PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY

NAME OF THE POST : Veterinary Officer, Class II,

Advt No. :34/2016-17(AQS)
Date of Premilinary Test : 04-03-2017
Subject : Concerned Subject (101 to 300 )
Date of Publication : 09-03-2017
Objections Send up to : 16-03-2017
Note:
1. All Suggestion are to be sent with reference to website published
question paper with provisional answer key only.
2. All Suggestion are to be sent in the given format only.
3. Candidate must ensure the above compliance.

101. Breeding of unrelated animals is

(A) Outbreeding (B) Inbreeding
(C) Line breeding (D) None of the above

102. When three breeds are crossed in a rotational manner it is called

(A) Criss crossing (B) Triple crossing
(C) Back crossing (D) None of the above

103. When two breeds are crossed alternatively, it is called

(A) Back crossing (B) Criss crossing
(C) Front crossing (D) None of the above

104. Dangi breed of cattle is generally found in:

(A) Regions of Gujarat and Maharashtra
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Central Uttar Pradesh

AQS-A ] [ 19 ] [ P.T.O.
105. Cara beef is
(A) Buffalo meat (B) Wild cattle meat
(C) Wild goat meat (D) Boar meat

106. Pasteurellosis of cattle is usually associated with infection by

(A) Pasteurella hemolytica (B) Pasteurella hemoseptica
(C) Pasteurella enterolytica (D) None of the above

107. Canine heart worm is transmitted by

(A) Flea (B) Mosquito
(C) Tick (D) Mite

108. Gossypol is present in

(A) Cotton seed cake (B) Linseed cake
(C) Mustard cake (D) Ground nut cake

109. Largest organ is

(A) Skin (B) Large intestine
(C) Liver (D) Small intestine

110. Which leads to Ketosis?

(A) Starvation (B) Acidosis
(C) Diarrhoea (D) None of the above

111. A disease over large population

(A) Pandemic (B) Enzootic
(C) Sporadic (D) Endemic

112. An example of Benzodiazepine

(A) Midazolam (B) Ketamine
(C) Xylazine (D) None of the above

AQS-A ] [ 20 ] [ Contd...
113. Tropical thieleriosis is caused by
(A) Thieleria annulata (B) Thieleria parva
(C) Thieleria hirei (D) Thieleria mutans

114. Which parasite cause Vit B12 deficiency

(A) Dyphylobothrium latum (B) Osteratagia
(C) Cooperia (D) Haemonchus

115. Toxin of clostridium botulinum in milk can be destroyed

(A) At pasteurization temperature
(B) By heating at 80°C for 30 min.
(C) Cannot be destroyed
(D) Both A and B are correct

116. Hay when ready for storing should not contain moisture more than
(A) 22-25% (B) 30-32%
(C) 16-18% (D) 28-38%

117. Which of the following is a water soluble vitamin?

(A) Vitamin E (B) Vitamin K
(C) Riboflavin (D) Vitamin A

118. Gid in sheep is caused by

(A) Stomach worm (B) Round worm
(C) Nodular worm (D) Bladder worm

119. Contagious ecthyma in sheep is caused by

(A) Bacteria (B) Virus
(C) Fungus (D) Insects

AQS-A ] [ 21 ] [ P.T.O.
120. The fetal hormone responsible for initiating parturition in dam
(A) Progesterone (B) Prostaglandins
(C) Oxytocin (D) Estrogen

121. Essential amino acid of poultry is

(A) Taurine (B) Glycine
(C) Leucine (D) Isoleucine

122. Which hormone is secreted by ovary?

(A) FSH (B) LH
(C) MS (D) Progesterone

123. Half of the herd is referred to

(A) Cow (B) Bull
(C) Siblings (D) Half sibling

124. Inflammation of stifle joint is called

(A) Gonitis (B) Coxitis
(C) Spavin (D) Pedal osteitis

125. Bursitis of atlantal bursa is known as

(A) Shoe-boil (B) Poll Evil
(C) Hygroma (D) None of the above

126. OS penis is found in

(A) Dog (B) Bull
(C) Human (D) None of the above

AQS-A ] [ 22 ] [ Contd...
127. Sigmoid flexure is found in
(A) Boar (B) Ox
(C) Both A and B (D) None of the above

