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MM : 400 Assignment_Molecular Basis of Inheritance Time : 120 Min.

Topics Covered :
Molecular Basis of Inheritance:
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
Regulation of Gene Expression
RNA World
Translation
Genetic Code
Transcription
DNA Fingerprinting
Introduction
The Search For Genetic Material
Replication
Human Genome Project (HGP)
The DNA

Molecular Basis of Inheritance

1. The terminator in transcription unit is located towards 6. In Meselson and Stahl experiment, medium containing
__________ was used in the medium to grow E. coli.
(A) 3′ end downstream of the coding strand
(B) 5′ end downstream of the coding strand (A) 15N – isotope

(C) 5′ end upstream of the coding strand (B) 32P – isotope

(D) 3′ end upstream of the coding strand (C) 35S – isotope
2. Which of the given acts as a ribozyme during translation
(D) 3H – isotope
in prokaryotes?
(A) Reverse transcriptase 7. The genetic material of QB bacteriophage

(B) 18S rRNA (A) Has 5 methyl uracil

(C) 23S rRNA (B) Is more stable than genetic material of E. coli.

(D) 5S rRNA (C) Has free 2' OH in its sugar component

3. In which of the given aspects, prokaryotic transcription is (D) Undergoes no mutational changes
similar to that of eukaryotes?
8. Which of the following features is/are associated with
(A) Types of RNA polymerases involved heterochromatin?
(B) Requirement of processing of m-RNA (i) Light stained region
(ii) Densely packed
(C) Being coupled with translation (iii) Transcriptionally inactive
(D) Direction of RNA formation (A) (i) and (ii)
4. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. levels of (B) (ii) and (iii)
regulation of gene expression in eukaryotes?
(C) Only (ii)
(A) Replication level
(D) (i) and (iii)
(B) Transcriptional level
9. If there are 333 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein
(C) Processing level with 111 amino acids, and the base at position 271 is
deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 332
(D) Translation level
bases, how many codons will remain unaltered?
5. Given mRNA codes for how many amino acids? (A) 1
5 AUGUGAAUUUAA 3 ?
′ ′

(B) 90
(A) One
(C) 21
(B) Two
(D) 111
(C) Three
(D) Four
10. Statement-A : All tRNA molecules have a guanine 18. Backbone of the polynucleotides chain is formed by
residue at its 5' terminal end.
(A) Sugar and phosphates
Statement-B: There are several tRNAs present for stop
condons. (B) Only sugar
(A) Only statement A is correct (C) Nitrogenous base and sugar
(B) Both the statements A and B are incorrect (D) Nitrogenous base and phosphates
(C) Both the statements A and B are correct 19. Choose the correct option w.r.t. RNA.
(D) Only statement B is correct (A) It cannot be catalytic
11. If a hybrid DNA is allowed to replicate for two generations (B) Absence of free 2' OH in sugar
in N14 containing medium then the proportion of light, (C) Presence of thymine in place of uracil
hybrid and heavy DNA will be respectively
(D) Mutates at faster rate as compared to DNA
(A) 75%, 25% and 0%
20. An E. coli culture is transferred from N15 to N14 medium
(B) 25%, 25% and 50%
(C) 0%, 50% and 50% and is allowed to multiply in N14 medium for 2
generations (40 min). What will be the fraction of hybrid
(D) 25%, 0% and 75% DNA from the DNA extracted from the E. coli culture?
12. Histone octamer is formed by how many types of histone (A) 25%
proteins?
(B) 50%
(A) Four
(C) 75%
(B) Two
(D) 12.5%
(C) Eight
21. Which of the given rRNAs plays dual role as structural
(D) Five RNA as well as catalyst in bacteria?
13. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. HGP. (A) 18S rRNA
(A) Less than 2% genome code for proteins (B) 5S rRNA
(B) Total number of gene estimated is 30,000 (C) 5.8S rRNA
(C) SNPs occurs at 1.4 billion locations (D) 23S rRNA
(D) Chromosome Y has 231 genes 22. The blind approach of simply sequencing the whole set of
genome that contained all coding and non-coding
14. Select the incorrect match w.r.t lac operon sequence and later assigning different regions in the
(A) Operator gene – Interacts with regulator molecule sequence with functions is referred to as

