CO2
(2) NO2
(3) SO2
(4) SiO2

2) Which of the following are isoelectronic and isostructural?

NO3–, CO32–, ClO3–, SO3, NO2–

– 2–
(1) NO3 , CO3
–
(2) SO3, NO2
– 2–
(3) ClO3 , CO3
–
(4) SO3, ClO3

3) Which of the following compounds do not exist:-

(1) PH5
–2
(2) SiF6
–2
(3) CF6
(4) Both (1) and (3)

4) In the following electron dot structure, correct calculation of the formal charge from left to right
nitrogen atom is

(1) –1, –1, +1

(2) –1, +1, –1
(3) +1, –1, –1
(4) +1, –1, +1

5)

Match column-I with column–II and select the correct answer :-

Column-I Column-I
(Molecules) (Property)

(P) IF7 (1) Planer and Polar

(Q) SO2 (2) Non planar and polar

(R) SF4 (3) Planar and Nonpolar

(S) CS2 (4) Non polar and non planar

(P) (Q) (R) (S)
(1) 4 1 2 3
(2) 4 2 1 3
(3) 3 1 2 4
(4) 3 1 4 2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Which of the following molecule is planar :-

(1) XeF2
(2) PCl3F2
(3) PCl5
(4) SF4

7)

The hybridisation of N atom in NO3–, NO2+, and NH4+ are respectively.

(1) sp, sp2, sp3

(2) sp2, sp, sp3
(3) sp3, sp, sp2
(4) sp2, sp3, sp

8) The molecule which is having maximum number of lone pair on central atom.

(1) SiF4
(2) BrF3
(3) XeF2
(4) SF4

9) Which one of the following molecules is paramagnetic ?

(1) Li2
(2) C2
(3) O2
(4) H2

10) The correct order of energies of molecular orbitals of N2 molecule, is

(1) σ1s < σ*1s < σ2s < σ*2s < σ2pz < (π2px = π2py) < (π*2px = π*2py) < σ*2pz
(2) σ1s < σ*1s < σ2s < σ*2s < σ2pz < σ*2pz < (π2px = π2py) < (π*2px = π*2py)
(3) σ1s < σ*1s < σ2s < σ*2s < (π2px = 2π2py) < (π*2px = π*2py) < σ2pz < σ*2pz
(4) σ1s < σ*1s < σ2s < σ*2s < (π2px = π2py) < σ2pz < (π*2px = π*2py) < σ*2pz

11) Match List I with List II

List-I List-II

A. XeF4 I. See – saw

B.SF4 II. Square planar

C.NH4+ III. Bent T–shaped

D.BrF3 IV. Tetrahedral

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

12) Which of the following is the correct order of dipole moment ?

(1) NH3 < BF3 < NF3 < H2O

(2) BF3 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O
(3) BF3 < NH3 < NF3 < H2O
(4) H2O < NF3 < NH3 < BF3

13) For a reaction H2 + I2 HI ;

Equilibrium constant is K.
Then what will be equilibrium constant for
2HI H2 + I2 will be :-
(1)

(2)

(3) K
(4) 2K

14) For a reaction N2 + 3H2 2NH3, the value of KC does not depends upon :-
(a) Initial concentration of the reactants
(b) Pressure
(c) Temperature
(d) Catalyst

(1) Only c
(2) a, b, c
(3) a, b, d
(4) a, b, c, d

15) The equilibrium of a reaction that is not influenced by volume change at constant temperature
is:-

(1) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)

(2) N2(g) + 3H2 2NH3(g)
(3) N2O4(g) 2NO2(g)
(4) 2NO(g) + O2(g) 2NO2(g)

16) Favourable conditions for manufacture of ammonia by the reaction,

N2 + 3H2 2NH3; ΔH = –21.9 kcal are :-

(1) low temperature, low pressure and catalyst

(2) low temperature, high pressure and catalyst
(3) high temperature, low pressure and catalyst
(4) high temperature, high pressure and catalyst

17) A monoprotic acid in a 0.1 M solution ionizes to 0.001%. Its ionization constant is –

(1) 1.0 × 10–3

(2) 1.0 × 10–6
(3) 1.0 × 10–8
(4) 1.0 × 10–11

18) Find the pH of a buffer solution containing equal concentration of B– and HB. (Kb for B– is 10–10) :-

(1) 4
(2) 10
(3) 7
(4) 6

19) Which of the following solution cannot act as a buffer ?

(1) NaH2PO4 + H3PO4

(2) CH3COOH + CH3COONa
(3) HCl + NH4Cl
(4) H3PO4 + Na2HPO4

20) Ksp for a base M(OH)3 is 2.7 × 10–11. Calculate conc. of OH– ?

(1) 3 × 10–3
(2) 6 × 10–3
(3) 9 × 10–3
(4) 4 × 10–3

21) Sodium carbonate is a basic salt because it is a salt of

(1) Strong acid and strong base

(2) Weak acid and weak base
(3) Strong acid and weak base
(4) Weak acid and strong base

22) Conjugate base of is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) CO

23) Solubility of AgCl will be minimum in -

(1) 0.001 M AgNO3

(2) Pure water
(3) 0.01 M CaCl2
(4) 0.01 M NaCl

24) Ostwald's dilution law gives satisfactory results with the solution of which electrolyte ?