128. Trachea, Heart and Lung of carcass is known as

(A) Pluck (B) Bung
(C) Both A and B (D) Paunch

129. The presence of buffalo milk in cow milk is tested by

(A) Sedimentation test (B) Hansa test
(C) COB Test (D) Alizarine test

130. The cynogen glycosides present in Linseed are known as

(A) Dhurrin (B) Linamarin
(C) Indole (D) Indole Acetic Acid

131. Which breed is known as Merino of India?

(A) Magra (B) Chokla
(C) Gaddi (D) Bakharwal

132. Prenatal transmission is seen in

(A) Toxocara canis (B) Ancylostoma caninum
(C) Strongyloides ransomi (D) All the above

133. Organism responsible for ‘Gas gangrene’

(A) Pnemococcus (B) Clostridium chauvoei
(C) Streptococci (D) Clostridium haemolyticum

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134. BIS stands for
(A) Basis of Indian standards
(B) Bureau of Indian standards
(C) Bureau of International standards
(D) Basis of International standards

135. Disease transmitted from rabbit to man is

(A) Pseudotuberculosis (B) Listeriosis
(C) Necrobacillosis (D) None of the above

136. Vitelline membrane in egg covers the surface of

(A) Albumin (B) Yolk
(C) Egg shell (D) None of the above

137. It is a detention and segregation for observation and testing for prescribed
period of live stock and livestock products, biologicals, pathogenic
organisms or parasite imported or meant for export.
(A) Importation and deportation (B) Quarantine
(C) Isolation (D) None of the above

138. Meat of deer is known as

(A) Chevon (B) Beef
(C) Venison (D) None of the above

139. Which of the following is not a congenital defect

(A) Ovarian agenesis (B) Ovarian hypoplasia
(C) Testicular hypoplasia (D) Testicular degeneration

140. Which of the following sperm cell is having hoot shaped head
(A) Cock (B) Rat
(C) Bull (D) Ram

AQS-A ] [ 24 ] [ Contd...
141. The best site for deposition of cryopreserved bovine semen preserved
in 0.25 ml straw is
(A) Tip of the uterus (B) Mid cervix
(C) Fornix vagina (D) Uterine horn

142. Test performed for the diagnosis of Glanders in horses is

(A) DID (B) SID
(C) FUSA (D) Mallein

143. Abortion at, 6 months onward in cattle may occur in

(A) Brucellosis
(B) Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis
(C) Leptospirosis
(D) All of the above

144. Dropped elbow is seen in

(A) Crural paralysis (B) Radial nerve paralysis
(C) Peroneal nerve paralysis (D) Volar nerve paralysis

145. In which animal arginine requirement is highest

(A) Poultry (B) Cattle
(C) Dog (D) Buffalo

146. Which of the following parasite is not transmitted through meat

(A) Trichinella spiralis (B) Sarcocystis
(C) Taenia saginata (D) Cryptosporidium cervi

147. The most prolific breed of sheep in India.

(A) Muzaffarnagari (B) Jamunapari
(C) Garole (D) Black Bengal

AQS-A ] [ 25 ] [ P.T.O.
148. Hemilaminectomy is indicated for the treatment of
(A) Intervertebral disc herniation
(B) Laminitis in horses
(C) Fracture of transverse process
(D) All of the above

149. Swinging leg lameness is evident during

(A) Standing position
(B) In motion
(C) Rest immediately after hard work
(D) Rest as well as in motion

150. Hair ball formation in young calves is due to the vice of

(A) Coprophagia (B) Licking
(C) Sucking (D) None of the above

151. A goat breed which is most popular in world for production of Mohair
(A) Kashmiri (B) Merino
(C) Chegu (D) Angora

152. Prescrotal sigmoid flexure is present in

(A) Ox (B) Stallion
(C) Boar (D) Dog

153. Which of the following is an inclusion body observed in rabies virus

infected cells.
(A) Negri bodies (B) Bollinger bodies
(C) Lateral bodies (D) Cow dry bodies

AQS-A ] [ 26 ] [ Contd...
154. Which of the following round worm of cattle and buffaloes is transmitted
during pregnancy.
(A) Oesophagostomum Columbianum
(B) Bunostomum phlebotomum
(C) Haemonchus contortus
(D) Toxocara vitulorum

155. APEDA promotes the export of

(A) Meat and Meat products
(B) Poultry and Poultry products
(C) Agro and processed food products
(D) All of the above

