BIO 102 TUTORIALS QUESTIONS ANSWERS

1. The protein coat in viruses is called

A. capsule
B. cascade
C. capsid
D. corpuscle
Answer: C. capsid

2. They are tiny infectious agents that replicate inside the cells of organisms. This is a description
of
A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
C. Fungi
D. Pathogens
Answer: B. Viruses

3. Which of the organisms below may have the size of 200 -- 400 nm?
A. Retrovirus
B. Salmonella
C. Mushroom
D. Aspergillus
Answer: A. Retrovirus

4. One of the following doesn't have cellular structures

A. Poxvirus
B. Bacilli
C. Cocci
D. Staphylococcus
Answer: A. Poxvirus

5. One of these may hijack the host cell's machinery to produce more
A. HIV
B. Bacteria
C. Fungi
D. None of the above
Answer: A. HIV

6. Which of the following is the smallest in size?

A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
C. Fungi
D. Bryophyte
Answer: B. Viruses

7. One of the following can infect bacteria

A. Viruses
B. Smaller bacteria
C. Smaller rounded bacteria
D. Fungi
Answer: A. Viruses

8. One of the following does not possess metabolic processes

A. Thermus
B. Herpervirus
C. Bacilli
D. Fungi
Answer: B. Herpervirus

9. Which of the following have DNA as their genetic material?

A. Pathogenic viruses
B. influenza
C. Poxviruses
D. Potent viruses
Answer: C. Poxviruses

10. Which of the following have RNA as their genetic material?

A. Pathogenic viruses
B. influenza
C. Herpesviruses
D. Potent viruses
Answer: B. influenza

11. The group of viruses that can convert RNA into DNA during replication are called
A. Retroviruses
B. DNA viruses
C. RNA viruses
D. Viruses with reverse transcription
Answer: A. Retroviruses

12. One of the following is a DNA virus

A. Herpesviruses
B. Influenza
C. HIV
D. None of the above
Answer: A. Herpesviruses

13. Which of the viruses is airborne?

A. Influenza
B. HIV
C. Norovirus
D. Zika
Answer: A. Influenza

14. Which of the viruses is vector borne?

A. Influenza
B. Zika
C. Norovirus
D. Rotavirus
Answer: B. Zika

15. One of the following viruses can be transmitted through fecal-oral route
A. Rotavirus
B. Norovirus
C. Zika
D. HIV
Answer: B. Norovirus

16. One of the viruses below is bloodborne

A. Rotavirus
B. Zika
C. HIV
D. Norovirus
Answer: C. HIV

17. A very brilliant student shook hand with her colleague and contracted a virus, which of the
following viruses is most likely that was transmitted?
A. Norovirus
B. Zika
C. Rotavirus
D. HIV
Answer: A. Norovirus

18. One of the following may not be considered as impact of viruses

A. Pathogenicity
B. Triggering immune response
C. Stinging host cells
D. Modifying host cells
Answer: C. Stinging host cells

19. Which of the statements is not true of viruses

A. Evade immune system
B. Wide host range
C. Very narrow transmission strategies
D. Have replication strategies
Answer: C. Very narrow transmission strategies

20. Viruses can carry out horizontal gene transfer. This means that they can __________
A. infect other organisms
B. transfer gene to themselves
C. Transfer gene to their offspring
D. Transfer gene to other hosts
Answer: D. Transfer gene to other hosts

21. Viruses can evade immune response by one of the following methods
A. Antibody reaction
B. Antibody variation
C. Antigenic variation
D. Antigenic polymerization
Answer: C. Antigenic variation

22. Viruses can evade immune response by one of the following methods
A. Immune mobilization
B. Immune distribution
C. Immune suppression
D. Immune distabilization
Answer: C. Immune suppression

23. One of the following is not true of viruses

A. They can remain dormant for long period of time
B. They lack the ability to rapidly evolve
C. They can form symbiotic relationships
D. They are able to manipulate host genetics
Answer: B. They lack the ability to rapidly evolve

24. Bacteria are

A. Prokaryotic
B. tiny double-celled microorganisms
C. Multicellular microorganisms
D. green in colour
Answer: A. Prokaryotic

25. Bacteria
A. lack true nucleus
B. are slightly smaller than virus
C. lack cells
D. lack cell wall
Answer: A. lack true nucleus