(1) HCl
(2) HNO3
(3) CH3COOH
(4) NaOH

25) Which of the reaction represent the heat of formation of CH4 :-

(1) Cgraphite + 4H(g) → CH4
(2) CDiamond + 2H2(g) → CH4
(3) Cgraphite + 2H2(g) → CH4
(4) 2Cgraphite + 4H2(g) → 2CH4

26) Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2, Cl2 and HCl are 434, 242 and 431 kJ mol–1 respectively.
Enthalpy of formation of HCl is :-

(1) –93 kJ mol–1

(2) 245 kJ mol–1
(3) 93 kJ mol–1
(4) –245 kJ mol–1

27) From the following bond energies :-

H – H bond energy : 431.37 kJ mol–1
C = C bond energy : 606.10 kJ mol–1
C – C bond energy : 336.49 kJ mol–1
C – H bond energy : 410.50 kJ mol–1
Enthalpy for the reaction,

will be :-

(1) 553.0 kJ mol–1

(2) 1523.6 kJ mol–1
(3) –243.6 kJ mol–1
(4) –120.0 kJ mol–1

28) The enthalpy of formation for C2H4(g), CO2(g) and H2O(ℓ) at 25°C and 1 atm. pressure are 52, -
394 and - 286 kJ mole-1 respectively. The enthalpy of combustion of C2H4 will be:-

(1) + 1412 kJ mole-1

(2) – 1412 kJ mole-1
(3) + 142.2 kJ mole-1
(4) – 141.2 kJ mole-1

29) If enthalpy of neutralisation of HCl with NaOH is –56 kJ/mol and that of HCN with NaOH is 12
kJ/mol then enthalpy of ionisation of HCN will be :-

(1) –55 kJ
(2) +44 kJ
(3) +78 kJ
(4) –75 kJ
30) Assertion : Internal energy change in a cyclic process is always zero.
Reason : Internal energy is a state function.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

31) Statement-I : For reaction, H2(g) + Br2(g) → 2HBr(ℓ) enthalpy change is not standard enthalpy
of formation.
Statement-II : In above reaction two moles instead of one mole of product is formed from elements
and Bromine should be in liquid state.
On the basis of above statement, select correct option :-

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct and statement-II is correct explanation of statement-I
(2) Statement-I and II both are correct but statement-II is not correct explanation of statement-I
(3) Statement-I is correct, statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect, statement-II is correct

32) Assertion: for C(graphite) and Br2(ℓ) is not zero.

Reason: for every element in its standard state is taken as zero.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

33) Assume each reaction is carried out in an open container. For which reaction will ΔH = ΔE ?

(1) H2 (g) + Br2 (g) → 2 HBr (g)

(2) C (s) + 2 H2O (g) → 2 H2 (g) + CO2 (g)
(3) PCl5 (g) → PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
(4) 2 CO (g) + O2 (g) → 2 CO2 (g)

34) The spontaneous nature of a reaction is impossible if :

(1) ΔH is +ve, ΔS is also +ve

(2) Δ H is – ve; Δ S is also – ve
(3) Δ H is –ve ; Δ S is +ve
(4) Δ H is +ve; Δ S is –ve

35) Which of the following are not state functions ?

(I) q + w (II) q (III) w (IV) H–TS

(1) (I),(II) and (III)

(2) (II) and (III)
(3) (I) and (IV)
(4) (II), (III) and (IV)

SECTION-B

0
1) For the formation of CH4 of ΔU = –x kJ mol–1 then what will be value of ΔH0 kJ mol–1.

(1) –x – RT
(2) –x + 2RT
(3) –x + RT
(4) –2x – 4RT

2) If 400 kJ work is done by the system and 150 kJ heat is given to system then what will be effect on
internal energy of the system

(1) Increases by 250 kJ

(2) Decreases by 250 kJ
(3) Increases by 600 kJ
(4) Decreases by 600 kJ

3)

The gas absorbs 100 J and is simultaneously compressed by a constant external pressure of 1.50 atm
from 8 lit to 2 lit volume. Hence ΔU will be:

(1) – 812 J
(2) 812 J
(3) 1011 J
(4) 911 J

4) When an ideal gas is compressed adiabatically and reversibly, the final temperature is

(1) Higher than the initial temperature

(2) Lower than the initial temperature
(3) The same as the initial temperature
(4) Dependent on the rate of compression

5) Which of the following is a state function & extensive property ?

(1) Temperature
(2) Pressure
(3) Internal energy
(4) None of these

6) Assertion :- Very weak acids have strong conjugate bases while strong acids have weak
conjugate bases.
Reason :- Conjugate acid-base pair differ only by one proton.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct and Reason is correct explanation for Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct but Reason is not correct explanation for Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect.

7) Assertion : Addition of HCl(aq) to HCOOH(aq), decrease the ionization of HCOOH(aq)

Reason : Due to common ion effect of H+, ionization of HCOOH decreased.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

8) For which reaction will Kp = Kc?

