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PRESTORMINGTM
Test Booklet Series
TEST BOOKLET
T.B.C : P-SIA-A-GS
GENERAL STUDIES - PAPER – I
Serial : P-GSI-242501
POLITY I
TEST – 01
A
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

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(1-A)
SIA-A-GS I
 (2-A)
SIA-A-GS I
1. Consider the following : 4. Consider the following countries :
1. Habeas Corpus 1. Egypt
2. Mandamus
2. UAE
3. Prohibition
3. Argentina
4. Quo Warranto
4. Iran
5. Certiorari
How many of the writs mentioned above can 5. Saudi Arabia

be issued against Administrative Authorities ? How many of the above-mentioned countries

(a) Only two have recently joined the BRICS grouping as
(b) Only three
full-time permanent members ?
(c) Only four
(a) Only two
(d) All five
(b) Only three

2. The recent Supreme Court verdict in the M K (c) Only four

Ranjitsinh vs. Union of India case was related (d) All five
to which of the following ?
(a) Right to Marriage for LGBT section 5. Consider the following statements with
(b) Right to Abortion for teenage girls
reference to the National Register of Citizens
(c) Right against Climate Change
(NRC):
(d) Right to Information against Electoral
Bond scheme 1. The central government has the power to

compulsorily register every citizen of India

3. Consider the following statements with regard and issue national identity cards.
to the Preamble of the Constitution of India : 2. The first NRC was compiled in 1957, based
1. The Preamble laid down the fundamentals
on the data of the 1951 Census.
and philosophy of the Constitutional
3. As of January 2022, NRC has been
structure.
implemented in the northeastern states
2. The Preamble clearly mentions the date on
which the Constitution came into force. under the directives of the Ministry of

3. The American Constitution was the first to Development of North Eastern Region.
include the Preamble in its Constitution. Which of the above given statements is/are
How many of the above statements are
not correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(c) All three (c) 3 only

(d) None (d) 2 and 3

(3-A)
SIA-A-GS I
6. Consider the following: 8. Which of the following best describes the aim
1. To determine the boundaries between of the 'PRERANA' program of the Government
States of sixth schedule areas of India ?
2. To safeguard the rights and the interests
(a) Connecting institutions of higher
of Scheduled Tribes
education with local communities to
3. To determine the authority and
responsibilities of Panchayats address development challenges through

4. To protect the interests of all the citizens appropriate technologies.

in the Border States (b) Inspiring young students through learning
How many of the above provisions are there in with the best-in-class technology that
the fifth and sixth schedules of the blends heritage and innovation.
constitution of India?
(c) Facilitating academic and research
(a) Only one
collaborations between Indian institutions
(b) Only two
(c) Only three and leading global institutions.

(d) All four (d) None of the above

7. Consider the following statements with 9. Consider the following statements :

reference to limitations on Fundamental 1. To protect monuments, places and objects
Rights :
of national importance.
Statement I :
2. To promote the educational and economic
In the United States, the limitations are
pronounced by the Supreme Court, interests of weaker sections of the society.

whereas in India, they are part of the 3. To provide free legal aid to the poor.
Constitutional provisions. Which of the above Directive Principles of
Statement II : State Policy reflects the ideology of socialism?
The Constitution of India formulates (a) 3 only
fundamental rights in absolute terms and
(b) 1 and 2 only
does not depend upon the Supreme Court.
(c) 2 and 3 only
Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements ? (d) 1, 2 and 3

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are

correct and Statement II is the correct 10. The inclusion of the right to form cooperative
explanation for Statement I. societies under Article 19(c) was done through
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are which one of the Constitutional Amendment
correct and Statement II is not the correct
Acts ?
explanation for Statement I.
(a) Ninety-seventh Amendment Act
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect. (b) Eighty-sixth Amendment Act

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (c) Forty-fourth Amendment Act

correct. (d) Tenth Amendment Act

(4-A)
SIA-A-GS I
11. Consider the following : 14. Consider the following statements :
1. Arunachal Pradesh 1. Supremacy of the Constitution
2. Secular Character of the Constitution
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. The mandate to build a welfare state
3. Uttarakhand
4. Separation of powers between the
4. Nagaland legislature and the judiciary
Arrange the above states in chronological 5. The Division between Fundamental Rights
order of their year of creation : and Directive Principles of State Policy
How many of those mentioned above are
(a) 4 - 2 - 1 - 3
considered as basic structures of the Indian
(b) 2 - 4 - 3 - 1
Constitution ?
(c) 3 - 1 - 2 - 4 (a) Only two
(d) 1 - 3 - 4 - 2 (b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
12. With reference to 'Exercise Desert Cyclone',
consider the following statements :
15. The “Law of Criminal Defamation” in India has
1. It is a bilateral defence cooperation been defined in/by which of the following ?
between India and UAE. (a) Law Commission of India

2. It took place over the Arabian Sea with (b) Indian Penal Code
(c) Ministry of Law and Justice
military bases operating from India.
(d) Supreme Court
3. Enhancing interoperability between the
two Air Forces was a goal of this operation. 16. Recently, which of the following countries has
Which of the above statements is/are correct ? announced a new strategic alliance named

(a) 1 only 'Green Fuel Alliance India' to collaborate with

India in achieving carbon neutrality ?
(b) 1 and 2 only
(a) Australia
(c) 2 and 3 only
(b) Denmark
(d) 3 only (c) The European Union
(d) The United States of America

13. Which one of the following provisions of the

17. If a person is detained in the case of ordinary
Constitution of India guarantees the Right to
law mentioned in Article 22 of the
Silence ? Constitution, which of the following rights is
(a) Protection in respect of conviction for provided for the particular person ?
offences (a) Right to appeal against the detention order
(b) Right to bail and right to a speedy trial
(b) Protection of life and personal liberty
(c) Right to be informed on the grounds of
(c) Protection against arrest and detention in
detention.
certain cases (d) Right to a fair trial and for legal
(d) None representation

(5-A)
SIA-A-GS I
18. Consider the following pairs : 21. “Socialist”, the objective of the Constitution
S. Salient Features Borrowed from has been provided in :
No.
(a) The Preamble
1. Concept of - Canadian
(b) The Preamble and Fundamental rights
Judicial Review Constitution
2. Directive - Irish Constitution (c) The Preamble and Fundamental Duties

Principles (d) The Preamble and Directive Principles of

3. Procedure - Japanese State Policy
established by law Constitution
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?
22. Consider the following :
(a) 1 only
1. Merge two or more states to create a new
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only state

(d) 2 and 3 only 2. Merge two or more states to create a new

Union Territory
19. “Several historical documents influenced the
3. Split a state into two or more states
Indian Constitution”. In this regard, consider
4. Split a state into two or more Union
the following statements :
Territories
1. The Government of India Act 1935
provided for the federal and legislative 5. Split a Union Territory into two or more
structure of the Indian Constitution. states
2. The Cripps Mission Plan of 1942 laid the 6. Split a Union Territory into two or more
foundation for adopting a parliamentary
Union Territories
form of government in India.
How many of the actions mentioned above can
3. The Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 played a
crucial role in the formation of the be done by the Parliament under Article 3

Constituent Assembly, which drafted the without getting the consent of the State ?
Constitution. (a) Only three
How many of the statements given above are (b) Only four
correct ?
(c) Only five
(a) Only one
(d) All six
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None 23. Whom among the following person's Oath or
affirmation is not mentioned in the Third
20. 'Project Samavesha,' sometimes seen in the
Schedule of the Indian Constitution ?
news, is related to ?
(a) President
(a) Assimilation of minority ethnic groups
(b) Modernisation of land management system (b) Judges of the Supreme Court

(c) Study of ancient defence and governance (c) Comptroller and Auditor General
(d) Resource utilisation for research activities (d) Members of the State Legislature

(6-A)
SIA-A-GS I
24. Which one of the following issues the 'World Which one of the following is correct in respect
Employment and Social Outlook Trends' of the above statements ?
report periodically ? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(a) World Economic Forum correct and Statement-II is the correct
(b) Organisation for Economic Cooperation explanation for Statement-I.
and Development (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(c) World Bank correct and Statement-II is not the correct
(d) International Labour Organization explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
25. Which of the following rights is granted to incorrect
Indian citizens but not to foreigners ? (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
(a) Right to elementary education correct
(b) Freedom to manage religious affairs
(c) Right against discrimination on the 28. In the context of modern scientific research,
grounds of place of birth consider the following statements about the
(d) Equality before law and equal protection of 'Thirty Meter Telescope,' which was recently in
laws the news :
1. It will be the world's advanced ground-
26. A person holding any office of profit under the based observatory that will operate in
state may accept any gift or payment from a optical and mid-infrared wavelengths.
foreign state only with the consent of which of 2. It is an international collaboration
the following ? involving India, the US, Canada, China
(a) Government of India and Japan.
(b) Foreign Affairs Minister 3. It is proposed to be built near the summit
(c) President of Kilauea Volcano, Hawaii.
(d) Consulate General of India Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
27. Consider the following statements : (b) 1 and 2 only
Statement-I : (c) 2 only
Part III of the Indian Constitution prohibits (d) 2 and 3 only
discrimination on grounds of religion, race
and caste. 29. Which one of the following duties is not
Statement-II : embodied in the Part IVA of the Indian
The state shall make a special provision for Constitution ?
the admission of socially and educationally (a) To develop Humanism
backward citizens into private educational (b) To develop the spirit of inquiry and reform
institutions, whether aided or unaided by (c) To uphold Sovereignty and unity
the state. (d) To promote equal justice

(7-A)
SIA-A-GS I
30. Consider the following : 33. India’s attempts to mediate peace in the
1. Prescribing residence as a condition for ongoing conflict between Ukraine and Russia
can be attributed to which one of the following
certain employment or appointments.
articles of the constitution ?
2. Prescribing punishment for the practice of (a) Article 21
untouchability. (b) Article 51
(c) Article 19
3. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and
(d) Article 30
forced labour.
For which of the actions given above do both 34. In the context of equality in India, which of the
Parliament and the State Legislature have the following concepts is/are most appropriate ?
1. Access to the same opportunities
power to make laws ?
2. Equality of rights
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. Equal access to privileges
(b) 1 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) 1, 2 and 3 below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) None
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
31. With respect to the 86th Constitutional (d) 1 and 3 only

Amendment Act 2002, which one of the

35. Consider the following statements :
following is correct ?
Statement I :
(a) It was the only constitutional amendment The right to freely profess, practice,
enacted through a joint sitting. propagate and convert to religion is
enshrined under Article 25 of the
(b) It was the only constitutional amendment
Constitution.
passed as a private member bill.
Statement II :
(c) It has made changes in Part III, Part IV The individual right to freedom of
and Part IVA of the constitution conscience ensures that a person cannot
be allured or forced to alter his faith
(d) It was the only constitutional amendment
through religious conversion.
that changed the Ninth schedule of the Which one of the following is correct in respect
constitution. of the above statements ?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct, and Statement II is the correct
32. Recently, which one of the following countries
explanation for Statement I.
has been certified as malaria-free by the World (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
Health Organization ? correct and Statement II is not the correct
explanation for Statement I.
(a) Cameroon
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(b) Ivory Coast
incorrect.
(c) Burkina Faso (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(d) Cabo Verde correct.

(8-A)
SIA-A-GS I
36. With respect to Litchi cultivation in India, 39. Consider the following statements :

consider the following statements : 1. It has a written constitution

2. It provides equal representation to the
1. Litchi is a sub-tropical fruit which belongs
states in the Rajya Sabha
to the Sapindaceae family.
3. It provides for an independent judiciary
2. Deep and well-drained loamy soil with rich
4. It divides the powers between the centre
organic matter, is ideal condition for the
and the states
crop. Which of the statements mentioned above are
3. The cultivation is predominantly the features of Indian Federalism ?

concentrated in the western parts of India. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

Which of the above statements is/are correct ? (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

40. Which of the following statements is correct
(d) 1 and 3 only
regarding the United Nations Statistical
Commission ?
37. Which one of the following is not an essential 1. It is the highest decision-making body for

condition for the smooth working of international statistical activities.

2. The UN Statistical Commission will
democracy ?
coordinate the statistical work of the
(a) Free and fair election
specialized agencies.
(b) Presence of Opposition party
3. One of the main functions is to review the
(c) Universal adult suffrage
mechanism and implement the 2030
(d) Minority rule Agenda for Sustainable Development.
4. The commission consists of 24 members

38. Which of the following articles directs the elected by the UN Economic and Social

State to make effective provisions for securing Council based on equitable geographical
distribution.
the right to education in cases of sickness and
Select the correct answer using the codes
disablement ?
given below :
(a) Article 38
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) Article 41 (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) Article 45 (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) Article 46 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(9-A)
SIA-A-GS I
41. Consider the following statements with 44. Consider the following statements regarding
reference to Article 31C : Snow leopards :
1. It ensures that laws promoting the 1. They mostly prefer steep and rugged
equitable distribution of resources and terrains.
preventing the concentration of wealth are 2. They are most active at dawn and dusk.
not protected. 3. They are solitary animals.
2. It was introduced by the 25th 4. They can roar like other large cats.
Constitutional Amendment Act, of 1971, Which of the statements given above are
citing the Bank Nationalisation Case. correct ?
Which of the statement given above is/are
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
correct ?
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
45. In the context of Article 23, which legislative
measure was introduced to address the issue
42. The Indian Councils Act of 1909 considerably
of human trafficking and ensure compliance
increased the size of,
with the constitutional mandate ?
1. Central Legislative councils
(a) The Child Labor (Prohibition and
2. Provincial Legislative councils
Regulation) Act, 1986
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(b) The Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956
(a) 1 only
(c) The Payment of Wages Act, 1936
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

46. Which of the following can be traced explicitly

43. Consider the following statements : from both Fundamental Rights and the

1. Limitation of Powers Directive Principles of state policy under the

2. Equality before law Constitution of India ?

3. People’s responsibility to the Government 1. Provision of Education
4. Liberty and civil rights 2. Provision of cooperatives
How many of the above-mentioned are 3. Provision of safeguards on wildlife.
regarded as the main features of the “Rule of How many of the statements given above
Law” ? is/are correct ?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) Only three
(c) All three
(d) All four
(d) None
(10-A)
SIA-A-GS I
47. Consider the following statements : 49. Consider the following statements :

1. According to Part III of the Constitution of Statement I :

India, only the Supreme Court have the The Harm Principle of John Stuart Mill is

power to issue Writs for the enforcement of embedded in Article 19 of the Constitution

Fundamental Rights. of India.

2. The Constitution of India contains no Statement-II :

specific provision guaranteeing the Article 19 contains provisions for imposing

freedom of the press. reasonable restrictions on the exercise of

3. The Indian Constitution empowers the the right conferred to the citizen under
specific conditions.
Courts to interfere in the matters of
Which one of the following is correct in respect
religion to determine whether a particular
of the above statements ?
rite is regarded as essential by the tenets
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
of a particular religion or not.
correct and Statement-II explains
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
Statement-I
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(b) 2 and 3 only
correct, but Statement-II does not explain
(c) 1 and 3 only
Statement-I
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is

incorrect
48. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II
the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) :
is correct
1. The NCAP is a legally binding framework

for air pollution control across all Indian

50. Why does the Indian Constitution have both
cities.
rigidity and flexibility in terms of amendments
2. It aims to achieve a reduction of 20-30% in
to the Indian Constitution ?
particulate matter (PM) concentrations by
(a) To ensure that only the Parliament of India
2024. can amend it.
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) To maintain the federal fabric of the
correct ? constitution.
(a) 1 only (c) To reflect the principle of parliamentary
(b) 2 only democracy.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) To grant the Constituent Assembly of India
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 exclusive power for amendments.

(11-A)
SIA-A-GS I
51. The main purpose of Universal Adult 54. The dignity of the individual, the larger public
Franchise under the Indian constitution is : interest and the unity of the nation can be
(a) To enable the citizen to contest in the traced in which of the following provisions of
elections. the Indian Constitution ?

(b) To ensure that only the Parliament 1. Fundamental Duties

2. Fundamental Rights
democracy will have this feature.
3. Directive Principles
(c) To continue the norm established in India
Select the correct answer using the codes
since the colonial British rule in 1857.
given below :
(d) To create the political equality among the
(a) 2 only
citizens of India.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
52. With respect to Epilepsy disease, consider the (d) 1, 2 and 3
following statements :
1. Epilepsy disease is a brain condition that 55. What is the rationale to change the ‘right to
causes recurring seizures affecting 20 property’ from fundamental right to that of an
percent of patients residing in India. ordinary right through the 44th amendment ?
2. CLASEPI drug is a cannabis plant-based (a) Due to the impact of National Emergency

medicine used for the treatment of (b) Due to the pressure of globalization.

epilepsy. (c) In order to balance the competing interests

of individuals and the state
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(d) The failure of land reforms forced the
(a) 1 only
Government to take this change
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
56. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Square Kilometer Array Project :
1. It is the world’s largest single telescope
53. Consider the following statements : that is used to observe and study celestial
1. As per the Supreme Court, Public Interest phenomena.
Litigation is guaranteed under Article 21 of 2. The Square Kilometer Array would be 60
the Constitution. times more powerful than the most
2. The Fundamental Rights protect the advanced existing radio telescopes.
liberties and freedoms of the people 3. The Project is led by India, which is a full

against the invasion by the State. member of Square Kilometer Array

Which of the statements given above is/are Organization.

Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
correct ?
(a) 1 Only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 Only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 2 and 3 only

(12-A)
SIA-A-GS I
57. Match List-I (Article of Indian Constitution) 60. With respect to Coking coal, consider the
with List-II (Provisions) and select the correct following statements :
answer using the codes :
1. It is a bituminous coal used in thermal
List-I (Article List II (Provisions)
of Indian power plants.
Constitution) 2. Coking coal contains high carbon content,
1. Article 46 - State to raise the
less ash and less moisture than thermal
level of nutrition to
improve public health coal.

2. Article 48 - Minimize the 3. India imports a significant portion of

inequalities in income coking coal for its requirements.
3. Article 47 - Organization of
Which of the statements given above is/are
agriculture
4. Article 38(2) - Promotion of correct ?
economic interests of (a) 1 only
scheduled caste
(b) 1 and 2 only
Codes :
A B C D (c) 3 only

(a) 2 1 4 3 (d) 2 and 3 only

(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 2 1 3 4
61. Consider the following statements :
(d) 4 3 1 2
1. No religious instruction shall be provided
58. Which one of the following categories of in any educational institution
Fundamental Rights incorporates the phrase
administered by the state.
"Procedure Established by Law" ?
(a) Right to Equality 2. The State shall make laws for restricting

(b) Right to Freedom any secular activity associated with

(c) Right against Exploitation religious practice.
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
3. All religious denominations have the right

59. Providing opportunities for children to develop to establish and maintain institutions for
healthily and in conditions of freedom and religious and charitable purposes.
dignity while safeguarding their childhood and
Which of the statements given above are
youth from exploitation is specified in which
one of the following ? correct according to the Constitution of India ?

(a) Prohibition of employment of children in (a) 1 and 2 only

factories (b) 1 and 3 only
(b) Right against exploitation
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Directive Principles of State Policy (d) 1, 2 and 3

(13-A)
SIA-A-GS I
62. Consider the following statements : 65. Which one of the following statements best
1. The Constitution of India does not describes the term ‘Rights’ ?
explicitly address the separation of the (a) A right is a justified claim of the citizens
judiciary from the executive. against the State.
2. The provision for the protection of the (b) Rights are the demands made by the state
environment is provided in both the
upon its citizens.
Directive Principles of State Policy and
(c) They are the privileges enjoyed by a select
Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of
group of citizens over the rest of the
India.
society.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(d) Rights do not place constraints upon the
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only state's actions.

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 66. The Directive Principles of State Policy
constitute limitations upon,
63. Why Indian political setup is called the 1. Legislative function
Republican Model of Democracy ? 2. Executive function
(a) It regularly conducts elections for the 3. Judicial function
parliament and state assemblies Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(b) India has the nominal head as the Head of (a) 1 only
the State
(b) 2 only
(c) India has the real head as the Head of the
(c) 3 only
Government
(d) None
(d) No post in the political setup is reserved
based on Hereditary elements
67. With reference to the Constitution of India,

64. Which of the following entities are considered consider the following pairs :

“Foreign Source” as per the Foreign Subject Matter Parts

Contribution (Regulation) Act (FCRA) of 2010 ? 1. Elections - Part XIV

1. Contributions from the World Bank 2. Services under - Part XV
2. Associations registered in a foreign the Union and
country. the States
3. Government of any foreign country.
3. Official - Part XVII
4. Contributions from Non Resident Indians
Language
5. Citizen of a foreign country
How many of the above pairs are correctly
Select the correct answer using the codes
matched ?
given below :
(a) Only one
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) Only two
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only (c) All three

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) None

(14-A)
SIA-A-GS I
68. With respect to Antimicrobial Resistance, 3. Detention is authorized by a competent
consider the following statements : court.
1. Antimicrobial resistance (AMR) is the 4. Petition is against any person/body except
ability of microorganisms to persist or the public authorities.
grow in the presence of drugs designed to Select the correct answer using the code given
inhibit or kill them. below :
2. The excessive use of antibiotics in humans
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
is a major factor in the rise in
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
Antimicrobial Resistance.
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. Antimicrobial resistant microorganisms
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
can contaminate the food chain and can
spread among different hosts and the
71. Which of the following Fundamental Rights in
environment.
the Indian Constitution is/are enforceable
How many of the above statements are
even against the arbitrary action of private
correct?
individuals ?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 1. Article 14

(c) All three 2. Article 17

(d) None 3. Article 19

4. Article 21
69. Consider the following : Select the correct answer using the code given
1. Article 14 below :
2. Article 15 (a) 1 and 2 only
3. Article 29 (b) 1 and 3 only
4. Article 30 (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
How many of the above provisions in the (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Constitution of India reflect the secular nature
of the Indian State ? 72. Consider the following statements with respect
(a) Only one
to Bharat Ratna :
(b) Only two
1. The National Emblem embossed in the
(c) Only three
medal is made from platinum.
(d) All four
2. The Motto “Satyameva Jayate” is embossed
in Hindi Language below the National
70. A writ of Habeas Corpus, issued by the
Emblem in the medal.
Supreme Court or High Courts, cannot be
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
granted in cases where the
(a) 1 only
1. Detention is unlawful but beyond the
jurisdiction of the issuing authority. (b) 2 only

2. Proceeding involves contempt of a (c) Both 1 and 2

legislature. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(15-A)
SIA-A-GS I
73. The word ‘reasonable restrictions’ appears 75. Consider the following statements :

only in Article 19 of the Constitution. In this 1. The term ‘Liberty of thought and

regard, consider the following statements : expression’ in the Preamble is intrinsically

1. The expression ‘reasonable restriction’ is linked to Article 19 of the Indian

clearly defined in the Constitution. Constitution.

2. The reasonable restrictions can be 2. The ideals of liberty in the Preamble of the

imposed by state legislation and through Constitution have been taken from the

the ordinance. French Revolution.

Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
correct ?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

76. The PRITHvi VIgyan (PRITHVI) Scheme is

74. Consider the following :
recently seen in news is implemented by :
Committee Chairman
(a) Department of Space
1. Union Power - Jawaharlal
(b) Ministry of Defence
Committee Nehru
(c) Ministry of Earth Sciences
2. Committee on - Sardar Ballabh
(d) Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs
Fundamental bhai Patel

Rights
77. Which one of the following statements
3. Steering - Dr. K.M. Munshi
regarding the Directive Principles of State
Committee
Policy is correct ?
3. Provincial - Sardar Ballabh
(a) They have only moral and political
Constitution bhai Patel sanctions but lack legal sanctions.
Committee (b) The judiciary can declare a law
How many of the Committees of the unconstitutional and void if it contravenes
Constituent Assembly and its Chairman are any of the Directive Principles.
incorrectly matched ? (c) They sought to establish political
(a) Only one democracy in the country.
(b) Only two (d) They are non-justiciable and do not
(c) Only three require any legislation for their
(d) None implementation.

(16-A)
SIA-A-GS I
78. Consider the following statements : 80. Consider the following pairs :

Statement-I : Space missions Purpose of the

In India, Parliament has the authority to in news Mission

impose penalties or punishments for 1. Europa Clipper - To explore one

disrespecting the National Flag and of Jupiter’s

National Anthem. largest moons

Statement-II : 2. VIPER - To measure the

Part IV-A of the Constitution of India mass of

incorporates appropriate penalties or Dimorphos

punishments for failing to adhere to the asteroid

Fundamental Duties. 3. Hera mission - To explore the

moon’s south
Which of the following is correct in respect of
pole
the above statements ?
4. Martian Moon - To study Phobos
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
eXploration and Deimos,
correct and Statement-II is the correct
mission Mars’ moons.
explanation for Statement-I.
How many of the pairs given above are
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct?
correct and Statement-II is not the correct
(a) Only one
explanation for Statement-I.
(b) Only two
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(c) Only three
incorrect.
(d) All four
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is

correct.
81. Consider the following ways of losing
Citizenship :
79. "To promote harmony and the spirit of
1. Renunciation
common brotherhood amongst all the people
2. Termination
of India and to renounce practices derogatory
3. Deprivation
to the dignity of the women" is a provision
How many of the above procedures are
made in the :
mentioned in the Indian Constitution ?
(a) Preamble of the Constitution
(a) Only one
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Only two
(c) Fundamental Rights (c) All three
(d) Fundamental Duties (d) None

(17-A)
SIA-A-GS I
82. Which of the following are the reasons for a 85. The enforcement of which of the following

country to draft a Constitution ? provisions in part III of the Constitution of

India is within the exclusive jurisdiction of the
1. It gives a foundational structure for its
Parliament ?
political community. 1. Providing indemnity to any government
2. It upholds human rights and democratic servant for actions taken during the
operation of martial law.
values
2. Prescribing punishments for trafficking in
3. It provides a framework for socio-economic
human beings
development. 3. Mandating residence as a requirement for
4. It helps in separating and distributing certain appointments in a state
Select the correct answer using the code given
power or authority among the institutions
below :
of the government.
(a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the codes (b) 1 and 3 only
given below : (c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

86. Which Article of the Constitution of India
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 enshrines justice in all forms : social, political,

(d) 1 and 4 only and economic?

(a) Article 38
(b) Article 39
83. The provisions in the Second Schedule of the (c) Article 39A
Constitution of India are related to the (d) Article 45

emoluments, allowances and privileges of

87. Which one of the following directives is not
(a) The Prime Minister of India
included in Part IV of the Constitution of
(b) The President of India India?
(c) The Attorney General of India (a) Protecting SC/ST communities from social
injustice and all forms of exploitation
(d) All of the above
(b) Nurturing the educational interests of SC,
ST and other weaker sections of the
84. The “Marcos Commandos” recently seen in society
news are the special operations unit of (c) Granting reservations for SC/ST
communities in appointments to public
(a) Indian Air Force
services
(b) Indian Army
(d) Promoting the economic interests of SC,
(c) Indian Navy ST and other weaker sections of the
(d) Border Security Force society

(18-A)
SIA-A-GS I
88. Consider the following statements with respect 91. Which of the following statement is correct
to Open General Export Licences (OGEL) : regarding the “basic structure doctrine” as a
1. The primary aim of the OGEL is to give a
principle of judicial review in the Indian
boost to the defence exports of India.
Constitution ?
2. Both Russia and the United States of
America are included in the destination (a) It is in accordance with the principle of
allowed under OGEL. ‘procedure established by law’.
Which of the statement(s) is / are correct ?
(b) It assumes the power of judging the
(a) 1 only
wisdom of the sovereign legislature
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) It is consistent with the principle of ‘the

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 due process of law’

(d) It accepts the theory that the legislature is

89. Which of the following is the main reason to
the supreme law-making authority
adopt the fundamental duties in the Indian
Constitution ?
(a) It was added because duties are lifelines of 92. The Chin Kuki community recently seen in the

Democracy. news belongs to which of the following Indian

(b) It was added due to Mahatma Gandhi's states ?
insistence during the national movement.
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) It was added to remind the moral
(b) Assam
obligations of all citizens.
(d) It was added to draw inspiration from (c) Nagaland
Japan's successful model of Constitution. (d) Manipur

90. Which of the following are the reasons for

93. Which of the following best describes the
making the Directive Principles of the State
policy non-justiciable in nature ? relationship between Fundamental Rights and

1. Due to the tough stand of the Supreme Directive principles ?

Court (a) The Directive principles always get priority
2. Lack of sufficient funds in the
over Fundamental Rights
Governments
(b) The Directive principles run subsidiary to
3. Huge diversity of the society
Select the correct answer using the code given the Fundamental Rights
below : (c) The Directive principles may get priority
(a) 2 only
over Fundamental Rights in some cases
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) The Fundamental Rights never get priority
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only nor subsidiary to the Directive principles

(19-A)
SIA-A-GS I
94. Consider the following statements : Codes :
1. A person arrested under preventive (a) A –2; B–4; C– 3; D– 1
detention shall have the right to consult (b) A –1; B–3; C– 4; D– 2
and defend by a legal practitioner. (c) A –2; B–3; C– 4; D– 1
2. Preventive Detention included in the (d) A –1; B–4; C– 3; D– 2
Fundamental Rights is available to both
citizens and Foreigners. 96. Consider the following statements with respect
Which of the statements given above is/are to Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya Bal Puraskar :
correct ? 1. This award is the highest civilian honour
(a) 1 only for children in India.
(b) 2 only 2. It is awarded annually only to children in
(c) Both 1 and 2 the age group of 5-18 years.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. This award is instituted by the Ministry of
Youth Affairs and Sports.
95. Match List-I (Acts of Colonial Government of How many of the statement(s) given above
India) with List-II (Provisions) and select the is/are correct ?
correct answer using the codes given below (a) Only one
the lists. (b) Only two
List-I List-II (c) All three
A. Pitt’s India 1. The act provided for (d) None
Act of 1794 the establishment
of a Joint public 97. Consider the following statements :
service commission. Statement 1 :
B. Charter Act of 2. It led to the Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the
1833 establishment of Constitution to all persons without any
dual government discrimination.
through the court Statement 2 :
of directors and Fundamental Rights prevent the
board of control establishment of an authoritarian and
C. Government 3. Bicameralism and despotic rule in the country.
of India Act of direct elections Which one of the following is correct in respect
1919 were introduced for of the above statements ?
the first time in the (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
country. correct and Statement-II is the correct
D. Government 4. For the first time, explanation for Statement-I.
of India Act of the legislation (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
1935 established the correct and Statement-II is not the correct
government of India explanation for Statement-I.
with power over the (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
whole British- incorrect.
controlled territory (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
in India. correct.

(20-A)
SIA-A-GS I
98. Match List-I (Article of Indian Constitution) 99. Consider the following information :
with List-II (Provisions) and select the correct Constitution Present in Description
answer using the codes given below the lists : Objectives Constitution
List-I (Article List II (Provisions) 1. Democracy In original The Head of
of Indian Constitution the State is
Constitution) an elected

A. Article-29(2) 1. Minorities based on person

2. Socialist Added promoting
language, shall have
through the social change
the right to establish
Amendment to end all
and administer
forms of
educational
inequality
institutions of their
3. Republic In original derives its
choice
Constitution authority
B. Article-30 2. No citizen shall be
from the will
denied admission
of the people
into any educational 4. Secular Added freedom to
institution receiving through the profess,
aid out of State Amendment preach and
funds on grounds of practice any
language. religion
C. Article-27 3. A religious In how many of the above rows is the given
denomination shall information correctly matched ?
have the right to (a) 1 and 3
establish and (b) 2 and 4
maintain institutions (c) 2 and 3
for religious and (d) 1 and 4
charitable purposes
D. Article-26(a) 4. No person shall be 100. With reference to the 'Agreement on

compelled to pay any Prohibition of Attack against Nuclear

Installations and Facilities,' consider the
taxes for the
following statements :
promotion or
1. It is a bilateral pact signed between India
maintenance of any
and Pakistan in 1988.
religious
2. Under this agreement, both countries
denomination.
must notify each other about their nuclear
Codes :
facilities every year.
A B C D
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 2 1 4 3
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 4 2 1 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 1 3 4 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 4 3 1 2 (d) Neither 1 and 2

(21-A)
SIA-A-GS I
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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

PRESTORMINGTM
Test Booklet Series
TEST BOOKLET
T.B.C : P-SIA-A-GS
GENERAL STUDIES - PAPER – I
Serial : P-GSI-242502
PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY
TEST – 02
A
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with
your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE A PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.66) of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as a penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be the same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

(1-A)
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(2-A)
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1. Consider the following : 4. Which of the following is a primary objective of

1. Quartz the PM Schools for Rising India (PM-SHRI)
2. Mica scheme ?
3. Calcite
(a) To establish new schools for physically
4. Gypsum
abled students.
Which of the above-mentioned are primary
minerals found in the soil ? (b) To enhance the quality of education

(a) 1 and 4 only through upgrading existing school

(b) 1 and 2 only infrastructure
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) To provide free education to all students in
(d) 3 and 4 only
government schools
(d) To introduce a uniform curriculum across
2. Which of the following statements describes
all schools in India
the difference between the El Nino and La
Nina conditions ?
1. Trade winds are weaker during El Nino 5. Which principle states that the Earth's
compared to La Nina. lithosphere floats on the semi-ductile
2. El Nino results in more nutrients for the asthenosphere and adjusts to maintain
species than La Nina.
gravitational equilibrium ?
3. El Niño can delay the onset of monsoon
(a) Plate Tectonics theory
season in India.
(b) Theory of Isostasy
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below : (c) Continental Drift theory

(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Thermal Convection

(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 6. Coral reefs thrive in specific geographical
(d) 1, 2 and 3
conditions. Which of the following conditions
are essential for the growth of coral polyps ?
3. Consider the following types of climate :
1. Presence of freshwater
1. Equatorial type
2. Savanna type 2. A high proportion of ocean salinity

3. Desert type 3. Absence of ocean currents and waves

4. Mediterranean type 4. Extensive submarine platforms
5. Steppe type Select the correct answer using the codes
Which of the above-mentioned climates can be
given below :
found in the African continent ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

(3-A)
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7. "The predominant vegetation is cool temperate Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
forest; summers are as warm as the tropics, correct ?
winters are long and severe, rainfall is heavy, (a) 1 only
and the people focus on lumbering and
(b) 2 only
fishing."
(c) Both 1 and 2
The above statement best describes which of
the following climate regions ? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) British type climate
(b) Laurentian climate 11. Consider the following pairs :
(c) Siberian climate Native People Region
(d) Steppe climate
1. Hausa - Nigeria
2. Masai - Tanzania
8. Which of the following is the primary focus of
the National Biopharma Mission ? 3. Sami - Gobi Desert

(a) To develop affordable vaccines 4. Bedouin - Arabia

(b) To establish new biotechnological research How many of the above-given pairs are
centres correct?
(c) To support biomedical research for (a) Only one pair
understanding the causes of human
(b) Only two pair
diseases
(c) Only three pair
(d) To improve the sustainable use of biofuel
technology (d) All Four

9. Consider the following statements : 12. With reference to the Krishi-DSS platform,
1. The Continental crust is lighter than the consider the following statements :
oceanic crust.
1. Krishi-DSS is an initiative to enhance
2. The Continental crust is formed primarily
farmers' access to climate and crop
at subduction zones.
3. The Continental crust is richer in iron and advisory services.

magnesium than the oceanic crust. 2. It integrates satellite images, weather

Which of the statements given above is/are information, reservoir storage,
correct ? groundwater levels and soil health
(a) 2 only information.
(b) 1 and 2 only
3. Krishi-DSS is exclusively designed to
(c) 2 and 3 only
promote organic farming practices across
(d) 1 and 3 only
India.
10. Consider the following statements : Which of the statements given above are
1. A warm front is formed when the moving correct ?
cold airmass comes into contact with the (a) 1 and 2 only
stationary warm airmass.
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. A cold front is formed when the moving
(c) 1 and 3 only
warm airmass comes into contact with the
stationary cold airmass. (d) 1, 2 and 3

(4-A)
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13. Consider the following descriptions : Which of the above statements are correct ?
“It is located between 50 and 200 latitudes on (a) 1 and 2 only
either side of the equator. It is characterised (b) 2 and 3 only

by an alternate hot, rainy, and cool, dry (c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
season. The trees present are deciduous and
shed their leaves in the cool, dry season. It is
16. Consider the following pairs :
a transitional zone between the wet equatorial
UNESCO Description Location
in the south and the semi-arid Steppe in the
Tentative list
north.” 1. Gwalior Fort Evidence of the Madhya
This is the most likely description of numerous Pradesh
(a) China Type Climate artefacts
(b) Monsoonal Type Climate 2. Khooni An Odisha
(c) Sudan Type Climate Bhandara underground
(d) British Type Climate water
management
system
14. Consider the following statements with respect
3. Bhojeshwar A temple Madhya
to polymetallic nodules :
Mahadev dedicated to Pradesh
1. Polymetallic nodules primarily contain
Temple Lord Shiva
more manganese than iron. built by the
2. They occur mostly at deeper depths in Paramara
areas of extremely low sedimentation dynasty
rates. Which of the above-given pairs are correct ?
3. Polymetallic nodules are found in all the (a) 1 and 2 only
oceans and even in lakes. (b) 1 and 3 only

How many of the statements given above are (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None
correct ?
(a) Only one
17. Consider the following statements :
(b) Only two
1. The terrestrial planets have greater density
(c) All three
than Jovian planets.
(d) None 2. The Jovian planets are more massive than
the terrestrial planets.
15. Consider the following statements : 3. Earth has a stronger magnetic field than
1. The velocity of primary waves increases as all other planets.
the density of the rocks increases. How many of the statements given above are
2. Secondary waves cause the ground to correct ?
(a) Only one
move in the direction of wave propagation.
(b) Only two
3. The presence of a shadow zone for S-waves
(c) All three
indicates the presence of the Earth's liquid
(d) None
outer core.

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18. Consider the following statements : 21. Consider the following statements :
1. Hot and dry summer and a mild, rainy Statement 1 :
winter. The relative humidity increases when there
2. Influence of sub-tropical high in summer is an increase in the temperature of the

3. The annual precipitation ranges between air.

35 -90cm. Statement 2 :

Which of the following types of climate is The ability of an air to hold water vapour

described above ? depends on its temperature.

Which one of the following is correct in respect
(a) Warm temperate Eastern margin climate
of the above statements ?
(b) Warm temperate Western margin climate
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(c) Cool temperate Eastern margin climate
correct, and Statement II is the correct
(d) Cool temperate Continental climate
explanation of Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
19. Consider the following statements :
correct, but Statement II is not the correct
1. Conduction plays a key role in heating the
explanation of Statement I
lower layers of the atmosphere.
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
2. Convective transfer of energy is confined
incorrect
only in the troposphere.
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
3. Advection is the major cause of diurnal
is correct
variations in mid-latitude regions.
How many of the above statements are 22. Consider the following :
correct? 1. Planetary winds
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. Seasonal winds
(b) 1 and 3 only 3. Local winds
(c) 3 only How many of the winds mentioned above blow
(d) 1, 2 and 3 in the same direction throughout the year ?
(a) Only one
20. Which of the following is the primary focus of (b) Only two
the 'Khelo India Programme' ? (c) All three
(a) It is to enhance professional sports (d) None

infrastructure in urban areas.

(b) It is to revive the sports culture in India at 23. Ribbon Lake, Hanging Valley and Horns are

the grass-root level for all sports. landforms made by which of the following ?
(a) River
(c) It promotes yoga and meditation in schools
(b) Ground Water
and colleges.
(c) Glacier
(d) It aims to focus on physical education at
(d) Wind
the university level.

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24. Consider the following statements with respect 26. Atmospheric pressure plays a significant role

to the National Symbols of India : in which of the following ?

1. Tropical cyclones
1. The State Emblem of India was adopted on
2. Ocean currents
the same day the National Anthem was 3. Volcanoes
adopted. 4. Rainfall

2. The National Anthem was first sung in Select the correct answer using the codes
given below :
1911 at the Calcutta Session of the Indian
(a) 1 and 2 only
National Congress. (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
3. The National Song was composed in Hindi (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

and was sung on a political occasion in the (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

1896 session of the Indian National

27. Which of the following are the favourable
Congress. conditions for the formation of deltas ?
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Active erosion in the upper course of the

not correct ? river

2. Presence of tides
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. Shallow coast
(b) 1 and 3 only 4. Absence of strong current at the river
(c) 2 and 3 only mouth

(d) None Select the correct answer using the code given
below :
(a) 1 and 3 only
25. Consider the following regarding the Siberian (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Climate : (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

1. Annual precipitation is high in the interior (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

patch of the Eurasian continent.

28. Which of the following are the objectives of the
2. The climate is absent in the southern GSLV-F14/ INSAT-3DS mission ?
hemisphere. 1. Weather forecasting

3. Evergreen Coniferous forest vegetation is 2. Disaster warning and satellite-aided

search and rescue services
predominantly found.
3. Monitor the Earth’s surface, atmosphere,
Which of the statements given above are oceans, and environment
correct ? Select the correct answer using the code given

(a) 1 and 2 only below :

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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29. Consider the following with respect to Which one of the following is correct in respect
Koopen’s scheme of classification of climate : of the above statements ?
1. It recognised five major climatic groups of (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
the world based on temperature and
correct, and Statement II is the correct
precipitation.
explanation of Statement I
2. The areas where “Potential evaporation
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
exceeds precipitation” are categorised as
Dry Climate Groups. correct, but Statement II is not the correct

Which of the statements given above is/are explanation of Statement I

correct ? (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
(a) 1 only incorrect
(b) 2 only (d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
(c) Both 1 and 2
is correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

32. Who among the following is the author of the

30. Consider the following statements with respect
book Satyarth Prakash ?
to Nano DAP Fertiliser :
1. Their maximum particle size is 100nm. (a) Swami Shraddhanand

2. The Nitrogen and Phosphorus in them are (b) Lala Hansraj

functionalised with synthetic polymers for (c) Aurobindo Ghosh
controlled release of nutrients to the (d) Dayanand Saraswati
plants.
3. It enhances the efficiency of
33. The Earth's core comprises iron and nickel,
photosynthesis.
yet it remains in both solid and liquid states.
How many of the statements given above
Which of the following factors contribute to
is/are correct ?
(a) Only one this dual state in the inner and outer core ?