26. Which of the following is true of bacteria?

A. They are the most abundant animals on earth
B. They are the most abundant organisms on earth
C. They are the most abundant plants on the earth
D. None of the above
Answer: B. They are the most abundant organisms on earth

27. One of the following is appropriate describing bacteria

A. They have membrane bound organelles
B. Their membrane bound organelles are very tiny
C. They lack membrane bound organelles
D. Their membranes lack true structures
Answer: C. They lack membrane bound organelles

28. Some bacteria can form

A. lichen
B. Biofilms
C. Mycorrhizae
D. None of the above
Answer: B. Biofilms

29. Bacteria have been directly or indirectly used in

A. Bioremediation
B. vitamins production
C. Immune boosting
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above

30. Peptidoglycan can be synonymous to

A. Murein
B. Bacilli
C. Spirilla
D. Vibrio
Answer: A. Murein

31. Both Gram-negative and Gram-positive bacteria have cell wall made up of
A. Peptidoglycan
B. Lipopolysaccharides
C. Polysaccharide
D. Lipoproteins
Answer: A. Peptidoglycan

32. Regarding various shapes of bacteria, one of the following is odd

A. Vibrio
B. Spirilla
C. Coccus
D. Bivalve
Answer: D. Bivalve

33. One of the following is an example of rod shaped bacteria

A. Escherichia coli
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Vibrio cholerae
D. Helicobacter pylori
Answer: A. Escherichia coli

34. A spherical shaped bacteria can be exemplified by

A. Helicobacter pylori
B. Vibrio cholerae
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Escherichia coli
Answer: C. Staphylococcus aureus

35. A young girl was diseased with a bacterial pathogen and when the pathogen was viewed
under the microscope it was seen to have a comma shape. Which of the following is the likely
pathogen?
A. Escherichia coli
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Helicobacter pylori
D. Vibrio cholerae
Answer: D. Vibrio cholerae

36. Gram-positive bacteria

A. Are more pathogenic
B. Are less pathogenic
C. Retain crystal violet dye
D. Do not retain crystal violet dye
Answer: C. Retain crystal violet dye

37. One of the following is an example of a gram-negative bacteria

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Bacillus subtilis
D. None of the above
Answer: B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

38. Aerobic bacteria

A. Are oxygen avoiding
B. Are oxygen loving
C. don't infect humans
D. don't exist in nature
Answer: B. Are oxygen loving

39. One of the following is an example of anaerobic bacteria

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Clostridium difficile
C. E. coli
D. None of the above
Answer: B. Clostridium difficile

40. One of the following can fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil
A. Rhizobium leguminosarum
B. Thiobacillus ferrooxidans
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Pseudomonas putida
Answer: A. Rhizobium leguminosarum

41. One the following is not autotrophic

A. Nitrosomonas europaea
B. Rhodopseudomonas palustris
C. Synechocystis
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Answer: D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

42. Non-motile bacteria can be exemplified by one of these

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. E. coli
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. None of the above
Answer: A. Staphylococcus aureus

43. Thermus aquaticus

A. grows best at moderate temperature
B. grows best at very high temperature
C. grows best at very low temperatures
D. does not grow at all
Answer: B. grows best at very high temperature

44. Pyrococcus furiosus

A. grows best at moderate temperature
B. grows best at very high temperature
C. grows best at very low temperatures
D. does not grow at all
Answer: B. grows best at very high temperature

45. Psychrobacter arcticus

A. grows best at moderate temperature
B. grows best at very high temperature
C. grows best at very low temperatures
D. does not grow at all
Answer: C. grows best at very low temperatures

46. Pick the odd option below with regards to growth and reproduction in bacteria
A. budding
B. sporulation
C. spore formation
D. binary fission
Answer: A. budding

47. Which of the following bacteria is useful for gut health?

A. Pseudomonas
B. Lactobacillus
C. Frankia
D. Rhizobia
Answer: B. Lactobacillus

48. In the production of yoghurt, one of the following bacteria is very necessary
A. Lactococcus lactis
B. Streptomyces coelicolor
C. Pseudomonas putida
D. Bacillus subtilis
Answer: A. Lactococcus lactis