(B) Regulator gene – Codes for repressor protein (A) Expressed sequence tags

Lactose – Binds to promoter gene to induce (B) Sequence annotation

(C)
transcription (C) Bioinformatics
(D) Lacz gene – Codes for β-galactosidase (D) Polymorphism
15. The process in which amino acids are activated in the 23. Identify the false statement.
presence of ATP and linked to their cognate tRNA is
commonly called In prokaryotes transcription and translation are often
(A)
coupled
(A) Aminoacylation of tRNA
Bacterial mRNA undergoes splicing to become
(B) Aminoacylation of amino acid (B)
functional
(C) Discharging of tRNA (C) Prokaryotes have single type of RNA polymerase
(D) Charging of mRNA
In bacteria, rho (ρ) factor is required for termination of
(D)
16. Adenine is 20% in a dsDNA molecule, what would be the transcription
percentage of guanine?
(A) 20%
(B) 40%
(C) 10%
(D) 30%

17. In which of the given organisms, Taylor et al. have proved

semiconservative mode of chromosome replication by
using 3H-thymidine?
(A) Vicia faba
(B) E. coli
(C) Pneumococcus
(D) Streptococcus
24. Match column-I and column-II, and select the most 28. Which of the following is incorrect regarding DNA
appropriate option. fingerprinting?
Column-I Column-II It is based on the use of satellite DNA with high
(A)
Sequence Bacterial Artificial degree of polymorphism called VNTR
a. (i)
annotation Chromosome
Sensitivity of this technique is increased by use of
(B)
Sequencing the whole set PCR
b. Vectors (ii)
of genome
In this process, characteristic pattern of DNA band
Expressed Largest known human (C) differs from individual to individual even for
c. (iii)
sequence tags gene monozygotic (identical) twins
d. Dystrophin gene (iv) Genes that express as RNA (D) It has application in forensic science
(v) Located on Y-chromosome
29. During experiment with bacteriophage, Alfred Hershey
(A) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) and Martha Chase (1952) used

(B) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(v) (A) P32 labelled protein coat and S35 labelled DNA
(C) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(v) (B) P32 labelled DNA and S35 labelled protein coat
(D) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
32 S35
(C) P labelled bacteria and labelled
25. A : The i gene of lac operon is a nonconstitutive gene. bacteriophage
R : The i gene is switched on or off according to the
requirement of a cell. 32 labelled S35
(D) P bacteriophage and labelled
bacteria
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion 30. ‘Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon’. It
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is reflects which of the given features of genetic code?
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion (A) Triplet
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false (B) Commaless
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements (C) Degeneracy
26. Read the following statements and mark them as true (T) (D) Non-overlapping
or false (F)
A. Histones are rich in amino acids like lysine and 31. A molecule that can act as genetic material must fulfill the
arginine. following criteria, except
B. Packaging of chromatin at higher level requires non (A) It should be chemically and structurally stable
histone chromosomal proteins.
C. Densely packed, darkly stained and transcriptionally It should be able to express itself in the form of
(B)
active part of chromatin is called heterochromatin Mendelian characters
A B C (C) It should be able to generate its replica
(1) T T F It should provide the scope for rapid mutation that are
(D)
(2) T T T required for evolution
(3) F T T 32. Genes in eukaryotes
(4) F T F (a) Have introns
(b) Are split
(A) (1) (c) Are mostly polycistronic

(B) (2) (A) (a) & (b) only

(C) (3) (B) (b) & (c) only

(D) (4) (C) (a) & (c) only

27. UTRs (untranslated regions) are some additional (D) All (a), (b) & (c)
sequences present on mRNA which do not undergo 33. Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates serve dual purposes
translation. These sequences are present at
in DNA replication. In addition to acting as substrate, the
(A) 5' end only (before start codon) other function is similar to