(b) Only two 1. The immense pressure at the core keeps

(c) All three the inner core solid despite high
(d) None temperatures.
2. Due to lower pressure, the outer core
31. Consider the following statements :
remains liquid, allowing the iron to remain
Statement 1 :
molten.
Water vapour, nitrogen, carbon dioxide
Select the correct answer using the codes
and oxygen are a few gases that
significantly contributed to the Earth’s given below :

early atmosphere. (a) 1 only

Statement 2 : (b) 2 only
Continuous volcanic eruptions contribute (c) Both 1 and 2
water vapour and gases to the atmosphere. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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34. Vancouver, an important port city in South 37. “About 60 per cent of total earthquakes in the
Western Canada, experiences which of the
world are caused in the Circum Pacific belt.”
following climate ?
In this regard, consider the following
(a) Siberian Climate
(b) China type Climate statements :
(c) Laurentian Climate
1. Zone of active volcanoes
(d) British Climate
2. Zone of young folded mountains

35. Consider the following statements : 3. Subduction zone of convergent plate

1. Sedimentary rocks are formed by the
boundaries
weathering of preexisting rocks.
2. Fossils are embedded in the strata of Which of the above are the ideal conditions for
sedimentary rocks. earthquakes in this belt ?
3. Metamorphic rocks are formed under the
(a) 1 only
influence of heat or pressure on
sedimentary rocks. (b) 1 and 2 only
4. Metamorphic rocks are hard in
(c) 2 and 3 only
comparison to the igneous rocks.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
38. Consider the following statements :
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only 1. It is characterised by eruptions of

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 relatively cooler and more viscous lava

than basalt.
36. Consider the following :
1. Food Processing 2. It often results in explosive eruptions.

2. Coal & Lignite 3. It consists of large quantities of pyroclastic

3. Air Transport Services
material, ashes, and lava.
4. Defence Manufacturing
5. Space Which of the following types of volcanoes is
In how many of the sectors mentioned above
described above ?
is 100% FDI allowed under the Automatic
(a) Caldera
route ?
(a) Only two (b) Mid-Ocean Ridge Volcanoes
(b) Only three
(c) Composite Volcanoes
(c) Only four
(d) All five (d) Shield Volcanoes

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39. Consider the following statements regarding 42. Consider the following statements :
the West European type of climate : Statement 1 :
1. It is surrounded by a Mediterranean The equatorial countercurrent is an
climate in the south, a continental dry eastward flow of ocean water primarily
climate in the east and a semi-arctic between latitudes 3° and 10° N.
climate in the north. Statement 2 :
2. The temperature in this climate is affected
The Earth’s rotation influences the
by warm ocean currents and prevailing
direction of winds and ocean currents.
winds.
Which one of the following is correct in respect
3. It is characterised by abundant and
of the above statements ?
uniformly distributed precipitation
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
throughout the year.
correct, and Statement II is the correct
Which of the above statements are correct ?
explanation of Statement I
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(b) 2 and 3 only
correct, but Statement II is not the correct
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is

40. Recently, “SARTHI” - a comprehensive digital incorrect

insurance platform for farmers—was launched (d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
in India in collaboration with which of the is correct
following organisations ?
(a) World Bank 43. Consider the following statements :
(b) Food and Agricultural Organisation Irrigation River
(c) United Nations Environment Programme Project
(d) United Nations Development Programme A. Shanan - 1. River Chenab
hydropower
41. Consider the following statements regarding project
the salinity of ocean waters :
B. Mekedatu dam - 2. River Kaveri
1. The Mediterranean Sea records a low
C. Kiru - 3. River Ravi
salinity due to the influx of large quantities
Hydroelectric
of river waters.
Project
2. The Black Sea records higher salinity due
D. Ranjit Sagar Dam - 4. River Uhl
to high evaporation rates.
Select the correct code given below :
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) A-4; B-2; C-1; D-3
(a) 1 only
(b) A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1
(b) 2 only
(c) A-1; B-4; C-1; D-2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) A-4; B-2; C-3; D-1

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44. Which of the following is the primary criterion 47. Consider the following :
used to allocate the major share of union 1. Convergent Boundary
taxes to each state in India ? 2. Divergent Boundary
(a) Income distance 3. Transform Boundary
(b) Demographic performance In which of the tectonic plate boundaries
(c) Area above do deep and powerful earthquakes
(d) Population occur ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
45. Consider the following : (b) 1 and 3 only
1. Zeugen (c) 1 only
2. Yardangs (d) 3 only
3. Ventifacts
4. Barchans 48. Consider the following countries :
Which of the above landforms results from 1. Bulgaria
wind deposition in the Desert ? 2. Romania
(a) 1 Only
3. Ireland
(b) 2 Only
4. Iceland
(c) 3 Only
5. Cyprus
(d) 4 Only
6. Norway
Which of the above are among the border-free
46. Consider the following pairs :
Schengen Area ?
Local Region
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 6 only
winds
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
1. Brick - Dry, gusty, and dust-
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only
fielder laden wind in southern
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 6 only
Australia.
2. Bora - Hot, dry wind on the
49. Consider the following statements regarding
leeward slope of the
the temperature of ocean waters :
Alps in France.
1. The temperature of surface water
3. Pampero - Cold wind blown on the
decreases poleward due to weak
western side of Andes
insolation.
Mountain.
2. The enclosed seas in both low and high
4. Siroco - Hot, dry wind blows
latitudes are colder than open seas.
from the Sahara Desert
3. The ocean warms up and cools down more
towards Italy.
Which of the pairs given above is/are slowly than land.

incorrect? Which of the above statements are correct ?

(a) 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 (c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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50. Consider the following statements with respect 52. Consider the following statements :

to the Onshore winds : 1. Pandemic is identified by their geographic

scale rather than the severity of illness.
1. It drives warm surface water away from
2. An epidemic is a sudden disease outbreak
the coast.
that affects many people in a particular
2. It can lead to cooler temperatures near the region.
coast. 3. There is no fixed number of cases or

Which of the statements given above is/are deaths that determine when an outbreak
becomes a pandemic.
correct ?
How many of the above statements are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) Only one
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) None

51. Consider the following statements : 53. Which of the following is/are the forces that
Statement-I : influence the ocean currents ?

The height of the tides tends to be low 1. Wind

2. Gravity
when the sun and the moon are at right
3. Salinity gradient
angles to each other.
4. Heating by solar energy
Statement-II : 5. Coriolis force
The gravitational pull of the moon is Select the correct answer using the code given

weakened by the counteracting force of the below :

(a) 1, 3 and 5 only
sun at this position.
(b) 3 and 4 only
Which of the following is correct in respect of (c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
the above statements ? (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
54. Which one of the following is the correct
correct and Statement-II is the correct
sequence of atmospheric gases in the
explanation for Statement-I.
decreasing order of percentage by volume ?
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (a) Oxygen – Nitrogen – Carbon dioxide –
correct and Statement-II is not the correct Argon

explanation for Statement-I. (b) Oxygen – Nitrogen – Argon – Carbon

dioxide
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(c) Nitrogen – Oxygen – Carbon dioxide –
incorrect.
Argon
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is (d) Nitrogen – Oxygen – Argon – Carbon
correct. dioxide

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55. Consider the following statements : 58. Which of the following statements best
1. The atmosphere is primarily heated by describes terrigenous deposits ?
reflected solar radiation.
(a) These deposits primarily comprise organic
2. Carbon dioxide is transparent to the
materials derived from marine organisms.
incoming solar radiation.
3. Water vapour does not contribute to the (b) They are derived through weathering and

greenhouse effect. erosion of continental rocks through the

How many of the above statements are not denudation process.
correct ?
(c) They are derived through biochemical
(a) Only one
precipitation and deposited on the sea
(b) Only two
(c) All three floor.

(d) None (d) These are the sediments of extraterrestrial

origin, like from meteorites in space.

56. With reference to the Anti-satellite (ASAT)
weapons, consider the following statements :
59. Consider the following statements :
1. They are designed to debilitate and destroy
Statement-I :
satellites already in orbit and operational.
2. With the policy against the weaponisation The isotherms closer to the equator show
of space, India is not among the countries minimal variation, even during the months
with Anti-satellite weapon capability. of extreme seasonal temperatures.
Which of the statements are not correct ?
Statement-II :
(a) 1 only
The insolation near the equator is
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 consistent throughout the year.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which one of the following is correct in respect

of the above statements ?

57. Consider the following pairs :
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
River Famous Place
correct and Statement-II explains
1. Mahanadi - Cuttack
2. Godavari - Kurnool Statement-I

3. Narmada - Surat (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

4. Luni - Ajmer correct, but Statement-II does not explain
How many of the above-given pairs are
Statement-I
correctly matched ?
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
(a) Only one
(b) Only two incorrect

(c) Only three (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II

(d) All four is correct

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60. Which of the following is measured using the 63. Consider the following :
numerical scale ‘Bortle Scale’ ? 1. Cirrus Clouds are thin clouds which are
(a) Seismic waves resulting from a sudden always white in colour.
release of energy in the lithosphere 2. Nimbus clouds are shapeless masses of
(b) Probability of occurrence of wildfires thick vapour which are dark grey in
(c) Period of abnormally low rainfall in a colour.
particular region. Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) Brightness of night sky at a given location correct ?
(a) 1 only
61. Consider the following statements with respect (b) 2 only
to the Inter-Tropical Convergent Zone (ITCZ) : (c) Both 1 and 2
1. It is the high-pressure zone formed by the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
convergence of trade winds from both
hemispheres. 64. Consider the following :
2. It is a zone of windless weather. 1. Photographic Images
3. The heating of air parcels in ITCZ is done 2. Date of Birth
by conduction. 3. Place of Birth
Which of the statements given above is/are 4. Contact Number
correct ? 5. Biometric Information
(a) 1 only How many of the information given above are
(b) 2 and 3 only categorised as Personally Identifiable
(c) 2 only Information (PII) ?
(d) 1 and 3 only (a) Only two
(b) Only three
62. Consider the following statements with respect (c) Only four
to the “Zone of Low Velocity” : (d) All five
1. It is the zone of transition between the
mantle and core where the velocity of the 65. Which of the following statements is not
seismic waves suddenly decreases. correct regarding the temperate cyclones ?
2. The transmission of S-waves is heavily (a) A temperate cyclone features an occluded
affected by this zone. front as the cyclone matures.
3. This zone is characterised by high seismic (b) The wind direction is clockwise in the
energy attenuation and high electrical northern hemisphere and anti-clockwise in
conductivity. the southern hemisphere
Which of the statements given above are not
(c) Cyclones are formed between 35 to 65
correct ?
degrees latitude in both hemispheres due
(a) 1 only
to the convergence of two air masses
(b) 1 and 2 only
(d) Temperate cyclones are formed due to the
(c) 3 only
creation of polar fronts with opposing air
(d) 2 and 3 only
masses.

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66. Consider the following pairs : 68. Consider the following statements with respect
Minor Description
to Regulation S :
relief
1. This regulation deals with the Offers and
features of
the ocean Sales Made Outside the United States.
floor
2. It allows public companies to sell
1. Seamount - Submerged volcano
with a flat top securities outside the United States to

2. Guyots - A continuous chain of foreign investors without registration.

mountains
Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Atoll - High islands with a
depression at the correct ?

centre (a) 1 Only

How many of the above pairs are correctly
(b) 2 Only
matched ?
(a) Only one (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Only two (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) All three
(d) None
69. Consider the following :
67. Consider the following statements : 1. Increase in the gradient of slopes
Statement-I :
2. Heavy rainfall
Lichens and Mosses grow in the soil
during the early stages of soil formation. 3. Removal of material from the slope
Statement-II :
surfaces
During the early stages of soil, the organic
4. Heavy drawdown of water from lakes
matter in the soil is very high.
Which one of the following is correct in respect 5. Indiscriminate removal of natural
of the above statements ?
vegetation
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II explains 6. Excessive natural seepage

Statement-I Which of the above has the potential to

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
activate and precede mass movements ?
correct, but Statement-II does not explain
Statement-I (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is (b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only

incorrect
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II
is correct (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

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70. Consider the following statements : 72. Which one of the following best describes the
Statement 1 : term "Child Wasting" ?
The monsoons in India are primarily (a) A Child under the age of five who has low
affected and controlled by jet streams. weight for their height, reflecting acute
Statement 2 : undernutrition.
The subtropical westerly jet streams (b) A Child under the age of five who has low
blowing over India in winter cause high
height for their age, reflecting chronic
pressure over northern India, intensifying
undernutrition.
the northeast monsoons.
(c) A Child who dies before their fifth
Statement 3 :
birthday, partly reflecting the fatal mix of
The reversal in upper air circulation
inadequate nutrition and unhealthy
during summers leads to the development
environments.
of an easterly cold jet stream, which helps
(d) A Child under the age of five who has
in the sudden onset of monsoons.
Which of the statements given above are insufficient caloric intake.

correct ?
(a) Both Statement 2 and Statement 3 are 73. With reference to the world geomorphic
correct, and both of them explain features, “Lake Toba”, “Crater Lake”, and
Statement 1 “Malheur Lake” are the names of
(b) Both Statement 2 and Statement 3 are (a) Meteorite Lakes
correct, but only one of them explains (b) Tectonic Lakes
Statement 1 (c) Glacial Lakes
(c) Both Statement 2 and Statement 3 are (d) Volcanic Lakes
correct, but none of them explains
Statement 1 74. Consider the following pairs :
(d) Neither Statement 2 nor Statement 3 is
Drainage Waterbodies
correct.
Patterns
1. Centripetal - Rivers of
71. Consider the following statements :
Chotanagpur Plateau
1. The Gulf Stream Ocean current originates
2. Radial - Loktak Lake
near the equator.
3. Parallel - Rivers of Amarkantak
2. The Labrador ocean current moves from
Plateau
higher latitudes to lower latitudes.
3. The areas where a warm and cold current 4. Dendritic - Rivers of Northern

meets experience foggy weather. Plains

How many of the statements given above How many of the above-given pairs are
is/are not correct ? correctly matched ?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) Only three
(d) None (d) All four

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75. Which of the following statements is not 78. Consider the following :
correct in the formation of dew ? 1. Convectional Rainfall
(a) Dew is formed by condensation of 2. Orographic Rainfall
atmospheric moisture on or near the 3. Cyclonic Rainfall
ground surface.
How many of the rainfall types above are
(b) Dew formation can be found when there is
common in the equatorial regions and interior
less relative humidity
parts of the continents ?
(c) The Dew point temperature is higher than
(a) Only one
the freezing point.
(b) Only two
(d) None of the above.
(c) All three

76. Which one of the following best describes the (d) None

concept of ‘Nazool land’ ?

(a) A large cultivable land given to many 79. Consider the following statements :
people uprooted from their countries due Statement 1 :
to war. The roaring forties are prevailing winds
(b) Land given by any company to a group of between 40° and 50° latitudes, which are
small farmers for its manufacturing and
stronger in the Southern Hemisphere than
commercial production.
in the Northern Hemisphere.
(c) Land owned by the government but most
Statement 2 :
often not directly administered as state
There is a presence of large land masses in
property.
the Northern hemisphere, which obstructs
(d) Land which is legally entitled to the
coparcenary form of ownership among the airstream than the Southern

members of Hindu Undivided Families. hemisphere.

Which one of the following is correct in respect
77. Arrange the soils mentioned below in the of the above statements ?
increasing order of their fertility in india using (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
the codes given below : correct, and Statement II is the correct
1. Alluvial Soil
explanation of Statement I
2. Black Soil
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
3. Red Soil
correct, but Statement II is not the correct
4. Laterite Soil
explanation of Statement I
Codes :
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
(a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4
incorrect
(b) 1 - 3 - 2 - 4
(c) 3 - 4 - 2 - 1 (d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II

(d) 4 - 3 - 2 - 1 is correct

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80. Consider the following Pairs : Select the correct answer using the codes
Particularly State given below :
Vulnerable Tribal
(a) 1 and 2 only
Groups (PVTGs)
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
1. Maram Naga - Nagaland
(c) 3 and 4 only
2. Saharia - Rajasthan
3. Raing - Tripura (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

4. Kolam - Andhra Pradesh

How many of the pairs given above are 83. Which of the following statements is correct
correctly matched ? regarding the vertical distribution of salinity in
(a) Only one
the oceans ?
(b) Only two
(a) Increase in salinity with increasing depth
(c) Only three
at the equator.
(d) All four
(b) Decrease in salinity with increasing depth

81. Consider the following statements : at the higher latitudes and near the

1. The temperature of the atmosphere tropics.

generally decreases with increasing (c) Increase in salinity with increasing depth
altitude.
at the equator and near the tropics.
2. The density of the atmospheric layers
(d) Increase in salinity with increasing depth
decreases with increasing altitude.
near the poles.
Which of the above statements is/are not
correct ?
(a) 1 only 84. Which of the following organisms is/are
(b) 2 only known to brumate ?
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. Snakes
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Polar bear

3. Box turtle
82. Which of the following are correct regarding
4. Alligator
the objectives of the Deep Ocean Mission :
1. To identify potential multi-metal 5. Desert bat

hydrothermal sulphide mineralisation sites Select the correct answer using the code given
along the Indian Ocean mid-oceanic below :
ridges. (a) 2 and 5 only
2. To extract polymetallic nodules (PMN) from
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
the Central Indian Ocean Basin.
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
3. To conserve deep-sea biodiversity.
(d) 4 only
4. To enhance aquaculture production.
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85. Consider the following statements : 87. Which of the following conditions favour the

1. The temperature at the tropopause formation of tropical cyclones ?

decreases from the equator towards the 1. Warm sea surface temperature not more

poles. than 27 degrees Celsius, a depth of about

2. The height of the tropopause is greater 150 ft.

over the equator than over the poles. 2. Presence of Coriolis force that acts

Which of the above statements is/are correct ? perpendicular to the Pressure gradient

force
(a) 1 only
3. Regions slightly away from the equator.
(b) 2 only
4. Low values of vertical wind shear between
(c) Both 1 and 2
the surface and the upper troposphere.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the codes

given below :
86. Consider the following statements :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Statement-I :
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
The equator receives a lesser level of
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
insolation compared to the tropics.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Statement-II :

Minimal cloud cover contributes to high

88. Consider the following statements regarding
levels of insolation.
High-Altitude Pseudo Satellite (HAPS) :
Which of the following is correct in respect of
1. HAPS are unmanned aerial vehicles that
the above statements ? fly in the stratosphere.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. HAPS are more flexible than satellites in
correct and Statement-II is the correct their ability to map places and can be used
explanation for Statement-I. for surveillance.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 3. Only jet fuel is used to power HAPS.

correct and Statement-II is not the correct How many of the above statements is/are

explanation for Statement-I. correct ?

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (a) Only one

incorrect. (b) Only two

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is (c) All three

correct. (d) None

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89. Consider the following statements : 91. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Statement I : answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I List-II
The diurnal range of temperature in the
(Plateau) (Plateau Type)
deserts is always high.
A. Tibetan 1. Continental
Statement II : Plateau Plateau
The temperature range is high due to B. Malwa 2. Intermontane
intense insolation during the day and Plateau Plateau
C. Deccan 3. Piedmont
rapid heat loss in the evening.
Plateau Plateau
Which one of the following is correct in respect
Codes :
of the above statements ? (a) A-1; B-2; C-3
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are (b) A-2; B-3; C-1

correct, and Statement II is the correct (c) A-2; B-1; C-3

(d) A-3; B-2; C-1
explanation of Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
92. Which of the following is the primary objective
correct, but Statement II is not the correct of the "Make in India" initiative in the defence
explanation of Statement I sector ?

(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is (a) To establish a secure and reliable optical
fibre cable (OFC) based network in India
incorrect
(b) To reduce India's dependence on defence
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
imports by promoting Indigenous
is correct production
(c) To expand India's military presence in

90. Consider the following statements with respect international waters

(d) To develop advanced nuclear weapons
to Young Rocks :
technology
1. They are found along the boundary of the
South American plate. 93. Consider the following :
2. They are formed by the process of Seafloor 1. The river rises near Mhow in the Malwa

Spreading. Plateau.
2. Famous for Badlands Topography called
3. These rocks are igneous and granitic in
Ravines
nature. 3. Kota barrage is constructed across this
Which of the statements given above are river
correct ? Which of the following rivers is described
above ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) River Luni
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) River Chambal
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) River Betwa
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) River Rihand

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94. Consider the following statements : Select the correct answer using the code given

1. The Chikmagalur hill in Karnataka is below :

known as the birthplace of coffee (a) Only two

plantations in India. (b) Only three

2. The famous Kumbakonam Degree Coffee is (c) Only four

said to be pure Arabica without being (d) All five

mixed with chicory. 97. Recently, West African countries such as

Which of the above statements is/ are correct? Burkina Faso, Mali and Niger have been in

(a) 1 Only news related to ?

(a) Certified as malaria-free by the World
(b) 2 Only
Health Organization.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Outbreak of Mpox
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Discovery of a Large Petroleum Reserve
(d) Withdrawal from the West African bloc
95. Consider the following :
ECOWAS
1. Denmark
98. Consider the following pairs :
2. Latvia
Seen in news Features
3. Iceland
1. Mount - An active volcano
4. Poland
Lewotobi Laki- in Indonesia
5. Norway
Laki
6. Sweden
2. Krizna Jama - The fourth-biggest
How many of the countries mentioned above
underground
are members of Nordic-Baltic cooperation ?
ecosystem in the
(a) Only three
world
(b) Only four
3. Kyanjin Lake - Glacial Lake in
(c) Only five
Nepal
(d) All six 4. Maori haka - War dance of the
Indigenous people
96. How many of the following countries border in New Zealand
the Red Sea ? How many of the above-given pairs are
1. Yemen correct?
2. South Sudan (a) Only one
3. Saudi Arabia (b) Only two
4. Djibouti (c) Only three
5. Ethiopia (d) All four

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99. Consider the following statements regarding

India's mineral resources :
1. India is the leading global producer of
mica.
2. India holds significant bauxite reserves,
mainly concentrated on Odisha and
Andhra Pradesh.
3. Madhya Pradesh is the leading state in
India in the production of copper.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

100. Recently, at which place did the

Government of India inaugurate the first all-
girls Sainik School ?
(a) Satara
(b) Mathura
(c) Pune
(d) Ajmer

*****

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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

PRESTORMINGTM
Test Booklet Series
TEST BOOKLET
T.B.C : P-SIA-A-GS
GENERAL STUDIES - PAPER – I
Serial : P-GSI-242503
ECONOMICS
TEST – 03
A
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with
your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE A PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.66) of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as a penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be the same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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1. With respect to Monetary Aggregates, consider Which of the statements given above is/are
the following statements : correct ?
1. Reserve money will decrease if there is (a) 1 only
more currency in circulation. (b) 1 and 3 only

2. Broad money includes borrowings from (c) 2 only

Non-depository financial corporations by (d) 3 only

the banking system.

4. Consider the following statements with respect
Which of the statements given above is/are
to India’s first indigenously developed
correct ?
hydrogen
(a) 1 only
fuel cell ferry boat:
(b) 2 only
1. It is jointly developed by the Council for
(c) Both 1 and 2
Scientific and Industrial Research and the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Inland Waterways Authority of India.
2. It emits no noise, produces no emissions,
2. Consider the following statements : and releases no pollutants.
1. Currency with the public 3. The hydrogen fuel cells used in this ferry
2. Current deposits with the banking system boat do not require recharging.
3. Term deposits with the banking system How many of the statements given above are
4. Other deposits with the RBI correct?
Which of those mentioned above are included (a) Only one
in calculating the Narrow Money (M1) ? (b) Only two
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) All three

(b) 1 and 2 only (d) None

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

5. With reference to the budget management
(d) 2 and 4 only
principles of the government, consider the
following statements :
3. With respect to the 15th Finance Commission
1. Effective revenue deficit is calculated by
recommendations, consider the following
adding the grants provided to states for the
statements :
creation of capital assets to revenue deficit.
1. It is recommended that the centre and
2. Primary deficit will become zero when
states bring down the fiscal deficit to 4% of
fiscal deficit becomes equal to the interest
GDP by 2025-26.
payments.
2. It recommends adopting a new cost- Which of the statements given above are
sharing pattern for disaster management correct ?
funds between the centre and the states. (a) 1 only
3. The total grant allocated for rural local (b) 2 only
bodies is more than that of urban local (c) Both 1 and 2
bodies. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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6. Consider the following statements : Which of the statements given above are
Statement-I : correct?
The central government's fiscal deficit has (a) 1 only
reduced from 6.4% of GDP in 2022-23 to (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
5.6% in 2023-24.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement-II :
In 2023-24, the central government
9. Consider the following statements with
witnessed strong growth in direct and
reference to the ‘Financial Stability and
indirect tax collections and restrained Development Council’:
revenue expenditure. 1. The council was set up by the Government
Which one of the following is correct in respect as an organ of NITI Aayog.
of the above statements ? 2. The Chairman of the Council is the finance
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are minister, and its members include the
correct, and Statement-II explains heads of financial sector regulators.

Statement-I. 3. The council focusses on financial literacy

and financial inclusion among other areas.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Which of the statements given above is/ are
correct, but Statement-II does explain.
correct?
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
(a) 1 and 2 only
incorrect. (b) 3 Only
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II (c) 2 and 3 only
is correct. (d) 1, 2 and 3

7. Consider the following : 10. Consider the following statements :

1. Decrease in merchandise trade deficit Statement 1 :
2. Increase in net services exports Inflation targeting enhances the
transparency of the central bank’s
3. Increase in remittances
credibility and accountability.
How many of the conditions mentioned above
Statement 2 :
can lead to an increase in the current account
Inflation targeting is a monetary policy
deficit ?
framework that commits the central bank
(a) Only one to achieve inflation at the desired level.
(b) Only two Which one of the following is correct in respect
(c) All three of the above statements ?
(d) None (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct, and Statement II is the correct
8. Consider the following statements with respect explanation of Statement I
to “Melanochlamys droupadi”: (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct, but Statement II is not the correct
1. It is Gonochoric invertebrate species found
explanation of Statement I
along the coasts of West Bengal and
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
Odisha.
incorrect
2. They are brownish-black in colour, with (d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
shells present inside the body. is correct
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11. With respect to the Consumer Price Index- 13. Consider the following statements :

Industrial Worker (IW), consider the following 1. Headline inflation is the measure of total
inflation in an economy.
statements :
2. In India, the Wholesale Price Index is used
1. The index measures the change in the
as a primary tool for measuring the
price of a commodity basket consumed by
headline inflation.
industrial workers. 3. In India, during the FY 2023, headline
2. The base year for calculating CPI-IW is inflation was primarily influenced by
2001, which is released by the Labour higher food inflation.

Bureau on a monthly basis. Which of the statements given above are

correct ?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only
correct ?
(b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 14. Which of the following is the effect on the Net
National Product when the Net Factor Income
from Abroad is zero ?
12. Consider the following pairs :
(a) Net National Product will be more than Net
Stage of
Domestic Product
Nuclear Reactors to be
(b) Net National Product will be less than Net
Programme Used Domestic Product
of India (c) Net National Product will be equal to Net

1. First Stage A. Pressurised Heavy Domestic Product

(d) Net National Product will also be zero.
Water Reactors

2. Second B. Fast Breed Reactors

15. Consider the following statements :
Stage
1. They are non-excludable goods.
3. Third Stage C. Advanced Heavy 2. They are limited in supply.
Water Reactors 3. They have to be purchased before they can
How many of the pairs given above are be consumed.

correctly matched? Which of the statements given above are

characteristics of public goods?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two
(b) 2 only
(c) All three
(c) 3 only
(d) None (d) 1 and 2 only
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16. Consider the following: 5. Brokerage paid for the transfer of shares in
1. Bangladesh stock investment
2. Bhutan 6. Transfer payments
3. India How many of the items mentioned above will
4. Pakistan be considered for the calculation of Gross
5. Afghanistan Domestic Product by the Expenditure Method?
6. Maldives (a) Only three
How many of the countries mentioned above (b) Only four
are members of the South Asia Subregional (c) Only five
Economic Cooperation (SASEC) program? (d) All six
(a) Only three
(b) Only four 19. With respect to Planetary pressure adjusted
(c) Only five
Human Development Index (PHDI), consider
(d) All six
the following statements :
1. The PHDI is an experimental index that
17. Consider the following statements with respect
adjusts the Human Development Index
to capital goods :
(HDI) for CO2 emission per capita and
1. Despite being used in the production
material footprint per capita factor.
process, they don’t get transformed in the
2. India’s per capita carbon emission and
production process.
material footprint are well below the global
2. They are final goods, but they are not
average.
intended for ultimate consumption.
Which of the statements given above is/are
3. They gradually undergo wear and tear, and
correct ?
thus, they should be replaced over time.
(a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above are
(b) 2 only
correct ?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 20. Consider the following statements:
1. Soybean is a leguminous plant native to

18. Consider the following : Northern China.

1. Consumer expenditure on the purchase of 2. India is the Second largest producer of

durable goods Soyabean in the world after China.

2. Consumer expenditure on the purchase of Which of the statements given above is/are
non-durable goods correct?
3. Public investments made by the (a) 1 only
government (b) 2 only
4. Expenditure on the purchase of second- (c) Both 1 and 2
hand goods (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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21. With respect to Payment Banks, consider the 23. Which of the following options correctly
following statements :
explains the term “Capital Deepening?”
1. They can participate in the collateralised
borrowing and lending obligation market (a) It defines a trickledown effect of capital

as both borrower and lender. investment in an economy.

2. They can invest in a bank’s Certificate of
(b) It is a situation where capital investment is
Deposits (CDs).
3. They can accept demand deposits in the reduced.
form of savings and current accounts.
(c) It is the situation where capital stock is
4. They are not allowed to carry out foreign
exchange business activities as done by increasing at the same rate as the labour
commercial banks.
force.
Which of the statements given above are
correct ? (d) It is the situation where capital per labour

(a) 1 and 3 only is increasing in the economy.

(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only 24. Consider the following statements with

reference to the Parthenogenesis :

22. Consider the following statements with respect
to unclaimed deposits : 1. It is a reproductive strategy that involves

1. Unclaimed deposits are deposits held by a

the development of a female gamete
bank that have not been accessed or
without fertilisation.
claimed by the account holders for an
extended period. 2. This phenomenon is observed in certain
2. The depositors can reclaim the unclaimed
subspecies Honey Bees, where unmated
amount from the bank even after the
transfer to the Depositor Education and workers can lay eggs that develop into
Awareness Fund.
females.
3. Through the UDGAM portal, the
unclaimed deposits can be claimed only Which of the statements given above is/are

from the respective bank. correct?

How many of the statements given above are
(a) 1 only
correct ?
(a) Only one (b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) All three
(d) None (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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25. Consider the following statements with respect 27. Which of the following is a likely economic

to Liberalised Remittance Scheme : impact of the appreciation of the Indian rupee

1. Under this Scheme, all resident in foreign markets ?

individuals in India are allowed to freely (a) Increased competitiveness of Indian

exports in global markets
remit up to $2,50,000 per financial year
(b) Reduction in the cost of servicing external
for any permissible current or capital
debt denominated in foreign currencies
account transactions.
(c) Increase in remittance inflows from
2. The remittances can be made only in US
Indians working abroad
Dollars.
(d) Higher inflation due to rising import costs
3. Remittances for trading in foreign

exchange abroad are prohibited under the

28. ‘The 'Phani Yerava' tribe has recently seen in
scheme. the news belong to the state of :
How many of the statements given above (a) Arunachal Pradesh
is/are not correct ? (b) Chattisgarh

(a) Only one (c) Odhisa

(b) Only two (d) Karnataka

(c) All three

(d) None 29. Consider the following statements regarding

the “Interest Coverage Ratio” of a firm in India:

1. It is a debt and profitability ratio that
26. Consider the following statements regarding
shows how easily a company can pay
Non-callable fixed deposit :
interest on its outstanding debt.
1. Non-callable fixed deposits are those which
2. It helps the investors to determine a
have a predetermined lock-in period.
company's riskiness for future borrowing.
2. In these fixed deposits, the account holder
3. The higher Interest Coverage Ratio means
can withdraw some or the entire deposited
the company's current earnings are
amount by paying some amount as a insufficient to service its outstanding debt.
penalty to the banks. Select the correct answer using the code given
Which of the above statements is/are correct ? below:
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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30. Consider the following : How many of the statements given above are
1. Foreign Currency Assets correct?
2. Gold (a) Only one
(b) Only two
3. Reserve Tranche Position in IMF
(c) All three
4. Special Drawing Rights
(d) None
How many of the Forex Reserves of India
mentioned above saw a decline in value in FY
33. Consider the following :
2023-24 compared to FY 2022-23? 1. The commodity should have a relatively
(a) Only one large demand and supply
(b) Only two 2. Prices of the commodity should be
(c) Only three adequately volatile
(d) None 3. The commodity should be free from
substantial control from Government
regulations in terms of supply, distribution
31. Consider the following statements :
and prices
1. The Government of India has brought all
4. The commodity should be capable of
transactions involving Virtual Digital
standardisation
Assets, such as crypto assets, under the 5. The commodity should have long shelf-life
Prevention of Money Laundering Act. How many of the requirements mentioned
2. In India, the crypto asset service providers above must a commodity fulfil to be notified by
should register with the Financial the Central Government for commodity
Intelligence Unit as reporting entities. derivative trading ?

Which of the statements given above is/are (a) Only two

(b) Only three
not correct ?
(c) Only four
(a) 1 only
(d) All five
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 34. With reference to the financing of a company
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 to raise its capital needs, which of the
following statements is/are correct ?
32. Consider the following statements regarding 1. Debt financing involves selling of
Aflatoxins : company’s shares in return for capital.

1. They are toxins produced by bacteria that 2. Equity financing places no obligation to
are found in agricultural crops such as repay the money acquired from investor in
maise and peanuts. case of business failure.
2. They are associated with an increased risk Select the correct answer using the codes
of liver cancer in humans. given below :
3. Natural cell wall thickening has been (a) 1 only
developed as a natural defence mechanism (b) 2 only
in some varieties of peanuts against this (c) Both 1 and 2
infection. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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35. With reference to the Indian economy, Which of the statements given above is/are
consider the following statements : correct ?
1. Rising interest rates typically cause
(a) 1 only
downward pressure on stock prices.
2. A stock market crash can result in a bear (b) 2 and 3 only
market. (c) 2 only
3. A fall in the stock market might cause a
(d) 1 and 3 only
recession.
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct ? 38. Consider the following statements with
(a) Only one reference to convertible debentures :
(b) Only two
1. It is a type of unsecured long-term debt.
(c) All three
(d) None 2. It is issued by a private company.

3. It is provided with no underlying collateral.

36. Consider the following statements with respect
4. It pays regular interest payments to
to the National Organ and Tissue Transplant
bondholders.
Organization (NOTTO):
1. It is a statutory body. How many of the above statements is/are
2. It is set up under the Directorate General correct?
of Health Services, Ministry of Health and
(a) Only one
Family Welfare.
3. National Human Organ and Tissue (b) Only two

Removal and Storage Network is a division (c) Only three

of NOTTO. (d) All four
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) Only one 39. Consider the following :
(b) Only two 1. Collateralized Borrowing and Lending
(c) All three
Obligations
(d) None
2. Call Money

37. With reference to Masala Bonds, consider the 3. Cash management bills
following statements : 4. Government Bond
1. Masala Bonds are issued by Indian
Which of the given above is/are included in
companies in foreign countries
denominated with foreign currency. capital markets ?

2. It allows investors outside India to invest (a) 1 only

in Indian assets where the currency risk is (b) 1 and 2 only
borne by the investor.
(c) 3 only
3. Indian companies can raise money at
lower interest rates in foreign countries. (d) 4 only

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40. Consider the following statements: 42. Consider the following statements :

1. Lal Kot, established by the Tomar Rajputs, 1. In India, the Ministry of Statistics has the

responsibility to disseminate Balance of

was the first fortification in Delhi.
Payments data.
2. Quwwat-ul-Islam, built by Iltutmish, was
2. India has consistently witnessed a current
the first mosque of India.
account surplus since the year 2022.
3. The tomb of Maulana Jamali, a sixteenth-
3. Special Drawing Rights helps the member
century Sufi saint, was built in Mehrauli. nations of International Monetary Fund to

Which of the statements given above are address Balance of Payment issues

correct? How many of the statements given above

is/are not correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Only one
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) Only two
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) All three
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None

41. Which of the following is/are the potential 43. With reference to the External Commercial

Borrowings (ECBs), consider the following

benefits of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)
statements :
flow into India?
1. ECBs are loans that Indian scheduled
1. Reduction in unemployment
banks take from non-resident entities with
2. Increase in technology transfer
some end-use restrictions.
3. Integration of Indian companies into global 2. The services sector accounts for the

value chains majority share in India’s total external

4. Boost to domestic manufacturing sector commercial borrowing (ECB) inflows in

FY24.
Select the correct answer using the code given
Which of the statements given above is/are
below :
correct ?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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44. Consider the following pairs: 46. Which of the following is the possible cause of
Women Contributions negative growth in an economy ?
(a) Increase in labour force and human capital
personalities
(b) Contraction of money supply
1. Begum Aizaz - Presented the first
(c) Lower unemployment
Rasul national flag on
(d) Increase in the company's sales or
behalf of the women earnings
of India on August
15, 1947 47. Which of the following may happen when the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) increases the Repo
2. Dakshayani - First and only Dalit
rate ?
Velayutham woman to be elected
(a) Decrease in Fixed Deposit interest rates
to the Constituent
(b) Reducing the borrowing power of the
Assembly in 1946 commercial banks
3. Annie - First woman to hold (c) Increase in inflation in an economy
Mascarene a ministerial and (d) Decrease in interest payment obligation of
borrower
legislative assembly
position in Travancore
48. The ‘90-70-90’ targets by 2030 outlined by the
How many of the above pairs are correctly
World Health Organisation are related to:
matched? (a) Monkeypox
(a) Only one (b) Chandipura virus
(b) Only two (c) Cervical cancer
(d) Tuberculosis
(c) All three
(d) None
49. Consider the following statements with respect
to the Gender Inequality Index (GII) :
45. Which of the following helps sustain 1. GII reflects gender-based disadvantage in
investment inflow into India ? three dimensions— reproductive health,
1. Complex rules and regulations empowerment and the labour market.
2. It ranges from 0 to 1, where 1 indicates
2. Availability of skilled workforce
equal performance between women and
3. Uncertainty about political stability
men.
4. Lack of dispute resolution mechanisms
3. India's position in the GII has shown a
5. Ease of repatriation consistent improvement over the last five
Select the correct answer using the code given years.
below : Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 5 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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50. Consider the following statements with respect 52. With reference to acts related to pornography
in India, consider the following statements:
to the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC):
1. The Protection of Children from Sexual
1. It is a six-member body constituted by the Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012 explicitly
Governor of the Reserve Bank of India. criminalises the possession of child
pornography.
2. The MPC establishes the policy repo rate to
2. According to Section 67-B of the IT Act, all
meet the inflation target. kinds of acts about child pornography,
3. The MPC is required to meet at least four including watching child pornography, are
punishable offences.
times a year.
3. There is no provision in law that prohibits
How many of the statements given above viewing pornography privately.
Which of the statements given above is/are
is/are correct ?
correct?
(a) Only one (a) 1 only
(b) Only two (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) All three
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
53. Consider the following entities :
1. Housing Finance Companies
51. Consider the following statements with respect
2. Venture Capital Funds
to the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural 3. Insurance companies

Development (NABARD) : 4. Chit fund companies

Which of the entities mentioned above are
1. NABARD can provide both short-term and
regulated by the Reserve Bank of India ?
long-term agricultural credit through (a) 1 only

Regional Rural Banks. (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
2. NABARD is entrusted with the regulatory
(d) None
powers of State Cooperative Banks,
54. Consider the following statements :
District Central Cooperative Banks and
1. Issuance of special securities to public-
Regional Rural Banks. sector banks
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Securities against small savings
3. State provident funds
correct ?
How many of those mentioned above are Debt-
(a) 1 only creating capital receipts?
(b) 2 only (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) All three
(d) Neither 1 and 2 (d) None

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55. With reference to the Goods and Services Tax 58. Consider the following statements :
(GST), consider the following statements : 1. The change in tax revenue relative to gross

1. It reduces the cascading effect of taxes domestic product is tax elasticity, while
the change in tax revenue relative to the
2. It aims to add to end-consumer tax burden
change in the tax rate is tax buoyancy.
3. It promotes transparency in the tax system
2. A high tax elasticity is favourable for the
4. It follows a 4-tier tax structure.
economy as it allows growth in expenditure
How many of the above statements is/are
that could lead to development.
correct ?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Only one correct ?
(b) Only two (a) 1 only
(c) Only three (b) 2 only
(d) All four (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

56. Which of the following physical phenomena is

59. With reference to the Ways and Means
related to the churning of Earth's ocean every
Advances (WMA), consider the following
2.4 million years, caused by Mars and
statements :
contributes to global warming?
1. WMA helps to monetise the fiscal deficit of
(a) Diffraction
governments.
(b) Cosmic inflation 2. WMA is a long-term interest-bearing
(c) Entropy advance to the government.
(d) Resonance 3. The Reserve Bank of India is authorised to
fix the WMA borrowing limit for

57. Which of the following are taxes that come Government of India.
How many of the statements given above
under the Centre’s fiscal powers in the
is/are correct ?
seventh schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Only one
1. Customs duty
(b) Only two
2. Tax on the sale of electricity
(c) All three
3. Tax on newspaper advertisements
(d) None
4. Tax on agricultural income
Select the correct answer using the code given
60. The term ‘Bugun Liocichla’ recently seen in
below :
the news is a :
(a) Only one
(a) Tribe
(b) Only two (b) Bird
(c) Only three (c) Medicinal plant
(d) All four (d) Folk dance

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61. Consider the following information : 63. At present, the Indian rupee is partially
convertible. Which of the following may be the
Receipt Type of
advantages of making the Indian rupee into a
Receipt fully convertible currency ?
1. Treasury bills Debt-creating 1. High volatility
2. Access to foreign capital
issued to banks capital receipt
3. Outward investments
2. Interest receipts Non-debt 4. Ease business transactions
from loans to state creating Select the correct answer using the codes
given below :
governments capital receipt
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. Income tax Tax revenue (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
receipt
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. Disinvestment Debt-creating

receipts capital receipt 64. With reference to INS Jatayu naval base,
consider the following statements:
Which of the pairs given above are not
1. The naval base is located in Kavaratti
correctly matched ? island of Lakshadweep .
(a) 2 and 4 only 2. It is the first naval base in Lakshadweep.
3. The Nine Degree channel separates the
(b) 1 and 3 only
islands of Minicoy and Maldives.
(c) 2 and 3 only How many of the above statements is/are not

(d) 1 and 3 only correct?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
62. Which of the following could be reasons for (c) All three
(d) None
demand-pull inflation ?