(1) 2CO(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2CO2(g)

(2) H2(g) + Br2(g) ⇌ 2HBr(g)
(3) C(s) + 2H2O(g) ⇌ 2H2(g) + CO2(g)
(4) PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

9) Which of the following reaction will be favored at low pressure :-

(1) N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)

(2) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)
(3) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(4) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

10) At equilibrium, CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) the addition of more of CaO(s) causes :-

(1) Decrease in the concentration of CO2(g)

(2) Increase in the concentration of CO2(g)
(3) No change in the concentration of CO2(g)
(4) Increase in the concentration of CaCO3(g)

11) Which has strongest covalent bond :-

(1) H – H
(2) Cl – Cl
(3) Br – Br
(4) I – I

12) Which of the following is paramagentic but does not have fractional bond order :-

(1)
(2)
(3) O2
(4)

13)

In which of the following ionisation process the bond order has increased and the magnetic
behaviour has changed :-

+
(1) C2 → C2
(2) NO → NO+
+
(3) O2 → O2
+
(4) N2 → N2

14) Which of the following have a square planar structure?

+
(1) NH4
–
(2) BF4
(3) XeF4
(4) CCl4

15) Which of the following species does not exist:

(1) HeH+
(2) Be2
(3) Li2
(4) C2

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Zygotic meiosis is related to :-

(1) Haplontic life cycle

(2) Diplontic life cycle
(3) Haplodiplontic life cycle
(4) Diplohaplontic life cycle

2)

Photosynthetic pigments common to all algae:-

(1) Chlorophyll 'b' and Carotene

(2) Chlorophyll 'a' and 'b'
(3) Chlorophyll 'a' and Carotene
(4) Chlorophyll and Xanthophyll

3) Identify the given figures of algae and select the correct option.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

A–Volvox, B–Chlamydomonas,
(1)
C–Chara, D–Porphyra
A–Fucus, B–Dictyota, C–Porphyra,
(2)
D–Polysiphonia
A–Fucus, B–Polysiphonia,
(3)
C–Porphyra, D–Dictyota
A–Dictyota, B–Porphyra, C–Fucus,
(4)
D–Polysiphonia

4) Floridean starch is the stored food in:

a. Fucus b. Volvox
c. Chara d. Polysiphonia

(1) a, d
(2) c, b
(3) d
(4) a, b

5) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

(1) a-archegonia, b-antheridia

(2) a-antheridia, b-archegonia
(3) a-antheridophore, b-archegoniophore
(4) a-archegoniophore, b-antheridiophore

6)

In a Capsule number of chromosome is 24, what will be the number of chromosomes in its foot,
spores, and main thallus of bryophytes respectively :-

(1) 24, 12, 12

(2) 24, 24, 12
(3) 2, 24, 12
(4) 24, 12, 24

7) Which of the following have multicellular sporophyte which is not free living but attached to
photosynthetic gametophyte and derives nourishment from it ?

(1) Pteridophytes
(2) Algae
(3) Spermatophytes
(4) Bryophytes

8) Assertion : Bryophytes are called amphibians of plant kingdom.

Reason : These plants can live in soil but are dependent on water for sexual reproduction.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

9) In pteridophytes, spores germinate to give rise to inconspicuous, small but multicellular, free
living, mostly photosynthetic thalloid gametophytes called :-

(1) Protonema
(2) Prothallus
(3) Endosperm
(4) Embryosac

10) Independent alternation of generation is the unique character of the life cycle of :-

(1) Bryophyte
(2) Pteridophyte
(3) Gymnosperm
(4) Spermatophyte

11) The leaves of gymnosperms are well-adapted to withstand extremes of temperature, humidity
and wind. In conifers, what are the xerophytic characters?
(1) Needle-like leaves
(2) Thick cuticle
(3) Sunken stomata
(4) All of these

12) In gymnosperms, pollination is carried out by

(1) Animals
(2) Birds
(3) Water
(4) Air currents

13) Assertion:- In gymnosperm multicellular female gametophyte is also called endosperm.

Reason:- Gymnospermic endosperm is formed after fertilization as haploid structure.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Assertion is False but the Reason is True.

14) Double fertilisation and triple fusion events are unique to

(1) Algae
(2) Angiosperms
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Pteridophytes

15) Which among the following cells of the embryo sac degenerate after fertilisation.

(1) Egg cell and synergids

(2) Synergids and antipodals
(3) Antipodals and egg cells
(4) Egg cell, two synergids and three antipodals

16)

The region of root few millimetres above the root cap possessing very small cells with thin walls and
dense protoplasm is

(1) Root hair zone

(2) Region of elongation
(3) Region of meristematic zone
(4) Region of maturation

17) In some plants, like grass, Monstera and the banyan tree, roots arise from parts of the plant
other than the radicle and are called :
(1) Tap root system
(2) Fibrous root system
(3) Adventitious root system
(4) Primary root system

18) The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below represent the different types of roots. Which one
of these is correctly identified in the option given along with its correct location and function.

Root Location Function

(1) (A) Napiform root Turnip Respiration

(2) (B) Conical root Carrot Storage

(3) (C) Tuberous root Radish Respiration

(4) (D) Pneumatophores Rhizophora Storage

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

19) Assertion: Pneumatophores are respiratory roots.

Reason: Pneumatophores help to get oxygen for respiration

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false.

20) The 'Eyes' of the potato tuber are:

(1) Flower buds

(2) Shoot buds
(3) Axillary buds
(4) Root buds

21) Ginger is a stem which can be distinguished from root because it :

(1) Grows parallel to ground

(2) Contain reserve food
(3) Lack of chlorophyll
(4) Contain nodes and internodes

22) Presence of thorns can be observed in

(1) Grapes
(2) Citrus
(3) Bougainvillea
(4) Both b and c

23)

Identify the type of venation in the given diagram (A and B).

