1.
Cold like symptoms are caused by which bacteria
a. Pseudomonas b. E.coli c. Haemophilus influenza d. Haemophilus streptococcus
2. In Streptococcus fecalis, the conjugation takes place at
a. Pili b. Cell membrane c. Cell wall d. Flagella
3. The infected mad dogs may contain
a. Nergi bodies b. Niagri bodies c. Negri bodies d. Neisser bodies
4. What disease the Nesser will produce?
a. Mumps b. Rubella c. Polio d. Measles
5. Rancidity in spoiled foods is due to
a. Lipolytic organisms b. Proteolytic organisms c. Toxigenic microbes d. Saccharolytic microbes
6. The Baterium that is most commonly used in genetic engineering is
a. Escherichia b. Klebsiella c. Proteius d. Serratia CHAPTER 2 BACTERIA AND GRAM STAINING
7. The functions of plasmid are
a. DNA replication b. Protein synthesis c. Cell wall synthesis d. None of the above
8. Mycoplasmas are bacterial cells that
a. Fail to reproduce on artificial meida b. Have a rigid cell wall c. Are resistant to penicillin d.
Stain well with Gram’s stain
9. The etiologic agent of botulism is a
a. Neurotoxin b. Endotoxin c. Enterotoxin d. All of the above
10. The bacterial cells are at their metabolic peak during
a. Lag phase b. Log c. Stationary d. Decline
11. Protein particles which can infect are called
a. Virons b. Prions c. Nucleoida d. None of these
12. In most of purple bacteria, the light harvesting centers are
a. B 850 & Fe-S b. B 850 & B 875 c. B 845 & B 875 d. B 850 & B830
13. Endotoxin produced by gramnegative bacteria is present in
a. Peptidoglycan b. Lippolysacharide c. Theichoic acid d. Inner membrane
14. Which one of the following was Gram- negative, chemolithotrophic bacteria?
a. Siderococcus b. E.coli c. Spirellum d. Mycoplasms
15. The mode of reproduction which occurs in mycoplasma is
a. Budding b. Bursting c. Binary fission d. Binary fusion
16. Which one of the following is about Herpes viruses?
a. Icosahedral, with envelope, ds DNA b. Polyhedral with envelope, ds DNA c. RNA, helical with
envelope d. ds DNA, brick shape
17. Which one of the following produce typical fried egg appearance colonies on solid media?
a. Mycobacteria b. Mycoplasts c. Mycoplasms d. Bacteroides
18. An organism that is osmophilic and has a specific requirements for sodium chloride
resembles
a. Halophile b. Basophile c. Barophile d. Xerophile
19. A population of cells derived from a single cell are called
a. Monclonal cells b. Clones c. Protoplasts d. Sub culture
20. Hetrolactic acid bacteria produce
a. Lactic acid only b. Lactic acid + H2 O + CO2 c. Lactic acid + CO2 d. Lactic acid + alchohol + CO2
21. In which of the follwing microorganism, conjunction tube was not produced during
conjunction process?
a. Thiobaillus thiooxidence b. T. ferroxidance c. Tetrahymena thermophila d. Cryptaporiclium
22. Which of the following is most similar to Rickettsia and Chlamydia?
a. Bdellovibrio b. Clostridium c. Mycobacterium d. Mycoldaima
23. How would you distinguish pseudomonas species from E-cloi?
a. Gram staining b. Morphology c. Glucose fermentation Vs Respiration d. All of the above
24. Which of the following is pathogenic to humans?
a. Spirogyra b. Cephaleuros c. Prototheca d. Both b and c
25. Tumer inducing plasmids are extensively used in production of
a. Avirulent phases b. Single cell proteins c. Transgenic plants d. Nitrogen fixing bacteria