1. Increase in people’s income 65. With respect to Foreign Direct Investment

2. Increase in cost of inputs during the year 2023-24, consider the
following statements :
3. Decrease in money supply
1. The total FDI inflow into India is more
4. Change in people’s preferences than the FDI equity inflow for the same

How many of the above statements is/are not period.

2. India's service sector attracted the highest
correct ?
FDI equity inflow during 2023-24.
(a) Only one Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two
(b) 2 only
(c) Only three (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) All four (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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66. Consider the following indices : 69. Which of the following statements is/are
1. Multidimensional Poverty Index correct regarding the T+0 Settlement
2. Gender Development Index
introduced by SEBI ?
3. Inequality-adjusted Human Development
1. It is a trading mechanism that credits the
Index.
4. Gender Inequality Index share or sale proceeds to a bank account

How many of the above indices is/are included on the day after the transaction.
in Human Development Composite Indices ? 2. It reduces transactional risks and
(a) Only one
enhances market efficiency by providing
(b) Only two
immediate liquidity to investors.
(c) Only three
Select the correct answer using the codes
(d) All four
given below :
67. Which of the following best describes about (a) 1 only
Cost Inflation Index ? (b) 2 only
(a) It measures the inflation-adjusted cost of a
(c) Both 1 and 2
long-term capital asset.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) It measures the average change over time
in the selling prices received by domestic
producers for their output. 70. Consider the following statements regarding
(c) It measures change over time in the prices the mobile application “Mobile Aided Note
paid by consumers for a representative
Identifier (MANI)” :
basket of goods and services.
1. Checks the genuineness of Indian
(d) It measures inflation in goods at the
wholesale level banknotes.

2. Developed by the National Payment

68. Located in the Shivalik hills of the Himalayas, Corporation of India (NPCI)
this pre-independence established national
3. Aids visually impaired persons to identify
park was one of the first to be included in
the denomination of Indian banknotes
Project Tiger. It was once named Ramganga
National Park as the river Ramganga flows 4. Does not require the internet and works in

through the park. This national park is also offline mode

known for Khair-Sissoo Forests and Chaurs Which of the above statements are not
grasslands. Which one of the following denotes correct?
this national park?
(a) 1 only
(a) Valley Of Flowers National Park
(b) 1 and 2 only
(b) Nanda Devi National Park
(c) Rajaji National Park (c) 3 and 4 only

(d) Jim Corbett National Park (d) 2 and 4 only

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71. Consider the following statements : 73. With respect to gender budgeting, consider the

1. The Gini coefficient determines a nation's following statements :

level of income inequality by measuring
1. Gender budgeting is a tool to address
the income distribution across its
gender inequality which took a definite
population.

2. In India, the Gini coefficient on taxable shape in the Seventh Five-Year Plan.

income has declined over the past decade 2. The share of allocations to pro-women
which indicates a situation of absolute schemes stands at approximately 6.8% of
inequality.
the total budget expenditure for 2024-25.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?

(a) 1 only correct ?

(b) 2 only (a) 1 only

(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

72. Consider the following statements about India-
EFTA Trade and Economic Partnership

Agreement (TEPA): 74. Consider the following :

1. Switzerland, Iceland, Norway and
1. Depreciation of the rupee leading to capital
Lithuania are known as European Free
flight
Trade Association (EFTA) countries.
2. Increase in aggregate demand in the
2. India had a trade surplus with EFTA
nations in Calendar year 2023. economy

3. Diversification of imports is one of the 3. Increase in inflation

benefits of TEPA.
How many of the above could be the possible
4. EFTA will increase both FDI and FPI
consequences of monetisation of deficit by the
investments.
RBI ?
Which of the statements given above is/are

correct? (a) Only one

(a) 1 only (b) Only two

(b) 3 only
(c) All three
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) None
(d) 2 and 3

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75. Consider the following statements with respect 78. Consider the following statements with respect
to Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) : to velocity of money :
1. It measures the amount of money the
1. CBDC is issued in the same
banks create with a given amount of
denominations that fiat currency is
reserves.
currently issued.
2. It is higher in expanding economies and
2. Deposits held in banks can be converted lower in contracting economies.
into digital rupees. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Like deposits which pay interest, the correct ?
digital rupee in users’ wallets attracts (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
interest payments from the central bank.
(c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only 79. Consider the following :
(b) 3 only 1. Quantitative easing
(c) 1 only 2. Reduction in interest rates of bank
3. Increase in Cash Reserve Ratio
(d) 2 and 3 only
4. Increased lending by banks
5. Increased foreign investments
76. India’s first underwater metro transportation How many of the actions mentioned above can
tunnel passes below which river? lead to increased money supply in the
(a) Hooghly economy ?
(b) Kaveri (a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Yamuna
(c) Only four
(d) Godavari
(d) All five

77. Consider the following statements : 80. Consider the following information:
1. In India, RBI has the sole right to issue Disease Type of Symptom/Conse
banknotes. Infection quence
1. Measles Bacterial Complications
2. In India, all legal tenders are issued by
like blindness
RBI.
2. Rubella Viral Miscarriage and
3. In India, the maximum denomination birth defects
value of the currency note allowed is two 3. Sickle Genetic Blood clots
thousand rupees. Cell blood
How many of the statements given above Anaemia disorder
In which of the above given rows the
is/are correct ?
information’s are correctly matched ?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Only two (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) All three (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None (d) 1, 2 and 3
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81. Consider the following : Which of the above are included under the
1. Maharashtra capital account of Balance of Payments (BoP)?
2. Karnataka (a) 1 and 3 only
3. Gujarat (b) 1 and 2 only
4. Tamil Nadu (c) 2 and 3 only
Arrange the states given above in the (d) 1 and 4 only
ascending order of FDI Equity Inflow during
FY 2023-24 using the codes given below : 84. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4
major ports of India:
(b) 2 - 1 - 4 - 3
1. Deendayal Port is the highest cargo
(c) 3 - 1 - 2 - 4
handling major port of India in FY 2023-
(d) 4 - 3 - 2 - 1
24.
2. Paradip Port is the only major port of
82. With reference to core inflation, consider the
Odisha and it is managed by the State
following statements :
government.
1. Core inflation measures inflation,
3. V.O. Chidambaranar Port along with
excluding categories of food and fuel.
Paradip Port and Deendayal Port will be
2. Core inflation helps to know the long-term
developed as Green Hydrogen Hub ports.
price movement of an economy.
How many of the above statements is/are
3. The Reserve Bank of India sets core
correct?
inflation targets while formulating India’s
monetary policy. (a) Only one

Which of the statements given above is/are (b) Only two

correct ? (c) All three

(a) 1 only (d) None

(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 85. Consider the following :
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Increase in imports
2. Increase in rate of interest by RBI
83. Consider the following : 3. Increase in crude oil prices
1. Public-sector loans received from abroad How many of the conditions mentioned above
2. Investments made by NRI in the real estate can lead to the depreciation of the Indian
of their home country Rupee?
3. Donations made by an NRI to a resident of (a) Only one
the home country (b) Only two
4. Profits on investments received by the
(c) All three
resident from abroad
(d) None

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86. Consider the following statements : 88. Consider the following information:
GI- State Description
1. Consumer Price Index (CPI) released by the
tagged
Ministry of Statistics & Programme
Product
Implementation is the primary indicator of 1. Pachra- Tripura Traditional

inflation in India since 2014. Rignai dress

2. Jaapi Manipur Bamboo
2. Year-on-year inflation rate based on the All
headgear
India CPI has been steadily increasing over 3. Banaras Uttarakhand A drink
the last decade. Thandai made with
milk, nuts,
Which of the statements given above is/are
seeds, and
correct ?
spices.
(a) 1 only 4. Larnai Meghalaya Black Pottery

(b) 2 only Pottery

In which of the above rows is given
(c) Both 1 and 2
information incorrectly matched?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
87. Which of the following statements is correct
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
regarding Tokenization that was seen

sometimes in the news ? 89. Under the pursuit of ‘Viksit Bharat’ in the

(a) It is a one-time payment mechanism that Union Budget 2024-25, which of the following
schemes are in the budget priorities ?
allows you to redeem the e-voucher
1. Pradhan Mantri Janjatiya Unnat Gram
without a card, digital payments app or Abhiyan

internet banking access. 2. Pradhan Mantri Surya Ghar Muft Bijli

Yojana
(b) It involves the replacement of actual card
3. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
details with an alternate code.
4. PM SVANidhi Scheme
(c) It is the technology used in the digital Select the correct answer using the codes

rupee. given below :

(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) It is a seamless flow of digital information,
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
including land records, from multiple data (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

service providers to lenders. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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90. Consider the following : 93. Which of the following statements is not
1. Foreign Direct Investment correct regarding Capital Adequacy Ratio
2. Foreign Portfolio Investment
(CAR) ?
Which of the investment channels mentioned
above can allow the flow of hot money into the (a) Capital Adequacy Ratio is the ratio of a

economy? bank’s capital to its risk-weighted assets.

(a) 1 only (b) Risk-weighted assets determine the
(b) 2 only
minimum capital held by banks and other
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 institutions to reduce the risk of

insolvency.
91. Consider the following : (c) The lower a bank's Capital Adequacy
1. Repo Rate
Ratio, the more likely the bank will be able
2. Open Market Operations
3. Marginal Standing Facility to withstand a financial downturn.

How many of the above mentioned (d) In India, the Reserve Bank of India
instruments is/are credit control mandates a Capital Adequacy Ratio for
instrument(s) of the monetary policy ?
scheduled commercial banks.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three 94. Consider the following statements :
(d) None 1. The balance of trade is surplus when the

export of goods and service of a country is

92. Consider the following statements with respect
to Agni Prime missile: more than its import.

1. It is a two-stage liquid propellant ballistic 2. The balance of trade records all economic
missile developed by DRDO. transactions, while the balance of payment
2. It is the lightest missile in the entire Agni
is the difference between the export and
series.
3. It is an intercontinental missile with a import of goods.

canister-launch system like an Agni-V Which of the statements given above is/are
missile. correct ?
How many of the above statements is/are
(a) 1 only
correct?
(a) Only one (b) 2 only

(b) Only two (c) Both 1 and 2

(c) All three (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) None
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95. In the context of Indian economy, consider the 97. With respect to Small Finance Banks, consider

following statements : the following statements :

1. Dumping of goods occurs when a country
1. They are regulated by the Reserve Bank of
exports its products at a lower price than
India.
its domestic price.
2. They can set up any subsidiaries to offer
2. Countervailing duty is levied on goods that

received government subsidies in the any non-banking financial services.

country of origin. 3. They do not accept demand deposits.

3. Individual exporters whose margin of
How many of the statements given above are
dumping is less than 2% of the export
correct ?
price shall be excluded from the purview of
(a) Only one
anti-dumping duties.

4. The countervailing measures in India are (b) Only two

administered by the Ministry of Commerce (c) All three

and Industry. (d) None
Which of the above statements are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

98. In the context of Indian economy, consider the
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only following statements :

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1. A non-performing asset is a loan or

advance for which the principal or interest

96. Which of the following correctly describes the
payment has been overdue for more than
Suvidha Portal?
90 days.
(a) It is a platform to file RTI applications for
2. Bank recapitalization infuses more capital
the public authorities under the Central

Government. into banks that helps to resolve the issue

(b) It is a platform to access Electronic Health with non-performing assets.

Records for Central Government Health
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
Scheme (CGHS) beneficiaries
(a) 1 only
(c) It is a platform for political parties and
(b) 2 only
candidates to submit election permission

requests. (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) None of the above (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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99. Consider the following statements regarding

the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement

(DTAA) :

1. It is signed by two nations that encourage

capital investment and other economic

activities between the two nations.

2. DTAA offers tax exemptions and tax credits

in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are

not correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

100. Consider the following statements

regarding India's infrastructure development:

1. The Bharatmala Pariyojana aims to

enhance the efficiency of freight and

passenger movement across the country.

2. The Sagarmala Project focuses primarily

on improving port infrastructure and

connecting ports with hinterland areas.

3. The Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana

(PMGSY) enhances the upgradation of

existing rural road infrastructure.

How many of the statements given above are

correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None
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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

PRESTORMINGTM
Test Booklet Series
TEST BOOKLET
T.B.C : P-SIA-A-GS
GENERAL STUDIES - PAPER – I
Serial : P-GSI-242504
MODERN INDIA I
TEST – 04
A
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with
your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE A PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.66) of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as a penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be the same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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1. Consider the following statements : 4. The ‘Mount Erebus’, recently seen in the news
1. He introduced the study of Western for the raining of gold dust on earth, is located
on :
thought at Calcutta Sanskrit College.
(a) Antarctica
2. He was against all those who opposed
(b) Chile
reforms in the name of religion.
(c) San Marino
3. He was the author of the Bengali Primer (d) Madagascar
“Barnaparichay”.
Who is the social reformer that was described 5. Which of the following acts actually committed
above ? the East India Company to allow Christian
missionaries to carry on religious and
(a) Surendranath Banerjee
educational activities in India ?
(b) Keshab Chandra Sen
(a) Charter Act of 1793
(c) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (b) Charter Act of 1813
(d) David Harve (c) Charter Act of 1833
(d) Charter Act of 1853
2. Which one of the following is the correct
6. Consider the following :
chronological order of the battles fought in
1. Prarthana Samaj
India in the early 19th Century ?
2. Widow Remarriage Association
(a) Battle of Ramnagar - Battle of 3. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
Chillhanwala - Battle of Gujarat Mahadev Govind Ranade was associated with
(b) Battle of Chillhanwala – Battle of which of the associations mentioned above ?
Ramnagar – Battle of Gujarat (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Battle of Gujarat – Battle of Ramnagar –
(c) 2 and 3 only
Battle of Chillhanwala
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Battle of Gujarat – Battle of Chillhanwala –
Battle of Ramnagar 7. This movement based in East Bengal tried to
eradicate un-Islamic practices in the 19th
3. Consider the following : Century. It was highly organised, with a
khalifa at every level from village to province.
1. Nizam of Hyderabad
It organised a paramilitary force to fight the
2. Ruler of Mysore
Hindu and Muslim zamindars and indigo
3. Ruler of Tanjore planters of the region. The followers of this
4. Bhonsle Raja of Berar movement showed resistance through non-
5. Ruler of Bharatpur payment of rent to landlords. They also set up
How many of the above accepted Subsidiary their own law courts.
Which of the following movements
Alliance during the late 18th Century ?
corresponds to the content mentioned above ?
(a) Only two
(a) Wahabi Movement
(b) Only three (b) Aligarh Movement
(c) Only four (c) Deoband Movement
(d) All five (d) Faraizi Movement
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8. Which of the following international treaties How many of the statements given above are
serves as the foundational framework for the correct ?
Artemis Accords ? (a) Only one
(a) Antarctic Treaty of 1959 (b) Only two
(b) Moon Treaty of 1979 (c) All three
(c) Outer Space Treaty of 1967 (d) None
(d) Non-Proliferation Treaty of 1968

11. Which among the following events happened

9. Consider the following information :
earlier ?
S. Governor- Judiciary Reform
(a) Foundation of the Asiatic Society of Bengal
No General
(b) Permanent Settlement of Bengal
1. William - Supreme Court was
(c) First Railway line between Mumbai and
Bentinck established as per the
Thane
Regulating Act of
(d) Introduction of Doctrine of Lapse
1773
2. Cornwallis - Europeans were
brought under 12. Recently, for the first time, Shompen tribes, a

jurisdiction as per the particularly vulnerable tribal group, cast their

Cornwallis Code vote in the Lok Sabha elections. In which of

3. Warren - English language the following areas the tribes were inhabited ?
Hastings replaced Persian as (a) Great Nicobar Island
the official language (b) Andaman Island
in the Supreme Court (c) Tripura
How many of the pairs given above are (d) Mizoram
correctly matched ?
(a) Only one 13. Consider the following statements :
(b) Only two 1. Establishment of District Diwani Adalats
(c) All three and District Faujdari Adalats.
(d) None
2. Abolition of four Circuit courts and
transfer of their functions to the collectors.
10. With reference to the Mysore Kingdom in the
3. Language option was made to use as an
18th century, consider the following
official language in courts.
statements :
Which of the statements mentioned above
1. The Mysore Kingdom emerged out of
were the reforms made by Warren Hastings ?
the Mughal Empire under Hyder Ali.
(a) 1 only
2. Hyder Ali established a modern arsenal
(b) 2 and 3 only
with the help of the French at Dindigul.
(c) 1 and 3 only
3. The Treaty of Madras was signed after the
First Anglo-Mysore War. (d) 1, 2 and 3

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14. Consider the following incidences : 17. Consider the following :

1. Changes made by the British in the land “It was an Islamic revivalist movement which
revenue system.
aimed at the religious regeneration of the
2. Annexation of the Princely States and
Muslim community. It was against the
collapse of the erstwhile aristocracy.
3. Introduction of socio-religious reforms. functioning of the United Patriotic Association

4. Degraded economic status of Artisans and and the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental

handicraft men. Association. On the Political front, it welcomed
How many of the above were considered as the the formation of the Indian National
causes of the Revolt of 1857 ?
Congress.”
(a) Only one
The above passage describes about which of
(b) Only two
(c) Only three the following movement ?

(d) All four (a) Ahmadiyya Movement

(b) Wahabi Movement

15. In the later part of the 18th Century, the term
(c) Faraizi Movement
"Nabobs" was used to refer which of the
(d) Deobandi Movement
following ?
(a) The Weak Mughal Emperors who struggled
to retain their control 18. Consider the following statements with respect
(b) The Rich Landlords and Zamindars in to Civil Services during the colonial rule of
rural areas British:
(c) The Nizams and Nawabs who revolted
1. The Charter Act of 1853 abolished
against the British
patronage and introduced open
(d) The British Officials who returned from
India competition as a recruitment method.

2. The Indian Civil Service Act was passed in

16. Consider the following statements : 1861 based on the report of the Macaulay
1. Pulses are legume crops that increase
Committee.
soil's natural fertility through nitrogen
3. The Indian Civil Service Examination was
fixation.
held in Delhi in 1922 for the first time in
2. India is the world's biggest exporter of
pulses, as it contributes one-fifth of the India.
total production of pulses in the world. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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19. Consider the following statements with respect 22. Consider the following statements regarding
to the role of peasants in the 1857 revolt : the French East India Company :
1. Peasants actively participated in all areas 1. The French East India Company was
that were affected by the 1857 rebellion, founded in 1664 under the reign of Louis
uniting with local feudal leaders. XIV.
2. As a consequence of the revolt, Peasant’s 2. Francois Martin played a key role in
land was restored to the taluqdars in
developing Pondicherry as the nerve centre
Awadh, and they paid additional cess to
of French power in India.
the British in some regions.
3. The French were the first European power
Which of the statements given above is/are
to establish a trading centre in India.
correct ?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only
correct ?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
20. The Mahanadi River basin spread across (d) 1, 2 and 3
which of the following states ?
1. Chhattisgarh 23. Consider the following pairs :
2. Jharkhand S. Newspaper/ Founder/Editor
3. Telangana No Journal
4. Odisha 1. Mirat-ul- - Raja Rammohan
5. Maharashtra Akbar Roy
Select the correct answer using the codes 2. The East - Henry Vivian
given below : Indian Derozio
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
3. Rast Goftar - Dadabhai
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
Naoroji
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
Which of the pairs given above are correct ?
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
21. Which of the following would have been direct
(c) 1 and 3 only
consequence of Ahmad Shah Abdali’s attack
(d) 1, 2 and 3
on Inida in 1761 ?
(a) Emergence of the Maratha empire in the
Northern part of India 24. The organisms “Jansen’s Wrasse,
(b) A new Afghan kingdom was established in Checkerboard Wrasse and Moon Wrasse”
Delhi recently seen in the news are :
(c) Paved the emergence of the British empire (a) Birds
at Delhi immediately (b) Fish
(d) None of the given above statements is (c) Insects
correct (d) Reptiles

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25. With reference to Portuguese settlements in 28. Which among the following is not correct
India, consider the following statements : regarding the National Disaster Risk
1. They set up military garrisons in India in
Management Fund ?
order to avoid conflicts with the Zamorins
of Calicut and Muslim rulers. (a) It was established based on the
2. The Portuguese controlled the trade in the recommendations of the 15th Finance
Indian Ocean with their superior naval
Commission.
technology.
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) The funds will be utilised for disaster

correct ? mitigation and disaster response activities.

(a) 1 only (c) The funds are equally shared for disaster
(b) 2 only
mitigation and disaster response.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) It accepts voluntary contributions from

Individuals, Organizations, Trusts,

26. Consider the following pairs :
Companies and Institutions.
S. Tribal Prominent
No Uprisings Leaders
1. Larka Rebellion - Nilamber and 29. Wellesley introduced a subsidiary alliance
Pitamber brothers system in India because :
2. Khasi Rebellion - Tirot Sing
(a) It gave the power to Indian states to
3. Koya Revolt - Alluri Seetharama
Raju maintain their own army.
Which of the above-given pairs is/are correct ? (b) Indian states are allowed to ally with other
(a) 1 only
supreme powers.
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (c) To protect the Indian rulers by the British

(d) 2 and 3 only against external threats.

(d) To have foreign influences in the Indian

27. Consider the following statements with respect
courts.
to Pandita Ramabai :
1. She started Arya Mahila Samaj to improve
the condition of child widows. 30. Which of the following group of items was
2. She was the author of the book “The High
exported from India to various parts of the
Caste Hindu Woman.”
Which of the statements given above is/are countries in the 18th Century ?

correct ? (a) Indigo, Ivory and Pepper

(a) 1 only (b) Indigo, Opium and Pepper
(b) 2 only
(c) Opium, Tea and Dry fruits
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Tea, Dates and Dry fruits

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31. With reference to settlements during the Select the correct answer using the codes
colonial period, consider the following given below :
statements : (a) Only two
1. The East India Company first set up their (b) Only three
trading activities on the west coast. (c) Only four
2. Colour and religion are the main criteria (d) All five
for residing in Fort St.George.
3. Though Fort William in Calcutta was 34. Consider the following pairs :
constructed in the 17th century, it was S. Foreign Settlement
completed only during the governor No company
generalship of Wellesley. 1. French - Masulipatnam
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Danish - Serampore
correct ? 3. Dutch - Chinsura
(a) 1 only How many of the pairs given above is/are
(b) 1 and 2 only correct ?
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) Only one
(d) 1 and 3 only (b) Only two
(c) All three
32. The PM-SUMAN Yojana, frequently seen in the (d) None
news, helps to improve which of the following?
1. Maternal Mortality Rate 35. Which one of the following is not the outcome
2. Infant Mortality Rate
of socio-religious reform movements in
3. Total Fertility Rate
modern India ?
4. Under 5 Mortality Rate
(a) Progress of literature in different regional
Select the correct answer using the codes
languages.
given below :
(b) Significant achievement in the field of
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
emancipation of women.
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) The caste system lost its relevance.
(c) 1 only
(d) Growth of nationalism among Indians.
(d) 2 and 3 only

36. The Juice jacking scam recently seen in the

33. Which of the following were introduced from
news is related to which of the following?
the New World by the Europeans in India
(a) MSME sector financial support for Fruit
during the 17th century ?
production units
1. Tomatoes
(b) Nuclear Wastes from Nuclear power plants
2. Potatoes
(c) Cyber attacks at public charging stations
3. Chillies
(d) Carbon emission from thermal power
4. Pineapple
plants
5. Papaya

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37. With reference to the conquest of Punjab by Which of the statements given above is/are
the British, consider the following statements : correct ?
1. The death of Maharaja Ranjit Singh led to
(a) 1 and 2 only
a period of stability and unity in Punjab.
(b) 1 and 3 only
2. The Treaty of Bhairowal resulted in the
annexation of Punjab by the British. (c) 2 and 3 only

Which of the statements given above is/are (d) 1, 2 and 3

correct ?
(a) 1 only
40. What is the primary objective of the Pradhan
(b) 2 only
Mantri JI-VAN (Jaiv Indhan- Vatavaran
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Anukool fasal awashesh Nivaran) Yojana

launched by the Government of India ?

38. Consider the following statements : (a) To promote organic farming practices
1. The Charter Act of 1833 directed the (b) To reduce dependence on imported edible
English East India Company to take
oils
necessary measures for the abolition of
(c) To increase ethanol production for
slavery.
2. The Indian Slavery Act was passed in 1843 blending with petrol
to abolish Slavery in India during the (d) To improve crop yields through precision
period of Lord Ellenborough. agriculture
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
not correct ?
41. In the context of colonial India, Naoroji
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Furdonji, Dadabhai Naoroji, and K.R. Cama

(c) Both 1 and 2 are remembered as :

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Leaders of Religious reform movement
(b) Members of the East India Association
39. Consider the following statements regarding
(c) Members of the Indian Social Conference
the English East India Company's presence in
Bengal : (d) Leaders of Bombay Association

1. The English established their first factory

at Calcutta in 1690. 42. In the context of the 18th Century, the terms
2. Job Charnock played a crucial role in
‘Chatuspathis’, ‘Tols’, and ‘Madrasahs’ refers
establishing a settlement at Sutanuti,
to :
which later became Calcutta.
(a) Centres of Higher Education
3. Farrukhsiyar’s farman permitted that the
coins of the Company minted at Bombay (b) Indian handicrafts
were to have currency throughout the (c) Tax for imported agricultural products
Mughal empire. (d) Military troops

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43. Consider the following statements : 46. Consider the following :

1. The Ryotwari System recognised the Governor / Event / Act

S.
Governor General
cultivators as the owners of the land on No
of British India
payment of land revenue. 1. Lord William - Annexation of
2. The Mahalwari System entitled the joint Bentinck Mysore
2. Lord Chelmsford - Shimla
proprietorship of the land to the zamindars
Deputation
and the farmers. 3. Lord Ellenborough - Annexation of
Which of the statements given above is/are Sindh
4. Lord Dalhousie - Railway Minute
not correct ?
How many of the pairs given above is/are
(a) 1 only correctly matched ?
(b) 2 only (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Only three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) All four

44. The term ‘Kerogen’ is related to which of the 47. With reference to the Carnatic wars, Consider
the following statements :
following ?
1. The Battle of St. Thome brought out the
(a) A complex waxy mixture of hydrocarbon significance of maintaining a disciplined
compounds. army and a strong naval force.
2. The only cause of Anglo-French battles in
(b) A visual representation of an individual's
India was their historical rivalry in Europe.
chromosomes. 3. The victory in the Battle of Ambur left the
(c) A diploid nucleus formed from two haploid British with no strong European rival in
India.
nuclei during cell division.
How many of the above statements is/are
(d) A mineral solid with a regular atomic
correct ?
structure and a regular shape. (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
45. In the context of Modern Indian history, the
(d) None
term 'goyendas' refers to :

(a) Spies 48. The CDP-Suraksha platform, recently seen in

the news, is related to :
(b) Officer responsible for maintenance of law
(a) Insurance for road accident victims
and order (b) Subsidies to horticulture crops
(c) Women bodyguards (c) Incentives to textile industry
(d) Social Protection to Self-Help Groups
(d) Specialists in Vedic rituals
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49. Consider the following statements : Select the correct answer using the codes
1. Brahmo Samaj was based on the essential given below :
principle of monotheism.
(a) 1 and 2 only
2. The first Secretary of Brahmo Samaj was
Dwaraknath Tagore. (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. Raja Ram Mohan Roy created a sense of (c) 2 and 4 only
awareness among the people and made the (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
reform emerge from within the society
itself.
52. With respect to Snow Leopard, consider the
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct ? following statements :
(a) Only one 1. Snow Leopards are the indicator species.
(b) Only two 2. They are distributed across the snowy
(c) All three
forests in five Himalayan states in India.
(d) None
3. Habitat loss, poaching and Climate change
50. Consider the following statements : are the major threats to the species.
1. Uniform application of the system of law How many of the statements given above are
with the concept of equality before law
correct ?
under British administration.
2. Criticism of the chaturvarna system and (a) Only one

upholding the right of scheduled castes to (b) Only two

study the scriptures by the Arya Samaj. (c) All three
3. Mahad Satyagraha, led by Gandhiji, to
(d) None
challenge the practice of untouchability by
the caste Hindus.
Which of the above helped to mitigate the 53. Consider the following statements with respect
caste-based discrimination in pre-independent to the Santhal Hul :
India ? 1. Santhal Hul was a revolt against
(a) 1 and 2 only
imperialism led by Sidhu and Kanhu.
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 2. Santhal Hul succeeded in achieving
(d) 1, 2 and 3 complete independence for the Santhal
region.
51. Which of the following is the major reason for
3. The Santhal rebellion resulted in the
the Maratha’s defeat by the English ?
1. The Maratha state was despotic in creation of the Santhal Parganas region.

character. How many of the statements given above

2. The English maintained a better spy is/are not correct ?
system than the Marathas
(a) Only one
3. The economy of Maratha was conducive to
(b) Only two
a stable political set-up
4. Lack of cooperative spirit among the (c) All three
Maratha leaders. (d) None

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54. How many of the following indicates the Which of the countries mentioned above are
distressing position of women in 19th-century members of the Eurasian Economic Union
India ? (EAEU) ?
1. Practice of Kulinism (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
2. Absence of child marriage (b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

3. Practice of polyandry (c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

4. Practice of widow remarriage (d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

5. Female infanticide attempts

Select the correct answer using the codes 57. Consider the following statements :

given below : 1. The French first captured Pondicherry in

(a) Only two 1693 and later made it as the capital of

(b) Only three French settlements in India.

2. The Treaty of Paris in 1763 restored the
(c) Only four
French Company Administration in India.
(d) All five
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
55. Consider the following statements :
(a) 1 only
1. The Censorship of Press Act of 1799
(b) 2 only
mandated that newspapers obtain a
(c) Both 1 and 2
license from the Governor General in
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Council before publishing.
2. The Press Ordinance issued in 1823
58. Which of the following are reasons for English
mandated the newspapers to publish
supremacy in India over other European
complete details of their publications in
powers ?
every issue.
1. Efficient and technologically advanced
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
naval force.
correct ?
2. The English East India Company had
(a) 1 only
limited interference from its shareholders.
(b) 2 only
3. The lack of stable governments in non-
(c) Both 1 and 2
British nations.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. The balance between commercial and
imperialist interests.
56. Consider the following countries : Select the correct answer using the codes
1. Armenia given below :
2. Belarus (a) 1 and 3 only
3. India (b) 3 and 4 only
4. Russian Federation (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
5. Kazakhstan (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
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59. Consider the following statements with respect Which of the statements given above is/are
to Arya Samaj : correct ?
1. It sought to revive Vedic learning and (a) 1 only
combine it with modern education in the (b) 2 only
sciences. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. It attacked idolatry, polytheism, Brahmin- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
sponsored religious rites and superstitious
practices. 62. Consider the following statements with respect

3. It advocated that every person had the to the Dual System of Government :

right to have direct access to God. 1. It was established by Robert Clive in

Which of the statements given above are Bengal according to the Treaty of
Allahabad.
correct ?
2. Under this, the English East India
(a) 1 and 2 only
Company exercised both the diwani rights
(b) 1 and 3 only
of revenue collection and the nizamat
(c) 2 and 3 only
rights of controlling the police and
(d) 1, 2 and 3
judiciary directly.
3. Under this, Muhammad Raza Khan was
60. Consider the following :
appointed to represent both the nawab
1. The Directorate General of Civil Aviation
and the Company.
2. The Bureau of Civil Aviation Security
How many of the statements given above are
3. Airports Economic Regulatory Authority
correct ?
4. Airports Authority of India
(a) Only one
How many of the bodies mentioned above are
(b) Only two
Autonomous Bodies attached to the Ministry (c) All three
of Civil Aviation ? (d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 63. With reference to the Subsidiary Alliance of
(c) Only three Wellesley, consider the following statements :
(d) All four 1. It is an extension of the Ring Fence Policy
introduced by Dupleix.
61. With reference to the Farman granted to the 2. Under this, a British resident was stationed
English East India Company, consider the at the court of the ruling states and given
following statements : the authority to interfere in state politics.
1. The Company had to pay a sum of amount 3. Under this, Awadh was the first state to
to the Mughal emperor annually and could become a subsidiary state of the Company.
carry on duty-free trade throughout the Which of the statements given above are
Mughal territory. correct ?
2. The Company Servants were allowed to (a) 1 and 2 only
carry out private trade using the Farman (b) 1 and 3 only
by paying taxes less than Indian (c) 2 and 3 only
merchants. (d) 1, 2 and 3

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64. Consider the following statements with regard 66. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :
to the Spices Board of India :
The Wood's Despatch of 1854 is regarded
1. It is a statutory body under the Ministry of as the 'Magna Carta of English Education
Food Processing Industries. in India'.
Statement-II :
2. Spices Board India is the secretariat for
It repudiated downward filtration theory
the Codex Committee on Spices and and focused on educating the masses with
English as the medium of instruction at all
Culinary Herbs.
levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are Statement-III :
correct ? The affiliating universities were set up in
Calcutta, Bombay and Madras according
(a) 1 only
to the direction provided by the Dispatch.
(b) 2 only Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements ?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct and both of them explain
Statement I.
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are
65. Consider the following statements with regard
correct, but only one of them explains
to the Judiciary system in British India : Statement I.
(c) Only one of Statements II and III is correct,
1. The Regulating Act of 1773 established a
and that explains Statement I.
Supreme Court at Calcutta with a Chief (d) Only one of Statements II and III is correct,

Justice and three other judges. and that does not explain Statement I.

2. The advocates and attorneys-at-law

67. With regard to the early structure of the
enrolled in the Supreme Court can only British Empire in India, consider the following
statements :
plead before it.
1. William Bentick appointed a
3. In Diwani Adalat, a person from the Civil superintendent of police as the head of

Service acted as a District Judge. each district in the State.

2. In the military, after the First War of
How many of the statements given above are
Independence in 1857, the Indians were
not correct ? allowed in the officer rank.
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Only one
correct ?
(b) Only two (a) 1 only

(c) All three (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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68. Which one of the following was the primary 70. Which of the following reforms was not made
focus in enacting the Jan Vishwas Act 2023 ? by Cornwallis in the field of Administration
(a) It is to rationalise minor offences to
during British rule ?
promote ease of doing business.
(b) It enhances the speedy trial of civil 1. He modernized Civil Services through

disputes in the judiciary. various reforms to check corruption.

(c) It introduces strict penalties for violating 2. He established a regular police force to
rules in trade-related activities.
maintain law and order by relieving the
(d) It introduced new penalties for the effective
implementation of business governance. zamindars from police functions.

3. He abolished the Provincial Courts of

69. Consider the following statements : Appeal and Circuit.
Statement-I :
Select the correct answer using the codes
The Revolt of 1857 was characterised by
solid Hindu-Muslim unity. given below :

Statement-II : (a) 1 only

All the Hindu and Muslim sepoys (b) 2 only
unanimously proclaimed Bahadur Shah as
(c) 3 only
the Emperor of India.
Statement-III : (d) None

The cow slaughter was banned in the

locations reached by the sepoys as a mark 71. Which of the following statements does not
of respect for the sentiments of the
reflect the economic impact of British rule in
Hindus.
Which one of the following is correct in respect India during the late 18th and early 19th

of the above statements ? century ?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are (a) Imposition of protective tariff on the Indian
correct and both of them explain
textiles.
Statement I.
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are (b) Introduction to a large number of

correct, but only one of them explains commercial crops.

Statement I. (c) Most people acted as agents and
(c) Only one of Statements II and III is correct,
intermediaries of the British traders.
and that explains Statement I.
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is (d) Local administration provided relief and

correct. natural justice to the rural poor.

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72. With respect to Bamboo cultivation, consider 74. With respect to the years 1707, 1757, 1764,

the following statements : 1857, Consider the following statements :

1. One of the years in these indicates the
1. Bamboo grows well in tropical to warm
ascendancy of the British Empire in India.
temperate climatic conditions.
2. One of the years in these indicates the
2. Bamboo can be grown in degraded lands.
decline of the Mughal Empire in India.
3. The gestation time of a bamboo plantation 3. One of the years in these indicates the war
is 5 years. exclusively fought between the Mughals
4. The Ideal annual rainfall for bamboo and the British in India.
4. One of the years in these indicates the end
should not exceed 400 cm.
of the British East Indian Company’s rule
How many of the statements given above are
in India.
correct ?
How many of the statements given above
(a) Only one is/are correct ?
(b) Only two (a) Only one
(c) Only three (b) Only two

(d) All four (c) Only three

(d) All four

73. With respect to the Satnami movement,

75. Between 1757 and 1857, the administrative
consider the following statements : policy of the British in India was primarily
1. Guru Ghasi Das initiated the Satnami focused on increasing the profitability of their
movement to respond to social inequalities Indian possessions. In this context, the main

in Indian society. emphasios was placed on :

(a) Infrastructural Development
2. They primarily focused on improving social
(b) Religious and cultural aspects
status by adopting caste Hindu practices
(c) Maintenance of Law and order
and beliefs. (d) Introduction of Social reforms
3. They developed their own hierarchical

system of priests and religious centres. 76. Which one of the following statements

4. They were confined to the chamars of regarding Men5CV Vaccine is correct ?

(a) It is a vaccine for monkeypox launched in
Chattisgarh region.
the Democratic Republic of Congo.
How many of the statements give above is/are
(b) It is an effective vaccine for monkey fever
correct?
developed in India.
(a) Only one (c) It is a new vaccine for malaria developed
(b) Only two by the Ivory Coast.

(c) Only three (d) It is a vaccine for meningitis introduced by

Nigeria.
(d) All four
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77. With reference to Indian History, consider the 79. Consider the following statements with respect
following statements : to Sir Syed Ahmed Khan :
1. Pitt’s India Act of 1784 established a clear 1. He encouraged the Muslims to learn

hierarchy of command and more direct Western education and accept services

parliamentary control over Indian under the British government.