(1) A-Reticulate (dicotyledons); B-Parallel (monocots)

(2) A-Reticulate (monocots); B-Parallel (dicots)
(3) A-Parallel (dicots); B-Reticulate (monocots)
(4) A-Parallel (monocots); B-Reticulate (dicots)

24) When single leaf arises at each node then phyllotaxy is called

(1) Alternate
(2) Opposite
(3) Whorled
(4) Pinnate

25) Pulvinus leaf is found in members of :

(1) Fabaceae
(2) Liliaceae
(3) Solanaceae
(4) Cruciferae

26) Rhizoids of Funaria are :

(1) Unicellular, colourless with oblique septa

(2) Multicellular, coloured with transverse septa
(3) Multicellular, branched with oblique septa
(4) Unicellular, colourless with oblique and transverse septa

27) All are common examples of mosses, except

(1) Funaria
(2) Polytrichum
(3) Sphagnum
(4) Selaginella

28) The aquatic fern which is used as a biofertiliser is :-

(1) Adiantum
(2) Salvinia
(3) Azolla
(4) Dryopteris

29) Algae include unicellular forms like ..A..., filamentous forms like ...B... and colonial forms ...C... .
Here A, B and C refer to

(1) A-Chlamydomonas, B-Volvox, C-Ulothrix

(2) A-Ulothrix, B-Volvox, C-Chlamydomonas
(3) A-Volvox, B-Ulothrix, C-Chlamydomonas
(4) A-Chlamydomonas, B-Ulothrix, C-Volvox

30)

The alga used in space research is

(1) Cephaleuros
(2) Gelidium
(3) Chlorella
(4) Gracilaria

31) Heterosporus pteridophytes is :-

(1) Psilotum
(2) Adiantum
(3) Equisetum
(4) Salvinia

32) Filiform apperatus is present in :

(1) egg
(2) Antipodal cell
(3) Magaspore
(4) Synergid cell

33) Radicle gives rise to :-

(1) Primary roots

(2) Secondary roots
(3) Tertiary roots
(4) All of them

34) Which of the following is not a stem modification

(1) Pitcher of Nepenthes

(2) Thorns of citrus
(3) Tendrils of cucumber
(4) Flattened structures of Opuntia

35) Match the following columns & choose correct option given below

1) Alternate phyllotaxy a) Guava & Calotropis

2) Opposite phyllotaxy b) Nerium & Alstonia

3) Whorled phyllotaxy c) China rose, Mustard & Sunflower

(1) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a
(2) 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
(3) 1-a, 2-c, 3-b
(4) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c

SECTION-B

1) In plant (x) small specialised root other than tap roots are associated with N2 fixing cynobacteria.
The stem are unbranced and pinnate compound leaves persist for a few year. Identify the plant (x) in
the given diagrams :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Assertion : In pteridophyta main plant body is sporphyte.

Reason : In pteridophyta sporophyte is highly reduced and depend on gametophyte.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

3) Consider the following characters :-

(A) Formation of only one functional megaspore in a megasporangium
(B) Formation of hard covering around megasporangium
(C) Development of embryo from zygote within the female gametophyte
(D) Retention of megaspore inside the megasporangium
These were very essential events occurred during the course of evolution for the phenomenon of:-

(1) Heterospory
(2) Seed habit
(3) Fruit formation
(4) Covered seed formation

4) Sporophylls may form distinct compact structures called strobili or cones in...…
(1) Fern and Male and Female Cycas Plant
(2) Selaginella , Equisetum , Pinus and Cycas female Plant
(3) Selaginella , Equisetum , Pinus and Cycas male Plant
(4) Fern, Selaginella , Equisetum , Pinus and Cycas female Plant

5) Identify the (a), (b) & (c) :-

a b c

(1) Megaspore Egg Embryo

Female
(2) Male gamete Pollen tube
gametophyte

Male
(3) mega–sporangiums pollen grain
gametophyte

Microspore
(4) Male gametes Embryo
(pollengrain)
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Which one of the following options correctly represents the type of life cycle patterns?
(1) A - Diplontic, B - Haplodiplontic, C - Haplontic
(2) A - Haplodiplontic, B - Haplontic, C - Diplontic
(3) A - Haplontic, B - Diplontic, C - Haplodiplontic
(4) A - Diplontic, B - Haplontic, C - Haplodiplontic

7) Choose the correct match for A,B,C & D

Column I Column II Column III

(i) A Meristematic Zone Absorption of water

(ii) B Elongation Zone Maximum growth

(iii) C Maturation Zone absorption of water

(iv) D Root Cap Protection

(1) (i) only
(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iii)

8)

Rachis is formed when the leaf is :-

(1) Simple, not compound

(2) Pinnately compound
(3) Palmately compound
(4) Both (2) & (3)

9) Identify the types of inflorescence shown in figure and select the correct option for A and B
(1) A- Cymose ; B- Racemose
(2) A- Racemose ; B- Cymose
(3) A- Racemose ; B- Racemose
(4) A- Cymose ; B- Cymose

10) Assertion : In Racemose inflorescence axis grows indefinitely.