5' end (after start codon) and 3' end (before stop (A) DNA polymerase
(B)
codon) (B) rRNA
5' end (before start codon) and 3' end (after stop (C) Topoisomerase
(C)
codon)
(D) ATP
(D) 3' end only (after start codon)
34. Assertion : DNA replication in E.coli initiates randomly at 41. Which of the given histone proteins attach(es) to DNA
any place in DNA. strand between two nucleosomes?
Reason : E. coli DNA lacks origin of replication site.
(A) H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A) (B) H1 only
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is (C) H2A and H2B only
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(D) H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements 42. Which one of the following statements is not correct w.r.t.
DNA packaging?
35. How many maximum number of amino acids can be Histones are rich in basic amino acids, lysines and
polymerised during translation from the given sequence (A)
arginines
of bases on mRNA if, 7th and 12th bases from 5' undergo
deletion? Positively charged DNA is wrapped around the
5'AUGCACGAUGACUAUGA3' (B) negatively charged histone octamer to form a
nucleosome
(A) 3
(C) A typical nucleosome contains 200 bp of DNA helix
(B) 4
(D) Loosely packed chromatin is euchromatin
(C) 5
43. Read the following four statements (A-D). Select correct
(D) 2 statement
(a) Rho factor is required for termination of transcription
36. Which of the given propositions based on the observation
(b) RNA Polymerase is holoenzyme that is made up of
of Erwin Chargaff is correct for a double stranded DNA?
(α2 β β' ω) protein, sigma factor & Rho factor.
(A) A + G = T + C (c) Split gene contain introns & exons
(B) G = T (d) Capping take place at 3’end of mRNA strand
(A) (a) & (b)
(C)
A+C
=> 1
G+T
(B) (a) & (c)
(D) A+T

G+C
= 1 (C) (b) & (d)

37. Which of the following is incorrect regarding DNA (D) (a),(b),(c)

fingerprinting? 44. Read the following statements and select the correct
It is based on the use of satellite DNA with high ones.
(A) i. Monocistronic structural genes in eukaryotes have
degree of polymorphism called VNTR
uninterrupted coding sequences.
Sensitivity of this technique is increased by use of ii. Coding sequences of a gene are called exons.
(B)
PCR iii. There is a single DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
In this process, characteristic pattern of DNA band that catalyses transcription of all types of RNA in bacteria.
(C) differs from individual to individual even for iv. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase III is responsible for
monozygotic twins the transcription of 28S rRNA

(D) It has application in forensic science (A) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(B) (i) & (iv) only
38. All of the following bonds, are found in DNA helix,
except, (C) (ii) & (iii) only
(A) Hydrogen bond (D) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
(B) Glycosidic bond 45. 5'UAACCAUAGCU3' is a sequence of newly synthesized
(C) Phosphodiester bond primary transcript. Select the correct option for the
nucleotides sequence in coding strand of DNA.
(D) Peptide bond
(A) 5'AUUGGUAUCGA3'
39. Which of the following is not a part of transcription unit in
(B) 5'AGCUAUGGUUA3'
DNA?
(C) 3'ATTGGTATCGA5'
(A) Promoter
(D) 5'TAACCATAGCT3'
(B) Terminator
(C) Repressor 46. The process of translation of mRNA to protein begins
when
(D) Structural gene
(A) tRNA is charged
40. The genetic codon for which no tRNA is found is
(B) tRNA is aminoacylated
(A) AUG (C) Small subunit of ribosome encounters an mRNA
(B) UUU (D) Peptide bond forms between two amino acids
(C) UUA
(D) UAG
47. If a dsDNA molecule has 1000 bp then what will be the 54. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material
number of sugar and phosphates respectively? came from the experiments done by
(A) 1000 and 1000 (A) Walter Sutton
(B) 2000 and 2000 (B) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
(C) 2000 and 4000 (C) Thomas Hunt
(D) 2000 and 1000 (D) Morgan
48. If the sequence of sense strand of DNA is 55. In lac operon, which gene possesses site for RNA
5'GCATGCATGCATT3', then what will be the sequence of polymerase attachment?
its primary transcript?
(A) Structural gene
(A) 3' CGUAGCUACGUAU 5'
(B) Operator gene
(B) 3' GCAUGCAUGCAUU 5'
(C) Promoter gene
(C) 5' CGUACGUACGUAA 3'
(D) Regulator gene
(D) 5' GCAUGCAUGCAUU 3'
56. 'Reverse central dogma of molecule biology’ can be
49. Read the statements given and choose the option. represented by
Statement A : The untranslated regions on mRNA are
required for efficient translation process. (A) DNA → RNA → Protein
Statement B : Splicing is the process of removal of (B) RNA → DNA
introns and joining of exons in a defined order.
(C) DNA → Protein → RNA
(A) Only A is correct
(D) Protein → DNA
(B) Both A and B are incorrect
57. DNA with more G ≡ C than A = T has
(C) Only B is correct
(A) High melting areas
(D) Both A and B are correct
(B) Low melting areas
50. During translation which of the following factor is
associated with termination codon? (C) Unequal number of sugar and phosphates