2. He established the Mohammedan Literacy
administration.
Society in Calcutta to promote modern
2. The Charter Act of 1793 extended the
education among Muslims.
governor general’s power over the council
3. He opposed the purdah system and the
and also brought him control over the
easy divorce system among Muslims.
Governors of Bombay and Madras.
4. He authored “Tabyin Al-Kalam”, a
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
Commentary on the Holy Bible.
(a) 1 only How many of the statements given above are
(b) 2 only correct ?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Only one
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Only two
(c) Only three
78. Consider the following statements : (d) All four
Statement 1 :
The Treaty of Bassain allowed the 80. Consider the following pairs :

company to expand its area of influence by Initiatives

permanently stationing its troops in S. leveraging

Description
No Artificial
Maratha territory.
Intelligence
Statement 2 :
1. UMANG - Singular point of
Peshwa Bajiroa II signed the treaty by
platform access to pan-India
agreeing to receive native infantry and
e-government
European artillerymen from the Company.
services
Which of the following is correct, with respect
2. Bhasini - Voice-based
to the statements mentioned above ? Initiative internet accessible
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are in vernacular
correct, and Statement II is the correct Indian languages
explanation of Statement I 3. Digiyatra - To enhance the air
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are travel experience
correct, but Statement II is not the correct for citizens
explanation of Statement I Which of the pairs given above are correct ?
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is (a) 1 and 2 only

incorrect (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
(d) 1, 2 and 3
is correct
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81. Consider the following statements : 84. Consider the following Pairs :
1. The Farazi Movement was the first no-tax
S. No GI Tags States
campaign against the British Government.
1. Pachra-Rignai - Tripura
2. The Wahabi Movement is a reformist
movement which was religious in origin. 2. Larnai Pottery - Meghalaya

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are 3. Bihu Dhol - West Bengal
correct ?
4. Mishing - Assam
(a) 1 only
handloom
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 products
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the pairs given above are correctly

matched ?
82. In the context of early British rule, the term
‘filatures’ refers to? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(a) Factories for manufacturing railway lines (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) Workshop for production of silk thread
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) Agricultural lands for opium production
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) Warehouses for Military weapon storage

83. With reference to the revolt of 1857, consider 85. Consider the following pairs :
the following statements :
S. No Revolt or battle Fought during
1. The rebellion message was spread to
different areas by ordinary men and 1. The Rohilla War - Warren Hastings

women and religious men. 2. Third Mysore - Lord Cornwallis

2. The Azamgarh proclamation is one of the
War
main sources to learn about the rebels of
3. Vellore mutiny - Lord Minto I
1857.
3. It was learnt from the records that rebels 4. Third Maratha - Lord Amherst
did not want to re-establish the old War
leadership of the pre-British world after
How many of the above pairs are correctly
defeating the British.
How many of the statements mentioned above matched ?

are correct? (a) Only one

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(c) All three
(d) None (d) All four

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86. Consider the following statements : 88. In India, the Kashan-style carpets are
1. He employed a large number of European manufactured in which of the following states?
soldiers in his force. (a) Nagaland
2. The Mughal king, Shah Alam II made him (b) Arunachal Pradesh
the “deputy regent” of his affairs in the (c) Uttrakhand
mid-1780s. (d) Kashmir
3. He was awarded titles such as such as
amir al-umara and naib wakii-i Mutlaq. 89. Consider the following statements :
The above statements refer to which Maratha 1. Mirat-ul-Akbar’s publication was stopped
ruler ?
due to the enactment of the Licensing
(a) Malhar Rao Holkar
Regulations of 1823 by Governor General
(b) Raghuji Bhonsle
Metcalfe.
(c) Sambhaji
2. The repeal of the 1823 Regulation by
(d) Mahadaji Sindhia
Governor General John Adams resulted in
a liberal press policy in India.
87. With reference to the revenue policies in India
Which of the statements given above is/are
under British rule, consider the following
correct ?
statements :
(a) 1 only
1. The Izaredari system introduced by Sir
(b) 2 only
John Shore led to a decrease in
(c) Both 1 and 2
agricultural productivity in India.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The Permanent Settlement adopted during
Lord Cornwallis's governorship covered the
majority of Indian territory under British 90. This educational policy under British rule

rule. allocated government resources to teaching

3. The Ryotwari System of Thomas Munro Western sciences and literature through the

was the only revenue policy where use of the English language alone. It neglected
intermediaries weren’t involved in tax mass education by making the government
collection. open a few English schools and colleges
4. The Mahalwari System invented by instead of a large number of elementary
Merttins Bird was a dual system as it schools. This policy was aimed at
involved settlement with both the whole implementing the British ‘downward filtration
community and the individual landlords. theory’.
How many of the above statements is/are Which among the following is denoted in the
correct ? above passage ?
(a) Only one (a) Wood’s Despatch of 1854
(b) Only two (b) Lord Macaulay’s Minute of 1835
(c) Only three (c) Charter Act of 1813
(d) All four (d) Indian Universities Act of 1904

(19-A)
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91. Which of the following are the causes for the 93. Which of the following statements is/are

decline of the Mughals in the 18th century ? correct regarding the social and economic
conditions of India during 18th century ?
1. Lack of stable government due to
1. Self-sufficient in handicrafts and
continuous wars of succession. agricultural products.
2. Nobility trying to carve out independent 2. Imposing heavy custom duties on goods

kingdoms with the help of zamindars. for long-distance trade.

3. Expansion of Land trade through
3. The presence of a strong central leadership
Afghanistan and Persia.
lead to divisiveness among Jagirdars. Select the correct answer using the codes
4. Strong support of Rajputs to Marathas in given below :

their struggle against the empire. (a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only
5. Rulers weren’t efficient as a central
(c) 1 and 3 only
authority to rule the vast empire. (d) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the codes

given below : 94. Which one of the following statements is not

correct about the ryotwari settlement in India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) Ryotwari was in principle a direct contract
(b) 1, 4 and 5 only between the ryot and the state.
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) The ryotwari settlement was adopted in

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 southern and western India

(c) It means a tax contract valid for usually 30
years
92. Consider the following statements : (d) In principle, it strengthened the zamindars
1. Indian Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) do and weakened the peasantry.

not require any external power supply.

95. Consider the following statements with respect
2. A single EVM machine can record a
to the era of British India :
maximum of 2,000 votes. 1. The first coal mining was started in Bengal
3. The VVPAT slip is basically thermal paper in 1774.

with a print retention capability of about 2. The first cotton mill was established in
Bombay in 1853.
five years.
3. The first jute mill was established in
How many of the statements given above are Bengal in 1855.
correct ? How many of the statements given above are

(a) Only one correct ?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three (c) All three
(d) None (d) None

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96. Consider the following statements regarding 99. Consider the following statements regarding
the decline of the Portuguese in India : BrahMos supersonic cruise missile :
1. The discovery of Brazil diverted Portuguese
1. It is the first supersonic cruise missile
attention and resources away from India.
2. The Portuguese refused to accept the belief jointly developed by India and Russia

in religious matters, leading to conflict 2. The missile works on the Fire and Forget
with the Mughals.
principle of operation.
3. The rise of the English and Dutch as
3. The missile can be launched only from a
commercial rivals challenged Portuguese
supremacy. land-based launcher.
Which of the statements given above are How many of the statements given above are
correct ?
correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Only one
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) Only two
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) All three

(d) None
97. Consider the following statements :
1. The Sanyasi Uprisings started in Bengal
after the Bengal Famine in 1770. 100. With reference to the components of the

2. After the Bengal Famine, a large number of Isreal defence system, consider the following
dispossessed small Zamindars, disbanded
statements :
soldiers and rural poor joined the bands of
1. The Arrow system is a family of anti-
Sanyasis.
3. Debi Chaudhurani of Bengal supported the ballistic missiles capable of intercepting
Sanyasis in the Sanyasi Uprising. long-range missiles even from outside the
Which of the statements given above are
Earth’s atmosphere.
correct ?
2. Iron Dome is a terrestrial electronic
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only warfare system which is designed to
(c) 2 and 3 only intercept short-range incoming missiles.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are

98. The “Kaisar-i-Hind Gold Medal” was awarded correct ?

to Raja Ravi Varma by : (a) 1 only
(a) Lord Dufferin
(b) 2 only
(b) Lord Curzon
(c) Lord Willingdon (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Lord Mountbatten (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(21-A)
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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

PRESTORMINGTM
Test Booklet Series
TEST BOOKLET
T.B.C : P-SIA-A-GS
GENERAL STUDIES - PAPER – I
Serial : P-GSI-242505
SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY
TEST – 05
A
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with
your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE A PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.66) of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as a penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be the same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

(1-A)
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1. Consider the following statements : 3. “It has the day temperature upto 430°C and

1. Artificial Intelligence systems learn from night temperature upto -180°C. It takes 59

experiences and use them in decision- days to complete one rotation. It doesn't have

making. moons. Its surface resembles the surface of

the moon. It’s gaseous outer layer has the

2. Machine learning makes predictions about
greatest percentage of oxygen compared to
new and unknown data with minimal
other planets.”
errors.
The above description refers to which of the
3. Natural Language Processing is used by
following planets ?
search engines to suggest the next word in
(a) Mercury
the sentence while typing keywords.
(b) Earth
How many of the above statements is/are
(c) Jupiter
correct ?
(d) Saturn
(a) Only one

(b) Only two 4. Consider the following statements with respect

(c) All three to Smart Cities Mission :

(d) None 1. It aims to promote cities that provide core

infrastructure, a clean and sustainable

2. Total internal reflection can take place when environment and a decent quality of life to

light travels from : their citizens.

1. Air to glass 2. It is a central sector scheme with a main

focus on a sustainable and inclusive

2. Glass to water
development approach.
3. Air to water
3. The Mission is under the Ministry of Rural
4. Diamond to glass
Development
Select the correct codes from the options given
Which of the statements given above is/are
below :
correct ?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only (d) 2 and 3 only
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5. Consider the following statements : 7. Consider the following :

Statement-I : 1. USA
Graphite and diamond are isotopes of 2. Russia
Carbon. 3. Japan
Statement-II : 4. China
Though Graphite and diamond are made 5. India
of the same element, they have different How many of the countries mentioned above
physical properties and structural have Global Navigation Satellite Systems(
arrangements of atoms. GNSS) ?
Which one of the following is correct in respect (a) Only two
of the above statements ? (b) Only three
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(c) Only four
correct and Statement-II explains
(d) All five
Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
8. With reference to Indian biodiversity, Indian
correct, but Statement-II does not explain
peafowl, black kite, and Giant Grey Shrike
Statement-I
are:
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
(a) Birds
incorrect
(b) Reptiles
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II
(c) Amphibians
is correct
(d) Primates

6. Recently, India’s first space-based mission to

9. Which of the following statements is correct ?
study the Sun, Aditya L1, was launched.
(a) The speed of the sound in a medium
Which of the following detectors is used by the
depends on the temperature of the
spacecraft to study the sun?
medium.
1. Electromagnetic detector
(b) The speed of sound varies for different
2. Particle detector
frequencies in a given medium under the
3. Magnetic Field detector
same physical conditions.
4. Doppler current profile detector
(c) The speed of the sound in the solid
Select the answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only medium is less than the speed of the

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only sound in the gas medium at a constant

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only temperature.

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) All the above

(4-A)
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10. Consider the following statements : 13. Consider the following statements :
1. Unlike a free proton, a free neutron is 1. It consists of long chain molecules aligned
unstable.
in a particular direction.
2. Unlike Coulomb’s law or Newton’s law of
2. It works on the principle of Malus’ law in
gravitation, there is no simple
mathematical form of the nuclear force. physics.

3. The nuclear force does not depend on the 3. It can be used to control the intensity,
electric charge. sunglasses and windowpanes
Which of the statements given above is/are
4. They are used in photographic cameras
correct ?
and 3D movie cameras.
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only The above statements refer to which of the

(c) 3 only following ?

(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Prism

(b) Polaroids
11. With reference to the Astra Mark 2 missile,
(c) Optical fibres
consider the following statements :
1. It is an air-to-air missile with a dual pulse (d) Diffraction slit

solid rocket motor.

2. It aims to target a range of over 100 km 14. Consider the following statements with respect
and will engage and destroy highly
to Free Space Optical Communication :
maneuverable supersonic aerial targets.
1. It uses light propagating in free space to
3. It was designed and developed by the
Defense Research and Development wirelessly transmit data for

Laboratory (DRDL). telecommunications.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ? 2. It utilises the infrared band of spectrum
(a) 1 only
for data transmission.
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. It can be used to transmit data between
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only two points which have a direct line of

sight.
12. Recently, India protested Chinese road How many of the statements given above are
construction at Shaksgam Valley, which is
correct ?
located at :
(a) Only one
(a) West of Gilgit
(b) East of Aksai chin (b) Only two

(c) North of Siachen glacier (c) All three

(d) South of Nubra valley (d) None
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15. Consider the following : Which of the above-mentioned are ballistic

1. Android missiles currently operational in the Indian
2. Linux Defence Force ?
3. Mozilla Firefox (a) 1 only
4. VLC media player (b) 1 and 2 only
5. Python (c) 2 and 3 only
How many of the software mentioned above (d) 3 and 4 only
belong to the category of Open-source software
(OSS) ? 19. Consider the following statements :

(a) Only two 1. Higher concentrations of this pollutant

(b) Only three damage the leaves of plants and retard the

(c) Only four rate of photosynthesis.

2. It is a lung irritant that can lead to an
(d) All five
acute respiratory disease in children.
3. It is harmful to various textile fibres and
16. Consider the following countries :
metals.
1. Canada
4. It is a secondary pollutant which is toxic to
2. France
living tissues.
3. India
Which of the following statements refer to the
4. Russia
above pollutants ?
5. Japan
(a) Carbon dioxide
6. United States
(b) Nitrogen dioxide
Which of the above countries are part of
(c) Volatile organic compounds
the G7 grouping countries ?
(d) Sulphur oxide
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
20. Consider the following statements regarding
(c) 1, 2, 5 and 6
Diplomatic passports :
(d) 1, 3, 5 and 6 1. Like normal passports, diplomatic
passports are valid for 10 years.
17. “Photolithographic technology”, recently seen 2. Diplomatic passports are also provided to
in the news, is related to which of the relatives and immediate families of officers
following ? employed in the Indian Foreign Service
(a) Production of semiconductors (IFS).
(b) Protein synthesis prediction 3. Holders of diplomatic passports are
(c) Bio 3D printing entitled to certain privileges and
(d) Remote sensing technology immunities as per international law.
Which of the statements given above is/are
18. Consider the following : correct ?
1. Prithivi II missile (a) 2 only
2. Agni IV missile (b) 1 and 2 only
3. DHANUSH missile (c) 3 only
4. BRAHMOS missile (d) 2 and 3 only

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21. Consider the following statements with 23. With respect to Missions to planet Mars,

reference to mass and energy : consider the following statements :

1. The Mars Orbiter Mission is the India’s
1. Both matter and energy can neither be
first interplanetary mission to study the
created nor destroyed.
Martian surface features, morphology and
2. Though energy can be transformed from mineralogy and return the samples to the
one form to another, the total energy of an Earth.

isolated system remains constant. 2. The MAVEN mission is the first mission by
NASA to study the Martian upper
3. Though the principle of conservation of
atmosphere.
energy cannot be proved, no violations Which of the statements given above is/are
have ever been observed. correct ?
How many of the above statements are (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Only one
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only two

(c) All three 24. The ‘Helmand, Harirod-Murghab, Panj-Amu’

(d) None are the river basins of which among the
following countries ?
(a) Afghanistan
22. Consider the following pairs :
(b) Bhutan
S.No Scientific Principles (c) Nepal
technologies (d) Bangladesh

1. Tokamak - Magnetic
25. Consider the following statements :
confinement of
1. The surface web search engines cannot
plasma
discover or display results for web pages
2. Neuromorphic - Spiking neural within the dark web.
computing network 2. The dark web is hidden by various network
security measures like firewalls and
3. Optical fibres - Total internal
encryption.
reflection of
3. The peer-to-peer (P2P) overlay network
light technique is used to TOR browsers to
How many of the above pairs are correctly provide access to dark web.
matched ? Which of the statements given above is/are
not correct ?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) All three (c) 3 only
(d) None (d) None
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26. End-to-end encryption (E2EE) is a type of 29. Consider the following statements :
messaging that keeps messages private from Statement 1 :
everyone, including the messaging service. The Gravitational force plays a key role in
How many of the following apps used in India the formation and evolution of stars,
has E2EE Facility ? galaxies and galactic clusters.
1. What’s App Statement 2 :
2. Telegram The gravitational force is the weakest force
3. Gmail among the Fundamental forces in nature.
4. Instagram Which one of the following is correct in respect
5. Facebook of the above statements ?
Choose the correct answer using the codes (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
given below : correct, and Statement II is the correct
(a) Only two explanation of Statement I
(b) Only three (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(c) Only four correct, but Statement II is not the correct
(d) All five explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
27. Which of the following is not an example of incorrect
exothermic reactions ? (d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
(a) Burning of natural gas is correct
(b) Decomposition of vegetable matter into
compost. 30. With reference to Multiple Independently
(c) Decomposition of calcium carbonate to Targetable Re-entry Vehicle (MIRV) technology,
calcium oxide and carbon dioxide on consider the following statements :
heating. 1. It enables single missiles to target multiple
(d) Breaking down of carbohydrates to form locations hundreds of kilometres apart.
glucose, combines with oxygen to provide 2. India's longest-range ballistic missile,
energy. Agni-V, has been tested with this
technology recently.
28. Which of the following States has banned 3. MIRV-equipped missiles can be launched
oleander flowers in temple offerings after a from land only.
woman died accidentally chewing the leaves of Which of the statements given above are
the oleander plant ? correct ?
(a) Kerala (a) 1 only
(b) Tamil Nadu (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Uttar Pradesh (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Haryana (d) 1, 2 and 3

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31. With respect to Electronic Fiber, consider the How many of the statements given above are
following statements : correct ?
1. It utilises the human body as part of the
(a) Only one
Circuit.
2. It enables wireless visual–digital (b) Only two

interactions. (c) All three

3. It can work without the need for batteries (d) None
or chips
How many of the above statements are
correct? 34. Consider the following parts of a plant :

(a) Only one 1. Petiole

(b) Only two 2. Lamina
(c) All three
3. Stamens
(d) None
4. Pistil

32. Consider the following statements : 5. Reticulate

1. The temple in Hampi is a prime example of How many of the above are parts of a flower ?
Dravidian architecture.
(a) Only two
2. The sanctum sanctorum houses the Shiva
(b) Only three
lingam, the main object of worship.
3. The temple is a UNESCO World Heritage (c) Only four
Site. (d) All five
4. The temple gained prominence and
underwent extensive expansion in the 14th
35. With reference to the Small Satellite Launch
century during the Vijayanagara Empire.
Which of the following temples is described Vehicle (SSLV), consider the following
above ? statements :
(a) Chandikeswara temple 1. It can carry payloads weighing up to 500
(b) Virupaksha temple
kg.
(c) Chausath yogini temple
(d) Someshwara temple 2. The launch vehicle can be assembled in
less than a week by a much smaller team.
33. Consider the following statements regarding 3. Currently, India has a share of
the Agnibaan SoRTed-01 mission :
participation of about 22% in the space
1. It is India’s first semi-cryogenic engine-
powered rocket launched from a private economy along with Australia and Russia.
launch pad. How many of the above statements are
2. It is the world’s first single-piece engine correct?
designed and built indigenously through
(a) Only one
additive manufacturing.
3. The purpose of the mission is to serve as a (b) Only two
test flight and to demonstrate the in-house (c) All three
and home grown technologies. (d) None

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36. In which one of the following groups are all 39. Consider the following statements :
four countries members of BIMSTEC ? 1. The photoelectric emission is an
(a) Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam instantaneous process that involves the
(b) Indonesia, Japan, South Korea and conversion of electrical energy into light
Singapore energy.
(c) Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New 2. All free electrons in a metal have the same
Zealand energy.
(d) India, Sri Lanka, Nepal and Thailand Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?

37. “Tetra chloroethene” is a compound that (a) 1 only

contaminates the groundwater and is a (b) 2 only

suspected carcinogen. It is most likely used as (c) Both 1 and 2

a solvent in which of the following ? (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(a) Bleaching of Paper

(b) Food Preservatives 40. The term “Stellaria mcclintockiae”, recently
seen in the news, is related to :
(c) Solution to Clean Turbid Water
(a) Plant species found in western ghats
(d) Dry Cleaning of Clothes
(b) Butterfly species found in eastern ghats
(c) Bird species found in western ghats
38. Consider the following statements :
(d) A mammal found in Himalayas
Statement 1 :
Clean water would have more BOD value
41. With reference to semiconductors, consider
than highly polluted water.
the following statements :
Statement 2 :
1. Electric vehicles use power management
The amount of Biological Oxygen Demand
chips with high voltage and current
in the water measures the amount of
applications.
organic material in the water.
2. At zero kelvin temperature, intrinsic
Which one of the following is correct in respect
semiconductors show properties similar to
of the above statements ?
insulators.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
3. Doping helps in increasing the
correct, and Statement II is the correct
conductivity of a pure semiconductor.
explanation of Statement I
4. Light-emitting diodes are heavily doped
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
semiconductors that convert mechanical
correct, but Statement II is not the correct
energy into light.
explanation of Statement I
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
incorrect
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
(c) 1, 2, 3, and 4
is correct (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

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42. Which of the following best describes “SAGA- 45. According to this phenomenon, while

220” ? approaching a stationary source of sound with

(a) An AI tool to determine the age of a foetus high speed, the pitch of the sound heard

in a pregnant woman appears to be higher than that of the source

(b) A supercomputer developed by ISRO and as the distance between observer and the

(c) A Supersonic missile developed by DRDA source increases, the observed pitch becomes

(d) A new variety of cocoa developed by ICAR lower than that of the source. It is commonly

used to check overspeeding of vehicles. This

phenomenon also has applications in areas

43. Which of the following statements is not
such as the military, medical science,
correct with reference to “2024 PT5”, recently
astrophysics, etc.
seen in the news ?
Which of the following denotes the above
(a) It is an asteroid that has been pulled into
described phenomenon ?
Earth’s orbit, making it a temporary "mini-
(a) Theory of sonics
moon."
(b) Fizeau effect
(b) It originates from a group of Near-Earth
(c) Tyndall effect
asteroids that share a similar orbit around
(d) Doppler effect
the sun as Earth.

(c) It will circle the Earth for only 57 days

46. Arrange the following phenomena in the order
before resuming its journey through space.
of increasing energy in terms of Joules :
(d) It is the first such event to be reported in
1. Thunderstorm
more than a century
2. Big bang

3. Rotational energy of the earth

44. Recently, for the first time, India has set up its 4. Energy to break one bond in DNA
own pavilion at the World Hydrogen Summit Select the correct answer using the code given

2024, which was held in : below :

(a) Stockholm, Swedan (a) 1-3-2-4

(b) Rotterdam, Netherland (b) 4-1-3-2

(c) Berlin, Germany (c) 2-3-1-4

(d) Brussels, Belgium (d) 3-4-2-1

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47. Consider the following statements : 49. Consider the following rows with respect to
Statement-I : Chandrayan 3 :
The light passing into the event horizon of
Sl.
the Black Hole cannot escape into space. Payload Placed In Objective
Statement II : No.

In the Event horizon, the escape velocity is To measure

greater than the velocity of light.
the near-
Which one of the following is correct in respect Langmuir
1. Lander surface
of the above statements ? probe
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are plasma

correct, and Statement-II explains density.

Statement-I
Alpha To determine
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Particle X- the element
correct, but Statement-II does not explain 2. Rover
Statement-I ray composition

(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is Spectrometer of lunar soil.

incorrect
to
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
understand
is correct LASER
the
3. Retroreflector Lander
48. Consider the following statements regarding dynamics of
Array
Naegleria fowleri :
the Moon
1. It is a free-living amoeba or a single-celled
system
living organism
2. It causes a rare contagious disease that Spectro- Future

affects the central nervous system. polarimetry Propulsion discoveries

4.
3. It is found at very low temperatures that
of Habitable Module of smaller
are conducive to its growth and can
Planet Earth planets
survive for short periods in warm
environments. In How many of the above rows is the given

Which of the statements given above is/are information correctly matched ?

correct ?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) Only three

(d) 2 and 3 only (d) All four

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50. Consider the following statements with respect 52. Which article of the Indian Constitution
to Gaganyaan Mission : provides a constitutional safeguard ensuring
1. The development of the first module of that a person who is arrested shall not be
Bharatiya Anthariksh Station - India’s detained without being informed of the
grounds for arrest and shall not be denied the
Own Space Station is done under this
right to consult and be defended by a legal
mission.
practitioner ?
2. The CE20 cryogenic engine of ISRO is to
(a) Article 21
be used in the Human Rated Launch
(b) Article 22
Vehicle of Gaganyan Mission. (c) Article 24
3. After the human spaceflight, the (d) Article 25
Gaganauts will be landed back on the
Landing Complex built at the Satish 53. Consider the following statements with
Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota. reference to a mirage :
How many of the statements given above are 1. The refractive index of air decreases with

correct ? its density.

2. In colder regions, Objects appear to be
(a) Only one
elevated or floating above the horizon
(b) Only two
during mirage.
(c) All three
3. Mirages can be observed in hot deserts
(d) None
and travelling on a vehicle during hot
summers.
51. Consider the following statements : How many of the above statements are
Statement I : correct?
The moon has no atmosphere on its own. (a) Only one
Statement II : (b) Only two
Since the radius and acceleration due to (c) All three

the gravity of the moon are small, the (d) None

escape velocity of the moon is five times 54. Consider the following :
smaller than the Earth. “It is a collective network of connected devices
Select the correct answer using the code given and the technology that facilitates
below : communication between devices and the cloud
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true and between the devices themselves. It allows
and Statement II is the correct explanation them to collect and share data. Centres of
of Statement I. Excellence have been established for this

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are network at Bengaluru, Gurugram and Gandhi
Nagar.”
true, but Statement II is not the correct
The statements given above describe which of
explanation of Statement I.
the following technologies ?
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is
(a) Block Chain Technology
false (b) Internet of Things
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is (c) Metaverse
true. (d) Augmented Reality
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55. Consider the following statements with respect 57. With respect to Huygens's principle, consider

to Quantum Key Distribution : the following statements :

1. Quantum key distribution utilises the 1. Waves from a point source spread out in
properties of quantum mechanics to all directions while light travel along
develop a secure dedicated narrow rays.
communications link. 2. The limit of the ability of microscopes and
2. In Public key encryption, the same key is telescopes to distinguish very close objects
used to encrypt and decrypt the message. is set by the wavelength of light.
3. In Private key encryption, two different Which of the statements given above is/are
keys are used to encrypt and decrypt the
correct ?
message.
(a) 1 only
How many of the statements given above are
(b) 2 only
correct ?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) Only one
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only two

(c) All three

58. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) None
the classification of missiles :

1. On the basis of propulsion, Aluminum

56. Consider the following statements regarding
powder is used as solid fuel and
Asset Reconstruction Companies :
hydrocarbons are used in liquid
1. It is a financial institution that buys non-
propulsion technology.
performing assets or bad assets from
2. In the wire guidance system, the command
banks and financial institutions to clean
signals are passed along a wire dispensed
their balance sheets.
from the missile, while in the Inertial
2. National Asset Reconstruction Company
guidance, accelerometers are used in
Limited (NARCL) is a government entity
control systems.
registered with the Reserve Bank of India
Which of the statements given above is/are
as an Asset Reconstruction Company.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ? correct ?

(a) 1 only (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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59. Consider the following statements with respect 62. Consider the following statements :
to NISAR Mission : 1. Positronium is a fundamental atomic
1. It is the first Low Earth Orbit observatory system comprising baryons and leptons.
being jointly developed by NASA and ISRO. 2. Electrons and Positrons interact through
2. It contains a high-frequency S-band radar electromagnetic and weak forces.

developed by ISRO to obtain high- Which of the statements given above is/are

resolution data on surface deformation on not correct ?

(a) 1 only
Earth.
(b) 2 only
3. The High-rate Science Downlink System
(c) Both 1 and 2
and GPS receivers of the mission are to be
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
indigenously developed by ISRO.
Which of the statements given above are not
63. Which of the following atmospheric
correct ?
phenomena is caused when a vertical beam of
(a) 1 only
light appears to extend above and/or below a
(b) 1 and 2 only light source that develops as a result of ice
(c) 3 only crystals slowly falling through the air
(d) 2 and 3 only reflecting the sun’s rays ?
(a) Halos
60. The World Economic Situation and Prospects (b) Aurora
(WESP) 2024 report was released by : (c) Sundogs
(a) World Bank (d) Sun Pillars
(b) United Nations
(c) International Monetary Fund 64. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) Organization for Economic Co-operation the World Wildlife Crime Report, 2024 :
and Development 1. The Report focuses on trends in the illegal
trade and assesses the causes and
impacts of wildlife trafficking and
61. Consider the following statements with respect
associated crime globally.
to WEB 5.0 :
2. Based on seizure records, Coral pieces are
1. It adds the feature of emotional
the most frequently traded illegal item
intelligence to the internet.
followed by live specimens like ornamental
2. It provides complete control for the users
plants.
to their data.
3. The Report was released by the Convention
3. It incorporates the semantic capabilities
on International Trade in Endangered
provided by Web 3.0. Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are Which of the statements given above are
correct ? correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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65. The Sky appears blue in colour because of, Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Absence of dust particles and air correct ?

molecules at higher altitudes (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
2. The shorter wavelengths of sunlight are
(c) 2 and 3 only
scattered more than the longer
(d) 1 and 2 only
wavelengths.

Select the correct answer using the codes 68. With respect to Poliomyelitis disease, consider
given below : the following statements :

(a) 1 only 1. It is a contagious disease spread mainly

through the faecal-oral route.
(b) 2 only
2. The incubation period of the disease is 7–
(c) Both 1 and 2
10 days.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. The Virus in the disease causes paralysis
within a few hours of infection.
66. Which of the following astronomical 4. Of the 3 strains of wild Poliomyelitis, type
phenomena can be classified as an 1 remains only in two countries.
‘Astronomical transients’ ? How many of the statements given above are

1. Supernovae correct ?
(a) Only one
2. Active Galactic Nucleus
(b) Only two
3. Fast radio burst
(c) Only three
Select the correct answer using the codes
(d) All four
given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only 69. Consider the following statements :
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only 1. Geostationary Satellites remain stationary
(c) 1 and 3 only in the sky with respect to the ground
(d) 3 only stations, while Sun-Synchronous Satellites
pass over a spot on Earth at a given time
every day.
67. Consider the following statements with
2. Geostationary Satellites are widely used for
reference to forces of nature :
telecommunications in India, whereas Sun
1. Gravitational force is always attractive,
Synchronous Satellites are preferred in
unlike electromagnetic force, which can be remote sensing and imaging satellites.
attractive or repulsive. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Unlike gravitational force, electromagnetic not correct ?
force needs an intervening medium to (a) 1 only

travel over large distances. (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2
3. Protons, neutrons, and electrons
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
experience strong nuclear force equally.
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70. Consider the following statements with respect 72. Consider the following statements regarding
to Black Holes : the Red List of Mangrove Ecosystems :
1. They are huge concentrations of matter 1. It is the first-ever global assessment by the
packed into very tiny spaces.
International Union for Conservation of
2. The rings of gas surrounding the Black
Nature.
Hole emit X-rays.
2. Nearly one-third of the global mangrove
3. As moving away from the center of the
black hole, the thickness of the rings ecosystem is affected due to global sea-

reduces. level rise.

How many of the statements given above are 3. The Eastern parts of India are categorised
correct ? as vulnerable in the Red list of Mangrove
(a) Only one Ecosystems.
(b) Only two
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(c) All three
(a) 1 only
(d) None
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
71. Consider the following :
Belong (d) 1 and 3 only
Sl.
Moon to Description
No.
Planet 73. Which of the following devices is used for
1. Titan Saturn Only moon with a detecting an optical signal ?
dense atmosphere (a) Photodiodes
like the earth
(b) Light emitting diodes
2. Callisto Jupiter Second Largest
(c) Photovoltaic device
moon in the solar
(d) Invertor
system
3. Europa Saturn Has atmosphere
primarily 74. Which of the following is the reason for an
composed of object to float when placed on the surface of
oxygen water ?
4. Triton Neptune Moon with (a) The gravitational pull acting on the object
Seasonal change
is greater than the up thrust of water on
and weather
the object.
pattern
(b) The density of the object is greater than
In which of the above rows is the given
information correctly matched ? the density of the water

(a) 1 and 2 (c) The density of the object is less than the
(b) 2 and 3 density of the water
(c) 3 and 4 (d) The up thrust of water on the object is less
(d) 1 and 4 than the weight of the object.

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75. With reference to the Anti-Submarine Warfare How many of the statements given above are
Shallow Water Craft (ASW SWC) project, correct ?
consider the following statements : (a) Only one
1. The Mahe class of ASW SWC ships, named (b) Only two
after ports of strategic importance along (c) Only three
the Indian coast, will undertake anti- (d) All four
submarine operations and mine-laying
operations. 78. With respect to the VIPER mission, consider
2. The ASW SWC ships with over 80% the following statements:
Indigenous content, which boosts India's 1. It is the first robotic Moon rover by ISRO.
progress towards ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’. 2. It is designed to search for volatile

Which of the statements given above is/are molecules, such as water and carbon

correct ? dioxide, at lunar temperatures.

3. During exploration, the rover will endure
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only extreme temperature conditions, dynamic

(c) Both 1 and 2 lighting, and complex terrain.

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above are

correct ?
76. The Periodic Labour Force Survey was
(a) 1 and 2 only
conducted by which of the following ministry ?
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) Ministry of Labour and Employment
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) Ministry of Finance
(c) Ministry of Statistics and program (d) 1, 2 and 3

implementation
(d) Ministry of Home Affairs 79. Consider the following statements :

1. Conventionally, in an electric circuit, the

77. Consider the following statements with
direction of electric current is taken as the
regards to the components of food :
direction of the flow of electrons.
1. Roughage or dietary fiber does not provide
2. The fuse material with high resistivity is
any nutrient to our body.
connected in series with the electrical
2. Fats give much more energy as compared
to the same amount of carbohydrates. circuits as a safety device.

3. Repeated washing of rice and pulses are Which of the statements given above is/are
important and its does not remove any of correct ?
the vitamins and minerals present in (a) 1 only
them.
(b) 2 only
4. All deficiency diseases can be prevented by
(c) Both 1 and 2
taking a balanced diet.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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80. Consider the following statements regarding Which of the statements given above is/are
Thalassemia : correct ?
1. It is an inherited blood disorder that (a) 1 only
causes a body to have less haemoglobin (b) 2 only
than normal. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Thalassemia disease can be treated by a (d) Neither 1 nor 2
bone marrow transplant.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ? 83. Consider the following statements :
(a) 1 only Statement-I :
X-rays are capable of scanning the inside
(b) 2 only
of the human body.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Statement-II :
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 X-rays have wavelengths between 0.01 to
10 nanometers, small enough to pass
between atoms in many materials.
81. Consider the following statements :
Statement-III :
1. Methane is the second most abundant
Dense materials like bones reflect more X-
anthropogenic greenhouse gas after rays and appear white on images.
carbon dioxide. Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements ?
2. Methanogens play a crucial role in the
(a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are
global carbon cycle by converting organic
correct and both of them explain
matter into methane. Statement-I
3. If the methane is from a biological source, (b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are
there will be more carbon-13 atoms in correct, but only one of them explains
Statement-I
1000 molecules.
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is
Which of the statements given above is/are correct and that explains Statement-I
correct ? (d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is
(a) 1 only correct

(b) 1 and 2 only 84. Consider the following pairs :

(c) 2 and 3 only Tradition State
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Ambubachi Mela - Assam
2. Raja Parba festival - Gujarat
3. Mata ni pachedi - Odisha
82. Consider the following statements :
paintings
1. Neutron stars are extremely dense, which How many of the above pairs are correctly
creates immense pressure that forces the matched ?
(a) Only one
neutrons into a quark matter.
(b) Only two
2. Unlike electrons, protons and neutrons are
(c) All three
composite particles made up of quarks. (d) None

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85. Which of the following properties does Which of the pairs given above are correct ?
Graphene, a 2-dimensional material, lack, (a) 1 and 2 only
posing a significant challenge to its use as a (b) 2 and 3 only
traditional semiconductor ?
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) Flexibility
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Mechanical strength
(c) Natural Bandgap
(d) Electrical conductivity 88. With reference to the Prime Minister's National
Relief Fund (PMNRF), consider the following
86. If a large asteroid were to impact the Earth, statements :
which of the following are the possible effects 1. PMNRF was originally established to offer
on the Earth ?
immediate relief during natural calamities.
1. Generation of massive tsunamis
2. In addition to public contributions, PMNRF
2. Mass Extinction event
3. Large-scale wildfires also receives support from the annual

4. Impact winter budget.

Select the correct codes from the options given 3. All contributions to the PMNRF are exempt
below : from Income Tax.
(a) 1 and 2 only Which of the above statements is/are not
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
correct ?
(c) 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2 only

87. Consider the following pairs : (c) 3 only

Satellites / Description (d) 2 and 3 only
Telescopes
1. PRATUSH - Radiometer in lunar 89. Consider the following statements :
orbit that will reveal
1. A Geomagnetic storm happens when the
the Cosmic Dawn of
particles from the Sun interact with the
our Universe.
2. Long-Baseline - Study magnetic Earth’s magnetic field.

Optical Imaging activity on stars and 2. Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) are large
Interferometer the centres of active clouds of plasma and magnetic fields
galaxies in visible hurled into space from the Sun.
and ultraviolet Which of the statements given above is/are
wavelengths.
correct ?
3. Queqiao-2 - Relay satellite to
(a) 1 only
support
communications (b) 2 only

with the current (c) Both 1 and 2

Chang'e-4 mission (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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90. With reference to reflecting telescopes, 93. Consider the following statements with respect
consider the following statements : to supercomputers :
1. In reflecting telescopes, mirrors produce
1. The efficiency of the supercomputers is
spherical aberration where the reflected
high at lower temperatures.
light rays converge at separate focal
points. 2. Their speed is measured in “FLOPS”.

2. In such a telescope, the objective mirror 3. “Param Shivey” is the fastest and largest
focuses light inside the telescope tube. AI supercomputer in India.
3. The Sampurnanand Telescope at the How many of the statements given above are
Aryabhatta Research Institute of
correct ?
Observational Sciences (ARIES), Nainital,
(a) Only one
is the largest reflecting telescope in India
for the study of celestial objects at optical (b) Only two
wavelengths. (c) All three
How many of the above statements are (d) None
correct?
(a) Only one
94. “Beamforming is a technique used to improve
(b) Only two
the signal-to-noise ratio of received signals
(c) All three
(d) None and eliminate undesirable interference
sources”. In this regard, which of the following
91. Consider the following statements with respect has its applications ?
to High Altitude Pseudo Satellites : 1. Radio Detection and Ranging (RADAR)
1. They are unmanned solar-powered
2. Sound Navigation and Ranging (SONAR)
vehicles operating in the troposphere.
3. Medical imaging
2. They are designed to bridge the gap
between unmanned aerial vehicles flying at 4. Seismology
lower altitudes and conventional satellites Select the correct answer using the codes
in space. given below :
3. The aeroplanes, airships and balloons can (a) 1 and 4 only
act as High Altitude Pseudo Satellites.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above are
(c) 3 and 4 only
correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 95. If a person holds a handkerchief close to his
(d) 1, 2 and 3 eyes and looks at the sun, it looks like circular
fringes. Which of the following phenomena is
92. Lipulekh Pass is situated near the trijunction
responsible for the above description ?
of India :
(a) China and Nepal (a) Diffraction of light
(b) Nepal and Bhutan (b) Interference of light
(c) Bangladesh and Myanmar (c) Scattering of light
(d) Myanmar and China (d) Polarisation
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96. Consider the following statements : 98. Consider the following pairs :
Types of Artificial
As per the Central Civil Services (Leave) Uses
Neural Networks
(Amendment) Rules, 2024 1. Convolutional - Speech
1. A surrogate mother who is a government Neural Networks recognition
2. Recurrent Neural - Image and video
employee and has fewer than two surviving
Networks processing
children can take 180 days of maternity 3. Generative - Deep fake
leave. Adversarial
Networks
2. It also allows both male and female
4. Generative Pre- - Natural language
government employees to take maternity trained Transformer processing
leave if they have children through Which of the pairs given above are correctly
matched ?
surrogacy. (a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct ? (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(a) 1 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 99. Consider the following :

1. Cloud burst
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Hailstorm
3. Heat waves
97. With reference to types of asteroids in the 4. Pest attack
5. Cold waves
solar system, consider the following
How many of the disasters listed above are
statements : made eligible for funding from the National
and State Disaster Response Funds in India ?
1. Carbonaceous asteroids, or C-type
(a) Only two
asteroids, are the most common of all (b) Only three
asteroid types. (c) Only four
(d) All five
2. Metallic M-type asteroids are more

common than stony S-type asteroids. 100. Consider the following :

3. C-type asteroids are the primary building 1. Sariska
2. Dampa
blocks of terrestrial planets like the earth.
3. Pench
Which of the statements given above is/are 4. Melghat
correct ? Arrange the Tiger Reserves mentioned above
in the North to South Direction using the
(a) 1 only codes given below.
(b) 1 and 3 only (a) 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
(b) 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
(c) 2 only
(c) 4 – 3 – 1 – 2
(d) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4
(22-A)
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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

PRESTORMINGTM
Test Booklet Series
TEST BOOKLET
T.B.C : P-SIA-A-GS
GENERAL STUDIES - PAPER – I
Serial : P-GSI-242506
ENVIRONMENT I
TEST – 06
A
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with
your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE A PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.66) of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as a penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be the same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

(1-A)
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1. Which of the following are examples of ecotone 3. Consider the following information:
Conservation Mode of
zones?
effort Conservation
1. Grasslands 1. Conserving rare and - Ex-situ
2. River banks threatened species conservation
of plants in
3. Mangrove forests
botanical gardens
4. Deserts 2. Reintroduction of - In-situ

5. Estuaries cheetahs in the wild conservation

3. Saving individual - In-situ
Select the correct answer using the codes
animals in Biological conservation
given below : parks
In how many of the above rows is the given
(a) 3 only
information incorrectly matched?
(b) 1, 3, and 4 (a) Only one
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) None

2. Consider the following statements: 4. Which of the following organisations released

the Global Gender Gap Index?
1. Community Reserves are non-statutory
(a) International Labour Organization
protected areas where communities engage (b) United Nations Commission on the Status
of Women
in wildlife conservation activities.
(c) World Economic Forum
2. The inhabitants of such reserves might (d) United Nations Development Programme
benefit from the improvement in their
5. Consider the following statements with respect
socio-economic conditions.
to Lake Ecosystems:
3. Changes in the land use pattern by 1. Dissolved oxygen level is higher in the
lentic system than in the lotic system.
inhabitants are permitted inside such
2. The oxygen content decreases with an
reserves.
increase in depth.
How many of the above statements are not 3. The Thermal stratification is minimal
during the summer season.
correct?
How many of the statements given above are
(a) Only one correct?
(b) Only two (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) All three
(d) None (d) None

(3-A)
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6. Which of the following activities are prohibited 8. With reference to 'Pump and Dump Scheme',

if the area is declared as Eco Sensitive Zone? sometimes seen in the news, consider the

1. Introduction of exotic species following statements :

1. It is a form of financial manipulation
2. Establishment of major hydroelectric
aimed at artificially inflating the stock's
power projects
price through false information.
3. Commercial use of Firewood
2. It enables the sale of the stock at an
4. Commercial use of natural water resources
inflated price, leaving investors with
5. Commercial Mining maximum profits.
Select the correct answer using the codes 3. In India, it is legalized under the
given below: guidelines of SEBI.