26. The viruses that live as parasites on bac- teria are
a. Fungi b. Commensels c. Bacteriophages d. None of these
27. The anthrax disease is most frequently infected from
a. Cattle b. Sheeps c. Rats d. Both a and b
28. The colonies produced by Pseudomonas on Mac Conkey’s medium are
a. Purple colored b. Pink colored c. Pale colored d. Green colored
29. Staining material of gram positive bacterium is
a. Fast green b. Haematoxylon c. Crystal violet d. Safranin
30. The pigment present in red algae is
a. Rhodochrome b. Fucoxanthin c. Chlorophyll only d. Chlorophyll + phycobilin
31. During mitosis, synapsis occurs in the phase called
a. Telophase b. Anaphase c. Prophase d. None of the above
32. Which of the following change is a transition?
a. ATGC’!ATCC b. ATGC’!ATGG c. ATGC’!AGGC d. None of these
33. Citrus canker is caused by
a. Phytomonas b. Salmonella c. Lactobacillus d. Hay bacillus
34. Bacteria that are responsible for fermentation of dairy milk are
a. Azetobacter b. Rhizobium c. Lactobacillus d. Hay bacillus
35. The fungal disease that affect the internal organs and spread through the body are called
a. Mycoses b. Systemic mycoses c. Mycotoxicosis d. Superficial mycoses
36. The staining technique used to stain the metachromatic granules of Corynebacte- rium
a. Giemsa stain b. Alberts stain c. Acid fast staining d. Both a and b
37. The orderly increase in all components of protoplasm of a cell is called
a. Reproduction b. Cell division c. Growth d. All of the above
38. The causative organism of cholera, i.e., Vibrio show the movement called
a. Gliding movement b. Darting movement c. Pseudopoidal movement d. None of these
39. Erythrocytes will get its ATP energy only by
a. Glycolysis b. Kreb’s cycle c. Electron Transport d. HMP shunt
40. Virus will contain
a. Cell membrane b. Cell wall c. DNA d. DNA or RNA
41. The bacterial pili mainly contain
a. Carbohydrates b. Lipids c. Proteins d. Minerals
42. The wonder drug of second world war is produced by
a. Algae b. Fungi c. Bacteria d. Plants
43. Role of bacteria in carbon cycle is
a. Photosynthesis b. Chemosynthesis c. Breakdown of organic compounds d. Assimilation of
nitrogen compounds
44. Centromere is that part of chromosome where
a. Nucleoli are formed b. Crossing over takes places c. Chromatids are attached d. Naking occurs
45. Somatic cell of the adult body are haploid in many except
a. Vertebrates b. Invertebrates c. Fungi d. Vascular plants
46. Congential diseases are
a. Diseases present at birth b. Deficiency disease c. Occur during life d. Spread from one
individual to another
47. The enzyme needed in biological systems for joining two molecules is called
a. Lyases b. Diastases c. Polymerases d. Hydrolase
48. Meosomes are the part of
a. Plasma membrane b. ER c. Lysosomes d. Golgi
49. All prokaryotes are surrounded by a cell wall except
a. Mycoplasms b. Sperochetes c. Actinomycetes d. Methanogena
50. Enzyme hydrolyzing bacterial cell wall
a. Lysozome b. Reductase c. Protease d. Lysozyme
51. Cows can digest straw because they contain
a. Cellulose hydrolyzing microorganisms b. Protein hydrolyzing bacteria c. Lipid hydrolyzing
microorganisms d. Amino acid degrading bacteria
52. The nucleus controls protein synthesis in the cytoplasm by sending
a. Chromatin b. A DNA template c. m RNA molecule d. A pecialized protein
53. The site of energy production in a cell
a. Micro body b. Chromosome c. Ribosome d. Mitochondria
54. Thylakoid is present in
a. Mitochondria b. Chloroplast c. ER d. Golgi apparatus
55. Which one of the following bacteria has found extensive use in genetic engineering work in
plants?
a. Clostridum septicum b. Xanthomonas oriza c. Bacillus coagulens d. Agrobacterium
tumefaciens
56. Maximum application of animal cell culture technology today is in the production of
a. Insulin b. Interferons c. Vaccines d. Edible proteins
57. Bacterial ribosomes are composed of
a. Protein and DNA b. Protein and mRNA c. Protein and rRNA d. Protein and tRNA
58. The potorespiration involves
a. Calvin cycle b. Hatch-Slack cycle c. Glycolate cycle d. Kreb’s cycle
59. Bioleaching is done by
a. Protozoa b. Bacteria c. Algae d. All of the above
60. Inclusion bodies diagnostic of rabies are called
a. Elementary bodies b. Pascheur bodies c. Negri bodies d. Guarnieri bodies
61. Which of the following genera is most likely to contain organisms capable of surviving high
temperature?