(A) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (D) Free 2'-OH group

(B) GTP independent factor 58. If UUU codes for phenylalanine in almost all of the
organisms then it shows that
(C) ATP
(A) Code is nearly universal
(D) GTP dependent factor
(B) Code is degenerate
51. Which of the following sequence of bases on anticodon
loop is correct for tRNA that brings initiator codon to the (C) Code is ambiguous
mRNA? (D) All organisms share same genetic informations
(A) 5’ CAU 3’ 59. A : RNA is the genetic material of QB bacteriophage.
(B) 5’ AUG 3’ R : RNA performs dynamic functions of messenger and
adapter molecule.
(C) 3’ AUG 5’
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(D) 3’ CAU 5’ (A)
the correct explanation of the assertion
52. Nucleic acid that has uracil acts as genetic material in Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B)
(A) Prokaryotes only not the correct explanation of the assertion

(B) All prokaryotes and eukaryotes (C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false

(C) Some viruses (D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

(D) All prokaryotes and viruses 60. How many amino acid(s) will be coded by the mRNA with
sequence 5' AUGUACUAGUAG 3', if the sixth base from
53. Statement-I : Glucose or galactose cannot act as the 5' end is replaced by G?
inducers for lac operon.
Statement-2 : Lac operon is under the control of both (A) One
positive regulation as well as negative regulation. (B) Two
(A) Both statements are true (C) Three
(B) Both statements are false (D) Four
(C) Only first statement is true
(D) Only second statement is true
61. A nucleosome is composed of 68. Precursor of mRNA and SnRNA respectively are
transcribed by
Positively charged DNA and negatively charged
(A)
histone octamer (A) RNA polymerase I and II
A negatively charged H1 histone and positively (B) RNA polymerase II and III
(B)
charged DNA molecule (C) RNA polymerase II and I
Negatively charged DNA and positively charged (D) RNA polymerase I and III
(C)
histone octamer
69. By performing a series of experiments that showed the
Negatively charged lysines and positively charged
(D) effect of R and S strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae on
arginine amino acids
mice, Griffith concluded that
62. Find the incorrect match. Protein digesting enzyme does not affect
(A)
(A) Capping - Addition of unusual nucleotide at 5’ end transformation

(B) Tailing - Adenylate residues are added at 3’ end (B) DNA is more stable genetic material than RNA

(C) Splicing - Represents dominance of RNA World (C) DNA can be sysnthesised from RNA

Mature mRNA - Exons are removed and Introns are Non-virulent bacteria were transformed by heat killed
(D) (D)
joined virulent bacteria

63. RNA polymerase I transcribes all, except 70. In a double stranded DNA, which of the given base ratios
is not necessarily to be constant and equals one?
(A) 28 S rRNA
(A) G

(B) 5 S rRNA C

(C) 5.8 S rRNA (B) A

(D) 18 S rRNA
(C) G+T

A+C

64. A nucleotide lacks

(A) Sugar (D) G+C

A+T

(B) Phosphodiester linkage 71. Select the incorrect statement about RNA polymerase.
(C) Nitrogenous base It binds to a particular/specific DNA segment to start
(A)
(D) Phosphate transcription
There is only single type of RNA polymerase in
65. Arrange the following events in the order of synthesis of a (B)
bacteria
protein.
(A) Formation of peptide bond (C) It polymerises RNA in template dependent fashion
(B) tRNA matches its anticodon to the codon in the A-site
(C) The movement of second tRNA complex from A-Site It continues elongation of RNA when opening of DNA
(D)
to P-site helix is done by helicase
(D) Attachment of large subunit to small subunit (of 72. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase provided the
ribosome) and the initiator tRNA comes at the P-site unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material. They
(A) (D), (B), (C), (A) worked with