156. The mange in camel is caused by

(A) Ticks (B) Mites
(C) Louse (D) None of the above

157. Haemoglobinurea in cattle is due to

(A) Babesiosis (B) Trypanosomiasis
(C) Theileriasis (D) Coccidiosis

158. Dry gangrene results from

(A) Occlusion of artery (B) Haemorrhage
(C) Occlusion of vein (D) Dehydration

159. Milker’s nodules in human beings are caused by

(A) Cowpox virus (B) Pseudo cow pox
(C) Vaccinia (D) Small pox

160. For large animal radiography, the X-ray machine used is

(A) 2000 ma (B) 30 ma
(C) 500 ma (D) 1000 ma

AQS-A ] [ 27 ] [ P.T.O.
161. Pyometra is accumulation of
(A) Pus (B) Blood
(C) Plasma (D) Synovia

162. Hay is
(A) Green forage (B) Sun dried forage
(C) Crop residue (D) None of the above

163. The lung worm of cattle is

(A) Oesophagostomum radiatum (B) Dictyocaulus viviparus
(C) Haemonchus contortus (D) None of the above

164. Cows milk is deficient in

(A) Vitamin C (B) Iron
(C) Calcium (D) None of the above

165. The snails act as intermediate host for

(A) Haemonchosis (B) Filariosis
(C) Taeniasis (D) Fascioliosis

166. The fish meal is commonly used in ration of.

(A) Dairy cows (B) Poultry
(C) Sheep (D) Camel

167. Gonitis is inflammation of

(A) Stifle joint (B) Knee joint
(C) Hock joint (D) Hip joint

168. One host tick in cattle is

(A) Hyalomma (B) Boophilus
(C) Haemophysalis (D) Dermacentor

AQS-A ] [ 28 ] [ Contd...
169. The gestation period of she camel is
(A) 9 months (B) 10 months
(C) 24 months (D) 13 months

170. Summer mastitis is usually caused by

(A) Streptococcus dysgalactae (B) Staph aureus
(C) E. Coli (D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

171. In dry fodder, crude fiber content ranges from

(A) 8-10% (B) 5-15%
(C) 10-15% (D) 18% and above

172. Common crime against animals in India.

(A) Mischief (B) Cruelty against animals
(C) Bestiality (D) All of the above

173. Meracidium is present in

(A) Trematodes (B) Cestodes
(C) Nematodes (D) All of the above

174. The type of zoonoses shown by paragonimiasis and scrub typhus is

(A) Cyclozoonoses (B) Metazoonoses
(C) Saproxzoonoses (D) None of the above

175. DCP–TDN maintained in ration

(A) 15-20% DCP + 70% TDN (B) 10-15% DCP + 70% TDN
(C) 20-25% DCP + 70% TDN (D) 25-30% DCP + 70% TDN

176. Pallisade arrangement is characteristic of

(A) Bacillus anthracis (B) Corynebacterium
(C) Listeria (D) E. Coli

AQS-A ] [ 29 ] [ P.T.O.
177. Ovary in mare is in the shape of
(A) Kidney Bean (B) Round
(C) Oval (D) Square

178. Fentanyl and droperidol is

(A) Neuroleptanaesthetic (B) Antagonism
(C) Dissociative anaesthetic (D) All of the above

179. Folic acid mechanism is affected by

(A) Sulfonamides (B) Tetracycline
(C) Penicillin (D) All of the above

180. The refrigeration temperature for storage of fresh meat is

(A) 2 to 5°C (B) 5 to 8°C
(C) –2 to –5°C (D) None of the above

181. National Institute for Research on Meat is located at

(A) Hyderabad (B) Mumbai
(C) Chennai (D) Delhi

182. Which is not an ionophore anti–coccidial drug.

(A) Monensin (B) Lasalocid
(C) Salincomycin (D) Robenidine

183. Telescoping of intestine is referred to as

(A) Intussusception (B) Torsion
(C) Volvulus (D) Strangulation

184. Lignocellulose bond is broken by

(A) Bacteria (B) Protozoa
(C) Fungi (D) None of the above

AQS-A ] [ 30 ] [ Contd...
185. Opacity of lens is known as
(A) Cataract (B) Glaucoma
(C) Corneal opacity (D) Uveitis