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only How many of the above statements are

correct?
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(a) Only one
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only
(b) Only two
(d) 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) All three
(d) None
7. Consider the following passage:

Trees in this forest shed their leaves in 9. With reference to Environmental legislations
autumn, and new foliage grows in spring. in India, consider the following statements:

These forests occur in areas with moderate 1. The Environment Protection Act is key to

climatic conditions, such as temperatures realizing and implementing the objectives

of the Stockholm conference.
ranging from 10 to 20°C, a six-month-long
2. As per the Wildlife Protection Amendment
winter, and an annual rainfall of 75 to 150
Act 2023, any wild animals killed or
cm. They have brown soils that are rich in
wounded in defense of any person shall
nutrients. These forests show stratification
not be an offense.
and have an understory of saplings, shrubs, 3. As per the Forest Conservation
and tall herbs. Hibernation or winter sleep is a Amendment Act 2023, prior consent from
common feature of animals found in these the tribal Gram Sabha was mandatory for

forests. any alterations to forests for non-forest

purposes.
Which of the following types of forests is
Which of the statements given above is/are
described in the above passage?
correct?
(a) Boreal forest
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Tropical rainforest
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Temperate rainforest (c) 3 only
(d) Temperate deciduous forest (d) 1, 2 and 3
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10. In which of the following regions of India will How many pairs given above are correctly
you most likely come across the ‘Asiatic wild matched ?
Gaur’ in its natural habitat ?
(a) Only one pair
(a) Higher Himalayas of Uttarakhand regions
(b) Only two pairs
(b) Desert Regions of northwest India
(c) Western Ghats (c) All three pairs

(d) Salt marshes of western Gujarat (d) None of the pairs

11. Consider the following statements: 13. With respect to Ecological succession,
Statement-I:
consider the following statements:
In India, any transfer of possession and
1. Based on the nature of the habitat,
birth of offsprings of Asian elephants shall
be registered with the Chief Wildlife hydrarch succession takes place in wet
Warden. areas while xerarch succession takes place
Statement II: in dry areas.
Wild life Protection Act mandates the
2. Primary succession is a slow process
registration of transfer and birth of species
compared to secondary succession for the
listed in the IUCN Red List of Threatened
climax to be reached.
Species.
Which of the following is correct in respect of Which of the statements given above is/are
the above statements? not correct?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (a) 1 only
correct and Statement-II is the correct
(b) 2 only
Explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is not the correct (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation for Statement-I

(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is 14. Consider the following:
incorrect 1. Fragmentation
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
2. Leaching
correct
3. Catabolism

12. Consider the following pairs : 4. Humification

Active volcanoes Location 5. Mineralization
often seen in the How many of the above are involved in the
news
process of decomposition in a terrestrial
1. Kilauea - Andaman
ecosystem?
Archipelago
2. Mount Kanlaon - Pacific Ring of (a) Only two

Fire (b) Only three

3. Hunga Tonga - Sumatra (c) Only four
Island (d) All five

(5-A)
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15. With reference to Biosphere reserves, consider 18. Consider the following statements:
the following statements: 1. Species richness helps to know if
1. Biosphere reserves aim to maintain every
particular species dominate a given site.
level of biodiversity, from genes to
2. Alpha diversity is the change in the
ecosystems of organisms.
amount of species between different
2. In India, Biosphere Reserves are
nominated by the Central government and ecosystems.

remain under the sovereignty of the 3. Gamma diversity measures the diversity of
respective state government. different ecosystems within a given region.
Which of the statements given above is/are
How many of the above statements are not
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only two

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) All three

(d) None
16. Consider the following with respect to the
'Phenome India' Project :
19. Consider the following statements:
1. It is an initiative launched by the Indian
1. The inclusion of a wetland in the Ramsar
Council for Medical Research.
2. The Project aims to assess risk factors in List can ensure that the government takes

non-communicable diseases and develop the necessary steps to maintain its

new strategies for preventing major ecological character.

diseases. 2. The Montreux Record contains Ramsar
Which of the statements given above is/are
Sites, which are at risk only due to natural
correct ?
reasons.
(a) 1 only
3. Keoladeo National Park, Chilika Lake and
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Loktak Lake are Indian sites currently

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 placed on the Montreux Record.

How many of the statements given above

17. Avicennia, Bruguiera and Sonneratia are
is/are correct?
species of :
(a) Only one
(a) Bamboos
(b) Only two
(b) Mosses
(c) Mangroves (c) All three

(d) Coral Reefs (d) None

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20. This method of afforestation can generate Which of the statements given above is/are
dense and biodiverse forests within a brief correct?
period of time. The emphasis of the method is
(a) 1 only
on planting indigenous flora that can
(b) 2 only
withstand local climate and soil conditions.
This approach has the potential to reduce air (c) Both 1 and 2
and noise pollution, and to recharge the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
groundwater table.
Which of the following denotes the
23. Which one of the following has not been
afforestation method described above?
constituted under the Wildlife Protection
(a) Agroforestry
(b) Direct seeding Amendment Act, 2022?
(c) Natural regeneration 1. National Board for Wildlife
(d) Miyawaki Plantations 2. National Tiger Conservation Authority
3. National Green Tribunal
21. With reference to Indian wild ass (Equus
4. Wildlife Crime Control Bureau
hemionus khur) species, consider the following
statements: Select the correct answer using the codes
1. The little Rann of Kutch is the only given below:
remaining habitat of this species. (a) 1 only
2. Their digestive systems are adept at
(b) 2 and 3 only
processing xerophytic vegetation.
(c) 3 only
3. These species are protected under
Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act. (d) 3 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above are
correct? 24. With reference to the Post Office Act 2023,
(a) 1 and 2 only
consider the following statements:
(b) 1 and 3 only
1. The Act provides for the office of the
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Director General of Postal Services to
regulate postal services in India.
22. With respect to Biological Diversity 2. The Act prescribes penal punishment for
Amendment Act 2023, consider the following
unauthorised interception of postal articles
statements:
1. As per the act, the National Biodiversity by a central government officer.

Authority takes measures to oppose the Which of the statements given above is/are
grant of intellectual property rights to correct?
Indian biological resources outside India.
(a) 1 only
2. As per the act, biological resources include
(b) 2 only
the genetic material of plants and animals,
human genetic material and their by- (c) Both 1 and 2

products. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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25. Consider the following pairs: 28. With reference to the Ayush survey conducted
Species Activity pattern from July 2022 to June 2023, consider the
1. Andaman White- Diurnal following statements:
toothed Shrew 1. The National Sample Survey Office
2. Pygmy hog Nocturnal collected information on the prevalence of
3. Malabar Civet Nocturnal traditional systems of healthcare in India
How many of the above pairs is/are correct?
through the Ayush survey.
(a) Only one
2. Urban areas saw a prevalence of Ayush for
(b) Only two
the prevention of illnesses more than the
(c) All three
rural areas of India.
(d) None
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
26. Which of the following ecological pyramids
(a) 1 only
can’t be inverted?
(b) 2 only
(a) Pyramid of Energy
(b) Pyramid of biomass (c) Both 1 and 2

(c) Pyramid of numbers (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) None of the above

29. Consider the following statements with respect

27. With reference to the National Biodiversity to Bird species endemism in India:
Authority (NBA), consider the following 1. Though India is home to many bird
statements: species, only 5% of the species are
1. NBA is a constitutional body that advises endemic to India.
State Governments to notify areas of 2. The Western Ghats Bio-geographic zone
biodiversity importance as heritage sites has the highest number of bird species
2. NBA’s headquarters is situated in New
endemism followed by the Andaman and
Delhi.
Nicobar Islands.
3. Tungkyong Dho in Ladakh and Gupteswar
3. Among the states, Tamil Nadu has more
forest in Odisha are Biodiversity Heritage
number of endemic bird species in the
Sites under the Biological Diversity Act of
country.
2002.
How many of the statements given above are
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) Only three (c) All three

(d) None (d) None

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30. Which of the following sets of insects are 33. Which of the following are reasons for
maintaining flora at botanical gardens?
considered to be indicators of freshwater
1. To study the acclimatisation process of
quality in lakes and rivers? exotic plants.

(a) Fruit flies and damselflies 2. To secure plant diversity by acting as a

germplasm collection.
(b) Dragonflies and damselflies 3. To provide information on the taxonomy of
(c) Dragonflies and Butterflies plant species.
4. To spread awareness about threats to
(d) Fruit flies and Butterflies
plants and to evolve possible solutions.
5. To develop improved varieties of plants for
commercial purposes.
31. As per International standards, which of the
Select the correct answer using the code given
following metals can be present in the below :

Drinking Water? (a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
1. Fluoride (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
2. Aluminium (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

3. Sulphate
34. Consider the following statements:
4. Manganese Statement 1:
The Boreal Forest soils are acidic and
5. Cadmium
mineral deficient, characterised by thin
Select the correct answer using the codes podzols.

given below: Statement 2:

In boreal forests, the essential soluble
(a) 1 and 3 only nutrients are leached away due to the
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only absence of a counter upward movement of
evaporation.
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
Which one of the following is correct with
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 respect to the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct, and Statement II is the correct
32. In the context of space technology, the explanation of Statement I

‘Pushpak’ refers to: (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are

correct, but Statement II is not the correct
(a) A remote-sensing satellite explanation of Statement I
(b) A rover on Chandrayaan 3 (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect
(c) A sounding rocket
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
(d) A reusable launch vehicle is correct

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35. Which of the following is/are the possible How many of the above statements is/are not
consequences of Eutrophication? correct?
1. Species richness due to nutrient (a) Only one
enrichment (b) Only two

2. Increased biomass production of epiphytic (c) All three

algae (d) None

3. Increase in bloom of gelatinous

38. Consider the following statements with respect
zooplankton
to Kelp Forest:
Select the correct answer using the codes
1. They are underwater ecosystems formed in
given below:
shallow water by dense growth of larger
(a) 1 only
blue-green algae.
(b) 1 and 2 only
2. They are heterotrophs found in cold and
(c) 2 only
nutrient-rich waters.
(d) 2 and 3 only
3. El Niño southern oscillation (ENSO) events
lead to distortion of the kelp ecosystem.
36. Consider the following : Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
1. Nakti Bird Sanctuary correct?
2. Sirpur Lake (a) 1 and 2 only
3. Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary (b) 2 only
4. Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve (c) 3 only
How many of the above wetlands in India have (d) 2 and 3 only
been included in Ramsar List in the year
2023? 39. Consider the following statements:
(a) Only one 1. The Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline
(b) Only two Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI)

(c) Only three scheme promotes restoration and

(d) All four reforestation of Mangroves only on salt pan

lands.
2. India is not a member of the Mangrove
37. Consider the following statements:
Alliance for Climate (MAC) which aims to
1. An increase in the concentration of a
restore mangrove belts to help limit coastal
pollutant from the environment in an
flooding and the effect of sea level rise.
organism is called biomagnification.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. The tendency of pollutants to increase in
not correct?
concentration from one link in a food chain
(a) 1 only
to another is bioaccumulation.
(b) 2 only
3. Pollutants that are long-lived, mobile and
(c) Both 1 and 2
soluble in fats aid biomagnification. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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40. Consider the following statements with Which of the statements given above is/are
reference to the Competition Commission of correct?

India(CCI): (a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only
1. CCI is empowered to approve equity stake
(c) 1 and 3 only
acquisitions of a firm by another firm.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. CCI is mandated to protect consumers
against anti-profiteering practices. 43. Consider the following statements:
3. CCI can approve the realignment of legal Statement-I :
ownership within firms in India. Starfish act as a Keystone species in North

How many of the above statements is/are America.

Statement-II :
correct?
Starfish feed upon the mussel and do not
(a) Only one
allow it to dominate the ecosystem.
(b) Only two Which one of the following is correct in respect
(c) All three of the above statements?
(d) None (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II explains

41. Lion-tailed Macaques are habitat specialists Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
confined to a narrow range of which of the
correct, but Statement-II does not explain
following types of forest?
Statement-I
(a) Thorny forest (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
(b) Evergreen forest incorrect
(c) Deciduous forest (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II
(d) Alpine forest is correct

44. Consider the following statements:

42. With respect to Environment Impact
1. The Constitution of India mentions that a
Assessment (EIA), consider the following
pro-tem Speaker presides over the
statements: Parliament house until the Speaker is
1. EIA is an important management tool for elected.
ensuring optimal use of natural resources 2. The pro-tem Speaker administers the oath
for sustainable development. of office to the newly elected members of

2. The Appraisal committee is constituted to the house.

Which of the statements given above is/are
screen and evaluate the environmental
not correct?
projects both at the central and State
(a) 1 only
levels. (b) 2 only
3. EIA is mandatory for all projects under the (c) Both 1 and 2
Environmental Protection Act 1986. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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45. Consider the following: Which of the statements given above is/are

1. Calcium cycle correct?

2. Phosphorus cycle (a) 1 only
3. Magnesium cycle
(b) 2 only
How many of the above is/are examples of
(c) Both 1 and 2
gaseous nutrient cycles?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Only one

(b) Only two

48. What is the importance of developing Mongla
(c) All three

(d) None Port by India ?

(a) India's relations with oil-producing Arab

46. Which of the following leads to desertification countries will be strengthened.

of land? (b) India's trade with African countries will

1. Increase in mining activities enormously increase.
2. Afforestation activities
(c) It is the only feasible land route for trade
3. Overgrazing by cattle
between India and Myanmar.
4. Decrease in population pressure
(d) India will establish a strategic foothold in
Select the correct answer using the code given
the Bay of Bengal.
below :

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only 49. Consider the following fauna:

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only 1. Kangaroo

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only 2. Opossum

3. Koala

47. With reference to algal blooms, consider the 4. Red panda

following statements:
How many of the above are considered
1. All algal blooms are harmful as they
Marsupials?
produce toxins that affect marine
(a) Only one
organisms and humans.
(b) Only two
2. Phosphates and nitrogen enrichment in
(c) Only three
water and unusually warm water are ideal
(d) All four
conditions for algal bloom occurrence.
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50. Consider the following with respect to the 52. Which of the following are true about
mode of distribution of organisms within a
applications of technical textiles?
population:
1. They help in harvesting of crops
Mode of Characterist
Reason 2. They aid in soundproofing buildings
Distribution -ics
3. They can act as reinforcement in dam
Every
Resources engineering
individual
are equally
has an equal 4. They can be used in producing higher-end
1. Random available
chance to tyres
throughout
occur at a
the year. 5. They can be used in the packaging of food
place.
items
Severe
Select the correct answer using the code given
competition
Individuals
between below:
2. Uniform congregate in
individuals of (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
groups.
the same
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
species.
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
Non-
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Even spacing uniformity of
is found climatic
3. Clumped
between conditions 53. Consider the following statements:
individuals. and social
1. Central Zoo Authority (CZA) is a statutory
behaviour.
body constituted as per the Biological
In how many of the rows given above the
information provided are correct? Diversity Act of 2002.

(a) Only one 2. Zoos conserve specific species through

(b) Only two
biobanking of their genetic materials.
(c) All three
3. CZA is in charge of sanctioning the
(d) None
exchange of organisms between Indian and
51. Who establishes the Biodiversity Management
abroad zoos.
Committee within the area to promote
How many of the above statements is/are
conservation, sustainable use and
documentation of biological diversity? correct?
(a) National Biodiversity Board (a) Only one
(b) Ministry of Environment, Forest and
(b) Only two
Climate Change
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) All three
(d) None of the above (d) None

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54. Consider the following plant species: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Lantana camara correct?
2. Mikania micrantha (a) 1 and 2 only
3. Senna spectabilis (b) 2 only
4. Chromolaena odorata (c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the above invasive plant species (d) 1, 2 and 3
create a serious environmental issue,
predominantly found in the Western Ghats?
58. Consider the following protected areas:
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. Kaziranga National park
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
2. Pallikaranai marshland
(c) 3 and 4 only
3. Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. Ranthambore national park
How many of the above mentioned protected
55. With reference to the Red Data Book, consider
the following statements: areas are in transitional zones present in two

1. The Red Data Book is published by the different ecosystems?

Convention on International Trade in (a) Only one

Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and (b) Only two
Flora (CITES). (c) Only three
2. It contains information on threatened (d) All four
species of animals, plants as well as fungi.
Which of the statements given above is/are 59. Consider the following statements with respect
correct? to the characteristics of the Mangrove
(a) 1 only ecosystem:
(b) 2 only 1. They are present in the littoral forest
(c) Both 1 and 2
ecosystem.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Halophytic plants are more dominant in
this ecosystem.
56. Which of the following is not a part of the 'Five
3. Dominance of benthic fauna communities.
Eyes Alliance'?
4. Roots possess pneumatophore for
(a) Australia
aeration.
(b) Russia
5. It includes a diverse composition of trees
(c) New Zealand
(d) Canada and shrubs.
How many of the above statements are

57. Consider the following statements: correct?

1. All heterotrophs are herbivores. (a) Only two
2. Heterotrophs can act as decomposers (b) Only three
3. Both bacteria and Viruses are (c) Only four
heterotrophic organisms. (d) All five

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60. Consider the following : How many of the above statements is/are
1. Abu Musa correct?
2. Greater Tunb (a) Only one
3. Lesser Tunb (b) Only two
What is the correct sequence of the above (c) All three
three islands in the strategic Strait of Hormuz (d) None
from the west to the east ?
(a) 1 – 2 - 3 63. Consider the following pairs:
(b) 2 – 1 - 3 Species Description
(c) 1 – 3 - 2
1. Ringed - It is the first egg-
(d) 2 – 3 - 1
caecilians laying amphibian
that
61. Consider the following statements with
feed milk to its
reference to Succession:
young ones.
1. Autotrophic succession is the succession
2. Minervarya - It is the only frog
in which only green plants are present in
charlesdarwini species that
substantial amounts initially.
deposits its
2. Allogenic succession is the succession in
eggs in a vertical,
which external forces bring changes to a
upside-down
site.
position.
Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Long-beaked - It is critically
correct?
echidna endangered egg-
(a) 1 only
laying mammal
(b) 2 only
Which of the pairs given above are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only

62. Consider the following statements: (c) 1 and 3 only

1. The Chief Wildlife Warden may permit a (d) 1, 2 and 3

person to enter a National Park for

scientific research. 64. Lal, Mursan and Hilsa are the names given to

2. In India, only State Governments can which of the following?

declare an area of the reserve forest as a (a) Craters on Mars

National Park. (b) Spots where water was found on the Moon
3. Grazing of livestock subject to certain (c) Moons of Jupiter
restrictions is permitted in National Parks. (d) None of the above

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65. With respect to types of ecosystems, consider 68. Consider the following statements:
the following statements:
1. Yoga was practised by the people of the
1. In terrestrial ecosystems, the detritus food
Indus Valley Civilization.
chain has a larger energy flow than the
grazing food chain. 2. Yogasūtra written by Vātsyāyana, is a
2. The grazing food chain is the major compilation of the rules of Yoga.
conduit for energy flow in an aquatic
3. Yoga can bring about positive changes in
ecosystem than the terrestrial ecosystem.
3. The detritus food chain is absent in an the behaviour of Opioid Use Disorder

aquatic ecosystem. patients.

How many of the statements given above are
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (a) Only one
(c) All three (b) Only two
(d) None
(c) All three

66. Consider the following : (d) None

1. Sea stars
2. Sea horses
69. With reference to coral reefs, consider the
3. Sea urchins
4. Sea cucumbers following statements:

Which of the above-mentioned marine animals 1. Dinoflagellate helps in reef formation.

are classified as ‘Echinoderms’?
2. They are found in shallow waters.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
3. They require high-salinity and silt-free
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only water.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 4. Atoll and barrier reefs are mature corals

while fringing reefs are considered

67. Which of the following statements is incorrect
about cloud forests? immature as they do not produce lagoons.
(a) They are found at altitudes between 1,000 How many of the statements given above are
and 2,500 metres.
correct?
(b) They have trees with reduced statute and
high stem density. (a) Only one

(c) They are primarily composed of coniferous (b) Only two

trees.
(c) Only three
(d) The trees are covered with mosses,
(d) All four
climbing ferns and lichens.

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70. Consider the following: How many of the above statements is/are not
1. Falcons correct?
2. Vultures (a) Only one
3. Eagles (b) Only two
4. Owls (c) All three
Which of the above ‘raptor’ species are (d) None
nocturnal in nature?
(a) 1 and 3 only 73. Which of the following is/are unique
(b) 2 and 4 only characteristic/characteristics of the desert
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only ecosystem?
(d) 4 only 1. Ephemeral plants are predominantly found
in desert ecosystems.
71. Consider the following: 2. Cold deserts experience a wider range of
Sl. Biodiversity State temperatures compared to hot deserts.
No. Heritage Site 3. Both hot and cold deserts are sandy and
1. Majuli River - Assam have low organic matter content.
Island Select the correct answer using the codes
2. Naro Hills - Madhya Pradesh given below:
3. Bambarde - Maharashtra (a) 1 and 2 only
Myristica Swamps (b) 2 and 3 only
How many of the pairs given above are (c) 1 and 3 only
correctly matched? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 74. Consider the following statements:
(c) All three 1. Genetic diversity offers the advantage of
(d) None enabling species with desirable genes to
adapt to environmental changes.
72. Consider the following statements: 2. Species diversity in a biome is indicated by
1. Krishi Sakhis are agricultural para- the ratio of a particular species population
extension workers with knowledge of to the total number of species in that
agroecological practices. biome.
2. The Krishi Sakhi Convergence Programme Which of the statements given above is/are
(KSCP) is implemented in India under the correct?
‘Lakhpati Didi' program. (a) 1 only
3. One of the components of training under (b) 2 only
KSCP is imparting basic communication (c) Both 1 and 2
skills to Krishi Sakhis. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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75. Consider the following: 77. Consider the following statements:

1. These are the major constituents of
Sl. Ecosystem Dominated Reason
biological membranes, nucleic acids and
No. by
cellular energy transfer systems.
1. Terrestrial Grazing High rate of 2. Many animals need this element in large

food chains harvest quantities to make shells, bones and teeth.

3. There is no respiratory release of this
2. Shallow Detritus Major
element into the atmosphere.
Water food chains proportion of The above statements describe which of the
the annual following elements?
(a) Nitrogen
energy flow
(b) Sulphur
passes (c) Phosphorus
through (d) Carbon

these chains.
78. Thanthai Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary is
3. Deep Grazing Rapid
encompassed in which of the following
Water food chains turnover of protected areas?

organisms (a) Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve, Kollegal Forests

and Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary
Which of the rows mentioned above are
(b) Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve, Gulf of Mannar
correctly matched? and Agarthiarmalai Tiger Reserve
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Mudumalai Tiger Reserve,
Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve and
(b) 1 and 3 only
Anamalai Tiger Reserve
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) Mukurthi and Srivilliputhur Tiger Reserves
(d) 1, 2 and 3 and Megamalai Tiger Reserve

79. Which of the following processes can lead to

76. What is 'ABHYAS,' recently seen in the news ?
an increase in Population Density?
(a) High-speed expendable aerial target 1. Natality

designed by DRDO 2. Mortality

3. Immigration
(b) Short-range ballistic missile designed by
4. Emigration
Russia Select the correct answer using the codes
(c) Javelin anti-tank missile developed by given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
United States of America
(b) 2 and 4 only
(d) Defence collaboration between India and (c) 1 and 3 only
Japan (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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80. Consider the following pairs : Which of the above are Ecosystem services
Islands often Location provided by biodiversity?
mentioned in
(a) 2 and 5 only
the news
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
1. Gardi Sugdub - Caribbean Sea
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
Island
2. Crete Island - South China Sea (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

3. Delos Island - Red sea

How many of the above pairs are correctly 83. The place “A” is the transitional zone between
matched ? terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems. It has
(a) Only one pair
hydric soils and periodic flooding from
(b) Only two pairs
adjacent deep-water habitats. The dominant
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs plants are hydrophytes, which are adapted to
shallow waterlogged soils. This place includes
81. Consider the following information: lake littorals, floodplains and other marshy or
1. It is a small arboreal mammal. swamp areas.
2. It thrives best at 4,800m in mixed
The place “A” is which of the following types of
deciduous and coniferous forests.
ecosystem?
3. It is listed as Endangered in the IUCN Red
List of Threatened Species. (a) Estuary ecosystem

4. It is the state animal of Sikkim. (b) Wetland ecosystem

Which of the following animals is described (c) Mangroves
above? (d) Ocean ecosystem
(a) Hillock Gibbon
(b) Lion-tailed Macaque
84. Consider the following :
(c) Red Panda
1. Angola
(d) Giant Squirrel
2. Namibia
82. With reference to services provided by 3. Zimbabwe
biodiversity to humans, consider the following 4. Malawi
statements:
5. Mozambique
1. It provides medicinal resources and
How many of the above countries are part of
pharmaceutical drugs.
the Kavango Zambezi Transfrontier
2. It has recreational value and tourism
potential. Conservation Area?

3. It contributes to climate stability. (a) Only two

4. It provides diversity in genes, species and (b) Only three
ecosystems. (c) Only four
5. It helps in research and education.
(d) All five
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85. With respect to Total Forest cover in India, 87. Which of the following organisms has a

consider the following statements: different breathing mechanism than that of

1. The total forest cover of the country is humans?

21.71% of the geographical area of the (a) Cow

country. (b) Cat

2. The country’s total forest cover is recorded (c) Earthworm

more in Arunachal Pradesh as compared (d) Dog

to other states.

Which of the statements given above is/are 88. With reference to Diatoms, consider the
following statements:
correct?
1. They are microscopic algae responsible for
(a) 1 only
around one-fourth of the global oxygen
(b) 2 only
production.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. They are endemic to Asia and North
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
America continents.
3. They are absent in brackish water
86. Consider the following statements with
ecosystems.
reference to Olive Ridley Turtles (Lepidochelys
4. They act as indicator species of their
olivacea):
aquatic habitats.
1. They inhabit the warm waters of the
Which of the statements given above is/are
Pacific, Atlantic and Indian oceans.
not correct?
2. Due to their numbers declining over the
(a) 1 and 4
past few years, the species is recognised as
(b) 2 and 3
Endangered by the IUCN Red List.
(c) 1, 2, and 3
3. They are herbivorous and feed on
(d) 2, 3 and 4
phytoplanktons and seaweeds.

4. The coast of Odisha in India is the largest 89. The UNFF “Country led initiative”, sometimes
mass nesting site for this species in the seen in news, related to,
world. (a) Forest fires and Sustainable forest
Which of the statements given above are management
correct? (b) Assessing the overall carbon footprint by
(a) 1 and 4 only the use of fossil fuels
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) Protection of biodiversity
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) Developmental research in Scientific
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only forestry

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90. In ideal environmental conditions, which of 94. Consider the following statements with respect
the following species has high biotic potential? to Indian Rhinos :
1. Bacteria 1. They are endemic to India.
2. Mammals 2. They mark their territorial boundaries by
3. Insects Scent-marking.
Select the correct answer using the codes 3. They have a gestation period of 16 months,
given below : after which the female rhinos usually leave
(a) 2 only a gap of 3 years for the next pregnancy.
(b) 2 and 3 only 4. Their horns are permanent and, if
(c) 1 and 3 only damaged it doesn’t regrow.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 How many of the statements mentioned above
are correct?
91. Which of the following groups of organisms are (a) Only one
found on the air-water interface in an Aquatic (b) Only two
Ecosystem? (c) Only three
(a) Neuston
(d) All four
(b) Periphyton
(c) Plankton
95. What is/are unique about ‘Brahma Kamal’, a
(d) Benthos
species found in India ?
1. It is a nocturnal blooming flower.
92. Which of the following organisations brings
2. It can thrive in harsh conditions.
out the "Container Port Performance Index"?
3. It is found in the Himalayas at 4500 to
(a) World Economic Forum
5000m altitudes.
(b) World Bank
Select the correct answer using the codes
(c) Organization for Economic Cooperation
given below:
and Development
(a) 1 only
(d) World Trade Organization
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
93. Consider the following regions:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The Indo-Burma Region
2. Terrai-Duar Savannah grasslands
96. Recently, India's first ever pilot project for
3. The Sundarbans
Underground Coal Gasification was proposed
4. The Himalayas
in which of the following states ?
Which of the above are biodiversity hotspots ?
(a) Odisha
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Jharkhand
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) West Bengal
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) Chattisgarh
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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97. Consider the following: 100. Consider the following information:

1. Finless Porpoise Type of Biotic

Description Example
2. Dugong
Interaction
3. Himalayan Serow
1. Parasitism One species Lice on
4. Indian Flying Fox
benefits, the humans
5. Greater Flamingo
other is
6. Neel kurinji
harmed
How many of the species mentioned above are

protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife during the

Protection Act 1972? interaction

(a) Only three 2. Commensalism Both Pollinators

(b) Only four
species like bees
(c) Only five
benefit from and
(d) All six
the flowers

interaction
98. With reference to India’s biodiversity, Northern
3. Amensalism Both Large tree
Shoveler, Nilgiri Laughing thrush, and

Garganey are, species are shades a

(a) Birds harmed small

(b) Reptiles during the plant

(c) Primates
interaction
(d) Amphibians
In how many of the above rows is the given

information correctly matched?

99. Which among the following countries
(a) Only one
launched the world's first wooden satellite to
(b) Only two
combat space pollution?

(a) India (c) All three

(b) Russia (d) None

(c) Japan

(d) USA

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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

PRESTORMINGTM
Test Booklet Series
TEST BOOKLET
T.B.C : P-SIA-A-GS
GENERAL STUDIES - PAPER – I
Serial : P-GSI-242507
CURRENT AFFAIRS
TEST – 07
A
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with
your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE A PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.66) of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as a penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be the same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

(1-A)
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1. Consider the following statements with How many of the above statements is/are
reference to the India Meteorological correct?
Department (IMD):
(a) Only one
1. IMD is a statutory body that serves
(b) Only two
weather-dependent sectors like agriculture
(c) Only three
and offshore oil explorations through
forecasts and alerts. (d) All four

2. Weather Analysis and Forecast Enabling

System (WAFES) by the IMD aims to help 4. Which among the following organisations is a
with decision-making related to socio-
part of the Global Good Alliance for Gender
economic impact of severe weather events.
Equity and Equality along with the
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Government of India?

(a) 1 only (a) United Nations Development Programme

(b) 2 only (b) World Economic Forum
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) World Bank Group
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) United Nations Human Rights Council

2. The Strait of Bab-el-Mandeb connects which

of the following ? 5. In this style of temple architecture, the whole

(a) Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden temple stands on a stone platform with steps
(b) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea leading up to it. The sanctum or garbhagriha
(c) Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean Sea
is always located directly under the tallest
(d) Persian Gulf and the Indian Ocean
tower or shikhara. River goddesses are usually

found at the entrance of the sanctum.

3. With reference to the Great Indian Bustard,
consider the following statements: Elaborate boundary walls or gateways are

1. They are categorised as Critically generally absent in this order of temple

Endangered on the IUCN Red List. architecture. Such temples have mandapas or
2. They face the threat of collision with high-
halls typically built as Phamsana buildings.
tension power lines around their natural
Identify the temple architecture style of India
habitat.
described by the above passage?
3. They are herbivores.
4. The Ministry of Environment and Forests (a) Vesara architecture

aims to conserve the species under the (b) Nagara architecture

Integrated Development of Wildlife (c) Dravidian architecture
Habitats programme.
(d) None of the above
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6. Consider the following : 9. Consider the following statements:

1. Chromates
1. Heat Waves are considered a notified
2. Fluorites
disaster in India according to the Disaster
3. Arsenic
4. Cadmium Management Act, 2005.
How many of the above is/are considered to
2. Exposure to heat waves could harm the
have carcinogenic properties in it?
(a) Only one physical and mental wellbeing of humans.

(b) Only two 3. Cool Roofs are an inexpensive solution to

(c) Only three
prevent both urban heat island effect and
(d) All four
heat waves.

7. Consider the following forts of Maratha How many of the above statements is/are
Military Landscapes of India:
correct?
1. Suvarnadurg Fort
2. Panhala Fort (a) Only one
3. Gingee Fort (b) Only two
4. Raigad Fort
(c) Only three
How many of the above are situated outside
Maharashtra? (d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
10. Consider the following statements:
(c) Only three
(d) All four 1. Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products

Act, 2003 bans sale of the tobacco

8. Consider the following statements:
products to minors in India.
1. Prevention of premature ripening
2. Eliminating harmful residues 2. m-Cessation initiative under the National
3. Distinguishing the origin of food
Health Mission aims to help people to quit
4. Sanitising pre-packaged fresh food
produce tobacco use.

5. Preventing spread of foodborne disease Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the above are considered as the
correct?
applications of nuclear technology in food
safety and control? (a) 1 only

(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 only

(b) 1, 3, and 4
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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11. Consider the following statements: In how many of the above rows is the given
1. H5N2 and H5N1 are influenza viruses that information correctly matched?

cause infectious respiratory disease in (a) Only one

(b) Only two
birds.
(c) Only three
2. H5N2 transmits to humans while H5N1
(d) None
only infects birds.
3. Vaccines to prevent transmission of H5N2
14. Consider the following statements:
to humans are prescribed by the World 1. Biocovers made of compost that can
Organisation for Animal Health. improve microbial oxidation by
How many of the above statements is/are methanotrophic bacteria.
correct? 2. Biocovers can prevent landfill fires by
(a) Only one mitigating methane emissions.

(b) Only two Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?
(c) Only three
(a) 1 only
(d) None
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
12. With reference to Digital Health Incentive (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Scheme which of the following statement is
not correct? 15. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) It aspires to increase digital health the Indian National Centre for Ocean
transactions in India. Information Services:

(b) It incentivises health facilities for digitising 1. It has launched a Small Vessel Advisory
and Forecast Services to warn about rapid
patients’ health records.
development of the wind sea.
(c) It leads to better quality healthcare by
2. It furnishes information on ocean energy
having ease of access to health records.
potential of the Indian Exclusive Economic
(d) It is applicable only to public hospitals
Zone.
and clinics of India. 3. It facilitated the deployment of gliders to
study sea temperatures and the
13. Consider the following information: geochemical process in Antarctica.
City State/Union UNESCO 4. It provides tsunami alerts to the Indian

Territory Recognition Ocean Rim countries through the Early

Warning Centre.
1. Kozhikode Kerala City of
Which of the statements given above is/are
Literature
correct ?
2. Srinagar Jammu and World Craft
(a) 1, 2 and 4
Kashmir City
(b) 2, 3 and 4
3. Gwalior Rajasthan City of (c) 1, 3 and 4
Music (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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16. Consider the following statements: 18. Consider the following statements:

1. The Global Soil Partnership (GSP) 1. The Indian Constitution mentions

launched by the United Nations restrictions on political party leaders
Convention to Combat Desertification
designated as ‘star campaigners’ during
advocates sustainable soil management
elections.
practices.
2. Misleading advertisements can be
2. The GSP Plenary Assembly is the supreme
penalised by courts as a violation of the
decision-making body of the GSP.
Model Code of Conduct.
3. GSP deployed nuclear techniques to

maximise agricultural productivity while Which of the statements given above is/are

preventing soil degradation. correct?

How many of the above statements is/are not (a) 1 only

correct? (b) 2 only

(a) Only one (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Only two
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Only three

(d) None
19. With reference to Coronal Mass Ejections

(CMEs), consider the following statements:

17. Consider the following statements regarding
1. CMEs result in magnetic storms when they
Environmental Performance Index (EPI), 2024:
come across planetary magnetic fields.
1. India ranks first among the South Asian

Countries in the index. 2. Geomagnetic storms associated with CMEs

2. Transboundary pollution from India affects might cause auroral light displays on the

the wellbeing of the people of Bangladesh. Earth.

3. Per capita emission of greenhouse gases by 3. CMEs will negatively affect the working of
India is lesser than that of the United
satellites.
States.
How many of the above statements is/are
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) Only three

(d) None (d) None

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20. Consider the following statements with Which of the statements given above is/are
reference to the population of leopards in not correct?

India : (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
1. The leopard population is absent in the
(c) Both 1 and 2
southern part of India.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The decline in leopard population is
majorly due to conflicts with humans. 23. Which of the following Articles of the Indian
3. The National Tiger Conservation Authority Constitution speaks about Uniform civil code ?
is responsible for population estimation of (a) Article 14
this species in India. (b) Article 28

4. They dwell in mangrove forests similar to (c) Article 32

(d) Article 44
the tiger population in India.
Which of the statements given above are
24. Consider the following statements with respect
correct?
to Ethanol100 :
(a) 1 and 4 1. It contains a blend of ethanol, saturated
(b) 2 and 3 alcohol and motor spirit.
(c) 2, 3 and 4 2. It could help in improving air quality.
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 3. It can be used only in flex-fuel vehicles.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
21. Which of the following statement is correct
(a) Only one
regarding the Swachhata Green Leaf Rating
(b) Only two
Initiative of India:
(c) Only three
(a) It promotes Sustainable tourism (d) None
practices in India
(b) It advocates Zero-waste farming practices 25. Consider the following States:
in India 1. Mizoram

(c) It deals with the Sustainable packaging of 2. Tripura

3. Manipur
food crops in India
4. Nagaland
(d) None of the above
5. Arunachal Pradesh
6. Assam
22. Consider the following statements with How many of the above-mentioned Indian
reference to Agni-V missile: States share a land border with Myanmar?
1. Agni-V is an intercontinental ballistic (a) Only two
missile with a range of 200 kms. (b) Only three

2. The missile can deploy multiple warheads (c) Only four

(d) Only five
at multiple locations.

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26. Consider the following: 29. With reference to India’s AI technology,

1. Pradhan Mantri Virasat KaSamvardhan
consider the following statements :
(PM VIKAS) Scheme
2. Haj Pilgrimage 2023 1. Hanooman is a series of large Indic
3. Nai Roshni language models trained on all scheduled
4. Seekho Aur Kamao
languages, developed by NITI Aayog.
5. Prime Minister Jan Vikas Karyakaram
(PMJVK) 2. VizzhyGPT is the first customised AI model
How many of the above Schemes/initiatives to work for healthcare.
are implemented by the Ministry of Minority
3. Currently, hanooman can respond only in
Affairs?
(a) Only two four languages Tamil, Telugu, Malayalam
(b) Only three
and Marathi.
(c) Only four
(d) All five How many of the above statements are

correct?
27. Consider the following statements with
(a) Only one
reference to the National Green Tribunal:
1. Its chairperson will be appointed by the (b) Only two
President of India in consultation with the (c) All three
Chief Justice of India.
(d) None
2. It does not comply with the Code of Civil
Procedure 1908.
3. Its members hold office for a term of five 30. With reference to Morodharo, consider the
years and are eligible for reappointment.
following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 1. It is a recently discovered Harappa site
(a) 1 and 2 only
found in Haryana.
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 2. It is an large fortified settlement that
(d) 1, 2 and 3 includes a well and burial cairns in it.

3. This settlement yielded a large quantity of

28. Recently, the Government of India has
organised the purple festival which aims in : Harappan pottery, similar to those found
(a) Exhibiting the unique tribal handicraft in Dholavira.
products
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Providing free higher education to the
population of Naxal districts in India correct?
(c) Promoting inclusivity and equality of
(a) 1 and 2 only
persons with disability among the
society (b) 2 only
(d) Promoting Indian coffee aroma in the (c) 2 and 3 only
international arena
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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31. Consider the following statements with Which of the statements given above is/are
reference to Steinernema : correct?
1. It is a nematode species to control insect
(a) 1 only
parasites without pesticides.
2. These species can control crop pests in (b) 2 only

warm and humid places where other (c) Both 1 and 2

nematode species couldn’t survive.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. It has been found that it is harmful to
mammals and humans.
How many of the above statements is/are 34. The new fungal species named Trichoglossum

correct? syamviswanathii that was recently seen in the

(a) Only one
news has been discovered in which part of
(b) Only two
India?
(c) All three
(d) None (a) Western Ghats

(b) Eastern Ghats

32. With reference to future circular collider,
(c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
consider the following statements:
1. It is a particle accelerator that will be (d) Mizo hills

within the Large Hadron Collider.

2. It is a single-stage proton-proton machine 35. The Weimar Triangle consists of which of the
that will be three times bigger and faster
following countries?
than the Large Hadron Collider.
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. France

correct? 2. Germany
(a) 1 only
3. Italy
(b) 2 only
4. Poland
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 5. Austria

6. Hungary
33. With reference to ultracold atoms, consider
Select the correct answer using the code given
the following statements :
below:
1. At absolute zero temperatures, the original
properties of atoms are governed by laws (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
of classical mechanics. (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
2. Fluorescence or phase-contrast imaging
(c) 2, 5 and 6 only
techniques are used to study Ultracold
atoms. (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

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36. With reference to the Global Initiative on How many of the above pairs are correctly

Digital Health (GIDH), consider the following matched?

(a) Only one
statements :
(b) Only two
1. It is a World Bank-led initiative to align (c) Only three
resources toward country-led digital health (d) All four

transformation through strengthened

38. With reference to Cantor's giant softshell
collaboration and knowledge exchange.
turtle, consider the following statements :
2. This will encourage local development, 1. They are native to the rivers of Latin

maintenance, and adaptation of digital American countries.