49. One of the following can be used to produce antibiotics

A. Streptomyces coelicolor
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Rhizobia
D. Frankia
Answer: A. Streptomyces coelicolor

50. One of the following is a pathogenic bacteria

A. Streptococcus pneumonia
B. Lactococcus lactis
C. Frankia
D. Rhizobia
Answer: A. Streptococcus pneumonia

51. A group of organisms obtain their nutrients by decomposing organic matter. This is a
description of _______
A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
C. Bryophytes
D. Fungi
Answer: D. Fungi

52. The bodies of _______________consists of network of branched filaments called hyphae

A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
C. Bryophytes
D. Fungi
Answer: D. Fungi

53. When masses of hyphae come together, they form

A. Branched filaments
B. Mycelium
C. Double hyphae
D. Tangled masses
Answer: B. Mycelium

54. One of the following is unicellular

A. Molds
B. Mushroom
C. Yeast
D. Fungi
Answer: C. Yeast

55. Which of the following is an example of mold?

A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
B. Aspergillus
C. Amanita
D. None of the above
Answer: B. Aspergillus

56. When fungi form symbiotic relationship with plant roots, it is termed
A. mycorrhizae
B. lichens
C. mycobiont
D. phycobiont
Answer: A. mycorrhizae

57. When fungi form symbiotic relationship with algae, it is termed

A. mycorrhizae
B. lichens
C. mycobiont
D. phycobiont
Answer: B. lichens

58. A synonym of Basidiomycetes is

A. Fungi imperfecti
B. Sac fungi
C. Club fungi
D. Zygote forming fungi
Answer: C. Club fungi

59. A synonym of Deuteromycetes is

A. Fungi imperfecti
B. Sac fungi
C. Club fungi
D. Zygote forming fungi
Answer: A. Fungi imperfecti

60. The Ascomycetes are the

A. Fungi imperfecti
B. Sac fungi
C. Club fungi
D. Zygote forming fungi
Answer: B. Sac fungi

61. They produce sexual spores termed basidiospores. This referes to:
A. Fungi imperfecti
B. Sac fungi
C. Club fungi
D. Zygote forming fungi
Answer: C. Club fungi

62. ___________ are generally regarded as the liverworts

A. Fungi
B. Bryophytes
C. Pteridophytes
D. Bacteria
Answer: B. Bryophytes

63. Which organisms are regarded as the amphibians of the plant kingdom?
A. Fungi
B. Bryophytes
C. Pteridophytes
D. Gymnosperms
Answer: B. Bryophytes

64. The name of the plant body of bryophytes is termed?

A. Thermus
B. Thallus
C. Thalkus
D. None of the above
Answer: B. Thallus

65. What do bryophytes use to attach to the substratum?

A. Prostrate shape
B. Rhizobium
C. Rhizoid
D. Stalk
Answer: C. Rhizoid

66. With respect to the thalloid gametophyte of bryophytes, pick the odd option below
A. Rhizoids
B. Axis
C. Stem
D. Leaves
Answer: B. Axis

67. What is the dominant part of the plant body of bryophytes?

A. Gametophyte
B. Sporophyte
C. Gametophyte and Sporophyte
D. None
Answer: A. Gametophyte

68. The antheridium produces antherozoids, which are ____________

A. biforked
B. biflagellated
C. biforcal
D. bilateral
Answer: B. biflagellated

69. The antherozoids in bryophytes fuse with egg to form a __________

A. baby
B. gametophyte
C. zygote
D. haploid cell
Answer: C. zygote

70. In bryophytes, cells of sporophyte undergo meiosis to form ____________

A. zygote
B. a generation
C. diploid cells
D. haploid gametes
Answer: D. haploid gametes

71. The juvenile gametophyte of bryophyte is known as ____________

A. protonema
B. proton
C. baby bryophyte
D. fragment
Answer: A. protonema

72. When the sporophyte of bryophyte is differentiated, pick the odd option below
A. foot
B. axis
C. seta
D. capsule
Answer: B. axis

73. Bryopsida can be exemplified by all the following except

A. Funaria
B. Polytrichum
C. Riccia
D. Sphagnum
Answer: C. Riccia

74. Anthocerotopsida can be exemplified by all the following except

A. Anthoceros
B. Megaceros
C. Notothylas
D. Marchantia
Answer: D. Marchantia

75. ____________ and lichens are the first organisms to colonise rocks
A. Funaria
B. Anthoceros
C. Megaceros
D. Marchantia
Answer: D. Marchantia