186. Male accessory sex gland present in dogs is

(A) Bulbourethral (B) Prostrate
(C) Seminal vesicles (D) All of the above

187. Sigmoid flexure is absent in

(A) Horse (B) Ox
(C) Dog (D) Horse and Dog

188. Diffuse placenta is found in

(A) Mare (B) Cow
(C) Bitch (D) Monkey

189. The epithelial lining of Urinary bladder is

(A) Cuboidal (B) Stratified squamous
(C) Transitional (D) Columnar

190. The interstitial endocrine cells of testes are also known as

(A) Sertoli cells (B) Leydig cells
(C) Purkinje cells (D) Parietal cells

191. The most commonly used blood stain is

(A) Leishman (B) Methylene blue
(C) Xylene (D) Eosin

192. Gall bladder is absent in the liver of

(A) Ox (B) Dog
(C) Horse (D) Pig

AQS-A ] [ 31 ] [ P.T.O.
193. The corona glandis is present in the penis of
(A) Pig (B) Ox
(C) Horse (D) Dog

194. The inward movement of a bone towards central axis is

(A) Abduction (B) Adduction
(C) Rotation (D) Circumduction

195. Cerebrospinal fluid is formed at

(A) Cerebral plexus (B) Brachial plexus
(C) Choroid plexus (D) All of the above

196. Number of ribs in horse

(A) 18 pair (B) 13 pair
(C) 11 pair (D) 7 pair

197. The smallest ear ossicle is

(A) Incus (B) Malleus
(C) Stapes (D) None of the above

198. Margo-plicatus is seen in the stomach of

(A) Horse (B) Dog
(C) Ox (D) Poultry

199. Guttural pouch is found in

(A) Cow (B) Dog
(C) Fowl (D) Horse

200. Number of air sacs in fowl

(A) 11 (B) 13
(C) 5 (D) 7

AQS-A ] [ 32 ] [ Contd...
201. Probiotic yeast is
(A) Sacchromyces cervisiac (B) Aspergillus orizac
(C) Both A and B are correct (D) None of the above

202. Cow can be best judged during

(A) Dry period (B) Just calved
(C) Full lactation (D) Pregnancy

203. Protozoa per ml in rumen of adult animals under normal feeding

(A) 1 × 106 (B) 1 × 108
(C) 1 × 1010 (D) 1 × 1012

204. Under Indian conditions best method of egg preservation is

(A) Oil treatment (B) Liquid immersion
(C) Desi method (D) Cold storage

205. Excellent silage pH is

(A) 3.7 – 4.2 (B) 4.5 – 5.0
(C) 4.7 – 5.2 (D) 5.0 – 5.5

206. High Co2 level in blood indicates

(A) Respiratory acidosis (B) Metabolic acidosis
(C) Respiratory alkalosis (D) All of the above

207. Post mortem sign of bright red coloured blood and bitter almond smell
indicates
(A) Cyanide poisoning (B) Nitrate poisoning
(C) Lead poisoning (D) Mercury poisoning

AQS-A ] [ 33 ] [ P.T.O.
208. Strongylus vulgaris causes
(A) Arteritis (B) Altered capillary permeability
(C) Thrombosis (D) All of the above

209. Which virus has lipoprotein in its envelope.

(A) Adenovirus (B) Papilloma virus
(C) Pox virus (D) Herpes virus

210. Intracellular protozoal parasite of blood

(A) Babesia Spp (B) Trypanosoma
(C) Toxoplasma (D) Theileria

211. Intercellular protozoal parasite of blood

(A) Babesia Spp (B) Trypanosoma
(C) Toxoplasma (D) Theileria

212. Uterine torsion is common in

(A) Buffalo (B) Cow
(C) Camel (D) Goat

213. Suture pattern preferred during hernial closure

(A) Overlapping mattress (B) Vertical mattress
(C) Simple continuous (D) Lockstitch suture

214. In X-ray tube electron emitting filament is made up of

(A) Tungustun (B) Cd and Zn
(C) Ni and Cr (D) None of the above

215. Zebra marking is characteristic symptom of

(A) PPR (B) FMD
(C) Scrapie (D) None of the above

AQS-A ] [ 34 ] [ Contd...
216. Pulpy kidney disease is important disease of
(A) Sheep (B) Poultry
(C) Camel (D) Rabbit

217. First non surgical embryo transfer in catlle was done by

(A) Nicholes – 1933
(B) Norwick and Berry – 1949
(C) Albert livestock Transplant Ltd – 1971
(D) Willet – 1951