2. They live in freshwater, estuaries, lakes
health technologies for the continuously
and coastal areas.
changing needs.
3. They are primarily carnivores feeding on
3. India is a part of this initiative. fish, crustaceans, and mollusks but they

Which of the statements given above is/are also feed on some aquatic plants.
How many of the statements given above
correct?
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Only two
(c) All three
(c) 2 only
(d) None
(d) 1, 2 and 3

39. Consider the following statements with respect

37. Consider the following pairs : to Pangolins:
1. They are the only mammals wholly covered
S. Ramsar sites Location
in scales.
No
2. They are nocturnal animals.
1. Nanjarayan Bird - Tamil Nadu 3. The females are larger in size than males.

Sanctuary 4. Most females give birth only to a single

offspring at a time.
2. Tawa Reservoir - Gujarat
5. They dig burrows below the roots of the
3. Ankasamudra Bird - Karnataka trees to store food.
Conservation How many of the statements given above are
correct?
Reserve
(a) Only two
4. Longwood Shola - Kerala
(b) Only three
Reserve Forest (c) Only four
(d) All five

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40. Consider the following statements regarding 42. Consider the following statements with respect
to Advanced Oxidation Technology:
the Pakke Paga Hornbill Festival (PPHF):
1. This has been developed for the treatment
1. It is the state festival of Nagaland
of industrial wastewater, which contains
2. It is celebrated for recognising the efforts of non-biodegradable and persistent organic

the Nyishi tribal hunters pollutants.

2. It is developed by the Indian Institute of
3. The Nyishi tribes had formerly hunted
Technology, Bombay.
hornbills and used their bills to craft 3. It aims to ensure sustainable Zero Liquid
traditional headgear. Discharge (ZLD) compliance set by the
Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).
Which of the above-given statement(s) is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
43. The Afar Triangle, also known as the Afar
Depression, is a geological feature located in
41. Consider the following statements:
which of the following regions ?
1. Atmospheric rivers are relatively long, (a) Horn of Africa
narrow regions in the atmosphere that (b) Sahel region
(c) Maghreb region
transport most of the water vapour outside
(d) Nile river delta
of the tropics.

2. “Pineapple Express" is a strong 44. It is the lowest temperature to which a surface

atmospheric river that is capable of can be cooled by water evaporating from it. It
is also the lowest temperature at which the
bringing moisture from the tropics to the
surface of the skin can be cooled by sweating.
West Coast of Mexico. Spending even short periods in temperatures

Which of the statements given above is/are beyond this threshold could be harmful to
human health.
correct?
Which of the following is described in the
(a) 1 only passage?
(b) 2 only (a) Dry bulb temperature
(b) Dew point temperature
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Wet bulb temperature
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) None of the above

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45. Consider the following statements with respect How many of the statements given above
to the National Quantum Mission : is/are correct?
1. To develop atomic clocks for precision (a) Only one
timing, communications and navigation.
(b) Only two
2. To secure satellite-based quantum
(c) Only three
communications within India.
(d) All four
3. To develop quantum computers in various
platforms like superconducting and
47. The terms ‘DALL E’ and ‘DALL E2’ are related
photonic technology.
to the context of :
4. To scale up scientific and industrial R&D
in Quantum Technology. (a) New mRNA vaccine developed for Covid 19

5. To develop multi-node quantum repeater (b) Type of bacterial infection through food

networks for entanglement distribution- poisoning

based quantum communication. (c) Artificial intelligence to produce
How many of the above are the objectives of realistic photos based on text input
the National Quantum Mission? (d) New types of pesticides to improve the crop
(a) Only two productivity
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
48. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) All five
the Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya
Maha Abhiyan (PM-JANMAN) scheme:
46. Consider the following statements regarding
1. It has been launched to provide basic
the Green Credit Program :
facilities and households for the
1. Under this scheme, the registered and
Particularly Vulnerable Tribal
approved entities can pay to finance
Group (PVTG) communities.
afforestation projects in specific tracts of
degraded forest and wasteland. 2. Maharastra has the highest PVTG

2. Under the Green credit program, only the population, followed by Madhya Pradesh

companies, not the individuals or Civil and Tamil Nadu

society groups, can enter into an 3. Under the Scheme, Van Dhan Vikas
agreement with the government. Kendras was established which will benefit
3. Green credits for afforestation is a way to the tribal entrepreneurships.
incentivise private investments in tree Which of the above statements is/are correct?
plantation. (a) 1 only
4. Among the Indian states, Madhya Pradesh
(b) 2 and 3 only
is leading the Green Credit Programme
(c) 1 and 3 only
(GCP).
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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49. Consider the following statements with respect 52. Which of the following is correct regarding
Pradhan Mantri Samajik Utthan and Rozgar
to mushrooms:
Adharit Jankalyan (PM-SURAJ) national
1. All mushrooms are edible in nature. portal?
2. Mushrooms are rich in amino acids. (a) It aims to register people for Surya Ghar
Mufti Bijili Yojana
3. Mushrooms require arable land for their (b) It offers credit support to the
cultivation. disadvantaged sections of society
(c) It provides credit to improve the quality of
4. Taking mushrooms into the diet will help
life of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal
to reduce the risk of memory loss. Groups
(d) None of the above
Which of the statements given above are

correct? 53. Consider the following statements:

(a) 1 and 2 1. In India, about 84% of the national parks
were established in areas inhabited by the
(b) 1 and 3
indigenous peoples.
(c) 2 and 3 2. The states of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar
have only one national park each.
(d) 2 and 4
3. In India, tiger reserves can be created in
areas where there are no tigers.
How many of the above statements are
50. What is “Nagastra-1”, sometimes seen in the
correct?
news? (a) Only one
(a) It is a drone-based munition (b) Only two
(c) All three
(b) It is a nuclear-capable short-range ballistic
(d) None
missile
54. In the context of India, consider the following
(c) It is an anti-missile system
statements:
(d) It is a supersonic cruise missile 1. According to the National Crime Records
Bureau (NCRB), more than 40% of all
suicides are by young people below the age
51. In the context of defence technology, the ‘Chaff of 30.
Rocket’ helps to: 2. The Ministry of Health has developed a
National Suicide Prevention Strategy with
(a) Predict threats approaching military assets
an objective of reducing suicide by 10% by
(b) Demonstrate the ease of operation of 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are
military inventions
correct?
(c) Protect military assets from Radio (a) 1 only
Frequency seeker threats (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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55. With reference to Charminar, consider the Which of the statements given above is/are
following statements: correct?
1. The signature motifs of Qutub Shahi (a) 1 and 2 only
buildings were absent on Charminar. (b) 2 only
2. It has been built with granite and lime (c) 2 and 3 only
mortar. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. The four pillars around Charminar
represent the four caliphs. 58. Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above statements are Islands recently seen Location
in news
correct?
1. Kuril Islands Located between sea of
(a) Only one
Okhotsk and Japan
(b) Only two
2. Willingdon Located in North Atlantic
(c) All three
Island Ocean
(d) None
3. Chagos islands Located in the Indian
Ocean
56. There has been an issue recently regarding the Which of the pairs given above are correct?
historical connection of Subika paintings. This (a) 1 and 2 only
painting is intricately connected to which of (b) 2 and 3 only

the following communities in India? (c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Naga community
(b) Meitei community
59. With reference to Hepatitis A disease, consider
(c) Bodo community
the following statements:
(d) Bhutia community
1. Hepatitis A is an inflammation of the liver
caused by the hepatitis A virus.
57. Consider the following statements with 2. Like hepatitis B and C, hepatitis A causes
reference to Paruveta Utsav: chronic liver disease.
1. Though observed in many temples, no 3. There is no specific treatment for hepatitis
other temple in India celebrates this A.

festival for forty days as in Ahobilam. 4. “Havisure” is India’s indigenous vaccine

developed for hepatitis A disease.
2. It is a festival of communal harmony as
Which of the statements given above are
devotees from other religious communities
correct?
also offer prayers.
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. Recently, it has been declared a state
(b) 1 and 3 only
festival and intangible cultural heritage by
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
UNESCO. (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
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60. Consider the following pairs: 62. With reference to Street Vendors Act 2014,
Recent
consider the following statements:
developments
Description
in the field 1. The Act establishes a participatory
of Science governance structure through Town
1. Longevity - Focused on
India Initiative identifying early Vending Committees (TVC) to ensure the

disease indicators in inclusion of all existing vendors in vending

humans
zones.
2. Vigyan Dhara - promote capacity
Scheme building in science 2. The members of Town Vending
and technology
Committees should be Street Vendor
3. BioE3 - transform India into
Initiative a global biotech representatives with a sub-representation
powerhouse through of 33% of women street vendors.
high-performance
biomanufacturing. 3. The Street Vendors Act is under the

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
(a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above are
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 3 only

61. Consider the following information: (b) 1 and 2 only

Indian Cities State/UT Description (c) 1, 2 and 3
in World
Craft city (d) 2 and 3 only

network
1. Mamallapuram Tamil Stone
63. The terms ‘Batillipes kalami’ and ‘Batillipes
Nadu Carving
2. Mysore Karnataka Soapstone chandrayaani’, recently seen in the news, are
Carving
related to,
3. Jaipur Rajasthan Kundan
Jadai-Gem (a) Tardigrade species found in the
setting southeast coast of Tamil Nadu
Which of the pair given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Bird species found in the Western Ghats

(b) 2 and 3 only (c) Two new mammalian species added to

(c) 1 and 3 only
Kaziranga’s fauna
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above

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64. With reference to Project Nexus, consider the 67. With respect to Jal Jeevan Mission, consider
following statements: the following statements:
1. The project seeks to enhance cross-border
1. The Jal Jeevan Mission prioritizes
payments by connecting multiple domestic
providing potable tap water to households
instant payment systems (IPS) globally.
2. The Reserve Bank of India joined Project in Acute Encephalitis Syndrome-affected
Nexus to link India’s UPI with other districts.
countries’s Fast Payments System. 2. More than 80% of the rural households in
Which of the statements given above is/are
the country have been provided with tap
correct?
water connection.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 3. Nearly half of the states in the country
(c) Both 1 and 2 have provided cent percent tap water
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 connection to all rural households.
How many of the statements given above are
65. With respect to Microalgae, consider the
correct?
following statements:
1. They are autotrophic microorganisms that (a) Only one
live in freshwater and soil ecosystems (b) Only two
2. They produce organic substances in the (c) All three
process of photosynthesis
(d) None
3. They have high stress resistance at high
temperatures.
Which of the above statements are correct? 68. “The multidimensional poverty in India has
(a) 1 and 2 only declined over a last decade”. In this regard,
(b) 2 and 3 only which of the following schemes has
(c) 1 and 3 only
significantly reduced the multidimensional
(d) 1, 2 and 3
poverty in India?

66. Regarding Tantalum, a rare metal found in the 1. Saubhagya scheme

River Sutlej, which of the following is/are the 2. PM Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan
properties of the metal Tantalum? 3. PM POSHAN
1. It possesses high corrosion resistance.
4. PM Karib Kalyan Anna Yojana
2. It is ductile in its purest form.
Select the correct answer using the codes
3. It has extremely high melting point.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

given below: (a) 1 and 2 only

(a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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69. Consider the following statements: 71. With respect to Project PRAYAS, consider the

1. Remittances inflow into India is following statements:

1. The Project envisages a roadmap on
consistently increases over a past decade.
matters related to International Migration
2. India remained top remittance recipient Cycle.
country followed by Mexico and China. 2. The project PRAYAS aligns with the 2030
Agenda for Sustainable Development Goals
3. Remittances contribute almost 3.4% of the
(SDGs).
GDP of India.
3. The project adheres to the objectives of the
Which of the above statements is/are correct? Migration Governance Framework.

(a) 1 and 2 only 4. The project is a joint collaboration between

the IOM India and Indian Council of World
(b) 2 and 3 only
Affairs (ICWA).
(c) 3 only
Which of the statements given above are
(d) 1, 2 and 3 correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
70. With respect to National Startup Advisory
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
Council, consider the following statements: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1. The Council promotes innovation in all

sectors of economy particularly in semi 72. Consider the following statements regarding
the EarthCARE mission :
urban and rural areas.
1. The satellite observes vertical profiles of
2. The Council was reconstituted which made natural and anthropogenic aerosols, cloud
the term of non-official members of the distribution, cloud-precipitation
interactions.
council is two years.
2. The satellite carries four scientific
3. The Council was formed under the
instruments and circles Earth in a Geo
Department for Promotion of Industry and stationary orbit.
Internal Trade (DPIIT). 3. The mission is the joint collaboration of
Indian Space Research Organization and
How many of the statements given above are
Japan's JAXA space agency.
correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) Only one correct?

(b) Only two (a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) All three
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None (d) 1, 2 and 3

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73. Consider the following statements regarding How many of the statements given above are
Shangai Cooperation Organization (SCO): correct?
(a) Only one
1. It is the permanent intergovernmental
(b) Only two
organization.
(c) All three
2. India’s main focus at the SCO was to (d) None
eradicate terrorism from its northwest
bordering areas. 76. Consider the following information:

3. The Executive Committee of the Regional 1. The Nobel Prize in the field of physics was
given for foundational discoveries and
Anti-Terrorist Structure in Tashkent is the
inventions that enable machine learning
standing body of the organization.
with artificial neural networks.
Which of the statements given above are 2. The Nobel Prize in the field of chemistry
correct? was given for protein structure prediction.
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. The Nobel Prize in the field of medicine
was given for the discovery of microRNA
(b) 2 and 3 only
and its role in post-transcriptional gene
(c) 1 and 3 only
regulation.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the above information is/are correct
regarding the Nobel Prize 2024?
74. The Global Hunger Index was published by (a) 1 and 2 only

the, (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) Concern Worldwide
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Food and Agriculture Organization
(c) Action against Hunger 77. Consider the following statements in respect of
(d) World Food Programme the Tenzing Norgay National Adventure
Awards:

75. Consider the following information about the 1. The award was instituted in 1993
2. It is the highest national contribution for
Panamalai Paintings:
outstanding achievements in the field of
1. It is a type of Mural paintings seen at the
land adventure alone.
walls of the Talagirishwara temple in Tamil 3. Savita kanswal was a female mountaineer
Nadu. to receive the award Posthumously this
2. This type of paintings was flourished in year.
Which of the statements given above are
the south during the reign of Pallava
correct?
period.
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. The painting depicts an exquisite female (b) 2 and 3 only
figure with her leg bent, standing against a (c) 1 and 3 only
wall with an umbrella above her. (d) 1, 2 and 3

(18-A)
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78. Consider the following statements: 80. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Kisan
1. India was the world's largest milk Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN), which of the
exporting country in 2023.
following statements is correct?
2. The White Revolution 2.0 programme
(a) Agri Stack established under the scheme
focuses on the financial empowerment of
women. provides an online platform for Indian

3. White Revolution 2.0 is expected to farmers to trade their crops.

address the issue of nutrition deficiency in
(b) The PM-KISAN scheme provides income
India.
support to all Indian farmers.
4. White Revolution 2.0 plans to establish
one crore new dairy cooperative societies (c) Kisan e-Mitra is a Chatbot under the

by 2030. scheme that finds solutions to farmers’

Which of the statements given above is/are
issues.
correct?
(d) The PM-KISAN scheme provides ₹6,000
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 yearly to farmers in six equal instalments.

(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
81. Consider the following statements:

1. The Customs (Administration of Rules of

79. Consider the following statements:
1. Payment Aggregators(PAs) assist Origin under Trade Agreements) Rules,

merchants who do not have their own 2020 (CAROTAR, 2020) aids in preventing
payment integration system to accept
misuse of Preferential Trade Agreements.
payments from customers.
2. Implementing product-specific rules of
2. The Ministry of Finance authorises PAs in
India as per the Payment Settlements Act, origin within the Free Trade Agreements

2007. could increase exports from India.

3. Both banks and non-bank entities are
Which of the statements given above is/are
allowed to be PAs in India.
not correct?
How many of the above statements is/are not
correct? (a) 1 only

(a) Only one (b) 2 only

(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Only three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) None

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82. With reference to the Bureau of Energy 84. With reference to the National Urban
Efficiency (BEE), which of the following Cooperative Finance and Development
statements are correct?
Corporation Limited (NUCFDC), consider the
1. BEE is a statutory body under the
Ministry of Commerce and Industry. following statements:

2. BEE implements the Perform, Achieve and 1. NUCFDC is a non-banking finance

Trade (PAT) scheme in India.
company.
3. BEE represents India at the International
2. It serves as the apex body for Urban
Energy Efficiency Hub.
4. BEE aids India's efforts to attain the goal Cooperative Banks.

of net zero by 2070. 3. It aims to boost digitization of cooperative

5. Standards and Labelling Scheme by BEE
banks.
mandates star rating of every electronic
4. NUCFDC was formed based on the
appliance sold in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given recommendation of the Vishwanathan

below: Committee.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
How many of the above statements is/are
(b) 2, 3 and 4
correct?
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 (a) Only one

(b) Only two

83. Consider the following statements:
(c) Only three
1. The Indian Farmers Fertiliser Cooperative
(d) All four
Limited (IFFCO) is authorised to
manufacture Nano Di-ammonium
Phosphate(DAP) in India. 85. Which of the following schemes intends to
2. One of the objectives of IFFCO is to
promote optimal utilisation of wetlands by
eliminate hunger and starvation from
enhancing biodiversity, carbon stock and eco-
India.
Which of the statements given above is/are tourism opportunities?

correct? (a) Mission Sahbhagita

(a) 1 only
(b) Malaviya Mission
(b) 2 only
(c) Amrit Dharohar Scheme
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) PM-PRANAM

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86. Consider the following statements with respect Which of the statements given above are
to the Finance Commission of India: correct?
1. It is constituted by the president of India (a) 1 and 2 only
every five years. (b) 1 and 3 only
2. The committee should contain a chairman (c) 2 and 3 only
and four full-time members. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. The members of the commission are not
eligible for reappointment. 89. With which of the following countries did the
4. The order for appointing the members of Indian Space Research Organisation sign a
the commission is published in the official Memorandum of Understanding for the joint
Gazette of India. development of Small Satellites?
5. The members of the commission can (a) Mauritius
resign from the office by addressing a (b) Bangladesh
letter to the Chairman of the Commission. (c) Bhutan
How many of the statements given above are (d) Myanmar
correct?
(a) Only two 90. Consider the following countries:
(b) Only three 1. Egypt
(c) Only four 2. Iraq
(d) All five 3. Saudi Arabia
4. Jordan
87. Which of the following portals have launched 5. Turkey
to provide a centralized platform for farmers to 6. Syria
report grievances, check policy status, and get How many of the above mentioned countries
real-time updates on crop health and weather share a land border with Israel?
information? (a) Only two
(a) Surakhsya Portal (b) Only three
(b) SARTHI Portal (c) Only four
(c) SeHAT-OPD Portal (d) Only five
(d) Krishi Rakshak Portal
91. ‘R21/MATRIX M vaccine’ and ‘RTS, S vaccine’
88. Consider the following statements with respect were prequalified by the World Health
to Asian Development Bank (ADB): organization for which of the following types of
1. India is a founding member of the ADB. disease?
2. India is among the top five largest (a) Monkeypox
shareholders of the ADB. (b) Smallpox
3. Countries outside the Asian region can (c) Malaria
also become a members of the ADB. (d) Rubella

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92. With reference to Jan Aushadi Kendra, 94. With reference to the RAMSES mission,

consider the following statements: consider the following statements:

1. Jan Aushadi Kendra has been set up to 1. It is the planetary defence mission by the
make affordable generic medicines Indian Space Research Organization
available to all under the PM Bhartiya Jan (ISRO) that will track and study the
Aushadhi Pariyojana. Apophis asteroid.
2. India’s first overseas Jan Aushadi Kendra 2. Asteroid Apophis is a near earth object
was inaugurated in Mauritius to supply that was identified as a hazardous asteroid
cost-effective, made-in-India medicines to that could impact the Earth.
augment public healthcare.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

95. With respect to the State of World Forests

93. Consider the following statements about the
Report 2024, consider the following
United Nations Water Convention:
statements:
1. The Convention is a unique legally binding
1. More than half of the world’s forests are in
instrument promoting the sustainable
only five countries.
management of shared water resources.
2. The rate of deforestation has declined over
2. Cote d’Ivoire was the first African country
the last decade.
to accede to UN Water Convention.
3. India, along with the other countries,
3. The Convention replaces the bilateral and
account for two-thirds of the global forest
multilateral agreements for specific basins
area.
of the Trans boundary countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are

correct? correct?

(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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96. Consider the following pairs: How many of the statements given above are
Drugs seen Used for correct?
in news (a) Only one
1. Tinzaparin - It is a drug used to (b) Only two
prevent the blood clots (c) All three
2. Barbiturates - It is a drug used in
(d) None
tablets to cause
sedation
99. Consider the following statements with respect
3. Ketamine - It is a drug used for
to the National Forensic Infrastructure
treatment of resistant
Enhancement Scheme:
depression
Which of the pairs given above are correct? 1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. It is implemented by the Ministry of Home
(b) 2 and 3 only Affairs.
(c) 1 and 3 only 3. It aims to establish New Campuses of the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 National Forensic Sciences University and
set up Central Forensic Science
97. With reference to “Magnetotactic bacteria”, Laboratories.
recently seen in the news, consider the Which of the statements given above are
following statements:
correct?
1. They are motile and diverse prokaryotes.
(a) 1 and 2 only
2. The direction of motility is directed by the
(b) 1 and 3 only
Earth's geomagnetic field.
(c) 2 and 3 only
3. They biomineralize a unique organelle
(d) 1, 2 and 3
called the magnetosome, a magnetic iron
mineral.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 100. Consider the following statements with
(a) 1 only respect to Bhuvan Panchayat geoportal 4.0:
(b) 1 and 2 only 1. It provides high-resolution satellite
(c) 2 and 3 only imagery of 1:10000 scale for different
(d) 1, 2 and 3 locations across the entire country.
2. It provides a platform for spatial planning
98. Consider the following statements with respect up to the Gram Panchayat level.
to Cinematograph (Certification) Rules, 2024: 3. It is developed by the Indian Space
1. It provided for one-third reservations for
Research Organisation.
women in the Central Board of Film
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
Certification.
correct?
2. It sub-divided the existing UA category into
(a) 1 and 2 only
three age-based categories.
(b) 1 and 3 only
3. It provided that only films in the
Unrestricted Public Exhibition category (c) 2 and 3 only

could be telecasted on television. (d) 1, 2 and 3

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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

PRESTORMINGTM
Test Booklet Series
TEST BOOKLET
T.B.C : P-SIA-A-GS
GENERAL STUDIES - PAPER – I
Serial : P-GSI-242508
INDIAN POLITY II
TEST – 08
A
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises
four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In
case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the
best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE A PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.66) of the marks assigned to that question
will be deducted as a penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be the same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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1. Consider the following : 4. With reference to Kangaroo courts, consider the

1. Education following statements :

2. Protection of wild animals and birds 1. It is an unofficial court held by a group of
3. Banking retired High Court judges.
4. Inter-state trade and commerce 2. Their judgments or verdicts are legally
5. Administration of justice
binding on the parties.
How many of the above mentioned subjects
3. Appeal against this judgment is available
was/were originally in the State List but later
within 30 days before the district High
moved to the Concurrent List through
Courts.
constitutional amendment ?
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(c) All three
(d) Only four
(d) None

2. Which of the following doctrines is based on the

rule of conduct that “What cannot be done 5. Consider the following statements with respect

directly, cannot also be done indirectly” ? to the Impeachment of the President:

(a) Doctrine of Pith and Substance 1. It is a quasi-judicial procedure.

(b) Doctrine of Harmonious Construction 2. He can only be impeached for violating the
(c) Doctrine of Colourable Legislation Constitution.
(d) Doctrine of Eclipse 3. The resolution to impeach the President can

be moved in either House of Parliament.

3. Consider the following :
4. The resolution should be passed by a
1. Single Constitution
special majority.
2. Flexibility of the Constitution
5. The president cannot represent himself in
3. Rigidity of the Constitution
person at such an investigation.
4. Supremacy of the Constitution
How many of the statements given above are
How many of the above reflect the federal
correct?
features of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Only two
(a) Only one
(b) Only three
(b) Only two

(c) Only three (c) Only four

(d) All four (d) All five

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6. Which of the following is/are the sources of law 8. The terms Snowblind, tiny banker and Zeus or

in India? Zbot, which often appeared in the news, are

related to :
1. Constitution
(a) Economic crisis, where demand is high but
2. Statutes
no supply of goods and services.
3. Customary law (b) Government bonds yield higher prices than

4. Executive legislation private players.

(c) Malware and viruses that attack computers
Select the correct answer using the code given
and personal devices.
below:
(d) New frog species found in the Caribbean
(a) 1 , 3 and 4 only
Islands.
(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only 9. When a law is enacted on a subject enumerated

in the concurrent list, the power to execute the
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
law rests with :
(a) The Union, unless the law specifically
7. Consider the following statements: confers it on the States.
1. The Constitution of India limits the number (b) The States, unless the law specifically

of members who represent the Union confers it on the Union.

(c) The Union, under all circumstances.
territories in parliament.
(d) The States, under all circumstances.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the

territorial constituencies of the Member of 10. Which of the following is applicable to the Office
Parliament should have a similar of Whip in the Indian political system ?
1. Legislative Member representing political
population.
party
3. The allocation of seats in the House of the
2. Nominated Legislative Member in Rajya
People to the States is readjusted based on
Sabha
the 2011 census. 3. Independent Legislative Member in

How many of the statements given above are parliament

Select the correct answer using the codes given
correct?
below:
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) All three (c) 2 and 3 only

(d) None (d) 1, 2 and 3

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11. Which of the following is not a factor that limits Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements?
the sovereignty of the Indian Parliament?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(a) Federal system of government correct and Statement-II explains
(b) System of Judicial Review Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(c) Written Constitution
correct, but Statement-II does not explain
(d) Directive Principles of State Policy Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
incorrect.
12. With reference to the Syntrichia caninervis, (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is
consider the following statements : correct.

1. The species can be found in arid and semi-

14. Consider the following statements :
arid areas. 1. The Indian Constitution defines the role of
Cabinet Committees.
2. It grows on soil and rocks and can be found
2. The Prime Minister always acts as the
on all continents except Antarctica. Chairperson of all Cabinet Committees.
3. It can withstand higher temperatures but is 3. Only Cabinet Ministers can be members of
Cabinet Committees.
not adapted to cold environments.
How many of the above statements is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) Only one
correct ?
(b) Only two
(a) 1 only (c) All three
(b) 2 only (d) None

(c) 3 only
15. Regarding the procedure for amendment,
(d) 1, 2 and 3 which of the following statements is not
correct?
(a) It can be initiated by the introduction of a
13. Consider the following statement: bill for the purpose in either House of
Statement-I: Parliament or the state legislature.
(b) The bill can be introduced either by a
The President of India can grant pardons to
minister or by a private member and does
any person convicted of any offence. not require prior permission of the
President.
Statement-II:
(c) There is no provision for holding a joint
The pardoning powers are given to the sitting of the two houses for the purpose of
President for removing the extreme rigidity deliberation and passage of the bill.
(d) The bill must be passed in each house by a
in the criminal laws.
special majority.

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16. With reference to additional Tier I and Tier II 18. For how many of the following elections in India
bonds, consider the following statements : is it mandatory for a candidate to meet a
domicile requirement from that particular
1. Additional tier I bonds have no maturity
constituency?
date but have a call option.
1. Election to Lok Sabha Constituency
2. Tier II bonds carry a higher risk than 2. Election to Rajya Sabha Seat
Additional Tier I bonds. 3. Election to State Legislative Assembly
3. Both bonds can be converted to equity if constituency

the bank's capital falls below a threshold. Select the correct answer using the codes :
(a) Only one
How many of the above statements are correct?
(b) Only two
(a) Only one
(c) All three
(b) Only two (d) None
(c) All three
(d) None 19. Consider the following pairs :
Tax category Taxes
1. Taxes levied by the - Stamp duties on
17. With reference to Motions as procedural devices
Centre but collected bills of exchange,
for raising matters of public interest in the
and appropriated by cheques, and
Legislatures, consider the following statements:
the States promissory notes.
1. A Calling Attention Motion is an Indian 2. Taxes levied, collected - Taxes on the
innovation in Parliamentary procedure and and retained by the consignment of

also finds mention in the Rules of States goods in the

course of inter-
Procedure.
state trade or
2. An Adjournment Motion can be used only
commerce.
in the Lower House of a Legislature as it 3. Taxes levied and - Taxes on
involves an element of censure against the collected by the centre professions,
government. but assigned to the trades, callings

3. A Motion of No-confidence can be passed States and

employments.
only against the Council of Ministers as a
4. Taxes levied and - Cess levied for
body and not against an individual
collected by the Centre specific purposes
minister. but distributed
Which of the statements given above are between the Centre
correct? and the States
How many of the above pairs is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Only one
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) Only two
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Only three
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All four
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20. The Financial Inclusion Index 2024 is released 23. Consider the following statements with respect
by : to Chief Minister :
(a) NITI Aayog 1. She/He has the duty to communicate to the
(b) Ministry of Finance Governor of the State all decisions related
(c) Reserve Bank of India to proposal for legislation.
(d) World Bank 2. She/He can be dismissed by the Governor
of the State at any time.
21. Consider the following statements : 3. She/He are members of the National
1. Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS) are Development Council.
those schemes which are implemented by
4. She/He advises the Governor on the
the state government but sponsored by the
appointment of the State Election
central government with a defined
Commissioner.
shareholding.
5. She/He is responsible for allocating
2. Central sector schemes are implemented by
portfolios among the council of ministers.
the central government and the budget or
Which of the statements given above are
finance needed for the scheme is entirely
correct?
sourced by the central government.
(a) 1, 4 and 5 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
correct ?
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
24. Which of the following rivers are the tributaries
(d) Neither 1 Nor 2
of the River Cauvery ?

22. Consider the following statements : 1. Arkavati

1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha can be removed 2. Shimsha

by an ordinary majority. 3. Lakshmantirtha

2. The Speaker of Lok Sabha submits their 4. Amaravati

resignation to the President of India. 5. Sabari

3. The Speaker vacates the office once the 6. Maner

newly elected Lok Sabha meets. 7. Noyyal

How many of the above statements is/are Select the correct answer using the code given
correct ? below :
(a) Only one (a) Only two
(b) Only two (b) Only four
(c) All three (c) Only five
(d) None (d) Only six
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25. Consider the following statements : Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
1. The Public Accounts Committee and not correct?
Committee on Estimates have only (a) 1 only
members from Lok Sabha. (b) 2 only
2. The Indian Constitution provides for the
(c) Both 1 and 2
formation of both the Public Accounts
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Committee and the Committee on
Estimates.
28. Consider the following statements with
3. The finance minister heads both of these
committees. reference to Mars :

How many of the above statements is/are 1. The temperature on Mars varies between 20

correct ? degrees Celsius and -153 degrees Celsius.

(a) Only one 2. Mars has three times more gravitational

(b) Only two force than the Earth.
(c) All three 3. Mar’s atmosphere is thinner than the
(d) None Earth’s atmosphere and contains 95 %

carbon dioxide.
26. Consider the following statements :
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. The resignation of the Prime Minister leads
correct ?
to the dissolution of the Council of
(a) 1 and 2 only
Ministers.
2. A person who is not a member of Parliament (b) 1 and 3 only

can never be the Prime Minister in India. (c) 1 only

Which of the statements given above is/are not (d) 2 and 3 only

correct ?
(a) 1 only 29. Consider the following:
(b) 2 only 1. Article 240
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Article 244
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Article 245
How many of the above-mentioned provisions
27. Consider the following statements:
of the Indian constitution place limitations on
1. The Governor must act on the advice of the
the territorial jurisdiction of Parliament ?
Council of Ministers, except in specific
(a) Only one
situations provided by the Constitution.
2. The advice tendered by Ministers to the (b) Only two

Governor can be inquired only in the (c) All three

Supreme Court. (d) None

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30. Consider the following : 3. This scheme is jointly implemented by the

1. Hilly and difficult terrain Ministry of Science and Technology and the
2. High population density Ministry of Environment, Forest and
3. Strategic location along borders with Climate Change.
neighbouring countries. How many of the statements given above are
4. Economic and Infrastructure correct ?
backwardness.
(a) Only one
5. Non-viable nature of state finances.
(b) Only two
Which of the above factors are required criteria
(c) All three
for granting special category status in Indian
(d) None
States ?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
33. Which of the following schedules of the
(b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
Constitution of India prescribes the oath or
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
affirmation of a candidate for Parliamentary
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
election ?

31. In which of the following cases is the (a) First Schedule

Constitutional position of a State Legislative (b) Second Schedule

Council equal to that of a State Legislative (c) Third Schedule

Assembly? (d) Fourth Schedule

1. Approval of ordinances issued by the
Governor 34. Which of the following statements regarding
2. Ratification of a Constitutional Amendment the Centre’s power to legislate on State matters
bill is correct ?
3. Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the State 1. Parliament can legislate on a State matter
Public Service Commission during a national emergency.
Select the correct codes from the options given 2. In case of a conflict between Central and
below: state laws on Concurrent List subjects, the
(a) 1 and 2 only
Central law prevails even if the state law
(b) 1 and 3 only
has received the President’s assent.
(c) 2 and 3 only
3. Parliament can legislate on a State matter if
(d) 1, 2 and 3
two or more states consent.
Select the correct codes from the options given
32. Consider the following statements with respect
below:
to the PRITHvi VIgyan Scheme :
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. This scheme will holistically address all the
(b) 1 and 3 only
five components of the earth system
(c) 2 and 3 only
2. It aims to develop technologies for mapping
marine living and non-living resources. (d) 1, 2 and 3

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35. With respect to ‘Recognized’ and ‘Registered’ 37. Consider the following statements with respect

political parties in India, consider the following to Zonal Councils:

1. They are established under the provisions
statements:
of the States Re-organisation Act, 1956.
1. The Representation of the People Act of
2. They are chaired by the Prime Minister.
1951 lays down the requirement for the 3. The ministers of the state nominated by the
registration of a political party with the Chief Minister act as members of Zonal

Election Commission of India. Councils.

4. The Chief Secretaries of the States
2. While all ‘Registered’ political parties are
represented in the Zonal Councils act as the
‘Recognized’, the reverse is not true.
Secretary of the respective Council.
3. Registered political parties enjoy the legal How many of the statements given above are

benefit of having a common symbol for not correct?

(a) Only one
contesting general elections to the Lok
(b) Only two
Sabha or State Assemblies.
(c) Only three
Which of the statements given above are (d) All four
correct?

(a) 1 only 38. Consider the following statements:

1. The total number of Ministers, including
(b) 1 and 3 only
the Prime Minister in the Union Council of
(c) 2 and 3 only
Ministers, was limited to 15% of the total
(d) 1, 2 and 3 strength of Lok sabha.
2. The constitution mandates that a State

36. Which of the following statements is correct Council Ministers must have atleast 12
members.
about Exercise Red Flag 2024?
3. In the Union Territory of Jammu and
(a) It was the first time the US Air Force
Kashmir, the maximum number of
conducted the exercise. Ministers in its Council of Ministers is
(b) It was jointly carried out by the Indian Air restricted to 10% of the total strength of its
Assembly.
Force, the Australian Air Force and the US
Which one of the statements given above are
Air Force.
correct?
(c) The Indian Air Force's Rafale aircraft made (a) 1 and 2 only
its debut in this exercise. (b) 1 and 3 only

(d) It is conducted biannually by the US Air (c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
Force.
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39. Which of the following grants is/are made by Which of the statements given above is/are
the Parliament under extraordinary or special correct?
circumstances? (a) 1 only
1. Token Grant (b) 1 and 3 only
2. Supplementary Grant
(c) 2 only
3. Grant-in-Aid
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
42. With reference to the Finance Bill, consider the
(a) 3 only
(b) 2 only following statements:

(c) 1 and 2 only 1. It is subject to all the conditions applicable

(d) 1, 2 and 3 to a Money Bill.

2. The passage of the Bill into an Act legalises
40. Consider the following statements : the expenditure side of the budget and
1. It is a large bird found only in India. completes the process of Budget
2. It is a key indicator species of the grassland enactment.
habitat.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the
3. It is listed in Schedule I of the Indian
Bill must be enacted within 75 days of its
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
introduction.
4. It breed mostly during the monsoon season
Which of the statements given above is/are
when females lay a single egg on open
correct?
ground.
Which of the following species is described (a) 1 only

above ? (b) 1 and 2 only

(a) Lesser Florican (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) Great Indian Bustard (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Black-necked crane
(d) Himalayan quail 43. Who constitutes the electoral college for the
election of Vice President of India ?
41. Consider the following statements:
(a) Only elected members of both the Houses of
1. PART XV of the Constitution deals with
Parliament
elections.
(b) Only elected and nominated members of
2. According to the constitution, the power to
both Houses of Parliament
decide on disputes related to the election of
Members of Parliament is vested in the high (c) Only elected members of the House of the

court. People and the Legislative Assemblies of

3. All the recognised National and State States
parties are provided free access to the state- (d) Only elected and nominated members of the
owned electronic media for campaigning. Council of States

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44. The terms “SEBEX 2, SITBEX 1 and SIMEX 4”, Which one of the following is correct in respect
recently seen in the news, is related to : of the above statements ?
(a) Fertilizers used for particular crop
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
cultivation
(b) Vaccines for malaria correct and Statement-II explains

(c) Missiles developed by DRDO Statement-I.

(d) Military explosives
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

correct, but Statement-II does not explain

45. Consider the following statements with respect
to Waqf Amendment bill 2024 : Statement-I.

1. The Central Waqf Council consists of (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
muslim and non-muslim members to
incorrect.
advise the central and state governments
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is
and Waqf Boards.
2. It empowers the CAG to audit the accounts correct.
of the waqf board.
3. All the government property identified as
47. Consider the following statements with respect
Waqf will be ceased.
to the Governor of the state :
4. The decisions of the Waqf Tribunal are final
and appeals against its decisions in Courts 1. The Office of the Governor is an
are prohibited. independent constitutional office under the
How many of the above statements are correct?
control of the Union Government.
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 2. No civil and criminal proceedings can be

(c) Only three instituted against him during his tenure.

(d) All four 3. In case of the death of the Governor, the

Chief Justice of the concerned High Court

46. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I : can be appointed to discharge the functions

The Inter-State Water Disputes Act of the governor.

empowers the central government to set up
How many of the statements given above are
an ad hoc tribunal to adjudicate Interstate
not correct ?
river water disputes.
Statement-II : (a) Only one

As per the Constitution, Parliament has the (b) Only two

authority to adjudicate disputes or
(c) All three
complaints regarding the inter-state rivers
(d) None
or river valleys.
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48. Which of the following statements is correct Which of the bills mentioned above can be
with respect to the Expunction in Parliament ? introduced by a Private Member of the house ?
1. It means the deletion of words or phrases (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
from the parliamentary proceedings in the (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
House if it is defamatory. (c) 3 and 4 only
2. The Secretary General of each house has (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
the authority to decide the portion to be
expunged. 51. Consider the following statements :

3. It is mentioned in the rules of procedure of 1. A Member of Parliament enjoys freedom

both the Houses of Parliament. from arrest in any case for a period of 40

Select the correct answer using the codes given days before and after the session of

below : parliament.

(a) 1 and 2 only 2. A Member of Parliament enjoys the freedom

(b) 2 and 3 only of exemption from attending as a witness in

(c) 1 and 3 only a Court.