(B) (B), (A), (C), (D) (A) Bacterium responsible for pneumonia

(C) (D), (C), (B), (A) (B) Viruses that infect bacteria

(D) (D), (B), (A), (C) (C) Vicia faba

66. During processing of hnRNA, capping is catalysed by (D) Salmonella typhi

which of the following enzymes? 73. Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod and Maclyn McCarty found
(A) Poly A polymerase that transformation of R strain bacteria is affected by

(B) Reverse transcriptase (A) Protease

(C) Guanylyl Transferase (B) RNase

(D) RNA polymerase-II (C) DNase

67. Read the following statements and select the set of (D) Lipase
correct ones w.r.t. genetic code. 74. Which of the following is a ribozyme?
(i) AUG and UGG are non-degenerate codon
(ii) UAA and UGA are initiation codon (A) 23S rRNA
(iii) AUG has dual functions
(B) 18S rRNA
(iv) Codons are unexceptionally universal.
(C) 5S rRNA
(A) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(D) 16S rRNA
(B) Only (i) & (iii)
(C) Only (ii) & (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) & (iv)
75. Which of the following ratio is generally constant for a 81. Which of the following is not a part of transcription unit in
given species? DNA?
(A) A + G/C + T (A) Promoter
(B) A + C/T + G (B) Terminator
(C) G + C/A + T (C) Repressor
(D) T + C/G + A (D) Structural gene
76. The process of translation of mRNA to protein begins 82. RNA and DNA both can function as genetic material but
when DNA is preferred over RNA because
(A) tRNA remains uncharged 2' – OH group in DNA is a reactive group and makes
(A)
DNA labile
(B) Amino acids are not activated
(B) DNA is less reactive and more stable than RNA
(C) Small subunit of ribosome encounters an mRNA
(C) RNA mutates at a slower rate
(D) Peptide bond is formed between two amino acids
(D) DNA directly codes for synthesis of proteins
77. Read the following statements and choose the option
which includes correct ones. 83. What will happen if the DNA isolated from virulent
A. In eukaryotes, DNA is found in nucleus, chloroplast bacteria is kept in a test tube where non-virulent bacteria
and mitochondria. are growing?
B. The backbone in a polynucleotide chain is formed due
to sugar and phosphates. (A) Isolated DNA will be replaced by RNA
C. Cytosine and thymine are common in both DNA and Isolated DNA will be rapidly degraded into
RNA. (B)
nucleotides
D. Lambda phage has double stranded circular DNA as
its genetic material. Isolated DNA will form separate chromosome in non-
(C)
virulent form
(A) A and B
There may be incorporation of DNA in genome of
(B) B and C (D)
non-virulent bacteria
(C) C and D 84. Select the true feature regarding UTRs
(D) D and A (A) Found at 5′ end only
78. Which of the following statements are correct w.r.t. the (B) Present at 3′ end after stop codon
transformation experiment?
a. It was performed using Pneumococcus bacteria. (C) Decreases efficiency of translation
b. DNase inhibits transformation. (D) Found in both the strands of DNA
c. The experiment concluded that RNA is the hereditary
material. 85. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase II synthesises
d. Prior to the work of Avery, MacLeod and Mc Carty, the
genetic material was thought to be DNA. (A) 28 S rRNA

(A) a and b (B) hn rRNA

(B) c and d (C) t-RNA

(C) a and c (D) snRNA

(D) b and d 86. If a bacterium with hybrid DNA (N15N14) is allowed to

replicate for two generations in the medium containing
79. Examine the figure given below and select the correct
match N14 then what is the proportion of light, heavy and hybrid
DNA obtained respectively?
(A) Light = 75%, Heavy = 0%, Hybrid = 25%
(B) Light = 25%, Heavy = 50%, Hybrid = 25%
(A) 'i' – Constitutive expression (C) Light = 50%, Heavy = 25%, Hybrid = 25%
(B) 'z' - Produce β-galactoside (D) Light = 0%, Heavy = 25%, Hybrid = 75%
(C) 'a' - For permease synthesis 87. In E. coli which of the following occurs when glucose is
(D) 'o' – Initial binding site for RNA polymerase low and lactose is abundant?