218. Xeropthalmia occurs due to deficiency of

(A) Riboflavin (B) Ascorbic acid
(C) Vitamin A (D) Vitamin D

219. The best crop for silage making is

(A) Maize (B) Oat
(C) Lucerne (D) All of the above

220. Cisterna chyli is reservoir of

(A) Lymph (B) Blood
(C) Bile (D) Saliva

221. The type of mummification in cattle is

(A) Haematinic (B) Papyraceous
(C) Both A and B (D) None of the above

222. Kalazar is transmitted by

(A) Sand fly (B) Horse fly
(C) House fly (D) Horn fly

AQS-A ] [ 35 ] [ P.T.O.
223. Water regulating hormone
(A) Somatotrophin (B) ACTH
(C) LH (D) ADH

224. Which is not a buffalo breed?

(A) Murrah (B) Banni
(C) Surti (D) Nagori

225. After death glycogen is converted into

(A) Acetic acid (B) Lactic acid
(C) Propionic acid (D) Butyric acid

226. Home tract of Nili–ravi is

(A) Rajasthan (B) Gujarat
(C) Punjab (D) Maharashtra

227. First ETT calf is born at

(A) Allahabad (B) Hyderabad
(C) Surat (D) Nagpur

228. Spirulina is
(A) Single cell protein (B) Bacteria
(C) Fungi (D) Multiple cell protein

229. Lock jaw condition occurs in

(A) Anthrax (B) Salmonellosis
(C) Tetanus (D) Leptospirasis

230. Which is single humped camel?

(A) Camelus dromedarius (B) Camelus bacterians
(C) Both A and B are correct (D) None of the above

AQS-A ] [ 36 ] [ Contd...
231. Defaunation is removal of
(A) Bacteria from rumen (B) Protozoa from rumen
(C) Fungi from rumen (D) All of the above

232. pH is
(A) Log of Hydrogen (B) Log of H+
(C) Log of (OH–) (D) All of the above

233. In polymerase chain reaction which of the following is required essentially

(A) DNA ligase (B) DNA primer
(C) DNA polymerase (D) None of the above

234. The process of synthesis of protein from RNA is called

(A) Translation (B) Transcription
(C) Replication (D) None of the above

235. Transposon is known as

(A) IS element (B) Jumping gene
(C) Conservative gene (D) Co-integrate gene

236. The level of gene expression and gene activation can be measured using
(A) Reporter gene (B) Marker gene
(C) Promoter element (D) Gene sequence

237. ELISA test essentially requires the following.

(A) Antigen, antibody and conjugate
(B) Antigen, antibody, substrate and ELISA plate
(C) Antigen, antibody, conjugate, substrate and ELISA plate
(D) Antigen, antibody and ELISA plate.

AQS-A ] [ 37 ] [ P.T.O.
238. Number of base pair units in a single turn of DNA
(A) 4 (B) 6
(C) 8 (D) 10

239. The enzyme used in polymerase chain reaction is

(A) DNA ligase (B) RNA polymerase
(C) Polymerase 111 (D) Taq DNA polymerase

240. The most sensitive immunodiagnostic test in terms of antibody detection

is
(A) Radio-immuno assay (B) Gel precipitation test
(C) Complement fixation test (D) Haemagglutination test

241. The double stranded DNA molecule loses its viscosity upon
(A) Denaturation (B) Filtration
(C) Sedimentation (D) Concentration

242. Which of the following element is an integral part of Vitamin B12.

(A) Selenium (B) Iodine
(C) Cobalt (D) Calcium

243. Plasmid is
(A) Extrachromosomal DNA dependent on bacterial chromosome for
replication
(B) Extrachromosomal DNA capable of autonomous replication
(C) Part of mammalian DNA in bacteria
(D) None of the above

244. Which of the following is neutral amino acid?

(A) Leucine (B) Lysine
(C) Proline (D) Histidine

AQS-A ] [ 38 ] [ Contd...
245. In protein synthesis ‘Start’ signal is made by codon
(A) UAG (B) UAA
(C) UGA (D) AUG