a. Vibrio b. Pseudomonas c. Torula d. Coxiella
62. The major role of minor elements inside living organisms is to act as
a. Co-factors of enzymes b. Building blocks of important amino acids c. Constituents of
hormones d. Binder of cell structure
63. The apparatus used to maintain a continuous culture
a. Chemostat b. Autostat c. Thermostat d. Both a and c
64. The test used to detect the deamination of the amino acids by bacteria
a. Nessler’s reagent test b. Proteolytic test c. Lactose test d. Rose aindole reagent test
65. Diphtheria is caused by
a. Corynebacterium b. Staphylococcus c. Streptococcus d. None of these
66. Koplic spots observed in the mucous membrane is characteristic feature of the disease
a. Rubella b. Measles c. Mumps d. Influenza
67. A bacterium containing prophage is called as
a. Lytic b. Lysogen c. Lytogen d. None of these
68. The most infectious food borne disease is
a. Tetanus b. Dysentery c. Gas gangrene d. Botulism
69. An example for common air borne epidemic disease
a. Influenza b. Typhoid c. Encephalitis d. Malaria
70. Vrial genome can become integrated into the bacterial genomes are known as
a. Prophage b. Temperatephage c. Bacteriophage d. Metaphage
71. Rancidity of stored foods is due to the activity of
a. Toxigenic microbes b. Proteolytic microbes c. Saccharolytic microbes d. Lipolytic microbes
72. Virion means
a. Infectious virus particles b. Non-infectious particles c. Incomplete particles d. Defective virus
particles
73. Virulence of the microorganisms can be reduced by
a. Attenuation b. A virulence c. Inactivation d. Freezing
74. The test used for detection of typhoid fever
a. WIDAL test b. ELISA c. Rosewaller test d. Westernblotting
75. Bacteriophage capable of only lytic growth is called
a. Temperate b. Avirulent c. Virulent d. None of these
76. Diphtheria bacillus is otherwise known as
a. Fried-Landers bacillus b. Kleb’s hofflers bacillus c. Frchs bacillus d. Koch’s bacillus
77. Acridine dyes are more effective against
a. Gram positive b. Gram negative c. Ricke Hsia d. Mycoplasma
78. In bacteria pigment bearing structures are
a. Chloroplast b. Protoplast c. Sphaeroplast d. Chromatophores
79. The procedure of differential staining of bacteria was developed by
a. A.H. Gram b. H.C. Gram c. N.C. Gram d. H.A. Gram
80. Intermediate group of pathogen between bacteria and viruses which are intracellular
parasites are called
a. Mucoplasmas b. Rickettsias c. Prions d. Virusoides
81. Bacillus is an example of
a. Gram positive bacteria b. Gram negative bacteria c. Virus d. Viroid
82. Amoebic dysentery in humans is caused by
a. Plasmodium b. Paramecium c. Yeast d. Entamoeba histolytica
83. Viral genome that can become integrated into bacterial genome is called
a. Prophage b. Temperate phage c. Bacteriophage d. Metaphage
84. Cytochromes are
a. Oxygen acceptors b. ATP acceptors c. Electron acceptors d. Protein acceptors
85. The cells having F plasmid in the chromosomes were termed as
a. Hfr b. F– c. Hbr d. C +
86. Recombination process occurring through the mediation of phages is
a. Conjunction b. Transduction c. Transformation d. Transfection
87. Mordant used in grams staining is
a. Crystal violet b. Iodine c. Saffranin d. All of these
88. Parasitic form must contain
a. Capsule b. Cell-wall c. Endospores d. Flagella
89. Gram staining is an example for
a. Simple staining b. Differential staining c. Negative staining d. None of these
90. Following Cocci are non-motile except
a. Staphylococcus b. Meningococcus c. Gonococcus d. Rhodococcus agilis
91. Aspergillus fumigatus can infect
a. Birds b. Animals c. Man d. All of them
92. Enterotoxin responsible for food poisoning is secreted by
a. Enterococci b. Entamoeba histolytica c. Enterobacteriaceae d. Straphylococci
93. Autolysis is done by
a. Mitochondria b. Lysosomes c. Golgi bodies d. Peroxisomes
94. A facultative anaerobic is
a. Only grow anaerobically b. Only grow in the presence of O2 c. Ordinarily an anaerobe but can
grow with O2 d. Ordinarily an aerobe but can grow in absence of O2
95. The percentage of O2 required by moderate anaerobe is
a. 0% b. 0.5% c. 2 – 8% d. 5 – 10%
96. Interferon is formed by
a. Lymphocytes b. Lymphoblasts c. Fibroblasts d. All of these
97. Pigment bearing structure of bacteria are
a. Mesosomes b. Plasmids c. Mitochondria d. Chromophores
98. Spirochete is
a. Gonococci b. Strphylococci c. Treponema pallidum d. Streptococci
99. Histones are found in
a. Prokaryotes b. Eukaryotes c. Viruses d. None of these
100. Cell wall of gram negative bacteria is
a. Thick b. Lipids are present c. Teichoic acids are absent d. None of these
101. Cytoplasmic streaming is present in
a. Prokaryotes b. Animals c. Eukaryotes d. Both a and b 102. The motile bacteria is a. S. typhi b.