Reason : Terminal cell of axis is not consumed in flower formation.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

11) Assertion : Mosses are of great ecological importance.

Reason : Mosses helps in plant succession and also prevent soil erosion by forming dense mat on the
soil.

(1) Both assertion and reasons are true and reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reasons are true and reason is not correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and reason is false.

12) Statement-I :- Gymnosperms are first vascular plants.

Statement-II :- Gymnosperms are first seed-bearing plants.

(1) Both Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and statement-II are correct

13) Statement-1 :- One of the cell of megasporangium develops into a multicellular male
gametophyte. Statement-2 :- The ovule are borne on megasporophylls which may be clustered to
form the male cone.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement-1 is correct
(4) Only statement-2 is correct

14)
How many female nuclei participate in double fertilization?

(1) 5
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 3

15) Type of inflorencence in figure :-

(1) Verticillaster
(2) Spadix
(3) Catkin
(4) Hypanthodium

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Plasma is a straw coloured fluid constituting nearly______of the blood.

(1) 90-92 percent

(2) 6-8 percent
(3) 20-25 percent
(4) 55 percent

2) Osmotic pressure of blood is mainly due to :-

(1) Fibrinogen
(2) Albumin
(3) Globulin
(4) Water

3) Which of the following events do not occur during joint diastole?

(1) All four chambers of heart are in relaxed state.

(2) Tricuspid and bicuspid valves open.
(3) Action potential is conducted from SAN to AVN
Blood from the pulmonary veins and vena cava flows into the left and right ventricles,
(4)
respectively through the left and right atria.
4) A drop of each of the followings, is placed separately on four slides. Which of them will not
coagulate ?

(1) Whole blood from pulmonary vein

(2) Blood plasma
(3) Blood serum
(4) Sample from the thoracic duct of lymphatic system

5) During atrial systole in a cardiac cycle, What amount of blood is flow from atria to respective
ventricle ?

(1) 50 percent
(2) 30 percent
(3) 70 percent
(4) 100 percent

6) When the plasma of a person has both anti A and anti B antibodies the blood group of this person
would be :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) AB
(4) O

7)

Time period between 'Dub' and 'Lub' sound of heart is

(1) 0.3 Sec.

(2) 0.1 Sec.
(3) 0.4 Sec.
(4) 0.5 Sec.

8) A heterocyclic compound in Nucleic acid is :-

(1) Nitrogenous Base

(2) Pentose sugar
(3) Phosphoric acid
(4) Both (1) and (2)
9)

(1) A is secondary structure

(2) B is secondary structure
(3) A is tertiary structure
(4) B is primary structure

10) Which of the following structure represents Palmitic acid ?

(1) CH3 (CH2)14 COOH

(2) CH3 (CH2)16 COOH
(3) CH3 (CH2)18 COOH
(4) CH3 (CH2)20 COOH

11) Identify the following molecule.

(1) Phospholipid
(2) Lecithin
(3) Cholesterol
(4) Oleic acid

12) The volume of blood present in both ventricles of the heart at the end of systole is 120 ml. The
cardiac output of this individual is 6 liters per minute, with a heart rate of 100 beats per minute.
Now, calculate the amount of blood present in the left ventricle at the end of diastole.

(1) 60 ml
(2) 240 ml
(3) 120 ml
(4) 180 ml

13) (a) Straw coloured

(b) Albumins help in osmotic balance
(c) Viscous fluid
(d) Small amount of minerals given features are of

(1) Serum
(2) Lymph
(3) Plasma
(4) Tissue fluid

14) Assertion(A): The cardiac impulses which originates from SA node in human heart cannot
spread directly from atria to ventricles.
Reason(R): In human heart, there is no continuity between cardiac muscle fibre of atria and those
of ventricles except AV bundle.

(1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) If both A and R are true and but R is the not correct explanation of A.
(3) If A is true, but R is false
(4) If A & R are both incorrect

15) If a person has 8 liter of cardiac output & 75 ml of stroke volume then what will be the heart rate
of human ?

(1) 100 Beat/min

(2) 106 Beat/min
(3) 95 Beat/min
(4) 75 Beat/min

16) The correct route through which impulse travel in the heart is :-

(1) S.A. node → Purkinje fibres → Bundle of His → A.V. node → Heart muscles
(2) A.V. Node → S.A. Node → Purkinje fibres → Bundle of His → Heart muscles
(3) S.A. Node → A.V. Node → Bundle of His → Purkinje fibres → Heart muscles
(4) A.V. Node → Bundle of His → S.A.Node → Purkinje fibres

17) Which circulation provides nutrients, O2 and other essential substances to the tissues ?

(1) Systemic circulation

(2) Pulmonary circulation
(3) Systemic and pulmonary circulation
(4) Systemic, pulmonary and coronary circulation

18) Statement-I : The nodal musculature has the ability to generate action potential without any
external stimuli.
Statement-II : The nodal musculature is auto excitable and generate maximum of 70-75 action
potential per minute.
 Statement-I and Statement-II are true and Statement-II is the correct explanation of Statement-
(1)
I.
Statement-I and Statement-II are true and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
(2)
of Statement-I.
(3) Statement-I is true, Statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false, Statement-II is true.