246. Double helical DNA structure was proposed by

(A) Watson and Crick (B) Mlecher
(C) Chargass (D) Kohler and Milstein

247. A single cell having 2 nucleus from different cells is known as

(A) Hybridoma (B) Heterokaryon
(C) Homokaryon (D) Diploid cell

248. Cell lines are cryopreserved at – 196°C in

(A) Liquid O2 (B) Liquid N2
(C) Liquid NH3 (D) Liquid CO2

249. Penicillin was discovered by

(A) Alexander Fleming (B) Altrngn
(C) Kaufmann (D) Arthur

250. Which is the most widely used vaccine against Mareck’s disease?
(A) Tissue culture vaccine (B) Herpes virus of Turkey (H.V.T.)
(C) R2B strain vaccine (D) Freeze dried vaccine

251. Name the chemical substance released in animals to attract male and
female during estrus
(A) Pheromones (B) Hormones
(C) Neurones (D) Enzymes

252. Hybridoma (Monoclonal antibodies) technique was developed by

(A) Virchow (B) Kochler and Milstein
(C) E. Porter (D) L. Lister

AQS-A ] [ 39 ] [ P.T.O.
253. Tissue plasminogen activator is used in
(A) Diabetes (B) Cardiovascular disease
(C) Anaemia (D) Cancer

254. Enzyme used by genetic engineers to join cut ends of DNA strands is
(A) Restriction enzyme (B) Aminoacylase
(C) Ligase (D) Isomerase

255. Epithelio–chorial type of placenta is seen in

(A) Horse and Pig (B) Sheep, Goat and Cow
(C) Dog and Cat (D) Man, rodents

256. Endothelial–chorial type of placenta is seen in

(A) Man and rodents (B) Dog and cat
(C) Sheep, Goat and Cow (D) Horse and pig

257. Synepithelial–Chorial type of placenta is seen in

(A) Pig (B) Horse
(C) Cow, Goat and sheep (D) Cat

258. The correct statement regarding polyploidy is

(A) There are whole multiples of the haploid chromosome number in
excess.
(B) Arises when there is a failure of the block to polyspermy
(C) Arises when there is retention of the first or second (or both)
polar bodies during oogenesis
(D) All the above are correct

AQS-A ] [ 40 ] [ Contd...
259. The most correct statement regarding Aneuploidy is
(A) Arises if there is non-disjunction during mitosis so that the
chromosomes do not separate in the balanced fashion
(B) X chromose aneuploidy in females results in fertility
(C) Extra X chromosomes in males results in fertility
(D) Animals with Klinefelters' syndrome (XXY) are phenotypic males
but with small testes and are azoospermic and sterile

260. Superfecundation is most likely in

(A) Bitches (B) Mares
(C) Donkeys (D) Buffaloes

261. Superfetation arises

(A) When an animal alreadypregnant mates, ovulates and conceives a
second fetus or second litter
(B) When an animal mates, ovulates and conceives a second fetus
(C) Both A and B are correct
(D) None of the above

262. The correct statement regarding the Tenets of Halstead (1852-1922) is

(A) It is not applicable to key hole laparoscopic surgery
(B) It is not relevant to the present day surgery
(C) It is most relevant and applicable to the present day surgery
(D) None of the above

263. The most widely used absorbable suture material in veterinary practice
(A) Linen (B) Plain catgut
(C) Chromic catgut (D) Fish gut

264. Phlebitis is
(A) Inflammation of vein (B) Inflammation of artery
(C) Occlusion of vein (D) Occlusion of artery

AQS-A ] [ 41 ] [ P.T.O.
265. The correct statement regarding Spavin is
(A) It is not an unsoundness
(B) Exostosis seen at the postero-infero-internal aspect of the hock is
seat of spavin
(C) Spavin is same as Kumri
(D) Spavin is seen in very young animals

266. Epolis is
(A) Odontogenic tumour
(B) Tumour originating from gums and alveoli
(C) Common in pigs
(D) Rarely met within domestic large animals

267. Bishoping is
(A) A method of cheating adopted in sale of horses
(B) Infundibulum mark artificially made in an aged horse
(C) Adopted to make horse look young
(D) All the above are correct

268. The incidence of caecal dilatation and torsion is

(A) More in cows of Indian origin
(B) More in buffaloes
(C) More in exotic, high yielding cows
(D) All the above

269. Phimosis is
(A) inability to protrude the penis through the prepuce
(B) inability to retract the penis into the sheath
(C) same as paraphimosis
(D) not amenable for surgical treatment