K. pneumoniae c. B. anthracis d. Shigella
103. The stain used to demonstrate fungus
a. Albert b. Nigerosin c. Lactophenol cotton blue d. None of these
104. Exotoxina are
a. Heat labile b. Heat stable c. Part of cell wall d. Polymerized complexes
105. The viruses that attack bacteria are
a. Bacterial viruses b. Bacterial pathogens c. Bacteriophages d. Various
106. The size of virus particle may range
a. 0.02–0.2 ìm b. 0.5–10 ìm c. 0.015–0.2 ìm d. 0.1–100 ìm
107. The bacterial cell multiplication is usually by
a. Mitosis b. Meiosis c. Conjugation d. Binary-fission
108. Rod shaped bacteria are known as
a. Cocci b. Comma forms c. Bacilli d. Plemorphic froms 109. All the groups of bacteria have cell
wall a. Mycobacteria b. Mycoplasmas c. Clostridia d. Rickettsia
110. Thickness of cell wall ranges from
a. 9-10 nm b. 12-13 nm c. 10-25 nm d. 30-40 nm
111. Teichoic acids and Teichuronic acids are found in
a. Gram positive bacteria b. Gram negative bacteria c. Fungi d. None of these
112. Meosomes are
a. Kind of ribosomes b. Formed during cell lysis c. A part of cell wall d. Principal sites of
respiratory enzymes
113. The characteristic shape of the bacteria is maintained because of
a. Capsule b. Cell wall c. Cell membrane d. Slime layer
114. Bacterial capsule is chemically composed of
a. Polypeptide b. Polynucleotides c. Polysaccharides d. Polypeptides or polysaccharides
115. The cell wall deficient form of bacteria is
a. Mycoplasma b. ‘L’ form c. Protoplast d. Spheroplast
116. Mesosomes are also known as
a. Mitochondria b. Chloroplasts c. Golgi complex d. Chondroids
117. The differences between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria is shown to reside in
the
a. Cell wall b. Nucleus c. Cell membrane d. Mesosomes
118. Capsule formation occurs in the presence of
a. Albumin b. Charcoal c. Serum d. Starch
119. The virulence determining antigens of microorganisms may be
a. Proteins and polysaccharides b. Carbohydrate – protein complexes c. Polysaccharide –
Phospholipid – Protein complexes d. All of these
120. Organelles with hydrolytic enzymes are
a. Mitochondria b. Golgi complex c. Lysosomes d. Ribosomes
121. Bacterial locomotion is accomplished by
a. Fimbria b. Flagella c. Cytoskeleton d. Both a and b
122. Fimbriae are demonstrated by
a. Culture b. Gram stain c. Biochemical reactions d. Haemaggulation test
123. The motile bacteria is
a. Salmonella typhi b. Klebsiella pneumoniae c. Bacillus anthracis d. Shigella flexneri
124. Following cocci are non-motile except
a. Staphylococcus b. Meningococcus c. Gonococcus d. Rhodococcus agilis
125. Metachromatic granules are chemically composed of
a. Lipids b. Proteins c. Polymetaphosphates d. Polysaccharide
126. Metachromatic granules can be stained with
a. Saffranine b. Methylene blue c. Crystal violet d. Pienic acie
127. Bacteria multiply by
a. Spore formation b. Simple binary fission c. Conjugation d. Gametes
128. Bacterial spores are
a. Weakly acid fast b. Strongly acid fast c. Alcohol fast d. Non acid fast
129. Endospores can be stained with
a. Safranine b. Crystal violet c. Methylene blue d. Malachite green
130. The following bacteria produce pigment, except
a. Pseudomonas pyocyaneus b. Serratia marcescens c. D. pneumoniae d. Staphylococcus aureus
131. The order of stains in Gram-staining procedure is
a. Crystal violet, Iodine solution, Alcohol, Saffranine b. Iodine solution, Crystal Violet,
Saffranine, Alcohol c. Alcohol, Crystal Violet, Iodine solution, Saffranine d. All of these
132. The percentage of alcohol used in Gram- staining is
a. 75% b. 90% c. 60% d. 25% 133. Gram positive bacteria appear as a. Pink b. Violet c. both a b
d. None of these
134. Gram negative bacteria appear as
a. Pink b. Violet c. both a b d. None of these
135. The action of alcohol during Gram- staining is
a. Allows the color b. It adds color c. Decolorises the cells d. None of these
136. Lipid contents is more in
a. Gram negative bacteria b. Gram positive bacteria c. Same in both d. None of these
137. Cell-wall is
a. Thick in Gram positive than Gram negative b. Thick in Gram negative than Gram positive c.