19) The cardiac cycle involves :-

(1) Joint diastole → Ventricular systole → Atrial systole

(2) Atrial systole → Ventricular systole → Joint diastole
(3) Atrial systole → Joint diastole → Ventricular systole
(4) Atrial systole → Ventricular diastole → Joint diastole

20) Some lipids are phosphorylated organic compound and found in cell membrane. It is :-

(1) Palmitic acid

(2) Glycerol
(3) Lecithin
(4) Triglyceride

21) Change of pH may disturb protein structure and thus affecting its functions. Which level of
protein structure is not generally affected by change in pH ?

(1) Primary structure

(2) Quaternary structure
(3) Secondary structure
(4) Tertiary structure

22) Given below are two statements : Statement-I : Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by
administering anti-Rh antibodies to the foetus immediately after the delivery. Statement-II : Fibrins
are formed by the conversion of inactive fibrinogens in the plasma by the enzyme thrombin.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

23) How many among the following are heteropolysaccharide?

[ Inulin, Hyaluronic acid, chitin, amylopectin, Amylose, cellulose, peptidoglycan, heparin, Agar ]

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Six

24) How many statements are correct from given below statements ?
A - Protein is present in acid insoluble fraction
B - Lecithin is biomacromolecule
C - Abrin is secondary metabolite
D - Cell wall of fungi is made of chitin

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

25)

Which of the following are characteristic features of open type of circulatory system?
I. Open circulatory system is present in arthropods and Mollusca
II. Blood pumped by the heart passes into open spaces or body cavities.
III. Large vessels is present in open type of circulatory system
IV. Flow of blood is slow
V. Flow of blood is under high pressure

(1) II, III, IV

(2) I, II, III, IV, V
(3) I, II, IV
(4) II, III, V

26) How many organisms in the list given below have complete double circulation

Pigeon, Frog, Human, Shark, Flying Fish, Crow, Salamander, Rabbit, Lizard
(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

27) Which of the following statement is not true for Lymph ?

(1) Exchange of nutrient, gases between blood and cell occur through this fluid.
(2) It provide immunity at the level of interstitial space.
(3) It is an important carrier for nutrients, hormones etc.
(4) Carbohydrates are absorbed through lymph in the lacteals.

28) When a dry piece of tissue is fully burnt, all the carbon compounds are oxidised to gaseous
form and the remaining is called ‘ash’. The ash contains all of the following, except.

(1) Calcium
(2) Magnesium
(3) Potassium
(4) Nucleic acid
29) Correct match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II
(A) Neutrophils I. 20-25% of WBC
(B) Basophils II. 2-3% of WBC
(C) Monocytes III. 6-8% of WBC
(D) Eosinophils IV. 0.5-1% of WBC
(E) Lymphocytes V. 60-65% of WBC
(1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II, E-V
(2) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-II, E-I
(3) A-V, B-IV, C-I, D-II, E-III
(4) A-V, B-II, C-IV, D-III, E-I

30) A man whose blood group is not known meets with a serious accident and needs blood
transfusion immediately, which one of the blood groups will be safest for transfusion ?

(1) O, Rh–
(2) O, Rh+
(3) AB, Rh–
(4) AB, Rh+

31) Statement-I : The T-wave represents the return of the ventricles from excited to normal state.
Statement-II : The end of the T-wave marks the end of ventricular systole.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

32) Which of the following are not correctly matched in a healthy person :-
(a) Stroke volume = 70 ml
(b) Period of vertricular systole = 0.5 sec
(c) End systolic volume = 120 ml
(d) Heart beat rate (normal) = 95/min
(e) Cardiac output = 5000 ml
(f) Normal B.P. = 120/80 mmHg
(g) Normal pulse pressure = 60 mmHg

(1) b, c, d only
(2) b, c, d & e
(3) Only d
(4) b, c, d, & g

33) Assertion (A) :- During joint diastole, blood from pulmonary veins and vena cava flows into the
left and right ventricle respectively through left and right atria.
Reason (R) :- Bicuspid and Tricuspid valve remain open during joint diastole that allows flow of
blood.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

34)

Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) There is no uncatalysed metabolic conversion in living systems.

(2) The living state is a equilibrium steady state to be able to perform work
(3) The living state and metabolism are synonymous
(4) The catalysts which hasten the rate of a given reaction are enzymes

35) How many statements are correct for RBC?

(i) Biconcave and non-nucleated in human.
(ii) It contains carbonic anhydrase in large quantity.
(iii) It contain antigen of blood group on surface.
(iv) It contains mitochondria in large number.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) 4

SECTION-B

1)

Rh –ve person donated blood to Rh +ve person for the second time then. :-

(1) Agglutination reaction will occurs in Rh+ person

(2) Rh +ve person will die
(3) Rh +ve blood starts reacting to Rh –ve blood
(4) Nothing happens to Rh +ve person.

2) Following are the statements with reference to carbohydrate-

(a) Inulin is a polymer of glucose
(b) In polysaccharide chain the right end is called the reducing end
(c) Starch has helical secondary structure of amylose
(d) The cellulose-I2 is blue in colour
(e) Cellulose is hetropolymer.
Choose the correct statements from the options given below :-

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (c) and (d) only
(3) (b) and (c) only
(4) (b) and (e) only

3) Match the column P to Q

Column-P Column-Q

A Valine i 2–NH2 groups

B Lysine ii 2–COOH groups

Glutamic
C iii 1–NH2 group
acid

Palmitic
D iv 1–COOH group, fatty acid
acid
(1) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

4) How many of the following statements are correct ?