3. The Parliament of India can punish a
(d) 1, 2 and 3
member or a non-member in the case of
contempt of Parliament.
49. Consider the following statements :
How many of the statements given above are
1. The Speaker of the House has the absolute
correct ?
power to decide cases pertaining to the
(a) Only one
disqualification of members on the grounds
(b) Only two
of defection.
(c) All three
2. A person shall not be disqualified if his
(d) None
original political party merges with another,
provided that more than one-third of the
52. With respect to Rudhram I missile, consider the
members of the party agreed to the merger.
following statements :
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
1. It is India’s first indigenous anti-radiation
correct ?
missile developed by the Defence Research
(a) 1 only
and Developmental Organization (DRDO).
(b) 2 only
2. It is equipped with INS-GPS navigation and
(c) Both 1 and 2
a Passive Homing Head to ensure precise
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
targeting of radiation-emitting sources.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
50. Consider the following :
correct ?
1. Money Bill
(a) 1 only
2. Finance Bill - I
(b) 2 only
3. Finance Bill - II (c) Both 1 and 2
4. Constitutional Amendment Bill (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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53. If the President of India exercises his power as 56. Recently, the Zoological Survey of India (ZSI)
provided under Article 352 of the Constitution recorded a new species named ‘Xenophrys
in respect of a particular State, then apatani’ in Talle Wildlife Sanctuary in achal

(a) The state legislature ceases to function. Pradesh. It is a species variety of :

(b) The fundamental rights of the citizens are (a) Mammal

not affected. (b) Reptiles

(c) Horned Frog
(c) The relationship of the centre with the state
(d) Deer
undergoes a modification.
(d) The Parliament must pass a resolution for
57. Consider the following :
its revocation.
1. Rules of procedure in Parliament
2. Quorum in Parliament
54. According to the constitution of India, which
3. Union territories
one of the following statements is not correct ?
4. Delimitation of constituencies
(a) The executive power of the Union shall be
5. Use of official language
vested in the President of India. How many of the above provisions in the
(b) The President of India is bound to act on the Constitution can be amended by a simple
advice of the Council of Ministers. majority of the two houses of parliament
(c) An election to fill a vacancy in the office of outside the scope of Article 368 ?
President occurring by reason of his death (a) Only two
shall be held within six months. (b) Only three
(d) The President shall be elected by all the (c) Only four
members of both House of Parliament and (d) All five

Legislative Assemblies.
58. Consider the following statements :

55. Consider the following concepts : 1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to
cast a vote in the first instance.
1. Concept of Due Process of Law
2. The Vice President of India cannot preside
2. Application of Public Interest Litigation
over the Joint sitting of the parliament.
3. Doctrine of Basic Structure
3. The President of India addresses the joint
4. Judicial Review
session of the parliament for the first
How many of the above were inspired from the
session of the year.
external political system towards Indian
Which of the statements given above is/are
Political system?
correct ?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Only three (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All four (d) 1, 2 and 3
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59. With respect to the Deputy Chief minister of a 62. Consider the following statements about the
state, consider the following statements :
distribution of executive powers between the
1. Only senior Members of the State
Legislature, both by age and experience, Centre and the states :
can become the Deputy Chief Minister of a
1. The executive power of the Centre extends
state.
2. Only one person at a time can be appointed to matters in the Union List.
to the post of deputy chief minister.
2. In the case of concurrent subjects, the
3. The Governor of that state administers the
oath of office to the person as a deputy chief executive power generally rests with the
minister.
Centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are not
correct ? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only
correct ?
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only

60. The Moidams, which is a Mound-Burial (c) Both 1 and 2

System, has been officially inscribed on the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
UNESCO World Heritage List from which of the
following states ?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
63. Consider the following statements :
(b) Assam
(c) Odisha 1. Definiteness in policies
(d) Manipur
2. Responsible government

61. Consider the following situation in the context 3. Harmony between legislature and executive
of Indian political system :
4. Chances of an alternate government
A person X is the President of India and whose
tenure ends on November 11th, 2024. Suppose without fresh elections
if no one takes oath of office as the Next
How many of the above statements is /are the
President of India on that day, then what will
happen ? merits of the Indian Parliamentary system over
(a) Mr X will continue in Office till the next
the Presidential system of Government in
president takes the oath of office.
(b) The Vice President of India will assume the the US ?
office of President of India.
(a) Only one
(c) The Chief Justice of India will assume the
office of president for the time being. (b) Only two
(d) The Office of the President will be
(c) Only three
declared vacant by the Election
Commission of India. (d) All four

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64. With respect to Fly ash, consider the following 66. With reference to the Centre-state financial
statements : relations, consider the following statements :
1. It is made from the combustion of
1. There are 13 subjects enumerated on the
pulverised coal in a thermal Power Plant.
Concurrent list in which both the
2. Its composition is rich in silicon dioxide and
Parliament and State legislature can levy
calcium oxide.
3. It consists of silt-sized particles ranging taxes.

from 10 to 100 microns. 2. A State legislature cannot impose tax on the

4. It is used as structural fill for road sale of electricity to the centre.
construction and to make bricks and
3. A State legislature is prohibited from
ceramic tiles.
imposing a tax on the supply of goods that
How many of the above statements is/are
takes place outside the state.
not correct ?
(a) Only two How many of the above statements are correct?

(b) Only three (a) Only one

(c) All four (b) Only two

(d) None
(c) All three

(d) None
65. Consider the following statements :
1. Article 2 empowers Parliament to admit or
establish states that were not previously 67. Consider the following statements :

part of India. 1. An eminent jurist in the opinion of the

2. Article 3 allows Parliament to reorganize President of India is qualified to be

existing states but requires the affected
appointed as the Attorney General of India.
state legislature’s consent.
2. The Attorney General of India must have
3. Article 2 also grants Parliament the
the same qualifications as that of a judge of
authority to adjust the territories of
constituent states within the Union of the Supreme Court.

India. Which of the statements given above is/are

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

correct ?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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68. ‘Earth energy imbalance (EEI) ’best refers to Which of the statements given above is/are
which one of the following statements? correct ?
(a) It refers to a period when the global (a) 1 and 2 only
temperature rises above 1.5°C and then (b) 2 and 3 only
cools down again. (c) 3 and 4 only
(b) It refers to the difference between the
(d) 1 and 4 only
incoming energy from the Sun and the
outgoing energy from the Earth.
71. If Mr. Y wishes to become the Member of
(c) It refers to the effect of long-term shifts in
Parliament from his/her constituency. Then,
temperature and weather patterns over the
which of the following qualifications Mr. Y must
oceans on Earth.
possess as expressly prescribed in the
(d) None of the above.
Constitution of India ?

69. Consider the following statements : (a) He/she must be a citizen of India.

1. Governors are responsible for notifying (b) He/she must not be less than 30 years of

Scheduled Areas within their States. age in the case of both Lok Sabha and Rajya
2. Governors of the concerned States are Sabha elections.
required to submit annual reports to the (c) He/she must be registered as an elector for
Prime Minister on the administration of a parliamentary constituency.
Scheduled Areas in the States. (d) He/she must be a member of a scheduled
Which of the statements given above is/are caste or tribe in any state if they want to
correct ?
contest a seat reserved for them.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
72. With reference to National Crisis Management
(c) Both 1 and 2
Committee (NCMC), consider the following
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
statements:
1. It has been constituted under the
70. Consider the following statements :
In a scenario when the resolution for the chairmanship of the Cabinet Secretary.

removal of the Speaker is under consideration, 2. It gives directions to the Crisis Management

then Group, where it reviews the measures

1. The Speaker can preside over the House. required to deal with a natural calamity.
2. The Speaker shall have the right to speak in Which of the statements given above is/are not
the House correct ?
3. The Speaker can take part in the (a) 1 only
proceedings of the House (b) 2 only
4. The Speaker shall have the right to vote for (c) Both 1 and 2
equality of votes.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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73. Regarding the role of the President in the Which one of the following is correct in respect
Parliament, how many of the following is/are of the above statements ?
mentioned in the Constitution ? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
1. The President of India is an integral part of correct and Statement-II explains
the Parliament Statement-I
2. The President shall not be a member of (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
either House of Parliament or of a House of
correct, but Statement-II does not explain
the Legislature
Statement-I
3. The President is authorised to dissolve the
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
Lok Sabha at any time that can be
incorrect
challenged in a court of law
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is
4. The emoluments and allowances of the
correct
President shall not be diminished during
his term of office.
76. The 120-km “Blue Line” is a United Nations-
Select the correct answer :
(a) Only one recognized demarcation line between which of

(b) Only two the following ?

(c) Only three (a) Israel and Egypt

(d) All four (b) Israel and Lebanon

(c) Israel and the Gaza Strip
74. Which of the following election processes of the (d) Israel and the West Bank
Union Executive is not explicitly mentioned in
the Indian Constitution ? 77. Which of the following provisions can be
(a) Election to the office of Vice-President amended by a Special Majority of Parliament
(b) Election to the office of President and the Consent of States ?
(c) Election to the office of Prime Minister 1. List I in the Seventh schedule
(d) None of the above
2. Representation of states in Parliament
3. Goods and Services Tax Council
75. Consider the following statements :
4. Power of Parliament to amend the
Statement-I :
Constitution and its procedures
In the concurrent subject, the ordinance-
5. Delimitation of constituencies
making power is the discretionary power of
Select the correct answer using the codes given
the Governor.
below :
Statement-II :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
The Governor's ordinance-making power
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
relating to concurrent subjects will prevail
if it is made in pursuance of ‘instructions’ (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

of the President. (d) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

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78. Regarding Financial committees in the How many of the above statements is/are
Parliament, which of the following statements correct ?

is not correct ? (a) Only one

(b) Only two
(a) All the financial committees consist of only
(c) Only three
Lok Sabha members.
(d) All four
(b) A minister cannot be elected as a member
of any financial committees. 81. With respect to Cabinet committees, consider
(c) The term of office of the member of any the following statements :
financial committee does not exceed one 1. They are extra constitutional bodies set up

year. by the Prime Minister

2. Political Affairs committee is called Super
(d) All the members of each financial
Cabinet where it deals with all policy
committee are elected by proportional
matters related to domestic and foreign
representation by single transferable vote. affairs.
3. In addition to cabinet committee, Group of
79. Consider the following statements : Ministers is constituted as ad hoc body as
1. In the state legislature, the money bills do per the recommendations of second ARC

not require the governor's prior commission.

How many of the above statements are correct?
recommendation for introduction.
(a) Only one
2. With respect to Money bills, the State
(b) Only two
Legislative Council and the Council of the (c) All three
States have similar powers. (d) None
Which of the statements given above is/are not
correct ? 82. As per the 106th Amendment Act 2023 ,one-

(a) 1 only third of the seats are reserved for women in

which of the following Union and state
(b) 2 only
legislatures ?
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. Lok Sabha
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Rajya Sabha
3. State Legislative Assembly
80. AI-based CCTV surveillance system has a wide 4. Legislative Assembly of National Capital
range of applications in the real world. Which Territory of Delhi

of the following better uses this technology ? 5. State Legislative Council

Select the correct answer using the codes given
1. Monitor wild animals and curb poaching
below :
2. Curb cheating and impersonation in
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
examinations (b) 2, 4 and 5 only
3. Ensuring compliance in schools (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
4. Reducing road accident deaths (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

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83. With reference to the Model Code of Conduct, Which one of the statements given above is/are
consider the following statements : correct?
1. The Model Code has been issued by the (a) 1 only
Supreme Court of India to ensure the
(b) 2 only
conduct of free and fair elections.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Some malpractices mentioned in the Model
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Code are listed as ‘corrupt practices’ and
‘electoral offences’ in the Representation of
the People Act of 1951. 86. In which of the following instances does the

Which one of the statements given above is/are Council of States enjoy exclusive powers that
correct ? are not enjoyed by the House of the People?
(a) 1 only (a) Passage of a Constitution amendment bill
(b) 2 only (b) Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the
(c) Both 1 and 2 Supreme Court
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Approval of ordinances issued by the
President
84. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) Authorising Parliament to create a new All-
physics at high angular resolution in nearby
India Service
galaxies (PHANG) project :
1. The project aims to understand the
interplay of the small-scale physics of gas 87. With reference to the initiatives of NITI Aayog,
and star formation with galactic structure which of the following is/are correct?
and galaxy evolution. 1. The ‘NITI For States’ platform aids officials
2. It makes high-resolution observations of in quality decision-making.
nearby galaxies with several telescopes, 2. The Aspirational Districts Programme
including Hubble Space and James Webb
promotes government scheme delivery.
Space Telescopes.
3. Sampoornata Abhiyan aims to develop
Which of the statements given above is/are
an economic growth strategy for Indian city
correct ?
regions.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 4. SDG India Index 2023-24 saw improvement

(c) Both 1 and 2 in the overall score of every state.

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 5. The Growth Hub Program aims to provide
screening for lifestyle diseases.
85. With reference to Parliamentary privileges, Select the correct answer using the code given
consider the following statements: below:
1. Originally, the Constitution of India did not
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
provide for any Parliamentary privilege.
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
2. The Attorney General and Solicitor General
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
of India enjoy Parliamentary privileges
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
when they take part in House proceedings.

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88. Consider the following statements with Select the correct answer using the codes given
reference to the Primary Amoebic below:
Meningoencephalitis: (a) 1 and 2 only
1. It is a communicable and fatal infection (b) 1 and 3 only
affecting brain tissues.
(c) 2 and 3 only
2. This brain-eating amoeba thrives only in
(d) 1, 2 and 3
colder climates around the world.
3. Though no specific treatment is available,
91. Which of the following constitute the
anti-fungal and anti-microbial drugs are
electorates in the elections to the Legislative
used.
Which of the statements given above is/are Councils of the State?

correct ? 1. Members of municipalities

(a) 1 and 2 only 2. District boards

(b) 3 only 3. Primary school teachers
(c) 2 only 4. Member of Legislative Assembly
(d) 1 and 3 only 5. Member of Parliament
Select the correct answer using the code given
89. Consider the following statements:
below:
1. The Council of Ministers is collectively
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
responsible for both the houses of
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Parliament.
(c) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
2. The Council of Ministers holds office during
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
the pleasure of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 92. With reference to Auroras, consider the

(a) 1 only following statements :

(b) 2 only 1. They are natural light display in Earth’s
(c) Both 1 and 2 sky, predominantly seen in high-altitude
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 regions of the Earth.
2. They are caused by the interaction of
90. Which of the following bills lapse on a
energetic particles of the solar wind with
dissolution of the House of the People?
atoms of the upper atmosphere.
1. A bill pending in the Council of States has
Which one of the statements given above is/are
not been passed by the House of the People.
correct ?
2. A bill pending in the House of the People,
(a) 1 only
which is transmitted by the Council of
(b) 2 only
States.
3. A bill passed by the House of the People but (c) Both 1 and 2

pending in the Council of States. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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93. In which of the following cases would the House Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
of the People be presided over by such member not correct?
as the President may appoint for the purpose? (a) 1 only
(a) When both the Speaker and the Deputy (b) 2 only
Speaker are absent (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) When the offices of Speaker and Deputy (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Speaker are vacant
(c) When the office of Deputy Speaker is vacant
96. Consider the following statements with
and the Speaker is absent
reference to the Saubhagya scheme (Pradhan
(d) When a joint session of both Houses is to be
Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana) :
held
1. This will provide electrification of all willing
households in rural and urban areas in
94. With reference to the Secretariat of Parliament,
India.
consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India provides for a 2. After surveying, the concerned district

separate secretarial staff for each House of collectors will determine the beneficiaries of
Parliament. free electricity connections.
2. So far, no law has been passed by 3. Non-poor urban households are included in
Parliament to regulate the recruitment and this scheme.
conditions of service of persons appointed Which of the statements given above is/are
to the Secretariat staff. correct ?
3. The Post of Secretary-General of the (a) 1 and 2 only
Secretariat is equivalent to that of the post (b) 1 and 3 only
of the Cabinet Secretary in the Government (c) 2 only
of India. (d) 1 only
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
97. Consider the following related to used language
(a) 1 and 2 only
in the Parliament and the State Legislature :
(b) 1 and 3 only
1. The Chairperson of the House may permit
(c) 2 and 3 only
any member who cannot adequately
(d) 1, 2 and 3
express himself in Hindi or in English to
address the House in his mother tongue.
95. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chief Election Commissioner can be 2. The Authoritative texts of the bills passed in

removed from office using the same both Parliament and State Legislature
procedure as removing a judge from the should be in English.
high court. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2. The president can remove the election (a) 1 only
commissioners from office only on the (b) 2 only
recommendation of the Chief Election (c) Both 1 and 2
Commissioner. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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98. Though Parliament has the power to legislate

on state subjects under exceptional situations,
under which of the following matters does the
Constitution empower the Centre to control the
State legislature ?
1. Reservation of the bill is for the
consideration of the president by the
governor.
2. State bills impose restrictions on trade,
commerce and intercourse among states.
3. The centre directing the state to reserve the
money bill during a financial emergency
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

99. The anti-defection law, found under the Tenth

Schedule of the Constitution, was enacted to
curb which of the following phenomena
witnessed in the Indian Legislatures ?
(a) Decorum
(b) Interpellation
(c) Crossing the floor
(d) Yielding the floor

100. With reference to the Tawa River, consider the

following statements :
1. It is a significant tributary of the Tapi River,
originating in the Satpura range of
mountains.
2. This river is crucial for irrigation in the
central India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(23-A)
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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

PRESTORMINGTM
Test Booklet Series
TEST BOOKLET
T.B.C : P-SIA-A-GS
GENERAL STUDIES - PAPER – I
Serial : P-GSI-242509
GEOGRAPHY
TEST – 09
A
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with
your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE A PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.66) of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as a penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be the same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

(1-A)
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1. Which among the following is responsible for Which one of the following is correct in respect

identifying the feasibility of river interlinking of the above statements ?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
projects ?
correct, and Statement II is the correct
(a) National Water Development Agency
explanation of Statement I.
(b) Bureau of Water Use Efficiency (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(c) Central Water Commission correct, but Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I.
(d) Namami Gange Programme
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect.
2. Consider the following statements : (d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
1. Deendayal Port is a tidal port that is correct.

decongests trade at the Mumbai port.

4. With reference to Project Nexus, consider the
2. Mormugao port handles the export of more
following statements :
than thirty per cent of India’s iron ore.
1. It is an initiative by the External Affairs
3. Tuticorin Port is an artificial port that Ministry to enhance cross-border retail
handles international cargo exports. payments.

How many of the above statements is/are 2. As of now, it links the Unified Payments
Interface of India only to the Fast
correct ?
Payments System of the United States.
(a) Only one
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Only two correct ?
(c) All three (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(d) None
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Consider the following statements :

Statement 1 : 5. Which of the following statements best

The Meghalaya plateau is rich in mineral describes the term ‘Net sown area’ ?
(a) The physical extent of land on which crops
resources like coal, limestone and
are sown and harvested
uranium, similar to the Chota Nagpur
(b) Area sown more than once in an
plateau. agricultural year
Statement 2 : (c) The total land area under miscellaneous

The Meghalaya Plateau receives maximum tree crops groves

(d) The land left without cultivation for one or
rainfall from the Northeast Monsoon.
less than one agricultural year
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6. Consider the following statements with respect 9. Consider the following pairs :
to Cold Weather Season in India : Himalayan Range
Pass
1. The Peninsular region of India has a more
1. Photu La - Zaskar Range
defined cold weather season than the
2. Khardung La - Great Himalayan
Northern parts of India. Range
2. The Weather conditions are feeble, with 3. Zoji La - Ladakh Range
high pressure over the northern plain, Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?

while in the south, the air pressure is (a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only
lower.
(c) 2 and 3 only
3. Due to anti-cyclonic circulation on land, (d) 1, 2 and 3
Winter monsoons do not cause rainfall in
any parts of India. 10. Consider the following statements :
How many of the statements given above are 1. Piped Natural Gas is safer than Liquefied
Petroleum Gas as a cooking fuel.
correct ?
2. India has cross-border petroleum pipelines
(a) Only one
with Bhutan and Bangladesh.
(b) Only two Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) All three correct ?
(d) None (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
7. Consider the following statements :
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The Vindhya Range constitutes the
northern boundary of the Deccan Plateau. 11. Consider the following statements regarding
2. Aravalli Mountains are older mountains the Inland Waterways Authority of India
(IWAI):
that are the remnants of former mountain
1. In India, Inland waterways contribute
ranges of tectonic origin.
nearly 10 per cent to the country’s
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are transportation.
correct ? 2. In line with Maritime India Vision 2030,
(a) 1 only IWAI increased the share of freight
(b) 2 only movement through Inland Water
Transport.
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. The CAR-D and PANI are web-based
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
portals that provide information about
National Waterways for facilitating cargo
8. With reference to space technology, what is transportation.
Axiom Mission 4 ? Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
(a) Anti-debris satellite mission by ISRO.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Mission to land on the moon by ESA.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Human space flight mission by NASA. (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None of the above. (d) 1, 2 and 3
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12. With reference to the Margin Trading Facility 14. “The Himalayas are young, weak and flexible

(MTF), consider the following statements : in their geological structure”. In this regard,
which of the following explains the above
1. MTF helps investors to buy shares beyond
statement ?
their purchasing power. 1. V-shaped valley.
2. A corporate Member with a net worth of 2. Formation of gorges.
3. Tectonic in origin.
Rs.3 lakhs can offer MTF in India.
4. Rapid Waterfalls.
3. Securities funded through cash collateral Select the correct answer using the codes
are considered as maintenance margin for given below :

MTF. (a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only
How many of the above statements is/are
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
correct ? (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) Only one
15. Consider the following statements with respect
(b) Only two
to soils :
(c) All three 1. Laterite soil is generally rich in humus and
(d) None plant nutrients.
2. Black soil is rich in magnesium, potash
and phosphoric contents.
13. Which of the following factors is responsible
3. Yellow soil gets it colour due to presence
for the concentration of the cotton textile diffused iron in dehydrated form.
industry, particularly in the Ahmedabad- How many of the above statements are
correct?
Mumbai - Pune region ?
(a) Only one
1. This region has a Humid Climate. (b) Only two
2. This region falls under the western (c) All three
(d) None
agroecological zones of cotton cultivation.

3. Being nearer to Mumbai ports facilitates

16. How many of the following are applications of
the import and export of finished goods. 3D hologram technology ?
4. Maharashtra and Gujarat regions have a 1. Curb counterfeiting of currencies.
2. Hologram storage devices.
large market sale of textiles.
3. Illustrations at museums.
Select the correct answer using the codes 4. Help in election campaigns.
given below : Select the correct answer using the code given
below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Only one
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Only two
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) Only three
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) All four

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17. Consider the following pairs : 19. Consider the following statements :

Industrial Major Statement 1 :

Corridor concentrated Monsoonal rainfall, seasonal in character,

is largely governed by topography.
Industries
Statement 2 :
1. Mumbai- - Textiles and
The Windward side of the Western Ghats
Aurangabad pharmaceuticals
receives more rainfall than the leeward
Industrial Corridor side of the Western Ghats.
2. Gurugram- - Automobile Statement 3 :
Bhiwadi-Neemrana industry The northeastern states receive high

Corridor rainfall due to the Eastern Himalayas.

Which of the following is correct with respect
3. Noida - Greater - IT and food
to the above statements ?
Noida - Yamuna processing
(a) Both Statement 2 and Statement 3 are
Expressway industry
correct and both of them explains
Which of the pairs given above are correct ?
Statement 1.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Both Statement 2 and Statement 3 are
(b) 2 and 3 only correct, but only one of them explains

(c) 1 and 3 only Statement 1.

(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Both Statement 2 and Statement 3 are

correct, but none of them explains
Statement 1.
18. Consider the following resources :
(d) Neither Statement 2 nor Statement 3 is
1. Coal deposits in the Ruhr region of
correct.
Germany.

2. Petroleum in West Asia. 20. Consider the following :

3. Dark soils of the Deccan plateau in 1. Sikkim

Maharashtra. 2. Assam

4. Uranium found in Ladakh. 3. West Bengal

4. Meghalaya
How many of the above are said to be actual
How many of the Indian states mentioned
resources ?
above does the River Teesta flow through ?
(a) Only one
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) Only three (c) Only three
(d) All four (d) None

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21. Consider the following pairs : 24. Consider the following statements with respect
Major Geographical Conditions to JUICE Mission :
crops 1. It is a joint initiative of NASA and ESA.
1. Jute - High temperature with high 2. It aims to explore three icy moons of
rainfall
Jupiter.
2. Coffee - Well-drained soils with high
3. It is the first probe to orbit a planetary
humus content
moon other than Earth's.
3. Wheat - Moderate temperature with
Which of the statements given above are
moderate rainfall
4. Rice - Heavy rainfall with clayey correct ?

soil (a) 1 and 2 only

How many of the pairs given above are (b) 1 and 3 only
correct? (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) Only two (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Only three
(c) All four 25. Consider the following :
(d) None
Characte- Characte-
Phenomena
ristic-I ristic-II
22. Consider the following :
1. Positive Winds over Stronger
1. Renukut
. Indian the Indian cyclogenesis
2. Hirakud
3. Koraput Ocean Ocean blow in the Bay
4. Mettur Dipole from east to of Bengal
The above mentioned locations in India are west
known for which metallurgical industry ? 2. Negative Winds over Stronger
(a) Aluminium Indian the Indian cyclogenesis
(b) Copper Ocean Ocean blow in the
(c) Lead
Dipole from west to Arabian Sea
(d) Zinc
east
3. Madden Tropical Affects the
23. Consider the following regions :
Julian disturbance Indian
1. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary
2. Nagarhole National Park Oscillation that Monsoon

3. Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary propagates

4. Silent Valley National Park Westward in
5. Siruvani Hills global tropics
In how many of the above-mentioned regions In how many of the above rows is the given
is the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve located? information correctly matched ?
(a) Only two (a) Only one
(b) Only three
(b) Only two
(c) Only four
(c) All three
(d) All five
(d) None
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26. Which among the following types of forest 29. Consider the following :

biomes can be seen extensively in the areas of Iron and Steel Location
Industry
Western Ghats ?
1. Tata Iron and Steel - Jamshedpur
(a) Tropical evergreen forests Company
(b) Montane forests 2. Indian Iron and Steel - Hirapur
Company
(c) Tropical deciduous forests
3. Visvesvaraiya Iron and - Durg
(d) Thorn forests Steel Works Ltd.
4. Bhilai Steel Plant - Shimoga
How many of the pairs mentioned above are
27. How many of the following rivers have their
correctly matched ?
origin in the Central Highlands ? (a) Only one
1. Luni (b) Only two
(c) Only three
2. Mahi
(d) All four
3. Ken
4. Betwa 30. Consider the following statements :

5. Wainganga 1. The Peninsula region mostly consists of

relict and residual mountains.
Select the correct answer using the codes
2. The river valleys in the Peninsula block are
given below : shallow with low gradients.
(a) Only two 3. The Sahyadri range forms the sharp edge
of the Peninsular Plateau.
(b) Only three
How many of the statements given above are
(c) Only four correct ?
(d) All five (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
28. Consider the following : (d) None
1. Afghanistan
31. Consider the following statements :
2. Bangladesh
1. The Climate of this forest is mainly dry,
3. India with occasional wet periods.
4. Ukraine 2. These areas receive less than 75 cm of
5. Russia annual rainfall.
3. Tussocky grasses grow abundantly in this
How many of the countries mentioned above
type of forest.
are States Parties to the Rome Statute ? Which of the following types of forest is
(a) Only two described above ?
(a) Dry deciduous forest
(b) Only three
(b) Tidal forest
(c) Only four (c) Thorny forest
(d) All five (d) Alpine forest

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32. With reference to Indian grey wolves (Canis 35. Consider the following statements :
lupus pallipes), consider the following Statement 1 :
statements: The northern slopes of the Himalayas have

1. They are territorial and diurnal in nature. thicker vegetation cover than the southern
slopes.
2. They are monogamous and mate for life.
Statement 2 :
3. In the IUCN Red List, they are classified as
The north-facing slopes have relatively
‘Endangered’ species.
lower precipitation levels than the
Which of the statements given above are not
southern slopes of the Himalayas.
correct?
Which of the following is correct with respect
(a) 1 and 2 only to the above statements ?
(b) 1 and 3 only (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(c) 2 and 3 only correct, and Statement II is the correct
(d) 1, 2 and 3 explanation of Statement I.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
33. With respect to the Indian States, Gujarat, correct, but Statement II is not the correct

Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, and Telangana explanation of Statement I.

(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
are respectively the largest producers of :
incorrect.
(a) Soybean, Groundnut, Maize and Rice
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
(b) Groundnut, Soybean, Maize and Rice
is correct.
(c) Soybean, Rice, Groundnut and Maize
(d) Groundnut, Maize, Rice and Groundnut 36. Which one of the following has an extended
wrist bone that helps them grip the food ?
34. Consider the following : (a) Gorilla
A person planned his journey between the (b) Chimpanzee
months of June and September. He had (c) Giant panda
planned to visit the following cities. Arrange (d) Koala

the following cities in the order of decreasing

37. Since 1981, the growth rate of the Indian
rainfall received during the entire travel plan
population has started slowing down gradually
period :
due to which of the following reasons ?
1. Raipur
1. Reduction in birth rate
2. Jaipur
2. Increase in the mean age at marriage
3. Panaji
3. Improved quality of life
4. Lucknow Choose the correct answer using the codes
Arrange them using the codes given below : given below.
(a) 3 - 1 - 4 - 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 - 3 - 4 - 1 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 - 4 - 3 - 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 4 - 1 - 3 - 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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38. With respect to the Distribution of Minerals in 41. Consider the following statements :
India, consider the following statements : Statement-I :
1. The Southwestern plateau regions have
Though the regions below the Tropic of
diversified mineral deposits compared to
Cancer in India are nearer to the equator,
the north-eastern belt.
2. More than 90 percent of coal reserves they do not experience extreme

occur in the valleys of the Damodar, temperatures.

Mahanadi and Godavari. Statement-II :
Which of the statements given above is/are The maritime influence from the east and
correct ?
west sides, occurring due to the peninsular
(a) 1 only
structure of the region, makes the region's
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 temperature relatively milder.

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the following is correct with respect

to the above statements ?

39. Consider the following rivers :
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
1. Kosi
correct and Statement-II explains
2. Chenab
Statement-I.
3. Satluj
4. Beas (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Which of the rivers mentioned above is/are correct, but Statement-II does not explain
considered ‘antecedent’ ? Statement-I.
(a) 3 only
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
(b) 1 and 2 only
incorrect.
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II

is correct.
40. Consider the following :
1. Continuous power generation capacity for
42. The Labour Force Participation Rate is defined
a long duration.
as :
2. Efficiency greater than 70%.
(a) Percentage of employed persons in the
3. Quick start-stop ability.
4. High ramping capability. population.
Which of the characteristics mentioned above (b) Total population growth rate minus
are correct with respect to a Pumped Storage unemployment Rate.
Power Plant ?
(c) Percentage of the working-age population
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
working or actively seeking work.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) Number of employed persons per 1000

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 people in the population in a year.

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43. Consider the following statements about 46. Consider the following statements with respect
fertilizer production in India :
to the retreating monsoon season :
1. India is the world's third-largest producer
1. It is marked by clear skies and a rise in
of nitrogenous fertilisers.
2. India does not have commercially usable temperature.

potassium compound reserves that are 2. During this season, Hot and humid
being mined at present.
weather becomes oppressive in the
Which of the statements given above is/are
Northern plains.
correct ?
(a) 1 only 3. Cyclonic storms develop over the Bay of

(b) 2 only Bengal over this period.

(c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct ?

44. B-READY index, a successor to the Ease of (a) 1 only

Doing Business rankings, has been recently (b) 2 and 3 only

launched by:
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) International Monetary Fund
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) World Economic Forum
(c) World Bank
(d) Asian Development Bank 47. Consider the following :

1. Groundnut
45. Consider the following statements :
2. Linseed
1. The valleys present between the Lesser
Himalayas and the Outer Himalayas on 3. Mustard
the western sides are called Duns. 4. Sesamum
2. Duns and Duars are zones of social
5. Castor seed
interaction between highlanders and
lowland economies. Which of the above crops were grown both as

Which of the statements given above are kharif and rabi crops ?
correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 4 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 4 and 5 only

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48. Consider the following statements with respect 50. Consider the following information :
Types Examples
to Unified Lending Interface : Description
of Lake in India
1. It is developed by the National Payment 1. Playas Shallow lake Sambhar
Lake where water is lake
Corporation of India.
retained only
2. It aims to streamline the loan for a short
duration
disbursement process by integrating
2. Cirque A lake of water Vasuki Tal
various financial service providers on a Lake within the lake
cirque
single platform.
landform after
3. It gives updates on the integrated digital the glacier
disappears
land record systems of state governments. 3. Crator A lake was Lonar lake
How many of the statements given above are Lake created due to
the impact of
correct ? a meteorite

(a) Only one Which of the above-given information is

correctly matched ?
(b) Only two (a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) All three
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None (d) 1, 2 and 3

51. Consider the following statements :

49. Consider the following countries : Statement-I :
The Northeastern State of Mizoram is also
1. Thailand
known as the 'Molasses Basin'.
2. Myanmar Statement-II :
Mizoram is a leading producer of Molasses,
3. Indonesia
a by-product of the Sugar industry.
4. Maldives Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements ?
5. Mauritius (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
How many of the countries mentioned above correct and Statement-II explains
Statement-I.
share a maritime border with India ? (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(a) Only two correct, but Statement-II does not explain
Statement-I.
(b) Only three (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
incorrect.
(c) Only four
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II
(d) All five is correct.

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52. Consider the following : Which of the following rivers are described
1. INS Arihant above ?
2. INS Vagsheer (a) Beas
3. INS Arighat (b) Jhelum

How many of the submarines mentioned above (c) Ravi

are Nuclear-Powered submarines of the Indian (d) Sutlej

Navy?
(a) Only one 55. “Spiti Valley is the cold desert”. In this

(b) Only two context, what makes Agriculture more difficult

in this region?
(c) All three
1. Presence of Shallow soil in the cold desert.
(d) None
2. Presence of Spiti Valley on the windward
side of the Himalayas.
53. With respect to India’s Renewable energy
3. Overuse of fertilisers made the soils acidic.
capacity, consider the following statements :
Select the correct answer using the codes
1. Renewable energy-based electricity
given below :
generation accounts for more than 50 per
(a) 1 only
cent of the country's total installed
(b) 2 only
capacity.
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. India's solar power capacity is higher than
(d) 2 and 3 only
its wind power capacity.
3. India stands 4th in the global renewable
56. Consider the following statements about the
energy installed capacity.
Pacific Framework for Economic Prosperity :
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. The framework will offer tangible benefits
correct ? that fuel economic activity and regional
(a) 2 only investment.
(b) 1 and 2 only 2. Under the framework, IPEF partners are
(c) 2 and 3 only required to join all four pillars.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 3. The IPEF partners represent 40% of the
global GDP and 28% of global goods and
54. Consider the following statements : services trade.
1. It originates in the state of Himachal Which of the statements given above are
Pradesh. correct ?
2. It forms part of the southern boundary (a) 1 and 2 only
between Jammu & Kashmir and Punjab. (b) 2 and 3 only

3. It joins the Chenab River after entering (c) 1 and 3 only

into Pakistan. (d) 1, 2 and 3

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57. Consider the following : Which of the following is correct with respect
Vegetation Tree Species to the above statements ?

1. Wet Tropical - Sandalwood (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are

correct, and Statement II is the correct
Evergreen
explanation of Statement I.
Vegetation
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
2. Moist Tropical - Mahogany correct, but Statement II is not the correct
Deciduous explanation of Statement I.
Vegetation (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
3. Alpine Vegetation - Rhododendron incorrect.

4. Tropical Semi- - Rosewood (d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II

is correct.
evergreen
Vegetation
60. With reference to Kindlins, consider the
How many of the pairs mentioned above are following statements :
correctly matched ? 1. Kindlins are adapter proteins inside the
(a) Only one cells attached to the cell membranes.
(b) Only two 2. They undergo mutations under the

(c) Only three influence of innumerable chemical and

physical carcinogens.
(d) All four
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
58. Which among the following industries uses (a) 1 only
limestone as a raw material ? (b) 2 only
(a) Aluminium (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Cement (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Sugar
61. With reference to the Arunachal Himalayas,
(d) Jute
consider the following statements :
1. This region has the highest hydroelectric
59. Consider the following statements : power potential in India.
Statement 1 : 2. The Shiwalik formations are absent in this
Recently, the Triple Dip La Nina event part of the Himalayas.
improved air quality in north India, while 3. Nanga Parbat and Kanchenjunga are

peninsular India recorded increased important mountain peaks in this region.

Which of the statements given above is/are
pollution.
not correct ?
Statement 2 :
(a) 2 only
The western disturbances during the La (b) 1 and 2 only
Nina event significantly improved the air (c) 3 only
quality in Northern India. (d) 1 and 3 only

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62. Which of the following is connected to the 65. Consider the following information :
East-West Corridor under the Golden Soil
Quadrilateral Project ? Terrain Conservation Its benefits
(a) Siliguri and Porbandar
Method
(b) Moreh and Jaipur
1. Gullies Rock dam Control
(c) Silchar and Porbandar
headward
(d) Dibrugarh and Surat
extension of

63. Consider the following : gullies

Company A likes to develop a fertiliser that is 2. Arid Terrace Prevent
capable of increasing productivity in acidic areas farming encroachment
soils. The Research and Development team of by sand
the Company A has decided to field test the dunes
fertiliser in the soil. Which of the following
3. Slopes Shelterbelts Reduction in
regions/places will be appropriate for the team
surface runoff
for the field test ?
In how many of the above rows is the given
1. Rae Bareli
2. Ratnagiri information correctly matched ?

3. Mangalore (a) Only one

4. Kochi (b) Only two
5. Darjeeling (c) All three
Choose the correct answer using the codes (d) None
given below :
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
66. With reference to the Godavari basin, consider
(b) 2, 3 and 5 only
the following statements :
(c) 3 and 4 only
1. The Godavari River rises from
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of

64. With reference to Butterfly, consider the Maharashtra.

following statements : 2. The Godavari basin is present in six states
1. Butterfly is a nocturnal insect. only.
2. Butterflies are the flagship species. 3. The Godavari basin receives maximum
3. Some butterflies are poisonous.
rainfall during the Southwest monsoon.
4. Some species of butterfly live
Which of the statements given above are
underground.
correct ?
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3

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67. Consider the following statements : How many of the conditions given above
1. Pristine reefs are coral reef ecosystems support the onset of monsoon in India ?
found in the areas with the least human (a) Only one
interference. (b) Only two
2. In India, Pristine reefs are characterised by (c) All three
their high biodiversity in the coastal areas (d) None
of the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are 70. With reference to the Lakshadweep Island
correct ? groups of India, consider the following
(a) 1 only statements :
(b) 2 only 1. The entire island group is built of coral
(c) Both 1 and 2 deposits.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. A majority of the islands in this group are
uninhabited.
68. The PARIVESH portal, sometimes seen in the 3. The entire group of islands is broadly
news, is related to, divided by the Eleventh-degree channel.
(a) It is a trading portal that connects APMC Which of the statements given above are
mandis to create a unified national market correct ?
for agricultural commodities. (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) It is a portal that assists in the preparation (b) 1 and 3 only
and delivery of Environmental Impact (c) 2 and 3 only
Assessments (EC) and Coastal Regulation (d) 1, 2 and 3
Zone (CRZ) clearances.
(c) It is a portal that provides a 71. Consider the following statements :
comprehensive digital health ecosystem for As per the 2011 Census,
the country. 1. Maharashtra is the most populous state in
(d) It is a portal that provides street vendors the country.
with a collateral-free working capital loan 2. Kerala has the highest sex ratio, followed
for their livelihoods. by Puducherry.
3. Nearly 70% of the Indian population are
69. Consider the following conditions : literate.
1. Withdrawal of westerly jet streams from Which of the statements given above are
the north Indian plains correct ?
2. Setting in of the easterly jet stream along (a) 1 and 2 only
15ºN latitude. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. Intense high pressure in the North-western (c) 1 and 3 only
part of the subcontinent (d) 1, 2 and 3

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72. With reference to the Forest Advisory Choose the correct answer using the codes
Committee, consider the following statements : given below :
1. It is a statutory body under the provisions (a) 1 and 2 only
of the Forest (Conservation) Act 1980. (b) 1 and 3 only
2. The primary responsibility for controlling (c) 2 and 3 only
illegal mining is vested with the Forest (d) 1, 2 and 3
Advisory Committee.
3. The diversion of forest land for non-forest 75. Consider the following information :
purposes should be done with the approval Name of
SI.
of the Committee. Peak the State
NO
How many of the statements given above are Hill/Range
correct ? 1. Doddabetta Nilgiri Karnataka
(a) Only one 2. Guru Vindhyah Rajasthan
(b) Only two Shikar
(c) All three 3. Dhupgarh Aravalli Madhya
(d) None Pradesh
In how many of the above rows is the given
73. Consider the following : information correctly matched ?
1. Tapi (a) Only one
2. Subarnarekha (b) Only two
3. Sabarmati (c) All three
4. Periyar (d) None
How many of the rivers mentioned above drain
into the Arabian Sea ? 76. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) Only one Ceramic materials :
(b) Only two 1. Ceramics can typically withstand very hot
(c) Only three or acidic environments.
(d) All four 2. Ceramics are hard and brittle and are
difficult to compress.
74. “Loo are hot surface winds flowing from west 3. Ceramics are used in space shuttles as
to east in Northern India.” Which of the part of the heat shield during atmospheric
following are the reasons for the formation and reentry.
blow of Loo ? Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Position of the Sun in the Tropic of Cancer. correct ?
2. Distant Location of the North-Western Part (a) 1 only
of India from the sea. (b) 1 and 2 only
3. Presence of jet stream above the North (c) 2 and 3 only
India. (d) 1, 2 and 3
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77. If the latitude and longitudinal extent of an 80. Which of the following refers to the potential
Indian State or Union Territory is 27º04’ N to
economic and social benefits that come from
28º07’ N and 88°00' E to 88°55' E, then which
one of the following is that State or Union the term 'silver dividend'?
Territory ?
(a) Differently abled
(a) Puducherry
(b) Chandigarh (b) Girl children
(c) Sikkim
(c) Transgender communities
(d) Goa
(d) An ageing population
78. Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :
Despite being a landlocked State, 81. Consider the following statements :
Rajasthan is one of the leading states in
1. Sugarcane is a weight-losing crop.
terms of total salt production.
Statement-II : 2. In North India, Sugarcane is grown in clay
The lakes and the playas of Rajasthan loamy soil, while in the South, it is grown
have brackish water, which is a major
source of obtaining Salt. in laterites and black cotton soils.

Which one of the following is correct in respect 3. Sugarcane production is higher in tropical
of the above statements ?
regions than in subtropics.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II explains How many of the above statements are
Statement-I.
correct?
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct, but Statement-II does not explain (a) Only one
Statement-I. (b) Only two
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
(c) All three
incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II (d) None
is correct.

79. Consider the following statements : 82. Which of the following types of soil is classified
1. Wular Lake is of tectonic origin.
as histosols found in the world's temperate
2. Kolleru Lake formed from a coastal lagoon.
3. Guru Gobind Sagar is a man-made lake. and tropical regions?