Equal in both d. In Gram negative cell-wall is absent
138. The Lipid content present in Gram positive bacterial cell-wall is
a. 1-10 % b. 1-5 % c. 2-8 % d. None of these
139. Rickettsiae stained by this technique responds as
a. Gram positive b. Gram negative c. Between positive and negative d. None of these
140. Chlamydiae occur in
a. Elementary bodies b. Reticulate bodies c. Complex structures d. a and b
141. Chlamydiae can be stained better with
a. Ziehl neelsen staining b. Castaneda Machiavello stains c. Giminez stains d. Both b and c
142. Algae means
a. Fresh water organisms b. Sea weeds c. Fresh water weeds d. None of these
143. The study of algae is known as
a. Algalogy b. Phycology c. Mycology d. Bacteriology
144. The free floating algae are known as
a. Phytoplankins b. Benthons c. Sea weeds d. None of these
145. Sexual reproduction of algae is carried by
a. Isogamy b. Anisogamy c. Oogamy d. All the above
146. In algae, advanced type of sexual repro- duction is
a. Isogamy b. Anisogamy c. Oogamy d. None of these
147. Alginic acids and its salts are obtained from the wall of
a. Red algae b. Brown algae c. Green algae d. Red and brown algae
148. The molds obtained nutrition from dead and decaying matter which are called
a. Saphrophytes b. Parasites c. Commensals d. None of these
149. Most molds are capable of growing in the temperature range between
a. 0o – 25o C b. 0o – 35o C c. 10o – 25o C d. 10o – 35o C
150. Examples for actinomycetes
a. Streptomyces b. Spirillospora c. Frankia d. Dermatophillia e. All of the above
151. Pellicle is found in only
a. Algae b. Fungi c. Bacteria d. Protozoans
152. The Largest virus is
a. Parvo virus b. Pox virus c. Rhabdo virus d. None of these
153. The smallest virus is
a. Parvo virus b. Rhabdo virus c. Pox virus d. Adeno virus
154. The extra cellular infections virus particle is called
a. Capsid b. Nucleocapsid c. Virion d. None of these
155. Shape of bacteriophage is
a. Brick shape b. Bullet shape c. Helical shape d. Tadpole shape
156. If only one stain is used for staining a specimen
a. Simple staining b. Negative staining c. Differential staining d. None of these
157. Other than the sample (specimen) the remaining portion is stained then it is called
a. Simple staining b. Negative staining c. Differential staining d. None of these
158. If more than one stain is used, such staining is called
a. Simple staining b. Negative staining c. Differential staining d. None of these
159. ‘Fluorescence’ was first observed by
a. Kohler b. Coons c. Both a and b d. None of these
160. By using fluorescence property fluorescent antibody technique was developed by
a. Kohler b. Coons c. Both and b d. None of these
161. During staining for Electron Microscopy, the method which improves contrast of specimen
is
a. Positive staining b. Negative staining c. Shadow staining d. None of these
162. The inorganic forms of nitrogen, which are accepted by bacteria are
a. Nitrates b. Nitrites c. Ammonium salts d. All of these
163. Archaeo bacteria are known as
a. Halophiles b. Red extreme halophiles c. Osmophiles d. Extreme thermophiles
164. Nitrite is converted into nitrate by the bacteria
a. Nitrosomonas b. Nitrosocytes c. Nitrobacter d. Azatobacter
165. Sulphur oxidizing bacteria is
a. Alcaligenes b. Pseudomonas c. Thiobacillus d. None of these
166. Bacillus Schlegelli is
a. Hydrogen – Oxydising bacteria b. Sulphur – Oxydising bacteria c. Iron-Oxidising bacteria d.
Nitrite oxidizing bacteria
167. The group of bacteria which deopends on organic sources in nature for their energy
requirements. They are said to be
a. Chemotrophs b. Phototrophs c. Heterotrophes d. Organotrophs
168. Majority of bacteria are
a. Saprophytes b. Symbionts c. Commensals d. Parasites
169. Symbionts are
a. Bacteria in symbiotic association b. The group of fungi in symbiotic association c. The groups
participating in symbiotic association d. All of these
170. The best example for symbiotic associa- tion is
a. E.coli in intestine of man b. Lichens c. Normal floraof skin d. All of the above
171. The enzymes responsible for decomposi- tion is
a. Lipolytic b. Proteolytic c. Lysozyme d. Both a and b
172. Urea is decomposed by the species
a. Micrococcus sps. b. Nitrosomonas sps. c. Proteus sps. d. Both a and c
173. Phycobiont i
s a. The algal part in Lichens b. The fungal part in Lichens c. Laustoria formation d. None of