80. If the sequence of the coding strand of the DNA in the (A) Transport of lactose into the cell is enhanced
structural gene of a transcription unit is 5'- (B) Repressor binds to operator region
AGGCCCTACCCG-3', then what will be the sequence of
the mRNA transcribed? Beta-galactosidase breaks galactose into lactose and
(C)
glucose
(A) 5' AGGCCCUACCCG 3'
(D) RNA polymerase binds to operator
(B) 5' UCCGGGAUGGGC 3'
(C) 3' UCCGGGAUGGGC 5'
(D) 3' AGGCCCUACCCG 5'
88. An experiment was carried out in which a hybrid DNA 90. The debate between proteins versus DNA as the genetic
was allowed to replicate for one generation in medium material was finally resolved from the experiment of
containing 15NH4Cl and for second generation in (A) Frederick Griffith
medium containing 14NH4Cl (B) Hershey and Chase
Which of the given conclusions can be drawn based on
above stated experiment? (C) Watson and Crick
(A) Percentage of hybrid DNA obtained in both the (D) Meselson and Stahl
generations are equal
(B) 50% of heavy DNA are obtained in first Generation. 91. A : The hallmark of double stranded helical structure of
(C) 25% of light DNA are obtained in second Generation DNA is the hydrogen bonding between the bases from
(D) 25 % of heavy DNA are obtained in second opposite strands.
generation R : However RNA is the first to evolve and DNA was
derived from RNA.
(A) A & B
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(B) B & C (A)
the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) C & D
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B)
(D) A & D not the correct explanation of the assertion

89. mRNA with which of the following anticodon is not found? (C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
92. A : DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses
polymerization only in one direction that is 5' – 3'.
R : On template with polarity 3' – 5' replication is
discontinuous while on the template with polarity 5' – 3'
(A) replication is continuous.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
93. A : RNA was the first genetic material.
R: Essential life processes such as metabolism,
translation, splicing etc. evolve around RNA.
(B)
Both assertion and Reason are true but the reason is
(A)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(B) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(C) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
Both Assertion and Reason are true statements and
(D)
reason is the correct explanation of assertion

94. A : Kornberg enzyme removes RNA primer during DNA

replication.
R : DNA polymerase I has only 5' → 3' exonuclease
activity.
(C)
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
95. A : In bacteria, the transcribed mRNA is functional, hence
can directly be translated.
R : In eukaryotes, split genes are present.
(D) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A)
the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
96. A : The DNA replicates semiconservatively, the process is 99. A : Inheritance of a character is not affected by promoter
guided by the complementary H-bonding. and regulatory sequences of a structural gene in anyway.
R : RNA is the first to evolve and DNA was derived from R : The structural gene in a transcription unit is
RNA. monocistronic, mostly in bacteria or prokaryotes.
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is
(A) (A)
the correct explanation of the assertion the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is
(B) (B)
not the correct explanation of the assertion not the correct explanation of the assertion
(C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false (C) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements (D) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
97. Find the incorrect statement. 100.
(A) DNA polymorphism arises due to mutations
The sensitivity of the DNA fingerprinting technique
(B) Number of peptide bonds in the polypeptide translated by
has increased by the use of PCR
the mRNA depicted above is
DNA polymorphisms are not inheritable from parents
(C) (A) Four
to offsprings
Satellite DNA sequences that show very high degree (B) Three
(D)
of polymorphism is called VNTR (C) Five
98. The transfer RNA (t-RNA) is also called as soluble RNA (D) Six
(sRNA) due to its solubility in :
(A) Water
(B) 1 M NaCl solution
(C) 1N NaCl solution
(D) 1 M HCl solution