How many of the above statements is/are not (a) Laterite soils
correct ?
(b) Alluvial soils
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (c) Peaty soils
(c) All three
(d) Saline soils
(d) None

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83. Consider the following statements : 85. Nor Westers, a type of local storm in India, is
Statement 1 : useful for the cultivation of which of the
The West flowing rivers like Narmada and following set of crops ?
Tapti lack alluvial and deltaic deposits. (a) Coffee, mango and pepper

Statement 2 : (b) Cotton, gram and mustard

The Narmada and Tapti rivers flow in (c) Tea, jute and rice

trough faults and fill the original cracks (d) Wheat, mustard and maize

with their detritus materials.

Which one of the following is correct in respect 86. With reference to the Fisheries sector in India,
consider the following statements :
of the above statements ?
1. Marine fish production dominated the total
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
fish production in India than inland fish
correct, and Statement II is the correct
production.
explanation of Statement I.
2. Andhra Pradesh is the leading inland fish
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
producer, followed by West Bengal.
correct, but Statement II is not the correct
3. Under PM Matsya Sampada Yojana, cold
explanation of Statement I.
water fisheries are being promoted in all
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
Himalayan States/UTs.
incorrect.
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
correct ?
is correct.
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
84. With reference to the Court of Arbitration for
(c) 1 and 2 only
Sports (CAS), consider the following (d) 2 and 3 only
statements :
1. It was the intergovernmental organisation 87. Consider the following statements with respect
created through the 1994 Paris Agreement. to the Deccan Traps of India :
2. The International Council of Arbitration for 1. It is formed mainly through fissure-type
Sports looks after the administration and volcanic eruptions.
financing of the CAS. 2. It contains granitic rocks.
3. Any individual with the capacity to act can 3. Its thickness decreases from the west to
refer the case to the CAS. the east.
How many of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above are
correct ? correct ?
(a) Only one (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) Only two (b) 1 and 3 only

(c) All three (c) 2 and 3 only

(d) None (d) 1, 2 and 3

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88. Consider the following statements with respect Which one of the following is correct in respect
to PM-WANI : of the above statements ?
1. It aims to provide high-speed internet (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
through a public Wi-Fi network service. correct and Statement-II explains
2. An internet service provider should obtain Statement-I.
a license from the Department of (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Telecommunications to provide Broadband correct, but Statement-II does not explain
Internet through public Wi-Fi networks. Statement-I.
3. The user can access the internet (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
connectivity by making payment in a incorrect.
prepaid or postpaid form. (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II
How many of the statements given above are is correct.
correct ?
(a) Only one 91. Consider the following statements :
(b) Only two Statement-I :
(c) All three
The Himalayas are the prime reason for
(d) None
India to experience the Monsoon Climate.
Statement-II :
89. Arrange the following sources of irrigation
The Himalayas form natural barriers to the
contributing to agriculture in India in
extremely cold and dry winds descending
descending order using the codes given below :
from Central Asia during winter.
1. Government Canals
Statement-III :
2. Private Canals
The Himalayas block the south-west
3. Tanks
monsoon winds during the summer
4. Tube-wells
season, resulting in precipitation on the
Codes :
northern plains of India.
(a) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4
Which one of the following is correct in respect
(b) 4 - 1 - 3 - 2
of the above statements ?
(c) 1 - 4 - 3 - 2
(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are
(d) 4 - 2 - 1 - 3
correct, and both of them explain
Statement I
90. Consider the following statements :
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are
Statement I :
correct, but only one of them explains
The delta formation is usually absent in
Statement I
the rivers draining into the Arabian Sea.
(c) Only one of Statements II and III is correct,
Statement II :
and that explains Statement I
The course of the west-flowing rivers is
comparatively shorter than the east- (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement-III is

flowing rivers. correct

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92. Consider the following statements with respect How many of the pairs mentioned above are
to National Seeds Corporation Limited : not correctly matched ?
1. It is a Mini Ratna company under the
(a) Only one
administrative control of the Ministry of
(b) Only two
Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.
2. It is the nodal agency for the processing (c) All three

plants and storage godowns for seeds (d) None

required to meet the demand that arises
during natural calamities.
95. Consider the following statements :
3. It undertakes the production of certified
Statement-I :
varieties of seeds through its registered
seed growers. In India, a larger proportion of the

Which of the statements given above are population is dependent population.

correct ? Statement-II :
(a) 1 and 2 only In India, the proportion of both main and
(b) 1 and 3 only
marginal workers is less than 40% of the
(c) 2 and 3 only
population.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which one of the following is correct in respect
93. India holds 11% of the world’s deposits of of the above statements ?
ilmenite which is the main source of ? (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(a) Aluminium
correct and Statement-II explains
(b) Titanium dioxide
Statement-I.
(c) Copper
(d) Iron (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

correct, but Statement-II does not explain

94. Consider the following : Statement-I.
List - I List - II
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is
1. Eight Degree - It separates the
incorrect.
channel islands of Minicoy
and Maldives. (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II

2. Nine Degree - It separates the is correct.

channel island of Minicoy
from the main
96. Which of the following cities is the first
Lakshadweep
platinum-rated industrial smart city of India ?
archipelago.
(a) Palakkad
3. Ten Degree - It separates the
channel Andaman Islands (b) Prayagraj
and the Nicobar (c) Dholera
Islands. (d) Kopparthy

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97. Arrange the following rivers in the order of 99. Which of the following rivers is a tributary of

East to West using the codes given below : the river Brahmaputra ?
1. Chambal
(a) Mahananda
2. Ken
(b) Teesta
3. Betwa
(c) Sharada
4. Sindh
Codes : (d) Barak

(a) 3 -2- 4- 1

(b) 2- 3- 4- 1 100. Which of the following is the primary objective

(c) 1- 3- 4- 2 of NASA’s DART mission?
(d) 4 - 2 - 3 - 1 (a) It will help to study the chemical and

physical properties of the surface of

98. Consider the following statements :
Jupiter’s Trojan asteroids
Statement-I :

In India, the cropping intensity has (b) It aims to test a planetary defense

increased compared to the years of the technique called “kinetic impact” with

Green Revolution. asteroids.

Statement-II :
(c) It aims to map the asteroids in the asteroid
In India, the percentage share of area-
belt.
cultivated land in the total Agricultural
(d) It will help to collect the samples of
land has decreased compared to the years

of the green revolution. asteroids to the Earth.

Which one of the following is correct in respect

of the above statements ?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

correct and Statement-II explains

Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are

correct, but Statement-II does not explain

Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is

incorrect.

(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II

is correct.

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DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

PRESTORMINGTM
Test Booklet Series
TEST BOOKLET
T.B.C : P-SIA-A-GS
GENERAL STUDIES - PAPER – I
Serial : P-GSI-242510
ECONOMICS II
TEST – 10
A
Time Allowed : Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with
your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE A PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.66) of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as a penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be the same penalty as above to that
question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

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1. Under the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana, 4. With respect to Sustainable Aviation Fuel
loans can be availed through eligible Member
(SAF), consider the following statements :
Lending Institutions. Which of the following
banks is/are considered an eligible institution 1. It is a biofuel used to power aircraft with
by the scheme ? similar properties to conventional jet fuel.
1. Non-Banking Finance Company
2. It will reduce carbon emissions and lower
2. Rural banks
3. Small Finance Banks India’s crude oil imports annually.
Select the correct answer using the codes
3. It accounts for nearly one-third of the
given below :
(a) 2 only current fuel use for aviation.
(b) 1 and 2 only Which of the above statements are correct ?
(c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. With reference to the Open Credit Enablement
(c) 1 and 3 only
Network (OCEN) framework, consider the
following statements : (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The primary purpose of the OCEN
framework is to replace traditional bank-
5. Consider the following pairs :
based lending with lending through digital
platforms. S.No Assets Characteristics
2. Any digital platform facilitating loan
1. Gold and - Tangible and non-
discovery and origination can become a
Loan Service Provider. Silver Fungible
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Fine art like - Tangible and
correct ?
rare paintings Fungible
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only and sculpture
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. Fiat - Fungible and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
currencies in Intangible
3. Under the PM Gati Shakti National Master digital form
Plan, “Gati Shakti Sanchar” portals have been
4. Patents and - Fungible and
launched to attain which of the following
objectives ? copyrights Tangible
(a) Universal and equitable access to
How many of the pairs given above is/are
Broadband services.
(b) Creating an integrated, efficient and cost- correctly matched ?
effective logistics network. (a) Only one
(c) Extending PM Gati Shakti to the district
(b) Only two
level.
(d) Integrating Goods and Services Tax data (c) Only three
for end-to-end cargo tracking.
(d) All four
(3-A)
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6. With reference to the Prime Minister's 8. With reference to Infrasound, consider the
Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP), following statements :
consider the following statements : 1. Infrasound is the sound wave which has a
1. It is a credit-linked subsidy scheme that very high frequency.
aims to create employment opportunities 2. Volcanoes and earthquakes can produce
by establishing micro-enterprises in the infrasound.
non-farm sector.
3. Infrasound is used to detect nuclear
2. Under the Scheme, margin money is
explosions.
provided to beneficiaries who are availing
Which of the statements given above is/are
loans from banks to set up new
correct ?
enterprises.
(a) 1 only
3. Existing units that have availed of
(b) 1 and 2 only
government subsidy under a state
(c) 2 and 3 only
government scheme are also eligible for
(d) 1, 2 and 3
this Scheme.
4. Khadi and Village Industries Commission
is the nodal agency for implementing this 9. With reference to the New Public Sector

Scheme at the national level. Enterprise (PSE) Policy 2021, consider the

Which of the statements given above is/are following statements :

not correct ? 1. Strategic Disinvestment implies the entire

(a) 1 and 3 only or substantial sale of a PSE's government

(b) 2 and 4 only shareholding along with the transfer of
(c) 3 only management control.
(d) 4 only 2. In Privatization, Government equity in a
PSE is transferred to another PSE along
7. Which of the following ideas supports the view with management control.
that investment in education and basic health 3. In Minority Stake Sales, Government
are integral to human well-being, irrespective
equity in certain CPSEs is carried out
of whether it leads to an increase in labour
without transfer of management.
productivity ?
Which of the statements given above are
(a) Human capital formation
correct ?
(b) Human development
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both Human capital formation and Human
(b) 1 and 3 only
Development
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither Human capital formation nor
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Human development

(4-A)
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10. Under the recently launched ‘Digital 13. The term “BRICS Bridge”, recently seen in the
Agriculture Mission’, the term ‘Agri Stack’ news, is related to :
refers to which of the following ? (a) A proposed cross-border settlement
(a) A registry of farmers, village land maps system.
and crops
(b) A joint infrastructure project connecting
(b) A detailed soil profile map of the country’s
BRICS nations.
agricultural land
(c) Human space missions by BRICS nations.
(c) A geospatial set-up with unified remote
(d) A trade agreement focused on agricultural
sensing information
(d) An online trading platform for agricultural exports in BRICS nations.

commodities.
14. Which of the following statements is not
11. Consider the following statements : correct regarding the National
1. The unemployment rate is the percentage Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) Progress
of people in the working-age population Report 2023 ?
who are unemployed. (a) As per the index, an individual is
2. The labour force participation rate is the
considered MPI poor if their deprivation
percentage of people employed in the
score is less than or equal to the
labour force.
poverty cutoff of 33.33%
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) The report states that all 12 indicators of
correct ?
the index have shown improvement.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (c) The report highlights that rural areas
(c) Both 1 and 2 experienced a faster reduction in their MPI
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 value compared to urban areas.
(d) None of the above statements.
12. With reference to the Monkey Pox Virus,
consider the following statements : 15. According to UNDP’s Human Development
1. Mpox is an infectious disease that can Report – 2024, in which of the HDI
cause a painful rash and enlarged lymph
components did India see an improvement in
nodes.
the year 2022 ?
2. It is an enveloped double-stranded DNA
1. Life expectancy at birth.
virus in the Poxviridae family.
2. Expected years of schooling.
3. Recently, India reported Clade I, which is
the most deadly and virulent variant of 3. GNI per capita.
Mpox. 4. Mean years of schooling.
How many of the statements given above Select the correct answer using the code given
is/are correct ? below :
(a) Only one (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Only two (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) All three (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) None
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(5-A)
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16. With reference to Central Silk Board in India, 4. Upon the death of a subscriber, after 60
consider the following statements : years, his/her spouse will get the same
1. It is a statutory body. pension as the subscriber was entitled to.
2. It is the sole organisation for How many of the statements given above are
comprehensive sericulture Research & correct ?
Development. (a) Only one
3. It is mandated to maintain the four-tier
(b) Only two
silkworm seed production network.
(c) Only three
4. It is under the administrative control of
(d) All four
the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers
Welfare.
19. The government of India has decided to
Which of the statements given above is/are
develop Multimodal Logistics Parks (MMLPs)
not correct?
in India through which ministry ?
(a) 1 only
(a) Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
(b) 2 only
(b) Ministry of Road Transport and
(c) 3 only
(d) 4 only Highways
(c) Ministry of Railway

17. Which of the following statements is true (d) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
regarding "Culturable Waste-Land" ?
(a) It is land that has been left uncultivated 20. With reference to the Space Based
for less than one year. Surveillance (SBS) Mission, consider the
(b) It is land that has been left uncultivated following statements:
for more than five years. 1. It will involve the launch of satellites in
(c) It includes lands under fruit crops and both the low earth orbit and polar orbit.
orchards. 2. It will help improve land and maritime
(d) It cannot be brought under cultivation domain awareness for civilian and military
with the available technology.
applications.
3. It is being handled by the Indian Space
18. With reference to Atal Pension Yojana,
Research Organization under the
consider the following statements :
integrated headquarters in the Prime
1. It was launched to create a universal
Minister’s Office.
social security system for all Indians in the
Which of the statements given above is/are
organized sector.
correct?
2. It is administered by the Pension Fund
(a) 1 only
Regulatory and Development Authority
(PFRDA). (b) 1 and 2 only

3. An income-tax payer is not eligible to (c) 2 only

become a part of this Scheme. (d) 2 and 3 only

(6-A)
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21. With respect to the “Quinary Sector”, consider 23. According to the annual Periodic Labour Force

the following statements : Survey, the all-India annual unemployment

1. It includes policy-making and high-level rate has been witnessing a declining trend
decision-making roles. accompanied by,
2. It primarily involves hands-on, manual
(a) Increase in the labour force participation
services in gold mines.
rate but a decrease in worker to
3. “Gold collar” professionals are often
population ratio
associated with the quinary sector.
(b) Increase in the worker population ratio but
How many of the above statements is/are
decrease in labour force participation rate
correct ?
(c) Decrease in both labour force participation
(a) Only one
rate and worker population ratio
(b) Only two

(c) All three (d) Increase in both labour force

(d) None participation rate and worker

population ratio

22. Consider the following statements about the

global minimum corporate tax : 24. Consider the following pairs :

1. It aims to address tax base erosion by S. Wildlife States
setting a minimum tax rate globally for
No. Sanctuaries
large multinational corporations.
recently seen in the
2. The Organization for Economic
news
Cooperation and Development (OECD) has
1. Kaimur Wildlife - Bihar
proposed a 25% minimum tax rate under
Sanctuary
its Inclusive Framework.
2. Eturnagaram - Andhra
3. All G20 nations have formally
Wildlife Sanctuary Pradesh
implemented the global minimum

corporate tax. 3. Barak Bhuban - Meghalaya

How many of the above statements is/are Wildlife Sanctuary

correct ? Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?

(a) Only one (a) 1 only

(b) Only two (b) 1 and 2 only

(c) All three (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None (d) 2 and 3 only
(7-A)
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25. Regarding Corporate Social Responsibility 28. With reference to the Harit Sagar Green Port
(CSR) in India, consider the following Guidelines for major Indian ports, consider
statements : the following statements :
1. Corporate Social Responsibility in India is 1. Ports must ensure that at least 60% of their
governed by Section 135 of the Companies
energy consumption comes from renewable
Act, 2013.
energy sources by 2030.
2. The annual CSR spending in India has
2. All port buildings constructed after 2023
increased in the last five years.
must follow the "Green Building" concept.
3. In FY22, Maharashtra tops in CSR
spending in India, followed by Karnataka. 3. As per the guidelines, a green belt area

How many of the statements given above should cover more than 50% of the port
is/are correct ? area by 2030.
(a) Only one Which of the guidelines given above are
(b) Only two correct ?
(c) All three (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) None (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
26. The Ayushman Bhav Campaign aims :
(d) 1, 2, and 3
(a) to provide subsidised medicines for critical
illnesses.
29. Consider the following statements about the
(b) to saturate selected healthcare services
Agreement on Marine Biodiversity of Areas
in every village/town across the
country. beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ
(c) to provide health insurance coverage for Agreement) :
underprivileged families. 1. It is an international treaty under the
(d) to provide quality medicines at 50-90 per United Nations Convention on the Law of
cent cheaper than market rates. the Sea (UNCLOS).
2. It addresses the issues of sustainable use
27. Consider the following statements : of marine genetic resources and the
1. Under the Code for Social Security 2020,
transfer of marine technology among the
gig workers are eligible for Employees
countries.
Provident Fund Coverage.
3. All states can become the parties to the
2. Unlike the Public Provident Fund, which is
Agreement if they are the parties to the
only available to government servants, the
General Provident Fund is available to all UNCLOS.
resident Indians. 4. India is not a signatory to the Agreement.
Which of the statements given above is/are How many of the statements given above
correct ? is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 only (b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) All four

(8-A)
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30. Consider the following statements with Which one of the following is correct in respect
reference to India : of the above statements ?
1. Unincorporated enterprises in India are (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
businesses that are not registered as legal correct, and Statement II is the correct
entities by the owners. explanation of Statement I
2. The Annual Survey of Unincorporated (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
Sector Enterprises (ASUSE) covers correct, but Statement II is not the correct

unincorporated non-agricultural explanation of Statement I

establishments such as proprietorships (c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II

is incorrect
and self-help groups.
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
Which of the statements given above is/are
is correct
correct ?
(a) 1 only
33. With reference to the Financial Inclusion
(b) 2 only
Index, consider the following statements :
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. The Index ranges between 0 and 100,
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
where 0 signifies complete financial
exclusion, and 100 indicates full financial
31. The Department for Promotion of Industry and
inclusion.
Internal Trade (DPIIT) recently launched the
2. The Index comprises three broad
BHASKAR initiative for which of the following
parameters namely Access, Usage and
purpose ? Quality.
(a) It provides financial assistance to startups 3. ‘Antardrishti’ is the financial inclusion
for product trials. dashboard launched by the Reserve Bank
(b) It bridges the gap between startups and of India.
investors within the startup ecosystem. How many of the statements given above
(c) It is a startup enabler that assists startups is/are correct ?
in building their business. (a) Only one
(d) It facilitates and promotes Government’s (b) Only two
procurement of products and services from (c) All three
startups. (d) None

32. Consider the following statements : 34. Which of the following is the nodal department
Statement 1 : for coordinating the initiatives under Ease of
Currently, India’s horticulture production Doing Business in India ?

has surpassed the food grain production. (a) NITI Aayog

Statement 2 : (b) Department of Economics

The horticulture production in the country (c) Department for Promotion of Industry
and Internal Trade
has increased as compared to the past
(d) Department of Financial Services
years.

(9-A)
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35. Consider the following statements : 38. Who among the following receives monthly
1. India’s Gross Domestic Product has seen benefits under the Pradhan Mantri Kisan
steady growth ever since Five-Year Plans Maandhan Yojana ?

were introduced. (a) All farmers of 60 years of age or above.

(b) Enrolled farmers of ages 21 to 55.
2. Many banks were nationalised during the
(c) Enrolled farmers of 60 years of age or
Fourth Five-Year Plan.
above.
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) All women farmers of 60 years of age or
correct ?
above.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 39. Consider the following statements :
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. India is a net exporter of agricultural
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 products.
2. The agricultural sector employs more than
36. The ‘BharatGen' initiative, recently launched half of India's population.

by the Union Ministry of Science and 3. India is the largest producer of sugar in
the world.
Technology, is related to :
How many of the above statements is/are not
(a) Quantum computing
correct ?
(b) Whole genome sequencing
(a) Only one
(c) Modelling protein structure
(b) Only two
(d) Multimodal Large Language Model (c) All three
(d) None
37. Which of the following measures could benefit
the agriculture sector of India ? 40. As per the National Policy on Biofuels of 2018,
1. Imposing bans on export of agricultural which was recently Amended in 2022, which
commodities. of the following will qualify as Advanced

2. Trading through futures markets for Biofuels ?

1. Fuels produced from lignocellulosic
agricultural commodities.
feedstocks.
3. Practising water-efficient farming and
2. Fuels having low Green House Gas
irrigation.
reduction.
4. Implementing crop-neutral incentive
3. Second Generation (2G) Ethanol.
schemes. 4. Green diesel from renewable sources.
Select the correct answer using the code given Select the correct answer using the codes
below : given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(10-A)
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41. Consider the following statements : How many of the above statements is/are
1. Tribal women can avail of concessional correct ?
loans under the Adivasi Mahila
(a) Only one
Sashaktikaran Yojna (AMSY).
2. AMSY loans are provided by the National (b) Only two
Scheduled Tribes Finance and (c) All three
Development Corporation.
(d) None
3. The rate of interest under AMSY is 10 per
cent per annum.
Which of the statements given above are 44. Which of the following are the objectives of the
correct ?
Pacific Island Forum?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. Promoting economic growth in the Pacific
(c) 1 and 3 only
region.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Strengthening regional security.
42. Which of the following statements best 3. Addressing climate change and
describes the situation of the “unemployment sustainable development.
trap” ?
4. Promoting military alliances among
(a) It is a situation when unemployment
benefits discourage the unemployed member states.
from going to work. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(b) A state where the working-age population
(a) 1 and 2 only
remains involuntarily excluded from
labour markets due to inadequate (b) 1, 2 and 3 only

employment opportunities. (c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) A condition where technological (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
advancements result in structural
unemployment across multiple sectors
(d) A case where cyclical unemployment 45. Consider the following schemes :
persists due to slow economic recovery 1. Jan Shikshan Sansthan Scheme.
and low consumer demand.
2. National Apprenticeship Promotion

43. Consider the following statements : Scheme.

1. India ranks first globally in fish 3. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana.
production, accounting for 8 percent of How many of the above is/are part of the Skill
global production
India Mission ?
2. Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana
aims to boost fish production in India. (a) Only one
3. The Fisheries and Aquaculture (b) Only two
Infrastructure Development Fund is set up
(c) All three
to provide concessional rate funding in the
(d) None
sector.
(11-A)
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46. Consider the following statements : Which one of the following is correct in respect
1. India’s population has over 90 per cent of of the above statements ?
its youth in the working age group.
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
2. Employment generation is essential to
reap the benefits of the demographic correct, and Statement II is the correct
dividend. explanation of Statement I
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct ?
(a) 1 only correct, but Statement II is not the correct

(b) 2 only explanation of Statement I

(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
incorrect

47. With reference to Micro, Small and Medium (d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
Enterprises (MSMEs), consider the following is correct
statements:
1. The Credit Guarantee Scheme aims to
alleviate the credit constraints faced by 49. Which of the following are the criteria for
MSMEs by offering collateral-free loans. granting Maharatna Status to the Central
2. Registration under the UDYAM portal is
Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) ?
mandatory for the functioning of the
1. The CPSE should have Navaratna status.
MSMEs.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. The CPSE should be listed on the Indian
correct ? Stock Exchange with minimum public
(a) 1 only
shareholding under SEBI regulations.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. The CPSE should have an average annual

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 turnover of more than Rs. 25,000 crore

over the last 3 years.

48. With respect to Global Solar Facility, consider
4. The CPSE should have significant
the following statements :
Statement 1 : international operations.
The Global Solar Facility by the Select the correct answer using the codes
International Solar Alliance aims to resolve
given below :
contractual and financial uncertainties in
the solar energy sector. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

Statement 2 : (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

The Global Solar Facility is a payment
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
guarantee scheme to stimulate solar power
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
projects.

(12-A)
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50. With reference to the Insurance sector in 52. The World Employment and Social Outlook

India, consider the following statements : report, which highlights disparities between
1. Insurance penetration is defined as the high and low-income countries, is published
insurance premium per capita, while by which of the following ?
Insurance density is the ratio of the total
(a) World Economic Forum
insurance premium to the Gross Domestic
(b) International Labour Organization
Product.
(c) World Bank
2. India’s insurance penetration is higher than
(d) Organization for Economic Co-operation
the global average.
and Development
3. To boost India’s insurance sector, the IRDAI

has committed itself to achieving

53. The Government of India recently raised Rs
“insurance for all” by 2047.
36,000 crore via sovereign green bonds in
How many of the above statements is/are

correct ? 2023 to support the expenses associated with

(a) Only one eligible green projects. In this context, how

(b) Only two many of the Projects mentioned below fall

(c) All three within the defined ‘Eligible Categories’ ?

(d) None 1. Clean Transportation.

2. Pollution Prevention and Control.

51. Consider the following statements : 3. Direct waste incineration.
1. In India, more than 40 per cent of the total
4. Subsidy for private transportation using
installed electricity generation capacity is
CNG.
from non-fossil fuel sources.
5. Investments in all Hydropower plants.
2. Among the non-fossil fuel resources, solar
6. Projects for conservation of endangered
power contributes more to the total
species, habitats and ecosystems.
primary energy supply than hydropower.
Select the correct answer using the codes
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
given below
correct ?
(a) Only three
(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only (b) Only four

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only five

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) All six

(13-A)
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54. With reference to the PM Programme for 56. Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park,

Restoration, Awareness Generation, recently selected as a finalist for the World

Association of Zoos and Aquariums (WAZA)
Nourishment, and Amelioration of Mother
Conservation Award 2024, is known for its
Earth (PM-PRANAM) initiative, consider the captive breeding conservation of which of the
following statements : following species?
(a) Caracal
1. PM-PRANAM incentivises states to reduce
(b) Pygmy Hog
the consumption of chemical fertilisers. (c) Musk deer
2. States receive 100% of the fertiliser (d) Red Panda

subsidy saved by reducing chemical

57. Consider the following statements with respect
fertiliser consumption as a grant. to Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) :
3. The scheme promotes the use of organic 1. InvIT is an investment instrument that
works similarly to mutual funds.
manure to boost sustainable productivity
2. InvITs are regulated by the Securities and
in agriculture.
Exchange Board of India (SEBI).
How many of the above statements is/are 3. The units of InvITs can be traded on stock
correct ? exchanges.
How many of the statements given above are
(a) Only one
correct ?
(b) Only two (a) Only one
(c) All three (b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
(d) None

55. Consider the following financial institutions : 58. Which one of the following best describes the
term "Takeout Financing" ?
1. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
(a) A mechanism where a borrower takes a
Development (NABARD) new loan to pay off the existing loans,
2. Regional Rural Banks consolidate debt and reduce interest rates.

3. Small Finance Banks (b) A mechanism where a long-term loan

replaces a short-term loan to reduce the
4. Schedule Commercial Banks
funding risk of long-term infrastructure
Which of the above-mentioned financial projects.
institutions provides credit to the farmers for (c) A process whereby the bank approves
long-term loans for infrastructure projects
their short and long-term needs ?
and releases the loan amount on a
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only recurring basis.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) A process where the unpaid loans of the
infrastructure projects are recovered by
(c) 2 and 4 only
selling the infrastructure developed to
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 distressed debt buyers.
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59. Consider the following : Which of the statements given above are
1. Meat and Meat Products correct ?
2. Poultry and Poultry Products
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. Dairy Products
4. Alcoholic and Non-Alcoholic Beverages (b) 2 and 3 only

The Agricultural and Processed Food Products (c) 1 and 3 only

Export Development Authority (APEDA) is (d) 1, 2 and 3
mandated with the responsibility of export
promotion and development of which of the
above mentioned products ? 62. Consider the following statements :

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only 1. The Reserve Bank of India announces the

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only sectors eligible for Priority Sector Lending
(c) 2 and 4 only
(PSL).
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Small Finance Banks are not allowed to

60. With respect to Mission Mausam, consider the lend under PSL norms.
following statements : 3. All food & agro-processing activities are
1. The mission provides highly accurate and
eligible for PSL loans in India.
timely weather information by deploying
high-performance supercomputers. 4. Udyam Portal aids Retail Traders in

2. The mission is chiefly implemented by the registering MSMEs to avail of PSL benefits.
Ministry of Earth Science. Which of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
correct ?
(a) 1 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

61. Consider the following statements regarding

the Indian Renewable Energy Development 63. Which of the following is not an advantage of
Agency (IREDA) : computerising Primary Agricultural Credit
1. They are registered as a Non-Banking
Societies ?
Financial Company (NBFC).
2. They can set up overseas subsidiaries. (a) Enhances transparency in governance

3. They provide financial support to specific (b) Speedy disbursal of loans

projects and schemes for generating (c) Increased imbalances in payments
electricity through new and renewable
(d) Decreased transaction costs
sources.

(15-A)
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64. Consider the following statements : 67. Consider the following statements regarding
1. Cyber slavery is a form of modern ‘Core Industries’ :
exploitation that begins with online
1. The core industries comprise around 40%
deception and evolves into physical human
trafficking. of the weight of items included in the

2. In India, cyber slavery is prohibited under Index of Industrial Production (IIP).

the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act of 2. The current base year for calculating the
1956.
Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is
3. In India, Maharashtra has the highest
2011-12.
number of people affected by cyber slavery.
How many of the statements given above 3. Electricity has the lowest weight in the
is/are correct ? Core Industries Index.
(a) Only one
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Only two
correct ?
(c) All three
(d) None (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
65. Consider the following ports : (c) 2 and 3 only
1. Vizhinjam International Seaport
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Vadhavan port
3. Galathea Bay port
In the recent past, which of the above has 68. Consider the following pairs :
been part of the Maritime Amrit Kaal Vision
Paryatan Mitra States
2047 for the sustainable maritime sector ?
(a) 1 only sites in news

(b) 1 and 2 only

1. Bodhgaya - Uttar Pradesh
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Kurukshetra - Haryana

66. With reference to "indicative planning", which 3. Jodhpur - Gujarat

one of the following statements is correct” ?
4. Aizawl - Mizoram
(a) It emphasises state control over all sectors
without reliance on the market
5. Orchha - Maharashtra
mechanism.
(b) It allows private sector autonomy while How many of the pairs mentioned above are
guiding the economy through fiscal and correctly matched ?
monetary policies.
(a) Only two
(c) It mandates centralised economic targets
(b) Only three
for all sectors.
(d) It is primarily associated with direct (c) Only four
investment in public enterprises. (d) All five

(16-A)
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69. Consider the following : 72. Which of the following is the objective of “the
1. Fixating of minimum import price Seva Se Seekhen Program” by the Ministry of
2. A requirement limiting the use of
Youth Affairs and Sports ?
hormones in meat production
(a) To develop the personality and leadership
3. Requirement that goods must be shipped
directly from the country of origin, without qualities of the youth and to engage them
stopping at a third country in nation-building activities..
How many of the measures mentioned above
(b) To develop the personality and character of
would be classified as Non-tariff measures in
student youth through voluntary
international trade ?
(a) Only one community service.

(b) Only two (c) To develop the personality and leadership

(c) All three
qualities of the youth and promote the
(d) None
spirit of ‘dignity of labour’.

70. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of (d) To provide hands-on learning

‘Hydroponics’ in comparison to conventional experiences for young people while

farming practices ? offering crucial assistance to patients in
(a) High upfront infrastructure cost.
hospitals.
(b) Absence of natural pollinators in
controlled conditions.
(c) Limited range of crops cultivable 73. With reference to Special Economic Zones
commercially. (SEZ), consider the following statements :
(d) Less water requirement.
1. SEZs are treated as a territory outside the

customs territory of India.

71. Which of the following is the correct sequence
in the ascending order regarding production of 2. Only manufacturing activities are allowed

the given foodgrains in India (lakh metric in SEZs.

tonnes) ?
3. SEZ units should achieve positive net
1. Wheat
foreign exchange from the commencement
2. Rice
3. Maize of production for a period of five years.

4. Pulses Which of the statements given above is/are

Select the correct answer using the codes correct ?
given below :
(a) 1 only
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2-3-1-4
(c) 3-4-2-1 (c) 3 only
(d) 4-3-1-2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
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74. Consider the following statements regarding Which of the statements given above are
Jute production : correct ?
1. India is the largest producer of Jute, (a) 1 and 2 only
followed by Bangladesh. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. India accounts for 75% of the global Jute (c) 1 and 3 only
exports. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. The National Jute Board is a statutory body
to promote jute production in India and its
77. With reference to the Commission for
products abroad.
Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP), consider
Which of the statements given above is/are
the following statements :
correct ?
1. CACP, under the Ministry of Finance,
(a) 1 only
approves the Minimum Support Price
(b) 1 and 2 only
(MSP) in India.
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. The Calculation of MSP by CACP includes
(d) 1, 2 and 3
both family labour and hired labour.

75. A multi-stakeholder Disaster Management 3. CACP only has members who are

Exercise conducted to integrate India's government officials.

disaster management community and How many of the above statements is/are

enhance preparedness and response correct ?

capabilities by the National Disaster (a) Only one
Management Authority is : (b) Only two
(a) Exercise Prakram (c) All three
(b) Exercise Shakti (d) None
(c) Exercise Aikya
(d) Exercise Suraksha 78. Consider the following statements with respect
to the patent rules, 2024 :
76. With reference to the Bharat New Car 1. It aims to increase ease in the patenting
Assessment Program (BNCAP), consider the
process in India.
following statements :
2. The ‘Certificate of Inventorship’ aims to
1. The Assessment is evaluated on three
recognise contributions by inventors in the
parameters: adult occupant protection,
patented invention.
child occupant protection and safety assist
Which of the statements given above is/are
technologies.
correct ?
2. The Assessment is mandatory for all cars
(a) 1 only
manufactured in India.
(b) 2 only
3. The BNCAP programme can increase the
(c) Both 1 and 2
export worthiness of Indian manufactured
cars. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(18-A)
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79. With reference to the microfinance sector in Which of the statements given above is/are
India, consider the following statements : correct?
1. India has the largest microfinance sector (a) 1 and 2 only
in the world in terms of number of (b) 2 and 3 only
borrowers. (c) 1 and 3 only
2. The RBI has capped the Microfinance (d) 2 only
institutions to charge a maximum interest
on loans. 82. Consider the following statements about the

Which of the statements given above is/are "Green Revolution" in India:

correct ? 1. It primarily benefited wheat-producing

(a) 1 only regions in northwestern India.

(b) 2 only 2. The increased wheat production during this

(c) Both 1 and 2 period is attributed to the Mexican dwarf

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 wheat variety.

3. It increased the use of fertilisers and
irrigation.
80. Which of the following are the components of
Which of the statements given above is/are
the Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay
correct?
SanraksHan Abhiyan (PM AASHA) scheme ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. Price Support scheme
(b) 1 and 3 only
2. Price Stabilization Fund
(c) 2 only
3. Price Deficit Payment Scheme
(d) 1, 2, and 3
4. Market Intervention Scheme
Select the correct answer using the codes
83. With reference to the Smart Cities Mission,
given below :
consider the following statements:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
1. The Mission promotes the development of
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
greenfield projects.
(c) 3 and 4 only
2. e-Governance is one of the critical
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
components of the mission.
3. The mission primarily focuses on urban
81. Consider the following statements about the
areas, including both tier-1 cities and
Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961):
smaller towns.
1. It was based on the Harrod-Domar model.
How many of the above statements is/are
2. The plan aimed to establish a socialist
correct?
pattern by increasing state control over key
(a) Only one
industries.
(b) Only two
3. It marked a shift from agricultural to
(c) All three
industrial development as a priority.
(d) None
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84. With reference to the Hybrid Annuity Model 87. Which of the following are the features of
(HAM) for road projects in India, consider the Green Energy Open Access Rules?
following statements: 1. Green Open Access is allowed to any
1. The government pays 40% of the project consumer who purchases a minimum of
cost during the construction phase and
100 kW of green energy.
60% during the operation phase.
2. The consumers are entitled to demand a
2. It removes all construction and
supply of Green Power from Discoms.
maintenance risks from the private
3. The Approval for Green Open Access will
partner.
be granted within 15 days of application
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
submission.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the codes

(c) Both 1 and 2 given below:

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only
85. Justice Biplab Sarma Committee that was (c) 2 and 3 only
recently seen in the news is related to : (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Drafting of the Personal Data Protection
Bill. 88. With reference to the International
(b) Strengthen laws related to sexual assault
Telecommunication Union (ITU), consider the
and other crimes against women.
following statements:
(c) Implementation of Clause 6 of the
1. It is a specialised agency of the United
Assam Accord.
Nations for information and
(d) Reviewing of the criminal justice system in
communication technologies.
India.
2. The World Telecommunication

86. Consider the following statements: Standardization Assembly (WTSA), held

1. The expenses of fishermen to meet their every four years, is one of the three world
working capital requirements are covered conferences organised by ITU.
under the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) facility. 3. India is hosting WTSA for the first time in
2. Under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya New Delhi, marking a historic milestone as
Sampada Yojana, an enrolled beneficiary the first ITU-WTSA to be held in the Asia-
will receive financial support every year Pacific region.
during the fishing ban period.
Which of the statements given above are
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

(20-A)
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89. Which of the following is not correct about Statement-III :

NITI Aayog ? In the National Pension Scheme, the
(a) It is not a constitutional body.
amount received as a pension depends on
(b) It discourages competitive federalism.
(c) It replaced the Planning Commission investment returns, which are market-
(d) It has a bottom-up approach to planning. linked.
Which one of the following is correct in respect
90. Consider the following statements with respect
of the above statements ?
to the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP):
1. It comprises any infrastructure projects of (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are
above INR 100 Crores which is under correct and both Statements explain
conceptualisation or under Statement I
implementation.
(b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are
2. The transport and energy sectors account
for more than 50% of NIP's projected correct, but only one of the Statements
infrastructure investments. explains Statement-I
3. Most of the projects under NIP are (c) Only one out of Statements II and III is
implemented through the Public-Private
correct and explains Statement I
Partnership (PPP) model.
How many of the statements given above (d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is
is/are correct? correct
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
93. With reference to X-band radar, consider the
(c) All three
(d) None following statements :
1. X-band corresponds to wavelengths of
91. Which of the following states has the highest around 2-4 cm in the microwave part of
Percentage of Navigable Length to Total Length
the spectrum.
of Waterways in India?
(a) Andhra Pradesh 2. It can track and record changes in the
(b) Assam Earth's various natural processes and also
(c) West Bengal improve weather forecasting.
(d) Nagaland
3. It will be a part of the NASA-ISRO

92. Consider the following statements : Synthetic Aperture Radar, which will
Statement-I : produce a high-resolution map of the
Unlike the National Pension Scheme which Earth's land masses.
gives retired government servants ‘Defined
Which of the statements given above is/are
Contribution Pension’, the Unified Pension
Scheme gives ‘Defined Benefit Pension’. not correct ?
Statement-II : (a) 1 only
The Unified Pension Scheme assures (b) 1 and 2 only
government employees 50% of the average
(c) 3 only
basic pay drawn over the last 12 months
prior to superannuation as a pension. (d) 1 and 3 only

(21-A)
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94. Which of the following best describes about 97. With respect to elongated Tortoise (Indotestudo
Vishvasya Blockchain Technology Stack? elongate), consider the following statements :
(a) It is a portal that contains information 1. The tortoise has a pink ring in its nostril
about the latest updates on blockchain that appears only during the breeding
technology. season.
(b) It addresses the challenges of the 2. The male tortoise tends to be wider than
adoption of Blockchain across various the females.
stakeholders.
3. It is mainly found in the Sal deciduous
(c) It is developed especially for startups to
and hilly evergreen forests.
rapidly prototype applications for research
4. These species can also survive in cold
and capacity building.
climates.
(d) It is an innovative blockchain-enabled
Which of the statements given above are
solution for verifying mobile app origins.
correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only
95. With respect to State Food Safety Index 2024,
(b) 2 and 4 only
consider the following statements :
1. The index evaluates the food safety (c) 1 and 3 only

performance of Indian states and union (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

territories based on Food Testing and

compliance. 98. Consider the following statements :
2. Among the Large States in India, Tamil Statement 1 :
Nadu is the top-ranking state in the index, India’s share of global Green greenhouse
followed by Gujarat and Maharashtra. gas emissions has steadily increased after
3. The index is released by the Food Safety the COVID-19 pandemic.
and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI). Statement 2 :
How many of the statements given above Over 80 percent of India's primary energy
is/are correct ? consumption comes from fossil fuels and
(a) Only one the energy industry is the main
(b) Only two contributor to GHG emissions.
(c) All three Which one of the following is correct in respect
(d) None
of the above statements ?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are
96. The Global Innovation Index (GII) offers a
correct, and Statement II is the correct
comprehensive evaluation of global innovation
explanation of Statement I
by tracking the performance of 133 economies
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are
published by which of the following
correct, but Statement II is not the correct
organizations?
explanation of Statement I
(a) World Bank
(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
(b) World Economic Forum
(c) World Intellectual Property incorrect

Organization. (d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II

(d) World Trade Organization is correct

(22-A)
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99. The National Biodiversity Strategy and Action

Plan Tracker (NBSAP), to monitor the progress

of countries in adopting the goals of the Global

Biodiversity Framework (GBF), has been

developed by :

(a) International Union for Conservation of

Nature

(b) World Wide Fund for Nature

(c) World Economic Forum

(d) Convention on Biological Diversity

100. Recently, The Amazon River basin is

experiencing an unprecedented drought, with

water levels plummeting to historic lows

across the region. In which of the following

countries does the Amazon River basin flow

through?

1. Paraguay

2. Guiana

3. Colombia

4. Peru

5. Bolivia

Select the correct answer using the codes

given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

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