these
174. Parasitic form must contain
a. Capsules b. Cell-wall c. Endospores d. Flagella
175. The total no. of genes in the group of same individuals is a. Genome b. Gene map c. Gene
pool d. None of these
176. Transformation was observed mainly in
a. Bacteriophages b. Temperate phages c. λ –phage d. All of these
177. Capsulated forms of bacteria are
a. Virulent b. A virulent c. Useful d. Symbiotic
178. The bacterial cells participating in conjugation are a. Conjugants b. Fertile cells c.
Exconjugants d. None of these
179. Phagocytes are
a. Monocytes b. Macrophages c. Basophils d. All of these
180. The microorganism engulfed by phago- cyte resides in a vacuole is known as
a. Phagosome b. Lysosome c. both a and b d. None of these
181. Toxic products in phagolysosome are
a. H2 SO4 b. Singlet O2 c. Superoxide radicals d. All of these
182. During destruction of antigen particle in phagolysosome the product formed in
phagolysosome the product formed during formulation is
a. Acetic acid b. Lactic acid c. Citric acid d. None of these
183. The coating of a bacterium with antibody or complement that leads to enhanced
phagocytosis of the bacterium by phagocytes is called
a. Opsonisation b. Aggulation c. CFT d. None of these
184. Attenuation means
a. Killing of the bacteria (microorganism) b. Inactivation of bacteria c. More activating the
bacteria d. Both 1 and 2
185. Infection that results in pus formation are called
a. Focal infection b. Acute infection c. Pyogenic infection d. Chronic infection
186. Presence of viable bacteria in the blood stream is called
a. Viraemia b. Septicaemia c. Bacteraemia d. Bactericidal
187. Presence of viruses in the blood stream is known as
a. Viraemia b. Bacteraemia c. Septicaemia d. Pyemia
188. Opsonin is the
a. Cellwall component b. Plasma component c. Serum component d. Cytoplasm component
189. βββββ-haemolytic bacteria is
a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Str. pneumoniae c. Str. viridans d. Str. Faecalis
190. The natural reservoir of infection for cholera is
a. Flies b. Horse c. Man d. None of these
191. Main cause for Cholera is
a. Poverty and insanitation b. Mosquitoes c. Toxin produced by pesticides d. None of these
192. Vibrio cholera differs from vibrio eltor by
a. ItsharessomeInaba,Ogawasubtypeswitheltor b. Resistant to polymuxin c. Eltor is non-motile
d. Causes less subclinical infections as compared to eltor
193. Cholera vaccine gives protection for
a. 1 – 3 months b. 3 – 6 months c. 6 – 9 months d. 9-12 months
194. Prophylaxis of cholera is
a. Protected water supply b. Environmental sanitation c. Immunisation with killed vaccines d.
All of these
195. Sh.dysenteriae is also known as
a. Sh.shiga b. Sh.schmitzi c. Both a and b d. Sh.para dysenteriae
196. Acid fast bacteria are
a. Neisseria b. Staphylococci c. Mycobacteria d. All of the above
197. Mycobacteria are stained with
a. Gram’s staining b. Simple staining c. Both a and b d. Ziehl – Neelsen’s staining
198. Niacin test is positive in case of
a. Corynebacterium b. M. tuberculosis c. M. bovis d. M. avium
199. Lepromin test
a. Is negative in tubercular leprosy b. Positive in lepromatous type c. Indicated delayed
hypersensitivity test d. Indicates infection
200. Streptococcus forms causes which type of infections?
a. Fever b. Zoonotic c. Pyogenic d. None of these
201. Streptococcus pyogenes classification is based on
a. Protein M b. Protein T c. Protein R d. Polysaccharide C
202. ααααα-haemolytic streptococci are also known as
a. Str. pyogenes b. Virulence group c. Viridans group d. None of these
203. Streptolysin O is inactivated by
a. CO2 b. Nitrogen c. Oxygen d. Serum 2
04. Streptolysin ‘S’ is
a. Oxygen unstable b. Thermostable c. Oxygen stable d. None of these
205. Influenza virus is identified by using
a. Haemaggulutinin inhibition test b. Tissue culture method c. Embryonated eggs d. Plaque
formation
206. Growth of influenza virus is identified by
a. Cytopathic effects b. Hela cells c. Both a and b d. None of these
207. Glutamic acid is oxidized by the species except
a. B. abortus b. B. melienasis c. B. suis d. B.canis
208. “Prozone phenomenon” is encountered in
a. A typical mycobacteria b. Brucella c. Streptococcus d. Bordetella pertusis
209. Of the following, this is a capsulated organism
a. Bacillus anthracis b. Escherichia-coli c. Corynebacterium d. Brucella
210. Anthrax is a
a. Vector borne b. Zoonotic infection c. Wound bone d. Soil borne
211. Mc Fadyean’s reaction is used to detect
a. Bacillus anthracis b. Brucella c. Corynaebacterium d. None of these
212. Gasgangarene bacillus is
a. Facultative anaerobe b. Obligate anaerobe c. Facultative aerobe d. Obligate aerobe
213. Coagulase test is used for
a. Salmonella b. Staphylococcus c. Bordetella d. Pneumococcus
214. HIV is belonging to
a. Retro Viridae b. Rhabdo Viridae c. Toga Viridae d. Paramyxo Viridae
215. Special feature of Retro viruses
a. Reverse transcriptase b. RNA directed DNA polymerases c. Both a b d. Boils
216. AIDS virus is
a. RNA virus b. DNA virus c. Retro virus d. Entero virus
217. AIDS is caused by
a. HTLV – I b. Bunya virus c. HTLV – III d. All
218. Which of the following organisms is most commonly associated with AIDS pneumo- nia?
a. Klebsiella b. Str. pneumonia c. Mycoplasma d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