A - Tyrosine is aromatic amino acid.
B - Structure of amino acids change in solutions of different pH.
C - Side group in alanine is –CH3.
D - Amino acid is substituted methane.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Match the column-I with column-II :

Column-I Column-II

(A) Pyrimidines (I) Not strictly macromolecule

(B) Purines (II) Thymine, Cytosine & Uracil

(C) Lipids (III) Taste

(D) Receptor (IV) Low melting point

(E) Oils (V) Adenine & Guanine

(1) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V
(2) A – II; B – V; C – I; D – III; E – IV
(3) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – V; E – II
(4) A – V; B – IV; C – III; D – II; E – I

6) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
(a) Ribozymes are deoxyribonucleic acids with catalytic power
(b) Oils have lower melting point and hence remain as liquid in winters.
(c) Majority of simple lipids have both glycerol and fatty acids.
(d) Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms excluding the carboxyl carbon. Options :-

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a), (b)
(3) Statements (b), (c)
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)

7) Assertion : Polysaccharides are non-reducing sugars.

Reason : In a polysaccharide chain, the right end is called the reducing end and the left end is
called the non-reducing end.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

8) Which amino acid has a methyl group as ‘R’ group and is considered as neutral amino acid?

(1) Glycine
(2) Valine
(3) Alanine
(4) Lysine

9) Match column-I with column-II :

Column-II
Column-I
(% weight of human
(Element)
body)

(A) Oxygen (I) 3.3

(B) Carbon (II) 18.5

(C) Hydrogen (III) 0.5

(D) Nitrogen (IV) 65

(1) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I
(2) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(3) A – I; B – IV; C – III; D – II
(4) A – I; B – III; C – II; D – IV

10) Assertion (A) :- The QRS complex represents depolarisation of the ventricles which initiates
ventricular contraction.
Reason (R) :- Number of QRS can be used to determine the heart beat rate of individual.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

11) Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement-A : Elemental analysis shows that all the elements present in a sample of earth’s crust
are also present in a sample of living tissue.
Statement-B: The relative abundance of carbon and hydrogen with respect to other elements is
lower in any living organism than in earth’s crust.

(1) Both statements A and B are correct.

(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
(3) Only statement A is correct.
(4) Only statement B is correct.

12) Which of the following option correctly matches with the diagram ?

A-pulmonary vein, C-pulmonary artery

(1)
D-Dorsal aorta, E-Vena cava
A-pulmonary artery, B-pulmonary vein
(2)
F-Great veins, D-Dorsal aorta
E-Body parts, B-Lungs
(3)
A-pulmonary vein, C-pulmonary artery
F-Vena cava, C-pulmonary vein
(4)
D-Dorsal aorta, A-pulmonary artery

13) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
:-
(a) Coronary Artery disease, (CAD) often referred to as Atherosclerosis
(b) Heart failure means when the heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood supply
(c) High blood pressure leads to heart diseases and also affects vital organs like brain and kidney
(d) Angina occurs when no enough oxygen is reaching the heart muscle.
Options :-

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a), (b) only
(3) Statements (c), (d) only
(4) Statement (a), (c) and (d)
14)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

15)

All of the following factors can increase rate of heart beat and cardiac output except

(1) Acetylcholne
(2) Adrenaline
(3) Nor epinephrine
(4) Stimulation of sympathetic nerves
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 2 2 1 1 1 3 2 2 1 3 4 4 4 3 4 2 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 1 2 3 1 4 4 2 2 1 3 2 4 1 2 3

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 2 4 3 3 4 3 1 3 2 3 1 1 2 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 1 4 2 1 1 2 3 3 4 4 2 1 3 1 2 4 1 3 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 3 3 3 1 4 2 2 1 1 3 1 4 2

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 2 3 1 3 2 1 2 3 3 1 3 2 3 2

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 3 3 3 4 1 4 1 2 2 4 4 3 2 2 3 3 2 1 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 4 1 1 1 3 4 3 4 3 4 4 1 1 2

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 2 3 4 4 2 2 2 1 1 3 2 4 4

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 3 3 2 4 4 4 1 1 3 3 3 1 2 3 1 1 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 3 2 2 3 3 4 4 2 1 1 4 4 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 4 3 1 4 2 3 2 3 1 1 3 4 4 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

work done = Area under F-x graph

W = Area of rectangle ABCD + Area of ΔCDE

3)

4) Theory based

6) – 50x – 100X2 = 0 – 50(2)2

– 50x – 50x2 = – 100
 x2 + x – 2 = 0

8)

9)

Put

12)
= 140 J/S

13)

14)

15)

By work energy theorem

Wfriction + Wgravity = ΔKE

µ = 2tanθ

16)
 19)

Work done by constant force does not depend on the path. It only depends on initial and final
positions. Here, initial and final positions are same. So, work done is zero

20)

Note:- Since, particle moves in the xy-plane, hence work done by the z-component of the force is
zero.