AQS-A ] [ 42 ] [ Contd...
270. Hard milker is
(A) Same as membranous obstruction of teat
(B) Treated by giving cruciate incision at the terminal portion of the
teat
(C) Same as leaky teat
(D) None of the above

271. Cataract is
(A) Opacification of lens (B) Opacity of cornea
(C) Nebulous opacity of cornea (D) None of the above

272. Haematocele is haemorrhage into the

(A) Tunica vaginalis (B) Fallopian tube
(C) Uterus (D) Urinary bladder

273. An example of internal hernia

(A) Umbilical hernia (B) Diaphragmatic hernia
(C) Ventral hernia (D) Femoral hernia

274. Goat breed of Gujarat

(A) Surti (B) Barbari
(C) Beetal (D) Jhakrana

275. Cattle breed known for ‘Swai chal’

(A) Kankrej (B) Amrit Mahal
(C) Kangayam (D) Malvi

276. Buffalo breed known for highest fat in milk

(A) Bhadawari (B) Surti
(C) Pandharpuri (D) Nagpuri

AQS-A ] [ 43 ] [ P.T.O.
277. Wallowing is
(A) Frequent micturition
(B) Rolling or floundering in mud or water
(C) Frequent grunting
(D) Frequent panting and salivation

278. Krishi Vigyan Kendra’s are sponsored by

(A) UGC (B) IARI
(C) ICAR (D) VCI

279. Non official block level body in states not having panchayati raj.
(A) Block samiti
(B) Panchayat samiti
(C) Block Development Advisory Committee
(D) Zila Samiti

280. Basic operational unit for rural development in India

(A) Village (B) District
(C) Tehsil (D) Block

281. The first agricultural university of India is

(A) PAU, Ludhiana (B) HAU, Hisar
(C) APAU, Hyderabad (D) B.B.P.U.A & T, Pantnagar

282. Perosis is caused due to deficiency of

(A) Calcium (B) Phosphorus
(C) Manganese (D) Iron

283. Which of the following breed is of dual purpose

(A) Leghorn (B) Cornish
(C) Australorp (D) Langshan

AQS-A ] [ 44 ] [ Contd...
284. Gumboro disease spreads due to
(A) Virus (B) Bacteria
(C) Parasite (D) Vitamin deficiency

285. Ranikhet vaccination can be done by the route

(A) Intramuscular (B) Intraperitoneal
(C) Subcutaneous (D) All of the above

286. Oiling of egg prevents the escape of gas –

(A) Carbondioxide (B) Oxygen
(C) Water vapour (D) Hydrogen

287. Which is major fat in yolk.

(A) Phosvitin (B) Livetin
(C) Ovalbumin (D) Conalbumin

288. Which part of oviduct, secrete thick white albumen

(A) Infundibulum (B) Magnum
(C) Isthmus (D) Uterus

289. In poultry, oviposition is controlled by hormone

(A) Progesterone and androgen (B) Oestrogen
(C) Luteinizing hormone (D) Oxytocin

290. Desired proportion of white to yolk for good hatching of egg is

(A) 1:2 (B) 3:1
(C) 4:1 (D) 2:1

291. Which of the following milk is best for infant.

(A) Goat (B) Bufflo
(C) Cow (D) Jersey cow

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292. Number of crimps/inch in good wool must be
(A) 12–14 (B) 18–20
(C) 24–26 (D) 28–30

293. Biological value of goat milk is

(A) 67.5% (B) 75.0%
(C) 81.5% (D) 85.0%

294. Duration of estrus in goat is

(A) 12 hours (B) 18 hours
(C) 36 hours (D) None of them

295. Most essential vaccination in goat is

(A) Foot and Mouth disease (B) Pox
(C) Enterotoxaemia (D) Rinderpest

296. Processed meat produced by dry salting is

(A) Chorque (B) Biltong
(C) Pickling (D) All of the above

297. Which of the following has 2–3 unbounded sheets on related topic
(A) Bulletin (B) Pamphlet
(C) Leaflet (D) Circular

298. Excess feeding of grass causes deficiency of

(A) Mg (B) Na
(C) Fe (D) Ca

AQS-A ] [ 46 ] [ Contd...
299. Which breed gives black poultry meat
(A) Karkanath (B) Aseel
(C) Busra (D) Chittagong

300. The most potent aflatoxin is

(A) G1 (B) G2
(C) B1 (D) B2

AQS-A ] [ 47 ] [ P.T.O.