219. Sero conservation in HIV infection takes place in
a. 3 weeks b. 6 weeks c. 9 weeks d. 12 weeks
220. Following is the marker of HIV infection in blood:
a. Reverse transcriptase b. DNA polymerase c. RNA polymerase d. None of these
221. Which of the following is the most specific in diagnosis of AIDS?
a. IHA b. Western blot c. ELISA d. Immuno electrophoresis
222. The interval period between HIV infection and appearance of antibodies in serum is called
a. Intrinsic period b. Incubation period c. Window period d. None of these
223. Screening test for AIDS is
a. Western blot test b. ELISA test c. Both a and b d. VDRL test
224. Confirmatory test for AIDS is
a. Western blot test b. ELISA test c. Karpas test d. Fujerbio test
225. The most common infection in AIDS is
a. LGV b. CMV c. Pnemocystis carnii d. Syphilis
226. During AIDS, HIV infects
a. CD3 lymphocytes b. CD4 lymphocytes c. CD2 lymphocytes d. Blymphocytes
227. Lab diagnosis of Leishmaniasis is done by
a. CFT b. Peripheral smear c. Blood culture d. All of these
228. Those fungi which do not have a sexual stage are classified as
a. Phycomycetes b. Ascomycetes c. Basidiomycetes d. Fungi imperfecti
229. Tinea capitis is
a. Ring worm of the foot b. Ring worm of scalp c. Ring worm of non-hairy skin of body d. Both a
and c
230. Diagnosis of bacterial disease can be made by
a. Finding bacteria in pathological fluids b. Isolation of bacteria by culture from exudates or
blood c. Both a and b d. None of these
231. Staphylococcus aureus are characterized by
a. Formation of acid in sucrose, dextrose b. Liquification of gelatin due to production of
gelatinase c. Strains are catalase positive d. All of above e. None of these
232. Cholera occurs in _______ form
a. Endemic b. Epidemic c. Sporadic d. all e. None of these
233. Endemic typhus is caused by
a. R.mooseri b. R.quintana c. R.prowazekii d. any of them e. None of these
234. A man is usually infected for tick typhus by –
a. Drinking milk of sick animals b. Tending cattle c. Inhaling infected dust d. All of these
235. In Gram positive bacteria, ratio of RNA to DNA is
a. 8 : 1 b. 1 : 2 c. Almost equal d. None of these
236. Ziehl – Neelson stain is a ______
a. Simple stain b. Counter stain c. Differential stain d. None of them
237. Wet mount slide preparations are used in microbiology as they allow to see
a. Size and shape of individual organisms b. Characteristic arrangement or grouping of cells c.
Motility of the organism d. All of these e. None of these
238. Organism resistant to degradative lysosomal enzymes includes
a. M.tuberculosis b. Legionella pneumophila c. M.leprae d. Both a and b e. Both b and c
239. Freeze-etch particles (used in preparing cell for electron microscopy) can be located in the
a. Cytoplasm b. Cell wall c. Cell membrane d. Nucleus
240. The properties common to Gram positive and negative cell walls are
a. Equal susceptibility to hydrolysis by lysozyme b. Peptide crosslinks between polysaccharides
c. Rigid peptoglycon activity d. Greater resistance to drying than vegetative cell. e. All of these
241. The main difference in true bacteria and mycoplasma is that it does not posses –
a. Flagella b. Cell wall c. ATP synthesis d. A capsule
242. The organism responsible for retarding penetration of host cell by an inhibitor of ATP
synthesis.
a. M.pneumoniae b. Rickettsia rickettsii c. Chlamydia trachomatis d. Chlamydia psitacci
243. Mycoplasmas differ from Chalamy-diae in that, it
a. has ability to cause urinary tract infection b. lack of atrue bacterial cell wall c. susceptible to
penicillin d. All of these e. None of these
244. Fungal disease in human is caused by –
a. Inhalation of conidia b. Invasion of mucous membrane c. Contamination of wounds with
conidia or myceliat fragments d. All of these e. None of these
245. Fungi differs with bacteria in that it –
a. Contain no peptidoglycan b. Are prokaryotic c. Susceptible to griseofulvin d. Have nuclear
membranes e. All of these
246. A polysaccharide capsule is present on cryptococci which –
a. Inhibits phagocytosis b. Is an aid to diagnose c. Cross reacts with rheumatoid factor d. All of
these
247. The largest protozoa is –
a. Balantidium coli b. Entamoeba coli c. Trichomonus vaginalis d. Toxoplasma gondii
248. Premunition is particularly seen in –
a. Ascaris b. Giardia c. Plasmodium d. None of these
249. Which of the following vaccine contains attenuated form of bacteria?
a. BCG b. TAB c. Polio d. Cholera
250. The bacteria, which is motile at 22o C but non-motile at 37o C is
a. Tranformation b. Transduction c. Conjugation d. Cell fusion
251. Techoic acid is –
a. Found in the walls of Gram positive bacteria b. Provide receptors for phages c. Make up outer
wall of Gram negative bacteria d. Influence the permeability of the membrane
252. One flagelium at one end of the organ is called –
a. Monotrichate b. Amphitrichate c. Iophotrichate d. Peritrichate
253. What is the function of bacterial capsule?
a. Production of organism from phagocytosis b. Helps in adherence of bacteria to surface in its