76. One of the following organisms can serve as a rock builder

A. Bacillus sp.
B. Pseudomonas sp.
C. Bryum sp.
D. Saccharomyces sp.
Answer: C. Bryum sp.

77. One of the following has been used to cure pulmonary tuberculosis
A. Anthoceros
B. Megaceros
C. Saccharomyces
D. Marchantia
Answer: D. Marchantia

78. Which of the following is known as peat moss?

A. Sphagnum
B. Marchantia
C. Anthoceros
D. None of the above
Answer: A. Sphagnum

79. What is the name of leaves of pteridophytes?

A. Fonds
B. Fronds
C. Leaflets
D. Green leaves
Answer: B. Fronds

80. One of the following is odd when looking at the pteridopytes

A. cryptogams
B. vascular
C. aquatic
D. seedless
Answer: C. aquatic

81. One of the differences between the phloem of pteridophytes and that of the angiosperms is
the lack of ____________________
A. Cells
B. Vessels
C. Tissue cells
D. Companion cells
Answer: D. Companion cells

82. One of the differences between the xylem of pteridophytes and that of the angiosperms is the
lack of ____________________
A. Cells
B. Vessels
C. Tissue cells
D. Companion cells
Answer: B. Vessels

83. ___________is the structures in which spores are formed in pteridophytes

A. Antheridium
B. sporophylls
C. sporangium
D. Archegonium
Answer: C. sporangium

84. The term dioecious may mean that

A. female sex structure matures first
B. both sexes are mature at the same time
C. both sexes are borne on the same individual
D. both sexes are borne on separate individual
Answer: D. both sexes are borne on separate individual

85. The term monoecious may mean that

A. female sex structure matures first
B. both sexes are mature at the same time
C. both sexes are borne on the same individual
D. both sexes are borne on separate individual
Answer: C. both sexes are borne on the same individual

86. The term protandry may mean that

A. female sex structure matures first
B. male sex structure matures first
C. both sexes are borne on the same individual
D. both sexes are borne on separate individual
Answer: B. male sex structure matures first

87. The term protogyny may mean that

A. female sex structure matures first
B. male sex structure matures first
C. both sexes are borne on the same individual
D. both sexes are borne on separate individual
Answer: A. female sex structure matures first

88. One of the following is an example of Psilopsida

A. Tmesipteris
B. Selaginella
C. Equisetum
D. Adiantum
Answer: A. Tmesipteris

89. One of the following is an example of Lycopsida

A. Tmesipteris
B. Selaginella
C. Equisetum
D. Adiantum
Answer: B. Selaginella

90. One of the following is an example of Sphenopsida

A. Tmesipteris
B. Selaginella
C. Equisetum
D. Adiantum
Answer: C. Equisetum

91. One of the following is an example of Pteropsida

A. Tmesipteris
B. Selaginella
C. Equisetum
D. Adiantum
Answer: D. Adiantum

92. Considering the examples of Pteropsida, one of the following options is odd
A. Equisetum
B. Adiantum
C. Dryopteris
D. Pteris
Answer: A. Equisetum

93. They may be described as having 'naked seed'. Which of the following is best described?
A. Angiosperms
B. Gymnosperms
C. Pteridophytes
D. Bryophytes
Answer: B. Gymnosperms

94. All the following can reduce the rate of water loss in a plant except
A. needle-like leaves
B. thick cuticle
C. unbranched stem
D. sunken stomata
Answer: C. unbranched stem

95. Gymnosperms can be described by one of the following statements

A. They may bear cones
B. They may bear tiny flowers
C. They may bear seeds enclosed in fruits
D. The male gametophytes produce two functional gametes
Answer: A. They may bear cones