21) Angular momentum

L = Iω ......(i)
Kinetic energy

K = Iω2 = Lω[from equation (i)]

∴ L=

Now, L′ = ∴ L′ =

23)

By conserving angular momentum about 'O'

0
mv R =

mvR =

⇒v=

28)
v = ωR
& I = MK2

29)

60 π = 40 π + α (10)
α = 2π
(60π)2 = (40π)2 + 2 (2π)θ

θ = 500 π; η =

34)

Mg(h + S) = F.S

36)

(4m) (U) + m(0) = (4m) v1 + mv2

4U = 4v1 + v2 .... (1)

∵e= ⇒1=
⇒ v2 – v1 = U ... (2)

eq. (1) – eq. (2) ⇒ 5v1 = 3U ⇒ v1 =

fraction ⇒ =

37)

impulse = Δp = m (vf –vi)

impulse received by m,

impulse received by

M = – (impulse received by m)

38)

42)

x = 3t – 4t2 + t3
V = 3 – 8t + 3t2
at t = 0 Vi = 3
at t = 4s, Vf = 3 – 8(4) + 3(4)2 = 19

= 1.5 × 10–3 × 22 × 16 = 528 mJ

43)

For angular motion of the stick

τ = mg = ℓα

moment of intertia of stick about B is ℓ =

⇒ mg = α ⇒ α=
Acceleration of centre of mass

=α

45) energy conservation

mgh = mv2 + Iω2

mgh = m (wR)2 + Iω2

w=

46)

47)

The maximum velocity for a banked road with friction is given by,

v2 = gr

⇒ v2 = 9.8 × 1000 ×
⇒ v =172 m/s

48)

For angular motion

 Let this certain internal starts at t0

By using Δθ = ωt + × t2

0
120 = (3 + 3t )4+ (3)(4)2
t0 = 7 sec.

49)

Initial KE =

= × 2 × (20)2 = 400
Final KE = 0

∴ Work done = – 400 J

50)

CHEMISTRY

54)

59)

O2 is paramagnetic due to 2 unpaired e– in π*2px and π*2py orbitals.

60)

Molecular orbital (energy) diagram / sequence of N2

 61)

(A)

(B) SF4

(C)

(D) Br F3

62)
 (µ = 0)

78)

C2H4(g) + 3O2(g) —→ 2CO2(g) + 2H2O(ℓ) ; ΔHComb.=?

ΔH = ∑ (ΔHf)P – ∑(ΔHf)R

82)

NCERT-XI, part-1, Pg.#163

85) q and w are path function

88) ΔU = q + w = W = -pext -(v2 - v1)

= -1.5 × (2 -8) =9 lit atm =911 J
DU = 100 + 911 = 1011J

89)

When an ideal gas is compressed adiabatically and reversibly,

Then q = 0
∴ According to 1st law :
ΔU = q + w = w
∵ Gas is compressed ⇒ work done is positive i.e. w is positive in magnitude
⇒ ΔU is positive
⇒ ΔT is positive as well.

91) Fact.

93) Kp = Kc (RT)Δng
If Δng = 0 Kp = Kc

BOTANY

101)

NCERT Pg. # 42

107)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 35
 108)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 35

109) NCERT XI, Page # 36, 38

115)

NCERT Reference:
Biology-XI, Page No.40

117) NCERT XI, Pg. No. 66

128)

Module 71

135) NCERT Pg. No. 61

136) NCERT XI Page No. # 33

139)

NCERT 11th Class (Chapter-3) Page No. 36

148)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 39

149) NCERT pg no.40-41

ZOOLOGY

151)

NCERT Pg. # 278

152)

NCERT Pg.# 279

153)

154)

Allen module
 155)

NCERT Page No # 286

156)

NCERT, Pg. # 280

157)

NCERT(XI) Pg # 285

158)

NCERT Page No. 106

159) NCERT P.No. 150

160)

Ncert Page No. 145

161)

NCERT Page No. 107

162)

NCERT Pg.# 285

163)

NCERT XI Pg # 281

164)

NCERT pg no.284

165)

NCERT XIIth Pg # 286

166)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 284

167)

NCERT–XI, Pg. # 286, Para-8 (E)

NCERT–XI, Pg. # 287, Para-6 (H)

168)

NCERT PG. # (E) 284, (H) 285

 169)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 284,285

170)

NCERT XI Pg. # 158

171) NCERT P.No. 158

172) NCERT 11th Pg. No. 281

173)

Allen module.
Hyaluronic acid, hemicellulose, pectin, heparin are heteropolysaccharides.

174)

NCERT Pg # 148, 146

175) Amino acids and glucose are primary metabolites

176)

NCERT Pg. # 282

177)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 282

178)

NCERT Page: 143

179)

NCERT Pg#194

180)

NCERT XI Pg.# 280

181)

NCERT Pg. # 286

182) NCERT Pg. # 285

183)
NCERT, Pg # 284

184) NCERT EDITION 2022 - 2023 Pg. No. 153

185)

NCERT XIth Pg.#278

186) NCERT Pg No. # 281 (Para-1)

187)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 148

188)

NCERT Pg # 144

189)

NCERT Pg # 144

190)

Ncert Pg No 147, Table 9.4

191)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 144

192)

NCERT XI Page No. # 148

193) NCERT Reference: Class XI, Page No. 144

194)

NCERT Page no 143

195)

NCERT, Pg # 286

196)

NCERT XI Pg.143

197)

NCERT, Pg # 287
 198) Pg. No. 287, 288_XI NCERT

199)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 281

200) NCERT XI Page No. # 288