environment c. Both a and b d. None of these
254. Which of the following is the charachter- istic of bacterial spore?
a. Highly refractile b. Usually dehydrated c. Sensitive to formaldehyde d. All of these
255. Which of the following are acid fast structures?
a. Mycobacteria b. Bacterial spores c. Nocardia d. All of these
256. All of the following are acid fast structures except
a. Clostridium b. Bacterium spores c. Exoskeleton d. None of these
257. All of the following are energy source of bacteria except
a. Oxidation of inorganic compounds b. Oxidation of organic compounds c. Absorption of heat
d. Utilisation of visible light
258. Identify the obligate anaerobes
a. Salmonella b. Vibrio cholera c. Cl. tetani d. Sarcinae
259. Streptococci which are destroyed at 60°C for 30 minutes
a. Preptostreptococci b. Strepto viridans c. Strepto hemolyticus d. All of these
260. Toxins or enzymes which are not produced by streptococcus pyrogens
a. Hyaluronides b. Phosphate c. Hemolysin d. Streptokinase
261. Cholera red reaction is identified by
a. Sulphuric acid b. Nitric acid c. Hydrochloric acid d. Carbolic acid
262. Diagnosis of carrier of salmonella typhi may be shown by
a. Fecal culture b. Bile culture c. Urine culture d. All of these
263. Daisy head colony is associated with
a. M.tuberculosis b. C.diphtheriae c. Cl. tetani d. None of these
264. Neil mooseri reaction is related to
a. Rickettsiae b. Chlamydiae c. Spirochaetes d. C l o s t r i d i u m periringens
265. All of the following are DNA viruses except –
a. Parvo virus b. Paramyxo virus c. Herpes virus d. Pix virus
266. The dengue fever virus is –
a. Arbo virus b. Echo virus c. Entero virus d. Orthomyxo virus
267. Dengue fever is caused by –
a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungi d. Rickettsia
268. Which of the following characters are related to viruses?
a. No growth on inanimate culture media b. Not sensitive to antibiotics c. No energy producing
enzymes d. Insensitive to interferon
269. Main causative organism of chiken pox is
a. Fox virus b. Mumps virus c. Measles virus d. None of these
270. Rickesia are stained with
a. Giesna and Castaneda stains b. Macchiavello and Gimnezstains c. Both a and b d. Malachite
green
ANSWERS 1. c 2. c 3. c 4. d 5. a 6. a 7. d 8. c 9. a 10. b 11. b 12. b 13. b 14. b 15. c 16. a 17. c 18.
a 19. b 20. d 21. a 22. c 23. c 24. c 25. c 26. c 27. d 28. c 29. c 30. d 31. c 32. d 33. a 34. c 35. b
36. b 37. c 38. b 39. a 40. d 41. c 42. b 43. c 44. c 45. c 46. a 47. c 48. a 49. a 50. d 51. a 52. c 53.
d 54. b 55. d 56. c 57. c 58. c 59. b 60. c 61. c 62. a 63. a 64. a 65. a 66. c 67. b 68. d 69. a 70. b
71. d 72. c 73. a 74. a 75. a 76. b 77. a 78. d 79. b 80. b 81. a 82. d 83. a 84. c 85. a 86. b 87. b
88. b 89. d 90. a 91. b 92. d 93. b 94. d 95. c 96. d 97. d 98. c 99. b 100. c 101. c 102. a 103. c
104. a 105. c 106. c 107. d 108. c 109. b 110. c 111. a 112. d 113. b 114. d 115. b 116. d 117. a
118. c 119. d 120. c 121. d 122. d 123. a 124. d 125. c 126. b 127. b 128. a 129. d 130. c 131. a
132. b 133. b 134. a 135. c 136. a 137. a 138. b 139. b 140. d 141. d 142. b 143. b 144. a 145. d
146. c 147. b 148. a 149. b 150. d 151. d 152. b 153. b 154. c 155. d 156. a 157. b 158. c 159. a
160. b 161. b 162. d 163. b 164. c 165. c 166. a 167. c 168. d 169. c 170. b 171. b 172. d 173. a
174. a 175. c 176. b 177. c 178. a 179. d 180. a 181. d 182. b 183. a 184. b 185. c 186. c 187. a
188. c 189. a 190. c 191. a 192. d 193. b 194. d 195. c 196. c 197. d 198. b 199. c 200. d 201. a
202. c 203. c 204. c 205. a 206. b 207. d 208. b 209. a 210. b 211. a 212. b 213. b 214. a 215. c
216. c 217. d 218. d 219. c 220. a 221. b 222. c 223. b 224. a 225. c 226. b 227. d 228. d 229. c
230. c 231. c 232. d 233. a 234. c 235. a 236. c 237. d 238. e 239. c 240. d 241. b 242. b 243. b
244. d 245. e 246. a 247. a 248. c 249. a 250. d 251. a 252. a 253. c 254. d 255. d 256. a 257. c
258. c 259. d 260. b 261. a 262. d 263. b 264. a 265. b 266. a 267. b 268. d 269. d 270. c