96. Gymnosperms may be

A. Annual
B. Biennial
C. Perennial
D. None of the above
Answer: C. Perennial

97. Gymnosperms can be pollinated by

A. Bees
B. Wind
C. Butterflies
D. Water
Answer: B. Wind

98. The phloem of gymnosperms lack one of the following

A. Vessels
B. Cells
C. Compact cells
D. Sieve tubes
Answer: D. Sieve tubes

99. One of the following is an example of Cycadophyta

A. Cycas
B. Ginkgo
C. Welwitschia
D. Cedrus
Answer: A. Cycas

100. One of the following is an example of Ginkophyta

A. Cycas
B. Ginkgo
C. Welwitschia
D. Cedrus
Answer: B. Ginkgo

101. One of the following is an example of Gnetophyta

A. Cycas
B. Ginkgo
C. Welwitschia
D. Cedrus
Answer: C. Welwitschia

102. One of the following is an example of Coniferophyta

A. Cycas
B. Ginkgo
C. Welwitschia
D. Cedrus
Answer: D. Cedrus

103. One of the options is correct when arranged in the order of decreasing complexity
A. Microsporophylls; microsporangia; haploid microspores; pollen grains
B. Microsporangia; microsporophylls; haploid microspores; pollen grains
C. Haploid microspores; microsporophylls; microsporangia; pollen grains
D. Pollen grains; microsporophylls; microsporangia; haploid microspores
Answer: A. Microsporophylls; microsporangia; haploid microspores; pollen grains

104. One of the options is correct when arranged in the order of increasing complexity
A. Megaspore mother cell; Megasporophylls; Megasporangium; Haploid megaspores
B. Megaspore mother cell; Haploid megaspores; Megasporangium; Megasporophylls
C. Haploid megaspores; Megasporophylls; Megasporangium; Megaspore mother cell
D. Megasporophylls; Megasporangium; Haploid megaspores; Megaspore mother cell
Answer: B. Megaspore mother cell; Haploid megaspores; Megasporangium; Megasporophylls

105. One of the following may be useful medicinally

A. Cycas
B. Ginkgo
C. Welwitschia
D. Cedrus
Answer: B. Ginkgo

106. One of the following is a seed-bearing plant

A. Bryophytes
B. Pteridophytes
C. Gymnosperms
D. Mosses
Answer: C. Gymnosperms

107. One of the options below produces flowers

A. Bryophytes
B. Pteridophytes
C. Angiosperms
D. Gymnosperms
Answer: C. Angiosperms

108. One of the following may bear seeds within a fruit

A. Bryophytes
B. Pteridophytes
C. Angiosperms
D. Gymnosperms
Answer: C. Angiosperms

109. One of the following typifies a genus of the smallest angiosperms

A. Cedrus
B. Eucalyptus
C. Ficus
D. Wolffian
Answer: D. Wolffian

110. One of the following typifies a genus of the tallest angiosperms

A. Cedrus
B. Eucalyptus
C. Ficus
D. Wolffian
Answer: B. Eucalyptus

111. One of the following typifies a genus of the Broadest angiosperms

A. Cedrus
B. Eucalyptus
C. Ficus
D. Wolffian
Answer: C. Ficus

112. Main plant body of angiosperms is diploid and sporophyte. Which is odd below?
A. Leaves
B. Stems
C. Flowers
D. Root
Answer: C. Flowers

113. The xylem of angiosperms have

A. Sieve tubes
B. Tracheids
C. Companion cells
D. All of the above
Answer: B. Tracheids

114. Which of the following may be synonymous to microsporophyll of angiosperms

A. Calyx
B. Carpels
C. Stamens
D. Petals
Answer: C. Stamens

115. Which of the following may be synonymous to megasporophyll of angiosperms

A. Calyx
B. Carpels
C. Stamens
D. Petals
Answer: B. Carpels

116. Each microsporophyll of angiosperms has

A. one microsporangium
B. two microsporangia
C. three microsporangia
D. four microsporangia
Answer: B. two microsporangia

117. In angiosperms, triple fusion takes place, which leads to the formation of
A. Triploid endosperm
B. Haploid zygote
C. Haploid endosperm
D. Triploid zygote
Answer: A. Triploid endosperm

118. The root system of angiosperms is very complex. Pick the odd option below
A. Epidermis
B. Cortex
C. Phloem
D. Vessels
Answer: D. Vessels

119. What is the function of the endosperms in angiosperms?

A. Makes the plant complete
B. Beautifies the plant
C. Provides nourishment
D. Provides warmth
Answer: C. Provides nourishment

120. One of the following is false regarding the root system of angiosperm
A. The roots have unicellular root hair
B. The root is positively geotropic
C. The root is positively phototropic
D. It is an underground part of the plant
Answer: C. The root is positively phototropic

121. Which of the following are the simplest multicellular organism?

A. Nematodes
B. Molluscs
C. Annelids
D. Sponges
Answer: D. Sponges

122. Their bodies are full of spores and canals. This is the description of ....
A. Corals
B. Sponges
C. Flatworms
D. Roundworms
Answer: B. Sponges

123. They are sessile means that they are...

A. Dead
B. Seasonal
C. Attached to surface
D. Actively moving
Answer: C. Attached to surface

124. Which of the following organisms feed by filtering tiny particles from the water?
A. Toads
B. Poriferans
C. Echinoderms
D. Insects
Answer: B. Poriferans

125. One of the following animals has two embryonic layers

A. Sponges
B. Echinoderms
C. Toads
D. Cnidarians
Answer: D. Cnidarians

126. Which of the following organisms has only endoderm and ectoderm?
A. Jelly fish
B. Tilapia fish
C. Mud fish
D. Lung fish
Answer: A. Jelly fish

127. Which of the following below has radial symmetry?

A. Corals
B. Bivalves
C. Aves
D. Nematodes
Answer: A. Corals

128. Specialized stinging cells are called

A. Stingocytes
B. Lymphocytes
C. Pinocytes
D. Cnidocytes
Answer: D. Cnidocytes

129. They are often colonial. This is a description of the phylum ---
A. Nematoda
B. Mollusca
C. Coelentrata
D. Arthropoda
Answer: C. Coelentrata

130. Gelatinous mesoglea layer is found between the ----

A. ectoderm and endoderm
B. ectoderm and mesoderm
C. mesoderm and endoderm
D. None of the above
Answer: A. ectoderm and endoderm

131. Possession of gelatinous mesoglea layer is a unique feature of ----

A. Poriferans
B. Cnidarians
C. Coelomates
D. Oligochaetes
Answer: B. Cnidarians

132. With respect to the characteristics of Platyhelminthes, one of the following is odd
A. Soft body
B. Absence of segments
C. Possession of coelom
D. Flattened body
Answer: C. Possession of coelom

133. Which of the following animals carry out gaseous exchange directly through body surface?
A. Fasciola
B. centipedes,
C. Agama
D. millipedes
Answer: A. Fasciola

134. Identify the odd option as regards the characteristics of nematodes

A. Bilateral symmetry
B. Cylindrical body
C. They are segmented
D. They have rounded body
Answer: C. They are segmented

135. Which of these organisms are pseudocoelomate?

A. Fasciola
B. Agama
C. Ascaris
D. Corals
Answer: C. Ascaris

136. Which of the phyla in the animal kingdom was first associated with metamerism?
A. Annelida
B. Nematoda
C. Porifera
D. Arthropoda
Answer: A. Annelida

137. One of these organisms have clitellum

A. Clams
B. Squids
C. Earthworm
D. Octopuses
Answer: C. Earthworm

138. They are specialized segment for reproduction. This is a description of ----
A. Appendages
B. Exoskeleton
C. Cuticle
D. Clitellum
Answer: D. Clitellum

139. Which of the following is synonymous to bristles?

A. Setae
B. Limbs
C. Cuticle
D. Blisters
Answer: A. Setae

140. In Phylum Mollusca, the layer of tissue that covers the body is called ----
A. Radula
B. Mantle
C. Cuticle
D. Shell
Answer: B. Mantle

141. In Phylum Mollusca, collection of internal organs is known as the ----

A. Body mass
B. Foot
C. Visceral mass
D. Mantle cavity
Answer: C. Visceral mass

142. Jointed appendages is a characteristics of the Phylum ----

A. Echinodermata
B. Nematoda
C. Porifera
D. Arthropoda
Answer: D. Arthropoda

143. A hard, external covering best describes ----

A. Limbs
B. Cuticle
C. Skin
D. Mantle
Answer: B. Cuticle

144. The Class Insecta belongs to which of the animal phyla?

A. Echinodermata
B. Nematoda
C. Arthropoda
D. Porifera
Answer: C. Arthropoda

145. Scorpions belong to which of the Taxonomic class?

A. Insecta
B. Crustacea
C. Arachnida
D. Myriapoda
Answer: C. Arachnida

146. Which of the following characteristics is odd when looking at the Class Insecta?
A. Have six legs
B. They have a pair of compound eyes
C. Their body is divided into three parts
D. They have no antennae
Answer: D. They have no antennae

147. Possession of a cephalothorax is associated with ----

A. Insecta
B. Crustacea
C. Arachnida
D. Myriapoda
Answer: B. Crustacea

148. Appendages that resemble small claws could best describe ----
A. Legs
B. Pedipalps
C. Bristles
D. Limbs
Answer: B. Pedipalps

149. Which of the following is odd if you are considering the parts of insects?
A. Head
B. Abdomen
C. Thorax
D. Cephalothorax
Answer: D. Cephalothorax

150. A hard, external covering in Crustaceans is called ----

A. Carapace
B. Exoskeleton
C. Cuticle
D. Mantle
Answer: A. Carapace
151. One of the following has at least 9 pairs of legs ----
A. Insects
B. Centipedes
C. Scorpions
D. Spiders
Answer: B. Centipedes

152. One of the following animals has radial symmetry

A. Sea urchins
B. Crabs
C. Shrimp
D. Lobsters
Answer: A. Sea urchins

153. Radial symmetry may be found in one of these

A. Lung Fishes
B. Star Fishes
C. Mud Fishes
D. Beetles
Answer: B. Star Fishes

154. --------- have spiny, calcium carbonate skeleton.

A. Arachnids
B. Insects
C. Millipedes
D. Echinoderms
Answer: D. Echinoderms

155. One of the following does not belong to the subphyla in the Phylum Chordata
A. Cyclostomata
B. Cephalochordata
C. Urochordata
D. Vertebrata
Answer: A. Cyclostomata
156. The agnathans are the -----
A. Jawed Fishes
B. Jawless Fishes
C. Sharks
D. Rays
Answer: B. Jawless Fishes

157. An example in the class Cyclostomata is ----

A. Lampreys
B. Sharks
C. Rays
D. Tilapia
Answer: A. Lampreys

158. An example in the Class Chondrichthyes is ----

A. Clarias
B. Hagfishes
C. Skates
D. Salamanders
Answer: C. Skates

159. The Class Amphibia has

A. Two-chambered heart
B. Three-chambered heart
C. Four-chambered heart
D. One-chambered heart
Answer: B. Three-chambered heart

160. One of these features is unique to reptiles

A. They have lungs
B. They have eyes
C. They have scales on their skin
D. They possess teeth
Answer: C. They have scales on their skin
161. One of these features is unique to the Class Aves
A. Possession of feathers
B. Possession of sensitive eyes
C. Possession of lungs
D. Possession of a four-chambered heart
Answer: A. Possession of feathers

162. One of the following has fur on their bodies

A. Agama
B. Birds
C. Hedgehog
D. Toad
Answer: C. Hedgehog

163. The possession of mammary glands is unique to the Class ----

A. Chordata
B. Vertebrata
C. Mammalia
D. Magnolia
Answer: C. Mammalia

164. One of the following is not classified as a tetrapod

A. Tilapia
B. Lizards
C. Turtles
D. Toads
Answer: A. Tilapia

165. Pick the odd option below

A. Frogs
B. Toads
C. Salamanders
D. Turtles
Answer: D. Turtles
166. One of the following is unique to birds
A. Possession of lungs
B. Possession of eyes
C. Possession of beak
D. Possession of four legs
Answer: C. Possession of beak

167. What does the term tetrapod mean?

A. Possession of legs
B. Possession of three legs
C. Possession of a pair of legs
D. Possession of four legs
Answer: D. Possession of four legs

168. One of the following is not a characteristic of rats

A. Possession of four legs
B. Possession of fur
C. Possession of a bill
D. Possession of ossicles
Answer: C. Possession of a bill

169. Birds and mammals have one of the following in common

A. Mammary glands
B. Four-chambered heart
C. Beak
D. Pneumatic bones
Answer: B. Four-chambered heart

170. On a general note, one of these may be common to reptiles and amphibians
A. Three-chambered heart
B. Scales on the body
C. Moist skin
D. Smooth skin
Answer: A. Three-chambered heart